Official Paper

RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held on:20 February 2021) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the given questions

Six people P, Q, R, S, T, and U live in a building consisting of 6 floors, where the ground floor is numbered as 1 and the topmost floor is numbered as 6. They like all different colors red, blue, black, yellow, green, and white but not necessarily in the same order. R lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the topmost floor. The person who likes blue color lives at least above two floors. There are three persons living between the one who likes yellow and the one who likes green color. S lives on the lowermost floor and likes green color. The person who likes blue color lives immediately below the one who likes white color. P and Q live above the 4th floor. The persons who like yellow color lives immediately below the one who likes red color. The one who likes black color lives immediately below the one who likes blue color. U does not like blue color. No person lives between T and R. Either one or two persons live between U and S. Q does not like red color.

Which color is liked by Q?

((a))
Black
((b))
Yellow
((c))
Red
((d))
Blue
((e))
Green

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Yellow

Given statements: Six people P, Q, R, S, T, and U live in a building consisting of 6 floors, where the ground floor is numbered as 1 and the topmost floor is numbered as 6. They like all different colors red, blue, black, yellow, green, and white but not necessarily in the same order.

I. R lives on an even-numbered floor.

II. S lives on the lowermost floor and likes green

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6			6
5			5
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

III. Three persons live between the one who likes green color and who likes yellow color.

IV. The person who likes yellow color lives immediately below the one who likes red color.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6		Red	6		Red
5		Yellow	5		Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

V. P and Q live above the 4th floor

VI. Q does not like red.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VII. No person lives between R and T

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3	T		3	T
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VIII. Either one or two persons live between U and S.

Case 2 gets canceled as there is at least one person living between U and S, but in case 2 it is not possible

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T
2	R
1	S	Green

IX. U does not like blue color.

X. The one who likes black color lives immediately below the one who likes blue color.

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

The final arrangement is:-

Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U	White
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

Hence, Yellow color is liked by Q

Which person is related to Q in the same way as P is related to U?

((a))
The one who likes blue
((b))
S
((c))
T
((d))
The one who likes red color
((e))
Both 1 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both 1 and 3

I. R lives on an even-numbered floor.

II. S lives on the lowermost floor and likes green

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6			6
5			5
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

III. Three persons live between the one who likes green color and who likes yellow color.

IV. The person who likes yellow color lives immediately below the one who likes red color.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6		Red	6		Red
5		Yellow	5		Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

V. P and Q live above the 4th floor

VI. Q does not like red.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VII. No person lives between R and T

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3	T		3	T
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VIII. Either one or two persons live between U and S.

Case 2 gets canceled as there is at least one person living between U and S, but in case 2 it is not possible

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T
2	R
1	S	Green

IX. U does not like blue color.

X. The one who likes black color lives immediately below the one who likes blue color.

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

The final arrangement is:-

Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U	White
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

As U lives two floors below P, in the same way, T who likes blue color lives two floors below Q

Hence, the answer is both 1 and 3

Who lives on 3rd floor?

((a))
Q
((b))
The one who likes red color
((c))
The one who likes blue color
((d))
R
((e))
S

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The one who likes blue color

I. R lives on an even-numbered floor.

II. S lives on the lowermost floor and likes green

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6			6
5			5
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

III. Three persons live between the one who likes green color and who likes yellow color.

IV. The person who likes yellow color lives immediately below the one who likes red color.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6		Red	6		Red
5		Yellow	5		Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

V. P and Q live above the 4th floor

VI. Q does not like red.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VII. No person lives between R and T

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3	T		3	T
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VIII. Either one or two persons live between U and S.

Case 2 gets canceled as there is at least one person living between U and S, but in case 2 it is not possible

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T
2	R
1	S	Green

IX. U does not like blue color.

X. The one who likes black color lives immediately below the one who likes blue color.

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

The final arrangement is:-

Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U	White
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

Hence, the one who likes blue color lives on the 3rd floor

Who lives immediately above the person who likes white color?

((a))
The person who likes green color
((b))
R
((c))
The person who likes Yellow
((d))
Q
((e))
Both 3 and 4

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both 3 and 4

I. R lives on an even-numbered floor.

II. S lives on the lowermost floor and likes green

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6			6
5			5
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

III. Three persons live between the one who likes green color and who likes yellow color.

IV. The person who likes yellow color lives immediately below the one who likes red color.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6		Red	6		Red
5		Yellow	5		Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

V. P and Q live above the 4th floor

VI. Q does not like red.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VII. No person lives between R and T

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3	T		3	T
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VIII. Either one or two persons live between U and S.

Case 2 gets canceled as there is at least one person living between U and S, but in case 2 it is not possible

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T
2	R
1	S	Green

IX. U does not like blue color.

X. The one who likes black color lives immediately below the one who likes blue color.

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

The final arrangement is:-

Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U	White
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

It is clear that Q who likes yellow color lives immediately above the person who likes white color.

Hence, the answer is both 3 and 4

What is the sum of the floors on which T and R lives?

((a))
Four
((b))
Three
((c))
Two
((d))
Five
((e))
One

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Five

Given statements: Six people P, Q, R, S, T, and U live in a building consisting of 6 floors, where the ground floor is numbered as 1 and the topmost floor is numbered as 6. They like all different colors red, blue, black, yellow, green, and white but not necessarily in the same order.

I. R lives on an even-numbered floor.

II. S lives on the lowermost floor and likes green

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6			6
5			5
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

III. Three persons live between the one who likes green color and who likes yellow color.

IV. The person who likes yellow color lives immediately below the one who likes red color.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6		Red	6		Red
5		Yellow	5		Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

V. P and Q live above the 4th floor

VI. Q does not like red.

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3			3
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VII. No person lives between R and T

Case 1	Case 2
Floor	Persons	Colors	Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red	6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow	5	Q	Yellow
4			4	R
3	T		3	T
2	R		2
1	S	Green	1	S	Green

VIII. Either one or two persons live between U and S.

Case 2 gets canceled as there is at least one person living between U and S, but in case 2 it is not possible

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T
2	R
1	S	Green

IX. U does not like blue color.

X. The one who likes black color lives immediately below the one who likes blue color.

Case 1
Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

The final arrangement is:-

Floor	Persons	Colors
6	P	Red
5	Q	Yellow
4	U	White
3	T	Blue
2	R	Black
1	S	Green

As T lives on the 3rd floor and R lives on the 2nd floor, the sum of floors of T and R is 5

Hence, the sum of the floors on which T and R lives is five

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the given questions

A certain number of persons went to a party at Anil's house. Everyone present at the party is related to Anil in some way. Apoorva is the maternal grandmother of Ashok and has three children, two daughters, and one son. Anil is the son of Arun, who is the husband of Apoorva. Amit is married to Aman, who is the son-in-law of Apoorva. Amar is the mother of Ashok and sister of Amit.

If Ashok is married to Ashwani, then how will Ashwani be related to Arun?

((a))
Daughter-in-law
((b))
Daughter
((c))
Son-in-law
((d))
Brother
((e))
Cannot be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Cannot be determined

From the given information,

I. Apoorva is the maternal grandmother of Ashok.

II. Apoorva has three children, two daughters, and one son.

III. Anil is the son of Arun, who is the husband of Apoorva

IV. Amit is married to Aman, who is the son-in-law of Apoorva.

V. Amar is the mother of Ashok and sister of Amit

According to the question,

It is not clear either Ashwani is male or female, so the gender of Ashwani cannot be determined

Hence, the answer is cannot be determined

If Ashok is the son of Amar, then how is he related to Anil?

((a))
Niece
((b))
Son
((c))
Nephew
((d))
Brother
((e))
Sister

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Nephew

From the given information,

I. Apoorva is the maternal grandmother of Ashok.

II. Apoorva has three children, two daughters, and one son.

III. Anil is the son of Arun, who is the husband of Apoorva

IV. Amit is married to Aman, who is the son-in-law of Apoorva.

V. Amar is the mother of Ashok and sister of Amit

According to the question,

Hence, if Ashok is the son of Amar, then Ashok is the nephew of Anil

Which of the following pairs are married?

((a))
Arun, Ashok
((b))
Amit, Anil
((c))
Apoorva, Amar
((d))
Apoorva, Arun
((e))
Amar, Aman

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Apoorva, Arun

From the given information,

I. Apoorva is the maternal grandmother of Ashok.

II. Apoorva has three children, two daughters, and one son.

III. Anil is the son of Arun, who is the husband of Apoorva

IV. Amit is married to Aman, who is the son-in-law of Apoorva.

V. Amar is the mother of Ashok and sister of Amit

Hence, Apoorva and Arun are married

Which of the following symbols should replace '?' in the given expression in order to make expression P > Q definitely true?

R = N > Q ? T < V = O ? P ≥ S ≤ U

((a))
<, <
((b))
>, <
((c))
<, ≥
((d))
>, ≥
((e))
≥, ≥

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

<, <

Given statement: R = N > Q ? T < V = O ? P ≥ S ≤ U

To make expression P > Q definitely true in the above statement,

I. T must be greater than or equal to Q (T > Q, T = Q, T ≥ Q )

II. P must be greater than or equal to O (P > O, P = O, P ≥ O)

From the options, Q < T, O < P

Hence, the answer is <, <

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

In a certain code language,

'employees are always punctual' is written as 'bla pla cla sla'

'managers are always appreciated' is written as 'mla sla pla tla'

'managers work with efficiency' is written as 'rla fla tla gla'

'juniors always admire seniors' is written as 'dla hla sla ola'

What is the code for 'punctual juniors' in that language?

((a))
bla ola
((b))
cla ola
((c))
cla hla
((d))
bla dla
((e))
Cannot be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Cannot be determined

Since the codes for both 'punctual' and 'juniors' are unknown, the code for 'punctual juniors' cannot be detemined.

Hence, the code for 'punctual juniors' cannot be determined.

If 'managers are seniors' is coded as 'ola pla tla', then what will be the code for 'seniors' in that language?

((a))
dla
((b))
tla
((c))
ola
((d))
pla
((e))
hla

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

ola

Given statement: 'managers are seniors' is coded as 'ola pla tla'

As 'seniors' is common in the given statement and in statement 4 of the question and the common code in both the statements is 'ola' so 'seniors' will be coded as 'ola'.

Hence, 'seniors' will be coded as 'ola'.

What can be the code for 'appreciated' in that language?

((a))
rla
((b))
fla
((c))
gla
((d))
mla
((e))
Cannot be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

mla

As code for 'managers' is 'tla', 'are' is 'pla', 'always' is 'sla', so only 'mla' is left which will be the code for 'appreciated'.

Hence, 'appreciated' will be coded as 'mla'.

What is the code for 'punctual' in that language?

((a))
cla
((b))
bla
((c))
pla
((d))
Either 2 or 3
((e))
Either 1 or 2

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Either 1 or 2

From statement 1, as code for both 'employees' and 'punctual' are unknown, so 'punctual' can be coded as either 'bla' or 'cla'

Hence, answer is either 1 or 2.

What is the code for 'are' in that code language?

((a))
sla
((b))
pla
((c))
bla
((d))
cla
((e))
Cannot be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

pla

Hence, code for 'are' is 'pla'.

Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.

Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are sitting on a circular table. Five persons are facing outside while four are facing inside. Not more than two persons facing the same direction are sitting together. F is sitting third to the right of A who is facing inside. Three persons are sitting between F and E. B and G are sitting immediate left of each other. C is sitting third to the right of H who is one of the neighbours of A. H is not facing outside. Two persons are sitting between D and I who is adjacent to C. E, who is not sitting adjacent to B, is one of the immediate neighbours of H. F is sitting to the immediate left of C while to the immediate right of D.

Four of them belong to a certain group and follow a certain pattern which one of the following does not belong to that group?

((a))
F
((b))
H
((c))
G
((d))
A
((e))
D

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I

Five persons are facing outside while four are facing inside.

1) F is sitting third to the right of A who is facing inside.

Three persons are sitting between F and E.

Since it is not clear E is sitting in which direction with respect to F, two cases will be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2:

3) C is sitting third to the right of H who is one of the neighbours of A.

H is not facing outside.

In case 2, H can either sit to the right of A or to the left of A. So, two cases can be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2(a):

Case 2(b):

5) Two persons are sitting between D and I who is adjacent to C.

6) E, who is not sitting adjacent to B, is one of the immediate neighbours of H.

E is the neighbour of H only in case 2(b). So other cases will be cancelled.

7) B and G are sitting immediate left of each other.

From point 6, E cannot sit adjacent to B, so the diagram will be as follows:

8) F is sitting to the immediate left of C while to the immediate right of D.

9) Not more than two persons facing the same direction are sitting together.

All except D are facing inside while D is facing outside.

Hence, D does not belong to that group.

If C and B exchange their positions, who will sit third to the left of C?

((a))
E
((b))
A
((c))
H
((d))
F
((e))
D

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I

Five persons are facing outside while four are facing inside.

1) F is sitting third to the right of A who is facing inside.

Three persons are sitting between F and E.

Since it is not clear E is sitting in which direction with respect to F, two cases will be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2:

3) C is sitting third to the right of H who is one of the neighbours of A.

H is not facing outside.

In case 2, H can either sit to the right of A or to the left of A. So, two cases can be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2(a):

Case 2(b):

5) Two persons are sitting between D and I who is adjacent to C.

6) E, who is not sitting adjacent to B, is one of the immediate neighbours of H.

E is the neighbour of H only in case 2(b). So other cases will be cancelled.

7) B and G are sitting immediate left of each other.

From point 6, E cannot sit adjacent to B, so the diagram will be as follows:

8) F is sitting to the immediate left of C while to the immediate right of D.

9) Not more than two persons facing the same direction are sitting together.

H sits third to the left of C.

Hence, If C and B exchange their positions, H will sit third to the left of C.

Who is sitting second to the right of the person who is third to the right of I?

((a))
A
((b))
H
((c))
D
((d))
B
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I

Five persons are facing outside while four are facing inside.

1) F is sitting third to the right of A who is facing inside.

Three persons are sitting between F and E.

Since it is not clear E is sitting in which direction with respect to F, two cases will be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2:

3) C is sitting third to the right of H who is one of the neighbours of A.

H is not facing outside.

In case 2, H can either sit to the right of A or to the left of A. So, two cases can be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2(a):

Case 2(b):

5) Two persons are sitting between D and I who is adjacent to C.

6) E, who is not sitting adjacent to B, is one of the immediate neighbours of H.

E is the neighbour of H only in case 2(b). So other cases will be cancelled.

7) B and G are sitting immediate left of each other.

From point 6, E cannot sit adjacent to B, so the diagram will be as follows:

8) F is sitting to the immediate left of C while to the immediate right of D.

9) Not more than two persons facing the same direction are sitting together.

Third to the right of I - E; Second to the right of the one who is third to the right of I (E) - B.

Hence, B is sitting second to the right of the person who is third to the right of I.

Who is sitting second to the left of F?

((a))
I
((b))
D
((c))
C
((d))
H
((e))
G

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I

Five persons are facing outside while four are facing inside.

1) F is sitting third to the right of A who is facing inside.

Three persons are sitting between F and E.

Since it is not clear E is sitting in which direction with respect to F, two cases will be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2:

3) C is sitting third to the right of H who is one of the neighbours of A.

H is not facing outside.

In case 2, H can either sit to the right of A or to the left of A. So, two cases can be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2(a):

Case 2(b):

5) Two persons are sitting between D and I who is adjacent to C.

6) E, who is not sitting adjacent to B, is one of the immediate neighbours of H.

E is the neighbour of H only in case 2(b). So other cases will be cancelled.

7) B and G are sitting immediate left of each other.

From point 6, E cannot sit adjacent to B, so the diagram will be as follows:

8) F is sitting to the immediate left of C while to the immediate right of D.

9) Not more than two persons facing the same direction are sitting together.

Hence, I is sitting second to the left of F.

Who is sitting to the immediate right of A?

((a))
H
((b))
I
((c))
B
((d))
E
((e))
G

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I

Five persons are facing outside while four are facing inside.

1) F is sitting third to the right of A who is facing inside.

Three persons are sitting between F and E.

Since it is not clear E is sitting in which direction with respect to F, two cases will be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2:

3) C is sitting third to the right of H who is one of the neighbours of A.

H is not facing outside.

In case 2, H can either sit to the right of A or to the left of A. So, two cases can be formed.

Case 1:

Case 2(a):

Case 2(b):

5) Two persons are sitting between D and I who is adjacent to C.

6) E, who is not sitting adjacent to B, is one of the immediate neighbours of H.

E is the neighbour of H only in case 2(b). So other cases will be cancelled.

7) B and G are sitting immediate left of each other.

From point 6, E cannot sit adjacent to B, so the diagram will be as follows:

8) F is sitting to the immediate left of C while to the immediate right of D.

9) Not more than two persons facing the same direction are sitting together.

Hence, I is sitting to the immediate right of A.

Direction: Study the information below and answer the following question.

Six people A, B, C, D, E, and F born on either 17th or 28th of March, April, and May of the same year. No two people were born on the same date. A belongs to Delhi and was born in the month having 30 days. Neither B nor D belongs to Kolkata. Two people were born between the one who belongs to Delhi and either B or D. E was born after B but not immediately. D was not born in April. C was neither born in the month having 31 days nor belongs to Kolkata. E does not belong to Mumbai. The one who belongs to Kolkata was born in the month having 31 days. The one who belongs to Mumbai was born on an even date. A and E were born in the adjacent month but on different dates. The one who belongs to Chennai and C was born on the same date but in different months. F was born immediately after B. The one who belongs to Mumbai was born immediately after the one who was born in Chennai. The one who belongs to Bengaluru was born in the month having 30 days. Two people were born between E and the one who belongs to Kolkata. One person was born in Hyderabad.

Which of the following combination is true?

((a))
17 April - A - Delhi
((b))
17 March - B - Hyderabad
((c))
28 May - D - Kolkata
((d))
28 March - F - Chennai
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

17 March - B - Hyderabad

Six person A, B, C, D, E and F

A belongs to Delhi and was born in the month having 30 days.

2) Two people were born between the one who belongs to Delhi and either B or D.

3) E was born after B but not immediately.

4) C was neither born in the month having 31 days nor belongs to Kolkata.

5) A and E were born in the adjacent month but on different dates.

6) F was born immediately after B.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B
28-March	F
17-April	C
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E
28- May	D

7) The one who belongs to Bengaluru was born in the month having 30 days.

8) Two people were born between E and the one who belongs to Kolkata.

9) The one who belongs to Mumbai was born immediately after the one who was born in Chennai.

One person was born in Hyderabad.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B	Hyderabad
28-March	F	Kolkata
17-April	C	Bengaluru
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E	Chennai
28- May	D	Mumbai

Hence, the correct combination is 17 March - B - Hyderabad.

Who was born on 17th April?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Six person A, B, C, D, E and F

A belongs to Delhi and was born in the month having 30 days.

2) Two people were born between the one who belongs to Delhi and either B or D.

3) E was born after B but not immediately.

4) C was neither born in the month having 31 days nor belongs to Kolkata.

5) A and E were born in the adjacent month but on different dates.

6) F was born immediately after B.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B
28-March	F
17-April	C
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E
28- May	D

7) The one who belongs to Bengaluru was born in the month having 30 days.

8) Two people were born between E and the one who belongs to Kolkata.

9) The one who belongs to Mumbai was born immediately after the one who was born in Chennai.

One person was born in Hyderabad.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B	Hyderabad
28-March	F	Kolkata
17-April	C	Bengaluru
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E	Chennai
28- May	D	Mumbai

Hence, C was born on 17th April.

Who belongs to Hyderabad?

((a))
D
((b))
C
((c))
B
((d))
A
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Six person A, B, C, D, E and F

1) A belongs to Delhi and was born in the month having 30 days.

2) Two people were born between the one who belongs to Delhi and either B or D.

3) E was born after B but not immediately.

4) C was neither born in the month having 31 days nor belongs to Kolkata.

5) A and E were born in the adjacent month but on different dates.

6) F was born immediately after B.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B
28-March	F
17-April	C
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E
28- May	D

7) The one who belongs to Bengaluru was born in the month having 30 days.

8) Two people were born between E and the one who belongs to Kolkata.

9) The one who belongs to Mumbai was born immediately after the one who was born in Chennai.

One person was born in Hyderabad.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B	Hyderabad
28-March	F	Kolkata
17-April	C	Bengaluru
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E	Chennai
28- May	D	Mumbai

Hence, B belongs to Hyderabad.

How many people were born between F and the one who belongs to Chennai?

((a))
2
((b))
3
((c))
4
((d))
5
((e))
None

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Six person A, B, C, D, E and F

A belongs to Delhi and was born in the month having 30 days.

2) Two people were born between the one who belongs to Delhi and either B or D.

3) E was born after B but not immediately.

4) C was neither born in the month having 31 days nor belongs to Kolkata.

5) A and E were born in the adjacent month but on different dates.

6) F was born immediately after B.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B
28-March	F
17-April	C
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E
28- May	D

7) The one who belongs to Bengaluru was born in the month having 30 days.

8) Two people were born between E and the one who belongs to Kolkata.

9) The one who belongs to Mumbai was born immediately after the one who was born in Chennai.

One person was born in Hyderabad.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B	Hyderabad
28-March	F	Kolkata
17-April	C	Bengaluru
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E	Chennai
28- May	D	Mumbai

Hence, 2 people were born between F and the one who belongs to Chennai.

Who belongs to Kolkata?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
D
((d))
F
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Six person A, B, C, D, E and F

A belongs to Delhi and was born in the month having 30 days.

2) Two people were born between the one who belongs to Delhi and either B or D.

3) E was born after B but not immediately.

4) C was neither born in the month having 31 days nor belongs to Kolkata.

5) A and E were born in the adjacent month but on different dates.

6) F was born immediately after B.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B
28-March	F
17-April	C
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E
28- May	D

7) The one who belongs to Bengaluru was born in the month having 30 days.

8) Two people were born between E and the one who belongs to Kolkata.

9) The one who belongs to Mumbai was born immediately after the one who was born in Chennai.

One person was born in Hyderabad.

Date	Person	City
17-March	B	Hyderabad
28-March	F	Kolkata
17-April	C	Bengaluru
28-April	A	Delhi
17-May	E	Chennai
28- May	D	Mumbai

Hence, F belongs to Kolkata.

Direction: Study the information below and answer the following question.

There are six points P, Q, R , X, Y and Z . Q is 6 metre to the east of P. R is 8 metre to the south of P. X is 8 metre south of Q. Y is 8 metre east of X and Z is 10 metre south of Y. A starts walking towards north for 5 metre from a certain point and takes a right turn and walks for 14 metre and takes a left turn and walks for 5 metre to reach point Z.

Which one is alike from the remaining with respect to Z?

((a))
P
((b))
R
((c))
X
((d))
Y
((e))
Q

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The diagram given below shows the position of all points and path followed by A.

Since with respect to Z,

Point P is to the Northwest

Point R is to the Northwest

Point X is to the Northwest

Point Y is to the North

Point Q is to the Northwest

Hence, Y is alike from the remaining.

What is the distance between A's initial position and point P?

((a))
20 metre
((b))
28 metre
((c))
30 metre
((d))
16 metre
((e))
21 metre

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

28 metre

The diagram given below shows the position of all points and path followed by A.

Therefore, distance between A's initial position and point P = ( 5 + 5 + 10 + 8 ) = 28 metre

Hence, the correct answer is 28 metre.

In which direction is A's final position with respect to its initial position?

((a))
Northeast
((b))
Southeast
((c))
East
((d))
West
((e))
North

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Northeast

The diagram given below shows the position of all points and path followed by A.

Hence, A is to the northeast of its initial position.

How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘ 46957284523 ’, each of which has as many digits between them in the word ( both forward and backward direction ) as they have between them in arithmetic numerals ?

((a))
Three
((b))
Four
((c))
Five
((d))
Six
((e))
More than six

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

More than six

From the given information,

Here Twelve pair are there of numbers.

Hence, More than six pairs will be there in the arrangement.

Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions below.

There are eleven boxes in a stack. Box number 1 is on the bottom and box number eleven is on the top of the stack. Box S is in the fourth stacks. V is placed immediately above J. Number of boxes below J are one more than the box above V. More than three boxes are between S and D, which is not on the top. More than six boxes between D and K. Box below G are one more than box above D. G is below S. Three boxes are between R and T, which is near to D. M is not on the top and not near to G. N is just below T. P is one of the box.

How many boxes are between J and P?

((a))
One
((b))
Two
((c))
Three
((d))
Four
((e))
Five

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Four

From the given information,

I) Box S is in fourth stack. V is place immediate above J and number of boxes below J are one more than the box above V. so here is one condition will satisfy this will be as,

Stack No.	Box
11
10
9
8
7	V
6	J
5
4	S
3
2
1

II) More than three boxes are between S and D and D is not on the top. Here two possibility will be there two place the Box D.

	Case I	Case II
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10		D
9	D
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5
4	S	S
3
2
1

III) More than six boxes between D and K. Here we can place Box K at two place in case II, So in case II here two possibility will be there (a), (b).

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3
2		K
1	K		K

IV) Box below G are one more than the box above D. G is also below the S. Here in case I we cannot place G according to the given condition. In other cases we can place box.

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3		G	G
2		K
1	K		K

Here Case I gets cancelled because if we place box G below S then Box below G are not one more than box above D, so it will be wrong according to the given condition.

V) Three boxes are between R and T, which is near to D. so here only just below D we can place T and then three boxes are between T and R.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1		K

VI) N is just below T. M is not on the top and not near to G. Here in case II (b) only two place are left one is near to G another one is on the top, so we cannot place G is here.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8	N	N
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1	M	K

Case II(b) gets cancelled because we cannot place box G according to the given condition.

VII) P is one of the box, here only one place remaining which is on top of stack.

	Case II (a)
Stack No.	Box
11	P
10	D
9	T
8	N
7	V
6	J
5	R
4	S
3	G
2	K
1	M

This will be the final arrangement of the boxes in the stack.

Hence, there are Four boxes between J and P.

Number of boxes which are below T as many as above which box?

((a))
K
((b))
M
((c))
S
((d))
R
((e))
G

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

From the given information,

I) Box S is in fourth stack. V is place immediate above J and number of boxes below J are one more than the box above V. so here is one condition will satisfy this will be as,

Stack No.	Box
11
10
9
8
7	V
6	J
5
4	S
3
2
1

II) More than three boxes are between S and D and D is not on the top. Here two possibility will be there two place the Box D.

	Case I	Case II
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10		D
9	D
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5
4	S	S
3
2
1

III) More than six boxes between D and K. Here we can place Box K at two place in case II, So in case II here two possibility will be there (a), (b).

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3
2		K
1	K		K

IV) Box below G are one more than the box above D. G is also below the S. Here in case I we cannot place G according to the given condition. In other cases we can place box.

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3		G	G
2		K
1	K		K

Here Case I gets cancelled because if we place box G below S then Box below G are not one more than box above D, so it will be wrong according to the given condition.

V) Three boxes are between R and T, which is near to D. so here only just below D we can place T and then three boxes are between T and R.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1		K

VI) N is just below T. M is not on the top and not near to G. Here in case II (b) only two place are left one is near to G another one is on the top, so we cannot place G is here.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8	N	N
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1	M	K

Case II(b) gets cancelled because we cannot place box G according to the given condition.

VII) P is one of the box, here only one place remaining which is on top of stack.

	Case II (a)
Stack No.	Box
11	P
10	D
9	T
8	N
7	V
6	J
5	R
4	S
3	G
2	K
1	M

This will be the final arrangement of the boxes in the stack.

Here eight boxes are below T same as eight boxes will be above G.

Hence, below box T is same as the above box G.

Which box is placed on bottom of the stack?

((a))
P
((b))
M
((c))
K
((d))
G
((e))
J

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

From the given information,

I) Box S is in fourth stack. V is place immediate above J and number of boxes below J are one more than the box above V. so here is one condition will satisfy this will be as,

Stack No.	Box
11
10
9
8
7	V
6	J
5
4	S
3
2
1

II) More than three boxes are between S and D and D is not on the top. Here two possibility will be there two place the Box D.

	Case I	Case II
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10		D
9	D
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5
4	S	S
3
2
1

III) More than six boxes between D and K. Here we can place Box K at two place in case II, So in case II here two possibility will be there (a), (b).

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3
2		K
1	K		K

IV) Box below G are one more than the box above D. G is also below the S. Here in case I we cannot place G according to the given condition. In other cases we can place box.

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3		G	G
2		K
1	K		K

Here Case I gets cancelled because if we place box G below S then Box below G are not one more than box above D, so it will be wrong according to the given condition.

V) Three boxes are between R and T, which is near to D. so here only just below D we can place T and then three boxes are between T and R.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1		K

VI) N is just below T. M is not on the top and not near to G. Here in case II (b) only two place are left one is near to G another one is on the top, so we cannot place G is here.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8	N	N
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1	M	K

Case II(b) gets cancelled because we cannot place box G according to the given condition.

VII) P is one of the box, here only one place remaining which is on top of stack.

	Case II (a)
Stack No.	Box
11	P
10	D
9	T
8	N
7	V
6	J
5	R
4	S
3	G
2	K
1	M

This will be the final arrangement of the boxes in the stack.

Hence, box M is placed on the bottom of the stack

How many boxes are there between R and M?

((a))
One
((b))
Two
((c))
Three
((d))
Four
((e))
Five

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Three

From the given information,

I) Box S is in fourth stack. V is place immediate above J and number of boxes below J are one more than the box above V. so here is one condition will satisfy this will be as,

Stack No.	Box
11
10
9
8
7	V
6	J
5
4	S
3
2
1

II) More than three boxes are between S and D and D is not on the top. Here two possibility will be there two place the Box D.

	Case I	Case II
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10		D
9	D
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5
4	S	S
3
2
1

III) More than six boxes between D and K. Here we can place Box K at two place in case II, So in case II here two possibility will be there (a), (b).

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3
2		K
1	K		K

IV) Box below G are one more than the box above D. G is also below the S. Here in case I we cannot place G according to the given condition. In other cases we can place box.

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3		G	G
2		K
1	K		K

Here Case I gets cancelled because if we place box G below S then Box below G are not one more than box above D, so it will be wrong according to the given condition.

V) Three boxes are between R and T, which is near to D. so here only just below D we can place T and then three boxes are between T and R.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1		K

VI) N is just below T. M is not on the top and not near to G. Here in case II (b) only two place are left one is near to G another one is on the top, so we cannot place G is here.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8	N	N
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1	M	K

Case II(b) gets cancelled because we cannot place box G according to the given condition.

VII) P is one of the box, here only one place remaining which is on top of stack.

	Case II (a)
Stack No.	Box
11	P
10	D
9	T
8	N
7	V
6	J
5	R
4	S
3	G
2	K
1	M

This will be the final arrangement of the boxes in the stack.

Hence, there are Three boxes between R and M.

In which Stack Box N has been placed?

((a))
Eleventh
((b))
Tenth
((c))
Ninth
((d))
Eighth
((e))
Seventh

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Eighth

From the given information,

I) Box S is in fourth stack. V is place immediate above J and number of boxes below J are one more than the box above V. so here is one condition will satisfy this will be as,

Stack No.	Box
11
10
9
8
7	V
6	J
5
4	S
3
2
1

II) More than three boxes are between S and D and D is not on the top. Here two possibility will be there two place the Box D.

	Case I	Case II
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10		D
9	D
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5
4	S	S
3
2
1

III) More than six boxes between D and K. Here we can place Box K at two place in case II, So in case II here two possibility will be there (a), (b).

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3
2		K
1	K		K

IV) Box below G are one more than the box above D. G is also below the S. Here in case I we cannot place G according to the given condition. In other cases we can place box.

	Case I	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box	Box
11
10		D	D
9	D
8
7	V	V	V
6	J	J	J
5
4	S	S	S
3		G	G
2		K
1	K		K

Here Case I gets cancelled because if we place box G below S then Box below G are not one more than box above D, so it will be wrong according to the given condition.

V) Three boxes are between R and T, which is near to D. so here only just below D we can place T and then three boxes are between T and R.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1		K

VI) N is just below T. M is not on the top and not near to G. Here in case II (b) only two place are left one is near to G another one is on the top, so we cannot place G is here.

	Case II (a)	Case II (b)
Stack No.	Box	Box
11
10	D	D
9	T	T
8	N	N
7	V	V
6	J	J
5	R	R
4	S	S
3	G	G
2	K
1	M	K

Case II(b) gets cancelled because we cannot place box G according to the given condition.

VII) P is one of the box, here only one place remaining which is on top of stack.

	Case II (a)
Stack No.	Box
11	P
10	D
9	T
8	N
7	V
6	J
5	R
4	S
3	G
2	K
1	M

This will be the final arrangement of the boxes in the stack.

Hence, box N is placed in eighth stack..

There are four words given in each option that follows a certain logic, if the third letter from the left of each word is taken then a meaningful word can be formed, find the odd one which does not follow the same pattern.

((a))
ROKI, KENL, ROET, MNER
((b))
SPDN, RION, PROT, SARU.
((c))
SORT, NGOK, CRSU, QREP
((d))
ROMI, KEOL, ROST, MNTR

×

duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 1,3
((e))
NAOT, STON, NITY, SITT

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

NAOT, STON, NITY, SITT

Given logic is; If the third letter from the left in each word taken it forms a meaningful word,

Given words are,

ROKI, KENL, ROET, MNER.

The third letters from each word are: ROKI → K, KENL → N, ROET → E, MNER → E. From these letters, the meaningful word formed is 'KNEE'

2) SPDN, RION, PROT, SARU.

The third letters from each word are: SPDN → D, RION → O, PROT → O, SARU → R. From these letters, the meaningful word formed is 'DOOR'.

3) SORT, NGOK, CRSU, QREP

The third letters from each word are: SORT → R, NGOK → O, → CRSU → S, QREP → E. From these letters, the meaningful word formed is 'ROSE'

4) ROMI, KEOL, ROST, MNTR

The third letters from each word are: ROMI → M, KEOL → O, ROST → S, MNTR → T. From these letters, the meaningful word formed is 'MOST'

5) NAOT, STON, NITY, SITT

The third letters from each word are: NAOT → O, STON → O, NITY → T, SITT → T. After arranging these letters we find 'OOTT' here we can see that no meaningful word is formed by these letters so it is the odd one.

Hence, Option 'five' is the odd one.

If each vowel of the word 'GRAYHOUND' is changed to the previous letter as in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the next letter as in the English alphabetical series then in new arrangement how many letters are repeated?

((a))
One
((b))
Two
((c))
Three
((d))
Four
((e))
None

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

One

Given word, 'GRAYHOUND',

When each vowel of this word is changed to the previous letter as in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the next letter as in the English alphabetical series then new arrangement is;

Here we can see the the one letter 'Z' is repeated.

Hence, in new arrangement one letter is repeated.

Direction: Read the instructions carefully to answer the questions given below,

There are 10 students A, B, C, D, E, F, J, K, L and M. They all are in the three different branches ie. B.SC, B.com and B.A. but not necessarily in the same order. Neither any branch have less than three students nor have more than four students. A and B are in the same branch but not in the the B.com. D and C are in the different branch but neither of them in the B.com. K is neither in the same branch with A nor studies in the B.com. K and J are in the different branch. L studies with three more friends but neither in B.sc nor in B.com. C is not in the same branch with A. F is neither in the same branch with A nor with J. E is not in the same branch B or C. F is in the branch having more than three students but not in the B.com. M is neither in the same branch with F nor with the D. J studies with two more friends but not in the B.A. Neither J nor K is in the same branch with D.

F is in the same branch with?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
M
((d))
C
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Ten friends: A, B, C, D, E, F, J, K, L and M.

Three branches: B.sc, B.com and B.A.

A and B in the same branch but not in the B.com. A and B are not in B.com so they will be either in the B. A. or in the B.sc, now we have two cases for A and B.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends			A, B

2) D and C are in the different branch but not in the B.com. C does not study with A.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	C		A, B, D

3) L studies with three more friends in the B.A. Here it is fixed that there three friends in B. A. so possibility of A, B and D in the B. A. is canceled here, now we continue with A, B and D in the B.sc,

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L

K is neither in the same branch with A nor studies in the B.com,

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K

F is neither in the same branch with A nor with J. F is in the branch having more than three students but not in the B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K,F

J study with two more friends but not in the B.A. J and K are in the different branch and neither of them is in the same branch with D.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J	C, L, K,F

E is not in the same branch with B or C, so E will be in B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E	C, L, K,F

M is neither in the same branch with F nor with the D, so M will be in the B.com. Now the final arrangement is as follows;

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E, M	C, L, K,F

Hence, 'F' is in the same branch with 'C'.

In which Branch 'D' studies?

((a))
B.sc
((b))
B.com
((c))
B.A.
((d))
Either B.sc or B.com
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

B.sc

Ten friends: A, B, C, D, E, F, J, K, L and M.

Three branches: B.sc, B.com and B.A.

A and B in the same branch but not in the B.com. A and B are not in B.com so they will be either in the B. A. or in the B.sc, now we have two cases for A and B.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends			A, B

2) D and C are in the different branch but not in the B.com. C does not study with A.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	C		A, B, D

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L

K is neither in the same branch with A nor studies in the B.com,

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K

F is neither in the same branch with A nor with J. F is in the branch having more than three students but not in the B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K,F

6) J study with two more friends but not in the B.A. J and K are in the different branch and neither of them is in the same branch with D.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J	C, L, K,F

E is not in the same branch with B or C, so E will be in B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E	C, L, K,F

M is neither in the same branch with F nor with the D, so M will be in the B.com. Now the final arrangement is as follows;

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E, M	C, L, K,F

Hence, branch of D is 'B.sc',

'K' is in which branch?

((a))
B.sc
((b))
B.A.
((c))
B.com
((d))
Either B.A. or B.sc
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

B.A.

Ten friends: A, B, C, D, E, F, J, K, L and M.

Three branches: B.sc, B.com and B.A.

A and B in the same branch but not in the B.com. A and B are not in B.com so they will be either in the B. A. or in the B.sc, now we have two cases for A and B.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends			A, B

2) D and C are in the different branch but not in the B.com. C does not study with A.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	C		A, B, D

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L

K is neither in the same branch with A nor studies in the B.com,

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K

F is neither in the same branch with A nor with J. F is in the branch having more than three students but not in the B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K,F

6) J study with two more friends but not in the B.A. J and K are in the different branch and neither of them is in the same branch with D.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J	C, L, K,F

E is not in the same branch with B or C, so E will be in B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E	C, L, K,F

M is neither in the same branch with F nor with the D, so M will be in the B.com. Now the final arrangement is as follows;

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E, M	C, L, K,F

Hence, 'K' is in the 'B.A'.

L is in same branch with?

((a))
K and M
((b))
C, F and K
((c))
A and B
((d))
C and K
((e))
K and E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

C, F and K

Ten friends: A, B, C, D, E, F, J, K, L and M.

Three branches: B.sc, B.com and B.A.

A and B in the same branch but not in the B.com. A and B are not in B.com so they will be either in the B. A. or in the B.sc, now we have two cases for A and B.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends			A, B

2) D and C are in the different branch but not in the B.com. C does not study with A.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	C		A, B, D

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L

K is neither in the same branch with A nor studies in the B.com,

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K

F is neither in the same branch with A nor with J. F is in the branch having more than three students but not in the B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K,F

6) J study with two more friends but not in the B.A. J and K are in the different branch and neither of them is in the same branch with D.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J	C, L, K,F

E is not in the same branch with B or C, so E will be in B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E	C, L, K,F

M is neither in the same branch with F nor with the D, so M will be in the B.com. Now the final arrangement is as follows;

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E, M	C, L, K,F

Hence, L is in the same branch with C, K and F.

Which branch have more than three students?

((a))
B.A.
((b))
B.com
((c))
B.sc
((d))
Either .Bsc or B.com
((e))
None of these.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

B.A.

Ten friends: A, B, C, D, E, F, J, K, L and M.

Three branches: B.sc, B.com and B.A.

A and B in the same branch but not in the B.com. A and B are not in B.com so they will be either in the B. A. or in the B.sc, now we have two cases for A and B.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends			A, B

2) D and C are in the different branch but not in the B.com. C does not study with A.

Case 1.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C

Case 2.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	C		A, B, D

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L

K is neither in the same branch with A nor studies in the B.com,

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K

F is neither in the same branch with A nor with J. F is in the branch having more than three students but not in the B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D		C, L, K,F

6) J study with two more friends but not in the B.A. J and K are in the different branch and neither of them is in the same branch with D.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J	C, L, K,F

E is not in the same branch with B or C, so E will be in B.com.

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E	C, L, K,F

M is neither in the same branch with F nor with the D, so M will be in the B.com. Now the final arrangement is as follows;

Branches	B.sc	B.com	B.A.
Friends	A, B, D	J, E, M	C, L, K,F

Hence, in 'B.A'. branch there are more than three students.

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

Which of the following options is correct with regard to HTML?

((a))
It is a modeling language
((b))
It is a DTP language
((c))
It is a partial programming language
((d))
It is used to structure documents
((e))
It is a scripting language

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

It is used to structure documents

The correct answer is It is used to structure documents.

Key Points

HTML is used to structure documents.
It was developed by Tim Berners-Lee in 1990.
HTML is used to create electronic documents (called pages) that are displayed on the World Wide Web.
HTML is the most widely used mark-up language, in all its evolving forms.
It is used to structure documents according to various Document Type Definition (DTD) schema defined and described by the W3C, which continually reviews, refines and evolves the specifications.

Additional Information

It is a language used for writing source codes for developing a webpage, inserting content, and other components in it.
HTML is a markup language because it is used to distinguish HTML elements from the text.
HTML is not a programming language, meaning it doesn’t have the ability to create dynamic functionality. Instead, it makes it possible to organize and format documents, similar to Microsoft Word.

The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as

((a))
QBE
((b))
SQL
((c))
OLAP
((d))
Sequel Server
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

SQL

The correct answer is SQL

Key Points

SQL stands for Structured Query Language. SQL is used to communicate with a database.
SQL is a language to operate databases; it includes database creation, deletion, fetching rows, modifying rows, etc. SQL is an ANSI (American National Standards Institute) standard language, but there are many different versions of the SQL language.
SQL is Structured Query Language, which is a computer language for storing, manipulating, and retrieving data stored in a relational database.
SQL is the standard language for Relational Database System. All the Relational Database Management Systems (RDMS) like MySQL, MS Access, Oracle, Sybase, Informix, Postgres, and SQL Server use SQL as their standard database language.

Additional Information

SQL is widely popular because it offers the following advantages −

Allows users to access data in the relational database management systems.
Allows users to describe the data.
Allows users to define the data in a database and manipulate that data.
Allows embedding within other languages using SQL modules, libraries & pre-compilers.
Allows users to create and drop databases and tables.
Allows users to create a view, stored procedure, functions in a database.
Allows users to set permissions on tables, procedures and views.

_____is a group of single or multiple keys that identifies rows in a table.

((a))
Primary key
((b))
Candidate Key
((c))
Composite Key
((d))
Compound Key
((e))
Super Key

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Super Key

The correct answer is Super Key.

There is always one primary key in a table for each record which is used to uniquely identify that record.
KEYS in DBMS is an attribute or set of attributes that help you to identify a row(tuple) in a relation(table). They allow you to find the relation between two tables. Keys help you uniquely identify a row in a table by a combination of one or more columns in that table. The Key is also helpful for finding a unique record or row from the table. The database key is also helpful for finding a unique record or row from the table.

Additional Information

There are mainly seven different types of Keys in DBMS and each key has its different functionality:

Super Key - A super key is a group of single or multiple keys that identifies rows in a table.
Primary Key - is a column or group of columns in a table that uniquely identify every row in that table.
Candidate Key - is a set of attributes that uniquely identify tuples in a table. Candidate Key is a super key with no repeated attributes.
Alternate Key - is a column or group of columns in a table that uniquely identify every row in that table.
Foreign Key - is a column that creates a relationship between two tables. The purpose of Foreign keys is to maintain data integrity and allow navigation between two different instances of an entity.
Compound Key - has two or more attributes that allow you to uniquely recognize a specific record. It is possible that each column may not be unique by itself within the database.
Composite Key - A composite key is a candidate key that consists of two or more attributes (table columns) that together uniquely identify an entity occurrence (table row).
Surrogate Key - An artificial key which aims to uniquely identify each record is called a surrogate key. These kinds of keys are unique because they are created when you don't have any natural primary key.

Which of the following is a markup language?

((a))
HTML
((b))
PHP
((c))
Python
((d))
Java
((e))
Both 1 and 2

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

HTML

The correct answer is HTML.

Key Points

HTML is a type of markup language developed by Web Hypertext Application Technology Working Group.

Additional Information

Language	Information
1) HTML	Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is the standard markup language
2) PHP	General-purpose programming language
3) Python	A type of programming language
4) Java	It is Class-based, object-oriented programming language

CAD stands for _______.

((a))
Common Aided Design
((b))
Computer Aided Design
((c))
Complex Aided Design
((d))
Communication Aided Design
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Computer Aided Design

The correct answer is CAD Computer Aided Design

Key Points

CAD or Computer Aided Design is a software used in the computer systems by engineers, architects, drafters, artists and others to create, analyze, optimize and modify a design or even create 2D and 3D technical illustrations.

Additional Information

CAD/CAM applications are used to both design a product and program manufacturing processes, specifically, CNC machining. CAM software uses the models and assemblies created in CAD software, like Fusion 360, to generate toolpaths that drive machine tools to turn designs into physical parts.

What is the full form of EEPROM?

((a))
Electronically Erasable Programmed Read-Only Memory
((b))
Easily Erasable Programmed Read-Only Memory
((c))
Electronically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
((d))
Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory

The correct answer is Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory.

Additional Information

The EEPROM is a form of non-volatile memory where data can be erased and reprogrammed using an electrical charge.
Despite being a non-volatile memory, it retains all data even when power is off.
Data saved in an EEPROM chip is permanent until the client chooses to remove it.
EEPROM is the modern version of EPROM and stores the data used for BIOS.
EEPROM has a limited life i.e. the number of times it can be reprogrammed.
There are two types of EEPROM: Serial EEPROM and Parallel EEPROM

Linux is a type of ________ operating system

((a))
Shareware
((b))
Commercial
((c))
Proprietary
((d))
Open source
((e))
Hidden type

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Open source

The correct answer is Open source

Open Source operating systems are released under a license where the copyright holder allows others to study, change as well as distribute the software to other people. This can be done for any reason.
Underpinning an operating system, for example, Windows on your PC or Android on your phone is many, many lines of code.
On a closed-source OS like Windows, that code can only be altered by Microsoft, and only viewed by a few selected customers like big companies. In contrast, the code underlying open-source operating systems is not only freely available for anyone to view but also to modify, use and share, under the terms of open-source licenses such as MIT, GNU Public Licence, and Apache 2.0.
Allowing anyone to inspect the source code in this way has many advantages. Those with sufficient technical knowledge can customize the OS and fix problems as they arise by delving into the source code.
It also allows the development of open-source operating systems to be community-led, or at least influenced, with technical users suggesting changes to an open-source operating system's codebase.

At the heart of most open-source operating systems, today is the Linux kernel. Linux provides the core of these operating systems, the kernel that interacts with a computer's hardware, and was developed by Linus Torvalds in 1991.
This kernel provides the core functionality of any OS needs, controlling how data is processed and parcelled out into memory, how the system handles files, how it interacts with devices plugged into the computer, and other fundamental tasks.

When you enter text in a cell in Excel, it also appears in

((a))
Status bar
((b))
Formula bar
((c))
Row heading
((d))
Name box
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Formula bar

The correct answer is Formula bar.

Key Points

The Formula Bar is where data or formulas you enter into a worksheet appear for the active cell.
The Formula Bar can also be used to edit data or formula in the active cell. The active cell displays the results of its formula while we see the formula itself in the Formula Bar.
When the text is entered in a cell in the excel sheet it also appears in the formula bar.

Additional Information

The status bar is the area at the bottom of the Word window that indicates information about the current document.
It displays information about what page you are on, as well as your line number on the page and character number on the line. It also shows information about which editing toggles you have turned on.
Name Box is a tool that shows the active cell address. For example, if you have selected the cell C1, this name box will show the active cell address as C1.

The ___________ is used to move the active cell to the cell A1 in MS - Excel.

((a))
Home
((b))
Page Up
((c))
Page Down
((d))
Ctrl + Home
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + Home

The correct answer is Ctrl + Home.

Ctrl + Home is used to move the active cell to the cell A1 in MS - Excel.
Alternatively referred to as Control+Home and C-Home, Ctrl+Home is a keyboard shortcut that moves the cursor to the beginning of a document.
In all major Internet browsers (e.g., Chrome, Edge, Firefox, IE, Opera), pressing Ctrl+Home scrolls to the beginning of the web page, if not already there.
In Microsoft Word and other word processor programs, pressing Ctrl+Home moves to the beginning of the document, if not already there.

Additional Information

Command	Use
Home	On the Internet, home could refer to the main page of a site, more commonly known as the homepage.
Page Up	Pg Up key is a computer keyboard key found between the keyboard and the numeric pad or on the numeric pad number 9 key. When this key is pressed, if the page currently being viewed has more than one page, the page moves (scrolls) up to one page.
Page Down	Pg Dn key is a computer keyboard key found between the keyboard and numeric pad or on the numeric pad number 3 key. When this key is pressed, if the page currently being viewed has more than one page, the page view is moved (scrolled) down one page.

Which of the following statements is true in the context of Watermark?

((a))
A watermark can only be applied to a single page in document.
((b))
A watermark is not visible to viewers in a hard copy.
((c))
A watermark is a ghost text.
((d))
The colour of a watermark cannot be changed.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

A watermark is a ghost text.

The correct answer is A watermark is a ghost text.

Additional Information

A watermark is a ghost image that appears behind the content of a document. Watermarks traditionally have been used to print logos, or text such as CONFIDENTIAL, on company stationery.
A watermark is a logo, text, or pattern that is intentionally superimposed onto another image. Its purpose is to make it more difficult for the original image to be copied or used without permission.

What is (1111)₂ + (1001)₂ - (1010)₂ equal to?

((a))
(111)₂
((b))
(1100)₂
((c))
(1110)₂
((d))
(1010)₂
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

(1110)₂

Concept:

Covert Binary to Decimal:

For binary number with n digits;

D_n-1 …. D₃D₂D₁D₀

The decimal number is equal to the sum of binary digits (D_n) times their power of 2 (2ⁿ)

Decimal = D₀ × 2⁰ + D₁ × 2¹ + D₂ × 2² + ….

Decimal to binary:

Take decimal number as dividend.
Divide the number by 2.
Get the integer quotient for the next iteration.
Get the remainder (it will be either 0 or 1 because of divisor 2).
Repeat the steps until the quotient is equal to 0
Write the remainders in reverse order (which will be equivalent binary number of given decimal number).

Calculation:

To find: (1111)2 + (1001)2 - (1010)2 = ?

(1111)2 = $\rm 1\times 2^0+1\times 2^1+1\times2^2+1\times2^3=15$

(1001)2 = $\rm 1\times 2^0+0\times 2^1+0\times2^2+1\times2^3=9$

(1010)2 = $\rm 0\times 2^0+1\times 2^1+0\times2^2+1\times2^3=10$

(1111)2 + (1001)2 - (1010)2 = 15 + 9 - 10 = 14

Now, in binary 14 can be written as,

Division	Remainder (R)
14 / 2 = 7	0
7 / 2 = 3	1
3 / 2 = 1	1
1 / 2 = 0	1

(14)₁₀ = (1110)₂

Hence, option (3) is correct.

Integrated Circuits (ICs) are related to which generation of computers?

((a))
First generation
((b))
Second generation
((c))
Third generation
((d))
Fourth generation
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Third generation

The period of third generation was 1965-1971. The computers of third generation used integrated circuits (IC's) in place of transistors. A single IC has many transistors, resistors and capacitors along with the associated circuitry. The IC was invented by Jack Kilby.

Which of the following IC was used in third generation of computers?

((a))
SSI
((b))
MSI
((c))
LSI
((d))
Both a and b
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Both a and b

The correct answer is SSI and MSI

Additional Information

SSI and MSI IC was used in third generation of computers.SSI, MSI, The first integrated circuits contained only a few transistors and so were called “Small-Scale Integration (SSI). They used circuits containing transistors numbering in the tens. They were very crucial in the development of early computers.
The next step in the development of integrated circuits, taken in the late 1960s, introduced devices which contained hundreds of transistors on each chip, called "medium-scale integration" (MSI).
An integrated circuit, or IC, is small chip that can function as an amplifier, oscillator, timer, microprocessor, or even computer memory.
An IC is a small wafer, usually made of silicon, that can hold anywhere from hundreds to millions of transistors, resistors, and capacitors.

1024 Kb= ____

((a))
1 MB
((b))
1 TB
((c))
1 GB
((d))
1 ZB
((e))
1 EB

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1 MB

The correct answer is option 1MB.

Binary values are grouped together in the length of 1's and 0's which is called the length of a number.

Some of the common lengths are bit, byte, nibble etc.
Each of the 1 and 0 in a binary number is called a bit.

Additional Information

Consider the following table for other relations between units.

Unit	Description in other units
4 bit	Group of 4 bit is called a nibble.
8 bit	Group of 8 bit is called byte.
1024 byte	1 Kilobyte
1024 Kilobyte (KB)	1 Megabyte (MB)
1024 Megabyte (MB)	1 Gigabyte (GB)
1024 Gigabyte (GB)	1 Terabyte (TB)
1024 Terabyte (TB)	1 Petabyte (PB)
1024 Petabyte (PB)	1 Exabyte (EB)
1024 Exabyte (EB)	1 Zettabyte (ZB)
1024 Zettabyte (ZB)	1 Yottabyte (YB)

Which of the following tools can be effectively used to collect feedbacks from students in an online mode of teaching?

((a))
OBS Software
((b))
Youtube
((c))
Google forms
((d))
Ms-word
((e))
Both i and ii

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Google forms

The correct answer is Google forms

Additional Information

Google forms is a very effective tool to collect feedbacks from students, as it gives flexibility to design questionnaires to ask the right questions from students which helps in getting accurate feedbacks.
Google Forms is free online software that allows you to create surveys, quizzes, and . It's part of Google's web-based apps suite, including Google Docs, Google Sheets, Google Slides, and more. It's a versatile tool that can be used for various applications, from gathering RSVPs for an event to creating a pop quiz.

Which of the following is used with the intention of extorting money from its owner?

((a))
Ransomware
((b))
Malware
((c))
Spyware
((d))
Adware
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ransomware

The correct option is 1 i.e., Ransomware.

Key Points

Ransomware is used with the intention of extorting money.
Ransomware is a type of malware program that infects and takes control of a system.

Additional Information

Spyware is unwanted software that infiltrates your computing device, stealing your internet usage data and

sensitive information.

Adware, or advertising-supported software, is software that generates revenue for its developer by automatically

generating online advertisements.

Malware stands for malicious software.
Malware is any software used to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive information, or gain access to private computer systems.

Flash memory is made up of

((a))
RDRAM
((b))
MROM
((c))
SRAM
((d))
EEPROM
((e))
PROM

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

EEPROM

The correct answer is EEPROM.

Key Points

Flash memory is a non-volatile computer storage chip,
It is made up of EEPROM.
EEPROM is the acronym of electrically erasable programmable read-only memory,
EEPROM is a Programmable ROM that can be erased and reprogrammed using an electrical charge.
It was first was developed by George Perlegos.
It allows the user to update the computer BIOS without having to open the computer or remove any chips.
It organized as arrays of floating-gate transistors.
USB flash drive, Memory cards are the examples of flash memory storage.
BIOS is stored in Flash memory chip.

Additional Information

RDRAM is the acronym of Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory.
It is a video RAM.
MROM is the acronym of Mask ROM.
It is produced by arranging transistors before the semiconductor manufacturing process actually begins.
SRAM is the acronym of Static random-access memory
It uses latching circuitry (flip-flop) to store each bit.
PROM is the acronym of Programmable Read-Only Memory.
It can be modified only once by a user.

Which of the tasks is done by VLC media player using MS Excel?

((a))
Audio
((b))
Document
((c))
Picture
((d))
Video
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Video

The correct answer is Video.

Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet developed by Microsoft.
It features tools, pivot tables calculation, graphing , and a macro programming language called Visual Basic for Applications.
Excel allows you to add more to your workbooks than just numbers or text.
You can also add all sorts of other objects. For instance, you can add simple graphics, pictures, or even videos.
Preparing students' results, Storing the names of Indian Classical singers with the Gharana, and Playing music video tasks can be done using MS Excel.
Microsoft Excel has the basic features of all spreadsheets, using a grid of cells arranged in numbered rows and letter-named columns to organize data manipulations like arithmetic operations.
Excel includes many common functions that can be used to quickly find the sum, average, count, maximum value, and minimum value for a range of cells. In order to use functions correctly, you'll need to understand the different parts of a function and how to create arguments to calculate values and cell references.
Inserting Rows or Columns: To add multiple rows or columns in a spreadsheet, highlight the same number of pre-existing rows or columns that you want to add. Then, right-click and select "Insert."
Autofill: Select the cells you want to be the source, locate the fill handle in the lower-right corner of the cell, and either drag the fill handle to cover cells you want to fill or just double click.
Filters: Filters allow you to pare down your data to only look at certain rows at one time.
Videos and audios can be played on an excel sheet through objects like Windows media player or VLC media player.

Which of the following memory is volatile?

((a))
RAM
((b))
ROM
((c))
PROM
((d))
EPROM
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

RAM

The correct answer is option 1 i.e RAM.

Key Points

RAM stands for Random-access memory.
RAM is a Primary memory in computers.
It is a volatile memory.
RAM loses its data when the computer is turned off.
RAM is located on the motherboard.
RAM is a temporary memory.
ROM stands for Read-Only Memory.
ROM is a non-volatile memory.
We can't change data stored on ROM.
PROM stands for Programmable read-only memory.
EPROM stands for Erasable programmable read-only memory.

A 32 bit address bus allows access to a total memory of CPU

((a))
64 MB
((b))
1 GB
((c))
4 GB
((d))
6 GB
((e))
2 GB

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

4 GB

Concept:

1 GB = 1024 MB

1 MB = 1024 KB

1 KB = 1024 B

1 B = 8 bits

So, 32-bit address bus has access to 2³² locations with 8 bits(1 Byte) of information.

2³² locations = 2² * 2¹⁰ * 2¹⁰ * 2¹⁰ locations

232 locations = 22 * 210 * 210 * 1 KB [2¹⁰ = 1 KB ]

232 locations = 22 * 210 * 1024 KB

232 locations = 22 * 1024 MB

232 locations = 4 GB of location

Correct Option is 3

A ___ uses pressure as a user presses it with a stylus to send signals to the computer.

((a))
Touchpad
((b))
Track Point
((c))
Graphic tablet
((d))
Track pad
((e))
Keyboard

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Touchpad

The correct answer is touchpad

Additional Information

A touchpad in the computer system uses pressure as a user presses it with a stylus to send signals.
A touchpad (also called a trackpad) is a type of input device for computers that does the same things as a computer mouse. It is made up of a flat, touch-sensitive surface which the user slides one or more fingers on to move the cursor on the screen.

What is the size of IPv4?

((a))
8-bit
((b))
16-bit
((c))
32-bit
((d))
64-bit
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

32-bit

The correct answer is 32-bit.

Important Points

IPv4 was the primary version of IP.
It was sent for creation in the ARPANET in 1983.
It is generally utilized IP adaptation.
The IPv4 uses a 32-bit address scheme.
IPv4 binary bits are separated by a dot(.)
IPv4 support broadcast.
IPv4 binary bits are a dot(.).
IPv4 security permits encryption to keep up privacy and security.
IPV4 addresses are redefined and permit flawless encoding.
Routing is a lot scalable and economical as a result of addressing is collective more effectively.
Data communication across the network becomes a lot of specific in multicast organizations.

Additional Information

IP Address is either a four-byte (IPv4) or an sixteen byte (IPv6) address.
A device attached with IP Address can retrieve by RARP protocol.
IP Address operates in the network layer.
IP Address identifies the connection of the device on the network.
IP Address modifies with the time and environment.
IP Addresses can be found by a third party.

IPv6 is the advanced version of Ipv4 address, what is the size of IPv6?

((a))
32 bit
((b))
64 bit
((c))
124 bit
((d))
128 bit
((e))
512 bit

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

128 bit

The correct answer is 128 bit.

Key Points

Internet Protocol version 6 is the most recent version of the Internet Protocol.
IPv6 uses a 128-bit address, theoretically allowing 2¹²⁸, or approximately 3.4×1038 addresses.
IPv6 addresses are represented as eight groups, separated by colons, of four hexadecimal digits.
IPv6 was developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force.

Additional Information

Each network that runs TCP/IP must have a unique network number.
Every machine on the network must have a unique IP address.
The IPv4 address is a 32-bit number that uniquely identifies a network interface on a machine.
An IPv4 address is typically written in decimal digits, formatted as four octets that are separated by periods.
Each 8-bit field represents a byte of the IPv4 address.
This form of representing the bytes of an IPv4 address is often referred to as the dotted-decimal format.
The bytes of the IPv4 address are further classified into two parts: the network part and the host part.
The following figure shows the component parts of a typical IPv4 address.
129.144.50.56.

Important Points

Components of IP address

Network Part
The network part specifies the unique number that is assigned to the network.
The networks part also identifies the class of network that is assigned.
Host Part
This is the part of the IPv4 address that is assigned to each host.
The host part uniquely identifies the machine on our network.
For each host on our network, the network part of the address is the same, but the host part must be different.

Which of the following holds the ROM, CPU, RAM and expansion cards?

((a))
Hard disk
((b))
Floppy disk
((c))
Mother board
((d))
None of the above
((e))
Both i and ii

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Mother board

The correct answer is Mother board.

The motherboard is a printed circuit board and foundation of a computer that is the biggest board in a computer chassis.
It allocates power and allows communication to and between the CPU, RAM, and all other computer hardware components.
A motherboard provides connectivity between the hardware components of a computer, like a processor (CPU), memory (RAM), hard drive, and video card.
A computer motherboard is located inside the computer case and is where most of the parts and computer peripherals connect.

Additional Information

Storage Device	Use
Hard disk	A hard disk drive (sometimes abbreviated as a hard drive, HD, or HDD) is a non-volatile data storage device.
Floppy disk	Floppy diskette is a type of storage media capable of storing electronic data, like a computer file.

Octal number 12 is equal to decimal number

((a))
9
((b))
10
((c))
11
((d))
12
((e))
14

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Octal to decimal conversion →

(12)₈ = 1 × 8¹ + 2 × 8⁰ = 8 + 2 = (10)₂

Name the device used to connect computers for communication via telephone lines.

A. HUB

B. Switch

C. Repeater

D. MODEM

((a))
D
((b))
A
((c))
C
((d))
B
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Option 1 is correct, i.e. MODEM.

Key Points

A modem is a hardware device that allows a computer to send and receive data over a telephone line or a cable or satellite connection.
MODEM stands for modulator-demodulator.

Additional Information

A modem is used for transmitting and receiving data over a communication channel, such as twisted-pair telephone lines, coaxial cables, and optical fibers.
At the source, the modulation technique is used to convert the analog signal to digital.
At the receiver, demodulation is used to convert the digital signal back to analog.

What are some of the benefits of using a firewall for your LAN?

((a))
Increased access to Instant Messaging
((b))
Stricter access control to critical resources
((c))
Greater security to your LAN
((d))
Both 2 and 3
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Both 2 and 3

The correct answer is Both 2 and 3

Key Points

A firewall is a software program that prevents unauthorized access to or from a private network. Firewalls are tools that can be used to enhance the security of computers connected to a network, such as LAN or the Internet. They are an integral part of a comprehensive security framework for your network.

Additional Information

Firewalls are designed as a barricade to keep out untrustworthy entities and traffic. A firewall can be a software or hardware-based system that serves as around the clock traffic cop, prohibiting any traffic that you don’t want inside your network. You define the traffic to be permitted into your network. Anything else simply has no access.
Some of the benefits of using a firewall for your LAN are-

Stricter access control to critical resources
Greater security to your LAN

Which of the following option correctly describes use of firewall?

((a))
Preventing unauthorized access
((b))
Data sharing between different servers
((c))
Fast web browsing
((d))
Preventing computer hardware from any damage
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Preventing unauthorized access

The correct answer is Preventing unauthorized access.

Key Points

A firewall is a kind of security-conscious type of hardware or software that stays between the computer and our network with a primary task: preventing malicious software from reaching us.
In other words, we can say that the firewall works like a security guard between the Internet and our local area network (LAN). All network traffic passing through the LAN must face the firewall, which restricts unauthorized access to the network.

Additional Information

Following are the types of Firewalls -

Packet-filtering firewall: It checks every packet that passes the firewall and examines the packet as per the set of rules that the user sets up. If the packet gets to pass the test, it’s allowed to go through. If the packet fails to pass the test then it is rejected. Packet filters are the most inexpensive variety of firewalls. That is why packet-filtering firewalls are used very commonly.
Stateful packet inspection (SPI): It is installed in accordance with simple packet filtering. A firewall having Stateful packet checking looks at packets in clusters instead of doing individually. It maintains the record of all those packets have crossed through the firewall and can create patterns that indicate unauthorized entry.
Deep packet inspection (DPI): It is the actual data of the packets is checked so viruses, spam, and other harmful content can be restricted. DPI also enables practices, such as data mining, eavesdropping, and content censorship, which make its way through a controversial subject.

Which of the following is NOT a social networking site?

((a))
Facebook
((b))
Epic
((c))
Linked In
((d))
Skype
((e))
Twitter

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Epic

Epic is NOT correct.

Key Points

Among the options, only Epic is NOT a social networking site.
Epic is a web browser.
Epic is the first web browser developed in India.
It was developed by the Bengaluru based Hidden Reflex company.
It was launched on 29^th August 2013.
Epic is available in 13 languages and the foregoing languages such as Arabic, Chinese, Russian, and Greek.
It is the first web browser built on Chromium engineered to protect users privacy.
Social networking is an online platform in which people use to build social networks with other people who share similar personal or career interest.

Additional Information

Important social networking sites are:
Facebook.
Linked In.
Twitter.
YouTube.
Instagram.
Skype.
Tumblr.
WeChat,
Flickr.
Facebook was started in the year 2004.
Mark Zuckerberg is the founder of Facebook.
Twitter is known as the 'SMS in the world of internet'.
Messages posts in Twitter are known as tweets.

What is used to create a link to a web page, a picture, an email address or a program?

((a))
Clip art
((b))
Smart art
((c))
From Web
((d))
Hyperlink
((e))
New Window

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Hyperlink

The correct answer is Hyperlink.

Key Points

A hyperlink is a text or an image within a file on your computer that you can click on that gives access to another document or image.

Additional Information

● A hyperlink can be thought of as an interface that links a source to a target. Clicking the hyperlink at the source will navigate to the target. Hyperlinks can assume any of the following appearances:

➔ Text

➔ Images

➔ URLs

➔ Controls (for example, a button)

Which of the following is not a windows version?

((a))
8
((b))
7
((c))
9
((d))
10
((e))
XP

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. 9.

Additional Information

Windows XP, Windows 7, Windows 8 and Windows 10 are the windows operating system versions.
Windows 9 never released.
Microsoft company released Windows 10 OS directly after Windows 8 OS.
Satya Nadella is the current CEO of the Microsoft company.

Which of the following is an input device used to enter motion data into computers or other electronic devices?

((a))
Monitor
((b))
Trackball
((c))
Speaker
((d))
Plotter
((e))
Both ii and iii

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Trackball

The correct answer is Trackball.

Key Points

A trackball is an input device used to enter motion data into computers or other electronic devices.
Trackballs designed for computers usually serve as mouse replacements and are essentially used to move the cursor on the screen.
An input device forwards information to a computer system for processing. Input devices only allow for input of data to a computer.
Output device reproduces or displays the results of the processing. Output devices only receive the output of data from another device.

Input Devices	Keyboard, Touchpad, Mouse, Digital Camera etc.
Output Devices	Monitor, Printer, Plotter, Speaker, Headphones, Projectors etc.

Which of the following is a very high-speed semiconductor memory which can speed up the CPU?

((a))
Cache Memory
((b))
Primary Memory
((c))
Main Memory
((d))
Secondary Memory
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Cache Memory

The correct answer is Cache memory.

Important Points

Cache memory is a very high-speed semiconductor memory which can speed up the CPU.
Cache memory acts as a buffer between the main memory and the CPU. It holds the most frequently used part of the program and data.
Some advantages of cache memory are -
For temporary use, it is helpful in storing data.
It is faster than the main memory.

Additional Information

Cache memory holds only those data and instructions that are hold by the primary memory or main memory on which the computer is currently working.
For storing data/information permanently secondary memory also known as external memory or non-volatile is used.

What is the purpose of 'Compare' option in MS Word 2007?

((a))
It compares style between selected texts in the document
((b))
It compares two paragraphs in the document
((c))
It compares two-word documents
((d))
It compares a word document with a PDF file
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

It compares two-word documents

The correct answer is It compares two-word documents.

Additional Information

'Compare' option in MS Word 2007 is used to compares two-word documents.
This option is available in the Review tab of the ribbon.
It will compare every aspect like font size, white spaces, font color, etc.
It limits the comparison to only two documents at a given time.
Along with the compare option, there is one more option named 'Combine'.
'Combine' option is used to combine two-word documents.

Which device among the following works as both Input and Output device?

((a))
Printer
((b))
Keyboard
((c))
Scanner
((d))
Network Cards
((e))
Pointer

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Network Cards

The correct answer is Network Cards.

Important Points

Network Card is the hardware device used for networking.
It is a circuit board located near the USB port at the back.
Network cards work as both input as well and output devices.
It is also known as a Local area Network card, Ethernet card, or Network card Only. It is also known as an interface controller.
It can be in the form of an Onboard that is present in the system itself or can be offboarded like an Expansion slot.
it usually is on the back of the computer near the bottom near the PCI slot.
On laptops, the Network card is mostly integrated into the Motherboard.
If a Network card is not present on the computer or laptop it must have a wireless network Connection.

PC Repair Guide: How To Install a Network Interface Card (NIC) - ACME HOW TO .com

Key Points

Functions of the Network Interface Card

A network card functions as a middle person between the computer and the data network.
Ex: when we log in to a website the PC passes information to the Network card which converts it into an electrical signal and then we get a web page.
It works like a Translator, which converts data into a digital signal.
It communicates over a long distance.

What is the shortcut key for the central alignment of a line or text in MS Office software?

((a))
Ctrl+E
((b))
Ctrl+A
((c))
Ctrl+G
((d))
Ctrl+C
((e))
Ctrl + D

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ctrl+E

The Correct Answer is Ctrl+E.

Key Points

Ctrl + E makes the text in a word document centred.

Important Points

Ctrl + A Selects all text.
Ctrl + G opens the Find and replace options.
Ctrl+C Copy the selected text.

Additional Information

Word shortcut keys

Ctrl + A -- Select all contents of the page.
Ctrl + B -- Bold highlighted selection.
Ctrl + C -- Copy selected text.
Ctrl + X -- Cut selected text.
Ctrl + N -- Open new/blank document.
Ctrl + O -- Open options.
Ctrl + P -- Open the print window.
Ctrl + F -- Open find box.
Ctrl + I -- Italicise highlighted selection.
Ctrl + K -- Insert link.
Ctrl + U -- Underline highlighted selection.
Ctrl + V -- Paste.
Ctrl + Y -- Redo the last action performed.
Ctrl + Z -- Undo last action.
Ctrl + G -- Find and replace options.
Ctrl + H -- Find and replace options.
Ctrl + J -- Justify paragraph alignment.
Ctrl + L -- Align selected text or line to the left.
Ctrl + Q -- Align selected paragraph to the left.
Ctrl + E -- Align selected text or line to the centre.
Ctrl + R -- Align selected text or line to the right.
Ctrl + M -- Indent the paragraph.
Ctrl + T -- Hanging indent.
Ctrl + D -- Font options.
Ctrl + Shift + F -- Change the font.
Ctrl + Shift + > -- Increase selected font +1.
Ctrl + ] -- Increase selected font +1.
Ctrl + [ -- Decrease selected font -1.
Ctrl + Shift + * -- View or hide non printing characters.
Ctrl + (Left arrow) -- Move one word to the left.
Ctrl + (Right arrow) -- Move one word to the right.
Ctrl + (Up arrow) -- Move to the beginning of the line or paragraph.
Ctrl + (Down arrow) -- Move to the end of the paragraph.
Ctrl + Del -- Delete word to the right of the cursor.
Ctrl + Backspace -- Delete word to the left of the cursor.
Ctrl + End -- Move cursor to end of the document.
Ctrl + Home -- Move cursor to the beginning of the document.
Ctrl + Space -- Reset highlighted text to default font.
Ctrl + 1 -- Single-space lines.
Ctrl + 2 -- Double-space lines.
Ctrl + 5 -- 1.5-line spacing.
Ctrl + Alt + 1 Change text to heading 1.
Ctrl + Alt + 2 Change text to heading 2.
Ctrl + Alt + 3 Change text to heading 3.
F1 -- Open help.
Shift + F3 -- Change case of selected text.
Shift + Insert -- Paste.
F4 -- Repeat the last action performed (Word 2000+).
F7 -- Spell check selected text and/or document.
Shift + F7 -- Activate the thesaurus.
F12 -- Save as.
Ctrl + S -- Save.
Shift + F12 -- Save.
Alt + Shift + D -- Insert the current date.
Alt + Shift + T -- Insert the current time.
Ctrl + W -- Close document.

Which of the following mentioned options is a basic software used in MS Office?

((a))
MS-Word
((b))
MS-Excel
((c))
MS-PowerPoint
((d))
MS Access
((e))
All of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of these

The correct answer is All of these

Key Points

All the above-mentioned options like MS-word, MS-Excel, MS-PowerPoint extra, have different functions as per the requirement of the users.

Additional Information

Microsoft Office is a set of computer applications mainly used for business or office purposes. First introduced in 1990, Office software is made by the Microsoft Corporation.

MS Office helps simplify basic office tasks and improve work productivity. Each application is designed to address specific tasks, such as word processing, data management, making presentations, and organizing emails.
Microsoft has developed multiple versions of Office that can be supported by different operating systems, including Windows, Linux, and macOS.Microsoft Office is also offered in 35 different languages.
The most common Office applications are Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and Outlook. Other apps include Publisher, Access, and OneNote.
Here’s a brief explanation of each of the different apps and what you can use them for:
Microsoft Word: is a word processor that lets users make and edit text documents, such as reports, letters, and résumés and run spell-checks on writing
Microsoft Excel: is an electronic spreadsheet program that helps you store, organize and manipulate data by creating simple to complex spreadsheets
Microsoft PowerPoint: allows you to visually display information, using anything from basic slideshows to professional multimedia presentations
Microsoft Outlook: is a personal information manager mainly used for emails but that can also be used to store calendars and contact information, manage tasks as well as organize meetings
Microsoft Publisher: is a graphic design app that gives users creating material for marketing or publications more options in the layout and design of their documents
Microsoft Access: is a database management system that allows you to link and use data from other sources, manipulate the data you’ve gathered in different ways, as well as create simple business applications
Microsoft OneNote: is a digital alternative to a paper notebook that allows you to create, organize and share your notes easily
Microsoft Office is either available as a package or you can buy stand-alone Microsoft Office applications, such as Word or Excel separately.

Match the following:

a) Input Device	p) ROM
b) Processing device	q) Touch screen
c) Storage Device	r) Printer
d) Output Device	s) Flash Memory

A. a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p

B. a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r

C. a-r, b-p, c-s, d-q

D. a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s

((a))
C
((b))
D
((c))
A
((d))
B
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r.

Computer hardware includes the physical parts of a computer, such as a case, central processing unit (CPU), monitor, mouse, keyboard, computer data storage, graphics card, sound card, speakers, and motherboard.
By contrast, the software is the set of instructions that can be stored and run by hardware.

Additional Information

An input device is any hardware device that sends data to a computer, allowing you to interact with and control it.
A Logitech trackball mouse, which is an example of an input device.
The most commonly used or primary input devices on a computer are the keyboard and mouse. However, there are other devices that input data into a computer.

Which among the following is NOT a feature of RAM

((a))
Allows users to store multiple gigabytes (GB) of data.
((b))
Data remains even after power supply is not present.
((c))
It can be accessed by the Central Processing Unit
((d))
Can be read, erased or modified.
((e))
Data in the RAM can be accessed randomly.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Data remains even after power supply is not present.

Data remains even after power supply is not present is NOT correct.

Key Points

RAM is the acronym of Random Access Memory.
RAM is the internal memory of the CPU for data storage.
RAM is usually termed as the main memory of the system.
Ram is a volatile memory.
RAM losses its data when the computer is turned off.
RAM as a solid-state memory, was first invented in by Robert Dennard.

Important Points

The key features of RAM are:
It is a read/write memory.
Allows users to store multiple gigabytes (GB) of data.
It can be accessed by the Central Processing Unit
Can be read, erased or modified.
Data in the RAM can be accessed randomly.
RAM is small in case its physical size and in the amount of data it can hold.

Windows 95, Windows 98 and Windows NT are known as what?

((a))
Processor
((b))
Domain names
((c))
Modems
((d))
Operating systems
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Operating systems

The correct answer is Operating system

Key Points

Windows is the name of the operating system by Microsoft. 95,98 and NT are the different versions of the windows OS.

Additional Information

An operating system is a powerful, and usually large, program that controls and manages the hardware and other software on a computer.
All computers and computer-like devices require operating systems, including your laptop, tablet, desktop, smartphone, smartwatch, and router.
Some examples include versions of Microsoft Windows (like Windows 10, Windows 8, Windows 7, Windows Vista, and Windows XP), Apple's macOS (formerly OS X), Chrome OS, BlackBerry Tablet OS, and flavors of Linux, an open-source operating system.

General Awareness (40 questions)

According to 2011 census what is Rural populations of India?

((a))
833.1 million
((b))
800.1 million
((c))
893.1 million
((d))
933.1 million
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

833.1 million

The correct answer is 833.1 million.

Key Points

As per the Provisional Population Totals of Census 2011, the total population of India was 1210.2 million. Of this, the rural population stands at 833.1 million and the urban population 377.1 million.

Important Points

By the 2011 census, there were 46 million-plus cities in India, with Delhi, Mumbai, and Kolkata having populations over 10 million.
There are 53 urban agglomerations in India with a population of 1 million or more by the 2011 census.
According to the 2001 census, there were 35 cities in India that have more than 1 million population.
31.165 % population can be categorized under Urban as per the 2011 Census.
By census 2011, Goa is the most urbanized state with 62.17% of the population living in urban areas.

Additional Information

According to Census 2001, over 70% lived in rural areas.
By the 2001 census, 35 urban agglomerations in India with a population of 1 million or more.

When is the International Tiger Day celebrated every year?

((a))
21 July
((b))
24 July
((c))
27 July
((d))
29 July
((e))
30 July

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

29 July

Option 4 is correct i.e 29 July

International Tiger Day is celebrated on July 29 every year to raise awareness for tiger conservation.
The aim of the day is to help promote a worldwide system whereby we are dedicated to protecting tigers and their natural habitats.
International Tiger Day was established in 2010 at Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit in Russia.
At the summit, governments of tiger-populated countries vowed to double tiger population by 2022.
Wild tiger populations have declined by around 95% since the beginning of the 20th century.
A WWF report says that about a 100 years ago, there might have been over 100,000 tigers roaming the planet.
The Tiger Estimation Report 2018, released by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on July 29, 2019, said that the population of tigers in India had increased to 2,967 in 2018 from 2,226 in 2014, according to the tiger census.

PMJDY is a nationwide scheme launched by the Government of India to ensure the financial inclusion of every individual who does not have a bank account in India. What was the overdraft limit this scheme?

((a))
5,000.
((b))
6,000
((c))
7,000.
((d))
8,000
((e))
10,000

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

10,000

The correct answer is 10,000.

Key Points

Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is a nationwide scheme.
It was launched by the Government of India.
It was established to ensure financial inclusion of every individual who does not have a bank account in India.
The scheme was launched on August 28, 2014.
The main slogan of this scheme was ‘Mera Khata – Bhagya Vidhata’ which implies " my bank account is my god."
Any of the documents can be helpful in opening the account under this scheme-
The passport
The driving license
The Permanent Account Number (PAN) Card
The Voter’s ID issued by the Election Commission of India
The Aadhar Card
Under PMJDY-
Accounts can be opened with Zero balance.
The account holders under this scheme can avail of a RuPay debit card which can be used across all ATMs for cash withdrawal.
A customer can open an account under this scheme with any bank branch or Business Correspondent (Bank Mitr) outlet.
The account holders can avail of an overdraft facility up to Rs 10,000.

What is the maximum amount of fund deposited under the Public Provident Fund?

((a))
1 lakhs
((b))
50 thousand
((c))
1.5 lakhs
((d))
2 lakhs
((e))
2.5 lakhs

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1.5 lakhs

The correct answer is 1.5 lakhs.

Key Points

The Public Provident Fund is a savings-cum-tax-saving instrument in India, introduced by the National Savings Institute of the Ministry of Finance in 1968.
A minimum yearly deposit of Rs. 500 is required to open and maintain a PPF account.
It is a savings-cum-tax-saving instrument in India.
The maximum amount that can be deposited in a financial year is Rs. 1.5 lakh.
It is a 15-year scheme, which can be extended indefinitely in a block of 5 years.

The Government of India releases MSP of agricultural produce from time to time. What is the full form of MSP?

((a))
Minimum Selling Price
((b))
Minimum Support Price
((c))
Maximum Selling Price
((d))
Maximum Support Price
((e))
Minimum Stock Price

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Minimum Support Price

The Correct Answer is Minimum Support Price.

Key Points

Minimum Support Price

Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops.
The MSP is decided based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

Additional Information

The government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane.
The list of crops is as follows.
Cereals (7) - paddy, wheat, barley, jawar, bajra, maize, and ragi
Pulses (5) - gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad, and lentil
Oilseeds (8) - groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soybean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed, and nigerseed
Raw cotton
Raw jute

In October 2020, which bank has raised ₹5,000 crores by issuing Basel-III compliant bonds?

((a))
PNB
((b))
Yes Bank
((c))
SBI
((d))
Axis Bank
((e))
ICICI Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

SBI

The correct answer is SBI.

SBI has raised ₹5,000 crores by issuing Basel-III compliant bonds.
The committee of directors of capital raising met on 26 Oct 2020 and accorded its approval to allot 50,000 Basel-III compliant non-convertible, taxable debt instruments.
The Basel-III capital regulations are globally accepted banking norms under which banks need to improve and strengthen their capital planning processes.

Which state has decided to celebrate the popular Hornbill festival virtually this year, amid the surge in COVID-19 cases in the country?

((a))
Sikkim
((b))
Odisha
((c))
Nagaland
((d))
West Bengal
((e))
Telangana

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Nagaland

The correct answer is Nagaland.

The Nagaland government has decided to celebrate the popular Hornbill festival virtually this year, amid the surge in COVID-19 cases in the country.
Hornbill Festival, held from December 1 to 10, showcases the culture, heritage, food, and customs of Naga tribes at Kisama village.
Sixteen tribal communities come together to celebrate their traditions with colorful dance performances.
Nagaland:
Lok Sabha seats - 1.
Rajya Sabha seats - 1.
State Animal - Gayal.
State Bird - Blyth's tragopan.

Which among the following countries virtually hosted the 15th G20 Summit in November 2020?

((a))
India
((b))
Japan
((c))
the USA
((d))
France
((e))
Saudi Arabia

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Saudi Arabia

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia.

Saudi Arabia virtually hosted the 15th G20 Summit in November 2020.
The Summit saw the participation of respective Heads of State/ Government of 19 member countries, EU, other invited countries and international organizations.
Theme-Realizing Opportunities of 21st Century for All.
The agenda of the Summit was spread out over two days with two sessions focused on overcoming the pandemic, economic recovery and restoring jobs, and building an inclusive, sustainable and resilient future.

Additional Information

PM Modi representing India called for a new Global Index for the Post-Corona World that comprises four key elements:
creation of a vast Talent Pool
ensuring that Technology reaches all segments of the society
transparency in systems of governance
dealing with Mother Earth with a spirit of Trusteeship
PM Modi suggested the creation of a G20 Virtual Secretariat as a follow-up and documentation repository noting that ‘Work from Anywhere’ is a new normal in the post-COVID world.
The members of the G20 are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the European Union.

Who among the following is not a member of G7?

((a))
France
((b))
Germany
((c))
Russia
((d))
Japan
((e))
Canada

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Russia

The Group of Seven (G7) is an international intergovernmental economic organization consisting of seven countries.

Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States.
Russia was suspended in March 2014 due to the annexation of Crimea.
The seven countries comprise 58% of the global wealth and 46% of the Global Gross Domestic Product.

In Aug 2020, which of the following states has officially announced the inauguration of the first-ever seaplane service in the state from October 31?

((a))
Andhra Pradesh
((b))
Maharashtra
((c))
Gujarat
((d))
Tamil Nadu
((e))
Kerala

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Gujarat

The correct answer is Gujarat

The Gujarat government has officially announced the inauguration of the first-ever seaplane service in the state from October 31 - which marks the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
The service will be operated by Spicejet Airline from Sabarmati riverfront in Ahmedabad to Statue of Unity in Kevadia.
An MoU was signed on July 22 this year between Chief Minister Vijay Rupani and the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) and Airports Authority of India to start the “first-ever seaplane services in Gujarat.
The water aerodrome scheme is being implemented by the terms and conditions of a tripartite agreement between the state government, the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA), and the Airports Authority of India.
SpiceJet will operate a 19-seater plane, which will be able to accommodate 14 passengers. Ticket price would be around ₹4,800 per person.

Soumitra Chatterjee passed away in November 2020. He was related to which of the following fields?

((a))
Acting
((b))
Politics
((c))
Journalism
((d))
Cricket
((e))
Medicine

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Acting

The correct answer is Acting.

Actor Soumitra Chatterjee passed away on 15 November in Kolkata following COVID-19 complications. He was 85.
He had worked in acclaimed films like Ashani Sanket, Ghare Baire, Aranyer Din Ratri, Charulata, Shakha Proshakha, Jhinder Bandi and Saat Pake Bandha, among others.
The actor was also a recipient of the Padma Bhushan (2004) and the Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2012).

In July 2020, who has written the book 'Overdraft: Saving the Indian Saver'?

((a))
Manmohan Singh
((b))
Jayant Sinha
((c))
Urjit Patel
((d))
Raghuram Rajan
((e))
Shaktikanta Das

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Urjit Patel

Option 3 is correct:

Former RBI governor, Urjit Patel has written a book titled 'Overdraft: Saving the Indian Saver'.
The book focuses on the non-performing assets (NPAs) issue that has afflicted Indian banking in recent years, its causes and Patel's efforts as the RBI Governor in dealing with it.
Patel's book description says that sovereigns do not need to earn or save before spending money. They can either print or borrow.
Patel, under whose governorship the note ban was carried out, surprised all by resigning from the RBI in December 2018.
Patel's book will be released by the end of July.

Which of the following minister launched the National Portal for Transgender Persons?

((a))
Thaawar Chand Gehlot
((b))
Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
((c))
Ravi Shankar Prasad
((d))
Nitin Gadkari
((e))
Smriti Zubin Irani

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Thaawar Chand Gehlot

The Correct Answer is Thaawar Chand Gehlot.

Key Points

Thaawar Chand Gehlot, the Union Minister for Social Justice & Empowerment, unveiled the 'National Portal for Transgender People.'
A 'Garima Greh: A Shelter Home for Transgender People' was also e-inaugurated on 25 November 2020 in Vadodara, Gujarat.
They will track the progress of their submission through the portal, which provides accountability in the process.
A significant feature of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 is the receipt of Transgender Certificates and Identification Cards according to their self-perceived identity.
The primary purpose of the shelter home is to offer basic services such as shelter, food, clothes, medical care and recreational facilities to transgender people.
The shelter will also provide capacity-building and skills-building support for transgender people, enabling them to live a life of dignity and respect.
In order to improve the conditions of transgender people across the world, the Union Social Justice Ministry has taken the first step by identifying 10 cities to set up 13 shelter homes.

Saubhagya yojnana is scheme that provide subsidy on equipment such as transformers, wires, and meters and provide power connection in both the urban and rural areas.. What does SOUBHAGYA stand for?

((a))
Solar Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
((b))
Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
((c))
Sehar Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
((d))
Safal Bilji Har Ghar Yojana
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana

The correct answer is Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana.

Key Points

Soubhagya scheme -

The scheme is also called as " Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana ".
The scheme is related to " Electricity Connections ".
It was launched in September 2017 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi who aimed to complete the electrification process by December 2018.
The total outlay of the project is Rs 16,320 crore.
The outlay for the rural household is Rs 14,025 crore.
The outlay for the urban household is Rs 2,295 crore.
The scheme will provide subsidy on equipment such as transformers, wires, and meters.
The power connection will be provided in both the urban and rural areas.
The beneficiary household will also get one LED lights one DC power plug, and also includes the repair and maintenance of meters only ( R&M ) for 5 years

Important Points

Highlight

The scheme is launched on the occasion of the birth centenary celebration of Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya on 25th September.
The scheme aims to achieve 24x7 power for all by 2019 by providing electricity connection to each household across the country.
Ministry of Power would be the implementing authority of the scheme.

In Jan 2021, Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana completed 5 years of operation. How many farmers have been benefitted from this scheme?

((a))
24 lakh
((b))
48 lakh
((c))
72 lakh
((d))
96 lakh
((e))
70 lakh

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

70 lakh

The correct answer is 70 lakhs.

Key Points

Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) completed 5 years of operation in Jan 2021.
The Union agriculture ministry has disbursed Rs 90,000 to farmers.
About 70 lakh farmers benefitted and claimed worth Rs 8,741.30 crore into their accounts during the COVID-19 lockdown period.
The scheme covers over 5.5 crore farmer applications on yearly basis.
The Aadhaar seeding has helped the govt for speedy claim settlement directly into the farmer accounts.
The scheme was made voluntary for all farmers, after its revamp in February 2020.
Under this scheme-
Premium cost over and above the farmer share is equally subsidized by states and the central government.
The average sum insured per hectare has increased from Rs 15,100 during the pre-PMFBY schemes to Rs 40,700 under PMFBY.
key features of the scheme are-
Integration of land records with the PMFBY portal.
Crop insurance mobile app has been launched for easy enrolment of farmers.
Use of various technologies to assess crop losses, like satellite imagery, remote-sensing technology, drones, artificial intelligence, and machine learning to assess crop losses.
The scheme will help the farmers to report crop loss within 72 hours of the occurrence of any event through the crop insurance app.

Additional Information

Union Agriculture Minister-Narendra Singh Tomar (as of Jan 2021).
Constituency-Morena, Madhya Pradesh.
The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched on 18 February 2016.
It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
It is an insurance service for farmers for their yields.

The Kisan Credit Card scheme is a Government of India scheme which provides farmers with timely access to credit. This scheme was launched in 1998 and Credit is available for up to ____.

((a))
3 years.
((b))
4 years.
((c))
5 years.
((d))
2 years.
((e))
1 years.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3 years.

The correct answer is 3 years.

Key Points

The Kisan Credit Card scheme is a Government of India scheme.
This scheme was launched in 1998.
It was started with the aim of providing short-term formal credit to farmers.
This scheme was created by NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development).
Highlights of the Kisan Credit Card scheme is as follows-
Under this scheme, Farmers are given credit for fulfilling their financial requirements of agricultural and other allied activities along with harvest expenses.
The scheme also provides Insurance coverage for KCC scheme holders up to Rs.50,000 in the case of permanent disability or death.
A cover of Rs.25,000 is given in the case of other risks.
Any individual farmer who is an owner-cultivator is eligible for this scheme.
They have the option of flexible repayment and hassle-free disbursement procedure.
The application process for the Kisan credit card can be done in two ways, that is, Offline & Online.
It also provides assistance in the purchase of fertilizers, seeds, etc. as well as in availing cash discounts from merchants/ dealers.
Under the scheme, Credit is available for up to 3 years.
Also, repayment can be made once the harvest season is over.
Loans up to Rs.1.60 lakh are provided without any collateral.

Additional Information

Organization	Chairman/Minister
SBI	Dinesh Kumar Khara
Ministry of Finance	Nirmala Sitharaman
Ministry of Ayush	Shripad Yesso Naik
NABARD	Dr. G.R. Chintala
SIDBI	S Ramann

Who among the following has become the first non-Indian to win the Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians? (Dec)

((a))
Carolina Araujo
((b))
Claudia Sagastizábal
((c))
Chenyang Xu
((d))
Alby Mathews
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Carolina Araujo

The correct answer is Carolina Araujo.

Dr. Carolina Araujo from Brazil has become the first non-Indian to win the Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians.

Important Points

Dr. Carolina Araujo has been awarded for her outstanding work in algebraic geometry.
She is a Brazilian mathematician who specializes in algebraic geometry, including foliations, birational geometry, and fano varieties.
She is the Vice President of the Committee for Women in Mathematics at the International Mathematical Union.
The work area of Carolina focuses on birational geometry which aims at classifying and describing the structure of the algebraic varieties.

Additional Information

The prize is awarded annually to a researcher from a developing country funded by the Department of Science and Technology in association with ICTP (International Centre for Theoretical Physics), and the International Mathematical Union (IMU).
The candidates for Young Mathematics should be less than 45 years of age.
The candidates must also be conducting outstanding research in a developing country.
Srinivasa Ramanujan was an Indian mathematician.
Ramanujan made great contributions in number theory, continued fractions, and infinite series, despite not having any formal education in math.
He was a self-taught mathematician.

In which year National Dairy Development Board was established?

((a))
1960
((b))
1965
((c))
1970
((d))
1955
((e))
1963

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

1965

The Correct Answer is 1965.

Key Points

The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was created in 1965, fulfilling the desire of the then prime minister of India — the late Lal Bahadur Shastri.
The National Dairy Development Board was created to promote, finance and support producer-owned and controlled organizations.
The programs and activities of NDDB seek to strengthen farmer-owned institutions and support national policies that are favourable to the growth of such institutions.
NDDB’s efforts transformed India’s rural economy by making dairying a viable and profitable economic activity for millions of milk producers while addressing the country’s need for self-sufficiency in milk production.
The NDDB Dairy Services is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the NDDB.
It functions as a delivery arm of the NDDB for field operations relating to promoting Producer Companies and Productivity Services and is providing technical and management services for some activities under the National Dairy Plan.

Important Points

In 2014, the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), the Indian Dairy Association (IDA) and 22 state-level milk federations jointly agreed to celebrate Dr. Verghese Kurien's birthday, who was known on 26 November as the father of the White Revolution in India.
Therefore on 26 November 2014, the first National Milk Day was celebrated.
The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) of India began a rural development program known as Operation Flood in 1970.

Additional Information

Verghese Kurien was a social entrepreneur whose "billion-litre idea" Operation Flood, made India's largest self-sustaining dairy farming industry and the largest rural employment market, providing a third of all rural income.

OTP memory full form is ?

((a))
One-Time Programmable Memory
((b))
One Take Programmable Memory
((c))
Original Time Produced Memory
((d))
Original transfer Programmable Memory
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

One-Time Programmable Memory

While the memory contents for a ROM are set at design/manufacturing time, Programmable Read Only memories (PROM) and more recently One-Time Programmable (OTP) devices can be programmed after manufacturing making them a lot more flexible. Once programmed, or blown, the contents cannot be changed and the contents are retained after power is removed.
The term “blown” is a historical term related to the programming mechanism of PROMs. Contents were written by using a high voltage to burn out interconnection fuses. These PROMs were blown on special devices called PROM Programmers.
The PROM was originally developed as part of a military program related to ICBMs in 1956. The invention is attributed to Wen Tsing Chow who was working for American Bosch Arma Corporation. Commercial devices became available in the late 1960s.

100

What is the highest denomination note ever printed by the RBI?

((a))
Rs. 1,00,000
((b))
Rs. 10,000
((c))
Rs. 5,000
((d))
Rs. 1,000
((e))
Rs. 5,00

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Rs. 10,000

The correct answer is Rs. 10,000.

Key Points

The highest denomination currency note ever printed by the Reserve Bank of India was a note of 10,000 during the British Raj in 1938.
Although the note was demonetized in 1946, a new edition of the note was introduced in 1954.
However, 10,000 notes along with 1,000 notes and 5,000 notes were demonetized by the then PM Morarji Desai in 1978.
The Indian 2000-rupee banknote is the Indian rupee denomination.
It was issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 8 November 2016 after the demonetization of 500 and 1000 notes and has been in circulation since 10 November 2016.
It is part of the Mahatma Gandhi New Banknote Series with a completely new design.

101

The Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS) was established in ________.

((a))
1970
((b))
1971
((c))
1972
((d))
1973
((e))
1969

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

1971

What is the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS)?
The Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS) was established by act of government, beginning operations as the country’s central bank, and financial regulatory authority, on 1 January 1971. Prior to its introduction, the monetary functions of Singapore’s central bank were performed by separate government departments. As the complexity of modern banking increased, however, and Singapore’s financial profile grew, the inefficiencies of co-ordinating between financial departments became evident – creating a need for coherence and uniformity which only a centralized administrative body could provide. Following the Monetary Authority of Singapore Bill (passed on 2 September 1970) MAS was brought into being.
What does MAS do?
MAS’ role on Singapore’s financial landscape is to not only regulate and supervise the financial sector but to promote and sustain economic growth. MAS is governed by a board of directors and chaired by Singapore’s Minister for Finance. As a government institution, MAS operates by a strict code of conduct and considers certain core values, including a commitment to professionalism, integrity, and fairness, of paramount importance.
In its regulatory capacity, MAS oversees every aspect of monetary policy, banking and finance in Singapore, including matters relating to the insurance industry. According to its mandate, MAS’ role as central bank involves:
Conducting monetary policy, including issuing currency and overseeing payment systems.
Serving as a financial agent and banker to the government of Singapore by providing it with facilities in which to deposit money, and to transact with international financial institutions, such as the World Bank.
Conducting supervision of Singapore’s financial services, and surveillance of the country’s financial stability.
Managing Singapore’s foreign reserves and assets.
Developing Singapore’s status as an international financial center.
The role MAS plays in the economic and professional profile of Singapore is significant. The actions MAS takes to regulate and supervise the country’s financial landscape is a foundation of its reputation as an international business hub, and the esteem in which it is held by the international community.

102

Gudni Th. Jóhannesson has been appointed as the President of which country in June 2020?

((a))
Finland
((b))
Iceland
((c))
Norway
((d))
Ireland
((e))
Sweden

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Iceland

Incumbent President of Iceland, Gudni Th. Jóhannesson won his second four-year term in the presidential election.
Jóhannesson was re-elected with 92% of the popular vote, the second-largest win in Icelandic presidential elections.
The President is Iceland's head of state and largely hold a ceremonial role with limited powers.
Presidents are elected through direct popular vote.
Iceland:
Capital - Reykjavík
Currency - Icelandic króna

103

BSNL in partnership with which of the following banks has launched a UPI-based payment platform, Bharat InstaPay?

((a))
HDFC Bank
((b))
Axis Bank
((c))
Canara Bank
((d))
SBI
((e))
Bank of Baroda

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

SBI

BSNL in partnership with SBI has launched a UPI-based payment platform, Bharat InstaPay.
The new payment facility developed by the company will enable its partners, especially prepaid sellers, to buy service immediately for sale.
Bharat InstaPay will help its partners do digital transactions on a real-time basis.

104

ASHA is one of the key components of the National Rural Health Mission is to provide every village in the country with a trained female community health activist. What does ASHA stand for?

((a))
Accredited Social Health Activist.
((b))
Accredited Social Health Worker Association
((c))
Association of Social Health Activist.
((d))
Accredited Socialist Health Association
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Accredited Social Health Activist.

The correct answer is Accredited Social Health Activist.

Key Points

ASHA stands for Accredited Social Health Activist.
ASHA is one of the key components of the National Rural Health Mission is to provide every village in the country with a trained female community health activist ASHA or Accredited Social Health Activist.
Selected from the village itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be trained to work as an interface between the community and the public health system.
One of the key components of the National Rural Health Mission is to provide every village in the country with a trained female community health activist ASHA or Accredited Social Health Activist.
Selected from the village itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be trained to work as an interface between the community and the public health system.
ASHA must primarily be a woman resident of the village married/ widowed/ divorced, preferably in the age group of 25 to 45 years.

105

Which of the following company is not a member of Hinduja Group?

((a))
Ashok Leyland Ltd
((b))
IndusInd Bank Ltd
((c))
Gulf Oil Corp. Ltd
((d))
Hinduja Global Solutions Ltd
((e))
Larsen and Toubro

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Larsen and Toubro

The correct answer is Laser and Turbo.

Key Points

The foundation of the Hinduja Group was laid by Parmanand Deepchand Hinduja.
The Group remained headquartered in Iran till 1979. It then moved to Europe.
Hinduja Group then went on to strengthen its businesses with diversifications in the fields of Automotive, Information Technology, Media, Entertainment & Communications, Infrastructure Project, Development, Oil & Specialty Chemicals, Power, Real Estate and Healthcare, spanning across continents.
These are some companies under Hinduja group Ashok Leyland Ltd, IndusInd Bank Ltd, Gulf Oil Corp. Ltd, Hinduja Foundries Ltd, Hinduja Global Solutions Ltd and Hinduja Ventures Ltd.

106

As per the guidelines for licensing payments banks, a payments bank will initially be restricted to holding a maximum balance of Rs. ________ per individual customer.

((a))
50,000
((b))
2,00,000
((c))
1,00,000
((d))
10,00,000
((e))
1,50,000

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

2,00,000

The correct answer is 2,00,000

A payment bank can accept only savings and current deposits of up to Rs 2 lakh per customer.

More About Payment Banks:

Payment banks will undertake only limited banking functions which are allowed as per the Banking Regulation Act of 1949.
Payments banks were introduced by the RBI to widen financial inclusion to small savings account holders, low-income households, unorganized sectors, migrant workers, and small businesses.
The minimum capital requirement for the license of the payment bank is Rs 100 crore.
Payment Banks can issue ATM/debit cards but not credit cards.
A payment bank can distribute non-risk sharing simple financial products like mutual funds and insurance products. Banking Regulation Act of 1949- This act was enacted to safeguard the interest of the depositors and to control the abuse of powers by controlling the banks by any means necessary and to the interest of the Indian economy in general.

107

Many times we read in newspapers that several companies are adopting the FCCBs route to raise capital. What is the full form of FCCBs?

((a))
Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds
((b))
Foreign Convertible Credit Bonds
((c))
Financial Consortium and credit bureau
((d))
Future Credit and Currency Bureau
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds

Foreign currency convertible bonds (FCCBs) are a special category of bonds. FCCBs are issued in currencies different from the issuing company's domestic currency. Corporates issue FCCBs to raise money in foreign currencies. These bonds retain all features of a convertible bond, making them very attractive to both the investors and the issuers. These bonds assume great importance for multinational corporations and in the current business scenario of globalisation, where companies are constantly dealing in foreign currencies

108

The Ministry of Rural Development has adopted the concept of RSETI for self-employment. What does T stand-in RSETI?

((a))
Training
((b))
Technology
((c))
Tropical
((d))
Trainer
((e))
Trained

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Training

The correct answer is Training.

Important Points

For Self-Employment Ministry of Rural Development has adopted the concept of rural self-employment training institute (RSETIs).
Rural youth belonging to poor families are identified and trained for self-employment.
The trainees will be provided intensive short-term residential training programs free of cost, with food and Accommodation.
To promote rural Entrepreneurship and
Holding support for credit linkage with banks.

109

‘Mine-Instant savings account opening ' comprehensive banking program for millennial customers has been launched by which bank? (Nov)

((a))
Axis Bank
((b))
HDFC Bank
((c))
UCO Bank
((d))
Bank of Baroda
((e))
ICICI Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

ICICI Bank

The correct answer is ICICI Bank.

Key Points

ICICI Bank Financial Institution launched a special banking program for millennial customers called 'ICICI Bank MINE'.
ICICI MINE is India's first comprehensive banking platform for customers from the age of 18 years to 35 years.
The key offerings of ‘ICICI Bank Mine’ are-Instant savings account opening, New look iMobile, New credit card with curated features, Instant personal loan, overdraft facility and, different looking ICICI Bank branch with experiential engagement area.

Additional Information

About ICICI Bank-

Headquarters -Mumbai.
MD & CEO - Sandeep Bakshi. (As of Dec-2020)

110

Which of the following is correct for crossed cheque?

((a))
It has three lines are made on the top right of the cheque.
((b))
There is no cash payment on this cheque.
((c))
Amount mentioned on the cheque cannot be transferred to the bank account of the payee.
((d))
The lines must be wavy.
((e))
The cheque is non-endorsable.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

There is no cash payment on this cheque.

A cheque is a negotiable instrument defined under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. The different features of a crossed cheque are as following:

It has two parallel lines that are made on the top left of the cheque.
Amount mentioned on the cheque can only be transferred to the bank account of the payee.
There is no cash payment on this cheque.
The cheque is endorsable.

111

Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?

((a))
Mustard
((b))
Jowar
((c))
Paddy
((d))
Soyabean
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Mustard

The correct answer is Mustard.

Important Points

The agricultural crop year in India is from July to June.
The Indian cropping season is classified into two main seasons-(i) Kharif and (ii) Rabi based on the monsoon.
The kharif cropping season is from July – October during the south-west monsoon and the Rabi cropping season is from October-March (winter).
The crops grown between March and June are summer crops.
Pakistan and Bangladesh are two other countries that are using the term ‘kharif’ and ‘rabi’ to describe their cropping patterns.
The terms ‘kharif’ and ‘rabi’ originate from the Arabic language where Kharif means autumn and Rabi means spring.

Key Points

Cropping Seasons	Crops
Kharif	rice/paddy, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut, cotton, soyabean, jowar etc
Rabi	wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard etc

112

Which of the following players were not awarded with the Padma Awards in sports category 2021? (Jan 2021)

((a))
Mouma Das
((b))
KY Venkatesh
((c))
Anshu Jamsenpa
((d))
Virender Singh
((e))
None of the above.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of the above.

The correct answer is None of the above.

Important Points

Seven sportspersons from the Indian sports fraternity have been awarded the prestigious Padma awards for the year 2021.

Key Points

The list of awardees in the sports category:

P Anitha (basketball)
Mouma Das (table tennis)
Anshu Jamsenpa (mountaineering)
Sudha Singh (athletics)
Virender Singh (wrestling in deaf category)
KY Venkatesh (para-athlete), and
Madhavan Nambiar (athletics coach).

Additional Information

Regarded as one of the highest civilian awards of the country, the prestigious Padma Awards are conferred in three categories - Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
Every year, the award winners are announced on the eve of Republic Day (January 25).
The Padma Awards are felicitated by the President of India in the month of April or March.
President Ram Nath Kovind has approved the conferment of 119 Padma Awards.
The Padma award list for the year 2021 comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan, and 102 Padma Shri Awards.
While 29 of the awardees are women, the list also includes 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees, and 1 transgender awardee.

113

Where is the famous temple of Angkor Wat located?

((a))
Vietnam
((b))
Cambodia
((c))
Thailand
((d))
Philippines
((e))
China

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Cambodia

Angkor Wat is a Buddhist temple complex located in northern Cambodia.
It was originally built in the first half of the 12th century as a Hindu temple, dedicated to the Hindu god Vishnu.
The Angkor Wat is the largest religious monument in the world, Spread across more than 400 acres.
The builder of Angkor Wat was a king named Suryavarman II.
Cambodia is a Southeast Asian nation, the capital city is Phnom Penh.

114

DBS Bank has been headquartered in __________

((a))
United Kingdom
((b))
Spain
((c))
Singapore
((d))
South Africa
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Singapore

DBS Bank

Founded: 1968
Headquarters: Singapore
Chairman: Peter Seah Lim Huat
CEO: Piyush Gupta

115

The farmers are provided with an Overdraft facility based on the value of their land by Karnataka Vikas Grameen Bank. What is the maximum limit fixed for per acre of Irrigated Lands? (Dec)

((a))
Rs 50,000
((b))
Rs 75,000
((c))
Rs 1 Lakh
((d))
Rs 1.5 Lakh
((e))
Rs 2 Lakh

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Rs 1.5 Lakh

The correct answer is Rs 1.5 lakh.

Key Points

Karnataka Vikas Grameen Bank has launched an Overdraft (OD) facility for farmers.
An overdraft facility is a financial facility or instrument that enables a customer to withdraw money from their bank account (savings or current), even if a customer does not have any account balance.
Under this scheme, the farmers are provided with an OD facility based on the value of their land.
The limit is fixed up to a maximum of Rs 1.5 lakh per acre to irrigated lands and Rs 1 lakh per acre to dry land.

Additional Information

About Karnataka Vikas Grameen Bank.

Headquarters - Dharwad.
Chairman - P Gopi Krishna
It is an Indian Regional Rural Bank sponsored by Canara Bank.
It was established on 12th Sept 2005 by a Govt. of India

About RRB's-

Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) operates at the regional level in the different states of India.
These were established in 1975.
The first Regional Bank that was established in India is “Prathama Grameen Bank”.
These were set up on the recommendations of the Narsimham Working Group Committee(1975).

116

Which is the first Public Sector Bank to issue capital to public?

((a))
Indian Overseas Bank
((b))
Syndicate Bank
((c))
Oriental Bank of Commerce
((d))
Punjab National Bank
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Oriental Bank of Commerce

Oriental Bank of Commerce is an India-based bank established in Lahore (then the city of United India, and currently in Pakistan) on 19 February 1943, is one of the public sector banks in India. It was the first Public Sector Bank to issue capital to Public. It is headquartered at Gurgaon.

117

Which of the following has announced a special refinance facility to support the government's Water, Sanitisation and Hygiene (WASH) programme?

((a))
SEBI
((b))
SBI
((c))
NABARD
((d))
ADB
((e))
World Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

NABARD

The correct answer is NABARD.

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development has announced a special refinance facility to support the government's Water, Sanitisation and Hygiene (WASH) programme.
An amount of Rs 800 crore has been earmarked for this purpose for the financial year 2020-21.
NABARD will provide concessional refinance to all eligible financial institutions with a repayment period of up to 36 months.

118

Hiroshima day is celebrated on which day?

((a))
6th August
((b))
7th August
((c))
8th August
((d))
9th August
((e))
10th August

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

6th August

The correct answer is 6th August.

Key Points

Hiroshima Day( 6th August):
The 6th of August every year marks the anniversary of the atomic bombing in Hiroshima during World War II.
The horrific incident took place, which impacted many lives and property of the people of Hiroshima on August 6, 1945.
The United States dropped an atomic bomb named “Little Boy”, on the Hiroshima town in Japan

119

Which of the following has announced the launch of digital gold on its platform in October 2020?

((a))
Mobikwik
((b))
Freecharge
((c))
BharatPe
((d))
Amazon Pay
((e))
PhonePe

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

BharatPe

The correct answer is BharatPe.

Key Points

BharatPe, a leading merchant payment network, has announced the launch of digital gold on its platform.
The launch of this new category of fintech product is in line with the company’s commitment to offering the entire gamut of financial products to Small and Medium Enterprises.
Through this latest offering, BharatPe’s merchants will be able to buy and sell 99.5 percent pure24-carat gold.

120

Where is the Headquarter of Asian Development Bank?

((a))
Manila
((b))
Beijing
((c))
Tokyo
((d))
Shanghai
((e))
Both i and ii

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Manila

Option 1 is correct, i.e. Manila.

The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank situated in Manila.
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank established on 19 December 1966.
.The company also maintains 31 field offices around the world to promote social and economic development in Asia.
The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific and non-regional developed countries.
The current president is Masatsugu Asakawa.
Manila is the capital of the Philippines.

English Language (40 questions)

Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.

In today's work environment, one of the key characteristics that companies look for in their employees is emotional intelligence. Research shows that emotional intelligence counts for twice as much as intelligence and technical skills combined, in determining who will be a key asset to the company. The concept of "emotional intelligence” in the workplace is the ability to understand and manage one's own emotions and understand the emotions of others so that they can ______ on shared goals. Employees who are able to handle their emotions effectively while also understanding the emotional needs of their colleagues can be greatly valuable to any company. According to a recent study, 41% of employees say they feel burned out from work, while 45% say they are emotionally drained. More importantly, around 35% of employees reported experiencing symptoms of depression often at work. Emotional intelligence is one of the qualities that helps maintain a company culture together in such an environment. It helps employees listen to one another, recognize and address problems without being rattled, and approach every situation with genuine concern for the feelings of others. Managers have a significant influence on the workplace and so, they must be the first to understand how their own emotions can affect their colleagues. Emotional intelligence in leaders demonstrates the ability to take responsibility and personal accountability and to step into stressful situations. Companies use a variety of methods to evaluate the emotional intelligence of their employees. Pre-employment assessments allow hiring managers to get the picture of a potential employee’s character and interpersonal skills as well as their cognitive and communication skills. A more thorough evaluation can be made by asking candidates about their previous work experience, especially regarding the way they handle various situations at work. Additionally, reference checks with previous employers or colleagues may be used to gauge the interpersonal interactions of a person. With the increasing automation of jobs, the only roles that cannot be fulfilled by machines will be those jobs that require situational awareness and visualizing the future, which requires an understanding of values and emotions and to empathize with others. In short, technical skills will need to be complemented by strong social and collaboration skills in the workplace.

121

What word can be used in place of the blank space given in the passage?

((a))
Corroborate
((b))
Considerate
((c))
Collaborate
((d))
Confiscate
((e))
Complicate

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Collaborate

The correct answer is Collaborate.

Key Points

Collaborate should replace the blank space in the passage.

Let us look at the sentence in which the blank space appears:

The concept of "emotional intelligence” in the workplace is the ability to understand and manage one's own emotions and understand the emotions of others so that they can ______ on shared goals.

We understand from this sentence that the ability to handle emotions better in the workplace allows employees to work together on shared goals.

Then the word we require must mean the same as 'to work together.'

From the given options, only 'collaborate' has a similar meaning to this. So, 'collaborate' is the right answer.

Thus, the sentence becomes: The concept of "emotional intelligence” in the workplace is the ability to understand and manage one's own emotions and understand the emotions of others so that they can collaborate on shared goals.

Additional Information

Let us take a look at the other options given:

Corroborate means to confirm or support a statement.

The documents corroborated his claims to the property.

Considerate means being careful not to bother or harm anyone.

She was very considerate of her neighbors.

Confiscate means to seize something, especially when it is performed by someone with authority.

The security confiscated my camera at the museum.

Complicate means to make something more difficult or complex.

The new laws complicated the tax payment process.

122

Which of these words is closest in meaning to the word rattled?

((a))
Curious
((b))
Nervous
((c))
Tired
((d))
Happy
((e))
Sleepy

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Nervous

The correct answer is Nervous.

Key Points

Let us take a look at the sentence in which rattled appears:

It helps employees listen to one another, recognize and address problems without being rattled, and approach every situation with genuine concern for the feelings of others.

We can understand that employees should not become rattled when faced with problems at work.

So, being rattled is a reaction to facing a problem, which should be avoided at work.

With this assumption, we can choose 'Nervous' as the answer.

Being nervous is a reaction to facing a problem, but it is advised to avoid being nervous when faced with problems at work.

Thus, the word that is closest in meaning to the word rattled is: Nervous.

Additional Information

Let us look at the other options:

Being ill, tired, or sleepy are not the usual reactions when faced with a problem.

It is unusual for someone to become happy when faced with a problem.

Being happy can imply that one is eager to take on a challenge, and is not discouraged by the problem.
However, this reaction is approved at work, rather than being discouraged.

123

Which of these words means the opposite of complemented?

((a))
Praised
((b))
Supported
((c))
Contrasted
((d))
Admired
((e))
Completed

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Contrasted

The correct answer is Contrasted.

Key Points

The verb 'to complement' means to add some features to something to emphasize its quality.

For example: The white scarf complements the beauty of the blue gown.

Among the options given, all the words except contrasted are synonyms of complemented.

The verb 'to contrast' means to have qualities that emphasize the differences between objects.

For example: The sweetness of sugar contrasts with the sourness of lemon.

Thus, the word that means the opposite of complemented is: contrasted.

Confusion Points

The words complement and compliment are often confused with each other. They can be used as both a noun and a verb.

The noun 'complement' denotes something that adds features to an object to emphasize its quality.

The music was a perfect complement to the party.

The noun 'compliment' denotes an expression of praise or appreciation towards someone or something.

The artist received a lot of compliments for his latest masterpiece.

124

Which of these words is closest in meaning to the opposite of the phrase burned out?

((a))
Exhausted
((b))
Invigorated
((c))
Overworked
((d))
Tired
((e))
Fatigued

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Invigorated

The correct answer is Invigorated.

Key Points

The meaning of the phrase to be burned out is to become exhausted, usually through overworking.

In the passage, the phrase appears as part of the effects of emotional strains on employees at the workplace.

Among the options given, all the words apart from invigorated are synonyms of burned out.

Only invigorated has a meaning that is the opposite of burned out.

Invigorated means to make someone or something more energetic and lively.

A cup of coffee in the morning invigorated him.

Thus, the word that is closest in meaning to the opposite of burned out is: Invigorated.

Additional Information

The phrase burned out can be used in a variety of ways to denote being tired from overworking.

Burn (oneself) out: severely overwork oneself and become tired of working.

The athlete burned herself out training for the Olympics.

Burn (itself) out: when a machine fails to work, usually at the end of its life period.

The car lasted twelve years before it burned itself out.

125

What word can be used instead of the phrase get the picture of?

((a))
Take a photo
((b))
Better understand
((c))
Obtain evidence
((d))
Memorize all details
((e))
See through

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Better understand

The correct answer is Better understand.

Key Points

The phrase 'get the picture of' can be replaced by 'better understand'.

'Get the picture' is an idiom. Here, the meaning is not to take a photograph of something.

The phrase means to understand something clearly, without the need for any further explanation.

The instruction manual allowed him to get the picture in a short time.

So we can use 'better understand' instead of 'get a picture of' in the sentence.

Thus, the sentence becomes Pre-employment assessments allow hiring managers to better understand a potential employee’s character and interpersonal skills as well as their cognitive and communication skills.

Additional Information

An idiom is a phrase whose meaning is not to be taken literally.

The meaning of idioms cannot be understood from their individual words.

For example: the idiom 'piece of cake' means something that is very easy to accomplish.

I had studied well, so the final exam was a piece of cake.

126

Identify a suitable title for the passage.

((a))
Difficulties in hiring introverts for your company
((b))
Hiring tips for managers in the IT industry
((c))
Improving the efficiency of employes
((d))
Importance of emotional intelligence at work
((e))
Avoiding conflict at the modern workplace

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Importance of emotional intelligence at work

The correct answer is Importance of emotional intelligence at work.

Key Points

Here, we must identify a title that can convey the main theme that is explained in the passage.

The central idea of the passage is to explain what emotional intelligence is, and its advantages in the modern workplace.

Then, the most appropriate title can be one that relates emotional intelligence to the workplace.

From the options given, this is best conveyed through the title, 'Importance of emotional intelligence at work.'

Thus, the suitable title for the passage can be: Importance of emotional intelligence at work.

Additional Information

Let us look at the other titles from the options:

Difficulties in hiring introverts for your company

This title mentions 'introverts', which is neither mentioned nor implied anywhere in the passage. So, this cannot be the right title.

Hiring tips for managers in the IT industry

The passage does not mention the IT industry specifically. The concept of emotional intelligence is applicable to all kinds of companies. So, this cannot be the right title.

Improving the efficiency of employes

The passage mentions emotional intelligence being helpful to improve the efficiency of employees at the workplace. However, this does not constitute the central theme of the passage. So, this cannot be the right title.

Avoiding conflict at the modern workplace

The passage mentions improved company culture as one of the positive effects of better emotional intelligence. But this is not the central theme of the passage. So, this cannot be the right title.

127

Which of these statements best conveys the tone of the passage according to you?

((a))
More work makes employees more depressed.
((b))
Employees need to let out their emotions at work.
((c))
Better emotional management improves work culture.
((d))
Emotional issues can be reduced by automation.
((e))
Workspace relations are unprofessional.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Better emotional management improves work culture.

The correct answer is Better emotional management improves work culture.

Key Points

The question requires us to identify the idea that the author tries to convey, from the given options.

From the passage, we know that the concept being discussed is emotional intelligence. The passage looks at:

The advantages of emotional intelligence to the modern workplace.
The methods used to evaluate emotional intelligence in employees.

Thus, we can identify the theme as the importance of emotions at work.

The statement 'Better emotional management improves work culture' summarises the positive ideas of the passage. The other options do not agree with the author's point of view.

Thus, the tone of the passage can best be conveyed by 'Better emotional management improves work culture.'

Additional Information

Let us take a look at the other options given:

More work makes employees more depressed.

The passage mentions employees becoming exhausted and emotionally strained due to the work. However, this is not the central theme of the passage.

Employees need to let out their emotions at work.

The passage clearly states that employees managing their emotions effectively makes them valuable to the company. This is the opposite in meaning to the statement that employees need to let out their emotions at work.

Emotional issues can be reduced by automation.

From the passage, we understand that machines cannot fulfill those functions which require an understanding of values and emotions. This does not imply that automation can solve the problem of emotional issues at work.

Workspace relations are unprofessional.

This is not mentioned or implied in the passage at all.

128

Which of these statements is true regarding the passage?

((a))
Employees require more salary for their emotional needs.
((b))
Managers must have better emotional intelligence.
((c))
Managers must never give stressful tasks to employees.
((d))
Leaders should not be personally accountable in the workplace.
((e))
Employees without work experience are unreliable.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Managers must have better emotional intelligence.

The correct answer is Managers must have better emotional intelligence.

Key Points

Let us go through the passage:

Managers have a significant influence on the workplace and so, they must be the first to understand how their own emotions can affect their colleagues.
This implies that since managers have more influence with regard to other employees, managers must have better emotional intelligence than others in the workplace.

According to the passage, all the other statements are false.

Thus, the statement that is true regarding the passage is: Managers must have better emotional intelligence.

Additional Information

Lets us look at the other statements given in the options:

Employees require more salary for their emotional needs.

This is not mentioned anywhere in the passage. So this statement is not true.

Managers must never give stressful tasks to employees.

In the passage, it is mentioned that emotional intelligence allows employees to handle stressful situations at work more easily. This does not imply that managers should not assign stressful tasks to employees. So this statement is not true.

Leaders should not be personally accountable in the workplace.

The passage clearly mentions that 'Emotional intelligence in leaders demonstrates the ability to take responsibility and personal accountability and to step into stressful situations.' So this statement is not true.

Employees without work experience are unreliable.

In the passage, inquiring about work experience is one of the methods used to understand the emotional intelligence of employees. This does not imply whether employees are reliable or not based on their work experience. So this statement is not true.

129

What percentage of employees have not reported feeling depressed at work?

((a))
45
((b))
35
((c))
65
((d))
41
((e))
55

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is 65.

Key Points

Let us take a look at the passage:

According to a recent study, 41% of employees say they feel burned out from work, while 45% say they are emotionally drained. More importantly, around 35% of employees reported experiencing symptoms of depression often at work.

It is clear that 35% of employees feel depressed in the workplace.

Then, the remaining employees have not reported feeling depressed at work.

The remaining percentage of employees is 100-35, i.e. 65%.

Thus, the percentage of employees who have not reported feeling depressed at work is: 65.

Confusion Points

The question asks the opposite of a statement given in the passage. Some of the given options can be found in the passage. This is designed to confuse the student into choosing the wrong option.

In such questions, read through the question and compare the statement given in the passage. Compare the statements carefully to avoid any confusion with regards to the right answer.

130

Which of these methods is not used by companies to evaluate emotional intelligence?

((a))
Pre-employment assessment
((b))
Reviewing previous experience
((c))
Group discussion
((d))
Checking references
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Group discussion

The correct answer is Group Discussion.

Key Points

Let us go through the passage in detail:

Pre-employment assessments allow hiring managers to get a picture of a potential employee’s character and interpersonal skills as well as their cognitive and communication skills.
A more thorough evaluation can be made by asking candidates about their previous work experience, especially regarding the way they handle various situations at work.
Additionally, reference checks with previous employers or colleagues may be used to gauge the interpersonal interactions of a person.

We can identify three methods that are used by companies to evaluate emotional intelligence. Group discussion is not mentioned as a method in the passage.

Thus, the method that is not used by companies to evaluate emotional intelligence is: Group discussion.

Additional Information

As mentioned in the passage:

Pre-assessment checks involve various kinds of tests to review the skills and capabilities of potential employees.
Enquiring about previous work experience helps the hiring managers understand how potential employees apply their skills in a professional setting.
Reference checks are made to better assess the employee's previous work experience from their previous employer or colleagues.

131

Which of these functions cannot be fulfilled by machines?

((a))
Understanding values and emotions
((b))
Having situational awareness
((c))
Visualizing the future
((d))
Empathizing with others
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of the above

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

Let us go through the passage in detail:

With the increasing automation of jobs, the only roles that cannot be fulfilled by machines will be those jobs that require situational awareness and visualizing the future, which requires an understanding of values and emotions and to empathize with others.

We understand that jobs that require these functions cannot be fulfilled by machines. Therefore, none of these functions can be performed by machines.

Thus, the functions that cannot be fulfilled by machines is: All of the above.

Hint

The question requires us to specify which functions cannot be performed by machines.

So we need to know the instance in which these functions are mentioned in the passage.

Sometimes, one of the options may be the opposite of the statement given in the passage.

For example: 'Ignoring values and emotions' would be given instead of 'Understanding values and emotions'.

Read the sentence and compare it with the options carefully to avoid this problem.

132

Which of these is not true regarding emotional intelligence in the workplace?

((a))
Ignoring stressful tasks
((b))
Managing one's own emotions
((c))
Empathizing with colleagues
((d))
Taking responsibility for oneself
((e))
Working on common goals

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ignoring stressful tasks

The correct answer is Ignoring stressful tasks.

Key Points

The passage mentions various aspects of emotional intelligence at the workplace. Let us take a look at these statements:

The concept of "emotional intelligence” in the workplace is the ability to understand and manage one's own emotions and understand the emotions of others so that they can collaborate on shared goals.
Emotional intelligence in leaders demonstrates the ability to take responsibility and personal accountability and to step into stressful situations.

Among the options given, all the features except 'ignoring stressful tasks' are mentioned as different characteristics of emotional intelligence.

'Ignoring stressful tasks' cannot be associated with emotional intelligence at the workplace.

Thus, the statement that is not true regarding emotional intelligence in the workplace is: Ignoring stressful tasks.

Additional Information

The verb 'to empathize' means to share and understand the feelings of others. When you empathize with someone, you can relate to their feelings as your own.

The mayor was popular because he could empathize with the voters to a great extent.

A similar word is 'to sympathize' which means to understand the feelings of others. When you sympathize with someone, you agree with their feelings.

She sympathized with the people who lost their homes in the flood.

133

Directions: In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from errors, select ‘No error’ as your answer.

As the industrial revolution brought about the (A)/ development of newly inventions, communication (B)/ began progressing fast, (C)/ liberated from the constraints of space and time. /(D) No Error. /(E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is 'B' i.e. the error lies in part B of the sentence.

Key Points

Let us have a look at few words in the sentence:

The word newly is an adverb.
The word new is an adjective.
The word invention is a noun.
We need an adjective here to modify the noun inventions.
Hence, newly should be replaced with new.
Hence, the error lies in part B of the sentence.

So the correct sentence is As the industrial revolution brought about the development of new inventions, communication began progressing fast, liberated from the constraints of space and time.

Additional Information

The Eight Parts of Speech:

A noun is the name of a person, place, thing, or idea.
Example: India, Rabbit, Cardamom, Lily, etc
A pronoun is a word used in place of a noun.
Example: I, me, he, she, herself, you, it, that, they, each, few, many, who, whoever, whose, someone, everybody, etc.
A verb expresses action or being.
Example: read, write, talk, walk, eat, drink, etc.
An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun.
Example: small, large, square, round, poor, wealthy, slow, etc.
An adverb modifies or describes a verb, an adjective, or another adverb.
Example: quickly, loudly, softly, carelessly, etc.
A preposition is a word placed before a noun or pronoun to form a phrase modifying another word in the sentence.
Example: by, with, about, until, etc.
A conjunction joins words, phrases, or clauses.
Example: and, but, or, while, because, etc.
An interjection is a word used to express emotion.
Example: hurray, bravo, kudos, yayy, wow, etc

134

The government has took some steps /(A) to prevent the floods from destroying large farmlands /(B) thereby bringing a lot of relief to all the farmers across the country /(C) especially the poor ones. /(D) No Error. /(E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. the error lies in part A of the sentence.

Key Points

Let us have a look at few words given in the sentence:

The present perfect tense construction has + verb always take a verb in its third form
Hence, the verb took should be replaced by taken.

So the correct sentence is: The government has taken some steps to prevent the floods from destroying large farmlands thereby bringing a lot of relief to all the farmers across the country especially the poor ones.

135

The queen was also notorious /(A) for her annoying stare, /(B) bullying bursts of temper and /(C) on occasion, her sudden refuse to speak at all./(D) No Error. /(E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is 'D' i.e. the error lies in part D of the sentence.

Key Points

Let us have a look at few words given in the sentence:

The word refuse is a verb.
The word sudden is an adjective.
The noun refusal is needed to be modified by the adjective sudden.
The verb refuse should be replaced with the noun refusal.

So the correct sentence is: The queen was also notorious for her annoying stare, bullying bursts of temper and on occasion, her sudden refusal to speak at all.

Additional Information

The Eight Parts of Speech:

A noun is the name of a person, place, thing, or idea.
Example: India, Rabbit, Cardamom, Lily, etc
A pronoun is a word used in place of a noun.
Example: I, me, he, she, herself, you, it, that, they, each, few, many, who, whoever, whose, someone, everybody, etc.
A verb expresses action or being.
Example: read, write, talk, walk, eat, drink, etc.
An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun.
Example: small, large, square, round, poor, wealthy, slow, etc.
An adverb modifies or describes a verb, an adjective, or another adverb.
Example: quickly, loudly, softly, carelessly, etc.
A preposition is a word placed before a noun or pronoun to form a phrase modifying another word in the sentence.
Example: by, with, about, until, etc.
A conjunction joins words, phrases, or clauses.
Example: and, but, or, while, because, etc.
An interjection is a word used to express emotion.
Example: hurray, bravo, kudos, yay, wow, etc.

136

Direction: Select the segment of the sentence that contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

What he did was nothing more(A) than obey those feelings of (B) generosity and altruism which, as everyone knows,(C) is the two best traits of human nature(D).

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
No error

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is D

Key Points

In the given sentence there is an error in part D of the given sentence.
When two nouns are joined by 'and' then the plural form of the verb will be used.
Here, and is used to join the two nouns: generosity and altruism.
Therefore, in part D of the sentence, 'is' should be replaced by 'are'.

The correct sentence is, what he did was nothing more than obey those feelings of generosity and altruism which, as everyone knows, are the two best traits of human nature.

Additional Information

Subject-Verb Agreement: The subject and the verb in the sentence should agree with each other in number and person.
When the subject is in the singular the verb must also be the singular.
When the subject is in the plural the verb also must be in the plural.

137

The result of the survey /(A) shows that /(B) the majority of the shoppers /(C) ditch there shopping carts after loading. /(D) No Error. /(E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is 'D' i.e. the error lies in part D of the sentence.

Key Points

Let us have a look at few words used in the given sentence:

The word shoppers is a noun.
The word there is an adverb.
It refers to the noun shoppers.
We need a possessive pronoun their instead of an adverb there.
Hence, there should be replaced with their.

So the correct sentence is: The result of the survey shows that the majority of the shoppers ditch their shopping carts after loading.

Additional Information

Let us understand the meaning of possessive pronoun:

Possessive pronouns are pronouns that help us show possession.
Example: mine, yours, his, hers, its, ours, yours, etc.

138

Directions: In each of the questions given below, three words are given in bold. These three words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.

Approved (A) on Saturday said (B) a third coronavirus vaccine for domestic use, Prime Minister Mikhail Mishustin Russia (C) on state TV.

((a))
ACB
((b))
CAB
((c))
BAD
((d))
ABC
((e))
None of the above.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

CAB

The correct answer is CAB

Key Points

'Approved' is a verb and is not a physical entity that can 'do' something or take any action as it by itself is an action. Thus, this blank requires a noun, this could be 'Russia'.
'Said' is not an action a country can take, it has to be replaced by a doable action like 'approved'.
'Russia' is not something that can be 'on' state TV, it is not an action that can be done by Prime Minister Mikhail Mishustin. The blank requires a verb, like 'said'.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: Russia on Saturday approved a third coronavirus vaccine for domestic use, Prime Minister Mikhail Mishustin said on state TV.

139

It is mind (A) that people should keep in asserted (B) the importance of adherence to COVID-19 appropriate behaviour (C).

((a))
BAC
((b))
CAB
((c))
ABC
((d))
CBA
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

BAC

The correct answer is BAC

Key Points

'Mind' is not something that can be done, the blank requires a verb. Thus, 'asserted' is appropriate for the blank.
'Asserted' is an action, it is not a physical entity in which something can be 'kept'. This blank requires a noun. Thus, the appropriate word is 'mind'.
'Behaviour' can be appropriate, and since it has been established that A and B need to be interchanged, blank C remains unchanged.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: It is asserted that people should keep in mind the importance of adherence to COVID-19 appropriate behaviour.

140

The AstraZeneca company is going to vaccine (A) in Japan doses of the coronavirus produce (B) enough for 40 million people (C), the executive director of the Japanese department of the firm said.

((a))
CAB
((b))
ACB
((c))
ABC
((d))
BAC
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

BAC

The correct answer is BAC

Key Points

'Vaccine' is a noun, it is not an action that someone can 'do'. The blank requires a verb in the present tense. Thus, the correct answer is 'produce'.
'Produce' is a verb it cannot be a type of something, it is an action and hence cannot have 'doses'. 'Product' is the noun form and can be a type of coronavirus vaccine. The blank requires a noun and thus the answer is 'vaccine'.
We've already established that A and B will be interchanged and also '40 million' is a quality that can be used to describe people. Thus, the answer will be 'people'.

Hence, the final sentence will be: The AstraZeneca company is going to produce in Japan doses of the coronavirus vaccine enough for 40 million people, the executive director of the Japanese department of the firm said.

141

A Japanese air force officer and a US Air Force instructor crash (A) were killed in a Saturday (B) in Alabama, Japan's Air Self-Defense Force said on pilot (C).

((a))
CBA
((b))
ABC
((c))
CAB
((d))
BAC
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

CAB

The correct answer is CAB

Key Points

'Crash' is a verb (an action) and is usually followed or preceded by a noun that is the subject. 'Crash' is an action and thus cannot be 'killed' (also a verb). The blank requires a noun, thus the correct word is 'pilot'.
'Saturday' is used to refer to a time period and thus things happen 'on' a Saturday and not 'in' a Saturday. The blank requires a verb. Thus, the correct answer is 'crash'.
'Pilot' is a noun, nothing can be 'said on' a pilot, the blank requires a noun that describes a time period. Thus, the correct answer is 'Saturday'.

Hence, the correct sentence will be: A Japanese air force officer and a US Air Force instructor pilot were killed in a crash in Alabama, Japan's Air Self-Defense Force said on Saturday.

142

Iran believes US sanctions will soon be lifted (A) despite continuing “diplomatic wrangling” over reviving the nuclear deal, a government spokesman (B) said on Saturday, signaling Tehran's desire (C) to end the impasse while not offering a new position.

((a))
BCA
((b))
BAC
((c))
CAB
((d))
CBA
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of the above

The correct answer is 'None of the above'.

Key Points

The first blank requires a 'verb', an action that can be taken on the 'sanctions'. 'Sanctions' are usually levied or lifted and thus the correct answer is 'lifted'.
The second blank requires a noun that can be related to the 'government'. The noun also has to refer to a person as they are conducting the action of 'speaking'. Thus, the correct answer is 'spokesman'.
The third blank requires a noun that can be associated with a country (Tehran). It should also be something that can be signalled. Thus, the correct answer 'desire'.

Hence, the correct sentence will be: Iran believes US sanctions will soon be lifted despite continuing “diplomatic wrangling” over reviving the nuclear deal, a government spokesman said on Saturday, signalling Tehran's desire to end the impasse while not offering a new position.

Directions: Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A. “Overall I’m not convinced the analysis is robust enough to draw the conclusions asserted,” Matthew Struebig, a conservation scientist at the University of Kent who was not involved in the research, tells The Scientist in an email.

B. Other experts say these findings should be interpreted with caution because the predictions are difficult to verify.

C. The authors of the paper estimate that bat diversity increased the most in an area that includes Myanmar, Laos, and southern China—where SARS-CoV-2 likely originated—thereby increasing the chances of a bat-borne disease spreading to humans.

D. A shift in the global distribution of the winged mammals due to climate change may be responsible for recent disease outbreaks, according to a study published January 26 in Science of The Total Environment.

E. Most evidence scientists have generated since the start of the pandemic points to bats as the likely source of the COVID-19–causing coronavirus.

143

Which sentence will come in the first place after the rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The correct answer is E

Key Points

The passage clearly talks about - the COVID virus and the multiple points of view on what could be its origin.
Sentence E be the first sentence as it gives us an introduction to the passage in the form of scientists thinking that bats are the origin point of the COVID virus.
Sentence D will be the second sentence as it talks about 'the winged mammal' and since there are more than one types of 'winged mammals', it can be assumed this 'winged mammal' has been referenced in the previous sentence.
Sentence C will be the third sentence as it talks about 'the paper' and since there are more than 'one paper' that has been published in the world, this has to be referring to the study mentioned in the previous sentence i.e. sentence D.
Sentence B will be the fourth sentence as it starts with the adjective 'other' used to describe 'experts' meaning there are some original 'experts' that have been mentioned before in the passage i.e. in sentence C and that is why these 'experts' are 'other'.
Sentence A will be the fifth sentence which is the final sentence and thus should be conclusive to the passage, thus usually means a quote by someone important like in sentence A which contains a quote by Matthew Struebig who talks about getting a conclusion on the origin of the COVID virus.

Sentence D may also look like a statement that could be the introductory sentence for the passage, but on close observation, the reader will be able to see that the article 'the' is used before the term 'winged mammal' and since there is more than one type of winged mammals, it means that the term is referring to something that has been mentioned before.

Thus, the correct sequence is - EDCBA

144

Which sentence will come in the second place after the rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is D

Key Points

The passage clearly talks about - the COVID virus and the multiple points of view on what could be its origin.
Sentence E be the first sentence as it gives us an introduction to the passage in the form of scientists thinking that bats are the origin point of the COVID virus.
Sentence D will be the second sentence as it talks about 'the winged mammal' and since there are more than one types of 'winged mammals', it can be assumed this 'winged mammal' has been referenced in the previous sentence.
Sentence C will be the third sentence as it talks about 'the paper' and since there are more than 'one paper' that has been published in the world, this has to be referring to the study mentioned in the previous sentence i.e. sentence D.
Sentence B will be the fourth sentence as it starts with the adjective 'other' used to describe 'experts' meaning there are some original 'experts' that have been mentioned before in the passage i.e. in sentence C and that is why these 'experts' are 'other'.
Sentence A will be the fifth sentence which is the final sentence and thus should be conclusive to the passage, thus usually means a quote by someone important like in sentence A which contains a quote by Matthew Struebig who talks about getting a conclusion on the origin of the COVID virus.

Thus, the correct sequence is - EDCBA

145

Which sentence will come in the third place after the rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is C

Key Points

The passage clearly talks about - the COVID virus and the multiple points of view on what could be its origin.
Sentence E be the first sentence as it gives us an introduction to the passage in the form of scientists thinking that bats are the origin point of the COVID virus.
Sentence D will be the second sentence as it talks about 'the winged mammal' and since there are more than one types of 'winged mammals', it can be assumed this 'winged mammal' has been referenced in the previous sentence.
Sentence C will be the third sentence as it talks about 'the paper' and since there are more than 'one paper' that has been published in the world, this has to be referring to the study mentioned in the previous sentence i.e. sentence D.
Sentence B will be the fourth sentence as it starts with the adjective 'other' used to describe 'experts' meaning there are some original 'experts' that have been mentioned before in the passage i.e. in sentence C and that is why these 'experts' are 'other'.
Sentence A will be the fifth sentence which is the final sentence and thus should be conclusive to the passage, thus usually means a quote by someone important like in sentence A which contains a quote by Matthew Struebig who talks about getting a conclusion on the origin of the COVID virus.

Thus, the correct sequence is - EDCBA

146

Which sentence will come in the fourth place after the rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is B

Key Points

The passage clearly talks about - the COVID virus and the multiple points of view on what could be its origin.
Sentence E be the first sentence as it gives us an introduction to the passage in the form of scientists thinking that bats are the origin point of the COVID virus.
Sentence D will be the second sentence as it talks about 'the winged mammal' and since there are more than one types of 'winged mammals', it can be assumed this 'winged mammal' has been referenced in the previous sentence.
Sentence C will be the third sentence as it talks about 'the paper' and since there are more than 'one paper' that has been published in the world, this has to be referring to the study mentioned in the previous sentence i.e. sentence D.
Sentence B will be the fourth sentence as it starts with the adjective 'other' used to describe 'experts' meaning there are some original 'experts' that have been mentioned before in the passage i.e. in sentence C and that is why these 'experts' are 'other'.
Sentence A will be the fifth sentence which is the final sentence and thus should be conclusive to the passage, thus usually means a quote by someone important like in sentence A which contains a quote by Matthew Struebig who talks about getting a conclusion on the origin of the COVID virus.

Thus, the correct sequence is - EDCBA

147

Which sentence will come in the fifth place after the rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is A

Key Points

The passage clearly talks about - the COVID virus and the multiple points of view on what could be its origin.
Sentence E be the first sentence as it gives us an introduction to the passage in the form of scientists thinking that bats are the origin point of the COVID virus.
Sentence D will be the second sentence as it talks about 'the winged mammal' and since there are more than one types of 'winged mammals', it can be assumed this 'winged mammal' has been referenced in the previous sentence.
Sentence C will be the third sentence as it talks about 'the paper' and since there are more than 'one paper' that has been published in the world, this has to be referring to the study mentioned in the previous sentence i.e. sentence D.
Sentence B will be the fourth sentence as it starts with the adjective 'other' used to describe 'experts' meaning there are some original 'experts' that have been mentioned before in the passage i.e. in sentence C and that is why these 'experts' are 'other'.
Sentence A will be the fifth sentence which is the final sentence and thus should be conclusive to the passage, thus usually means a quote by someone important like in sentence A which contains a quote by Matthew Struebig who talks about getting a conclusion on the origin of the COVID virus.

Thus, the correct sequence is - EDCBA

148

Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the statement sentence.

Solar eclipses occur at new moon. The Moon is between the Sun and Earth.

Whereas the Moon
When the Moon
And the Moon

((a))
Only 1
((b))
Only 2
((c))
Only 3
((d))
Both 1 and 3
((e))
Both 2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Only 2

The correct answer is only 2.

Key Points

The phrase which we should choose to connect the sentences is only 2.
The word 'when' is used to express 'during the time that'. So, the phrase 'when the Moon' would join the sentences appropriately.
'Whereas' is used to express 'compared with the fact that'. Therefore, the phrase 'whereas the moon' cannot form a meaningful sentence.
'And' is used to join two or more words or phrases or to link those statements which are used to describe a similar object. Hence, the phrase 'And the Moon' is not appropriate for the given sentences.

The sentence after using the phrase is: Solar eclipses occur at new moon when the Moon is between the Sun and Earth.

Additional Information

Eclipse: blocking or covering

Occur: to happen or take place

149

Directions. Select the correct way (among the given options) to connect the sentences given below in the question. If all are incorrect, choose 'None of these' as your answer.

The book is layered with many philosophical teachings. It cannot be read and understood at one go.

((a))
The book is layered with many philosophical teachings while it cannot be read and understood at one go.
((b))
The book is layered with so many philosophical teachings that it cannot be read and understood at one go.
((c))
The book is layered with many philosophical teachings therefore it cannot be read and understood at one go.
((d))
The book is layered with many philosophical teachings yet it cannot be read and understood at one go.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The book is layered with so many philosophical teachings that it cannot be read and understood at one go.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Explanation:

Let us check the options one by one:

Option 1: The conjunction ‘while’ is used to either refer ‘at the same time’ or to mean ‘contrast’. The given sentence doesn’t talk about any contrast and refer anything related to time. Hence, the use of the conjunction ‘while’ is incorrect.
Option 2: This seems correct. It rightly conveys the result- the book had many philosophical teachings embedded in it and the consequence was that it could not be read and understood in the first attempt.

The conjunction ‘so that’ is used to mean ‘result or consequence’.

For example- He was so ill that he could not even cook his own food.

Option 3: ‘Therefore’ is used as a conjunctive adverb and is governed by some punctuation rules. When used to join two independent clauses (clauses that are independent), it should be preceded by a semicolon and followed by a comma.

For example- Ron never liked rock music; therefore, he always stayed away from such concerts.

Hence, the compound sentence should use a semicolon and a comma before and after ‘therefore’ respectively to make the sentence correct –

“The book is layered with many philosophical teachings; therefore, it cannot be read and understood at one go.”

Option 4: The use of the conjunction ‘yet’ distorts the meaning of the sentence completely for the second part of the sentence is not said in contrast to the first; rather it is an explanation. Hence, this is incorrect.

Therefore, Option 2 is the correct answer.

Adverbs when used as a conjunction to connect two independent clauses are called Conjunctive Adverbs.

For example- ‘Therefore’, ‘in fact’, ‘on the other hand’, etc.

150

Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the statement sentences.

Werewolves take their true form only during the new moon. Vampires are vampires throughout their lives.

Whereas
Unless
Nonetheless

((a))
Only 1.
((b))
Only 2
((c))
Only 3
((d))
Both 1 and 3
((e))
Both 2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only 1.

The correct answer is Only 1 i.e. Whereas

Key Points

The first statement talks about how werewolves take their true form only when there is a new moon.
The second statement talks about how vampires on the other hand are always vampires, irrespective of the time of day or week.
'Whereas' is a connector used to refer to a contrast or comparison of 2 or more things.
In the current sentence, the existence of werewolves and vampires is being compared.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: "Werewolves take their true form only during the new moon whereas vampires are vampires throughout their lives."

151

Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the statement sentence.

Maxine was the topper in her class. Sasha was in the bottom three.

Notwithstanding
Whereas
Unless

((a))
Only 1
((b))
Only 3
((c))
Both 1 and 3
((d))
Only 2
((e))
Both 2 and 1

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Only 2

The correct answer is Whereas

Key Points

The first statement talks about how Maxine is a topper in her class.
The second statement talks about how Sasha was in the bottom three in the same class.
'Whereas' is a connector used to refer to a contrast or comparison.
In the current sentence, there are 2 people from the same class and their rankings are being compared.

Thus, the final sentence will be: "Maxine was the topper in her class, whereas Sasha was in the bottom three."

152

Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the statement sentence.

Mihir was extremely sick. He went on to play in the tennis tournament.

Whereas
Nonetheless
Unless

((a))
Only 2
((b))
Both 1 and 3
((c))
Only 1
((d))
Only 3
((e))
Both 1 and 2

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only 2

The correct answer is Only 2 i.e. Nonetheless

Key Points

The first statement talks about Mihir being very sick, this is not a condition in which one usually does anything major. One just tries to recover as soon as possible.
The second statement talks about Mihir playing a tennis tournament, this is something that involves a lot of physical exertion and is not something one usually does when one is sick.
Thus, it would not make sense that Mihir should play in a tennis tournament despite the fact that he is sick.
'Nonetheless' is a connector used to something being a fact 'in spite of' something.
In this case, Mihir went on to play in a tennis tournament in spite of the fact that he was very sick.

Thus, the final sentence will be 'Mihir was extremely sick, nonetheless he went on to play in the tennis tournament.'

153

Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the statement sentence.

She scored full marks in her exam. Mohini would not be allowed to participate in the annual day.

Unless
Whereas
At least

((a))
Only 1
((b))
Only 3
((c))
Only 2
((d))
Both 3 and 1
((e))
Both 2 and 1

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only 1

The correct answer is Only 1 i.e. Unless

Key Points

The first statement talks about how she (Mohini) scored full marks on her exam, while the second statement talks about how she would not be permitted to participate in her annual day.
It would not make sense that even though she already scored full marks on her exam that someone would not allow her to participate in an extra-curricular activity (annual day).
It would be more logical to assume that if it so happened that Mohini did not score full marks on her exam she would not be allowed to participate in the annual day.
'Unless' is a connector used to introduce an exception.
One statement is the truth, except for in the following scenario.

Thus, the final statement will be: 'Unless she scored full marks in her exam, Mohini would not be allowed to participate in the annual day.'

154

Directions: Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the given word.

Unhappy

((a))
Shocked
((b))
Pleased
((c))
Disappointed
((d))
Amazed
((e))
Overjoyed

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Disappointed

The correct answer is Disappointed

Key Points

Unhappy: not happy or satisfied
E.g.: Amelia's parents were unhappy with her choice of career.
Disappointed: sad or displeased because someone or something has failed to fulfil one's hopes or expectations
E.g.: After having failed his final exam, Sam was very disappointed.

Thus, it is clear that Unhappy and Disappointed are similar words

Additional Information

Shocked: To feel surprised and upset
E.g: Dean was shocked to find out that he was adopted.
Pleased: cause to feel happy and satisfied
E.g.: Mark was pleased with the party he was able to throw.
Amazed: greatly surprised; astonished
E.g.: Jeffrey was amazed at the strength Sarah was able to show in the boxing ring.
Overjoyed: extremely happy
E.g.: Max was overjoyed to know that he was finally cancer-free.

155

Directions: Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Serene

((a))
Untroubled
((b))
Tranquil
((c))
Anxious
((d))
Calm
((e))
Peaceful

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Anxious

The correct answer is Anxious

Key Points

Serene: Calm, peaceful and untroubled
E.g.: The picnic that the Samson's planned at the lake was supposed to be very serene.
Anxious: Feeling or showing worry and unease
E.g. No matter how many tests he gave, Jared was always anxious before them.

Thus, it is clear that Serene and Anxious are opposite words

Additional Information

Let's look at the meaning of the other words:

Untroubled: not feeling, showing, or affected by anxiety or problems
E.g.: Even after having almost met with an accident Lara was completely untroubled.
Tranquil: free from disturbance; calm
E.g.: After being given a painkiller pill, the dog was very tranquil.
Calm: not showing or feeling nervousness, anger, or other strong emotions
E.g.: Despite having lost the biggest match of her life, Naomi was very calm.
Peaceful: not wanting or involving war, violence or argument
E.g.: She hoped the different ethnic groups in the area could live together in peaceful co-existence

Confusion Points

Furious: extremely angry
E.g.: Jay was very furious about the person who had run into his car from behind.

'Anxious' and 'Furious' may both seem like opposite words for calm, but being calm means to not be worried about something and being anxious means being extremely worried and tense about something.

156

Directions: Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the given word.

Spectacular

((a))
Touching
((b))
Dazzling
((c))
Disgusting
((d))
Mediocre
((e))
Average

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Dazzling

The correct answer is Dazzling

Key Points

Spectacular: beautiful in a dramatic and eye-catching way
E.g.: Sara proposed to Michelle in a spectacular way, her family was shocked.
Dazzling: extremely bright, especially so as to blind the eyes temporarily.
E.g.: The prince walked down the stairs in a dazzling crown.

Thus, it is clear that Spectacular and Dazzling are similar words.

Additional Information

Touching: arousing strong feelings of sympathy, appreciation, or gratitude
E.g.: Although Goofy was a dog, his last birthday was celebrated in a very touching way.
Disgusting: arousing revulsion or strong indignation
E.g.: The garbage can hadn't been emptied and thus had a disgusting smell.
Mediocre: of only moderate quality; not very good
E.g.: The performance given by China's team in the Olympics was very mediocre.
Average: an amount, standard, level, or rate regarded as usual or ordinary
E.g.: Switzerland received a very average amount of snow that year.

157

Directions: The following question contains a sentence with one blank only. Below are given three words as answer choices. You have to choose an option with choices that can make the sentence complete.

The biker was extremely ________ at being overtaken by a beginner biker.

A. Enraged

B. Furious

C. Sympathy

((a))
A and B
((b))
B and C
((c))
A and C
((d))
Only A
((e))
Only C

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A and B

The correct answer is A and B i.e. Enraged and Furious

Key Points

The sentence talks about a biker's reaction to being overtaken by a beginner biker. Thus, the blank requires an adjective to describe his reaction.
Usually, if a person is overtaken by someone who is a novice or a newly-learned person one's initial reaction would be anger and then maybe embarrassment.
Enraged (adjective): very angry; furious
Furious (adjective): extremely angry
Sympathy (noun): feelings of pity and sorrow for someone else's misfortune
It is very hard to feel sympathy for someone who has just caused one to feel embarrassed or had defeated one at something.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: The biker was extremely enraged/ furious at being overtaken by a beginner biker.

158

The farmer was _________ by the lack of rain that season.

A. Empathy

B. Distraught

C. Distressed

((a))
A and B
((b))
B and C
((c))
C and A
((d))
Only A
((e))
Only B

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

B and C

The correct answer is B and C i.e. Distraught and Distressed.

Key Points

The sentence talks about a farmer's reaction to the lack of rain that season. Thus, the blank requires an adjective.
Usually, a farmer's entire farming schedule is dependant on the rain that falls that season and more often than not less than expected rain can be a major problem for farmers leading to them being extremely disappointed and stressed.
Empathy (noun): the ability to understand and share the feelings of another
Distraught (adjective): deeply upset and agitated
Distressed (adjective): be saddened, anxious and worried.
A farmer who has just faced a major loss in crop due to a lack of rain would find it very hard to empathize with anything or anyone.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: The farmer was distressed/distraught by the lack of rain that season.

159

Having been caught doing mischief, the students were ________ from school.

A. Expelled

B. Removed

C. Justified

((a))
C and A
((b))
A and B
((c))
Only C
((d))
B and C
((e))
Only A

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

A and B

The correct answer is A and B i.e. Expelled and Removed

Key Points

The sentence talks about how some students were caught doing some mischief.
Doing mischief in school is something that children are usually punished for and there is no way that it is acceptable or forgiven.
Expelled: force (someone) to leave a place like an institution
Removed: take (something) away or off from the position occupied, like in this case removing a student from their position in the school
Justified: having, done for, or marked by a good or legitimate reason
Usually, in a strict environment like a school, no kind of mischief (which implies troublemaking) is tolerated and thus there can be no legitimate reason for it.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: "Having been caught doing mischief, the students were expelled/removed from school."

160

The minister was _________ when his scandal was revealed to the world.

A. Applauded

B. Ashamed

C. Embarrassed

((a))
C and A
((b))
B and C
((c))
Only B
((d))
Only C
((e))
A and B

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

B and C

The correct answer is B and C

Key Points

The sentence talks about a minister (a public figure) whose scandal is brought to light.
A 'scandal' points to something negative and bad and thus is not something one should be appreciated or praised for.
Applauded: To be shown approval or praise through clapping
Ashamed: embarrassed or guilty because of one's actions, characteristics, or associations
Embarrassed: feeling or showing embarrassment (a feeling of self-consciousness, shame, or awkwardness).
A 'scandal' is usually something that one tries to hide and is something that is brought to light causes shame in a person.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: "The minister was ashamed/embarrassed when his scandal was revealed to the world."

Numerical Ability (40 questions)

161

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

2, 3, 6, 15, 45, 156.5, 630

((a))
6
((b))
3
((c))
45
((d))
156.5
((e))
15

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

156.5

Calculation:

The logic of the given series can be explained as:

2 × 1.5 = 3

3 × 2 = 6

6 × 2.5 = 15

15 × 3 = 45

45 × 3.5 = 157.5

157.5 × 4 = 630

∴ Wrong term in given number series is 156.5.

162

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

36, 20, 12, 8, 6, 5.5, 4.5

((a))
5.5
((b))
36
((c))
12
((d))
8
((e))
6

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

5.5

Calculation:

The logic of the given series can be explained as:

36 – 16 = 20

20 – 8 = 12

12 – 4 = 8

8 – 2 = 6

6 – 1 = 5

5 – 0.5 = 4.5

∴ Wrong term in given number series is 5.5.

163

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

16, 40, 100, 250, 630, 1562.5

((a))
16
((b))
250
((c))
630
((d))
40
((e))
1562.5

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

630

Calculation:

The logic of the given series can be explained as:

16 × 2.5 = 40

40 × 2.5 = 100

100 × 2.5 = 250

250 × 2.5 = 625

625 × 2.5 = 1562.5

∴ Wrong term in given number series is 630.

164

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

5, 23, 43, 66, 94, 131

((a))
131
((b))
66
((c))
94
((d))
23
((e))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

131

Considering the given series

5, 23, 43, 66, 94, 131

The logic of the given series can be explained as

5	23	43	66	94	129
+18	+20	+23	+28	+35
	+2	+3	+5	+7

∴ Wrong term in given number series is 131.

165

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

5541, 5506, 5457, 5376, 5255, 5086

((a))
5541
((b))
5506
((c))
5457
((d))
5376
((e))
5086

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

5541

Calculation:

The logic of the given series can be explained as;

⇒ 5531 – 25 = 5506

⇒ 5506 – 49 = 5457

⇒ 5457 – 81 = 5376

⇒ 5376 – 121 = 5255

⇒ 5255 – 169 = 5086

∴ Wrong term in given number series is 5541.

166

What will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

(76 ÷ 0.25 ÷ 0.1) × 1.25 + 45.5 × 2 = ?

((a))
3891
((b))
5203
((c))
5313
((d))
5103
((e))
525

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3891

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule given below to solve this question

Calculation:

(76 ÷ 0.25 ÷ 0.1) × 1.25 + 45.5 × 2 = ?

⇒ (76 × 1/0.25 × 1/0.1) × 1.25 + 45.5 × 2 = ?

⇒ (76 × 40) × 1.25 + 91 = ?

⇒ 3040 × 1.25 + 91 = ?

⇒ 3800 + 91 = ?

⇒ 3891 = ?

∴ In the place of '?' the value is 3891

167

What will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

1593 – 739 + 15147 + 839 × 3 = ?

((a))
18518
((b))
20215
((c))
2136
((d))
3200
((e))
1200

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

18518

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule given below to solve this question

Calculation:

1593 – 739 + 15147 + 839 × 3 = ?

⇒ 1593 - 739 + 15147 + 2517 = ?

⇒ 1593 + 15147 + 2517 - 739 = ?

⇒ 19257 - 739 = ?

⇒ ? = 18518

∴ In the place of '?' the value is 18518

168

What will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

2 × 8393 + 63 ÷ 7 = ?

((a))
16795
((b))
16805
((c))
17948
((d))
15935
((e))
15784

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

16795

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule given below to solve this question

Calculation:

2 × 8393 + 63 ÷ 7 = ?

⇒ 16786 + 9 = ?

⇒ 16795 = ?

∴ In the place of '?' the value is 16795

169

What value will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

(4382 – 370) ÷ 8 + 9.5 = ?

((a))
511
((b))
429
((c))
563
((d))
243
((e))
674

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

511

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule given below to solve this question

Calculation:

(4382 – 370) ÷ 8 + 9.5 = ?

⇒ (4012) ÷ 8 + 9.5 = ?

⇒ 501.5 + 9.5 = ?

⇒ 511 = ?

∴ In the place of '?' the value is 511

170

What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(23.097 + 6.87) × 2.09 + 4.89 = ?

((a))
76
((b))
70
((c))
87
((d))
65
((e))
98

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule given below to solve this question

Calculation:

(23.097 + 6.87) × 2.09 + 4.89 = ?

⇒ (23 + 7) × 2 + 5 = ?

⇒ 30 × 2 + 5 = ?

⇒ ? = 65

∴ In the place of '?', the value is 65.

171

The total sales of 100 outlets of a shopping complex is Rs. 45,000. The average sales of 30 of them is Rs.350. The average sale of another 20 of them is Rs. 860. Find the average sale of the remaining outlets (In rupees).

((a))
Rs. 340
((b))
Rs. 342
((c))
Rs. 330
((d))
Rs. 446
((e))
Rs. 346

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Rs. 346

Given:

The total sales of 100 outlets of a shopping complex = Rs. 45,000

Formula used:

The total sales = the average of total sales × the number of sales

Average = the sum of observations/the number of observations

Calculation:

The total sales of 30 outlets = Rs. (350 × 30)

⇒ Rs. 10,500

The total sales of 20 outlets = Rs. (860 × 20)

⇒ Rs. 17,200

Remaining outlets = (100 – 30 – 20)

⇒ 50 outlets

Remaining sales = Rs. (45,000 – 10,500 – 17,200)

⇒ Rs. (45,000 – 27,700)

⇒ Rs. 17,300

Average sales of remaining outlets = Rs. (17300/50

⇒ Rs. 346

∴ The average sales of remaining outlets is Rs. 346

172

The first, second and third class third class train fare is Rs. 15, Rs. 10, and Rs. 7.50 per km respectively. Someday the ratio of passengers travelling in these categories is 2 : 5 : 13. What will be the average fare per passenger for that day?

((a))
Rs. 12
((b))
Rs. 10
((c))
Rs. 15
((d))
Rs. 18
((e))
None of the above.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of the above.

Given:

The first, second and third class third class train fare is Rs. 15, Rs. 10, and Rs. 7.50 per km respectively.

The ratio of numbers travelling in these categories is 2 : 5 : 13

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of total number)/(Total number of observation)

Using the simple concept of ratio.

Calculation:

Let the number of passenger in someday 2x, 5x and 13x.

Total fare by first fare = 15 × 2x = 30x

Total fare by first fare = 10 × 5x = 50x

Total fare by first fare = 7.5 × 13x = 97.5x

Total number of passenger = 2x + 5x + 13x = 20x

Total fare = 30x + 50x + 97.5x = 177.5x

Average = (Sum of total number)/(Total number of observation)

⇒ Average = (177.5x)/(20x)

⇒ 8.875

∴ The average fare per passenger for that day is 8.875

173

There were 20 boys in a class. The average age increase by 2 months, as a new boy comes in a place of a boy aged 18 years. The age of new boy is?

((a))
17 years 10 months
((b))
17 years 5 months
((c))
7 years 10 months
((d))
16 years 10 months
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of the above

Given:

Total number of boys = 20

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of total number)/(Total number of observation)

Calculation:

Total Increase = 20 × 2 = 40 month

⇒ 3 years 4 month

So, age of new boy = 18 years + 3 years 4 month

⇒ 21 years 4 month

∴ The age of new boy is 21 years 4 month.

174

The length and width of a rectangle are increased by 40% and 20% respectively. If its area increased by 68%, find the approximately length of the rectangle is what percentage of the width?

((a))
70
((b))
60
((c))
50
((d))
Can not be determined
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Can not be determined

Given:

The length and width of a rectangle are increased by 40% and 20% respectively

Total increased is 68%.

Formula used:

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

Calculation:

In the given question neither length given nor breadth is given but only increased percentage is given .

So, we don't have data to calculate length of the rectangle by about what percentage of the width

∴ We can't determine .

175

A man borrows Rs. 6000 from a bank at simple interest. After 4 years, he paid Rs. 2500 to the bank and at the end of 5 years from the date of borrowing he paid Rs. 4560 to settle the account. Find the rate percent per annum.

((a))
4%
((b))
3%
((c))
3.85%
((d))
4.5%
((e))
2.75%

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

3.85%

Given:

Borrowed amount = Rs. 6000

Time = 4 years

Formula used:

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

Where, S.I = Simple Interest

P = Principal

T = Time

Calculation:

According to the question,

S.I = Rs. (2500 + 4560 –6000) = Rs. 1060

Total interest = [(6000 × 4 × R)/100 + (3500 × 1 × R)/100]

⇒ [(6000 × 4 × R)/100 + (3500 × 1 × R)/100] = Rs. 1060

⇒ (240R + 35R) = 1060

⇒ 275R = 1060

⇒ R = 1060/275 = 3.85%.

∴ The rate percent per annum is 3.85%.

176

A man wants to invest Rs. 8425 in bank account of his two daughters whose age are 24 years and 28 years in such a way that they will get equal amount on age of 40 years at the rate of 33.3% compounded annually. Find the share of elder daughter.

((a))
Rs. 6400
((b))
Rs. 6464
((c))
Rs. 5400
((d))
Rs. 7000
((e))
Rs. 6482

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs. 6400

Given:

Total amount to invest = Rs. 8425

Ages of daughters are 24 years and 28 years.

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ

Where, A = Amount

P = Principal

r = Rate

n= time

Calculation:

Let Principal of younger daughter be (P1)

And, Let Principal of elder daughter be (P₂)

Time of elder daughter = (40 – 28) years = 12 years

Time of younger daughter = (40 – 24) years = 16 years

Rate = 33.3% = (100/3)%

According to the question:

Younger daughter = Elder daughter

P₁(1 + r/100)n = P₂(1 + r/100)n

⇒ P1[1 + (100/3 × 100)]¹⁶ = P2[1 + 100/3 ×100)]¹²

⇒ P1(4/3)16 = P2(4/3)12

⇒ P₁/P₂ = [(4/3)12/(4/3)16]

⇒ P1/P2 = [1/(4/3)⁴]

⇒ P1/P2 = (3/4)4

⇒ P1/P2 = 81/256

⇒ P1 : P2 = 81 : 256

Now, again let P₁ be 81x

Let P₂be 256x

Total principal = (81x + 256x) = Rs. 337x

Again,

⇒ 337x = 8425

⇒ x = 8425/337

P₂= 256x = 256 × (8425/337) = Rs. 6400

∴ The share of elder daughter is Rs. 6400.

177

Rakesh does half of the work in 30 days and Sanny does remaining work in 7.5 days. In how many days the work will be completed by them if they work together?

((a))
12 days
((b))
13 days
((c))
15 days
((d))
20 days
((e))
14 days

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

12 days

Given:

Rakesh does half of a work in 30 days

Remaining work done by Sanny = (1 – 1/2)

⇒ (2 – 1)/2

⇒ 1/2 of the work in 7.5 days

Concept used:

If a person does a work in ‘n’ days, then one day work will be 1/n part of total work.

Total time taken for one work = the number of days/part of the work

Calculation:

One work done by Rakesh = 30/(1/2)

⇒ 60 days

Then one day work by Rakesh = 1/60 part of total work

One work done by Sanny = 7.5/(1/2)

⇒ 15 days

Then one day work by Sanny = 1/15 part of total work

Now, the one day work by Rakesh and Sanny = one day work by Rakesh + one day work by Sanny

⇒ 1/60 + 1/15

⇒ (1 + 4)/60

⇒ 5/60

⇒ 1/12

Then, time taken to complete one work by both Rakesh and Sanny = 12 days

∴ The work done by both when work together in 12 days

178

A container having pure milk, 30% is replaced by water and the process is repeated three times. At the end of the third operation, what will be the intensity of milk?

((a))
34%
((b))
35%
((c))
38%
((d))
34.3%
((e))
36%

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

34.3%

Given:

Percentage of water replaced after three process = 30%

Formula used:

Quantity of milk left = a{1 – (b/a)}ⁿ

a = Initial quantity

b = Replaced quantity

n = Number of repetition

Calculation:

Let the initial quantity of milk be 100 l

⇒ Quantity of milk replaced with water = (30/100) × 100 = 30 l

n = 3

Quantity of milk left = 100{1 – (30/100)}³

⇒ Quantity of milk left = 100{(10 – 3)/10}³

⇒ Quantity of milk left = 100 × (7/10) × (7/10) × (7/10)

⇒ Quantity of milk left = 34.3%

∴ The intensity of milk after third operation is 34.3%

179

A train crosses a platform of length 250 m in 20 seconds and crosses a pole in 10 seconds. Find the length of train.

((a))
250 m
((b))
350 m
((c))
450 m
((d))
500 m
((e))
150 m

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

250 m

Given:

The length of platform = 250 m

Time taken by train to cross a platform = 20 seconds

And time taken by train to cross a pole = 10 seconds

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × time

In the case of train, while crossing a platform, total distance covered by train = the length of the train + the length of platform.

While crossing a pole, total distance covered by train = the length of train.

Calculation:

Let the length of the train be L metre

And the speed of train be S km/hr

While crossing the platform: Distance = S × 20

Then, (L + 250) = S × 20

⇒ S = (L + 250)/20 ----(i)

While crossing a pole: Distance = S × 10

Then, L = S × 10

⇒ S = L/10 ----(ii)

From equation (i) and equation (ii), we get

(L + 250)/20 = L/10

⇒ 10 × (L + 250) = 20 × L

⇒ 20 L – 10 L = 2500

⇒ 10 L = 2500

⇒ L = 2500/10

⇒ L = 250 metre

∴ The length of train is 250 metres

180

A, B and C start business with an investment of Rs.4000, Rs.8000 and Rs.12000. The total profit they got after 1 year is Rs.12,000. Find the profit got B and C together.

((a))
Rs.5,000
((b))
Rs.10,000
((c))
Rs.15,000
((d))
Rs.16,000
((e))
Rs.20,000

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Rs.10,000

Given:

Investment of A, B and C are Rs.4000**,** Rs.8000 and Rs.12000 respectively

Total profit they got after 1 year = Rs.12,000

Concept used:

Profit is directly proportional to product of amount invested and time period of investment

Calculation:

Profit ratio of A : B : C = Rs. 4000 : Rs. 8000 : Rs. 12,000

⇒ 1 : 2 : 3

Total profit = (1 + 2 + 3) units

⇒ 6 units

Profit of B and C together = (2 + 3) units

⇒ 5 units

According to the question,

6 units = Rs. 12,000

⇒ 5 units = Rs. (12,000/6) × 5

⇒ Rs. 10,000

∴ The profit of B and C together is Rs. 10,000

181

An article was purchased for Rs.7000. Later its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 10% on the marked-up price. What was the profit percent on the cost price?

((a))
8%
((b))
10%
((c))
17%
((d))
18%
((e))
15%

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

17%

Given

An article was purchased for Rs.7000.After that price was marked by 30%.

Discount of 10% was given on mark up price.

Formula used

MP(1 - D/100) = SP

MP = Marked Price

SP = Selling Price

D = Discount

Calculation

Marked price = Rs.7000 + 7000 × 30/100

⇒ MP = Rs. 9100

⇒ SP = MP(1 - D/100)

⇒ SP = 9100 × 90/100

⇒ SP = Rs.8190

⇒ Profit = 8190 - 7000

⇒ Profit% = (1190/7000) × 100

∴ Profit% is 17%

182

The marked price of an object is Rs.2000. An shopkeeper giving two successive discount of 20% and 25%.Find the selling price of that object.

((a))
Rs.1200
((b))
Rs.1600
((c))
Rs.1100
((d))
Rs.1000
((e))
Rs.1500

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs.1200

Given

Marked price = Rs.2000

Two successive discount are 20% and 25%

Formula used

MP(1 - D/100) = SP

MP = Marked price

SP = Selling price

D = Discount

Calculation

Marked price = 2000

⇒ SP = 2000 × (1 - 20/100) × (1 - 25/100)

⇒ SP = 2000 × (80/100) × (75/100)

⇒ SP = 20 × 80 × 3/4

⇒ 400 × 3 = 1200

∴ Selling price of that object is Rs.1200

Net discount = a + b -(a × b)/100

Net discount = 20 + 25 - (20 × 25)/100

Net discount = 40

SP = 2000(1 - 40/100)

SP = 2000 × 60/100

∴ SP will be Rs.1200

183

Directions: The question is given below consists of two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the given question.

Find the wages of P, Q and R together if they worked together to complete the work.

Statement 1. P, Q and R alone can complete the work in 12, 18 and 36 days respectively.

Statement 2. The sum of the wages of P and R is Rs. 640

((a))
Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
((b))
Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
((c))
Both statement 1 and statement 2 together is needed to answer the question.
((d))
Neither statement 1 and nor statement 2 is sufficient to answer the question.
((e))
Either statement 1 alone or statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Both statement 1 and statement 2 together is needed to answer the question.

Given:

P, Q and R alone can complete the work in 12, 18 and 36 days respectively.

The sum of the wages of P and R is Rs. 640

Formula used:

If a person does work in 'n' days then one day work is done by a person = 1/n part of total work.

The wage of a person is directly proportional to the efficiency of a person.

If A and B does work in x and y days respectively, the efficiency will be in the ratio of y : x

Calculation:

The efficiency of P, Q and R will be (1/12) : (1/18) : (1/36)

LCM of (12, 18 and 36) = 36

Then the efficiency of P, Q and R will be in the ratio (1/12) × 36 : (1/18) × 36 : (1/36) × 36

⇒ 3 : 2 : 1

Let the efficiency of P, Q and R be 3k, 2k and k

According to the question,

3k + k = 640

⇒ 4k = 640

⇒ k = 640/4

⇒ k = 160

Now, the wage of P = 3k

⇒ 3 × 160

⇒ Rs. 480

The wage of Q = 2k

⇒ 2 × 160

⇒ Rs. 320

The wage of R = k

⇒ Rs. 160

The wages of P, Q and R together = (480 + 320 + 160)

⇒ Rs. 960

∴ We can say that Both statement 1 and statement 2 together is needed to answer the question.

184

Directions: The following question is accompanied by two statements (I), (II). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

What is the time P and Q to complete the work?

Statement I: P and R take 10 hours to complete the work.

Statement II: Q and R take 12 hours to complete the work.

((a))
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement II alone is not sufficient.
((b))
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement I alone is not sufficient.
((c))
Both statements I and statement II together are needed to answer the question.
((d))
Neither statement I and nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
((e))
Either of the statement I and statement II together is needed to answer the question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Neither statement I and nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Formula used:

Total work = Efficiency × Time period

Calculation:

Statement I:

P and R can complete the work in 10 hr

From statement I alone we cannot answer the question

Statement II:

Q and R can complete the work in 12 hr

From statement II alone we cannot answer the question

Combining both the statements I and II

P and R can complete the work in 10 hr

Q and R can complete the work in 12 hr

Taking the L.C.M of 10 and 12

⇒ L.C.M = 60

⇒ Efficiency of P and R = (60/10) = 6

⇒ Efficiency of Q and R = (60/12) = 5

As few values are missing we cannot find the solution after combining both the statements

It would be possible to solve if the time taken by R alone to complete the work were given

∴ Neither statement I and nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

185

Directions: The following question is accompanied by two statements (I), (II). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

What is the quantity of alcohol in 120 liters of a mixture of alcohol and water?

Statement I: If 12 liters of water is poured into the mixture, then the ratio of alcohol and water would be 8 : 3.

Statement II: If 20 liters of the solution is taken out and replaced with pure alcohol, then the ratio of the quantity of alcohol to that of water in the solution will be 5 : 1.

((a))
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement II alone is not sufficient.
((b))
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement I alone is not sufficient.
((c))
Both statement I and statement II together is needed to answer the question.
((d))
Neither statement I and nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
((e))
Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement I:

Given:

Added quantity of water = 12 l

Ratio of alcohol and water after addition of water = 8 : 3

Calculation:

Let x be the initial quantity of water

Equating the quantity of water

{(x + 12)/(120 + 12)} = 3/(8 + 3)

⇒ (x + 12)/132 = 3/11

⇒ (x + 12)/12 = 3

⇒ x + 12 = 36

⇒ x = 36 – 12 = 24

Quantity of water in 120 liters mixture is 24 l

Quantity of alcohol in 120 liters mixture is 120 – 24 = 96 l

∴ Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II:

Given:

Quantity of mixture replaced with alcohol = 20 l

The ratio of alcohol and water after replacement = 5 : 1

Calculation:

Let the quantity of alcohol be x

⇒ Quantity of alcohol after replacement = (x/120) × 100 = 5x/6

⇒ Quantity of water after replacement = 100 – (5x/6)

Equating with given ratio

{(5x/6) + 20}/{100 – (5x/6)} = 5/1

⇒ {(5x/6) + 20} = 500 – (25x/6)

⇒ (30x/6) = 480

⇒ x = 480/5 = 96

Quantity of alcohol in 120 liters mixture is 120 – 24 = 96 l

The quantity of water in 120 liters mixture is 24 l

∴ Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

∴ Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Directions: Following table shows, a survey of the number of people who live in their homes and the number of people who live on rent from different villages A, B, C, D and E. Study the following table carefully and give the answer to the following questions.

Villages	Live in the Home	Live on rent
A	45000	25000
B	50000	35000
C	25000	40000
D	60000	80000
E	55000	45000

186

Find the percentage increase in number of the people who live on rent with respect to the number of people who live in home form village D.

((a))
33.33%
((b))
66.66%
((c))
12.5%
((d))
14.28%
((e))
56.66%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

33.33%

Given:

Villages	Live in the Home	Live on rent
A	45000	25000
B	50000	35000
C	25000	40000
D	60000	80000
E	55000	45000

Calculation:

Percentage increase in the number of the people who live on rent with respect to the number of people who live in home form village D = [(80000 – 60000)/60000] × 100

⇒ (2/6) × 100

⇒ 33.33%

∴ Percentage increase in the number of the people who live on rent with respect to the number of people who live in home form village D is 33.33%.

187

Find the difference between the people who live in home from all villages and the people who live on rent.

((a))
10000
((b))
20000
((c))
25000
((d))
15000
((e))
13000

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

10000

Given:

Villages	Live in the Home	Live on rent
A	45000	25000
B	50000	35000
C	25000	40000
D	60000	80000
E	55000	45000

Calculation:

The total number of people who live in home = (45000 + 50000 + 25000 + 60000 + 55000)

⇒ 235000

The total number of people who live on rent = (25000 + 35000 + 40000 + 80000 + 45000)

⇒ 225000

The difference between the people who live in the home from all villages and the people who live on rent = 235000 – 225000

⇒ 10000

∴ The difference between the people who live in the home from all villages and the people who live on rent is 10000

188

In which village has the highest ratio of number of people who live in home to the number of people who live on rent?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Given:

Villages	Live in the Home	Live on rent
A	45000	25000
B	50000	35000
C	25000	40000
D	60000	80000
E	55000	45000

Calculation:

The ratio of number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent in village A = (45000/25000)

⇒ 1.8

The ratio of number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent in village B = (50000/35000)

⇒ 1.42

The ratio of number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent in village C = (25000/40000)

⇒ 0.625

The ratio of number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent in village D = (60000/80000)

⇒ 0.75

The ratio of number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent in village E = (55000/45000)

⇒ 1.22

∴ The highest ratio of the number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent is in village A.

189

Find the average number of people who live in the home form all villages combined together.

((a))
47000
((b))
27000
((c))
37000
((d))
45000
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

47000

Given:

Villages	Live in the Home	Live on rent
A	45000	25000
B	50000	35000
C	25000	40000
D	60000	80000
E	55000	45000

Formula used:

Average = The sum of the number of observations/The number of observations.

Calculation:

Average = (45000 + 50000 + 25000 + 60000 + 55000)/5

⇒ 235000/5

⇒ 47000

∴ The average number of people who live in the home from all villages combined together is 47000

190

Find the ratio of the number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent in village A and C combined together.

((a))
14 : 13
((b))
12 : 13
((c))
13 : 14
((d))
13 : 12
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

14 : 13

Given:

Villages	Live in the Home	Live on rent
A	45000	25000
B	50000	35000
C	25000	40000
D	60000	80000
E	55000	45000

Calculation:

The number of people who live in Home in village A and C combined together = 45000 + 25000

⇒ 70000

The number of people who live on Rent in village A and C combined together = 25000 + 40000

⇒ 65000

The ratio of the number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent in village A and C combined together = 70000 : 65000

⇒ 70 : 65

⇒ 14 : 13

∴ The ratio of the number of people who live in the home to the number of people who live on rent in village A and C combined together is 14 : 13

In a fast-food shop, there are 1800 visitors in a month orders five different snacks namely Burger, Pizza, Fries, Hot dog, and Cake. Out of the female visitors, 24% order burgers, 28% order pizza, 12% order fries, 15% ordered cakes, and the remaining 147 order hotdogs. Out of the total male visitors 14% order burger, 26% order pizza, 28% order fries, 18% order cake, and the remaining 154 order hotdog.

191

What is the ratio of the number of male visitors orders cake and the number of female visitors orders hotdog?

((a))
55 : 89
((b))
79 : 11
((c))
66 : 49
((d))
51 : 99
((e))
11 : 79

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

66 : 49

Given:

Total number of visitors = 1800

Number of female visitors order hotdogs = 147

Number of male visitors order hotdogs = 154

Calculation:

Let total number of male visitors be y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered burger = (14/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered pizza = (26/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered fries = (28/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered cake = (18/100) × y

Number of male visitors order hotdog = y – {(0.14)y + (0.26)y + (0.28)y + (0.18)y} = 0.14y

⇒ 0.14y = 154

⇒ y = 15400/14 = 1100

⇒ Total number of male visitors = 1100

Snacks	Male	Female
Burger	154	168
Pizza	286	196
Fries	308	84
Cake	198	105
Hotdog	154	147

⇒ The number of male visitors ordered cake = (18/100) × 1100 = 198

⇒ The number of female visitors ordered hotdog = 147

⇒ Required ratio = 198 : 147 = 66 : 49

∴ The ratio of the number of male visitors orders cake and the number of female visitors orders hotdogs is 66 : 49.

192

What is the ratio between the orders of burger and pizza by male visitors together and the orders of fries and cake by female visitors together?

((a))
440 : 189
((b))
189 : 440
((c))
189 : 555
((d))
555 : 189
((e))
689 : 555

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

440 : 189

Given:

Total number of visitors = 1800

Number of female visitors order hotdogs = 147

Number of male visitors order hotdogs = 154

Calculation:

Let the total number of female visitors be x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered burger = (24/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered pizza = (28/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered fries = (12/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered cake = (15/100) × x

Number of female visitors order hotdog = x – {(0.24)x + (0.28)x + (0.12)x + (0.15)x} = 0.21x

⇒ 0.21x = 147

⇒ x = 14700/21 = 700

⇒ Total number of female visitors = 700

Let the total number of male visitors be y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered burger = (14/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered pizza = (26/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered fries = (28/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered cake = (18/100) × y

Number of male visitors order hotdog = y – {(0.14)y + (0.26)y + (0.28)y + (0.18)y} = 0.14y

⇒ 0.14y = 154

⇒ y = 15400/14 = 1100

⇒ Total number of male visitors = 1100

Snacks	Male	Female
Burger	154	168
Pizza	286	196
Fries	308	84
Cake	198	105
Hotdog	154	147

⇒ Number of male visitors order burger and pizza = (154 + 286) = 440

⇒ Number of female visitors order fries and cake = (84 + 105) = 189

⇒ Required ratio = 440 : 189

∴ The ratio between the orders of burger and pizza by male visitors together and the orders of fries and cake by female visitors together is 440 : 189.

193

Among all the orders, In which order the difference between the male visitors and female visitors is maximum?

((a))
Fries
((b))
Burger
((c))
Hotdog
((d))
Pizza
((e))
Cake

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Fries

Given:

Total number of visitors = 1800

Number of female visitors order hotdogs = 147

Number of male visitors order hotdogs = 154

Calculation:

Let the total number of female visitors be x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered burger = (24/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered pizza = (28/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered fries = (12/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered cake = (15/100) × x

Number of female visitors order hotdog = x – {(0.24)x + (0.28)x + (0.12)x + (0.15)x} = 0.21x

⇒ 0.21x = 147

⇒ x = 14700/21 = 700

⇒ Total number of female visitors = 700

Let the total number of male visitors be y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered burger = (14/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered pizza = (26/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered fries = (28/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered cake = (18/100) × y

Number of male visitors order hotdog = y – {(0.14)y + (0.26)y + (0.28)y + (0.18)y} = 0.14y

⇒ 0.14y = 154

⇒ y = 15400/14 = 1100

⇒ Total number of male visitors = 1100

Snacks	Male	Female	Difference (M – F)
Burger	154	168	14
Pizza	286	196	90
Fries	308	84	224
Cake	198	105	93
Hotdog	154	147	7

From the above table, we can deduce that the difference between males and females who ordered fries is maximum.

∴ The order in which the difference between the male visitors and female visitors is maximum is fries.

194

What is the average number of male visitors who order pizza, fries, and cake together?

((a))
257
((b))
254
((c))
264
((d))
258
((e))
269

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

264

Given:

Total number of visitors = 1800

Number of female visitors order hotdogs = 147

Number of male visitors order hotdogs = 154

Calculation:

Let the total number of male visitors be y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered burger = (14/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered pizza = (26/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered fries = (28/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered cake = (18/100) × y

Number of male visitors order hotdog = y – {(0.14)y + (0.26)y + (0.28)y + (0.18)y} = 0.14y

⇒ 0.14y = 154

⇒ y = 15400/14 = 1100

⇒ Total number of male visitors = 1100

Snacks	Male	Female
Burger	154	168
Pizza	286	196
Fries	308	84
Cake	198	105
Hotdog	154	147

Number of male visitors ordered pizza = (26/100) × 1100 = 286

Number of male visitors ordered fries = (28/100) × 1100 = 308

Number of male visitors ordered cake = (18/100) × 1100 = 198

Average number of male visitors ordered pizza, fries and cake = (286 + 308 + 198)/3

⇒ Average = (792/3) = 264

∴ The average number of male visitors who order pizza, fries, and cake together is 264.

195

How many total numbers of visitors ordered cake?

((a))
303
((b))
203
((c))
503
((d))
603
((e))
703

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

303

Given:

Total number of visitors = 1800

Number of female visitors order hotdogs = 147

Number of male visitors order hotdogs = 154

Calculation:

Let the total number of female visitors be x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered burger = (24/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered pizza = (28/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered fries = (12/100) × x

⇒ Number of female visitors ordered cake = (15/100) × x

Number of female visitors order hotdog = x – {(0.24)x + (0.28)x + (0.12)x + (0.15)x} = 0.21x

⇒ 0.21x = 147

⇒ x = 14700/21 = 700

⇒ Total number of female visitors = 700

Let the total number of male visitors be y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered burger = (14/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered pizza = (26/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered fries = (28/100) × y

⇒ Number of male visitors ordered cake = (18/100) × y

Number of male visitors order hotdog = y – {(0.14)y + (0.26)y + (0.28)y + (0.18)y} = 0.14y

⇒ 0.14y = 154

⇒ y = 15400/14 = 1100

⇒ Total number of male visitors = 1100

Snacks	Male	Female
Burger	154	168
Pizza	286	196
Fries	308	84
Cake	198	105
Hotdog	154	147

Number of male visitors order cake = (18/100) × 1100 = 198

Number of female visitors order cake = (15/100) × 700 = 105

Total number of visitors ordered cake = 198 + 105 = 303

∴ The total number of visitors who ordered the cake is 303.

Directions: Study the Pie chart and answer the following question.

The pie chart is showing the percentage of different types of shirts sold by five different stores namely A, B, C, D and E.

196

If the number of shirt sold by store B is 280. Find the difference in quantity of shirt sold by store C and store B.

((a))
140
((b))
280
((c))
100
((d))
112
((e))
200

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

112

Given

Shirts sold by stores	No. of shirts In Percentage
A	28%
B	10%
C	14%
D	32%
E	16%
TOTAL

Calculation

Number of shirt sold by B = 280

⇒ 10% = 280

⇒ 1% = 28

⇒ Number of shirt sold by C = 14 × 28 = 392

∴ Difference in shirt sold by store B and C (392 - 280) is 112

197

If the difference in shirt sold by store C and store D is 1800. Find the number of shirts sold by store D.

((a))
3200
((b))
2800
((c))
2400
((d))
3600
((e))
4000

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3200

Given

Shirts sold by stores	No. of shirts In Percentage
A	28%
B	10%
C	14%
D	32%
E	16%
TOTAL

Calculation:

Difference in shirt sold by C and D = 1800

⇒ 32% - 14% = 1800

⇒ 18% = 1800

⇒ 1% = 100

⇒ 32% × 100 = 3200

∴ The number of shirts sold by store D is 3200

198

If the difference in shirt sold by store A and store D is 64, then find the total shirt sold by store A, B and E.

((a))
764
((b))
700
((c))
864
((d))
800
((e))
964

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

864

Given

Shirts sold by stores	No. of shirts In Percentage
A	28%
B	10%
C	14%
D	32%
E	16%
TOTAL

Calculation:

Difference in shirt sold by A and D = 32% - 28%

⇒ 4% = 64

⇒ 1% = 16

⇒ Total shirt sold by store A, B and E = 28% + 10% + 16%

⇒ 54%

⇒ Number of shirts sold by store A, B and E (54 × 16) is 864

199

Find the average of shirt sold by all stores. If the shirt sold by store B is 1750.

((a))
3500
((b))
4000
((c))
3300
((d))
3000
((e))
2500

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3500

Given:

Shirts sold by stores	No. of shirts In Percentage
A	28%
B	10%
C	14%
D	32%
E	16%
TOTAL

Calculation:

Shirt sold by B = 10% = 1750

⇒ Number of shirt sold by all stores = 100% = 17500

⇒ required average = 17500/5 = 3500

⇒ 3500

∴ Average of shirt sold by all stores = 3500

200

Find the average of shirt sold by store D and E, if the shirt sold by E is 256.

((a))
384
((b))
330
((c))
300
((d))
350
((e))
360

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

384

Given:

Shirts sold by stores	No. of shirts In Percentage
A	28%
B	10%
C	14%
D	32%
E	16%
TOTAL

Calculation:

Shirt sold by E = 256

⇒ 16% = 256

⇒ 1% = 16

⇒ total number of shirt sold by store D and E = 32% + 16%

⇒ 48% = 48 × 16

⇒ 768

Average shirt sold by D and E = 768/2 = 384

∴ Average of shirt sold by store D and E is 384.

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