Official Paper

RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held on: 17 Oct 2021) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below.

Ten persons Sagar, Anurag, Sanket, Vinit, Amit, Rajesh, Aditya, Himanshu, Akshay and Sujit are sitting in a circular park facing away from the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Sanket is sitting fourth to the right of Akshay. Three persons are sitting between Sujit and Sanket. Rajesh is an immediate neighbour of Sujit. Amit is sitting fourth to the right of Rajesh. Amit is an immediate neighbour of Sagar. Himanshu is sitting third to the right of Sagar. Three persons are sitting between Himanshu and Vinit. Aditya is sitting third to the left of Anurag.

1

Who is sitting three places away from Akshay in the clockwise direction?

  1. ((a))

    Aditya

  2. ((b))

    Amit

  3. ((c))

    Sujit

  4. ((d))

    Rajesh

  5. ((e))

    Anurag

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aditya

Ten persons: Sagar, Anurag, Sanket, Vinit, Amit, Rajesh, Aditya, Himanshu, Akshay, and Sujit 

Face Direction: Away from the center.

1) Sanket is sitting fourth to the right of Akshay.

2) Three persons are sitting between Sujit and Sanket

3) Rajesh is an immediate neighbor of Sujit.

  1. Amit is sitting fourth to the right of Rajesh.

5) Amit is an immediate neighbor of Sagar.

6) Himanshu is sitting third to the right of Sagar.

  1. Three people are sitting between Himanshu and Vinit.

  1. Aditya is sitting third to the left of Anurag.

(In case 2, Aditya can not sit third to the left of Anurag so we can eliminate case 2)

The final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, Aditya is sitting three places away from Akshay in the clockwise direction.

2

Who is sitting immediate next to Sujit and Anurag?

  1. ((a))

    Rajesh

  2. ((b))

    Anurag

  3. ((c))

    Himanshu

  4. ((d))

    Sanket

  5. ((e))

    Aditya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajesh

Ten persons: Sagar, Anurag, Sanket, Vinit, Amit, Rajesh, Aditya, Himanshu, Akshay, and Sujit 

Face Direction: Away from the center.

1) Sanket is sitting fourth to the right of Akshay.

2) Three persons are sitting between Sujit and Sanket

3) Rajesh is an immediate neighbor of Sujit.

  1. Amit is sitting fourth to the right of Rajesh.

5) Amit is an immediate neighbor of Sagar.

6) Himanshu is sitting third to the right of Sagar.

  1. Three people are sitting between Himanshu and Vinit.

  1. Aditya is sitting third to the left of Anurag.

(In case 2, Aditya can not sit third to the left of Anurag so we can eliminate case 2)

The final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, Rajesh is sitting immediately next to Sujit and Anurag.

3

Who is sitting opposite to Rajesh?

  1. ((a))

    Sagar

  2. ((b))

    Anurag

  3. ((c))

    Vinit

  4. ((d))

    Himanshu

  5. ((e))

    Sanket

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sagar

Ten persons: Sagar, Anurag, Sanket, Vinit, Amit, Rajesh, Aditya, Himanshu, Akshay, and Sujit 

Face Direction: Away from the center.

1) Sanket is sitting fourth to the right of Akshay.

2) Three persons are sitting between Sujit and Sanket

3) Rajesh is an immediate neighbor of Sujit.

  1. Amit is sitting fourth to the right of Rajesh.

5) Amit is an immediate neighbor of Sagar.

6) Himanshu is sitting third to the right of Sagar.

  1. Three people are sitting between Himanshu and Vinit.

  1. Aditya is sitting third to the left of Anurag.

(In case 2, Aditya can not sit third to the left of Anurag so we can eliminate case 2)

The final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, Sagar is sitting opposite Rajesh.

4

Who is sitting third to the left of Vinit?

  1. ((a))

    Rajesh

  2. ((b))

    Sagar

  3. ((c))

    Aditya

  4. ((d))

    Amit

  5. ((e))

    Anurag

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Anurag

Ten persons: Sagar, Anurag, Sanket, Vinit, Amit, Rajesh, Aditya, Himanshu, Akshay, and Sujit 

Face Direction: Away from the center.

1) Sanket is sitting fourth to the right of Akshay.

2) Three persons are sitting between Sujit and Sanket

3) Rajesh is an immediate neighbor of Sujit.

  1. Amit is sitting fourth to the right of Rajesh.

5) Amit is an immediate neighbor of Sagar.

6) Himanshu is sitting third to the right of Sagar.

  1. Three people are sitting between Himanshu and Vinit.

  1. Aditya is sitting third to the left of Anurag.

(In case 2, Aditya can not sit third to the left of Anurag so we can eliminate case 2)

The final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence**, Anurag** is sitting third to the left of Vinit.

5

How many persons are sitting between Sujit and Aditya?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

Ten persons: Sagar, Anurag, Sanket, Vinit, Amit, Rajesh, Aditya, Himanshu, Akshay, and Sujit 

Face Direction: Away from the center.

1) Sanket is sitting fourth to the right of Akshay.

2) Three persons are sitting between Sujit and Sanket

3) Rajesh is an immediate neighbor of Sujit.

  1. Amit is sitting fourth to the right of Rajesh.

5) Amit is an immediate neighbor of Sagar.

6) Himanshu is sitting third to the right of Sagar.

  1. Three people are sitting between Himanshu and Vinit.

  1. Aditya is sitting third to the left of Anurag.

(In case 2, Aditya can not sit third to the left of Anurag so we can eliminate case 2)

The final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, 4 persons are sitting between Sujit and Aditya.

6

Direction: In the question below are given four statements followed by conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: 

I. All Son is Brother. 

II. No Father is Uncle.

III. Some Brother are Father. 

Conclusions:

I. Some Brother are not Uncle. 

II. All Son being Uncle is a possibility. 

III. All Son being Father is a possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows 

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only III follows

  4. ((d))

    Both I and III follows 

  5. ((e))

    All the given conclusions follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All the given conclusions follow.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions:

I. Some Brother are not Uncle → True (Some Brother which are Father can never be Uncle as shown in the least possible diagram.)

II. All Son being Uncle is a possibility → True (All Son being Uncle is a possibility as shown in the diagram below.)

III. All Son being Father is a possibility → True ( All Son being Father is a possibility as shown in the diagram below.) 

Hence, All the given conclusions are correct.

Additional Information:

Case of possibility:

  1. If conclusion is 100% right or 100% wrong and possibility is written with it, then it is consider as wrong conclusion or False.

Definitely True + Possibility= False

Definitely False + Possibility = False

  1. If conclusion is CND and possibility is written with it, then it is consider as right conclusion or True.

CND + Possibility = True

7

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few Gold is Silver

Only a few Silver is Copper

Only a few Copper is Bronze

Conclusions:

I. Some Silver are not Copper

II. Some Copper are not Bronze

III. Some Gold are not Silver

  1. ((a))

    All follow

  2. ((b))

    Only II follow

  3. ((c))

    Only III follow

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    None follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All follow

The least possible venn diagram for the given statements is,

Conclusions:

I. Some Silver are not Copper → True (As the relation of “only a few” is given between the elements, which implies that “some” and “some not” both are true)

II. Some Copper are not Bronze → True (As the relation of “only a few” is given between the elements, which implies that “some” and “some not” both are true)

III. Some Gold are not Silver → True (As the relation of “only a few” is given between the elements, which implies that “some” and “some not” both are true)

Hence, All follow is the correct answer.

8

Direction: In the question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Duck is Bird

All Bird is Sparrow

Only a few Crow are Sparrow

Conclusions:

I. All Crow are Bird

II. Some Duck are Sparrow

III. All Crow are Sparrow is a possibility

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II follow

  2. ((b))

    Only II and III follow

  3. ((c))

    All follow

  4. ((d))

    Only II follows

  5. ((e))

    None follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only II follows

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below,

i) All Crow are Bird ⇒ False (as there is no direct relation between Crow and bird so, it is possible but not definite)

ii) Some Duck are Sparrow ⇒ True (As all duck is bird and all bird is sparrow so, some ducks are definitely sparrow)

iii) All Crow are Sparrow is a possibility ⇒ False (Only a few Crow are Sparrow means some crows are sparrow and some Crow are not sparrow so, all crows can never be sparrow)

Hence, only II follows.

Direction: Read the instruction carefully and answer the questions given below.

A 7-day training camp started on Monday and concluded on Sunday. On each day of the week, a different breakfast was served to the candidates. The seven different breakfasts are Bread, Noodles, Rice, Burger, Pizza, Soup, and Corn. It is not necessary that the breakfast was served in the same order.

Pizza was served on one of the days after Rice was served. The burger was served immediately the next day after Noodles were served. The bread was served on one of the days after the day on which soup was served. Rice was not served either on Tuesday or Thursday. Either Corn or Noodles were served on Thursday. The soup was served three days after the day on which Rice was served.

9

Pizza was served on which day of the week?

  1. ((a))

    Saturday

  2. ((b))

    Sunday

  3. ((c))

    Friday

  4. ((d))

    Monday

  5. ((e))

    Tuesday

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Friday

Days = Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday

Breakfast = Bread, Noodles, Rice, Burger, Pizza, Soup, and Corn

1) The soup was served three days after the day on which Rice was served.

Implies, Rice was served either on Thursday or before Thursday.

2) Rice was not served either on Tuesday or Thursday.

Implies, Rice was served either on Monday or Wednesday, and accordingly, the soup was served on either Thursday or Saturday.

3) Either Corn or Noodles were served on Thursday.

Implies, the soup was not served on Thursday. Thus, Rice was served on Wednesday and the soup was served on Saturday.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
Sunday

 

4) The bread was served on one of the days after the day on which soup was served. 

As the soup was served on Saturday, implies, the Bread was served on Sunday.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

  1. Pizza was served on one of the days after Rice was served. 

There is only one option for Pizza i.e. Friday as we have already identified the items served on other days.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

6) The burger was served immediately the next day after Noodles were served. 

Implies, the Noodles were not served on Thursday because Pizza was served on Friday. Thus, Noodles were served on Monday and the Burger was served on Tuesday. It further implies that Corn was served on Thursday.

DaysBreakfast
MondayNoodles
TuesdayBurger
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

Hence, Friday is the correct answer.

10

Which item was served on Tuesday?

  1. ((a))

    Pizza

  2. ((b))

    Corn

  3. ((c))

    Burger

  4. ((d))

    Rice

  5. ((e))

    Noodles

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Burger

Days = Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday

Breakfast = Bread, Noodles, Rice, Burger, Pizza, Soup, and Corn

1) The soup was served three days after the day on which Rice was served.

Implies, Rice was served either on Thursday or before Thursday.

2) Rice was not served either on Tuesday or Thursday.

Implies, Rice was served either on Monday or Wednesday, and accordingly, the soup was served on either Thursday or Saturday.

3) Either Corn or Noodles were served on Thursday.

Implies, the soup was not served on Thursday. Thus, Rice was served on Wednesday and the soup was served on Saturday.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
Sunday

 

4) The bread was served on one of the days after the day on which soup was served. 

As the soup was served on Saturday, implies, the Bread was served on Sunday.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

  1. Pizza was served on one of the days after Rice was served. 

There is only one option for Pizza i.e. Friday as we have already identified the items served on other days.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

6) The burger was served immediately the next day after Noodles were served. 

Implies, the Noodles were not served on Thursday because Pizza was served on Friday. Thus, Noodles were served on Monday and the Burger was served on Tuesday. It further implies that Corn was served on Thursday.

DaysBreakfast
MondayNoodles
TuesdayBurger
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

Hence, Burger is the correct answer.

11

Which item was served two days after the day on which Pizza was served?

  1. ((a))

    Noodles

  2. ((b))

    Bread

  3. ((c))

    Soup

  4. ((d))

    Corn

  5. ((e))

    Burger

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bread

Days = Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday

Breakfast = Bread, Noodles, Rice, Burger, Pizza, Soup, and Corn

1) The soup was served three days after the day on which Rice was served.

Implies, Rice was served either on Thursday or before Thursday.

2) Rice was not served either on Tuesday or Thursday.

Implies, Rice was served either on Monday or Wednesday, and accordingly, the soup was served on either Thursday or Saturday.

3) Either Corn or Noodles were served on Thursday.

Implies, the soup was not served on Thursday. Thus, Rice was served on Wednesday and the soup was served on Saturday.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
Sunday

 

4) The bread was served on one of the days after the day on which soup was served. 

As the soup was served on Saturday, implies, the Bread was served on Sunday.

 

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

  1. Pizza was served on one of the days after Rice was served. 

There is only one option for Pizza i.e. Friday as we have already identified the items served on other days.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

6) The burger was served immediately the next day after Noodles were served. 

Implies, the Noodles were not served on Thursday because Pizza was served on Friday. Thus, Noodles were served on Monday and the Burger was served on Tuesday. It further implies that Corn was served on Thursday.

DaysBreakfast
MondayNoodles
TuesdayBurger
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

Hence, Bread is the correct answer.

12

Rice was served on which day of the week?

  1. ((a))

    Wednesday

  2. ((b))

    Monday

  3. ((c))

    Saturday

  4. ((d))

    Friday

  5. ((e))

    Sunday

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wednesday

Days = Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday

Breakfast = Bread, Noodles, Rice, Burger, Pizza, Soup, and Corn

1) The soup was served three days after the day on which Rice was served.

Implies, Rice was served either on Thursday or before Thursday.

2) Rice was not served either on Tuesday or Thursday.

Implies, Rice was served either on Monday or Wednesday, and accordingly, the soup was served on either Thursday or Saturday.

3) Either Corn or Noodles were served on Thursday.

Implies, the soup was not served on Thursday. Thus, Rice was served on Wednesday and the soup was served on Saturday.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
Sunday

 

4) The bread was served on one of the days after the day on which soup was served. 

As the soup was served on Saturday, implies, the Bread was served on Sunday.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

  1. Pizza was served on one of the days after Rice was served. 

There is only one option for Pizza i.e. Friday as we have already identified the items served on other days.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

6) The burger was served immediately the next day after Noodles were served. 

Implies, the Noodles were not served on Thursday because Pizza was served on Friday. Thus, Noodles were served on Monday and the Burger was served on Tuesday. It further implies that Corn was served on Thursday.

DaysBreakfast
MondayNoodles
TuesdayBurger
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

Hence, Wednesday is the correct answer.

13

Which item was served on the first day of the training?

  1. ((a))

    Rice

  2. ((b))

    Corn

  3. ((c))

    Burger

  4. ((d))

    Noodles

  5. ((e))

    Soup

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Noodles

Days = Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday

Breakfast = Bread, Noodles, Rice, Burger, Pizza, Soup, and Corn

1) The soup was served three days after the day on which Rice was served.

Implies, Rice was served either on Thursday or before Thursday.

2) Rice was not served either on Tuesday or Thursday.

Implies, Rice was served either on Monday or Wednesday, and accordingly, the soup was served on either Thursday or Saturday.

3) Either Corn or Noodles were served on Thursday.

Implies, the soup was not served on Thursday. Thus, Rice was served on Wednesday and the soup was served on Saturday.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
Sunday

 

4) The bread was served on one of the days after the day on which soup was served. 

As the soup was served on Saturday, implies, the Bread was served on Sunday.

 

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
Friday
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

  1. Pizza was served on one of the days after Rice was served. 

There is only one option for Pizza i.e. Friday as we have already identified the items served on other days.

DaysBreakfast
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn/Noodles
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

6) The burger was served immediately the next day after Noodles were served. 

Implies, the Noodles were not served on Thursday because Pizza was served on Friday. Thus, Noodles were served on Monday and the Burger was served on Tuesday. It further implies that Corn was served on Thursday.

DaysBreakfast
MondayNoodles
TuesdayBurger
WednesdayRice
ThursdayCorn
FridayPizza
SaturdaySoup
SundayBread

 

Hence, Noodles is the correct answer.

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols @, %, #, & and $ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B.’

‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B.’

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B.’

‘A & B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B.’

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B.’

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusions given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

14

Statements:

J # K, K @ P, P $ R

Conclusions:        

I. J # R    

II. R $ J

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Either conclusion I or II is true

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Neither conclusion I nor II is true

According to the given information,

A is
Symbol@%#&$
Meaning=><
To B

 

 

 

 

Given Statement: J # K, K @ P, P $ R

On Converting: J > K, K = P, P < R

On Combining: J > K = P < R

Conclusions:

I. J # R → J > R → False (As J > K = P < R, Here clear relation between J and R can't be determined)

II. R $ J → R < J → False (As J > K = P < R, Here clear relation between J and R can't be determined)

Hence, Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

15

Statements:

P # R, R @ L, L & T

Conclusions:

I. L $ P

II. P # T

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Either conclusion I or II is true

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both conclusion I and II are true

According to the given information,

A is
Symbol@%#&$
Meaning=><
To B

 

 

 

 

 

Given Statements: P # R, R @ L, L & T

On Converting: P > R, R = L, L ≥ T

On Combining: P > R = L ≥ T

Conclusions:

I. L $ P → L < P → True (As P > R = L → P > L, Here we give priority to > sign)

II. P # T → P > T → True (As P > R = L ≥ T → P > T, Here we give priority to > sign)

Hence, Both conclusion I and II are true.

16

Statements:

C @ D, D & P, K $ P

Conclusions:

I. C # P

II. C @ P

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Either conclusion I or II is true

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Either conclusion I or II is true

According to the given information,

A is
Symbol@%#&$
Meaning=><
To B

 

 

 

 

 

 

Given Statement: C @ D, D & P, K $ P

On Converting: C = D, D ≥ P, K < P

On Combining: C = D ≥ P > K

Conclusions:

I. C # P → C > P → False (C = D ≥ P → C ≥ P, Here relation for C and P is not definite)

II. C @ P → C = P → False (C = D ≥ P → C ≥ P, Here relation for C and P is not definite)

Note: Conclusion I and II are complementary pairs.

Hence, Either conclusion I or II is true.

Directions:  Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

There are eight employees - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W in a software company at different designations - Executive Director, Director, Senior Manager, Manager, Team Leader, Senior Software Engineer, Software Engineer, and Associate Software Engineer in descending level of seniority. At least three persons are junior to Q. As many persons are junior to S as senior to Q. R is immediately senior to T who is senior to Q who is either immediately senior or immediately junior to S. S is senior to U but junior to P but not immediate junior or senior to any of the two. At least two persons are senior to P. There is one post between S and W. V is not the junior most person.

17

Who is the Senior Manager in the company?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

P

Eight employees - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

Designations - Executive Director, Director, Senior Manager, Manager, Team Leader, Senior Software Engineer, Software Engineer, and Associate Software Engineer

1) At least three persons are junior to Q.

2) As many persons are junior to S as senior to Q.

  1. R is immediately senior to T who is senior to Q who is either immediately senior or immediately junior to S.
Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsDesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorExecutive Director
DirectorDirector
Senior ManagerSenior Manager
ManagerSManagerQ
Team LeaderQTeam LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerSenior Software Engineer
Software EngineerSoftware Engineer
Associate Software EngineerAssociate Software Engineer
<br>

4) S is senior to U but junior to P but not immediate junior or senior to any of the two.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 1, it will get canceled.

  1. At least two persons are senior to P.
DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software Engineer
Software Engineer
Associate Software Engineer
<br>

6) There is one post between S and W. V is not the junior most person.

And from point 4, 

Final Arrangement:

DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerV
Software EngineerW
Associate Software EngineerU
<br>

Hence, P is the Senior Manager in the company.

18

Who is the Team Leader in the company?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

S

Eight employees - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

Designations - Executive Director, Director, Senior Manager, Manager, Team Leader, Senior Software Engineer, Software Engineer, and Associate Software Engineer

1) At least three persons are junior to Q.

2) As many persons are junior to S as senior to Q.

  1. R is immediately senior to T who is senior to Q who is either immediately senior or immediately junior to S.
Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsDesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorExecutive Director
DirectorDirector
Senior ManagerSenior Manager
ManagerSManagerQ
Team LeaderQTeam LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerSenior Software Engineer
Software EngineerSoftware Engineer
Associate Software EngineerAssociate Software Engineer
<br>

4) S is senior to U but junior to P but not immediate junior or senior to any of the two.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 1, it will get canceled.

  1. At least two persons are senior to P. V is not the junior most person.
DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software Engineer
Software Engineer
Associate Software Engineer
<br>

6) There is one post between S and W.

And from point 4, 

Final Arrangement:

DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerV
Software EngineerW
Associate Software EngineerU
<br>

Hence, S is the Team Leader in the company.

19

V is at which designation in the company?

  1. ((a))

    Senior Software Engineer

  2. ((b))

    Software Engineer

  3. ((c))

    Senior Manager

  4. ((d))

    Manager

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Senior Software Engineer

Eight employees - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

Designations - Executive Director, Director, Senior Manager, Manager, Team Leader, Senior Software Engineer, Software Engineer, and Associate Software Engineer

1) At least three persons are junior to Q.

2) As many persons are junior to S as senior to Q.

  1. R is immediately senior to T who is senior to Q who is either immediately senior or immediately junior to S.
Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsDesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorExecutive Director
DirectorDirector
Senior ManagerSenior Manager
ManagerSManagerQ
Team LeaderQTeam LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerSenior Software Engineer
Software EngineerSoftware Engineer
Associate Software EngineerAssociate Software Engineer
<br>

4) S is senior to U but junior to P but not immediate junior or senior to any of the two.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 1, it will get canceled.

  1. At least two persons are senior to P.
DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software Engineer
Software Engineer
Associate Software Engineer
<br>

6) There is one post between S and W. V is not the junior most person.

And from point 4, 

Final Arrangement:

DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerV
Software EngineerW
Associate Software EngineerU
<br>

Hence, V is the Senior Software Engineer in the company.

20

If all the employees are arranged in alphabetical order from highest to lowest post, how many employees' designation will not change?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None

Eight employees - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

Designations - Executive Director, Director, Senior Manager, Manager, Team Leader, Senior Software Engineer, Software Engineer, and Associate Software Engineer

1) At least three persons are junior to Q.

2) As many persons are junior to S as senior to Q.

  1. R is immediately senior to T who is senior to Q who is either immediately senior or immediately junior to S.
Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsDesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorExecutive Director
DirectorDirector
Senior ManagerSenior Manager
ManagerSManagerQ
Team LeaderQTeam LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerSenior Software Engineer
Software EngineerSoftware Engineer
Associate Software EngineerAssociate Software Engineer
<br>

4) S is senior to U but junior to P but not immediate junior or senior to any of the two.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 1, it will get canceled.

  1. At least two persons are senior to P.
DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software Engineer
Software Engineer
Associate Software Engineer
<br>

6) There is one post between S and W. V is not the junior most person.

And from point 4, 

Final Arrangement:

DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerV
Software EngineerW
Associate Software EngineerU

 

On arranging in alphabetical order:

DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorP
DirectorQ
Senior ManagerR
ManagerS
Team LeaderT
Senior Software EngineerU
Software EngineerV
Associate Software EngineerW
<br>

Hence, None of the employees' designation will remain unchanged.

21

How many persons are junior to U?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    No one

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

No one

Eight employees - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W

Designations - Executive Director, Director, Senior Manager, Manager, Team Leader, Senior Software Engineer, Software Engineer, and Associate Software Engineer

1) At least three persons are junior to Q.

2) As many persons are junior to S as senior to Q.

  1. R is immediately senior to T who is senior to Q who is either immediately senior or immediately junior to S.
Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsDesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorExecutive Director
DirectorDirector
Senior ManagerSenior Manager
ManagerSManagerQ
Team LeaderQTeam LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerSenior Software Engineer
Software EngineerSoftware Engineer
Associate Software EngineerAssociate Software Engineer
<br>

4) S is senior to U but junior to P but not immediate junior or senior to any of the two.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 1, it will get canceled.

  1. At least two persons are senior to P.
DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software Engineer
Software Engineer
Associate Software Engineer
<br>

6) There is one post between S and W. V is not the junior most person.

And from point 4, 

Final Arrangement:

DesignationsPersons
Executive DirectorR
DirectorT
Senior ManagerP
ManagerQ
Team LeaderS
Senior Software EngineerV
Software EngineerW
Associate Software EngineerU
<br>

Hence, No one is a junior to U.

Two friends A and B are playing in a park. After some time, A went to his home and B went to his office. A walked 8m towards North from the park and turned right and walked for 8m then took a right turn and walked for 8m to reach the mall then started walking in the north-east direction and covered a distance of 13m then started walking in the South direction and covered a distance of 12m to reach the Bus stand and finally turned left and walked for 6m to reach home. B walked 2m towards the east from the park and turned left and walked 6 m then turned right and walked 2 m. He then turned right and walked 9m and turned left and walked 2 m and again turned right and walked 2 m and finally turned left and walked 2 m to reach office.

22

In which direction is B's office with respect to B's initial position?

  1. ((a))

    South-East

  2. ((b))

    South-West

  3. ((c))

    South

  4. ((d))

    North

  5. ((e))

    West

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South-East

1) A walked 8m towards North from the park and turned right and walked for 8m then took a right turn and walked for 8m to reach the mall then he started walking in the north-east direction and covered a distance of 13m then started walking in the South direction and covered a distance of 12m to reach the bus stand and finally turned left and walked for 6m to reach home.

  1. B walked 2m towards the east from the park and turned left and walked 6 m then turned right and walked 2 m. He then turned right and walked 9m and turned left and walked 2 m and again turned right and walked 2 m and finally turned left and walked 2 m to reach office.

By merging all the diagrams, the final diagram will be as follows:

Hence, B's office is in the South-East direction with respect to B's initial position.

23

What is the total distance covered by A from the park to the mall?

  1. ((a))

    20 m

  2. ((b))

    24 m 

  3. ((c))

    19 m

  4. ((d))

    16 m

  5. ((e))

    12 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

24 m 

1) A walked 8m towards North from the park and turned right and walked for 8m then took a right turn and walked for 8m to reach the mall then he started walking in the north-east direction and covered a distance of 13m then started walking in the South direction and covered a distance of 12m to reach the bus stand and finally turned left and walked for 6m to reach home.

  1. B walked 2m towards the east from the park and turned left and walked 6 m then turned right and walked 2 m. He then turned right and walked 9m and turned left and walked 2 m and again turned right and walked 2 m and finally turned left and walked 2 m to reach office.

By merging all the diagrams, the final diagram will be as follows:

Total distance covered = 8 m + 8 m + 8 m = 24 m

Hence, the total distance covered by A from the park to the mall is 24 m.

24

What is the shortest distance between the mall and the bus stand?

  1. ((a))

    5 m

  2. ((b))

    25 m

  3. ((c))

    6 m

  4. ((d))

    7 m

  5. ((e))

    9 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 m

1) A walked 8m towards North from the park and turned right and walked for 8m then took a right turn and walked for 8m to reach the mall then he started walking in the north-east direction and covered a distance of 13m then started walking in the South direction and covered a distance of 12m to reach the bus stand and finally turned left and walked for 6m to reach home.

  1. B walked 2m towards the east from the park and turned left and walked 6 m then turned right and walked 2 m. He then turned right and walked 9m and turned left and walked 2 m and again turned right and walked 2 m and finally turned left and walked 2 m to reach office.

By merging all the diagrams, the final diagram will be as follows:

By using Pythagoras theorem:

(Perpendicular)2 + (Base)2 = (Hypoteneus)2

(12)2 + (Base)2 = (13)2

144 + (Base)2 = 169

(Base)2 = 169 - 144

(Base)2 = 25

(Base)2 = (5)2

Base = 5 m

Hence, the shortest distance between the mall and the bus stand is 5 m.

25

In a family of 6 members where all married couples have at least 1 child, H is the daughter of E, F and E are couples. C is not father of D. E is brother of D. D is the daughter of A. How is C related to H?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Grand father

  3. ((c))

    Grand mother

  4. ((d))

    Father

  5. ((e))

    Sister

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Grand mother

Based on the given data, the following family tree can be drawn,

All married couples have at least 1 child.

  1. H is the daughter of E.
  2. F and E are a couple.
  3. C is not the father of D.
  4. E is the brother of D. So, E and D are siblings.
  5. D is the daughter of A. 

So, A must be the father of D and C must be the mother of D.

Thus, C is the grandmother of H.

Hence, grandmother is the answer.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word arrangement machine is given an input of line number and word, it arranges them by following a certain rule and certain conditions. Following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.

INPUT: Eye Cover Hen An Back Lenovo Package Quantity                                                          

Step 1: Quantity Eye Cover Hen An Back Lenovo Package

Step 2: Quantity An Eye Cover Hen Back Lenovo Package

Step 3: Quantity An Package Eye Cover Hen Back Lenovo

Step 4: Quantity An Package Back Eye Cover Hen Lenovo

Step 5: Quantity An Package Back Lenovo Eye Cover Hen

Step 6: Quantity An Package Back Lenovo Cover Eye Hen

Step 7: Quantity An Package Back Lenovo Cover Hen Eye

Step 7 is the last step. As per rule followed in the given step, find out the appropriate step for the given input.

INPUT: Jack Mango Cat All Nose Base Use Zoo

26

Which element come exactly between the ‘Jack’ and ‘Cat’ in the step 3 of the given input?

  1. ((a))

    Mango

  2. ((b))

    Zoo

  3. ((c))

    Use

  4. ((d))

    All

  5. ((e))

    Nose

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mango

The logic followed is as follows,

In step 1 alphabet is arranged in reverse order (Z→A) in Left end then in Step II word starting with Lowest alphabet that is A→ Z is arranged right side of the word that is arranged in previous step and this process repeated till end.  

Apply the same rule on the given input we get,

INPUT: Jack Mango Cat All Nose Base Use Zoo

Step 1: Zoo Jack Mango Cat All Nose Base Use

Step 2: Zoo All Jack Mango Cat Nose Base Use

Step 3: Zoo All Use Jack Mango Cat Nose Base

Step 4: Zoo All Use Base Jack Mango Cat Nose

Step 5: Zoo All Use Base Nose Jack Mango Cat

Step 6: Zoo All Use Base Nose Cat Jack Mango

Step 7: Zoo All Use Base Nose Cat Mango Jack

The word ‘Mango’ is exactly between the word ‘jack’ and ‘cat’ in step 3 of the given input.

27

What is the last step of the given input?

  1. ((a))

    Zoo Jack Mango Cat All Nose Base Use

  2. ((b))

    Zoo All Use Base Nose Jack Mango Cat

  3. ((c))

    Zoo All Use Base Nose Cat Mango Jack

  4. ((d))

    Zoo All Jack Mango Cat Nose Base Jack

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Zoo All Use Base Nose Cat Mango Jack

The logic followed is as follows,

In step 1 alphabet is arranged in reverse order (Z→A) in Left end then in Step II word starting with Lowest alphabet that is A→ Z is arranged right side of the word that is arranged in previous step and this process repeated till end.  

Apply the same rule on the given input we get,

INPUT: Jack Mango Cat All Nose Base Use Zoo

Step 1: Zoo Jack Mango Cat All Nose Base Use

Step 2: Zoo All Jack Mango Cat Nose Base Use

Step 3: Zoo All Use Jack Mango Cat Nose Base

Step 4: Zoo All Use Base Jack Mango Cat Nose

Step 5: Zoo All Use Base Nose Jack Mango Cat

Step 6: Zoo All Use Base Nose Cat Jack Mango

Step 7: Zoo All Use Base Nose Cat Mango Jack

Step 3 is the given input is ‘Zoo All Use Jack Mango Cat Nose Base’.

28

Which of the following is the fourth element from the right end of the step 4?

  1. ((a))

    All

  2. ((b))

    Zoo

  3. ((c))

    Jack

  4. ((d))

    Nose

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jack

The logic followed is as follows,

In step 1 alphabet is arranged in reverse order (Z→A) in Left end then in Step II word starting with Lowest alphabet that is A→ Z is arranged right side of the word that is arranged in previous step and this process repeated till end.  

Apply the same rule on the given input we get,

INPUT: Jack Mango Cat All Nose Base Use Zoo

Step 1: Zoo Jack Mango Cat All Nose Base Use

Step 2: Zoo All Jack Mango Cat Nose Base Use

Step 3: Zoo All Use Jack Mango Cat Nose Base

Step 4: Zoo All Use Base Jack Mango Cat Nose

Step 5: Zoo All Use Base Nose Jack Mango Cat

Step 6: Zoo All Use Base Nose Cat Jack Mango

Step 7: Zoo All Use Base Nose Cat Mango Jack

 Jack is the fourth element from the right end of the step 4.

Directions (6-10):- Study the following information carefully and answer the Questions based on it:

Six friends namely D, V, W, B, Y and A were born in different seasons among spring, summer, Monsoon, autumn, fall and winter, not necessarily in the same order. Also each of them was born in a different year among 2000, 2001, 2002, 2003, 2004 and 2005, again not necessarily in the same order.

The person who took birth in autumn was born in an odd numbered year. Exactly three persons were born between the births of the persons who took birth in spring and winter. The birth year of V, who was not born during autumn, is a prime number. The person who took birth in summer was born in 2002. The birth year of D immediately succeeds the birth year of the persons who took birth in monsoon. W, who is younger than V, took birth in neither winter nor spring. The number of persons who were born between the births of the persons who took birth in fall and autumn is at most two. B is older than the person who took birth in Monsoon.

29

Who was born in Monsoon?

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    Y

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Cannot be determined

  1. The person who took birth in summer was born in 2002.

  2. The birth year of V, who was not born during autumn, is a prime number.

  3. The person who took birth in autumn was born in an odd numbered year.

  4. Exactly three persons were born between the births of the persons who took birth in spring and winter.

  5. W, who is younger than V, took birth in neither winter nor spring.

  6. The number of persons who were born between the birth year of the persons who took birth in fall and autumn is at most two.

So, V is born during fall.

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/Spring
2001/Autumn
2002Summer
2003FallV
2004Winter/Spring
2005/AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The birth year of D immediately succeeds the birth year of the persons who took birth in monsoon.

  2. B is older than the person who took birth in Monsoon.

The final arrangement is given below-

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/SpringB
2001MonsoonY/A
2002SummerD
2003FallV
2004Winter/SpringY/A
2005AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

We can’t have definite information regarding the birth person of Monsoon, so we can’t define that who took birth in Monsoon.

Hence, the correct answer is cannot be determined.

30

How many persons are born between the person who took birth in Monsoon and the person who took birth in autumn?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

  1. The person who took birth in summer was born in 2002.

  2. The birth year of V, who was not born during autumn, is a prime number.

  3. The person who took birth in autumn was born in an odd numbered year.

  4. Exactly three persons were born between the births of the persons who took birth in spring and winter.

  5. W, who is younger than V, took birth in neither winter nor spring.

  6. The number of persons who were born between the birth year of the persons who took birth in fall and autumn is at most two.

So, V is born during fall.

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/Spring
2001/Autumn
2002Summer
2003FallV
2004Winter/Spring
2005/AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The birth year of D immediately succeeds the birth year of the persons who took birth in monsoon.

  2. B is older than the person who took birth in Monsoon.

The final arrangement is given below-

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/SpringB
2001MonsoonY/A
2002SummerD
2003FallV
2004Winter/SpringY/A
2005AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

We can clearly see that there are three persons between the person who took birth in monsoon and the person who took birth in autumn.

Hence, the correct answer is three.

31

Who was born in fall?

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    Y

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

V

  1. The person who took birth in summer was born in 2002.

  2. The birth year of V, who was not born during autumn, is a prime number.

  3. The person who took birth in autumn was born in an odd numbered year.

  4. Exactly three persons were born between the births of the persons who took birth in spring and winter.

  5. W, who is younger than V, took birth in neither winter nor spring.

  6. The number of persons who were born between the birth year of the persons who took birth in fall and autumn is at most two.

So, V is born during fall.

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/Spring
2001/Autumn
2002Summer
2003FallV
2004Winter/Spring
2005/AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The birth year of D immediately succeeds the birth year of the persons who took birth in monsoon.

  2. B is older than the person who took birth in Monsoon.

The final arrangement is given below-

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/SpringB
2001MonsoonY/A
2002SummerD
2003FallV
2004Winter/SpringY/A
2005AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

We can clearly see that V was born in fall.

Hence, the correct answer is V.

32

A was born in which Season?

  1. ((a))

    Winter

  2. ((b))

    Spring

  3. ((c))

    Summer

  4. ((d))

    Either (1) or (2)

  5. ((e))

    Either (2) or (3)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Either (1) or (2)

  1. The person who took birth in summer was born in 2002.

  2. The birth year of V, who was not born during autumn, is a prime number.

  3. The person who took birth in autumn was born in an odd numbered year.

  4. Exactly three persons were born between the births of the persons who took birth in spring and winter.

  5. W, who is younger than V, took birth in neither winter nor spring.

  6. The number of persons who were born between the birth year of the persons who took birth in fall and autumn is at most two.

So, V is born during fall.

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/Spring
2001/Autumn
2002Summer
2003FallV
2004Winter/Spring
2005/AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The birth year of D immediately succeeds the birth year of the persons who took birth in monsoon.

  2. B is older than the person who took birth in Monsoon.

The final arrangement is given below-

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/SpringB
2001MonsoonY/A
2002SummerD
2003FallV
2004Winter/SpringY/A
2005AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

We can clearly see that in the diagram that A was born in either winter or in spring.

Hence, the correct answer is either winter or spring.

33

W was born in which of the following seasons?

  1. ((a))

    Winter

  2. ((b))

    Spring

  3. ((c))

    Autumn

  4. ((d))

    Summer

  5. ((e))

    Monsoon

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Autumn

  1. The person who took birth in summer was born in 2002.

  2. The birth year of V, who was not born during autumn, is a prime number.

  3. The person who took birth in autumn was born in an odd numbered year.

  4. Exactly three persons were born between the births of the persons who took birth in spring and winter.

  5. W, who is younger than V, took birth in neither winter nor spring.

  6. The number of persons who were born between the birth year of the persons who took birth in fall and autumn is at most two.

So, V is born during fall.

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/Spring
2001/Autumn
2002Summer
2003FallV
2004Winter/Spring
2005/AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The birth year of D immediately succeeds the birth year of the persons who took birth in monsoon.

  2. B is older than the person who took birth in Monsoon.

The final arrangement is given below-

Birth YearSeasonPerson
2000Winter/SpringB
2001MonsoonY/A
2002SummerD
2003FallV
2004Winter/SpringY/A
2005AutumnW

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

We can clearly see that in the diagram that W was born in autumn.

Hence, the correct answer is autumn.

34

If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, fourth, fifth, and eighth letters of the word "REGARDING" which of the following will be the second letter from the right end of that newly formed word? If more than one such word can be made, give M as the answer and if no such word can be made, give Y as the answer.

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    Y

  4. ((d))

    N

  5. ((e))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

M

The second, fourth, fifth, and eighth letters of the word "REGARDING" are E, A, R, and N respectively 

Meaningful words can be formed → EARN, NEAR, REAN, and NARE

Hence, the correct answer is M as more than 1 word can be formed.

35

How many pairs of digits are there in the number '87592645' that has as many numbers between them as in the numerical series in both forward and backward direction?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    More than 5

  5. ((e))

    0

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

More than 5

Given number: 87592645

There are two pairs in backward direction**:**  5-9 and 7-8

There are four pairs in forward direction**: 7-9, 2-4,2-5** and 4-5

The total number of pairs in both backward and forward directions is six.

Hence, More than 5 pairs of digits are there in the number '87592645' that has as many numbers between them as in the numerical series in both forward and backward direction

Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follows

Twelve persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people in each row. In row 1, I, J, K, L, M, and N are seated and all of them are facing south and in row 2, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each person in row 1 is seating exactly opposite to the person seating in row 2 and vice versa. Three persons are sitting between B and the one who faces M. One person sits between M and N. Two persons are sitting between N and the one who faces E. J faces the one who sits second to the right of A. J neither faces B nor E. D faces the one who sits third to the right of I. One of the immediate neighbors of L faces F. D and F are not immediate neighbors. B sits second from one of the ends.

36

Who among the following faces F?

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    J

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    I

  5. ((e))

    Can’t be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

M

Row 1: I, J, K, L, M and N

Row 2: A, B, C, D, E and F

  1. B sits 2nd from one of the ends so, B either sits at the right or left end of row 2.
  2. Three persons are sitting between B and the one who faces M.
  3. One person sits between M and N.

Case-1

Case-2

4 Two persons are sitting between N and the one who faces E.

  1. J faces the one who sits second to the right of A.
  2. J neither faces B nor E.

Now, E must be sitting at the extreme end and J must be sitting adjacent to J.

Case-1

Case-2

  1. D faces the one who sits third to the right of I.
  2. One of the immediate neighbors of L faces F.
  3. D and F are not immediate neighbors.

Now, case 1 is invalid as we can’t fix I in case 1 as D faces the one who sits 3rd to the right of I.

The final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, M faces F.

37

Who sits 3rd to the right of K?

  1. ((a))

    L

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    J

  5. ((e))

    N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

L

Row 1: I, J, K, L, M and N

Row 2: A, B, C, D, E and F

  1. B sits 2nd from the one of the ends so, B either sits at the right or left end of the row 2.
  2. Three persons are sitting between B and the one who faces M.
  3. One person sits between M and N.

4 Two persons are sitting between N and the one who faces E.

  1. J faces the one who sits second to the right of A.
  2. J neither faces B nor E.

Now, E must be sitting at the extreme end and J must be sitting adjacent to J.

  1. D faces the one who sits third to the right of I.
  2. One of the immediate neighbors of L faces F.
  3. D and F are not immediate neighbors.

Now, case 1 is invalid as we can’t fix I in case 1 as D faces the one who sits 3rd to the right of I.

The final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, L sits third to the right of K.

38

Who sits 2nd to the left of B?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    Can’t be determined

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of the above

Row 1: I, J, K, L, M and N

Row 2: A, B, C, D, E and F

  1. B sits 2nd from the one of the ends so, B either sits at the right or left end of the row 2.
  2. Three persons are sitting between B and the one who faces M.
  3. One person sits between M and N.

4 Two persons are sitting between N and the one who faces E.

  1. J faces the one who sits second to the right of A.
  2. J neither faces B nor E.

Now, E must be sitting at the extreme end and J must be sitting adjacent to J.

  1. D faces the one who sits third to the right of I.
  2. One of the immediate neighbors of L faces F.
  3. D and F are not immediate neighbors.

Now, case 1 is invalid as we can’t fix I in case 1 as D faces the one who sits 3rd to the right of I.

The final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, D sits second to the left of B, so the answer is none of these.

39

What is the position of I with respect to the one who faces A?

  1. ((a))

    3rd to the right

  2. ((b))

    4th to the left

  3. ((c))

    Immediate right

  4. ((d))

    2nd to the left

  5. ((e))

    Immediate left

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4th to the left

Row 1: I, J, K, L, M and N

Row 2: A, B, C, D, E and F

  1. B sits 2nd from the one of the ends so, B either sits at the right or left end of the row 2.
  2. Three persons are sitting between B and the one who faces M.
  3. One person sits between M and N.

4 Two persons are sitting between N and the one who faces E.

  1. J faces the one who sits second to the right of A.
  2. J neither faces B nor E.

Now, E must be sitting at the extreme end and J must be sitting adjacent to J.

  1. D faces the one who sits third to the right of I.
  2. One of the immediate neighbors of L faces F.
  3. D and F are not immediate neighbors.

Now, case 1 is invalid as we can’t fix I in case 1 as D faces the one who sits 3rd to the right of I.

The final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, I is 4th to the left of the one who faces A i.e. L

40

Find the odd one out?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    I

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A

Row 1: I, J, K, L, M and N

Row 2: A, B, C, D, E and F

  1. B sits 2nd from the one of the ends so, B either sits at the right or left end of the row 2.
  2. Three persons are sitting between B and the one who faces M.
  3. One person sits between M and N.

4 Two persons are sitting between N and the one who faces E.

  1. J faces the one who sits second to the right of A.
  2. J neither faces B nor E.

Now, E must be sitting at the extreme end and J must be sitting adjacent to J.

  1. D faces the one who sits third to the right of I.
  2. One of the immediate neighbors of L faces F.
  3. D and F are not immediate neighbors.

Now, case 1 is invalid as we can’t fix I in case 1 as D faces the one who sits 3rd to the right of I.

The final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, All are sitting at the extreme end of the row except A.

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

41

A half byte is called a

  1. ((a))

    Byte

  2. ((b))

    Nibble

  3. ((c))

    Bit

  4. ((d))

    Word size

  5. ((e))

    Megabyte

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nibble

The correct answer is Nibble.

  • A half byte is called a Nibble.

Key Points

  • One byte is equal to 8 bits.
  • One kilobit is equal to 1000 bits.
  • One kilobyte is equal to 8000 bits.
  • One kibibit is equal to 1024 bits.
  • One kibibyte is equal to 8192 bits.
  • One Megabit is equal to 1000000 bits.
  • One Megabyte is equal to 8000000 bits.
42

Which of the following converts analogue information into digital form ?

  1. ((a))

    Optical Mark Reading

  2. ((b))

    Barcode reader

  3. ((c))

    Digitizer

  4. ((d))

    Gamepad

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Digitizer

The Correct Answer is Digitizer.

 

Key Points

  • A digitizer is a hardware device that receives analog information, such as sound or light and converts it into digital form.
  • Usually, the information is stored in a file on a computing device.
  • This process is called digitization.
  • A digital camera is one example of a digitizer.

 

Additional Information

  • Optical Mark Reading (OMR) is a method of entering data into a computer system.
  • The OMR technology could be used if data is to be collected from a large number of sources simultaneously, a large volume of data must be collected and processed in a short period of time.
  • A barcode reader is an optical scanner that can read printed barcodes, decode the data contained in the barcode, and send the data to a computer.
43

In the context of computers, tracker balls is a/an _______ device.

  1. ((a))

    output

  2. ((b))

    input

  3. ((c))

    storage

  4. ((d))

    processing

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

input

The correct answer is ​Input.

​ Key Points

  • A device that receives data for processing is called an input device.
  • In the context of computers, tracker balls is an input device.
  • A trackball is a pointing device.
  • The trackball was invented by Ralph Benjamin.
  • An input device converts input information into suitable binary code from acceptable to a computer.
  • Major input devices:
  • Keyboard.
  • Lightpen.
  • Mouse.
  • Joystick.
  • Scanner.
  • Microphone.
  • Optical mark reader.
  • Bar code reader.
  • Graphics tablet.
  • Touch screen.

Additional Information

  • Major output devices:
  • Monitor.
  • Printer.
  • Speaker.
  • Projector.
  • Sound card.
  • Headphone.
  • Plotter.
  • Video card.
44

To communicate in a secured and well-defined manner with each other, computers make use of ______ over a network.

  1. ((a))

    File Server

  2. ((b))

    URL

  3. ((c))

    Domain

  4. ((d))

    Website

  5. ((e))

    Protocols

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Protocols

The correct answer is Protocols

Key Points

  • A protocol is a standard set of rules that allow electronic devices to communicate with each other. These rules include what type of data may be transmitted, what commands are used to send and receive data, and how data transfers are confirmed.
  • You can think of a protocol as a spoken language. Each language has its own rules and vocabulary. If two people share the same language, they can communicate effectively. Similarly, if two hardware devices support the same protocol, they can communicate with each other, regardless of the manufacturer or type of device. For example, an Apple iPhone can send an email to an Android device using a standard mail protocol. A Windows-based PC can load a webpage from a Unix-based web server using a standard web protocol.

  • Protocols exist for several different applications. Examples include wired networking (e.g., Ethernet), wireless networking (e.g., 802.11ac), and Internet communication (e.g., IP). The Internet protocol suite, which is used for transmitting data over the Internet, contains dozens of protocols. These protocols may be broken up into four categories:
  • Link-layer - PPP, DSL, Wi-Fi, etc.
  • Internet layer - IPv4, IPv6, etc.
  • Transport layer - TCP, UDP, etc.
  • Application layer - HTTP, IMAP, FTP, etc.
  • Link-layer protocols establish communication between devices at a hardware level. In order to transmit data from one device to another, each device's hardware must support the same link-layer protocol. Internet layer protocols are used to initiate data transfers and route them over the Internet. Transport layer protocols define how packets are sent, received, and confirmed. Application layer protocols contain commands for specific applications. For example, a web browser uses HTTPS to securely download the contents of a webpage from a web server. An email client uses SMTP to send email messages through a mail server.
  • Protocols are a fundamental aspect of digital communication. In most cases, protocols operate in the background, so it is not necessary for typical users to know how each protocol works.
45

Which of the following ports is used to connect monitor to a computer's video card?

  1. ((a))

    VGA Port

  2. ((b))

    Serial Port

  3. ((c))

    Parallel Port

  4. ((d))

    PS/2 Port

  5. ((e))

    USB Port

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VGA Port

VGA Port:

  • It connects monitor to a computer's video card.
  • It has 15 holes.
  • It is similar to the serial port connector. However, serial port connector has pins, VGA port has holes.
46

What all comprises of an excel workbook?

  1. ((a))

    Workbooks

  2. ((b))

    Worksheets

  3. ((c))

    Charts

  4. ((d))

    Worksheets and Charts

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Worksheets and Charts

An excel workbook contains all the information put in by the user in the sheets. This could be the text information in the worksheet or the information in the bar graphs, pie charts etc. the workbook comprises of the worksheet as well as the chart sheets.

47

What are two examples of freeware?

  1. ((a))

    WinZip and Linux

  2. ((b))

    Shareware and file sharing

  3. ((c))

    Microsoft Word and the Google toolbar

  4. ((d))

    Instant messaging and the Google toolbar

  5. ((e))

    Microsoft Power Point and Microsoft Excel

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Instant messaging and the Google toolbar

The correct answer is Instant messaging and the Google toolbar

Explanation:

  • Freeware software is available without any cost. Any user can download it from the internet and use it without paying any fee. However, freeware does not permit any kind of modification on the software or charging a fee for its distribution. Examples are:
  • Adobe Reader
  • Audacity
  • ImgBurn
  • Recuva
  • Skype
  • Team Viewer
  • Yahoo Messenger

  • As small software utilities, freeware is free to use throughout its lifetime because it does not expire after a certain period. Freeware may be used for a desktop, mobile, or Web-based utility.
  • Generally, freeware is a concise and limited version of a larger and paid software program. Vendors publish freeware to provide a limited but free version of software to prospective buyers prior to purchase. Additionally, large independent software vendors (ISV) publish freeware to enhance brand buzz and market reputation.
  • Below are a few reasons a program might be offered as freeware:
  • To offer a program developed by a non-profit or educational institution to the public
  • To promote a brand or drive traffic to a company's website
  • To generate revenue through advertisements or in-app purchases within the program
  • To generate revenue by offering other programs during the installation process
  • To provide a "lite" version of a program that may lead users to upgrade to the full-featured version
48

Which of the following mentioned options is used to add or put into your document such as a picture or table?

  1. ((a))

    TV

  2. ((b))

    Insert

  3. ((c))

    Push in

  4. ((d))

    Squeeze in

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Insert

Insert option provides the user to add or put into your document such as a picture or table in the Microsoft office.

49

When was the World Wide Web Consortium formed?

  1. ((a))

    1992

  2. ((b))

    1994

  3. ((c))

    1990

  4. ((d))

    1996

  5. ((e))

    1999

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1994

The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is the main international standards organization for the World Wide Web (abbreviated WWW or W3). Founded and currently led by Tim Berners-Lee, on October 1, 1994 the  consortium is made up of member organizations which maintain full-time staff for the purpose of working together in the development of standards for the World Wide Web. As of 2 June 2016, the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) has 423 members. The W3C also engages in education and outreach, develops software and serves as an open forum for discussion about the Web.

50

Which type of software is distributed free but requires the users to pay some amount for further use among the following mentioned options?

  1. ((a))

    freeware

  2. ((b))

    shareware

  3. ((c))

    rental ware

  4. ((d))

    public-domain software

  5. ((e))

    abandon ware

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

shareware

The correct answer is shareware

  • Shareware is a software that is freely distributed to users on a trial basis. It usually comes with a time limit and when the time limit expires, the user is asked to pay for the continued services. There are various types of shareware like Adware, Donationware, Nagware, Freemium, and Demoware (Crippleware And Trialware). Some examples of shareware are:
  • Adobe Acrobat
  • Getright
  • PHP Debugger
  • Winzip
  • Freeware software is available without any cost. Any user can download it from the internet and use it without paying any fee. However, freeware does not permit any kind of modification on the software or charging a fee for its distribution. Examples are:
  • Adobe Reader
  • Audacity
  • ImgBurn
  • Recuva
  • Skype
  • Team Viewer
  • Yahoo Messenger
51

A parallel port is most often used by a –

  1. ((a))

    Mouse

  2. ((b))

    Monitor

  3. ((c))

    Printer

  4. ((d))

    External storage device

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Printer

The parallel port is found on the back of IBM compatible computers and is a 25-pin (type DB-25) computer interface commonly used to connect printers to the computer.

52

The 2’s complement of the binary number 1101101 is

  1. ((a))

    0101110

  2. ((b))

    0111110

  3. ((c))

    0110010

  4. ((d))

    0010011

  5. ((e))

    0000110

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

0010011

Concept:

1’s complement representation of a binary number is obtained by toggling all the bits, i.e. replacing 1 with 0, and 0 with 1.

2’s complement representation of a binary number is obtained by adding 1 to the 1’s complement representation.

Application:

Given the binary number is 1101101

Taking the 1's complement of the above, we replace all the 1's with 0's and all the 0's with 1's to get:

1's complement of 1101101 = 0010010

Adding 1 to the 1's complement, we get the 2's complement as:

0010010 + 1 = 0010011

53

An educational institution would generally have the following in its domain name.

  1. ((a))

    .org

  2. ((b))

    .edu

  3. ((c))

    .inst

  4. ((d))

    .com

  5. ((e))

    .sch

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

.edu

The domain names are the last three letters suffixed after the dot symbol and represent the kind of website being accessed. The domain ".edu" is for educational institution.

54

Which software has the exclusive feature SHELL?

  1. ((a))

    DOS

  2. ((b))

    System software

  3. ((c))

    Application software

  4. ((d))

    UNIX

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

UNIX

The correct answer is UNIX.

  • UNIX has the exclusive feature SHELL.

Key Points

  • A Unix Shell is a command-line interpreter or shell that provides a command-line user interface for Unix-like operating systems.
  • The shell is both an interactive command language and a scripting language and is used by the operating system to control the execution of the system using shell scripts.
  • Users typically interact with a Unix shell using a terminal emulator;
  • However, direct operation via serial hardware connections or Secure Shell is common for server systems.
  • All Unix shells provide filename wildcarding, piping, here documents, command substitution, variables, and control structures for condition-testing and iteration.

Additional Information

  • A disk operating system (DOS) is a computer operating system that can use a disk storage device, such as a floppy disk, hard disk drive, or optical disc.
  • A disk operating system must provide a file system for organizing, reading, and writing files on the storage disk.
  • Application software:
  • This software is used by the user to perform a specific task
  • It is also known as the end-user program
  • Application software programs are developed to assist you with a particular process that may be related to creativity, productivity, or better communication.
  • It is non-essential software.
  • Application software runs as and when the user requests it.
  • Some of the examples of application software are, google chrome, internet explorer, VLC media, etc.
  • System software
  • It is a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer’s hardware and application programs.
  • If we think of the computer system as a layered model, the system software is the interface between the hardware and user applications.
  • The operating system (OS) is the best-known example of system software. The OS manages all the other programs on a computer.
55

Which of the following is not the part of numeric key ?

  1. ((a))

    Function Key

  2. ((b))

    Page up

  3. ((c))

    Page down

  4. ((d))

    enter

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Function Key

Concept:

  • A computer keyboard is one of the primary input devices used with a computer. Similar to an electric typewriter, a keyboard is composed of buttons that create letters, numbers, and symbols, and other functions.
  • It is a type of Input device.

Various types of keys on Keyboard

  • Alpha Numeric Keys
  • It includes keys from A to Z and numeric keys including space bar.
  • It also contains characters like @,#,$,<,? etc.
  • Numeric keys
  • It includes numeric from 1 to 0.
  • It also contains page up, down, enter, division and multiplication.
  • Function Keys
  • It includes keys like F1,F2,F3 etc.
  • All function keys have different functions.

Explanation:

So, the correct option is Function Key because it is not the part of numeric key as explained above.

Page up, page down, enter are present in numeric keys. 

56

Storage device that uses lasers and lights as its technology of reading and writing information is known as __________.

  1. ((a))

    Magnetic storage

  2. ((b))

    Optical storage

  3. ((c))

    Cloud storage

  4. ((d))

    Paper storage

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Optical storage

The correct answer is Optical Storage.

Optical Storage:

  • Such devices used lasers and lights to detect and store data. They are cheaper in comparison to USB drives and can store more data.
  • CD-ROM – This stands for Compact Disc – Read-Only Memory and is an external device that can store and read data in the form of audio or software data
  • Blu-Ray Disc – Introduced in 2006, Blu-ray disk was backup up by major IT and computer companies. It can store up to 25 GB of data in a single-layer disc and 50 GB of data in a dual-layer disc
  • DVD – Digital Versatile Disc is another type of optical storage device. It can be readable, recordable, and rewritable. Recordings can be done in such devices and then can be attached to the system
  • CD-R – It is a readable Compact Disc that uses photosensitive organic dye to record data and store it. They are a low-cost replacement for storing software and applications.

Additional Information

  • Magnetic Storage Devices:
  • Floppy Disk
  • Hard Drive
  • Zip Disk
  • Optical Storage Devices:
  • Such devices used lasers and lights to detect and store data. They are cheaper in comparison to USB drives and can store more data.
  • CD-ROM
  • Blu-Ray Disc
  • DVD
  • CD-R
57

Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers

  1. ((a))

    First Generation

  2. ((b))

    Second Generation

  3. ((c))

    Third Generation

  4. ((d))

    Fourth Generation

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Fourth Generation

Through 1970s, computers gained dramatically in speed, reliability and storage capacity but entry into the fourth generation was evolutionary rather than revolutionary. So, the fourth generation computers were built. The fourth generation computers emerged with development of the VLSI

58

Speed of processor chip is measured in _________.

  1. ((a))

    Mbps

  2. ((b))

    MHz

  3. ((c))

    Bits per second

  4. ((d))

    Bytes per second

  5. ((e))

    Dot per second

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

MHz

The correct answer is MHz.

Key Points

  • Speed of Processor
  • ​Processor speed is relative to the clock speed which is measured in units of cycles per second.
  • CPUs run at rates of millions and billions of Hertz, megahertz(MHz) and gigahertz(GHz).
  • A clock speed of 3.5 GHz to 4.0GHz is generally considered a good processor speed.

Additional Information

  • Processor(CPU)
  • A CPU is also called a central processor, main processor, or just processor, is the electronic circuitry that executing instructions comprising a computer program.
  • The CPU performs basic arithmetic, logic, controlling, and input/output operations specified by the instructions in the program.
  • The fundamental operation of most CPU's regardless of the physical form they take is to execute a sequence of stored instructions called a program.
  • Instructions cycle in Processor(CPU)
  • All CPU's follows the following steps in order to complete their operations:
  1. Fetch: The first step, involves retrieving instructions from the program memory.
  2. Decode: The instruction that the CPU fetches from the memory determines what the CPU will do, which is decoded by the instructor decoder.
  3. Execute: In this step, all the desired functions are performed as per the instructions decoded.
59

The Microsoft Windows shortcut key combination Alt + Print Screen:

  1. ((a))

    opens the drive selection when browsing

  2. ((b))

    switches between open applications

  3. ((c))

    switches between applications on the taskbar

  4. ((d))

    creates screenshots for the current program

  5. ((e))

    Both 1 and 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

creates screenshots for the current program

The correct answer is Option 4.

  • The shortcut key combination Alt+ Print Screen takes the screenshot of the current screen view. Alternatively, Ctrl+ print Screen can also be used for the purpose of taking a screenshot.
  • Windows+ E opens Explorer with drive selection option.
  • Windows +Tab and Alt +tab are used to switch between open applications.
  • Windows+ T is used to switch between applications on the taskbar.
60

Computers use the ____________ language to process data.

  1. ((a))

    processing

  2. ((b))

    kilobyte

  3. ((c))

    binary

  4. ((d))

    representational

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

binary

Computer uses Binary Code system to represent numbers, letters, commands, images and sounds.

61

What is the Maximum zoom percentage in MS-Word?

  1. ((a))

    300%

  2. ((b))

    500%

  3. ((c))

    700%

  4. ((d))

    400%

  5. ((e))

    200%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

500%

The correct answer is 500%.

  • Microsoft Word offers both Zoom-in & Zoom-out features to enhance the readability of the document.
  • While the Zoom-in feature is used to enlarge the size of text, the Zoom-out feature is used to reduces the size of the text.
  • The maximum Zoom-in percentage is 500% while the maximum Zoom-out percentage is 10%.
  • The Zoom feature is available under the View tab.
  • Zoom-in & Zoom-out can be done using (+) and (-) Buttons present at the bottom right side of the document.

62

Which of the following is NOT a malware?

  1. ((a))

    Worms

  2. ((b))

    Virus

  3. ((c))

    Cookies

  4. ((d))

    Trojans

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cookies

Option 3 is NOT Correct.

  • Malware is any software that was developed with the intent of damaging devices, stealing data, and generally causing a mess.
  • Malware is short for “malicious software”.
  • Among the options cookies is not a malware.
  • Cookies are the packet of data that a computer receives and then sends back without changing or altering it.
  • It will be stored on the user's computer by the web browser while browsing a website.
  • The term "cookie" was coined by web-browser programmer Lou Montulli.
  • Examples of malware are:
  • Computer viruses.
  • Worms.
  • Trojan horses.
  • Ransomware.
  • Spyware
  • Adware.
  • Scareware.
  • Examples of some important Computer viruses are:
  • Dork Avangor.
  • Jeruslem.
  • C-brain.
  • Bloody.
  • Pachcom.
  • Filip.
  • Date crime.
63

The collection of billions of interconnected webpages are transferred by using:

  1. ((a))

    HTTP

  2. ((b))

    FTP

  3. ((c))

    SMTP

  4. ((d))

    TCP

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HTTP

The correct answer is HTTP.

Key Points

  • HTTP
  • The Hypertext Transfer(HTTP) is an application layer protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems.
  • HTTP is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web, where hypertext documents include hyperlinks to other resources that the user can easily access, for example by a mouse click.
  • The development of HTTP was initiated by Tim Berners-Lee at CERN in 1989.
  • Webpage
  • A webpage is a hypertext document provided by a website and displayed to a user in a web browser.
  • A website typically consists of many web pages linked together in a coherent fashion.
  • Web browser 
  • A web browser is an application software for accessing the World Wide Web.
  • It shows a web page from a particular website and retrieves the necessary content from a web server, and then displays the page on the user's device.
  • Web browsers are used on a range of devices, including desktops, laptops, tablets, and smartphones.

Additional Information

  • FTP(File Transfer Protocol)
  • The File Transfer Protocol is a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client on a computer network.
  • FTP is built on a client-server model architecture using separate control and data connections between the client and the server.
  • Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
  • SMTP is a set of communication guidelines that allow the software to transmit electronic mail over the internet is called Simple Mail Transfer Protocol.
  • It is a program used for sending messages to other computer users based on e-mail addresses.
64

Font size is measured in points; a point is ______ of an inch.

  1. ((a))

    1/52

  2. ((b))

    1/72

  3. ((c))

    1/70

  4. ((d))

    1/32

  5. ((e))

    1/36

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1/72

The correct answer is 1/72.

Key Points

  • A font is often measured in pt (points).
  • Points dictate the height of the lettering.
  • There are approximately 72 points in one inch or 2.54 cm.
  • For example, the font size 72 would be about one inch tall, and 36 would be about a half of an inch.
  • The minimum size of the font is 8 and the maximum size of the font is 72.
  • Font size is important to make your text clearly visible on a sheet of paper and to maintain visibility after printing, without making the document look either very scattered or very messy.
  • The following diagram represents how to select font size in Microsoft word :

5 Simple Ways to Change Font Size in Your Word - Data Recovery Blog

65

Which of the following is a circuit board that allows communication to and between the CPU, RAM, and all other computer hardware components?

  1. ((a))

    Motherboard

  2. ((b))

    Application software

  3. ((c))

    System software

  4. ((d))

    CPU

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Motherboard

The correct answer is Motherboard.

Key Points

  • The motherboard allows communication to and between the CPU, RAM, and all other computer hardware components.
  • A motherboard (also called mainboard, main circuit board, system board, baseboard, planar board, logic board, or mobo) is the main printed circuit board (PCB) in general-purpose computers and other expandable systems.
  • It holds and allows communication between many crucial electronic components of a system, such as the central processing unit (CPU) and memory, and provides connectors for other peripherals.

Additional Information

  • Application software is a type of computer program that performs a specific personal, educational, and business function.
  • System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer's hardware and application programs.
  • A central processing unit (CPU), also called a central processor, main processor, or just processor is the electronic circuitry that executes instructions comprising a computer program.
66

When a mouse is pointed over a certain text in an HTML page, it turns into a palm shaped image. What is such text called?

  1. ((a))

    FTP Text

  2. ((b))

    Protocol text

  3. ((c))

    Mailing text

  4. ((d))

    Hypertext

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Hypertext

The correct answer is Hypertext.

Key Points

  • Hypertext is the text displayed on a computer display or other electronic devices with references to other text that the reader can immediately access.
  • Hypertext documents are interconnected by hyperlinks, which are typically activated by a mouse click, keypress set, or screen touch.
  • HyperMedia is a term used for hypertext that is not constrained to be text: it can include graphics, video, and sound.

Additional Information

Types of Protocols:

  • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • Internet Protocol (IP)
  • User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
  • Post office Protocol (POP)
  • Simple mail transport Protocol (SMTP).
67

Flash memory is made up of

  1. ((a))

    RDRAM

  2. ((b))

    MROM

  3. ((c))

    SRAM

  4. ((d))

    EEPROM

  5. ((e))

    PROM

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

EEPROM

The correct answer is EEPROM.

Key Points

  • Flash memory is a non-volatile computer storage chip,
  • It is made up of EEPROM.
  • EEPROM is the acronym of electrically erasable programmable read-only memory,
  • EEPROM is a Programmable ROM that can be erased and reprogrammed using an electrical charge.
  • It was first was developed by George Perlegos.
  • It allows the user to update the computer BIOS without having to open the computer or remove any chips.
  • It organized as arrays of floating-gate transistors.
  • USB flash drive, Memory cards are the examples of flash memory storage.
  • BIOS is stored in Flash memory chip.

Additional Information

  • RDRAM is the acronym of Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory.
  • It is a video RAM.
  • MROM is the acronym of Mask ROM.
  • It is produced by arranging transistors before the semiconductor manufacturing process actually begins.
  • SRAM is the acronym of Static random-access memory
  • It uses latching circuitry (flip-flop) to store each bit.
  • PROM is the acronym of Programmable Read-Only Memory.
  • It can be modified only once by a user.
68

Which of the following is fastest memory?

  1. ((a))

    Secondary Memory

  2. ((b))

    Auxiliary Memory

  3. ((c))

    Cache Memory

  4. ((d))

    Virtual Memory

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cache Memory

The Correct Answer is "Cache Memory".

Important Points

Cache Memory :

  • Cache Memory is a special very high-speed memory.
  • It is used to speed up and synchronizing with a high-speed CPU. Cache memory is costlier than main memory or disk memory but economical than CPU registers.
  • Cache memory is an extremely fast memory type that acts as a buffer between RAM and the CPU.
  • It holds frequently requested data and instructions so that they are immediately available to the CPU when needed.
  • Cache memory is used to reduce the average time to access data from the Main memory.

Additional Information

Secondary Memory​ :

  • It is non-volatile, i.e. it retains data when power is switched off.
  • It is large capacities to the tune of terabytes.
  • It is cheaper as compared to the primary memory.
  • Depending on whether the Secondary memory device is part of the CPU or not, there are two types of secondary memory – fixed and removable.

                                                        

Secondary Memory

 Auxiliary Memory :

  • Auxiliary memory is the non-volatile memory lowest-cost, highest-capacity, and slowest-access storage in a computer system.
  • It is where programs and data kept for long-term storage or when not in immediate use.
  • Such memories tend to occur in two types-sequential access (data must access in a linear sequence) and direct access (data may access in any sequence).
  • The most common sequential storage device is the hard disk drives, whereas direct-access devices include rotating drums, disks, CD-ROMs, and DVD-ROMs.
  • It used as permanent storage of data in mainframes and supercomputers.

Virtual Memo :

  • A computer can address more memory than the amount physically installed on the system.
  • This extra memory is actually called virtual memory and it is a section of a hard disk that's set up to emulate the computer's RAM.
  • The main visible advantage of this scheme is that programs can be larger than physical memory.
  • Virtual memory serves two purposes.
  • First, it allows us to extend the use of physical memory by using the disk.
  • Second, it allows us to have memory protection because each virtual address is translated to a physical address.
69

Language used in the second generation computers is called as -

  1. ((a))

    Basic

  2. ((b))

    Pascal

  3. ((c))

    Machine Language

  4. ((d))

    Algol

  5. ((e))

    Assembly Language

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Assembly Language

The correct answer is Assembly Language.

  • An assembly language is a type of low-level programming language that is intended to communicate directly with a computer’s hardware.
  • Unlike machine language, which consists of binary and hexadecimal characters, assembly languages are designed to be readable by humans.
  • Having an understanding of assembly language makes one aware of how programs interface with OS, processor, and BIOS; how data is represented in memory and other external devices, etc.
70

ASCII stands for ____________.

  1. ((a))

    American Stable Code for International Interchange

  2. ((b))

    American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange

  3. ((c))

    American Standard Code for Interchange Information

  4. ((d))

    American Standard Code for Information Interchange

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

American Standard Code for Information Interchange

The correct answer is the American Standard Code for Information Interchange.

Key Points

  • ASCII stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
  • It is a way to define a set of characters for encoding text documents on computers.
  • The ASCII codes represent computers and other communication devices that use text.
  • It was the most popular computer encoding on the World Wide Web until December 2007, after that it surpassed by UTF-8 which uses ASCII as a subset.
  • The first version of ASCII was formed in 1963.
  • In a short time, it became very popular and widely used in the computer world.
  • It was first commercially used as a seven-bit teleprinter code promoted by Bell data services.
  • It is originally based on the English alphabet.
  • It encodes 128 specified characters into a seven-bit binary integer. Initially, it was a 6-bit character set but later it has become a 7-bit character set.
71

Which is the first PowerPoint version released for windows OS ?

  1. ((a))

    PowerPoint 1.0

  2. ((b))

    PowerPoint 2.0

  3. ((c))

    PowerPoint 2.01

  4. ((d))

    PowerPoint 3.0

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

PowerPoint 2.0

The correct answer is option 2 i.e ​PowerPoint 2.0.

  • PowerPoint 2.0 is the first PowerPoint version released for Windows OS.
  • PowerPoint 1.0 and PowerPoint 1.01 developed for Macintosh users only.
  • PowerPoint 1.0 released in 1987.
  • PowerPoint Version 2.0, developed for both Macintosh and Microsoft’s Windows operating system
  • PowerPoint 2.0 for Windows was released in 1990.
  • PowerPoint 3.0 was released in 1992.
  • 2021 PowerPoint 2021 (version 16) (Office 2021) is the latest version of Power Point.
72

What does Ctrl + Shift + + = key effect do? 

  1. ((a))

    Superscript

  2. ((b))

    Subscript

  3. ((c))

    All Caps

  4. ((d))

    Shadow

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Superscript

The Correct Answer is SuperScript.

 

Key Points

  • The Ctrl + Shift + + =  will make the selected text appear as super script.
  • For Example, the word 'Hello' will appear as Hello.

 

Additional Information

  • For subscript, press Ctrl and the Equal sign (=) at the same time. (Do not press Shift.)
  • To use a keyboard shortcut to change between lowercase, UPPERCASE, and Capitalize Each Word, select the text and press SHIFT + F3 until the case you want is applied.
  • Shadow can be added in texts using the Word Art option in MS Word.
73

Which command is used to undo a step in MS word?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl+Z

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl+P

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl+O

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl+I

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl+U

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl+Z

Ctrl + Z is used to undo a step or undo typing in MS Word and it restores the status which was one step prior to that step.

74

In Windows 10, Which button is used to tile the open windows so that they overlap vertically on the screen?

  1. ((a))

    Cascade

  2. ((b))

    Move Split

  3. ((c))

    Arrange All

  4. ((d))

    Switch Windows

  5. ((e))

    New Window

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cascade

The correct answer is Cascade.

Key Points

  • Cascade
  • Use this button to tile the open windows so that they overlap vertically on the screen.

Additional Information

  • Window Group
  • New Window
  • Opens a new window containing a view of the current presentation.
  • To open a new PowerPoint window, click this button.
  • A new window will open with the same presentation.
  • The presentation will have a number after the name.
  • Arrange All
  • Tile all open windows side by side on the screen.
  • Move Split
  • This option is used to move the splitters that separate the different sections of the window

Switch Windows

  • Click this button to switch from one window to another window.
  • A list of the open windows will display when the button is clicked.
75

Which of the following IEEE standard used to define the specification for a wireless LAN?

  1. ((a))

    IEEE 802.21

  2. ((b))

    IEEE 802.1

  3. ((c))

    IEEE 802.12

  4. ((d))

    IEEE 802.11

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

IEEE 802.11

The correct answer is IEEE802.11

  • IEEE 802.11 is used to define the specification for a wireless LAN.
  • IEEE 802 is a collection of networking standards that cover the physical and data-link layer specifications for technologies such as Ethernet and wireless.
  • IEEE stands for Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers.

Additional Information

  • IEEE 802.21: is used to improve the user experience of mobile terminals by enabling handovers between heterogeneous technologies while optimizing session continuity.
  • IEEE 802.1: Working Group (IEEE 802.1) is an IEEE Standards Association (IEEE-SA) group established to ensure network management and monitoring capabilities in networks developed according to IEEE 802 standards.
  • IEEE 802.15:  specifies wireless personal area network (WPAN) standards.
76

Which Protocol allows to transfer files i.e Text files, multimedia, and documents etc. from one machine to other? 

  1. ((a))

    Telnet

  2. ((b))

    HTTP

  3. ((c))

    Gopher

  4. ((d))

    FTP

  5. ((e))

    SMTP

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

FTP

The Correct Answer is "FTP".

Important Points

  • FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.
  • FTP allows transferring of files i.e Text files, multimedia, and documents, etc. from one machine to another.
  • It is used to encourage the use of remote computers.
  • It transfers the data more reliably and efficiently.
  • For sending the actual file, FTP makes use of data connection. A data connection is initiated on port number 20.
  • FTP sends the control information out-of-band as it uses a separate control connection.
  • File Transfer Protocol(FTP) is an application layer protocol that moves files between local and remote file systems.

Additional Information

  • Telnet protocol defines a set of rules to connect one system with other remote systems.
  • HTTPS is truncated as HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure is a standard convention to make sure about the correspondence among two PCs one utilizing the program and the other getting information from the webserver.
  • Gopher defines a set of rules executed for looking, recovering, and just showing reports from isolated sites.
  • The SMTP protocol allows us to send e-mails.
77

MIDI is a system designed to transmit information between electronic musical instruments. What MIDI does stands for?

  1. ((a))

    Magnetic Ink Data Interface

  2. ((b))

    Mask Ink Digital Interface 

  3. ((c))

    Musical Instrument Digital Interface

  4. ((d))

    Medium Ink data Interface

  5. ((e))

    None of These

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Musical Instrument Digital Interface

The correct answer is the Musical Instrument Digital Interface.

Key Points

  • MIDI is the short form of Musical Instrument Digital Interface.
  • It is a way to connect devices that make and control sound.
  • It works as synthesizers, samplers in computers.
  • MIDI was meant to allow someone to control multiple synthesizers from a single keyboard.
  • It is based on the idea of message-passing between devices.
  • MIDI controllers usually do not create or produce musical sounds by themselves.
  • The most commonly used MIDI controller is the electronic musical keyboard MIDI controller.

 

USB, MIDI, an audio cable connections among computer, synthesizer, and mixer

78

Every IPV4 address is broken down into _________ octets.

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Eight

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

The correct answer is Four.

Key Points

  • Each network that runs TCP/IP must have a unique network number.
  • Every machine on the network must have a unique IP address.
  • The IPv4 address is a 32-bit number that uniquely identifies a network interface on a machine.
  • An IPv4 address is typically written in decimal digits, formatted as four octets that are separated by periods.
  • Each 8-bit field represents a byte of the IPv4 address.
  • This form of representing the bytes of an IPv4 address is often referred to as the dotted-decimal format.
  • The bytes of the IPv4 address are further classified into two parts: the network part and the host part.
  • The following figure shows the component parts of a typical IPv4 address.
  • 129.144.50.56.

Diagram shows that 129.144 is the network part and 50.56 is the host part of an IPv4 address.

Important Points

Components of IP address

  • Network Part
  • The network part specifies the unique number that is assigned to the network.
  • The networks part also identifies the class of network that is assigned.
  • Host Part
  • This is the part of the IPv4 address that is assigned to each host.
  • The host part uniquely identifies the machine on our network.
  • For each host on our network, the network part of the address is the same, but the host part must be different.
79

How many paragraph alignment is there in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

  • Data in a cell can be positioned in two ways and three sub alignments in it.
  • One is horizontally and Vertically within the cell.
  • There are three horizontal alignments available – against the left border, against the right border, and in the center.
  • There are also three vertical alignments available – against the top border, against the bottom border, and in the middle.
  • The vertical and horizontal alignments are not mutually exclusive.
  • These alignments can be mixed together.
  • For example, you can have text that appears aligned to the right and aligned to the top border together.

Important Points

How to add top Alignment in Ms excel:

StepsMethodImages
1Open the Excel file, select the cells that you wish to align.
2.Right-click and then select "Format Cells" from the popup menu.
3.When the Format Cells window appears, select the Alignment tab. Then select "Top" in the drop-down box called Vertical.
4.The cells that you've selected should be aligned to the top, as shown in the image.
80

How many types of ‘Section Break’ are there in MS Word 2010?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

The Correct Answer is 4.

Word offers four types of section breaks:

  • Next Page starts the new section on the next page.
  • Continuous starts the new section on the same page, at the current position.
  • Even Page starts the new section on the next even-numbered page.
  • Odd Page starts the new section on the next odd-numbered page.

 

Additional Information

  • A section break allows controlling formatting as needs change.
  • The sections can be understood as sub-documents or mini-documents.
  • They are independent of one another.

Example 

  • If two section breaks are applied on page two and another on page two then,
  • The section break on page two controls the formatting on page one.
  • The section break at the top of page five controls the formatting for pages two, three, and four.

General Awareness (40 questions)

81

Global Liveability Index is released by the Economist Intelligence Unit. Which of the following city has topped the index?

  1. ((a))

    Osaka (Japan)

  2. ((b))

    Adelaide (Australia).

  3. ((c))

    Auckland (New Zealand), 

  4. ((d))

    London (Britain)

  5. ((e))

    Shanghai (China)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Auckland (New Zealand), 

The correct answer is Auckland (New Zealand).

Key Points

  • The Economist Intelligence Unit released the Global Liveability Index of 140 cities around the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Auckland (New Zealand) has topped the index. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The index takes into account more than 30 qualitative and quantitative factors spanning five broad categories:
  • Stability (25%)
  • Healthcare (20%)
  • Culture and environment (25%)
  • Education (10%)
  • Infrastructure (20%)
  • Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The EIU added new indicators such as stress on healthcare resources as well as restrictions around local sporting events, theatres, music concerts, restaurants, and schools.
  • Please note that Vienna was at place 1 in 2018 and 2019 but now stands at place 12.
  • Damascus remains the world's least liveable city.
  • Top 3 Liveable Cities: Auckland (New Zealand), Osaka (Japan), Adelaide (Australia).
  • Bottom 3 Liveable Cities: Damascus (Syria), Lagos (Nigeria), Port Moresby (Papua New Guinea).
82

The Reserve Bank of India has notified the enhancement of collateral-free loans to self-help groups from Rs 10 lakh to _______ under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).

  1. ((a))

    Rs 15 lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs 20 lakh

  3. ((c))

    Rs 35 lakh

  4. ((d))

    Rs 12 lakh

  5. ((e))

    Rs 25 lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs 20 lakh

The correct answer is Rs 20 lakh

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India has notified the enhancement of collateral-free loans to self-help groups (SHGs) from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 20 lakh under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).
  • The entire loan (irrespective of the loan outstanding, even if it subsequently goes below Rs 10 lakh) would be eligible for coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU).

Additional Information

  • DAY-NRLM adopts a demand-driven approach.
  • It enables the states to formulate their own state-specific poverty reduction action plans.
  • For loans to SHGs above Rs 10 lakh and up to Rs 20 lakh, no collateral should be charged and no lien should be marked against the savings bank account of SHGs.

Important Points About DAY-NRLM:

  • The DAY-NRLM is the flagship program of the Government of India.
  • It promotes poverty reduction through building strong institutions for the poor, particularly women.
  • It enables institutions to access a range of financial services and livelihoods.
  • The scheme was launched in June 2011.
83

The National Asset Reconstruction Co. Ltd (NARCL), or the so-called bad bank, has been registered in which city with a paid-up capital of ₹74.6 crores?

  1. ((a))

    Bangalore

  2. ((b))

    Kolkata

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

  5. ((e))

    Hyderabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mumbai

The correct answer is Mumbai.

  • The National Asset Reconstruction Co. Ltd (NARCL), or the so-called bad bank, has been registered in Mumbai with a paid-up capital of ₹74.6 crores.
  • The bad bank will be headed by Padmakumar Madhavan Nair, a stressed assets expert from the State Bank of India (SBI), as the MD.
  • The other directors are Sunil Mehta, Salee Sukumaran Nair, and Ajit Krishnan Nair.
  • The bad bank will provide much-needed relief to Indian lenders struggling to bring down their massive bad loan pile that has eroded profit and constrained their ability to lend.
84

 Which of the following has launched publishing tool 'Bulletin' for independent writers?

  1. ((a))

    Instagram

  2. ((b))

    Facebook

  3. ((c))

    Amazon

  4. ((d))

    LIC

  5. ((e))

    Paytm

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Facebook

  • With an aim to promote independent writers**, Facebook has announced a set of publishing and subscription tools -- Bulletin -- to support these creators in the US.**
  • Bulletin will include support focused on content creation, monetisation and audience growth.
  • Each Bulletin creator will have a standalone website under their brand and will be able to customise their publication's name, logo and colour palette.
  • Creators can also customise their articles with multi-media embeds and other styling options.
  • Bulletin content will be eligible for distribution in Facebook News and other discovery surfaces to help audiences easily find it and subscribe.
85

The birth anniversary of whom is observed as National Statistics Day on 29 June every year?

  1. ((a))

    Samarendra Nath Roy

  2. ((b))

    Srinivasa Ramanujan

  3. ((c))

    Prafulla Chandra Ray

  4. ((d))

    P. C. Mahalanobis

  5. ((e))

    Jagadish Chandra Bose

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

P. C. Mahalanobis

The correct answer is PC Mahalanobis.

  • The birth anniversary of PC Mahalanobis is observed as National Statistics Day on 29 June every year.
  • Often referred to as the 'father of Indian statistics', PC Mahalanobis, was a key member of the first Planning Commission of independent India.
  • End Hunger, Achieve Food Security and Improved Nutrition and Promote Sustainable Agriculture is the theme for 2021.
86

When is the Charted Accountants Day or CA Day is celebrated every year?

  1. ((a))

    28 June

  2. ((b))

    29 June

  3. ((c))

    30 June

  4. ((d))

    1 July

  5. ((e))

    2 July

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1 July

  • Charted Accountants Day or CA Day is celebrated on July 1 every year.
  • The day commemorates the finding of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) by the parliament of India in 1949.
  • ICAI is India's national professional accounting body and also the second biggest accounting organization in the world.
87

Which of the following statement is incorrect about "Hybrid Annuity Model" (HAM)?

  1. ((a))

    It is a type of PPP model, used for the development of dam projects in the country.

  2. ((b))

    In this model the project cost is shared by the private player and the government in the ratio of 60:40, respectively.

  3. ((c))

    In this model, various issues like land acquisition, clearances, etc are taken care of by the government.

  4. ((d))

    HAM model is an improved version of previous models. 

  5. ((e))

    All of the above statements are incorrect. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is a type of PPP model, used for the development of dam projects in the country.

The correct answer is It is a type of PPP model, used for the development of dam projects in the country.

Key Points

  • Over the years, various government documents and committees including the Kelkar committee highlighted issues with various models of Public-Private Partnership (PPP) in road construction.
  • Considering this, in 2016, the government announced a revamped PPP model in Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) for road projects in the country.(Hence Statement 1 is incorrect)
  • HAM: Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) is a blend of two earlier models known has as (Engineering-Procurement- Construction) EPC and (Build Operate & Transfer) BOT-ANNUITY models.
  • In the HAM model, the project cost is shared by the private player and the government in the ratio of 60:40, respectively. The private companies are only responsible for the construction work, after the work they are supposed to hand over the roads to the authorities. All the other things, like maintenance and toll collection, is then done by the government.
  • The private player is only given a fixed amount for road construction. This amount is known as an "annuity". The tenure of the project is flexible but is generally up to 15 years. During the bidding, the private player quoting the lowest annuity is given the contract.
  • In this model, various other issues like land acquisition, clearances, etc are taken care of by the government. So overall, this is the best PPP model for road construction.
88

In the case of a One Person Company, ________ shall be deemed to be its first director until the director(s) are duly appointed by the member in accordance with the provisions of Section 152.

  1. ((a))

    Nominee 

  2. ((b))

    Member 

  3. ((c))

    Official liquidator 

  4. ((d))

    Court official 

  5. ((e))

    Registrar 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Member 

The correct answer is member. 

Key Points

  • The first directors of most of the companies are named in their articles.
  • Regulation 60 of Table F provides that the number of the directors and the names of the first directors shall be determined in writing by the subscribers of the memorandum or a majority of them.
  • If they are not so named in the articles of a company, then subscribers to the memorandum who are individuals shall be deemed to be the first directors of the company until the directors are duly appointed.
  • In the case of a One Person Company, an individual being a member shall be deemed to be its first director until the director(s) are duly appointed by the member in accordance with the provisions of Section 152.
89

Global Cyber Security Index (GCI) 2020 is released by which of the following organizations?

  1. ((a))

    World Bank

  2. ((b))

    United Nations Development Programme 

  3. ((c))

    International Telecommunication Union

  4. ((d))

    World Economic Forum

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

International Telecommunication Union

The correct answer is International Telecommunication Union.

  • In News:
  • United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies International Telecommunication Union (ITU) has released the Global Cyber Security Index (GCI) 2020.

Key Points

  • About the index:
  • The index is a trusted reference that measures the commitment of countries to cybersecurity at a global level.
  • Countries are measured along five pillars, namely, legal measures, technical measures, organizational measures, capacity development, and cooperation to generate an overall score.
  • The countries were asked 82 questions where 20 indicators were measured.
  • Performance of India and its neighbours:
  • India is placed in the 10th spot.
  • In 2018, it was ranked on the 47th spot. It was ranked rank 47 in 2019.
  • In the Asia-Pacific region, India secured the 4th spot.
  • Neighbours China and Pakistan were ranked at 33 and 79, respectively.
  • Top 5 Countries:
  • The US.
  • The UK and Saudi Arabia.
  • Estonia.
  • South Korea, Singapore, and Spain.
  • Russia, United Arab Emirates, and Malaysia.
  • General challenges ahead for the countries worldwide:
  • Digital gaps amongst nations create an unsustainable environment in the cyber domain.
  • Growing digital reliance in the post-COVID era has exposed digital disparities which must be bridged through capacity building.
  • There’s a sophisticated use of cyberspace by terrorists to broaden their propaganda and incite hatred.
90

What is the minimum raw gold required as deposit in Gold Monetization Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    50 grams

  2. ((b))

    30 grams

  3. ((c))

    10 grams

  4. ((d))

    40 grrams

  5. ((e))

    No limit

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10 grams

The correct answer is 10 grams.

The minimum deposit of raw gold required in Gold Monetization scheme is 10 grams.

  • Gold Monetisation Scheme was launched with the aim of turning this unused gold lying idle in India’s households into a productive asset
  • It was launched by the Government of India on 5th November 2015.
  • This scheme was also intended to help reduce India's dependence on gold imports
  • This scheme replaced the Gold Deposit Scheme, 1999.
91

Mana Patel is associated with ________.

  1. ((a))

     Lawn Tennis

  2. ((b))

    Table Tennis

  3. ((c))

    Swimming

  4. ((d))

    Running

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swimming

The correct answer is Swimming.

Key Points

  • Maana Patel
  • She is an Indian backstroke swimmer from Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
  • She has won gold medals in 50 backstrokes and 200-metre backstroke also at the National Games.
  • She has also won the gold medal in 100-metre backstroke at the 60th National School Games (2015) breaking the national record in the backstroke.
  • She won six medals (1 gold, 4 silver, 1 bronze) at the 10th Asian Age-group Championships-2019 which was held in Bangalore.
  • She was coached by Kamlesh Nanavati at the Gujarat Vidyapeeth Swimming Centre.
92

The National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a fixed income investment scheme that you can open with any post office branch. NSCs certificates can be earned at a fixed interest, which is currently at a rate of____ per annum. 

  1. ((a))

     6.8%

  2. ((b))

     6.5%

  3. ((c))

     6.0%

  4. ((d))

     7.0%

  5. ((e))

     7.8%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

 7.0%

  • The National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a fixed income investment scheme that you can open with any post office branch. The scheme is a Government of India initiative. It is a savings bond that encourages subscribers – mainly small to mid-income investors – to invest while saving on income tax.
  • A fixed-income instrument like Public Provident Fund and Post Office FDs, this scheme too is a low-risk fixed-income product. You can buy it from the nearest post office in your name, for a minor or with another adult as a joint account. NSC comes with a fixed maturity period of five years. There is no maximum limit on the purchase of NSCs, but only investments of up to Rs.1.5 lakh can earn you a tax break under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act. The certificates earn a fixed interest, which is currently at a rate of 7.0% per annum. The interest rate is revised on a regular basis by the government.
  • NSC offers guaranteed interest and complete capital protection. However, like most fixed income schemes, they cannot deliver inflation-beating returns like tax-saving mutual funds and the National Pension System. The government has made NSC easily accessible for prospective investors by making it available in post office branches spread across the country.
  • The government has promoted the National Savings Certificate as a savings scheme for individuals. Hence, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) and trusts cannot invest in it. Furthermore, even non-resident Indians (NRI) cannot purchase NSC certificates. The scheme is open only for individual Indian resident citizens
93

Who has become the youngest-ever chess Grandmaster in the world?

  1. ((a))

    Raunak Sadhwani

  2. ((b))

    Nihal Sarin

  3. ((c))

    Abhimanyu Mishra

  4. ((d))

    Gukesh D

  5. ((e))

    Arjun Erigaisi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Abhimanyu Mishra

The correct answer is Abhimanyu Mishra.

  • Indian-American Abhimanyu Mishra has become the youngest-ever chess Grandmaster in the world.
  • At 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, he has broken the long-standing record held by Sergey Karjakin, who was 12 years and 7 months old when he attained the title in 2002.
  • He scored his third GM norm in Budapest, having already crossed the required 2500 ELO rating barrier.
94

What is the rank of the Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman among the world's 100 most powerful women in the 17th annual Forbes Power List released in December 2020?

  1. ((a))

    20th

  2. ((b))

    35th

  3. ((c))

    41st

  4. ((d))

    55th

  5. ((e))

    60th

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

41st

The correct answer is 41st:

 

  • Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has grabbed the 41st spot in the 2020 list of Forbes 100 most powerful women in the world.
  • In 2019, she was ranked at 34.
  • The list has been topped by German Chancellor Angela Merkel for the 10th year in a row.
  • US Vice President-elect Kamala Harris, Biocon Founder Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw and HCL Enterprise CEO Roshni Nadar Malhotra have also been named in the list.
  • The women on the 17th annual Forbes Power List hail from 30 countries and were born across four generations.
  • Nadar Malhotra has been ranked at 55th spot, Mazumdar-Shaw -- described as “India's richest self-made woman” -- is ranked 68th and chairwoman of Landmark Group Renuka Jagtiani is ranked 98th.
  • European Central Bank chief Christine Lagarde is ranked second for the second straight year.
  • Kamala Harris, who became the first woman, first Black American and first Asian American to be elected vice president is ranked third on the list.
95

Milkha Singh, known as the Flying Sikh, finished in 4th place in the 1960 ________ Olympics.

  1. ((a))

     Rome

  2. ((b))

    Beijing

  3. ((c))

    Tokyo

  4. ((d))

    Rio

  5. ((e))

    London

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Rome

  • Milkha Singh is known as Flying Sikh.
  • He was a former Indian track and field sprinter.
  • He won Gold Medal in 1958 and 1962 Asian Games.
  • He finished at 4th place in the 1960 Rome Olympic.
  • He was awarded Padma Shree for his contribution to the sport.
96

Choose the correct option regarding FAME Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    To promote manufacturing of electric and hybrid vehicle technology.

  2. ((b))

    FAME stands for Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric vehicle 

  3. ((c))

    FAME India is a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.

  4. ((d))

    The Fame scheme was announced in 2019 with an outlay of ₹10,000 crores.

  5. ((e))

    All of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All of the above 

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News:

  • ​Department of Heavy Industry (DHI) has recently modified the FAME II scheme.
  • The union government has announced a decision to extend the second phase of the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric vehicle (FAME) scheme by two years to March 31, 2024.
  • The FAME II scheme, started in 2019 for promoting sales of electric vehicles, was supposed to end by 2022.
  • The Fame scheme was announced in 2019 with an outlay of ₹10,000 crores.
<br>

Key Points

  • Changes:
  • Introduction of a demand incentive of Rs. 15,000 per kWh for electric two-wheelers with a maximum cap at 40% of the vehicles’ cost.
  • Launch of aggregate demand for 300,000 electric three-wheelers by Energy Efficiency Services Limited.
  • FAME scheme:
  • FAME India is a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
  • The main thrust of FAME is to encourage electric vehicles by providing subsidies.
  • The FAME India Scheme is aimed at incentivising all vehicle segments.
  • Two phases of the scheme:
  • Phase I: started in 2015 and was completed on 31st March 2019
  • Phase II: started from April 2019, will be completed by 31st March 2022
  • The scheme covers Hybrid & Electric technologies like Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug-in Hybrid & Battery Electric Vehicles.
  • Monitoring Authority: Department of Heavy Industries, the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.
  • Fame India Scheme has four focus Areas:
  • Technology development
  • Demand Creation
  • Pilot Projects
  • Charging Infrastructure
  • Objectives of FAME Scheme:
  • Encourage faster adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles by way of offering upfront Incentive on the purchase of Electric vehicles.
  • Establish a necessary charging Infrastructure for electric vehicles.
  • To address the issue of environmental pollution and fuel security.
97

The then Punjab Chief Minister Amarinder Singh has announced the creation of a new district of Malerkotla, carving the state’s only Muslim-majority town from which district?

  1. ((a))

    Barnala

  2. ((b))

    Faridkot

  3. ((c))

    Kapurthala

  4. ((d))

    Sangrur

  5. ((e))

    Moga

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sangrur

The correct answer is Sangrur.

  • The then Punjab Chief Minister Amarinder Singh has announced the creation of a new district of Malerkotla, carving the state’s only Muslim-majority town from Sangrur district.
  • Adjoining Amargarh and Ahmedgarh will also form part of Punjab’s 23rd district.
  • The Chief Minister also announced a Rs. 500-crore medical college, a women’s college, a new bus stand, and a women police station in Malerkotla.
  • Punjab:
  • Chief Minister - Bhagwant Mann
  • Governor - Banwarilal Purohit
  • State Animal - Blackbuck.
  • State Bird - Northern goshawk.
  • Dam - Ranjit Sagar Dam (Ravi River).
  • Registered GI - Phulkari, Basmati.
98

The United Arab Emirates is celebrating its first mission at Mars named HOPE. UAE is the first Arab country and the _________ globally to reach the red planet. (Feb 2021)

  1. ((a))

    6th

  2. ((b))

    5th

  3. ((c))

    7th

  4. ((d))

    4th

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5th

The correct answer is 5th.

Important Points

  • UAE has put a probe called Hope in orbit around the planet, making it only the fifth spacefaring entity to do so after the US, the Soviet Union, Europe, and India.

Key Points

  • The spacecraft left Earth seven months ago, had to make a braking maneuver to be sure of being captured by Mars' gravity.
  • UAE scientists can now look forward to studying the planet's atmosphere.
  • Their satellite carries three instruments that will observe, among other targets, how neutral atoms of hydrogen and oxygen, remnants from Mars' once abundant water, leak into space.
  • In the process, Hope will return spectacular, high-resolution, full-disk images of the planet.
  • Hope had been approaching Mars at over 120,000km/h (relative to the Sun) and needed to execute a precise 27-minute burn on its braking engines to scrub some of that speed or risk skipping off into ever deeper space.
  • The past few days have witnessed tremendous enthusiasm for Hope and its mission, with public monuments, buildings, and heritage sites across the federation all lit up in red.
  • Hope is regarded as a triumph for a small gulf nation that dared to think seven years ago that it could inspire the next generation by launching the first Arab interplanetary space mission.
99

The Alchemist is a novel by 

  1. ((a))

    JK Rowling

  2. ((b))

    Jorge Amado

  3. ((c))

    Paulo Coelho

  4. ((d))

    Clarice Lispector

  5. ((e))

    Machado de Assis

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Paulo Coelho

The correct answer is Paulo Coelho.

  • The Alchemist is a novel by Brazilian author Paulo Coelho that was first published in 1988.
  • Originally written in Portuguese, it became a widely translated international bestseller.
  • The Alchemist follows a young Andalusian shepherd in his journey to the pyramids of Egypt, after having a recurring dream of finding a treasure there.
100

Which country is the largest export destination for India ?

  1. ((a))

    Pakistan

  2. ((b))

    United States

  3. ((c))

    Russia

  4. ((d))

    China

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

United States

The correct answer is United States.

  • United States is the largest export destination for India.

Key Points

  • The United States was the largest export destination for Indian exports in the fiscal year 2020, accounting for nearly 17 percent.
  • The United Arab Emirates followed at over nine percent of India's exports that same year.

Additional Information

  • Exports are goods and services that are produced in one country and sold to buyers in another.
  • Exports, along with imports, make up international trade.
  • The seller of such goods and services is an exporter; the foreign buyer is an importer.
  • The exportation of goods often requires the involvement of customs authorities.
  • Export barriers are divided into four large categories: motivational, informational, operational/resource-based, and knowledge.

 

  • President of United States - Joe Biden.
  • President of China - Xi Jinping.
  • President of Russia - Vladimir Putin.
  • President of  Pakistan - Arif Alvi.
101

The Union Cabinet has approved the allocation of additional foodgrains under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (Phase IV) up to which month?

  1. ((a))

    August

  2. ((b))

    September

  3. ((c))

    October 

  4. ((d))

    November

  5. ((e))

    December

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

November

The correct answer is November.

  • The Union Cabinet has approved the allocation of additional foodgrain under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (Phase IV) – for another period of 5 months i.e. July to November 2021.
  • 5 kg per person per month will be given free of cost to a maximum of 81.35 crore beneficiaries covered under National Food Security Act (NFSA) including those covered under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
  • As the Government of India is bearing the entire expenditure towards this Scheme without any contribution by States/UTs, an additional expenditure of about Rs.3,234.85 crore would be required to be met towards transportation and handling and FPS dealers' margins etc. by the Government of India.
102

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the Annual Report of the 'Ombudsman Scheme' for the year 2019-20 and found around 65 percent increase in the receipt of complaints to the ombudsmen. The report cover which of the following Ombudsman Categories?

  1. ((a))

    Banking Company

  2. ((b))

    Digital transactions. 

  3. ((c))

    Non-Banking Finance Company

  4. ((d))

    Both i and ii

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All of the above

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) today released the Annual Report of the “Ombudsman Schemes of the Reserve Bank for the year 2019-20”.
  • The Banking Ombudsman Scheme (BOS) was first notified by the Reserve Bank in 1995 under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
  • It is administered by the Reserve Bank through 22 Offices of Banking Ombudsman (OBOs) covering all states and union territories.
  • The Annual Report covers the activities under the
  • Banking Ombudsman Scheme (BOS)
  • Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies (OSNBFC)
  • Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions (OSDT)

Some of the important point under this are

  • The Banking Ombudsmen received major complaints regarding ATM & Debit Cards, Mobile & Electronic Banking.
  • NBFC’s Ombudsman received most complaints about non-observance of regulatory guidelines, lack of transparency in contract/ loan agreement, and levy of charges without notice.
  • Digital Transactions Ombudsmen received most complaints about fund transfer. RBI has taken various measures for creating awareness among various stakeholders to minimise the grievances.
  • As announced in the Monetary Policy Statement, the three Ombudsman Schemes are being merged and integrated into a single scheme which will be rolled out starting from June 2021.

Important Points

  • There was an increase of 64.97 percent in the receipt of complaints under the three Ombudsman Schemes, from 2,00,362 complaints in 2018-19 to 3,30,543 complaints in 2019-20. Of these, 86.19 percent were received electronically i.e. through the CMS online portal and email.
  • The disposal rate of more than 92 percent was achieved.
  • 72.27 percent of the maintainable complaints were resolved through mediation and conciliation.
103

What will be the new accounting year that RBI is going to propose in coming year?

  1. ((a))

    January to December

  2. ((b))

    April To March

  3. ((c))

    July to June

  4. ((d))

    March to February

  5. ((e))

    June to May

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

April To March

Option 2 is correct:

  • RBI may soon decide to sync its accounting year with government's fiscal year.
  • As of now, the RBI’s accounting year runs from July to June while the government follows the April-March fiscal year.
  • The Bimal Jalan panel set up to review the economic capital framework of the central bank had recommended both accounting years should be in sync beginning 2020-21.
  • The RBI has followed a July-June financial year since 1940 when it moved away from a January-December year.
  • RBI will start following April-March financial year after a nine-month year ending March 31, 2021.
  • RBI Founded on 1 April 1935, in Kolkata.
  • RBI 25th Governor- Shaktikant Das
  • Headquarters- Mumbai
  • Current Chief Economic Advisor is Krishnamurthy V Subramanian.
104

 What is the total number of Ramsar sites present in India?

  1. ((a))

    44

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    49

  5. ((e))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

49

The correct answer is 49.

  • India’s tally of 49 designated wetlands spread over 10,936 sq km in 18 states and two Union Territories is the largest network of Ramsar Sites in South Asia.
  • Of the 49 sites, 10 are in UP, 6 in Punjab, 4 each in Gujarat and Jammu and Kashmir, 3 each in Himachal Pradesh and Kerala, 2 each in Haryana, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Rajasthan and one each in Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Ladakh, Manipur, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttarakhand and Madhya Pradesh.

In News

  • As of July 2022:
  • Five new wetlands of International importance have been designated in India.
  • With this, the total number of Ramsar sites in the country has increased from 49 to 54 Ramsar sites.
  • Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Bhupender Yadav said, “Delighted to inform that 5 more Indian wetlands have got Ramsar recognition as wetlands of international importance.”
  • The five newly designated wetlands are:
  • Karikili Bird Sanctuary, Tamil Nadu
  • Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve Forest, Tamil Nadu
  • Pichavaram Mangrove, Tamil Nadu
  • Pala wetland, Mizoram
  • Sakhya Sagar, Madhya Pradesh.
  • India now has 75 Ramsar sites after the addition of 11 new sites in August 2022.

Additional Information

About Ramsar Convention:

  • The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty adopted on February 2, 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar.
  • It came into force for India on February 1, 1982.
  • Those wetlands which are of international importance are declared as Ramsar sites.
105

In May 2020, how much collateral-free automatic loans has been announced by the Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman for businesses, particularly MSMEs?

  1. ((a))

    1 lakh crore

  2. ((b))

    1.5 lakh crore

  3. ((c))

    2 lakh crore

  4. ((d))

    3 lakh crore

  5. ((e))

    5 lakh crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3 lakh crore

  • The Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced collateral-free loans worth ₹3 lakh crore for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
  • MSME units with ₹100 crore turnover or with an outstanding loan of ₹25 crore will stand to benefit.
  • Tenor of these loans will be four years, valid upto 31 October, 2020.
  • Collateral free loan to be provided to SMEs with 12 month moratorium.
  • The government will provide 100% credit guarantee cover to banks and NBFCs on principal and interest.
  • The move is expected to benefit 45 lakh MSME units.
  • FM also announced a ₹50,000 cr equity infusion through MSME Fund of Funds, which will provide support to the growth of potential MSMEs.
  • Definition of MSMEs has been revised, investment limit to be revised upwards, additional criteria of turnover also being introduced.

Existing and Revised Definition of MSMEs

Existing MSME Classification
Criteria : Investment in Plant & Machinery or Equipment
ClassificationMicroSmallMedium
Mgf. EnterprisesInvestment < Rs.25 lacInvestment < Rs. 5 cr.Investment < Rs. 10 cr.
Services EnterpriseInvestment< Rs.10 lacInvestment < Rs. 2 cr.Investment < Rs. 5 cr.
106

The RBI has allowed an increase in the interchange fee structure for ATM transactions after almost 9 years. It has hiked the interchange fee per transaction from Rs. 15 to how many rupees for financial transactions?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    19

  5. ((e))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

17

The correct answer is Rs. 17.

  • The RBI has allowed an increase in the interchange fee structure for ATM transactions after almost 9 years.
  • It has hiked the interchange fee per transaction from Rs 15 to Rs. 17 for financial transactions and from Rs. 5 to Rs 6 for non-financial transactions in all centres, effective August 1, 2021.
  • Currently, the card-issuing bank pays an interchange fee of Rs. 15 for each cash transaction.
107

What is the name of the indigenous geospatial portal launched Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and MapmyIndia in February 2021?

  1. ((a))

    MapIS

  2. ((b))

    Manchitra

  3. ((c))

    Bhuvan

  4. ((d))

    Bhoomi

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bhuvan

The correct answer is Bhuvan.

Key Points

  • Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and MapmyIndia have launched an indigenous geospatial portal Bhuvan.

Additional Information

  • Geospatial Portal Bhuvan
  • It will be used to find and access geographic information and associated geographic services via the Internet.
  • MapmyIndia’s database will be connected with ISRO’s high-end satellite catalog and earth observation data (gathered from satellites)
  • The portal will show true maps i.e. the maps as per the information available from the Government of India.
  • It will help protect privacy as they are indigenous apps and not foreign-built.
  • The maps will be ad-free, unlike others.
  • MapmyIndia
  • It is an Indian tech company that builds digital map data, telematics services, Global Information System, and Artificial Intelligence services.
  • It was founded in 1992 by Rakesh and Rashmi Verma
  • Headquarters- New Delhi
  • MD and ChairmanRakesh Verma
  • Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) 
  • It is the premier space agency of the government of India.
  • Its vision is to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration.
  • The space research activities were initiated in India under Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the founding father of the Indian space program, during the 1960s.
  • Chairman- K. Shivan
  • Headquarters- Bengaluru
108

Consider the following statements related to the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana.

1. The age limit for PMJJBY (Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana) is minimum of 18 years and maximum of 60 years. 2. The annual premium for PMJJBY (Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana) is Rs 550. The premium could vary depending on the prevailing tax rates, age and location. 3. This scheme is implemented under the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    3 only

  5. ((e))

    All of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3 only

The correct answer is 3 only.

Key Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
  • Ministry/Department:  Ministry of Finance
  • Provides: Life Insurance
  • Eligibility: Available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 and having a bank account. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • People who join the scheme before completing 50 years can, however, continue to have the risk of life cover up to the age of 55 years subject to payment of premium.
  • Premium:  Rs. 330 per annum.  It will be auto-debited in one installment. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Payment Mode: The payment of premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscriber's account.
  • Risk Coverage: Rs. 2 Lakh in case of death for any reason.
  • Terms of Risk Coverage: A person has to opt for the scheme every year. He can also prefer to give a long-term option of continuing, in which case his account will be auto-debited every year by the bank.
  • The scheme will be offered by Life Insurance Corporation and all other life insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie-up with banks for this purpose.
109

At which of the following places is the Nehru Memorial Museum and Library located?

  1. ((a))

    Kolkata

  2. ((b))

    Prayagraj

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    New Delhi

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

New Delhi

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

  • The Nehru Memorial Museum and Library (NMML) established in memory of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964.
  • It is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture.
  • It is located in the majestic Teen Murti House, the official residence of the first Prime Minister of India.
  • It has four major constituents, namely, a Memorial Museum, a library on modern India, a Centre for Contemporary Studies, and the Nehru Planetarium.
  • The current Director of NMML is Shri Raghvendra Singh.

Additional Information

  • Important Libraries
  • Kolkata - The National Library of India, established in 1836 and is the largest library in India.
  • Prayagraj - Allahabad Public Library.
  • Mumbai - Asiatic Library, David Sassoon Library, British Council Library etc.
110

Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is a restructured version of which of the following schemes? 

  1. ((a))

    Indira Gram Swarozgar Yojna (IGSY)

  2. ((b))

    Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (SGSY)

  3. ((c))

    Pradhan Mantri Gram Swarozgar Yojna (PM-GSY)

  4. ((d))

    Rajiv Gandhi Gramin Kalyan Yojna (RG-GKY)

  5. ((e))

    Rajiv Gandhi Garib Kalyan Yojna (RG-GKY)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (SGSY)

The correct answer is 2 i.e. Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna.

Explanation:

  • Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India the launched Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) in June 2011. The scheme is a restructured version of Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (SGSY).
  • The objective of the scheme is to create efficient and effective institutional platforms for the rural poor population. Also, to enable them to increase household income by various means like sustainable livelihood enhancements and also improve their access to financial services.
  • The target of the scheme is to cover 7 Crore rural poor households, across 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats in a period of 8-10 years.
111

Reserve Bank of India has unveiled the framework for setting up of pan-India Umbrella Entity for Retail Payments. What is the minimum required net worth of a company to be eligible to set up a pan-India Umbrella Entity for Retail Payments? (August 2020)

  1. ((a))

    200 crore rupees

  2. ((b))

    300 crore rupees

  3. ((c))

    400 crore rupees

  4. ((d))

    500 crore rupees

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

500 crore rupees

The correct answer is 500 crore rupees.

  • On 18th August 2020, the Reserve Bank of India has unveiled the framework for setting up of pan-India Umbrella Entity for Retail Payments.
  • As per the framework, the companies with a net worth of over 500 crore rupees will be eligible to set up an umbrella entity.
  • These entities will be permitted to set up, manage, and operate new payment systems in the retail space comprising ATMs, White Label PoS, Aadhaar-based payments, and remittance services.
  • It will manage clearing and settlement systems for participating banks and non-banks, and also monitor developments in the retail payment system and related issues, both in India and abroad.
  • The entity will reduce the monopoly of NPCI.

Eligibility, terms, and other requirements for setting up the entity:

  • The company must have a minimum paid-up capital of ₹500 crores and strive for interoperability with NPCI systems.
  • Applicants must also have at least three years of experience in the payments ecosystem.
  • The entity formed shall be a company incorporated in India under the Companies Act, 2013, and maybe a ‘for-profit’ or a Section 8 Company.
  • No single promoter or promoter group should have more than 40% investment in the capital of this entity.
  • Initially, the promoter should have a minimum of Rs 50 crore at the time of submitting the application.
  • The promoter/promoter group shareholding may be diluted to a minimum of 25% after 5 years of commencement of business of the umbrella entity, and a minimum net worth of Rs 300 crore be maintained at all times.

About NPCI:

  • NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) was incorporated as a not-for-profit company under the provisions of the Companies Act to provide infrastructure to the entire banking system in India.
  • The 10 core promoter banks are SBI, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank, and HSBC.
  • Headquarters: Mumbai
  • Founded: 2008
112

Public sector banks (PSBs) will provide unsecured personal loans to individuals from Rs 25,000 to how many rupees for salaried, non-salaried, and pensioners for meeting their expenses of Covid treatment?

  1. ((a))

    3 lakhs

  2. ((b))

    4 lakhs

  3. ((c))

    5 lakhs

  4. ((d))

    6 lakhs

  5. ((e))

    7 lakhs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 lakhs

The correct answer is 5 lakhs.

Key Points

  • Public sector banks (PSBs) will provide unsecured personal loans to individuals from Rs 25,000 to Rs 5 lakhs for salaried, non-salaried, and pensioners for meeting their expenses of Covid treatment.
  • The PSBs will be providing this loan under Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS).
  • The decision was jointly announced by the State Bank of India and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA).
113

How many kilometer the road are constructed under the Bharatmala Pariyojana Phase I?

  1. ((a))

    25 800km

  2. ((b))

    24 800km

  3. ((c))

    23 800km

  4. ((d))

    22 800km

  5. ((e))

    26 800km

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

24 800km

  • Bharatmala Pariyojana is a new umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective interventions like development of Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder Routes, National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, Border and International connectivity roads, Coastal and Port connectivity roads and Green-field expressways.
  • The announcement of the mammoth scheme was done by Shri Nitin Gadkari, in the presence of the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi. The implementation of a pan-nation scheme to improve the road network was the idea of the PM. All key aspects of the scheme will be managed by the Road Transport and Highways Ministry of the country.
  • Highlights of Bharatmala Pariyojana
  • Improvement in efficiency of existing corridors through development of Multimodal Logistics Parks and elimination of choke point
  • Enhance focus on improving connectivity in North East and leveraging synergies with Inland Waterways
  • Emphasis on use of technology & scientific planning for Project Preparation and Asset Monitoring
  • Delegation of powers to expedite project delivery - Phase I to complete by 2022
  • Improving connectivity in the North East

114

Number of Small Finance Bank in India__________.​(March  2022)

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

12

The correct answer is option 2.

  • They are as follow:
  1. Au Small Finance Bank Ltd.
  2. Capital Small Finance Bank Ltd
  3. Fincare Small Finance Bank Ltd.
  4. Equitas Small Finance Bank Ltd
  5. ESAF Small Finance Bank Ltd.
  6. Suryoday Small Finance Bank Ltd.
  7. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Ltd.
  8. Utkarsh Small Finance Bank Ltd.
  9. North East Small finance Bank Ltd
  10. Jana Small Finance Bank Ltd
  11. Shivalik Small Finance Bank Ltd
  12. Unity Small Finance Bank Ltd

Additional Information

  • The objectives of setting up of small finance banks will be to further financial inclusion by (a) provision of savings vehicles, and (ii) supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high technology-low cost operations.
  • The small finance bank shall be registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013.
  • It will be licensed under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
  • Resident individuals/professionals with 10 years of experience in banking and finance; and companies and societies owned and controlled by residents will be eligible to set up small finance banks.
  • The minimum paid-up equity capital for small finance banks shall be Rs. 300 crore.
  • The promoter's minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of such small finance bank shall at least be 40 per cent and gradually brought down to 26 per cent within 12 years from the date of commencement of business of the bank.
  • The foreign shareholding in the small finance bank would be as per the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy for private sector banks as amended from time to time.
  • As per the current FDI policy, the aggregate foreign investment in a private sector bank from all sources will be allowed upto a maximum of 74 per cent of the paid-up capital of the bank
115

Who will launch Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 (SBM-U) and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation 2.0 in October 2021 in New Delhi?

  1. ((a))

    Narendra Modi

  2. ((b))

    Amit Shah

  3. ((c))

    Mansukh Mandaviya

  4. ((d))

    Sarbanada Sonowal

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Narendra Modi

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

  • PM Narendra Modi will launch Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 (SBM-U) and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation 2.0 on 1st October 2021 in New Delhi.

Important Points

  • SBM-U 2.0 envisions to make all cities ‘garbage free’ and ensure grey and black water management in all cities.
  • The Mission will focus on source segregation of solid waste, utilizing the principles of 3Rs (reduce, reuse, recycle), scientific processing of all types of municipal solid waste and remediation of legacy dumpsites for effective solid waste management.
  • The outlay of SBM-U 2.0 is around ₹1.41 lakh crore.
  • AMRUT 2.0 aims to provide 100% coverage of water supply to all households in around 4,700 urban local bodies.
  • AMRUT 2.0 will adopt the principles of circular economy and promote conservation and rejuvenation of surface and groundwater bodies.
  • ‘Pey Jal Survekshan’ will be conducted to promote progressive competition among cities.
  • The outlay of AMRUT 2.0 is around ₹2.87 lakh crore.
116

e-RUPI is developed by which of the following organization?

  1. ((a))

    Reserve Bank of India 

  2. ((b))

    National Payments Corporation of India

  3. ((c))

    Council of Scientific & Industrial Research

  4. ((d))

    NITI Aayog

  5. ((e))

    Both i and ii

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

National Payments Corporation of India

The correct answer is National Payments Corporation of India.

  • In News:
  • ​Taking the first step towards having a digital currency in the country, PM Modi will launch an electronic voucher-based digital payment system “e-RUPI”.
  • The platform, which has been developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the National Health Authority, will be a person-specific and purpose-specific payments system

Key Points

  • e-RUPI:
  • e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless digital payments medium, which will be delivered to mobile phones of beneficiaries in form of an SMS string or a QR code.
  • This will essentially be like a prepaid gift voucher that will be redeemable at specific accepting centres without any credit or debit card, a mobile app or internet banking.
  • e-RUPI will connect the sponsors of the services with the beneficiaries and service providers in a digital manner without any physical interface.
  • significance of e-RUPI
  • The government is already working on developing a central bank digital currency and the launch of e-RUPI could potentially highlight the gaps in digital payments infrastructure that will be necessary for the success of the future digital currency.
  • In effect, e-RUPI is still backed by the existing Indian rupee as the underlying asset and the specificity of its purpose makes it different to a virtual currency and puts it closer to a voucher-based payment system.
  • Also, the ubiquitousness of e-RUPI in the future will depend on the end-use cases.
  • On the other hand, central bank digital currency or CBDC — digital currencies issued by a central bank that generally take on a digital form of the nation’s existing fiat currency
117

Integrated Child Development Services is applicable to which of the following children?

  1. ((a))

    Children under 5 years of age

  2. ((b))

    Children under 6 years of age

  3. ((c))

    Children under 10 years of age

  4. ((d))

    Children under 14 years of age

  5. ((e))

    Children under 18 years of age

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Children under 6 years of age

The correct answer is Children under 6 years of age.

Key Points

Integrated Child Development Services

  • ICDS is a government programme in India which provides food, preschool education, primary healthcare, immunization, health check-up, and referral services to children under 6 years of age and their mothers.
  • The scheme was launched in 1975, discontinued in 1978 by the government of Morarji Desai, and then relaunched by the Tenth Five Year Plan.
  • The tenth five-year plan also linked ICDS to Anganwadi centers established mainly in rural areas and staffed with frontline workers.
  • In addition to fighting malnutrition and ill health, the programme is also intended to combat gender inequality by providing girls the same resources as boys.
  • During the 2018–19 fiscal year, the Indian central government allocated ₹16,335 crores to the programme.
  • For nutritional purposes, ICDS provides 500 kilocalories(with 12–15 grams of protein) every day to every child from 6 months to 6 years of age.
  • For adolescent girls in the age group of 10 to 19, 6 kilograms of food grain is given every month.
  • The cost of ICDS programme averages Rs. 700-1500 per child a year
118

​The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and ________ have announced an alliance to launch the Digital Skill Champions Program in June 2021.

  1. ((a))

    Facebook

  2. ((b))

    LinkedIn

  3. ((c))

    Whatsapp

  4. ((d))

    Twitter

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Whatsapp

The correct answer is Whatsapp.

Key Points

  • The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and WhatsApp have announced an alliance to launch the Digital Skill Champions Program.
  • It aims to train India's youth on digital skills, to make them ready for employment.
  • Through this program, school and university students would be coached to imbibe digital and online skills.
  • The course is based on a module format of imparting knowledge about important aspects of the online ecosystem, equipping students with technology-based learning on campuses.
  • It will be implemented across tier 3 and 4 towns and cities throughout the country.
  • The partnership identifies two broad areas of collaboration - WhatsApp Digital Skills Academy and Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendra (PMKK) and
  • WhatsApp Business App Training sessions.
  • Young adults from tier 3 and 4 cities will be trained on critical aspects of digital safety and online privacy.
  • The initiative will kick off with a pilot across 50 campuses in five states, namely Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.
  • The program will be imparted through WhatsApp's project implementation partner- InfiSpark.

Additional Information

AppsCEO
FacebookMark Zuckerberg
LinkedInRyan Roslansky
WhatsappWill Cathcart
TwitterParag Agrawal
119

In September 2021, the NDB established by the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) countries in 2015 has approved which country as its new member?

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    Myanmar

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia

  4. ((d))

    Philippines

  5. ((e))

    Pakistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bangladesh

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

  • The New Development Bank (NDB) established by the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) countries in 2015 has approved Bangladesh as its new member.
  • The NDB Board of Governors initiated the negotiation to expand its membership in 2020.
  • It has now approved the United Arab Emirates, Uruguay, and Bangladesh as its first new member countries.

Important Points

  • Since the beginning of its operations, NDB has approved about 80 projects totaling a portfolio of USD 30 billion.
  • Projects in areas such as transport, water and sanitation, clean energy, digital infrastructure, social infrastructure and urban development are within the scope of the Bank.

Additional Information

  • ​BRICS is an acronym for the powerful grouping of the world’s leading emerging market economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
  • The BRICS mechanism aims to promote peace, security, development, and cooperation.
  • It also aims at contributing significantly to the development of humanity and establishing a more equitable and fair world.
  • Bangladesh: 
  • Capital - Dhaka.
  • Currency - Bangladeshi Taka.
120

In September 2021, Najib Mikati has become the Prime Minister of which country?

  1. ((a))

    Armenia

  2. ((b))

    Georgia

  3. ((c))

    Poland

  4. ((d))

    Lebanon

  5. ((e))

    Syria

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lebanon

The correct answer is Lebanon.

Key Points

  • A new government has been announced in Lebanon.
  • Najib Mikati - Lebanon's richest man - has become the Prime Minister, a position he has held twice before.
  • Lebanon had been without a proper functioning government since then-Prime Minister Hassan Diab resigned days after a massive blast on 4th of August 2021 destroyed Beirut port and the surrounding area.

Additional Information

  • Lebanon: 
  • Capital - Beirut.
  • Currency - Lebanese pound.

English Language (40 questions)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Is India turning into a desert? Are the frequent strangleholds of dust, heat and high humidity that North India witnessed this summer a precursor to what is in store for us in the future? 

Dust-laden winds from Western India and the Thar Desert blew across this region, making it difficult to breathe. Even the hill stations of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand were not spared, with a pall of dust hanging over Shimla and Mussoorie. The heat and dust will also have precipitated a surge in incidences of respiratory disorders.

What has this got to do with desertification? Everything. The Indian Institute of Meteorology has issued repeated warnings that the duration of dry spells in the country is set to increase. While the average annual rainfall will remain the same, it will come in short, heavy spurts as was witnessed in Uttarakhand in June 2013.

These drier spells and our inability to harness rainwater have already seen more than a quarter of the country become a desert. A study by the Indian Space Research Organisation, backed by satellite images, shows that over 32% of India’s land is affected by degradation, of which desertification is the major component. This is a frightening prospect because, in essence, fertile land is being converted into a desert.

The figures speak for themselves. India’s total geographical area extends to 329 million hectares (Mha), of which 120 Mha is degraded. C. P. Rajendran, a senior scientist, warns that “the upper soil is being removed for construction and road building purposes and this is affecting our soil adversely. Earlier, soil loss was a slow process which took millions of years. Now, we have managed to change that in just a few decades, but the natural time for the soil to regain what it loses is still as long. It is imperative that we need to stop this entire degradation process on a top priority basis”.

The principal concern is that river basins, both big and small, contain little water. “Take any river basin and you will find water levels are diminishing rapidly,” Rajendran explained. “The government has sanctioned the construction of several dams in Uttarakhand and the Himachal hills, which are destroying our rivers. With groundwater levels falling, we are not going to be able to regain what we have lost.”

The NITI Aayog recently released a report, and it only serves to reiterate what activists have been complaining about for years. The report states that “India is undergoing the worst water crisis in its history. Already, more than 600 million people are facing acute water shortages. Critical groundwater resources – which account for 40% of our water supply — are being depleted at unsustainable rates.” The report further warned that the crisis will worsen because, by 2030, the country’s demand for water will be twice the available supply, creating a severe water crisis for millions of people.

A UNESCO report should serve as another wake-up call. India is staring at a deepening water crisis with few steps being taken to ameliorate this bleak situation. It predicts an intensified water crisis across the nation by 2050, with many parts of central India battling a 40% withdrawal of renewable surface water resources. It claims more than half of our rivers are heavily polluted and our groundwater resources contain contamination from metals and improper disposal of human excreta.

The CPCB has issued repeated warnings that if the situation is not reversed immediately, the 'demand for freshwater for all users will be unmanageable'.

Another factor feeding the spectre of increasing aridity is rapid deforestation. For example, the forests of the Aravali hills protected the National Capital Region, including Delhi, against the dust from Rajasthan. But our political class and bureaucrats do not seem to realise the gravity of the situation. Despite the Aravalis having been designated a Natural Conservation Zone, environmentalists are crying wolf over the latest attempt to exclude a large swathe of forest land located east of the Surajkund-Badhkal road. Chetan Agarwal, an environmental analyst, recently wrote about how a vast track of 5,000 ha of Aravali land was not shown to be a forest by the authorities, obviously keeping in mind the surging demand for real estate development.

“We are facing an ecological crisis. Unless we come up with strategies to preserve our ecological resources which help provide water and livelihood security, we will see a worsening of the situation,” said Himanshu Thakkar, an environmental activist.

India does not have a specific legislative or policy framework to combat desertification. The concern for arresting and reversing land degradation and desertification is reflected in many policies and soil conservation programs, but few of them are realised.

Scientists believe the government should have been at the forefront of mobilising vulnerable communities to help them harvest rainwater and to regenerate ecosystems, thereby enhancing nature-based livelihoods. Climate change adaptation and mitigation should lead this effort. If immediate steps are not taken, we are definitely inviting an unprecedented calamity- and this time, it will be too late.

121

Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?

  1. ((a))

    There is little consensus among scientists about the correlation between dry and dusty spells in summers and desertification of Indian soil.

  2. ((b))

    Soil degradation can be stopped if the dams constructed on rivers are destroyed.

  3. ((c))

    Multiple reports indicate that a severe water shortage crisis stares India in the face if we don't take immediate measures to check soil degradation.

  4. ((d))

    While desertification is a severe crisis, recent technology can help us manufacture soil.

  5. ((e))

    We don't have enough policies and laws directed at soil conservation.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Multiple reports indicate that a severe water shortage crisis stares India in the face if we don't take immediate measures to check soil degradation.

The correct answer is Option 3, as the given passage quotes multiple reports and observations issued by organisations ranging from the NITI Aayog to the UNESCO, and also quotes the opinions of multiple environmentalists and scientists, and all of them agree that if desertification isn't checked in time, India will encounter a severe water crisis.

Option 1 is incorrect as there is little disagreement (and not little consensus) among scientists about the direct relationship between dry summer spells and desertification of soil.

Option 2 is incorrect as the passage suggests that the construction of dams has led to soil degradation, but that in no way means that the destruction of those dams will reverse the damage.

Option 4 is incorrect as the passage clearly talks about unchecked desertification as an irreversible crisis.

Option 5 is incorrect as the passage tells us that we have enough policies that reflect the concern for soil conservation, but only a few of them are implemented.

122

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the following word as given in the passage.

Precipitated

  1. ((a))

    Circumvented

  2. ((b))

    Curtailed

  3. ((c))

    Obstructed

  4. ((d))

    Expedited

  5. ((e))

    Stymied

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Expedited

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e., 'expedited'.

To 'precipitate' an event is 'to hasten its occurrence and cause it to happen earlier than usual'.

To 'expedite' an action or a process is 'to make it happen sooner'.

Thus, it is 'expedited' that best expresses the meaning of 'precipitated'.

All other options are incorrect as their meanings are either unrelated to or the opposite of what 'precipitated' means.

To 'circumvent' is to find a way around an obstacle.

To 'curtail' is to restrict and reduce in extent and quantity.

To 'obstruct' is to make something difficult.

To 'stymie' is to prevent the progress of something.

123

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase, as given in the passage.

Crying wolf over

  1. ((a))

    Protesting against

  2. ((b))

    Howling loudly

  3. ((c))

    Calling for help falsely

  4. ((d))

    Preparing a strategy for

  5. ((e))

    Gathering together

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Calling for help falsely

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e., 'calling for help falsely'.

To 'cry wolf over' something is 'to claim that something is happening when it really isn't, which results in subsequent valid claims being rejected.'​

Thus, the correct answer is Option 3 as it comes closest to the meaning of the given idiom.

124

According to the passage, which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. ((a))

    The heat and dust from western India that blew across north India will also have increased the incidences of respiratory disorders.

  2. ((b))

    Even the hill stations of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand such as Shimla and Mussoorie could not escape the dust-laden winds fromwestern India this summer.

  3. ((c))

    The UNESCO has predicted that while the average annual rainfall will remain the same, it will come in short, heavy spurts.

  4. ((d))

    India’s total geographical area extends to 329 million hectares of which 120 million hectares is degraded.

  5. ((e))

    Repeated warnings have been issued and they claim that the duration of dry spells in the country is set to increase.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The UNESCO has predicted that while the average annual rainfall will remain the same, it will come in short, heavy spurts.

The correct answer is Option 3.

The given statement is false as it is the Indian Institute of Meteorology and not the UNESCO that has made the prediction.

This is conveyed in the following line: 

The Indian Institute of Meteorology has issued repeated warnings that ... the average annual rainfall will remain the same, it will come in short, heavy spurts as was witnessed in Uttarakhand in June 2013.

All other statements are true and thus, all other options are incorrect.

125

According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. ((a))

    We don't have sufficient policies for curtailing land degradation.

  2. ((b))

    We have reached a time where the rate at which soil regains what it loses can't keep pace with the rate of its degradation.

  3. ((c))

    42% of India’s land is affected by degradation, of which desertification is the major component.

  4. ((d))

    Critical groundwater resources are being used at a sustainable rate.

  5. ((e))

    The frequent spells of dust, heat and high humidity that north India witnesses are not a precursor to future crises.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

We have reached a time where the rate at which soil regains what it loses can't keep pace with the rate of its degradation.

The correct answer is Option 2.

This is conveyed in the following line: 

C. P. Rajendran, a senior scientist, warns that “the upper soil is being removed for construction and road building purposes and this is affecting our soil adversely. Earlier, soil loss was a slow process which took millions of years. Now, we have managed to change that in just a few decades, but the natural time for the soil to regain what it loses is still as long. It is imperative that we need to stop this entire degradation process on a top priority basis.

All other options are incorrect.

126

Choose the option that is the opposite in meaning of the following word as given in the passage.

Fertile

  1. ((a))

    Arable

  2. ((b))

    Fecund

  3. ((c))

    Bountiful

  4. ((d))

    Yielding

  5. ((e))

    Parched

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Parched

The correct answer is Option 5, i.e., 'parched'.

'Fertile' is used to describe 'land that is productive and capable of producing vegetation and crops'.

'Parched' is used to describe 'land that is completely dry'.

Thus, 'parched' is the opposite of 'fertile'.

All other options- 'arable', 'fecund', 'bountiful', and 'yielding'- are incorrect as they are the synonyms of 'fertile'.

127

Choose the option that is the opposite in meaning of the following word as given in the passage.

Vulnerable

  1. ((a))

    Indigent

  2. ((b))

    Omniscient

  3. ((c))

    Resplendent

  4. ((d))

    Resilient

  5. ((e))

    Immaculate

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Resilient

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e., 'resilient'.

'Vulnerable' means 'weak, powerless, and in need of special care and protection'.

'Resilient' means 'strong and able to withstand difficult situations'.

Thus, out of the given options, it is 'resilient' that is the opposite in meaning of 'vulnerable'.

All other options are incorrect as they carry vastly different meanings.

'Indigent' means 'poor and needy'.

'Omniscient' means 'knowing everything'.

'Resplendent' means 'attractive, radiant, and colourful'.

'Immaculate' means 'perfectly clean and tidy'.

128

According to the passage, which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. ((a))

    The UNESCO report clearly states that half of our rivers are heavily polluted and our groundwater resources contain contamination.

  2. ((b))

    As the NITI Aayog report predicts, by 2030, the country’s demand for water will be thrice the available supply, creating a severe water crisis for millions of people.

  3. ((c))

    Already, more than 600 million people are facing acute water shortages.

  4. ((d))

    The CPCB has issued repeated warnings that if the degradation of soil and depletion of groundwater continue, the demand for freshwater will be unsustainable.

  5. ((e))

    The government has sanctioned the construction of several dams in Uttarakhand and the Himachal hills, which are destroying our rivers.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

As the NITI Aayog report predicts, by 2030, the country’s demand for water will be thrice the available supply, creating a severe water crisis for millions of people.

The correct answer is Option 2.

The given statement is false as the NITI Aayog report predicts that by 2030, the country's demand for water will be 'twice' (and not 'thrice') the available supply.

This is told by the following sentence: 

The NITI Aayog recently released a report ... The report further warned that the crisis will worsen because, by 2030, the country’s demand for water will be twice the available supply, creating a severe water crisis for millions of people.

All other statements are true, and thus, all other options are incorrect.

129

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the following word as given in the passage.

Ameliorate

  1. ((a))

    Alleviate

  2. ((b))

    Aggravate

  3. ((c))

    Exacerbate

  4. ((d))

    Deteriorate

  5. ((e))

    Allocate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alleviate

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e., 'alleviate'.

To 'ameliorate' something is 'to make it better'.

To 'alleviate' a crisis or a problem is 'to make it less severe'.

Thus, it is 'alleviate' that best expresses the meaning of 'ameliorate'.

Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. To 'aggravate' or 'exacerbate' means 'to make a problem worse', and to 'deteriorate' is 'to worsen'. Thus, they are all antonyms of 'ameliorate'.

Option 5 is incorrect as to 'allocate' is 'to distribute resources or duties', and hence it is an unrelated word.

130

According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. ((a))

    The frequent dry spells experienced by north India are a part of the natural process of desertification of fertile land.

  2. ((b))

    The average rainfall received by the country is bound to decrease over the next few years.

  3. ((c))

    While rivers are drying up, groundwater remains a reliable source of water.

  4. ((d))

    Over 32% of India’s land is affected by degradation and desertification is the major component.

  5. ((e))

    The hills remain untouched by the summer dust and dry spells.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Over 32% of India’s land is affected by degradation and desertification is the major component.

The correct answer is Option 4.

This is conveyed in the following line: 

A study by the Indian Space Research Organisation, backed by satellite images, shows that over 32% of India’s land is affected by degradation, of which desertification is the major component.

All other options are false.

131

In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as- I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/ s contains error and mark the appropriate option.

I) The column moved forward without knowing where and unable, from the masses around them, the smoke and the increasing fog, to see either the place they were leaving or that to which they were going.

II) Development proposals will be refused unless the facility will be relocated to other appropriate premises with equal accessibility.

III) The restaurant has a very bold contemporary design, and the food consists of the chef's creative, but not untraditional, takes on many common continental and coastal menu items.

  1. ((a))

    I and II

  2. ((b))

    II and III

  3. ((c))

    Only II

  4. ((d))

    Only III

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

II and III

The correct answer is Option 2) i.e. II and III

Part I) Sentence I is correct.

Explanation: 'either...or' is the correct pair of conjunction and also parallelism is followed here.

Part II) 'the facility is relocated' should be there in place of 'the facility will be relocated'

Explanation: 'Unless' is not followed by 'will'

Example: Unless the Government will not take action, corruption will not stop. (wrong)

                 Unless the Government takes action, corruption will not stop.(right)

Part III) 'yet not untraditional' should be there in place of 'but not untraditional'

Explanation: 'but' is used for contrast while 'yet' is also used for contrast but means 'despite something'

Correct Sentence II: '**Development proposals will be refused unless the facility is relocated to other appropriate premises with equal accessibility.'

Correct Sentence III: *'*The restaurant has a very bold contemporary design, and the food consists of the chef's creative, yet not untraditional, takes on many common continental and coastal menu items.'

132

In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as- I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/ s contains error and mark the appropriate option.

I) Patients with marasmus present with severe weight loss and wasting of both muscle as well as adipose tissue.

II) Trainees work in a different section every week, moving among the cold section, hot section, pasta, grill, pastry, bakery, butchery or fish.

III) In 2000, the government confirmed that AONBs had the same landscape quality and status as National Parks.

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    I and II

  3. ((c))

    II and III

  4. ((d))

    Only III

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

I and II

The correct answer is Option 2) i.e. I and II

Part I) 'and adipose tissue' should be there in place of 'as well as adipose tissue'

Explanation: 'both....and' is the correct pair of conjunction

Part II) 'and fish' should be there in place of 'or fish'

Explanation: 'between...and' is the correct pair of conjunction

Part III) Sentence III is correct.

Explanation: 'The same' is followed by 'that' if a verb comes after 'that'

                        'The same' is followed by 'as' if there is no verb after 'as'

Example: This is the same book that I wanted.

                  This is the same book as mine.

**Correct Sentence I: '**Patients with marasmus present with severe weight loss and wasting of both muscle and adipose tissue.'

**Correct Sentence II: '**Trainees work in a different section every week, moving among the cold section, hot section, pasta, grill, pastry, bakery, butcher and fish.'

133

In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as - I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence(s) contain(s) an error and mark the appropriate option.

I) As the horse ambled along, drawing the buggy, so the people of the glass city made way for them and formed a procession in their rear.

II) It is rather doubtful, as you have travelled hither in a great hurry, that you have ever seen an axeman at work.

III) When the liver becomes congested, then serum transaminase and bilirubin levels may become elevated, and jaundice may be present.

  1. ((a))

    I, II and III

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    Both II and III

  4. ((d))

    Only I

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I, II and III

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e. I, II and III

Key Points

  • Part I) 'so' should be removed before 'the people'.
  • If 'as' denotes the reason, it is not followed by 'so'.
  • Example: 
  • As I was ill, so I could not come. (wrong)
  • As I was ill, I could not come. (right)
  • Part II) 'whether you have' should be there in place of 'that you have'.
  • 'Doubtful....if/whether' is used in Affirmative Sentence while 'Doubtful......that' is used in Negative/ Interrogative sentences.
  • Example: 
  • I am doubtful that my parents will allow me to go to the party. (wrong)
  • I am doubtful whether/if my parents will allow me to go to the party. (right)
  • Part III) 'If/When' is not followed by 'then'.
  • Example:
  • When I come, then, I will meet you. (wrong)
  • When I come, I will meet you. (right)

**Correct Sentence I): '**As the horse ambled along, drawing the buggy, the people of the glass city made way for them and formed a procession in their rear.'

**Correct Sentence II): '**It is rather doubtful, as you have travelled hither in a great hurry, whether you have ever seen an axeman at work.'

**Correct Sentence III): '**When the liver becomes congested, serum transaminase and bilirubin levels may become elevated, and jaundice may be present.'

134

From the options given below, select the option which states the correct combination of incorrect/correct sentences.

A) It's high time the authorities consider giving rebates to people on long-term incapacity benefit.

B) If all players are even, then they stand up from the table and each draws from the deck, as if it was the beginning of the game.

C) What I miss is the certain knowledge that if only she would quit, the world would be a better place.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B are incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Only B is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Only A is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Only C is incorrect

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and B are incorrect

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e. Both A and B are incorrect

A) Sentence A is incorrect. 'the authorities considered' should be there in place of 'the authorities consider'

Explanation: It's (High) time + past subjunctive expresses that something should be done and that it is already a bit late

Example: It's high time I bought a new pair of jeans.

B) Sentence B is incorrect. 'as if it were' should be there in place of 'as if it was'

Explanation: The past subjunctive after as if/as though indicates an unreal situation in the present. However, if the situation is true, we use a real tense to express present time.

Example: He looks as if he knew the answer. (he gives the impression that he knows the answer, but he (probably) doesn't know or we don't know  whether he knows or not)

                 He looks as if he knows the answer. (he knows the answer)

C) Sentence C is correct.

Explanation: Wish/If only + would: This pattern is used for wishes about the future when there is a chance that something may happen or somebody (but not the person who wishes) may change their behaviour

Example: I wish it would stop snowing.

Correct Sentence A: '**It's high time the authorities considered giving rebates to people on long-term incapacity benefit.'

Correct Sentence B: *'*If all players are even, then they stand up from the table and each draws from the deck, as if it were the beginning of the game.'

135

Directions: Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase given below in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required as the answer.

NASA’s exploration of Mars has focused on finding traces and trails of water that may exist, and relate it to finding an evidence of ancient life.

  1. ((a))

    that may have existed, and relating them to find evidence of ancient life.

  2. ((b))

    that may have existed, and relate it to finding evidence of ancient life.

  3. ((c))

    ​that may exist, and relate it to finding evidence of ancient life.

  4. ((d))

    ​that may have existed, and related it to finding an evidence of ancient life.

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

that may have existed, and relating them to find evidence of ancient life.

The correct answer is 'that may have existed, and relate it to find evidence of ancient life.'

Key Points 

  • The given sentence is in the present perfect tense as it refers to an action or state that either occurred at an indefinite time in the past or began in the past and continued to the present time.
  • The present perfect tense is formed by have/has + the past participle.
  • Therefore, the ''have existed'' should be used in place of the base form of the verb 'exist'.
  • The use of the gerund or present participle form of the verb 'finding' in the ''to-infinitive'' is incorrect.
  • The infinitive is the base form of a verb. The to-infinitive = to + base form of the verb.
  • The base form of the verb 'find' should be used in place of the gerund or present participle form of the verb 'finding'.
  • Also, the noun 'evidence' in the underlined segment is an uncountable noun.​
  • We would say a piece of evidence, some evidence, no evidence, etc. But we would not say “an evidence” nor “2 evidences.
  • Uncountable nouns never take the indefinite article ''a or an''. Therefore, the indefinite article 'an' should be removed.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: NASA’s exploration of Mars has focused on finding traces and trails of water that may have existed, and relating them to find evidence of ancient life.

136

Directions: Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase given below in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required as the answer.

The humanitarian approach that has been expected to be the cornerstone of the approach to this conflict have not always been discernible.

  1. ((a))

    the cornerstone of the approach to this conflict has not been always discernible..

  2. ((b))

    the cornerstone of approach to these conflict has not always been discernible..

  3. ((c))

    the cornerstone of the approach to this conflicts have not always been discernible.

  4. ((d))

    the cornerstone of the approach to this conflict has not always been discernible.

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

the cornerstone of the approach to this conflict has not always been discernible.

The correct answer is 'the cornerstone of the approach to this conflict has not always been discernible.'

Key Points

  • In the underlined segment of the sentence, the plural form of the verb 'have' is incorrect.
  • The subject of the sentence is composed of the singular noun 'conflict'.
  • We know that a singular subject always takes a singular verb.
  • Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'has' should be used in place of the plural form of the verb 'have'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct sentence: The humanitarian approach that has been expected to be the cornerstone of the approach to this conflict has not always been discernible.

Additional Information

  • Subjects and verbs must agree with one another in number (singular or plural).
  • Thus, if a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular; if a subject is a plural, its verb must also be plural.
137

Directions: Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase given below in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required as the answer.

Many developed countries tend to view India’s reluctance to commit to a net-zero emissions target as recalcitrance, but the climate change crisis originated not here but in the industrialized world, which has used up much of the world’s carbon space.

  1. ((a))

    ​tends to view India’s reluctance to commit to a net-zero emissions target as recalcitrance

  2. ((b))

    ​​tends to view India’s reluctance to commit to a net-zero emissions target as recalcitrant

  3. ((c))

    tend to view Indias reluctance to commit to a net-zero emissions target as recalcitrance

  4. ((d))

    tend to view India reluctance to commit to a net-zero emissions target as recalcitrance

  5. ((e))

    No improvement 

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No improvement 

The correct answer is 'No improvement.'

Key Points

  • In the underlined segment of the sentence, no correction is required.
  • The use of the plural form of the verb 'tend' with the plural subject 'countries' is correct.
  • The use of the punctuation mark apostrophe (') with the possessive noun ''India's'' is correct.
  • The use of the base form of the verbs 'view' and 'commit' in the ''to-infinitive'' is correct.
  • The use of the noun 'recalcitrance' that means not easy to control is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct sentence: Many developed countries tend to view India’s reluctance to commit to a net-zero emissions target as recalcitrance, but the climate change crisis originated not here but in the industrialized world, which has used up much of the world’s carbon space.

138

Directions: Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase given below in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required as the answer.

The campaign to improve the excess of households to electricity and clean cooking fuel have been shown to be an important factor.

  1. ((a))

    the excess of households to electricity and clean cooking fuel has been shown

  2. ((b))

    the access of households to electricity and clean cooking fuel has been shown

  3. ((c))

    the access of households to electricity and clean cooking fuel have been shown

  4. ((d))

    the access of households to electricity and cleaned cooking fuel has been showed

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

the access of households to electricity and clean cooking fuel has been shown

The correct answer is 'the access of households to electricity and clean cooking fuel has been shown.'

Key Points

 

  • In the underlined segment, the use of the noun 'excess' with the context of the sentence is incorrect.
  • The noun 'excess' means more of something than is necessary or usual; too much of something.
  • The noun 'access' should be used as that means the right or opportunity to use or benefit from something.
  • Also, in the underlined segment of the sentence, the plural form of the verb 'have' is incorrect.
  • The subject of the sentence is composed of the singular noun 'cooking fuel'.
  • We know that a singular subject always takes a singular verb.
  • Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'has' should be used in place of the plural form of the verb 'have'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: The campaign to improve the access of households to electricity and clean cooking fuel has been shown to be an important factor.

139

Given below is a sentence that may or may not be grammatically viable, choose the most suitable alternative that reflects the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence does not require any correction, choose option 5. 'none of the above.' 

With so much people at their house, it was fortunate that the weather was warm and dry so they could utilize the courtyard for the children. The house was packed with people.

  1. ((a))

    With so a few people at their house, it was fortunate that the weather was warm and dry so they could utilize the courtyard for the children. The house was packed with people.

  2. ((b))

    With so much people at their house, it was fortunate that the weather was warm and dry so they could utilize the courtyard for the children. The house was packed with people

  3. ((c))

    With so lot people at their house, it was fortunate that the weather was warm and dry so they could utilize the courtyard for the children. The house was packed with people.

  4. ((d))

    With so many people at their house, it was fortunate that the weather was warm and dry so they could utilize the courtyard for the children. The house was packed with people.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

With so many people at their house, it was fortunate that the weather was warm and dry so they could utilize the courtyard for the children. The house was packed with people.

The correct answer is Option 4)i.e. With so many people at their house, it was fortunate that the weather was warm and dry so they could utilize the courtyard for the children. The house was packed with people.  

Key Points

  • The error lies in the part 'With so much people at their house'.❌
  • The most appropriate determiner for the given sentence is ‘many.' before 'people'.
  • We use ‘much’ with singular uncountable nouns and ‘many’ with plural nouns.
  • Example: You ask too much questions. ❌(Incorrect)
  • Example: You ask too many questions. ✔️(Correct)
  • Here, in the given sentence ‘people’ is plural. So we use the determiner 'many**.'**
  • Therefore, by reading the above explanation we find that option 4 is correct.✔️
<br>

📌Correct sentence: With so many people at their house, it was fortunate that the weather was warm and dry so they could utilize the courtyard for the children**.** The house was packed with people.✔️

Additional Information

  • We use the quantifiers much, much, a lot of, lots of to talk about quantities, amounts and degree. We can use them with a noun (as a determiner) or without a noun (as a pronoun).
  • In affirmative clauses we sometimes use much and many in more formal styles.
  • Example: There is much concern about crimes in Canada.
  • In informal styles, we prefer to use lots of or a lot of.
  • Example: I went shopping and spent a lot of money.
140

Given below is a sentence that may or may not be grammatically viable, choose the most suitable alternative that reflects the grammatically correct sentence. 

He went through with his plan yet all his friends advised him to abandon it.

  1. ((a))

    Unless all his friends

  2. ((b))

    although all his friends

  3. ((c))

    whether all his friends

  4. ((d))

    so all his friends

  5. ((e))

    if all his friends

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

although all his friends

The correct answer is Option 2)i.e. although all his friends.

Key Points

  • Here, in the given sentence the main subject is 'he' and the subject is carrying out his plan, despite his 'friends' reservation.
  • Let us explore the given option.
  • The conjunction ‘unless’ means except if and is used to introduce the case in which a statement being made is not true or valid.
  • Example: Unless you want to die step away from the vehicle.
  • Meaning to stay that if you do not step away from the vehicle you will die.
  • This is not the case with the given sentence. Option 1 is incorrect.
  • The conjunction ‘although’ is used for in spite of the fact that; even though.
  • Example: He ran although his legs had not recovered.
  • This means that despite the subject 'he' legs not being okay, he still ran.
  • In the given sentence we are stating that the subject carried out his plan despite the fact that his friends were against it.
  • So option 2 is correct.
  • The conjunction ‘whether’ is used for expressing a doubt or choice between alternatives.
  • Example: Whether he is alive or dead it is unclear.
  • The current state of the subject is not known.
  • As this is not the case in the given sentence, option 3 is incorrect.
  • The conjunction ‘so’ means and for this reason; therefore.
  • Example: He slept late so that he could finish the movie.
  • Here the explanation or reason for sleeping late has been explained by using 'so.'
  • So option 4 is incorrect as a reason is not being specified in the given question.
  • The conjunction ‘if’ is used for introducing a conditional clause on the condition or supposition that; in the event that.
  • Example: If you want to say something do it now.
  • Here we want the subject 'you' to express his disapproval now.
  • As this is not the case in the given sentence, option 5 is incorrect.

📌Correct sentenceHe went through with his plan although all his friends advised him to abandon it.

141

Given below is a sentence that may or may not be grammatically viable, choose the most suitable alternative that reflects the grammatically correct sentence. 

The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about if you are happy or not.

  1. ((a))

    The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about whether you are happy or not.

  2. ((b))

    The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about since you are happy or not.

  3. ((c))

    The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about so you are happy or not.

  4. ((d))

    The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about  because you are happy or not.

  5. ((e))

    The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about  although you are happy or not.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about whether you are happy or not.

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e. The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about whether you are happy or not.

Key Points

  • Let us explore the given option.
  • The conjunction ‘whether’ is used for expressing a doubt or choice between alternatives.
  • Example: The captain wondered whether it would rain or not.
  • Here a doubt between two choices is being expressed. (rain or lack of thereof)
  • In the given question a similar situation is present, a choice between 'being happy or not', So option 1 is correct.✔️
  • The conjunction ‘since’ is used for the reason that; because or to express the cause of an ongoing event.
  • Example: I have not eaten since breakfast.
  • Here a cause is expressed for a particular time frame, i.e. the subject 'I' has not had anything after breakfast.
  • This is not the case in the given sentence, hence option 2 is incorrect.❌
  • The conjunction ‘so’ means and for this reason; therefore.
  • ​Example: He slept late so that he could finish the movie.
  • Here the explanation or reason for sleeping late has been explained by using 'so.'
  • There is no justification regarding an action being performed in the latter parts of the given sentence. we are only talking about a complimentary event, 'happy or not'.
  • Hence option 3 is incorrect.❌
  • The conjunction ‘because’ is used for the reason that; since.
  • Example: Eat your veggies because they give you strength.
  • The reason for eating veggies is to gain strength. They are joined by 'because'.
  • That is not what is happening in the given sentence so option 4 is incorrect.❌
  • The conjunction ‘although’ is used for in spite of the fact that; even though.
  • Example: Although he has legs he cannot move due to the accident.
  • Here a fact is stated and its consequence has been given, the subject 'he' has lost the use of his legs in an accident.
  • This is not the case with the given sentence, hence, option 5 is incorrect.

📌Correct sentence: The secret of being content is to have the leisure to bother about whether you are happy or not.✔️

142

Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase that is underlined to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required' as the answer.

It is I who is to blame for this unprecedented mess.

  1. ((a))

    me who is to

  2. ((b))

    me who am to

  3. ((c))

    I who am to

  4. ((d))

    I whom is to

  5. ((e))

    no correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

I who am to

The correct answer is I who am to.

Key Points

  • 'I who am to' will replace 'I who is to'.
  • When the subject of a verb is a Relative pronoun (in this case, who), the verb (in this case, is) agrees in number and person with the antecedent of the relative pronoun (in this case, I)
  • Students should read the sentence like this for convenience: It is (I who am to blame) for the unprecedented mess.
  • I is a subject. It is always placed after It + is.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is: It is I who am to blame for this unprecedented mess.

Important Points

  • A noun/pronoun which comes before a relative pronoun is called an antecedent. In the aforementioned question, I is the antecedent of who.
143

Directions: In the following question, the word at the top is used in five different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

ANALYSIS

  1. ((a))

    Her criteria defy analysis.

  2. ((b))

    We did an analysis of the way that government money has been spent in the past

  3. ((c))

    They collect blood samples for analysis at a national laboratory.

  4. ((d))

    We turned to see the analysis car slow down.

  5. ((e))

    He started with an analysis of the situation as it stood in 1947.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

We turned to see the analysis car slow down.

The correct answer is 'option 4' i.e. this sentence is incorrect.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the word 'Analysis' is-  "the process of considering something carefully or using statistical methods in order to understand it or explain it."
  • In Sentence 4, the usage of the word 'Analysis' is contextually incorrect because this is a noun and in the sentence, we need an adjective so instead of using 'analysis' we can use 'approaching', it will work as a present participle.
  • So the incorrect sentence is- Option 4.
  • According to the direction we have to find the incorrect usage of the word "analysis", hence the correct answer is "option 4"
144

In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which are the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair of words that needs to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

The measure has (A) drawn on the long-standing anxieties about the (B) interference of politico-bureaucratic (C) perils in the internal functioning of universities, and concerns about the (D) substantial burden on universities which have to regulate admissions, set (E) curricula and conduct examinations for a large number of undergraduate colleges.

  1. ((a))

    A-E

  2. ((b))

    C-D

  3. ((c))

    B-E

  4. ((d))

    B-C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B-C

The correct answer is option 4) B-C

Let us look at the sentence in the following way:

The measure has (A) _____ on the long-standing anxieties about the (B)_______ of politico-bureaucratic (C)_____ in the internal functioning of universities, and concerns about the (D) ________burden on universities which have to regulate admissions, set (E)_____and conduct examinations for a large number of undergraduate colleges.

  • Meanings of the words given in bold are:
  • Drawn together with the preposition 'on' means to cause to appear or occur.
  • Interference means the action of interfering (to enter into or take part in the concerns of others) or the process of being interfered with.
  • Perils means serious and immediate danger
  • Substantial means of considerate importance, size, or worth
  • Curricula means the subjects comprising a course of study in a school or college.
  • ​We can see that A, D and E have been used appropriately.
  • In the blank for B, 'perils' does not make any sense, the phrase 'in the internal functioning of universities' will take the word 'interference' before it.
  • Therefore, we need to interchange B and C to make the sentence correct.

Corrected sentence - The measure has (A) drawn on the long-standing anxieties about the (B) perils of politico-bureaucratic (C) interference in the internal functioning of universities, and concerns about the (D) substantial burden on universities which have to regulate admissions, set (E) curricula and conduct examinations for a large number of undergraduate colleges.

145

Below a word is given followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence/s which best expresses the meaning of the word. Choose Option 5 (None of these) if the word is not suitable in any of the sentences.

APPRAISE

A. First launched in 1995, this site can help you appraise your used vehicle or find the value of any second-hand car.

B. You can even get items like artwork and antiques appraised so you are sure of their current worth in the marketplace.

C. Please appraise the author of any changes to the document before publication.

  1. ((a))

    Only B

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B 

  3. ((c))

    Only A

  4. ((d))

    Only C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both A and B 

The correct answer is option 2). Appraise means assess the quality/ value of.

Sentence 1) First launched in 1995, this site can help you appraise your used vehicle or find the value of any second-hand car.

Here, appraise is referring to the assessing the value of a vehicle

Sentence 2) You can even get items like artwork and antiques appraised so you are sure of their current worth in the marketplace.

Here, appraised is referring to assessing the value of artwork and antiques

Sentence 3) Please appraise me of any changes to the document before publication.

Here, the usage of appraise is making no sense. 'Apprise' should be there in place of 'Appraise'. 'Apprise' means to inform. The sentence conveys that if there are any changes in the document the author must be informed.

Clearly Option 2) is the correct answer.

146

Select the correctly spelt word from the following-

  1. ((a))

    Penuriuous

  2. ((b))

    Shibboleath

  3. ((c))

    Pandemonioum

  4. ((d))

    Quintessence

  5. ((e))

    Quintessance

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Quintessence

The correct answer is option 4.i.e. 'Quintessence'

 

  Explanation 

  • The correctly spelled word out of the given options is  'Quintessence'; None of the rest given options is correctly spelt
  • Quintessence- the most perfect or typical example of a quality or class
  • For e.g.-Mother Teresa is the quintessence of kindness and politeness.

The correct spelling of other given words are-

INCORRECTCORRECT
PenuriuousPenurious [Extremely poor]
ShibboleathShibboleth  [a belief or custom that is not now considered as important and correct as it was in the past]
PandemonioumPandemonium [Wild and noisy disorder or confusion; uproar]
147

Select the correctly spelt word from the following-

  1. ((a))

    Ressurrection

  2. ((b))

    Recurrection

  3. ((c))

    Ressuraction

  4. ((d))

    Ressurection

  5. ((e))

    Resurrection

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Resurrection

The correct answer is option 5.i.e. Resurrection

 

  Explanation

  • The correctly spelled word out of the given options is Resurrection
  • Resurrection -Bringing back something that has not existed or not been used for a long time.
  • For e.g.-This is the resurrection of the old story from the mid- 80s.

21 Bible Verses about Restoration - Renewing Scripture Quotes

148

In the following question, pick the wrongly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Through

  2. ((b))

    Thorough

  3. ((c))

    Though

  4. ((d))

    Thought

  5. ((e))

    Thym

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Thym

The correct answer is option 5 i.e. Thym is wrongly spelt.

Key Points

  • The misspelt word out of the following options is Thym.
  • The correct spelling is 'Thyme'.
  • Thyme is a herb that belongs to the mint family and is used as a seasoning due to its aromatic leaves.
  • Hence, option 5 is misspelt word.

Additional Information

  • Through means moving in from one side and moving out of the other side of something.
  • Thorough means detailed; not superficial
  • Though is a conjunction which means 'despite the fact that'
  • Thought means an idea or opinion formed in the mind by thinking.
149

In the following question, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Infnniteseimal

  2. ((b))

    Infinnitesimle

  3. ((c))

    Infinniteseimal

  4. ((d))

    Infinitesimal

  5. ((e))

    Infiteseminal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Infinitesimal

Infinitesimal is something that very very small, divided to an infinity. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

150

Choose the wrongly ​spelt word among the following words.

  1. ((a))

    Embelish

  2. ((b))

    Robast

  3. ((c))

    Mandane

  4. ((d))

    Parragon

  5. ((e))

    All of the above.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All of the above.

The correct answer is All of the above. 

Key Points

  • Reading the options we find that all the given spellings are wrong.
  • Thus the correct answer is All of the above.

Additional Information

  • The correct spellings are Embellish, robust, mundane and paragon respectively.
  • Embellish means make (something) more attractive by the addition of decorative details or features.
  • Robust means strong and healthy; vigorous
  • Mundane means monotonous; lacking excitement or interest; dull
  • Paragon means a person or thing regarded as a perfect example of a particular quality.
151

The following sentences form a paragraph. The sentences are numbered as P, Q, R, S, and T. These sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and choose the right option out of five alternatives that correctly arrange the sentences in the correct sequence.

  1. On the next morning, they found out that the transformer at the nearby substation had exploded with a horrific sound which they had heard in the night before.
  2. Last night we were at the hostel when almost every boarder heard a monstrous sound.
  3. However, there was no casualty and the fire fighting group had handled the situation in an adept manner.
  4. But nobody went out as it was torrentially downpouring outside and also there was no power in the hostel premises.
  5. Two days later, power was restored in the hostel upon installation of the new transformer and other accessories.
  1. ((a))

    PRSTQ

  2. ((b))

    QSPRT

  3. ((c))

    STQPR

  4. ((d))

    PTQRS

  5. ((e))

    QPRST

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

QSPRT

Logically and contextually Q is independent of the rest sentences and so Q is the First sentence in the sequence.

Out of the rest sentences, Q is followed by S and P subsequently with reference to the context.

Therefore S and P are respectively the Second and third sentences in the sequence.

Out of R and T, R definitely follows P and hence  P is the fourth sentence.

Undoubtedly, R becomes the Fifth sentence in the sequence.

Therefore, the correct option is QSPRT.

Correct sequence:

  1. Q) Last night we were at the hostel when almost every boarder heard a monstrous sound.
  2. S) But nobody went out as it was torrentially downpouring outside and also there was no power in the hostel premises.
  3. P) On the next morning they found out that the transformer at the nearby substation had exploded with a horrific sound which they had heard in the night before.
  4. R) However, there was no casualty and the fire fighting group had handled the situation in an adept manner.
  5. T) Two days later, power was restored in the hostel upon installation of the new transformer and other accessories.
152

The following sentences form a paragraph. The sentences are numbered as P, Q, R, S, and T. These sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and choose the right option out of five alternatives that correctly arrange the sentences in the correct sequence.

  1. In the opening set, Sheema scored very low and, therefore, lost the set with a massive difference of points.
  2. But in the ongoing Interstate Competition, facing a stronger opponent she came to realize that she was wrong.
  3. However, the game went on and the audience witnessed a tough fight between Sheema and the newcomer in the second set.
  4. Though Sheema tried very hard putting all her efforts and energy, eventually she lost the game and got out of the tournament.
  5. Badminton is a very interesting game which Sheema thought she had mastered and none could ever defeat her in it.
  1. ((a))

    TRSPQ

  2. ((b))

    RPSTQ

  3. ((c))

    TQPRS

  4. ((d))

    PTQRS

  5. ((e))

    QPRST

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

TQPRS

Logically none of the sentences P, Q, R or S can be the First sentence. T gives the impression to be independent of all other sentences and so T fits well in the sequence as the First sentence.

Now out of the sentences R, Q, T, and S; Q suits best in the sequence as the Second sentence as T starts with ‘But’ and indicates something opposite to what Sheema thinks in T.

Next, P contains the description of the action of ‘opening set’ and so P is rightly the Third sentence; which is sequentially followed by R describing what happened in the ‘second set’.

Therefore, R becomes the Fourth sentence in the sequence.

By default, the left-out sentence S becomes the Fifth sentence which definitely fits well into the sequence.

Therefore, the correct option is TQPRS.

Correct sequence:

  1. T) Badminton is a very interesting game which Sheema thought she had mastered and none could ever defeat her in it.
  2. Q) But in the ongoing Interstate Competition, facing a stronger opponent she came to realize that she was wrong.
  3. P) In the opening set, Sheema scored very low and, therefore, lost the set with a massive difference of points.
  4. R) However, the game went on and the audience witnessed a tough fight between Sheema and the newcomer in the second set.
  5. S) Though Sheema tried very hard putting all her efforts and energy, eventually she lost the game and got out of the tournament.
153

The following sentences form a paragraph. The sentences are numbered as P, Q, R, S and T. These sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and choose the alternative that arranges them in correct order.

P. But it is actually not the end of a boy's Jewish education.

Q. While a special religious service or ceremony is not required for a boy to become a Bar Mitzvah;

R. Over the centuries a greater and greater emphasis has been placed on the ceremony as a rite of passage of sorts. 

S. In modern practice, the bar mitzvah ceremony usually requires much more preparation and participation.

T. The bar mitzvah ceremony is a milestone life-cycle event in the life of a Jewish boy and is the culmination of years of study;

  1. ((a))

    PQSRT

  2. ((b))

    TPQRS

  3. ((c))

    QSRTP

  4. ((d))

    QRTSP

  5. ((e))

    TQSPR

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

TPQRS

The given sentences show use of conjunctions, indicating that they are meaningfully related to each other.

Out of the sentences, only sentence T introduces the topic of 'Bar Mitzvah'; while others give more information about it.

So, T is the first sentence in the correct order. Both options 2 and 5 begin with T.

So, let us look at the second sentence. Since T is incomplete, the next sentence must begin with a conjunction.

Both P and Q begin with conjunctions. Only P is appropriate here, as both T and P talk about 'study' and 'education'.

So, P is the second sentence.

Out of the given options, both options 2 reflects this order, viz, TP.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

154

The following sentences form a paragraph. The sentences are numbered as P, Q, R, S and T. These sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and out of the five alternatives,  choose the right option that correctly arranges the sentences in the correct sequence.

P. So she is very relaxed and hopeful to spend these days in a jovial mood.

Q. Also, her relatives and cousins have come to her house for spending time together.

R. Disha has come back home from the hostel because of the ongoing summer vacation.

S. Accordingly, the tickets are booked for the to-and-fro journey along with the hotel booking at Puri.

T. In this scenario, Disha decides that all will go for a short trip at some nearby place.

  1. ((a))

    RPQTS

  2. ((b))

    RPSTQ

  3. ((c))

    STQPR

  4. ((d))

    PTQRS

  5. ((e))

    QPRST

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RPQTS

At a first glance at the sentences, we find words or phrase like ‘so’, ‘also’, ‘in this scenario’, ‘accordingly’ in four out of the five sentences.

This clearly indicates that R is independent of the rest sentences and so R is the First sentence in the sequence.

Next, P describes why Disha is relaxed, the reason for which is ‘summer vacation’ which is in P.

It is clear that will T follow Q and precede S.

Therefore, P, Q, T, and S become the Second, Third, Fourth and Fifth sentences respectively in the sequence.

Therefore, the correct option is RPQTS.

Correct sequence:

  1. R) Disha has come back home from the hostel because of the ongoing summer vacation.
  2. P) So she is very relaxed and hopeful to spend these days in a jovial mood.
  3. Q) Also, her relatives and cousins have come to her house for spending time together.
  4. T) In this scenario, Disha decides that all will go for a short trip at some nearby place.
  5. S) Accordingly, the tickets are booked for the to-and-fro journey along with the hotel booking at Puri.
155

The following sentences form a paragraph. The sentences are numbered as P, Q, R, S and T. These sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and choose the alternative that arranges them in the correct order.

P- Picks disease is a less common form of dementia. it is 15% of all dementia cases.

Q- It is a very rare disease.

R- The human brain is the most complicated organ of our bodies, picks is frontal temporal dementia, nerves at the front and sides of the brain are destroyed due to a build-up of proteins why the build-up of protein nobody knows but Picks strikes adults between the ages of 40 and 60

S- and there are a few cases of Picks suffers at the young age of 20, it’s a disease that is more common in women than men.

T- Picks is hard to diagnose and can sometimes be diagnosed as depression.

  1. ((a))

    PQRST

  2. ((b))

    STRQP

  3. ((c))

    PRSQT

  4. ((d))

    STQPR

  5. ((e))

    RPQST

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PQRST

The given sentence shows the use of conjunctions, indicating that they are meaningfully related to each other.

Out of the given sentences, only sentence P introduces the topic i.e. 'Picks Disease' while others give more information about it.

So, there are two sentences which are starting with sentence P. Let us take a look at both of them.

Sentence Q tells us about its occurrence.

Out of the given options, option 1 reflects this order i.e. PQ.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

156

In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e No change required.

In the 1970s, the top nutritional scientists in the US told the government that eggs, among many other foods, might be (A) [devastating]. There could be no simpler application of Occam’s Razor, with a (B) [chain] leading from the barnyard to the morgue. Eggs contain a lot of cholesterol, cholesterol (C) [closes] arteries, these arteries cause heart attacks, and heart attacks kill people. The conclusion was obvious: Americans need to get all that cholesterol out of their diet. And so they did. Then something unexpected happened: Americans gained a lot of weight and started dying of other things. 

The egg scare was based on a (D) [stream] of flawed studies, some going back almost a half century. People who want to avoid eggs can still do so, of course. In fact, there are now studies that suggest that skipping breakfast entirely – which scientists have also long been warning against – isn’t as bad as anyone thought either. Experts get things wrong all the time. The effects of such errors range from mild embarrassment to wasted time and money; in rarer cases, they can result in death, and even lead to international (E) [holocaust]. And yet experts regularly ask citizens to trust expert judgment and to have confidence not only that mistakes will be rare, but that the experts will identify those mistakes and learn from them.

Question:-

Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (C)?

  1. ((a))

    Clogs

  2. ((b))

    Seals

  3. ((c))

    Dissolves

  4. ((d))

    Terminates

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Clogs

The word 'closes' is wrong because we generally do not refer to the act of blocking a passage (artery) with the verb 'closes'. Hence this is incorrect.

The word 'seals' is incorrect because it refers to 'fasten or secure tightly' and in this context, we are referring to a negative impact of cholesterol on arteries, which is not given by the word 'seals'. Hence this is incorrect. The word 'dissolves' is incorrect because it conveys the wrong meaning; arteries do not get dissolved by cholesterol. The word 'terminates' means 'to bring to an end' and this is incorrect because arteries are physical entities and they cannot be ended.

The word 'clogs' means 'to block a passage due to accumulation of thick matter' and this is correct. The sentence implies that cholesterol blocks arteries and this leads to heart attacks. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

157

In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e No change required.

In the 1970s, the top nutritional scientists in the US told the government that eggs, among many other foods, might be (A) [devastating]. There could be no simpler application of Occam’s Razor, with a (B) [chain] leading from the barnyard to the morgue. Eggs contain a lot of cholesterol, cholesterol (C) [closes] arteries, these arteries cause heart attacks, and heart attacks kill people. The conclusion was obvious: Americans need to get all that cholesterol out of their diet. And so they did. Then something unexpected happened: Americans gained a lot of weight and started dying of other things. 

The egg scare was based on a (D) [stream] of flawed studies, some going back almost a half century. People who want to avoid eggs can still do so, of course. In fact, there are now studies that suggest that skipping breakfast entirely – which scientists have also long been warning against – isn’t as bad as anyone thought either. Experts get things wrong all the time. The effects of such errors range from mild embarrassment to wasted time and money; in rarer cases, they can result in death, and even lead to international (E) [holocaust]. And yet experts regularly ask citizens to trust expert judgment and to have confidence not only that mistakes will be rare, but that the experts will identify those mistakes and learn from them.

Question:-

Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (B)?

  1. ((a))

    Series

  2. ((b))

    Trail

  3. ((c))

    Aftermath

  4. ((d))

    String

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Trail

The word 'chain' is incorrect because the context refers to a path leading from the barnyard to the morgue and the word 'chain' means a 'series or string of similar items'. Hence this is incorrect. 

The word 'series' is also incorrect because it does not refer to a path as suggested by the sentence. The word 'aftermath' means 'by-product or consequence of something' and this is incorrect in the given context. The word 'string' is incorrect because it means 'a set of things tied together' and this does not make sense in the given sentence.

The word 'trail' means a 'series of signs defining a path' and this is correct because the context refers to the phrase 'leading from the barnyard to the morgue'. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

158

In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e No change required.

In the 1970s, the top nutritional scientists in the US told the government that eggs, among many other foods, might be (A) [devastating]. There could be no simpler application of Occam’s Razor, with a (B) [chain] leading from the barnyard to the morgue. Eggs contain a lot of cholesterol, cholesterol (C) [closes] arteries, these arteries cause heart attacks, and heart attacks kill people. The conclusion was obvious: Americans need to get all that cholesterol out of their diet. And so they did. Then something unexpected happened: Americans gained a lot of weight and started dying of other things. 

The egg scare was based on a (D) [stream] of flawed studies, some going back almost a half century. People who want to avoid eggs can still do so, of course. In fact, there are now studies that suggest that skipping breakfast entirely – which scientists have also long been warning against – isn’t as bad as anyone thought either. Experts get things wrong all the time. The effects of such errors range from mild embarrassment to wasted time and money; in rarer cases, they can result in death, and even lead to international (E) [holocaust]. And yet experts regularly ask citizens to trust expert judgment and to have confidence not only that mistakes will be rare, but that the experts will identify those mistakes and learn from them.

Question:-

Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (E)?

  1. ((a))

    Annihilation

  2. ((b))

    Bloodshed

  3. ((c))

    Catastrophe

  4. ((d))

    Cataclysm

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Catastrophe

The word 'holocaust' means 'mass destruction and death' and this is incorrect because the given context only refers to the effects of consuming eggs. Since the word 'holocaust' is an extreme scenario, it is incorrect.

The word 'annihilation' means 'complete destruction' which is incorrect for the same reason stated above. The word 'bloodshed' means 'killing and wounding people with violence' and this is again an extreme scenario compared to the context given. The word 'cataclysm' means 'a large scale violent event across the world' and this is also a misfit in the given context. The sentence requires a milder word which does not involve violence. 

The word 'catastrophe' means 'tragedy or disaster' and this is correct because it is a general term which denotes an unfortunate event. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

159

In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e No change required.

In the 1970s, the top nutritional scientists in the US told the government that eggs, among many other foods, might be (A) [devastating]. There could be no simpler application of Occam’s Razor, with a (B) [chain] leading from the barnyard to the morgue. Eggs contain a lot of cholesterol, cholesterol (C) [closes] arteries, these arteries cause heart attacks, and heart attacks kill people. The conclusion was obvious: Americans need to get all that cholesterol out of their diet. And so they did. Then something unexpected happened: Americans gained a lot of weight and started dying of other things. 

The egg scare was based on a (D) [stream] of flawed studies, some going back almost a half century. People who want to avoid eggs can still do so, of course. In fact, there are now studies that suggest that skipping breakfast entirely – which scientists have also long been warning against – isn’t as bad as anyone thought either. Experts get things wrong all the time. The effects of such errors range from mild embarrassment to wasted time and money; in rarer cases, they can result in death, and even lead to international (E) [holocaust]. And yet experts regularly ask citizens to trust expert judgment and to have confidence not only that mistakes will be rare, but that the experts will identify those mistakes and learn from them.

Question:-

Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (A)?

  1. ((a))

    Virulent

  2. ((b))

    Malicious

  3. ((c))

    Venomous

  4. ((d))

    Lethal

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lethal

The word 'devastating' means 'highly destructive or damaging' and this word is used only in extremely severe cases, for example:- earthquakes. The context refers to eggs which is not a severe cause of destruction, hence this is incorrect.

The word 'virulent' means 'severe or harmful' and it is associated with the effects of diseases. Since the context speaks about the effects of eggs, this is incorrect. The word 'malicious' means 'intending to do harm' and this is generally used to describe the behaviour of people, hence it is not a good fit here. The word 'venomous' means 'poisonous or deadly' which is applicable for animals which attack and kill using poison (like snakes). Hence this is a misfit here.

The word 'lethal' means 'sufficient to cause death' and since this is a general term which describes anything harmful or dangerous, this is the best fit among all options. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

160

In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e No change required.

In the 1970s, the top nutritional scientists in the US told the government that eggs, among many other foods, might be (A) [devastating]. There could be no simpler application of Occam’s Razor, with a (B) [chain] leading from the barnyard to the morgue. Eggs contain a lot of cholesterol, cholesterol (C) [closes] arteries, these arteries cause heart attacks, and heart attacks kill people. The conclusion was obvious: Americans need to get all that cholesterol out of their diet. And so they did. Then something unexpected happened: Americans gained a lot of weight and started dying of other things. 

The egg scare was based on a (D) [stream] of flawed studies, some going back almost a half century. People who want to avoid eggs can still do so, of course. In fact, there are now studies that suggest that skipping breakfast entirely – which scientists have also long been warning against – isn’t as bad as anyone thought either. Experts get things wrong all the time. The effects of such errors range from mild embarrassment to wasted time and money; in rarer cases, they can result in death, and even lead to international (E) [holocaust]. And yet experts regularly ask citizens to trust expert judgment and to have confidence not only that mistakes will be rare, but that the experts will identify those mistakes and learn from them.

Question:-

Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (D)?

  1. ((a))

    River

  2. ((b))

    Cascade

  3. ((c))

    Fountain

  4. ((d))

    Torrent

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cascade

The word 'stream' means 'a continuous flow of something' and this is incorrect because we generally use this to describe the flow of physical entities like rivers, water or air. Here, the subject is an abstract noun like 'study' hence it is a misfit.

The word 'river' is incorrect because it refers to 'a large quantity of flowing substance' and this is incorrect for the same reason as mentioned above because a 'study' is not a substance. The word 'fountain' is incorrect because it refers to 'a jet of liquid' and the context mentions no liquid. The word 'torrent' means a 'strong flow or outpouring of something'. We typically use it to describe liquids (torrents of rain) or words (torrents of verbal abuse). Hence, since it doesn't fit the context, it is incorrect.

The word 'cascade' means 'to pass something on successively' and this is correct because here because the results of a series of flawed studies are being passed on successively. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Numerical Ability (40 questions)

161

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

i. 2x2 – 9x + 9 = 0

i. y2 – 11y + 24 = 0

  1. ((a))

    if x > y

  2. ((b))

    if x < y

  3. ((c))

    if x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    if x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    if x = y or relationship can’t be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

if x ≤ y

Equation I

⇒ 2x2 – 9x + 9 = 0

⇒ 2x2 – 6x – 3x + 9 = 0

⇒ 2x (x – 3) – 3 (x – 3) = 0

⇒ (x – 3) (2x – 3) = 0

⇒ x = 3, 1.5

Equation ii

y2 – 11y + 24 = 0

⇒ y2 – 8y – 3y + 24 = 0

⇒ y (y – 8) – 3  (y – 8) = 0

⇒ (y – 8) (y – 3) = 0

⇒ y = 8, 3

Hence, x ≤ y

162

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 – 44x + 483 = 0

II. y2 – 27y + 182 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

I. x2 – 44x + 483 = 0

⇒ x2 – 21x – 23x + 483 = 0

⇒ x (x – 21) – 23 (x – 21) = 0

⇒ (x – 21) (x – 23) = 0

⇒ x = 21, 23

 

II. y2 – 27y + 182 = 0

⇒ y2 – 14y – 13y + 182 = 0

⇒ y (y – 14) – 13 (y – 14) = 0

⇒ (y – 14) (y – 13) = 0

⇒ y = 14, 13

 

Value of xValue of yRelation
2114x > y
2113x > y
2314x > y
2313x > y

 

Hence x > y

163

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 – 42x + 440 = 0

II. y2 – 34y + 288 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

I. x2 – 42x + 440 = 0

⇒ x2 – 22x – 20x + 440 = 0

⇒ x(x – 22) – 20(x – 22) = 0

⇒ (x – 22) (x – 20) = 0

⇒ x = 22, 20

 

II. y2 – 34y + 288 = 0

⇒ y2 – 18y – 16y + 288 = 0

⇒ y(y – 18) – 16(y – 18) = 0

⇒ (y – 18) (y – 16) = 0

⇒ y = 18, 16

 

Value of xValue of yRelation
2218x > y
2216x > y
2018x > y
2016x > y

 

∴ x > y.

164

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 – 12x + 35 = 0

II. 2y2 – 28y + 96 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

I. x2 – 12x + 35 = 0

⇒x2 – 7x – 5x + 35 = 0

⇒ (x – 5) (x – 7) = 0

⇒ x =5, 7

II. 2y2 – 28y + 96 = 0

⇒2y2 – 16y – 12y + 96 = 0

⇒ (y – 6) (2y – 16) = 0

⇒ y = 6, 8

 

Value of xValue of yRelation
56x < y
58x < y
76x > y
78x < y

 

Hence, Relation between x and y can’t be determine here.

165

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 8x2 – 10x – 7 = 0

II. 8y2 – 34y + 35 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

x ≤ y

I. 8x2 – 10x – 7 = 0

⇒ 8x2 – 14x + 4x – 7 = 0

⇒ 2x (4x – 7) + 1 (4x – 7) = 0

⇒ (4x – 7) (2x + 1) = 0

⇒ x = -1/2, 7/4

 

II. 8y2 – 34y + 35 = 0

⇒ 8y2 – 14y – 20y + 35 = 0

⇒ 2y (4y – 7) – 5 (4y – 7) = 0

⇒ (4y – 7) (2y – 5) = 0

⇒ y = 5/2, 7/4

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

Value of xValue of yRelation
-1/25/2x < y
-1/27/4x < y
7/45/2x < y
7/47/4x = y

 

Hence x ≤ y

166

If the average price of five different metals is taken, it is Rs. 432 per gram. If the costliest metal is not included, the average price drops by Rs. 132. What will be the price of 20 grams of costliest metal ? (in Rs.)

  1. ((a))

    14400

  2. ((b))

    19200

  3. ((c))

    9600

  4. ((d))

    7200

  5. ((e))

    24000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

19200

Let the average price of costliest metal be Rs. T per gram.

⇒ Sum of price of all 5 metals = 5 × Rs. 432 = Rs. 2160

And, Sum of price of all 4 metals(excluding costliest metal) = 4 × Rs. (432-132) = Rs. 1200

⇒ Price of a gram of costliest metal = Rs. 2160 – Rs. 1200 = Rs. 960

⇒ Price of 20 grams of costliest metal = 20 × Rs. 960 = Rs. 19200

167

Shop A marks the price of a laptop at Rs. 48000 and gave two discounts, one discount of 8% on Rs. 25000 and one of 5% on remaining Rs. 23000. Shop B also sells the same laptop on the same marked price, but he gives a discount of 10% on total price. Calculate the actual price charged by both the shops.

  1. ((a))

    A = Rs. 45300, B = Rs. 44850 

  2. ((b))

    A = Rs. 45000, B = Rs. 42300 

  3. ((c))

    A = Rs. 44850, B = Rs. 43200

  4. ((d))

    A = Rs. 42300, B = Rs. 43200

  5. ((e))

    None of theses

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A = Rs. 44850, B = Rs. 43200

Discount offered from shop B = (10/100) × 48000 = Rs. 4800

Discount by shop A on Rs. 25000 = (8/100) × 25000 = Rs. 2000

Discount on next Rs. 23000 = (5/100) × 23000 = Rs. 1150

Total discount by shop A = 2000 + 1150 = Rs. 3150

Total discount by shop B = 4800

∴ Price offered by shop A = 48000 - 3150 = Rs. 44850

Price offered by shop B = 48000 - 4800 = Rs. 43200

168

The daily expenditure of A and B are in the ratio 7 : 9. If both of them reduced their daily expenditure by Rs. 500 per day, the new ratio of their daily expenditure becomes 11 : 17. What is their average daily savings after reduction in daily expenditure if both of them spends 20% of total daily earning on their daily expenditure?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 950

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1400

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2500

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1500

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 2800

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Rs. 2800

Let previous daily expenditure of A and B be Rs. M and Rs. N respectively.

Given,

M : N = 7 : 9

⇒ M = 7N/9

Then,

⇒ (M – 500) : (N – 500) = 11 : 17

⇒ 17M – 8500 = 11N – 5500

⇒ 17M – 11N = 3000

Solving,

⇒ 119N – 99N = 3000 × 9

⇒ 20N = 27000

⇒ N = 1350

⇒ M = (7/9) × 1350 = 1050

New expenditure of A = 1050 – 500 = 550

New expenditure of B = 1350 – 500 = 850

Given,

Daily earning of A = 550 × 100/20 = 2750

Daily earning of B = 850 × 100/20 = 4250

∴ Required average of daily savings of A and B

= [(2750 × 80/100) + (4250 × 80/100)]/2 = Rs. 2800

169

Two varieties of coffee costing Rs. 180 per kg and Rs. 150 per kg are mixed in the ratios 4 : 5 and 3 : 7 to form blend T1 and T2 respectively. T1 and T2 are mixed in a certain ratio and the resulting mixture is sold at Rs. 240 per kg at a profit of 50%. What is the ratio in which T2 and T1 are mixed?

  1. ((a))

    13 : 3

  2. ((b))

    12 : 5

  3. ((c))

    11 : 5

  4. ((d))

    10 : 3

  5. ((e))

    12 : 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10 : 3

⇒ Cost of T1 = {180 × 4 + 150 × 5} / 9 = 490 / 3

⇒ Cost of T2 = {180 × 3 + 150 × 7) / 10 = 159

The resulting mixture is sold at 240 per kg with a profit of 50%.

Hence, the cost price of the mixture = 240(2 / 3) = 160

Let x kg of T1 be mixed with y kg of T2 to form the resulting mixture.

⇒ [(490 / 3) - (160)] / [(160) - (159)] = 10 : 3

∴ required ratio = 10 : 3

170

Rohan and Sohan started a partnership business with initial investment in the respective ratio of 3: 1. After 4 months, Rohan invested Rs. 2000 more and after 2 more months Sohan invested Rs. 6000 more. If Rohan’s profit share is double of sohan’s profit share after a year, then what was Rohan’s initial investment?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 15000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 14000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 16500

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 16000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 18000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 14000

Given:

Ratio of initial investment = 3: 1

Profit share ratio = 2: 1 at the end of the year

Concept:

Rohan invests 2000 more after 4 months. And sohan invests 6000 more after 6 months.

Calculation:

Let for the first 4 months Rohan’s investment be ‘3x’

⇒ After 4 months, Rohan invested 2000 more

⇒ (3x × 12) + (2000 × 8)

Let For the first 6 months, Sohan’s investment be ‘x’

⇒ After 6 months, Sohan invested 6000 more

⇒ (x × 12) + (6000 × 6)

Now, ratio of profit share will be same as ratio of investment

and ratio of profit share

⇒ ((3x × 12) + (2000 × 8))/((x × 12) + (6000 × 6)) = 2/1

⇒ 12x = 56000

⇒ 3x = 14000

∴ Rohan’s initial investment = Rs. 14,000

Direction: Data related to companies present in 5 states of a country are given.

CompaniesPrivate : PublicCompanies inPrivate : Public
State20012002
CG69011 : 1286013 : 7
AP11769 : 5126010 : 11
MP78010 : 59245 : 7
UP5854 : 572210 : 9
Assam103510 : 139795 : 6
171

What is the percentage increase in the total no. of companies in 2002 with respect to 2001?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    9.5

  3. ((c))

    12.4

  4. ((d))

    11.23

  5. ((e))

    10.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

11.23

Total no. of companies in 2002 - 4745

Total no. of companies in 2001 - 4266

Percentage increase =4794266×100= \frac{{479}}{{4266}} \times 100

= 11.23%

172

What is the total no. of private companies in all the states in both the years together?

  1. ((a))

    4585

  2. ((b))

    4233

  3. ((c))

    4885

  4. ((d))

    4548

  5. ((e))

    4685

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

4685

Total private company in year 2001 = 690 × 11/23 + 1176 × 9/14 + 780 × 10/15 + 585 × 4/9 + 1035 × 10/23 = 2316

Total private company in year 2002 = 860 × 13/20 + 1260 × 10/21 + 924 × 5/12 + 722 × 10/19 + 979 × 5/11 = 2369

Sum = 2316 + 2369 = 4685

173

What is the ratio of no. of private companies in MP and AP together in 2001 to the no. of private companies in MP and UP in 2002?

  1. ((a))

    763 : 1273

  2. ((b))

    765 : 1276

  3. ((c))

    1276 : 765

  4. ((d))

    1273 : 761

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1276 : 765

Total no. of private companies in AP and MP in 2001

= 756 + 520 = 1276

Total no. of private companies in MP & UP in 2002

= 385 + 380 = 765 

Ratio=1276765Ratio = \frac{{1276}}{{765}}

174

What is the difference between the total no. of companies in AP in 2001 to the total no. of companies in UP in 2002?

  1. ((a))

    544

  2. ((b))

    325

  3. ((c))

    541

  4. ((d))

    445

  5. ((e))

    454

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

454

Companies of AP in 2001 = 1176

Companies of UP in 2002 = 722

Diff = 1176 - 722

= 454

175

What is the ratio of total no. of companies in 2001 to the total no. of companies in 2002?

  1. ((a))

    919 : 719

  2. ((b))

    920 : 850

  3. ((c))

    949 : 881

  4. ((d))

    4266 : 4745

  5. ((e))

    950 : 874

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4266 : 4745

Total company in 2001 = 690 + 1176 + 780 + 585 + 1035 = 4266

Total company in 2002 = 860 + 1260 + 924 + 722 + 979 = 4745

Required ratio = 

4266 : 4745

176

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

(59.09 × 4.99 – 36.97 × 5.05) ÷ 9.99 = 10.912 ÷ ?

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    27

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

11

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

(59.09 × 4.99 – 36.97 × 5.05) ÷ 9.99 = 10.912 ÷ ?

⇒ (59 × 5 – 37 × 5) ÷ 10 = 112 ÷ ?

⇒ 110 ÷ 10 = 121 ÷ ?

⇒ 11 = 121 ÷ ?

⇒ ? = 11

177

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

 [(3.942 + 79.99 ÷ 1.983) ÷ 1.98] × 4.95 = ?3 + 1.01

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

 [(3.942 + 79.99 ÷ 1.983) ÷ 1.98] × 4.95 = ?3 + 1.01

⇒ [(42 + 80 ÷ 23) ÷ 2] × 5 = ?3 + 1

⇒ [(16 + 10) ÷ 2] × 5 = ?3 + 1

⇒ (26 ÷ 2) × 5 = ?3 + 1

⇒ 13 × 5 = ?3 + 1

⇒ ?3 = 65 - 1

⇒ ? = 4

178

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

12.93 × 6.98 + 107.98 ÷ 11.98 – 10.98 × 3.94 = 152.93 - ?

  1. ((a))

    111

  2. ((b))

    105

  3. ((c))

    124

  4. ((d))

    87

  5. ((e))

    97

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

97

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

12.93 × 6.98 + 107.98 ÷ 11.98 – 10.98 × 3.94 = 152.93 - ?

⇒ 13 × 7 + 108 ÷ 12 – 11 × 4 = 153 - ?

⇒ 91 + 9 – 44 = 153 - ?

⇒ 100 – 44 = 153 - ?

⇒ 56 = 153 - ?

⇒ ? = 153 – 56

⇒ ? = 97

179

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

(20.99 × 4.98 + 148.99 × 4.98) ÷ ? = 6.992 – 23.94

  1. ((a))

    34

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    38

  5. ((e))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

(20.99 × 4.98 + 148.99 × 4.98) ÷ ? = 6.992 – 23.94

⇒ (21 × 5 + 149 × 5) ÷ ? = 72 – 24

⇒ (105 + 745) ÷ ? = 49 – 24

⇒ 850 ÷ ? = 49 - 24

⇒ 850 ÷ ? = 25

⇒ ? = 850/25

⇒ ? = 34

180

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

807.98 ÷ 7.99 + 12.98 × 2.98 = 6.98 × 4.98 × ?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    16

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

807.98 ÷ 7.99 + 12.98 × 2.98 = 6.98 × 4.98 × ?

⇒ 808 ÷ 8 + 13 × 3 = 7 × 5 × ?

⇒ 101 + 39 = 35 × ?

⇒ 140 = 35 × ?

⇒ ? = 140/35

⇒ ? = 4

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow:

A Shopkeeper sells 4 different types of products A, B, C and D. The cost price of product B is Rs. 2000 which is marked up by 20%. The marked price of product A is Rs. 150 less than the marked price of product B. The average of the cost price of all 4 products is Rs. 2050. He earns a profit of Rs. 450 on selling product D. The marked price of product D is Rs. 1400 more than the marked price of product C. Shopkeeper also offers the discount of 20%, 10% and 15% on products A, B and C respectively. He also earns the profit of 20%, 30% and 15% on products A, C and D respectively.

181

Find the difference between selling price of product C and product D.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1540

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1380

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1160

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1440

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 1240

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Rs. 1240

Given:

If we solve the caselet step by step, we get the following output.

ProductCost priceSelling priceMarked priceProfit(SP - CP)Profit %Discount %
A1500180022503002020
B20002160240016010
C1700221026005103015
D30003450400045015
<br>

Formula used:

Profit% = (Profit/Cost price) × 100

Discount% = (Discount/Marked Price) × 100

Calculation:

The selling price of product C = Rs. 2210

The selling price of product D = Rs. 3450

Difference = 3450 – 2210

⇒ Rs. 1240

∴ The difference is Rs. 1240.

182

Find the total profit earned by the shopkeeper on selling all the 4 products.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1640

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1420

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1560

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1380

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 1180

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 1420

If we solve the caselet step by step, we get the following output.

ProductCost priceSelling priceMarked priceProfit(SP - CP)Profit %Discount %
A1500180022503002020
B20002160240016010
C1700221026005103015
D30003450400045015

 

Total profit earned = 300 + 160 + 510 + 450

⇒ Rs. 1420

183

Find the discount percentage offered by shopkeeper on product D.

  1. ((a))

    12.25%

  2. ((b))

    14.5%

  3. ((c))

    13.75%

  4. ((d))

    16.5%

  5. ((e))

    10.25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

13.75%

If we solve the case let step by step, we get the following output.

ProductCost priceSelling priceMarked priceProfit(SP - CP)Profit %Discount %
A1500180022503002020
B20002160240016010
C1700221026005103015
D30003450400045015

 

Discount % offered on product D = (Discount / MP) × 100

550 ÷ 4000 × 100

⇒ 13.75%

184

The selling price of product E is 11.11% more than the selling price of product B. If it is sold after giving two successive discounts of 10% and 16.67%, then find the marked price of product E.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 3200

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2600

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 4000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 2800

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 3200

If we solve the caselet step by step, we get the following output.

ProductCost priceSelling priceMarked priceProfit(SP - CP)Profit %Discount %
A1500180022503002020
B20002160240016010
C1700221026005103015
D30003450400045015

 

Selling price of product B = Rs. 2160

Selling price of product E = 2160 + 100/900 × 2160

⇒ 2160 + 240

⇒ 2400

∵ It has been given two successive discounts of 10% and 16.67%

⇒ 0.9 × 0.833 × Marked price = 2400

⇒ Marked price = 2400 ÷ 0.75

⇒ Marked price = Rs. 3200

185

Had he sold product C at a loss of 10%, then what would have been the selling price of product C?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1470

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1530

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1640

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1820

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 1720

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 1530

If we solve the caselet step by step, we get the following output.

ProductCost priceSelling priceMarked priceProfit(SP - CP)Profit %Discount %
A1500180022503002020
B20002160240016010
C1700221026005103015
D30003450400045015

 

Cost price of product C = Rs. 1700

If it is sold at a loss of 10%

Selling price = 0.9 × 1700

⇒ Rs. 1530

186

A and B starts a journey from the same place at the same time to a place of 60 km distance. A’s speed is 4 km/hr more than that of B. A turn back after reaching the destination and meet B at 12 km distance from the destination. Then find the speed of B.

  1. ((a))

    7 km/hr

  2. ((b))

    7.5 km/hr

  3. ((c))

    8 km/hr

  4. ((d))

    8.5 km/hr

  5. ((e))

    9 km/hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8 km/hr

Given:

A and B meets at a place 12 km from destination

A’s speed is 4 km/hr more than that of B

Concept:

Time taken for their journey will be same since they travel to meet each other but distance covered will be different

Calculation:

Let the speed of B = x km/hr

⇒ Speed of A = (x + 4) km/hr

Total distance covered by A = 60 + 12 = 72 km

Total distance covered by B = 60 – 12 = 48 km

Time taken for their journey will be same

⇒ (72 /(x + 4)) = (48/x)

⇒ x = 8

∴ speed of B = 8 km/hr

187

Two pipes are connected to the cistern which can fill the whole tank in 24 minutes. A drainage pipe empties at rate of 300 liters per hour and is automatically opened every 10 minutes for one minute during which input pipes get closed. If pipes start filling water at 8 : 10 am then by what time will the cistern be completely filled if capacity of cistern is 120 liters?

  1. ((a))

    8 : 38

  2. ((b))

    8 : 12

  3. ((c))

    8 : 22

  4. ((d))

    8 : 42

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 : 38

Given:

Two pipes can fill the cistern in 24 minutes.

Drain pipe drains water at 300 liters per hour

Capacity of cistern be 120 liters.

Formula used:

If a pipe fills water in a minutes and another empties in b minutes then net part filled in 1 hour = ((1/a) – (1/b))

Calculation:

Inlet pipes fills 5 liters per minute.

In first 10 minutes 50 liters are to be filled.

Now, Drain empties 300 liters per hour = 5 liters per minute

Hence,

At the end of 11 minute cistern is filled only 45 liters are filled.

Now,

⇒ after 22 minutes 90 litres would be filled. 30 more liters will be needed in order for cistern to be completely filled.

⇒ Inlet pipes fills 5 liters per minute hence, within next 6 minutes the cistern will reach to its full capacity.

⇒ Total time = 22 + 6

⇒ Total time = 28 minutes to fill the cistern.

Hence, by 8:38 cistern will be filled

188

Ishwar lends an amount of Rs.2400 from Abdul. They agree that Ishwar will repay Abdul in the form of three annual instalments, over the period of three years, with the rates of interest being 2% for the first year, 4% for the second year, and 6% for the third year. It is known that the principal for the next year will be calculated based on the amount received at the end of the previous year. How much additional money does Ishwar need to pay at the end of three years, in the form of compound interest?

  1. ((a))

    198.68

  2. ((b))

    298.68

  3. ((c))

    348.68

  4. ((d))

    358.28

  5. ((e))

    248.48

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

298.68

Given:

Amount lent by Ishwar from Abdul (Principal) = Rs.2400

Number of years = 3

Rate of Interest for the first year = 2%

Rate of Interest for the second year = 4%

Rate of Interest for the third year = 6%

Formula Used:

When the rates of Interest are R1%, R2%, and R3% for the first, the second and the third year, respectively; then the amount at the end of three years is given as:

Amount = P × [1 + (R1/100)] × [1 + (R2/100)] × [1 + (R3/100)]

Interest = Amount - Principal

Calculation:

The amount will be calculated according to the above-mentioned formula, as:

Amount = 2400 × [1 + (2/100)] × [1 + (4/100)] × [1 + (6/100)]

⇒ Amount = 2400 × 1.02 × 1.04 × 1.06 

⇒ Amount = Rs.2698.68

∵ Compound Interest = Amount - Principal

∴ The compound Interest is calculated as:

2698.68 - 2400 =  Rs.298.68

∴  The additional money that Ishwar needs to pay at the end of three years, in the form of compound interest, is Rs.298.68

189

Ram and Shyam are two friends work on alternate days, Shyam start the work and the work is completed by Ram and Shyam in 111311\frac{1}{3}days. If Ram can alone finish a work in 48 days, then find in how many days Shyam can finish 4 times the same work.

  1. ((a))

    25 days

  2. ((b))

    33 days

  3. ((c))

    27 days

  4. ((d))

    28 days

  5. ((e))

    22 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

27 days

Given:

Ram can alone finish a work in 48 days.

The work is completed by Ram and Shyam in 111311\frac{1}{3}days. 

Concept Used:

Total Work done = Time × Efficiency

Calculation:

Let the efficiency of Ram be x.

Let the efficiency of Shyam be y.

Ram can alone finish a work in 48 days.

The total work = 48 × x = 48x

The work is completed by Ram and Shyam in 111311\frac{1}{3}days.

That is the 6 days work done by Shyam and 5135\frac{1}{3} days work done by Ram.

The total work done = 6 × y + 16/3 × x

⇒ 48x = 6y + 16x/3

⇒ 128/3x = 6y

⇒ y = 64x/9

The time taken by Shyam to complete 4 times the work = 4 × 48x/y

⇒ 4 × 48x × 9/64x = 27 days

∴ The time taken by Shyam to complete 4 times the work is 27 days.

190

Anshul has the option of 12 stocks with 4 stocks each from 3 different companies X, Y, and Z. If Anshul randomly picks up one stock of X then what is the probability of picking second stock of X and third of Z?

  1. ((a))

    4/21

  2. ((b))

    21/4

  3. ((c))

    3/11

  4. ((d))

    55/6

  5. ((e))

    6/55

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

6/55

Given:

X = 4 stocks

Z = 4 stocks 

Total stocks = 12

Formula used:

Probability = Favorable events/Total events

Calculation:

Probability of picking up second stock of company X = 3/11

⇒ Probability of picking up third stock of company Z = 4/10

⇒ Required probability = 4 × 3/(11 × 10)

⇒ required probability = 12/ 110

 The probability of picking up second stock of X again and third stock of company Z is 6/55

Hint

Probability of picking up the second stock of company X = (4 – 1)/(12 – 1)

Probability of picking up the third stock of company Z = 4/(12 – 2)

Directions: Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

Profit percentage earned by two companies over the given years

Profit Percent = (Income – Expenditure)/Expenditure × 100

191

If the Expenditure of Company B in 2000 was Rs. 200 crore, what was its income?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 240 crore

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 220 crore

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 160 crore

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 300 crore

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 240 crore

Profit percentage of company B in 2000 = 20%

20 = (Income – 200)/200 × 100

⇒ Income = 200 + 40 = 240 crore

192

If the ratio of the income of company B in 1999 and 2000 is 7 : 5. Find the sum of its expenditures in the same years.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 40 Lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 32 Lakh

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 36 Lakh

  4. ((d))

    Can’t be determined

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Can’t be determined

The ratio of income of company B in 1999 and 2000 is = 7 : 5 (given)

Let income of company B in the year 1999 = 7x and in the year 2000 = 5x

And p and q be the expenditures in the year 1999 and 2000 respectively.

In the year 1999,

The profit percent = 40%

⇒ 40/100 = (7x – p)/p

In the year 2000,

The profit percent = 20%

⇒ 20/100 = (5x – q)/q

As there are only two equations and three variables, therefore it cannot be solved

∴ The sum of expenditures can’t be determined.

193

Find the ratio of the expenditure of company A in the year 2000 and 2001, if the income for both the years is 200 crore and 300 crore respectively?

  1. ((a))

    20 : 29

  2. ((b))

    21 : 31

  3. ((c))

    23 : 31

  4. ((d))

    21 : 19

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 : 29

In 2000, the profit percentage of company A = 45%

Let the expenditure of company A in year 2000 be x and the income is 200 crore (given)

⇒ 45 = (200 – x)/x × 100

⇒ 45x = (200 – x) × 100

⇒ x = 20000/145

In 2001, the percent profit of company A = 50%

Let the expenditure of company A in 2001 be y and income in 2001 is 300 crore (given)

⇒ 50 = (300 – y)/y × 100

⇒ 50y = 30000 – 100y

⇒ y = 200 crore

The ratio of expenditure in 2000 and 2001 is = x : y

⇒ 20000 : (145 × 200)

⇒ 20 : 29

194

For the company B, find the year in which there is the maximum percentage increase in profit percentage as compared to previous year and also find the expenditure of company A in the same year if the income is 240 crore for that year?

  1. ((a))

    1998, Rs. 280 crore

  2. ((b))

    1999, Rs. 250 crore

  3. ((c))

    2001, Rs. 160 crore

  4. ((d))

    2001, Rs. 300 crore

  5. ((e))

    1999, Rs. 320 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2001, Rs. 160 crore

Trick:

No need to solve the question, just go through the options carefully.

Only in 3rd option, the value of expenditure is less than the given income, hence it is the answer.

Note: The value of expenditure will be less than the income here because the profit percentage is positive.

∴ The 3rd option is the right answer.

Detailed Solution:

Percent increase in profit percentage as compared to last year for 1998

⇒ (50 – 50)/50 × 100 = 0%

Percent increase in profit percentage as compared to last year for 1999

⇒ (40 – 30)/30 × 100 = 33.33%

Percent increase in profit percentage as compared to last year for 2000

⇒ (20 – 40)/40 × 100 = -50%

Percent increase in profit percentage as compared to last year for 2001

⇒ (35 – 20)/20 × 100 = 75%

Percent increase in profit percentage as compared to last year for 2002

⇒ (50 – 35)/35 × 100 = 42.8571%

∴ The maximum percentage increase in profit percentage is in the 2001 year.

Let the expenditure of company A in 2001 = x

Now the profit percent of company A in 2001 is = 50%

⇒ 50 = (240 – x)/x × 100

⇒ 50x = 24000 – 100x

⇒ x = 160 crore

195

Find the ratio of expenditures of Company A in 1997 and 2001 together to the expenditures of company B in 1999 and 2002 together. The income of Company A in 1997 and 2001 is 250 crore and 300 crore respectively and the income of Company B in 1999 and 2002 is 300 crore and 200 respectively.

  1. ((a))

    141 : 143

  2. ((b))

    159 : 146

  3. ((c))

    129 : 131

  4. ((d))

    161 : 131

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

159 : 146

Company A

Income in 1997 = 250 crore and percent profit in 1997 = 40%

Let x be the expenditure in each case

∴ 40/100 = (250 – x)/x

⇒ x = 1250/7

Income in 2001 = 300 crore and percent profit in 2001 = 50%

Therefore, 50/100 = (300 – x)/x

⇒ x = 200

Company B

Income in 1999 = 300 crore and percent profit in 1999 = 40%

⇒ 40/100 = (300 – x)

⇒ x = 1500/7

Income in 2002 = 200 crore and percent profit = 50%

⇒ 50/100 = (200 – x)/x

⇒ x = 400/3

Ratio of expenditures of company A in 1997 and 2001 to the expenditures of company B in 1999 and 2002 together

(12507+;200)(15007+4003) \Rightarrow \frac{{\left( {\frac{{1250}}{7} + ;200} \right)}}{{\left( {\frac{{1500}}{7} + \frac{{400}}{3}} \right)}}

⇒ 2650/7 × 21/7300

⇒ 159 : 146

196

The ratio of ages of three persons- A, B and C five years ago was 4 : 13 : 10. Also, the ratio of their ages ten years from now will be 3 : 6 : 5.What will be the ratio of their age after one year?

  1. ((a))

    4 : 5 : 3

  2. ((b))

    2 : 4 : 5

  3. ((c))

    3 : 5 : 4

  4. ((d))

    2 : 5 : 4

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2 : 5 : 4

Let the current age of A, B and C be a, b and c respectively.

⇒ a – 5 : b – 5 : c – 5 = 4 : 13 : 10

Let a = 4x + 5, B = 13x + 5 and c = 10x + 5

⇒ a + 10 : b + 10 : c + 10 = 3 : 6 : 5

⇒ a + 10 : b + 10 = 3 : 6

⇒ 4x + 5 + 10 / 13 x + 5 + 10 = 3 / 6 = 1 / 2

⇒ x = 3

Thus the present ages of A, B and C are 17, 44 and 35 respectively.

∴ The ratio of their age after one year = 18 : 45 : 36 = 2 : 5 : 4

197

Ankit covered 180 km distance in 10 hours. The first part of his journey he covered by train, then he hired a Taxi. The speed of the train and Taxi is 25 kmph and 15 kmph respectively. The ratio of the distances covered by the Train and the taxi is which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    7 : 9

  2. ((b))

    9 : 7

  3. ((c))

    5 : 7

  4. ((d))

    7 : 5

  5. ((e))

    9 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 : 7

Given:

Speed of the Train = 25 kmph

Speed of the Taxi = 15 kmph

Total Distance = 180 km

Total time = 10 hours

Concept:

Here equating the total time taken with the time taken by Train and time taken by Taxi

Explanation:

Let the distance covered by the train is D km

⇒ The distance covered by Taxi is (180 – D)

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

(D / 25) + ((180 – D) / 15) = 10

⇒ 10 × D = 750

⇒ D = 75

⇒ 180 – D = 180 – 75 = 105

∴ The ratio of the distance covered by the Train and the Taxi = 75 : 105 ⇒ 5 : 7

198

Sum of perimeter of two rectangles is 248 cm and breadth of both rectangles is equal to radius of circle whose circumference is 44 cm. If length of both rectangles is in the ratio of 9 : 13, then find the difference between areas of both rectangles?

  1. ((a))

    130 cm2

  2. ((b))

    150 cm2

  3. ((c))

    160 cm2

  4. ((d))

    140 cm2

  5. ((e))

    145 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

140 cm2

GIVEN :

Sum of perimeter of two rectangles is 248 cm

Circumference of circle = 44 cm

Ratio of lengths of both the rectangles = 9 : 13

 

FORMULA USED :

Circumference of circle = 2πr

Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (length + breadth)

Area of rectangle = length × breadth

 

CALCULATION :

Let the length of rectangles be 9x and 13x

Circumference of circle = 2πr = 44

⇒ r = 7

Breadth of rectangle = radius of circle

According to question,

Sum of perimeter of two rectangle = 248 cm

⇒ 2 (9x + 7) + 2 (13x + 7) = 248

⇒ 18x + 14 + 26x + 14 = 248

⇒ 44x + 28 = 248

⇒ 44x = 220

⇒ x = 5

⇒ Length of rectangles = 9 × 5 = 45 cm and 13 × 5 = 65 cm

⇒ Difference between areas = 65 × 7 – 45 × 7 = 140 cm2

∴ Required difference = 140 cm2

199

A goods train of length 360m moving at speed of 90kmph crosses passenger train of length 240m moving at a certain speed in the same direction in 72 seconds. What is the ratio of speeds of goods train and passenger train? 

  1. ((a))

    2 : 5

  2. ((b))

    1 : 5

  3. ((c))

    1 : 3

  4. ((d))

    3 : 2

  5. ((e))

    1 : 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3 : 2

Speed of Goods train = 90kmph = 90 × 5/18 = 25 m/s

Let the speed of the passenger train be A m/s.

Relative speed = 25 – A

⇒ (360 + 240)/(25 – A) = 72

⇒ 600 = 1800 – 72A

⇒ A = 50/3 m/s

Required ratio = 25 : (50/3)

∴ Required ratio = 3 : 2

200

Raju has to sail his boat 10km downstream and then 6km upstream. His instructor tells him that he can take maximum 4 hours to complete the task. What should be the minimum speed of the boat if the speed of stream is 1km/hr?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

Let the speed of boat be x km/hr

⇒ Speed upstream = (x – 1)km/hr

⇒ Speed downstream = (x + 1)km/hr

⇒ 10/(x + 1) + 6/(x – 1) ≤ 4

For minimum speed, time maximum,

⇒ 10x – 10 + 6x + 6 = 4(x2 – 1)

⇒ 16x – 4 = 4(x2 – 1)

⇒ 4x – 1 = x2 – 1

⇒ 4x = x2

⇒ x = 0, 4

Speed can’t be negative

∴ Speed of boat is 4km/hr

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt