Official Paper

RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 16 September 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven friends – B, C, D, F, G, H, and J have planned a solo trip but not necessarily in the same order, on seven different months of the same year i.e. March, April, May, June, July, August and September. Each of them goes from a different bike i.e. BMW, KTM, Pulsar, Hayabusa, Aprilia, CBR and Apache but not necessarily in the same order.

B goes on the trip in a month which has less than 31 days. Only two friends go on the trip between B and D. The one who goes from KTM has a trip immediately before G. Only one friend goes on a trip before the one who goes from BMW. H goes on a trip immediately after the one who goes from BMW. Only three friends go on the trip between H and the one who goes from CBR. G goes neither from CBR nor from BMW. F goes on the trip immediately before G. J goes from Hayabusa. The one who goes from Pulsar has trip in the month, which has less than 31 days. The one who has a trip in May does not go from Apache.

Who goes on the trip in April month?

((a))
B
((b))
C
((c))
J
((d))
F
((e))
Either B or J

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

B goes on the trip in a month which has less than 31 days.

Only two friends go on the trip between B and D.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B
May
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only one friend goes on a trip before the one who goes from BMW.

H goes on a trip immediately after the one who goes from BMW.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B	BMW		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H		H
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only three friends go on the trip between H and the one who goes from CBR.

F goes on the trip immediately before G.

G goes neither from CBR nor from BMW.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated.

Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	D
April		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H
June	B		B		D
July	F	KTM	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G		G
September		CBR	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who goes from KTM has a trip immediately before G.

J goes from Hayabusa.

The one who goes from Pulsar has trip in the month, which has less than 31 days.

With these clues, case 2 will be eliminated

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who has a trip in May does not go from Apache.

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G	Apache	G	Apache
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

Hence we can merge both cases in single case to get final arrangement

Final Arrangement
Month	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa
April	C	BMW
May	H	Aprilia
June	B/D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM
August	G	Apache
September	D/B	CBR

C goes on the trip in the month of April.

Who goes on a trip three months before the one who goes on a trip from KTM bike?

((a))
J
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
H
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

B goes on the trip in a month which has less than 31 days.

Only two friends go on the trip between B and D.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B
May
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only one friend goes on a trip before the one who goes from BMW.

H goes on a trip immediately after the one who goes from BMW.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B	BMW		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H		H
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only three friends go on the trip between H and the one who goes from CBR.

F goes on the trip immediately before G.

G goes neither from CBR nor from BMW.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated.

Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	D
April		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H
June	B		B		D
July	F	KTM	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G		G
September		CBR	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who goes from KTM has a trip immediately before G.

J goes from Hayabusa.

The one who goes from Pulsar has trip in the month, which has less than 31 days.

With these clues, case 2 will be eliminated

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who has a trip in May does not go from Apache.

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G	Apache	G	Apache
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

Hence we can merge both cases in single case to get final arrangement

Final Arrangement
Month	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa
April	C	BMW
May	H	Aprilia
June	B/D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM
August	G	Apache
September	D/B	CBR

C goes on a trip three months before the one who goes on a trip from KTM bike.

How many friends go between the one who goes from CBR and H?

((a))
4
((b))
2
((c))
3
((d))
none
((e))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

B goes on the trip in a month which has less than 31 days.

Only two friends go on the trip between B and D.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B
May
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only one friend goes on a trip before the one who goes from BMW.

H goes on a trip immediately after the one who goes from BMW.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B	BMW		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H		H
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only three friends go on the trip between H and the one who goes from CBR.

F goes on the trip immediately before G.

G goes neither from CBR nor from BMW.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated.

Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	D
April		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H
June	B		B		D
July	F	KTM	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G		G
September		CBR	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who goes from KTM has a trip immediately before G.

J goes from Hayabusa.

The one who goes from Pulsar has trip in the month, which has less than 31 days.

With these clues, case 2 will be eliminated

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who has a trip in May does not go from Apache.

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G	Apache	G	Apache
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

Hence we can merge both cases in single case to get final arrangement

Final Arrangement
Month	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa
April	C	BMW
May	H	Aprilia
June	B/D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM
August	G	Apache
September	D/B	CBR

Three friends go between the one who goes from CBR and H.

B goes on a trip from which bike?

((a))
KTM
((b))
Apache
((c))
CBR
((d))
Pulsar
((e))
Can not determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Can not determined

B goes on the trip in a month which has less than 31 days.

Only two friends go on the trip between B and D.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B
May
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only one friend goes on a trip before the one who goes from BMW.

H goes on a trip immediately after the one who goes from BMW.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B	BMW		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H		H
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only three friends go on the trip between H and the one who goes from CBR.

F goes on the trip immediately before G.

G goes neither from CBR nor from BMW.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated.

Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	D
April		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H
June	B		B		D
July	F	KTM	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G		G
September		CBR	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who goes from KTM has a trip immediately before G.

J goes from Hayabusa.

The one who goes from Pulsar has trip in the month, which has less than 31 days.

With these clues, case 2 will be eliminated

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who has a trip in May does not go from Apache.

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G	Apache	G	Apache
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

Hence we can merge both cases in single case to get final arrangement

Final Arrangement
Month	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa
April	C	BMW
May	H	Aprilia
June	B/D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM
August	G	Apache
September	D/B	CBR

B's bike cannot be exactly identified.

four of the five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Find the one who does not belong to the group?

((a))
J
((b))
C
((c))
H
((d))
F
((e))
G

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

B goes on the trip in a month which has less than 31 days.

Only two friends go on the trip between B and D.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B
May
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only one friend goes on a trip before the one who goes from BMW.

H goes on a trip immediately after the one who goes from BMW.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March			D
April	B	BMW		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H		H
June			B		B		D
July	D
August
September					D		B

Only three friends go on the trip between H and the one who goes from CBR.

F goes on the trip immediately before G.

G goes neither from CBR nor from BMW.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated.

Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	D
April		BMW		BMW		BMW
May	H		H		H
June	B		B		D
July	F	KTM	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G		G
September		CBR	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who goes from KTM has a trip immediately before G.

J goes from Hayabusa.

The one who goes from Pulsar has trip in the month, which has less than 31 days.

With these clues, case 2 will be eliminated

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G		G
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

The one who has a trip in May does not go from Apache.

	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Month	Person	Bike	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa	J	Hayabusa
April		BMW		BMW
May	H		H
June	B	Pulsar	D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM	F	KTM
August	G	Apache	G	Apache
September	D	CBR	B	CBR

Hence we can merge both cases in single case to get final arrangement

Final Arrangement
Month	Person	Bike
March	J	Hayabusa
April	C	BMW
May	H	Aprilia
June	B/D	Pulsar
July	F	KTM
August	G	Apache
September	D/B	CBR

All except C go in a month having 31 days but C goes in a month having 30 days.

Directions: Study the given information and answer the questions that follow.

There are nine members in a family A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I. There are 3 couples in this family. No single parent has a child.

A has three children two of them are male. H is the daughter-in-law of A. I is the sister-in-law of H. D is niece of I. B is brother-in-law of C who is unmarried. B has no sibling. D and G are from same generation. They are neither siblings nor married. E is a female.

How G is related to B?

((a))
Son
((b))
Brother
((c))
Sister
((d))
daughter
((e))
Cannot be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Cannot be determined

Table is drawn describing symbols and their meanings:

1) A has three children two of them are male.

2) H is the daughter-in-law of A.

I is the sister-in-law of H.
D is niece of I.

5) B is brother-in-law of C who is unmarried.

B has no sibling.

D and G are from same generation. They are neither siblings nor married.
E is a female. So she will definitely be the wife of A.

We cannot specify the gender of G. G can be either son or daughter of B.

Who is the son of A?

((a))
F
((b))
C
((c))
I
((d))
Either 1 or 2
((e))
Both 1 and 2

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both 1 and 2

Table is drawn describing symbols and their meanings:

1) A has three children two of them are male.

2) H is the daughter-in-law of A.

I is the sister-in-law of H.
D is niece of I.

5) B is brother-in-law of C who is unmarried.

B has no sibling.

D and G are from same generation. They are neither siblings nor married.
E is a female. So she will definitely be the wife of A.

Both F and C are the son of A.

How C is related to D?

((a))
Uncle
((b))
Aunt
((c))
Mother
((d))
Father
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Uncle

Table is drawn describing symbols and their meanings:

1) A has three children two of them are male.

2) H is the daughter-in-law of A.

I is the sister-in-law of H.
D is niece of I.

5) B is brother-in-law of C who is unmarried.

B has no sibling.

D and G are from same generation. They are neither siblings nor married.
E is a female. So she will definitely be the wife of A.

C is the uncle of D.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U are living in a three-storey building such that ground floor is numbered as 1, above it is floor 2 then top floor is numbered as 3. Each of the floor has 2 flats in it as flat-X and flat-Y. Flat-X of floor-2 is immediately above flat-X of floor-1 and immediately below flat-X of floor-3. In the same way flat-Y of floor-2 is immediately above flat-Y of floor-1 and immediately below flat-Y of floor-3. Flat-X is in west of flat-Y. They all are from different cities.

The one who is from Kolkata lives immediately above U in the same flat. S lives to the west of U. P and the one who is from Kolkata do not live on the same floor. Neither S nor Q is from Bangalore. U is either from Pune or from Agra. There is one floor between Q and the one who is from Delhi who lives above Q. T does not live in flat Y. The one who is from Mumbai lives on the same floor on which the one who is from Agra lives. P lives on an odd numbered floor in flat X.

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

((a))
T
((b))
P
((c))
R
((d))
S
((e))
Q

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T and U

Floors: 1, 2, and 3

Flat: X and Y

(1) P lives on an odd numbered floor in flat X. Therefore, we get two the following two cases here.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P
2
1			P

(2) The one who is from Kolkata lives immediately above U in the same flat. .

(3) S lives to the west of U.

(4) P and the one who is from Kolkata do not live on the same floor.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P			(Kolkata)
2		(Kolkata)	S	U
1	S	U	P

(5) T does not live in flat Y.

(6) There is one floor between Q and the one who is from Delhi who lives above Q. Since, only flat Y of floor 3 is left for Q in case (I), case (I) eliminates here.

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	(Kolkata)
2	S	U
1	P	Q

(7) Neither S nor Q is from Bangalore.

(8) U is either from Pune or from Agra (implies, P is from Bangalore).

(9) The one who is from Mumbai lives on the same floor on which the one who is from Agra lives (implies, S is from Mumbai and U is from Agra). Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	R (Kolkata)
2	S (Mumbai)	U (Agra)
1	P (Bangalore)	Q (Pune)

We can see that, all T, R, P, and Q live in odd numbered floor and thus forms a group.

S does not belong to that group.

Who among the following lives to the east of T?

((a))
The one who is from Agra
((b))
U
((c))
R
((d))
The one who is from Pune
((e))
No one

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T and U

Floors: 1, 2, and 3

Flat: X and Y

(1) P lives on an odd numbered floor in flat X. Therefore, we get two the following two cases here.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P
2
1			P

(2) The one who is from Kolkata lives immediately above U in the same flat. .

(3) S lives to the west of U.

(4) P and the one who is from Kolkata do not live on the same floor.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P			(Kolkata)
2		(Kolkata)	S	U
1	S	U	P

(5) T does not live in flat Y.

(6) There is one floor between Q and the one who is from Delhi who lives above Q. Since, only flat Y of floor 3 is left for Q in case (I), case (I) eliminates here.

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	(Kolkata)
2	S	U
1	P	Q

(7) Neither S nor Q is from Bangalore.

(8) U is either from Pune or from Agra (implies, P is from Bangalore).

(9) The one who is from Mumbai lives on the same floor on which the one who is from Agra lives (implies, S is from Mumbai and U is from Agra). Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	R (Kolkata)
2	S (Mumbai)	U (Agra)
1	P (Bangalore)	Q (Pune)

R lives to the east of T.

Who lives on the bottom most floor?

((a))
The one who is from Pune
((b))
U
((c))
P
((d))
S
((e))
Both 1 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both 1 and 3

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T and U

Floors: 1, 2, and 3

Flat: X and Y

(1) P lives on an odd numbered floor in flat X. Therefore, we get two the following two cases here.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P
2
1			P

(2) The one who is from Kolkata lives immediately above U in the same flat. .

(3) S lives to the west of U.

(4) P and the one who is from Kolkata do not live on the same floor.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P			(Kolkata)
2		(Kolkata)	S	U
1	S	U	P

(5) T does not live in flat Y.

(6) There is one floor between Q and the one who is from Delhi who lives above Q. Since, only flat Y of floor 3 is left for Q in case (I), case (I) eliminates here.

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	(Kolkata)
2	S	U
1	P	Q

(7) Neither S nor Q is from Bangalore.

(8) U is either from Pune or from Agra (implies, P is from Bangalore).

(9) The one who is from Mumbai lives on the same floor on which the one who is from Agra lives (implies, S is from Mumbai and U is from Agra). Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	R (Kolkata)
2	S (Mumbai)	U (Agra)
1	P (Bangalore)	Q (Pune)

The one who is from Pune and P both live on bottom most floors.

Which of the following combination is the correct?

((a))
T - Mumbai
((b))
Q - Delhi
((c))
Q - Banglore
((d))
S - Mumbai
((e))
R - Agra

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

S - Mumbai

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T and U

Floors: 1, 2, and 3

Flat: X and Y

(1) P lives on an odd numbered floor in flat X. Therefore, we get two the following two cases here.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P
2
1			P

(2) The one who is from Kolkata lives immediately above U in the same flat. .

(3) S lives to the west of U.

(4) P and the one who is from Kolkata do not live on the same floor.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P			(Kolkata)
2		(Kolkata)	S	U
1	S	U	P

(5) T does not live in flat Y.

(6) There is one floor between Q and the one who is from Delhi who lives above Q. Since, only flat Y of floor 3 is left for Q in case (I), case (I) eliminates here.

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	(Kolkata)
2	S	U
1	P	Q

(7) Neither S nor Q is from Bangalore.

(8) U is either from Pune or from Agra (implies, P is from Bangalore).

(9) The one who is from Mumbai lives on the same floor on which the one who is from Agra lives (implies, S is from Mumbai and U is from Agra). Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	R (Kolkata)
2	S (Mumbai)	U (Agra)
1	P (Bangalore)	Q (Pune)

S - Agra is the correct combination.

Who among the following lives in Flat Y?

((a))
P
((b))
T
((c))
S
((d))
Q
((e))
The one who lives in Delhi

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T and U

Floors: 1, 2, and 3

Flat: X and Y

(1) P lives on an odd numbered floor in flat X. Therefore, we get two the following two cases here.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P
2
1			P

(2) The one who is from Kolkata lives immediately above U in the same flat. .

(3) S lives to the west of U.

(4) P and the one who is from Kolkata do not live on the same floor.

	Case (I)	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	P			(Kolkata)
2		(Kolkata)	S	U
1	S	U	P

(5) T does not live in flat Y.

(6) There is one floor between Q and the one who is from Delhi who lives above Q. Since, only flat Y of floor 3 is left for Q in case (I), case (I) eliminates here.

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	(Kolkata)
2	S	U
1	P	Q

(7) Neither S nor Q is from Bangalore.

(8) U is either from Pune or from Agra (implies, P is from Bangalore).

(9) The one who is from Mumbai lives on the same floor on which the one who is from Agra lives (implies, S is from Mumbai and U is from Agra). Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

	Case (II)
Floor	Flat - X	Flat - Y
3	T (Delhi)	R (Kolkata)
2	S (Mumbai)	U (Agra)
1	P (Bangalore)	Q (Pune)

Q lives in Flat - Y.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

In a grocery shop ten different boxes are stacked one above another and each box contains different grocery items i.e. rice, oats, salt, wheat flour, jaggery, lentils, sugar, pasta, maida and almonds but not necessarily in the same order. The box at the bottom is numbered one and so on.

Wheat flour is kept at even numbered position above position four. Number of boxes between wheat flour and sugar is same as that of the almonds and jaggery. Pasta box is kept at position four. Rice is not kept at position two. One box is kept between wheat flour and oats. Two boxes are kept between pasta and maida, and maida is not kept at the position seven. Lentils is kept above rice. Lentils is not kept above oats. Jaggery is immediately below pasta. Two boxes are between wheat flour and almonds. Sugar is kept below wheat flour.

How many boxes are there between Rice and Lentils boxes?

((a))
2
((b))
5
((c))
3
((d))
1
((e))
none

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Wheat flour is kept at even numbered position above position four.

Pasta box is kept at position four.

Jaggery is immediately below pasta.

Box Position	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10			Wheat flour
9
8		Wheat flour
7
6	Wheat flour
5
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are between wheat flour and almonds

Number of boxes between wheat flour and sugar is same as that of the almonds and jaggery.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated and we have one more case i.e. case 2(a)

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar		Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour
7			Almonds
6		Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are kept between pasta and maida, and maida is not kept at the position seven.

One box is kept between wheat flour and oats.

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar	Oats	Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7			Almonds
6	Oats	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1	Maida	Maida	Maida

Sugar is kept below wheat flour.

Lentils is kept above rice.

Lentils is not kept above oats

From these clues, case 2 gets eliminated.

Box Position	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)	Case 2(c)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product	Product
10	Oats	Oats	Oats	Wheat flour
9		Lentils	Lentils
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7	Lentils		Rice	Almonds
6	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds	Almonds	Lentils
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2	Rice	Rice		Rice
1	Maida	Maida	Maida	Maida

Rice is not kept at position two.

Hence, case 2(a), case 2(b) and case 3 also get eliminated. Now we have only case 2(c)

So the final arrangement

Box Position	Product
10	Oats
9	Lentils
8	Wheat flour
7	Rice
6	Sugar
5	Almonds
4	Pasta
3	Jaggery
2	Salt
1	Maida

There is one box between rice and lentils box.

Which of the following box is placed immediately below Oats?

((a))
Lentils
((b))
Wheat flour
((c))
Maida
((d))
Pasta
((e))
Salt

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Lentils

Wheat flour is kept at even numbered position above position four.

Pasta box is kept at position four.

Jaggery is immediately below pasta.

Box Position	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10			Wheat flour
9
8		Wheat flour
7
6	Wheat flour
5
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are between wheat flour and almonds

Number of boxes between wheat flour and sugar is same as that of the almonds and jaggery.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated and we have one more case i.e. case 2(a)

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar		Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour
7			Almonds
6		Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are kept between pasta and maida, and maida is not kept at the position seven.

One box is kept between wheat flour and oats.

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar	Oats	Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7			Almonds
6	Oats	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1	Maida	Maida	Maida

Sugar is kept below wheat flour.

Lentils is kept above rice.

Lentils is not kept above oats

From these clues, case 2 gets eliminated.

Box Position	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)	Case 2(c)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product	Product
10	Oats	Oats	Oats	Wheat flour
9		Lentils	Lentils
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7	Lentils		Rice	Almonds
6	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds	Almonds	Lentils
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2	Rice	Rice		Rice
1	Maida	Maida	Maida	Maida

Rice is not kept at position two.

Hence, case 2(a), case 2(b) and case 3 also get eliminated. Now we have only case 2(c)

So the final arrangement

Box Position	Product
10	Oats
9	Lentils
8	Wheat flour
7	Rice
6	Sugar
5	Almonds
4	Pasta
3	Jaggery
2	Salt
1	Maida

Lentils box is placed immediately below Oats.

_____ box placed three boxes away from Jaggery box.

((a))
Salt
((b))
Oats
((c))
Sugar
((d))
Almonds
((e))
Rice

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Sugar

Wheat flour is kept at even numbered position above position four.

Pasta box is kept at position four.

Jaggery is immediately below pasta.

Box Position	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10			Wheat flour
9
8		Wheat flour
7
6	Wheat flour
5
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are between wheat flour and almonds

Number of boxes between wheat flour and sugar is same as that of the almonds and jaggery.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated and we have one more case i.e. case 2(a)

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar		Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour
7			Almonds
6		Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are kept between pasta and maida, and maida is not kept at the position seven.

One box is kept between wheat flour and oats.

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar	Oats	Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7			Almonds
6	Oats	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1	Maida	Maida	Maida

Sugar is kept below wheat flour.

Lentils is kept above rice.

Lentils is not kept above oats

From these clues, case 2 gets eliminated.

Box Position	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)	Case 2(c)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product	Product
10	Oats	Oats	Oats	Wheat flour
9		Lentils	Lentils
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7	Lentils		Rice	Almonds
6	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds	Almonds	Lentils
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2	Rice	Rice		Rice
1	Maida	Maida	Maida	Maida

Rice is not kept at position two.

Hence, case 2(a), case 2(b) and case 3 also get eliminated. Now we have only case 2(c)

So the final arrangement

Box Position	Product
10	Oats
9	Lentils
8	Wheat flour
7	Rice
6	Sugar
5	Almonds
4	Pasta
3	Jaggery
2	Salt
1	Maida

Sugar box placed three boxes away from Jaggery box.

The box which is placed at position 7 contains which of the following grocery?

((a))
Oats
((b))
Lentils
((c))
Pasta
((d))
Jaggery
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of the above

Wheat flour is kept at even numbered position above position four.

Pasta box is kept at position four.

Jaggery is immediately below pasta.

Box Position	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10			Wheat flour
9
8		Wheat flour
7
6	Wheat flour
5
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are between wheat flour and almonds

Number of boxes between wheat flour and sugar is same as that of the almonds and jaggery.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated and we have one more case i.e. case 2(a)

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar		Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour
7			Almonds
6		Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are kept between pasta and maida, and maida is not kept at the position seven.

One box is kept between wheat flour and oats.

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar	Oats	Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7			Almonds
6	Oats	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1	Maida	Maida	Maida

Sugar is kept below wheat flour.

Lentils is kept above rice.

Lentils is not kept above oats

From these clues, case 2 gets eliminated.

Box Position	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)	Case 2(c)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product	Product
10	Oats	Oats	Oats	Wheat flour
9		Lentils	Lentils
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7	Lentils		Rice	Almonds
6	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds	Almonds	Lentils
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2	Rice	Rice		Rice
1	Maida	Maida	Maida	Maida

Rice is not kept at position two.

Hence, case 2(a), case 2(b) and case 3 also get eliminated. Now we have only case 2(c)

So the final arrangement

Box Position	Product
10	Oats
9	Lentils
8	Wheat flour
7	Rice
6	Sugar
5	Almonds
4	Pasta
3	Jaggery
2	Salt
1	Maida

The box which is placed at position 7 contains Rice.

Four of the five are alike in a certain way as per a given arrangement and thus formed a group. Find the one who does not belong to the group?

((a))
Almonds
((b))
Lentils
((c))
Jaggery
((d))
Wheat flour
((e))
Rice

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Wheat flour

Wheat flour is kept at even numbered position above position four.

Pasta box is kept at position four.

Jaggery is immediately below pasta.

Box Position	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10			Wheat flour
9
8		Wheat flour
7
6	Wheat flour
5
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are between wheat flour and almonds

Number of boxes between wheat flour and sugar is same as that of the almonds and jaggery.

With these clues, case 1 will be eliminated and we have one more case i.e. case 2(a)

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar		Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour
7			Almonds
6		Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1

Two boxes are kept between pasta and maida, and maida is not kept at the position seven.

One box is kept between wheat flour and oats.

Box Position	Case 2	Case 2(a)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product
10	Sugar	Oats	Wheat flour
9
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7			Almonds
6	Oats	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2
1	Maida	Maida	Maida

Sugar is kept below wheat flour.

Lentils is kept above rice.

Lentils is not kept above oats

From these clues, case 2 gets eliminated.

Box Position	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)	Case 2(c)	Case 3
Product	Product	Product	Product
10	Oats	Oats	Oats	Wheat flour
9		Lentils	Lentils
8	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Wheat flour	Oats
7	Lentils		Rice	Almonds
6	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar	Sugar
5	Almonds	Almonds	Almonds	Lentils
4	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta	Pasta
3	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery	Jaggery
2	Rice	Rice		Rice
1	Maida	Maida	Maida	Maida

Rice is not kept at position two.

Hence, case 2(a), case 2(b) and case 3 also get eliminated. Now we have only case 2(c)

So the final arrangement

Box Position	Product
10	Oats
9	Lentils
8	Wheat flour
7	Rice
6	Sugar
5	Almonds
4	Pasta
3	Jaggery
2	Salt
1	Maida

All except wheat flour placed at odd number position and wheat flour box placed at even number position.

Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

What does the code 'Nova' mean?

((a))
Is
((b))
Blunt
((c))
Black
((d))
Bad
((e))
Trauma

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

Nova is the code for Is.

What is the code for Trauma?

((a))
Kami
((b))
Boku
((c))
Nova
((d))
Piko
((e))
Kuro

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Boku

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

The code for Trauma is Boku.

What is the code for Box?

((a))
Suzo
((b))
Bibi
((c))
Piko
((d))
Poka
((e))
Can not be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Can not be determined

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

The code for Box can not be determined.

What does the code 'Piko' stand for?

((a))
Energy
((b))
Posh
((c))
Blunt
((d))
Bad
((e))
Is

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Bad

Given statement:

“Blunt Force Trauma” is coded as “Boku Faki Kami”

“Black Force Energy” is coded as “Suzo Faki Kuro”

“Black Posh Box” is coded as “Bibi Poka Kuro”

“Black Is Blunt” is coded as “Kami Nova Kuro”

“Trauma Is Bad” is coded as “Piko Nova Boku”

We get:

Blunt – Kami

Force – Faki

Trauma – Boku

Black – Kuro

Is – Nova

The codes for ‘Energy’, and ‘Bad’ is determined by elimination, i.e. all the other codes in the sentence are determined:

Energy - Suzo

Bad – Piko

We can not clearly determine the codes for ‘Posh’ and ‘Box’:

Posh – Poka/Bibi

Box – Bibi/Poka

Piko is the code for Bad.

A girl walks 4 km towards the south. Then she turns towards the west and walks 13 km. After this, she turns towards the south and walks 3 km. again she turns towards the West and walks 11 km. Considering the minimum distance, how far is she from the starting point?

((a))
25 km
((b))
31 km
((c))
12 km
((d))
15 km
((e))
30 km

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

25 km

Given,

A girl walks 4 km towards the south.

AB = 4

She turns towards the west and walks 13 km.

BC = 13

BC = DF = 13

She turns towards the south and walks 3 km.

CD = 3

CD = BF = 3

She turns towards the East and walks 11 km.

DE = 11

So,

Final destination of a girl is at point E which is the Southwest of point A (Starting point).

We use Pythagoras theorem to find distance between A and E.

H² = P² + B²

H = AE, P = AF, B = EF

AF = AB + BF

AF = 4 + 3

AF = 7,

EF = ED + DF

EF = 11 + 13

EF = 24,

Now,

(AE)² = (AF)² + (EF)²

(AE)² = 7² + 24²

(AE)² = 49 + 576

(AE)² = 625

AE = √625

AE = 25

25 km is the correct answer.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Nine persons - E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M are working in a MNC company, but not necessarily in the same order . All are posted on different designations namely Managing director (MD), Chief executive officer (CEO), Chief operating officer (COO), Chief financial officer (CFO), Chief technological officer (CTO), Chief marketing officer (CMO), Chief legal officer (CLO), Executive and Manager. Managing director being the senior most position and manager being the lowest position respectively. No person or designation other than the one mentioned in the passage will be taken into consideration.

G who is not at the senior most nor at the junior most position has his designation higher than CFO. K who is working as an executive is exactly between I and H. Three designations are there between CEO and E. Three designations are there between F and the one who is CTO. The person who is CEO is three posts above M. I is at one of the positions senior to H. L is not CEO of the company and neither immediately junior to him. J is senior to the one who is designated as COO.

How many persons are designated between the one who is Chief technological officer CTO and H?

((a))
Two
((b))
Four
((c))
Three
((d))
Five
((e))
One

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Three

Given

Nine persons - E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M

Nine designations - Managing director (MD), Chief executive officer (CEO), Chief operating officer (COO), Chief financial officer (CFO), Chief technological officer (CTO), Chief marketing officer (CMO), Chief legal officer (CLO), Executive and Manager.

Now,

G who is not at the senior most nor at the junior most position has his designation higher than CFO.
K who is working as an executive is exactly between I and H. Three designations are there between CEO and E.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO
CMO	E	E
CLO	I/H	I/H
Executive	K	K
Manager	H/I	H/I

Three designations are there between F and the one who is CTO. The person who is CEO is three posts above M.
I is at one of the positions senior to H

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

L is not CEO of the company and neither immediately junior to him. J is senior to the one who is designated as COO.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

As the statement says J is senior to the one who is designated as COO, but in CASE 2 we have only one position left which is of COO so CASE 2 gets eliminated and we have the final arrangement in CASE 1

DESIGNATION	PERSON
MD	F
CEO	J
COO	G
CFO	L
CTO	M
CMO	E
CLO	I
Executive	K
Manager	H

The correct answer is "three".

The position of how many people will remain unchanged if all are made to sit in an alphabetical order starting from MD?

((a))
One
((b))
None
((c))
Two
((d))
Three
((e))
Four

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

One

Given

Nine persons - E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M

Nine designations - Managing director (MD), Chief executive officer (CEO), Chief operating officer (COO), Chief financial officer (CFO), Chief technological officer (CTO), Chief marketing officer (CMO), Chief legal officer (CLO), Executive and Manager.

Now,

G who is not at the senior most nor at the junior most position has his designation higher than CFO.
K who is working as an executive is exactly between I and H. Three designations are there between CEO and E.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO
CMO	E	E
CLO	I/H	I/H
Executive	K	K
Manager	H/I	H/I

Three designations are there between F and the one who is CTO. The person who is CEO is three posts above M.
I is at one of the positions senior to H

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

L is not CEO of the company and neither immediately junior to him. J is senior to the one who is designated as COO.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

DESIGNATION	PERSON
MD	F
CEO	J
COO	G
CFO	L
CTO	M
CMO	E
CLO	I
Executive	K
Manager	H

Rearranging as per alphabetical order

DESIGNATION	PERSON
MD	E
CEO	F
COO	G
CFO	H
CTO	I
CMO	J
CLO	K
Executive	L
Manager	M

The correct answer is "One".

If we interchange the position of the one who is Chief operating officer (COO) and Chief legal officer (CLO) . Then how many persons are there between L and G

((a))
Zero
((b))
Three
((c))
Two
((d))
Four
((e))
One

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Two

Given

Nine persons - E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M

Now,

G who is not at the senior most nor at the junior most position has his designation higher than CFO.
K who is working as an executive is exactly between I and H. Three designations are there between CEO and E.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO
CMO	E	E
CLO	I/H	I/H
Executive	K	K
Manager	H/I	H/I

Three designations are there between F and the one who is CTO. The person who is CEO is three posts above M.
I is at one of the positions senior to H

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

L is not CEO of the company and neither immediately junior to him. J is senior to the one who is designated as COO.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

DESIGNATION	PERSON
MD	F
CEO	J
COO	G
CFO	L
CTO	M
CMO	E
CLO	I
Executive	K
Manager	H

The correct answer is "two".

Who among the following is the immediate senior to the one who is four positions senior to H?

((a))
L
((b))
J
((c))
M
((d))
G
((e))
Both L and J

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Given

Nine persons - E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M

Now,

G who is not at the senior most nor at the junior most position has his designation higher than CFO.
K who is working as an executive is exactly between I and H. Three designations are there between CEO and E.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO
CMO	E	E
CLO	I/H	I/H
Executive	K	K
Manager	H/I	H/I

Three designations are there between F and the one who is CTO. The person who is CEO is three posts above M.
I is at one of the positions senior to H

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

L is not CEO of the company and neither immediately junior to him. J is senior to the one who is designated as COO.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

DESIGNATION	PERSON
MD	F
CEO	J
COO	G
CFO	L
CTO	M
CMO	E
CLO	I
Executive	K
Manager	H

The correct answer is "two".

Who sits exactly between the one who is Manager and G?

((a))
M
((b))
I
((c))
CFO
((d))
CLO
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Given

Nine persons - E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M

Now,

G who is not at the senior most nor at the junior most position has his designation higher than CFO.
K who is working as an executive is exactly between I and H. Three designations are there between CEO and E.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO
CMO	E	E
CLO	I/H	I/H
Executive	K	K
Manager	H/I	H/I

Three designations are there between F and the one who is CTO. The person who is CEO is three posts above M.
I is at one of the positions senior to H

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

L is not CEO of the company and neither immediately junior to him. J is senior to the one who is designated as COO.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DESIGNATION	PERSON	PERSON
MD	F	F
CEO		G
COO	G
CFO
CTO	M	M
CMO	E	E
CLO	I	I
Executive	K	K
Manager	H	H

DESIGNATION	PERSON
MD	F
CEO	J
COO	G
CFO	L
CTO	M
CMO	E
CLO	I
Executive	K
Manager	H

The correct answer is "two".

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Apple are Kiwi.

Some Kiwi are not Banana

Some Banana are Papaya.

Conclusions:

I. Some Papaya can be Apple.

II. Some Kiwi are not Papaya.

((a))
Only I follows
((b))
Only II follows
((c))
Either I or II follows
((d))
Both I and II follow
((e))
Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows -

Conclusions:

I. Some Papaya can be Apple. → True (It is possible that Some Papaya are Apple as there is no direct relation given between them. So, it follows.)

II. Some Kiwi are not Papaya. → False (It is possible that All Kiwi are Papaya as there is no direct relation given between them. So, it doesn't follow.)

The correct answer is Only I follows.

Statements:

All Duster are Chalk.

Only a few Chalk are Table.

Some Chair are Duster.

Conclusions:

I. Some Duster are Table.

II. All Table can be Chalk.

((a))
Only II follows
((b))
Only I follows
((c))
Either I or II follows
((d))
Neither I nor II follows
((e))
Both I and II follow

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only II follows

.The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows -

Conclusions:

I. Some Duster are Table. → False (It is possible but not definite as there is no direct relation given between them. So, it doesn't follow.)

II. All Table can be Chalk. → True (Only a few Chalk are Table means Some Chalk are Table and Some Chalk are not Table. But it is possible that All Table are Chalk. So, it follows.)

The correct answer is Only II follows.

Statements:

All right are wrong.

Some wrong are bad.

Only a few good are right.

Conclusions:

I. No right is bad.

II. Some good can be wrong.

((a))
Only I follows
((b))
Only II follows
((c))
Either I or II follows
((d))
Neither I nor II follows
((e))
Both I and II follow

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Neither I nor II follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows -

Conclusions:

I. No right is bad. → False (It is possible but not definite as there is no negative or direct relation given between them. So, it doesn't follow.)

II. Some good can be wrong. → False (It is definite that Some good are wrong, so the possibility does not follow.)

The correct answer is Neither I nor II follows.

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Gold is Silver.

Only a few Silver is Diamond.

No Diamond is Platinum.

Conclusions:

I. Some Gold can be Diamonds.

II. All Diamonds are Silver.

III. Some Platinum can never be Silver.

((a))
Only I follows
((b))
Only II follows
((c))
Both I and II follow
((d))
All follow
((e))
Both I and III follow

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows -

Conclusions:

I. Some Gold can be Diamonds. → True (As there is no direct or negative relation given between Gold and Diamond, it is possible that Some Gold is Diamonds. Hence, it follows.)

II. All Diamonds are Silver. → False (Only a few Silver is Diamonds means Some Silver is Diamond and Some Silver is not Diamond. But it is possible that All Diamonds are Silver. But again, it is possible not definite. Hence, it doesn't follow.)

III. Some Platinum can never be Silver. → False (Some Platinum can never be Silver means Some Platinum is not Silver. But it is possible that All Platinum is Silver as there is no negative or direct relation given Platinum and Silver. Hence, it doesn't follow.)

The correct answer is Only I follow.

Directions:- Study the following information carefully and answer the Questions based on it:

There are eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H - sitting around a circular table, not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing inward, while the other four are facing outward. No two persons sitting adjacent to each other are facing the same direction (i.e., if one person is facing inside, the person sitting next to them will be facing outside, and vice versa). B sits third to the right of A and is facing outside. Three people are sitting between B and C. D sits second to the right of B. E sits third to the left of D. H is sitting exactly opposite to G, who is not the immediate neighbor of either F or C. F is not facing inside.

Who is sitting to the immediate right of G?

((a))
D
((b))
B
((c))
A
((d))
C
((e))
H

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

B sits third to the right of A and is facing outside.
Three people are sitting between B and C. D sits second to the right of B. E sits third to the left of D.

H is sitting exactly opposite to G, who is not the immediate neighbor of either F or C. Case1 and Case 2a gets invalid as there is no place to place H and G. 4. F is not facing inside. It means F is facing outside.

B is sitting immediate right of G

How many people are sitting between E and G counting from right of G?

((a))
Zero
((b))
Two
((c))
One
((d))
Five
((e))
Six

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

One

B sits third to the right of A and is facing outside.
Three people are sitting between B and C. D sits second to the right of B. E sits third to the left of D.

H is sitting exactly opposite to G, who is not the immediate neighbor of either F or C. Case1 and Case 2a gets invalid as there is no place to place H and G. 4. F is not facing inside. It means F is facing outside.

One person sit between E and G counting from right of G.

Which of the following statement is Correct?

((a))
G and F faces in same direction
((b))
D and H faces in opposite direction
((c))
E and B faces in same direction
((d))
D and F faces in opposite direction
((e))
None of the given statement is Correct

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

D and H faces in opposite direction

B sits third to the right of A and is facing outside.
Three people are sitting between B and C. D sits second to the right of B. E sits third to the left of D.

H is sitting exactly opposite to G, who is not the immediate neighbor of either F or C. Case1 and Case 2a gets invalid as there is no place to place H and G. 4. F is not facing inside. It means F is facing outside.

D and H faces in opposite direction is the correct statement.

Who is sitting third to the right of C?

((a))
E
((b))
F
((c))
H
((d))
G
((e))
D

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

B sits third to the right of A and is facing outside.
Three people are sitting between B and C. D sits second to the right of B. E sits third to the left of D.

H is sitting exactly opposite to G, who is not the immediate neighbor of either F or C. Case1 and Case 2a gets invalid as there is no place to place H and G. 4. F is not facing inside. It means F is facing outside.

E is third to the right of C.

If you arrange the persons in alphabetical order starting from A in clockwise direction, who will be sitting fifth to the right of B?

((a))
D
((b))
C
((c))
G
((d))
H
((e))
A

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

B sits third to the right of A and is facing outside.
Three people are sitting between B and C. D sits second to the right of B. E sits third to the left of D.

H is sitting exactly opposite to G, who is not the immediate neighbor of either F or C. Case1 and Case 2a gets invalid as there is no place to place H and G. 4. F is not facing inside. It means F is facing outside.

After rearrangement:

G is fifth to the right of B.

If all the vowels are replaced by immediate next letter and all the consonants are replaced by immediate previous letters of the word "BACKSPACE" and then the letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, then which of the following letter will be fourth from the right end?

((a))
B
((b))
F
((c))
J
((d))
A
((e))
R

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given: BACKSPACE

Step 1: The vowels are replaced by the immediate next letter and all the consonants are replaced by immediate previous letters.

ABBJROBBF

Step 2: All letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right.

ABBBBFJOR

Then, F letter will be fourth from the right end.

If it is possible to make only one meaningful 3-letter English word with the 4^th, 6^th and 9^th letters of the word 'DISTINGUISH', which of the following will be the first letter from the left end of that word? If no such word can be made give 'Y' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made give 'X' as the answer.

((a))
N
((b))
X
((c))
Y
((d))
T
((e))
I

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given word: DISTINGUISH

4th, 6th and 9^th letter of the word DISTINGUISH is: T, N and I

Combining and un-jumbling the letters we get: TIN and NIT

Since 2 words are possible from the letters.

The answer is X.

Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

An uncertain number of person are standing in a row facing south. Anurag stands at one of the end of a row. As many person standing between Amit and Sanket as between Sagar and Amit. Eight person standing between Sagar and Bhanu. Only one person stands between Anurag and Sagar. Bhanu is standing third from one of the end of the row. Akash is sitting fifth to the right of Amit. More than six person standing between Anurag and Sanket. Not more than five person are standing between Bhanu and Akash.

What is the position of a Amit with respect to Sagar?

((a))
Third to the left
((b))
Immediate left
((c))
Immediate right
((d))
Third to the right
((e))
Second to the right

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Third to the right

1) Anurag stands one at the end of a row.

2) Only one person standing between Anurag and Sagar.

3) Eight person standing between Sagar and Bhanu.

4) Bhanu is standing third from one of the end.

5) As many person standing between Amit and Sanket as between Sagar and Amit.

6) Akash is standing fifth to the right of Amit.

7) More than six-person standing between Anurag and Sanket.

8) Not more than five person standing between Bhanu and Akash.

Case 1(B) not follows because no place for Akash.

Case 2 is not follows because there is no place for Amit,Sanket and Akash.

So, Case 1(A) is a final arrangement.

The final arrangement is :

Amit is sitting third to the right of a Sagar.

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

Which of the following is a non-volatile memory?

((a))
RAM
((b))
DRAM
((c))
Secondary Memory
((d))
SRAM
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Secondary Memory

The correct answer is Secondary Memory

Key Points The term "non-volatile memory" refers to a kind of memory that can retain stored data even when not powered. Based on the options you've provided:

RAM (Random Access Memory) - Volatile
DRAM (Dynamic RAM) - Volatile
Secondary Memory - Typically Non-Volatile (includes hard drives, SSDs, etc.)
SRAM (Static RAM) - Volatile

Given the options, the correct answer is: Secondary Memory

Which of the following is a valid Email Address

((a))
www.learn.com
((b))
abc.com
((c))
india.org
((d))
[email protected]
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

[email protected]

The correct answer is [email protected].

Key Points

An email address consists of 2 parts separated by a symbol.
A valid email address is an address composed of two parts, a username, and a domain name, separated by the '@' symbol.
For example, in the email [email protected], “vikram” is the username, and “testbook.com” is the domain.

Additional Information

A domain name refers to your website address.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the size of the storage units?

((a))
Terabyte < Petabyte < Exabyte < Zettabyte
((b))
Petabyte < Exabyte < Zettabyte < Terabyte
((c))
Exabyte < Zettabyte < Terabyte < Petabyte
((d))
Zettabyte < Exabyte < Petabyte < Terabyte
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Terabyte < Petabyte < Exabyte < Zettabyte

The correct solution is "Terabyte< Petabyte< Exabyte< Zettabyte "

CPU consists of Memory or storage units that can store instructions, data, and intermediate results. This unit supplies information to other units of the computer when needed. It is also known as an internal storage unit or the main memory or primary storage or Random Access Memory (RAM).

Key Points

Storage capacity is expressed in terms of Bytes. The data is represented as binary digits. (0s and1s).
Hierarchy is as follows:
Bit < Nibble < Byte < KB < MB < GB < TB < PB < XB < ZB < YB

where KB stands for kilobyte

MB stands for megabyte
GB stands for gigabyte
TB stands for terabyte
PB stands for petabyte
XB stands for exabyte
ZB stands for zetabyte
YB stands for yottabyte

Additional Information

4 bit = 1 Nibble

8 bit = 1 byte

1024 byte = 1 KB

1024 KB = 1MB

1024 MB = 1GB

1024 GB = 1TB

1024 TB = 1PB

1024 PB = 1XB

1024 XB = 1ZB

1024 ZB = 1YB

The input device scanner resembles to ____________.

((a))
Typing machine
((b))
Photocopy machine
((c))
Projector
((d))
DVD
((e))
Monitor

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Photocopy machine

The correct answer is the photocopy machine.

Key Points

The scanner is recognized as an input device of the computer system.
The scanner scans any document, pictures, or other files and captured the exact images of those, and stored them in the memory of the computer. The system can simply access those images as per the requirement.
Scanner kept the scanned documents in image format in the system.

Thus the correct answer is the photocopy machine.

Additional Information

The scanner converts physical documents (hard copies) into digital documents (soft copies).
The scanner is reliable, efficient, and a cost saver.

The area of microprocessor are used to temporarily store instructions and data?

((a))
Register
((b))
ALU
((c))
Accumulator
((d))
Cache memory
((e))
Interrupt control

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Cache memory

Cache memory of microprocessor is used to store temporary instructions and data. This memory is the smallest memory in the computer.

Which is NOT an input device?

((a))
Touchscreen
((b))
Keyboard
((c))
Mouse
((d))
camera
((e))
Plotter

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Plotter

Explanation:

Some commonly used Input/Output devices are listed in the table below.

Input Devices	Output Devices
Keyboard	Monitor
Mouse	LCD
Joystick	Printer
Scanner	Plotter
Light Pen
Touch Screen

Input device:

An input device is a piece of hardware used to provide data to a computer used for interaction and control. It allows the input of raw data to the computer for processing.
Some of the input devices are
Keyboard: Keyboard is one of the primary input devices used to input data and commands. It has function keys, control keys, arrow keys, a keypad, and the keyboard itself with the letters, numbers, and commands.
Mouse: It is an input device used to control the cursor and coordinates. It can be wired or wireless.
Microphone: It is an input device that allows users to input audio into their computers.
Scanner: It is an input device that reads an image and converts it into a digital file. A scanner is connected to a computer through a USB.
Touchscreen: It is an input device that allows users to interact with a computer using their fingers. It is used widely in laptop monitors, smartphones, tablets, cash registers, and information kiosks.
Plotter: The plotter is the computer's output device that could print graphics as well as accommodate full-size engineering and architectural drawings. Using multiple colored pens, plotters were also able to print in color long before inkjet printers became an alternative.

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to create a blank presentation in MS PowerPoint 2007?

((a))
Ctrl + M
((b))
Alt + M
((c))
Ctrl + N
((d))
Ctrl + Alt + N
((e))
Ctrl + V

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + N

The correct option is (3)

Ctrl +N

Key Points

Ctrl + N in Microsoft PowerPoint creates a brand-new, empty slide deck in a separate window of the software.
To add a new slide to the existing presentation, we can use the shortcut Ctrl + M. Below the slide that is now open, a new slide will be added.
Using Alt + M in MS Word brings up Ribbon's Mailings tab. After using this shortcut, you can choose a Mailings tab choice by pressing a different key. For instance, you can hit S to reveal the Start Mail Merge option after pressing Alt + M.

Additional Information Construct a presentation.

Activate PowerPoint.
Choose New from the left pane.
Choose an option: Choose Blank Presentation to start from scratch when making a presentation. Choose one of the templates if you want to use a ready-made design. Choose to Take a Tour, then choose to Create to get some PowerPoint pointers.

Ctrl+Shift+N

Enables Google Chrome to open a file from your computer. opens the connection behind the scenes in a new tab. Changes to the newly opened tab after the link is opened in a new tab. Opens a new window with the link.

By default, MS-PowerPoint 365 presentations are saved with which of the following extensions?

((a))
.xps
((b))
.pptm
((c))
.pptx
((d))
.ppt
((e))
.ptx

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

.pptx

The correct answer is .pptx

Key Points

By default, PowerPoint presentations in MS PowerPoint 365, or any version since 2007, are saved with the .pptx extension.

.pptx stands for PowerPoint Open XML Presentation, which is a collection of slides for presentation. This format introduces a more efficient and open standard for data and document presentation as compared to the older binary file formats.
The 'x' in .pptx signifies that the file format is an XML (eXtensible Markup Language) file, and it represents the transition from older binary formats (.ppt) to the newer, more robust XML-based file formats. The new file format offers a smaller file size and better recovery of corrupted files compared to the older formats.
Here is a breakdown of the different extensions mentioned in the question:
.xps: This is a document management format similar to .pdf developed by Microsoft. It's not specific to PowerPoint.
.pptm: This is a PowerPoint presentation that contains macros—automated inputs for repetitive tasks. If a presentation does not include any macros, it would typically not be saved with the .pptm extension unless the user explicitly chooses to do so.
.pptx: This is the default file format for saving presentations in PowerPoint 2007 and later versions, including PowerPoint 365. It does not support macros.
.ppt: This is the default file format for PowerPoint 2003 and earlier versions. PowerPoint 2007 and later versions, including PowerPoint 365, can still open and save .ppt files, but it's no longer the default file format.

When a word file is saved, the default file extension for it is ____.

((a))
WRD
((b))
TXT
((c))
DOC
((d))
FIL
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

DOC

The default extension for any MS word file is “.doc”. Although in newer versions, the file extension “.docx” can also be seen. This file extension can be changed by using the “save as” option.

Which is not used in laser printers?

((a))
Liquid Ink
((b))
Semiconductor diode laser
((c))
light source
((d))
Toner cartridges
((e))
Powder-based ink

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Liquid Ink

The correct answer is Liquid Ink

Key Points

Unlike dot matrix and inkjet printers, laser printers do not use Liquid ink when producing a document.

What is a blockchain?

((a))
A blockchain is a centralized digital ledger consisting of records called blocks.
((b))
A blockchain is a decentralized, distributed, digital ledger consisting of records called blocks.
((c))
A blockchain is a digital database consisting of records called class.
((d))
It is a private ledger that no one can inspect.
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

A blockchain is a decentralized, distributed, digital ledger consisting of records called blocks.

Correct Option 2).

A blockchain is a digitally distributed, decentralized, public ledger that exists across a network.
A blockchain is a distributed database that is shared among the nodes of a computer network.
As a database, a blockchain stores information electronically in digital format.

Key Points

Blockchains are best known for their crucial role in cryptocurrency systems, such as Bitcoin, for maintaining a secure and decentralized record of transactions. The innovation with a blockchain is that it guarantees the fidelity and security of a record of data and generates trust without the need for a trusted third party.

Blockchain is a type of shared database that differs from a typical database in the way that it stores information; blockchains store data in blocks that are then linked together via cryptography.
As new data comes in, it is entered into a fresh block. Once the block is filled with data, it is chained onto the previous block, which makes the data chained together in chronological order.
Different types of information can be stored on a blockchain, but the most common use so far has been as a ledger for transactions.
In Bitcoin’s case, blockchain is used in a decentralized way so that no single person or group has control—rather, all users collectively retain control.
Decentralized blockchains are immutable, which means that the data entered is irreversible. For Bitcoin, this means that transactions are permanently recorded and viewable to anyone.

Commercial Internet service providers (ISPs) emerged in which year?

((a))
1960
((b))
1970
((c))
2000
((d))
1800
((e))
1989

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

1989

The correct answer is 1989

Key PointsCommercial Internet service providers (ISPs) began to emerge in the late 1980s. The transition from a research and government-funded network to a commercially available service happened gradually, but one key milestone was the development of the World Wide Web by Tim Berners-Lee in 1989-1990, which greatly increased the utility and appeal of the Internet to the general public and businesses. By the early 1990s, several commercial ISPs were in operation, providing access to the growing network to paying customers.

((a))
Set of capacitors used to register input instructions in a digital computer
((b))
Set of paper tapes and cards put in a file
((c))
Temporary storage unit within the CPU having dedicated or general purpose use
((d))
Part of the auxiliary memory
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Temporary storage unit within the CPU having dedicated or general purpose use

In digital electronics, especially computing, hardware registers are circuits typically composed of flip flops, often with many characteristics similar to memory, such as:

The ability to read or write multiple bits at a time, and

Using an address to select a particular register in a manner similar to a memory address.

DRAM stands for

((a))
Dynamic Read Access Memory
((b))
Dynamic Random Accumulator Memory
((c))
Dual Random Access Memory
((d))
Dynamic Random Access Memory
((e))
Dynamic Readable Access Memory

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Dynamic Random Access Memory

The correct option is (4)

Dynamic Random Access Memory

Key Points DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory. Here's a breakdown of the components of the acronym:

Dynamic: Unlike Static RAM (SRAM), which uses flip-flops to store each bit of data, DRAM uses a dynamic storage cell that needs to be refreshed thousands of times per second. This is because the information in a DRAM cell gradually fades over time.
Random Access: This refers to the ability to access any memory cell directly, without having to traverse through other cells. It means that the time taken to access a memory location is constant, regardless of the location of the data.
Access Memory: This phrase simply indicates that it's a type of computer memory used for temporary storage of data that can be quickly read from or written to by the CPU.

So, in summary, DRAM is a type of memory that allows random access to any storage location, and it needs periodic refreshing due to the dynamic nature of its storage cells.

What is DBMS?

((a))
Database Management System
((b))
Database Marketing System
((c))
Data Bank Management Software
((d))
None of these
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Database Management System

DBMS stands for Database Management System.

In Gmail, if you delete an email, it will be moved to the ________ folder.

((a))
Inbox
((b))
Trash
((c))
Outbox
((d))
Spam
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Trash

The correct option is (2)

Trash

Key Points

A message that you delete remains in your trash for 30 days. It will be permanently erased after that point.
On Gmail and Google Apps, an archived message defaults to the Archive folder or All Mail while a deleted message goes into the trash folder.
Your deleted emails can be automatically removed from your trash folder permanently depending on your email provider or company's policies (often after 30 days).
Check your Gmail inbox now. There is a list of folders on the left side of the screen (Inbox, Starred, Spam, etc). Your deleted emails will be located in a folder labeled "Trash" or "Bin" (the name of the folder depends on the user's language preferences).

Additional InformationInbox:- a location on a computer where emails sent to you are stored.

Outbox:- Without an internet connection, users can read, reply to, and delete emails. All of your emails from the outbox are immediately sent whenever you're back online. Your emails might still be sitting in Gmail's outbox if you've been using this feature.

Spam:- Email spam, commonly referred to as junk email, is the practice of sending unwanted email messages in mass to a large list of subscribers.

Which of the following is the keyboard shortcut to save the contents of the currently open Word document in MS Word 2007?

((a))
Alt + S
((b))
Shift + S
((c))
Ctrl + Alt + S
((d))
Ctrl + S
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + S

The correct option is (4)

Ctrl + S

Key Points

The options in the File menu, Save the page, or Save As page, which you can access from the normal or editing view, are included in this table along with the shortcuts for saving and renaming Microsoft 365 files using those options. Use Ctrl+S to rapidly save a file.
If you want to create a new document, change the filename, or file format, or save the file in a different location on your computer, you must save the current document first. use the Ctrl+Shift+S keyboard shortcut.
Save a Copy has taken the position of Word, Excel, and PowerPoint's Save As feature. Do the following in order to save a copy of a file: Choose File > Save a Copy. Choose a location to save the file. After entering a file name, select Save a Copy.

Additional Information

To open the slide show settings in PowerPoint, use Alt+S on the keyboard.
The system information window is opened by pressing Ctrl, Alt, and S.

_________ is an example of a math function in MS Excel.

((a))
IF
((b))
AND
((c))
COUNT
((d))
SQRT
((e))
ELSE

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

SQRT

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. SQRT.

The Excel Math Functions perform many of the common mathematical calculations, including basic arithmetic, conditional sums & products, exponents etc.
It is used to calculate values based on what is in cells, perform operations on a cell content, fetch values after an operation based on your search criteria and much more.
Mathematical Formulas in Excel are used to perform various arithmetic operations like sum, average, count, max, min etc.
The Microsoft Excel SQRT function returns the square root of a number. The SQRT function is a built-in function in Excel that is categorized as a Math/Trig Function. It can be used as a worksheet function (WS) in Excel.

Other functions in Excel.

Commands	Functions
IF	IF function in Excel checks whether a condition is met and returns one value if true and another value if false.
SUM	Excel automatically enters a formula (that uses the SUM function) to sum the numbers.
COUNT	COUNT Function to get the number of entries in a number field that is in a range or array of numbers.
AVERAGE	To perform the average formula in Excel, enter the values, cells, or range of cells of which you're calculating the average in the format, =AVERAGE(number1, number2, etc.)
AND	It is used to check more than one condition at the same time. AND function returns either TRUE or FALSE.

What is the Data Capacity of a standard size CD ROM?

((a))
650 - 700 MB
((b))
185 - 210 MB
((c))
550 - 600 MB
((d))
500 - 650 MB
((e))
900 - 1024 MB

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

650 - 700 MB

The correct answer is 650 - 700 MB.

Key Points

The data Capacity of a standard size CD ROM is 650 - 700 MB.
CD ROM- It is a compact disc used as a read-only optical memory device for a computer system.
Computers can only read but not write data on a CD ROM.

Additional Information

DVD (Digital Versatile Disc) have a storage capacity of about 4.7 GB.
A byte is a unit of information in computer storage and processing and contains 8 bits.

Data Measurement	Size
Bit	Single Binary Digit (1 or 0)
Nibble	4 bits
Byte	8 bits
Kilobyte (KB)	1,024 Bytes
Megabyte (MB)	1,024 Kilobytes
Gigabyte (GB)	1,024 Megabytes
Terabyte (TB)	1,024 Gigabytes
Petabyte (PB)	1,024 Terabytes
Exabyte (EB)	1,024 Petabytes
Zettabyte (ZB)	1,024 Exabytes
Yottabyte (YB)	1,024 Zettabytes

Which of the following is NOT a word processing software?

((a))
MS-Excel
((b))
MS-Word
((c))
WordPad
((d))
Notepad
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

MS-Excel

The correct answer is MS-Excel .

A word processor is a software package with the help of which we can create, modify, print, and save a document faster than we can create by hand.
Many documents can be merged together.
MS Excel is a spreadsheet program where one can record data in the form of tables.

Key Points

MS Excel - It works to open, create, edit, format, calculate, share and print data in tabular format.
MS Word- It works to open, create, edit, format, share and print the document, etc.
WordPad – It is available in every version of Windows. Various types of formatting can be done in a document.
Notepad- There is a simple but useful Text Editor Program that is included in every version of Microsoft Windows which helps notepad users to open, read and create plain text files.

The first mechanical computer designed by Charles Babbage was called?

((a))
Abacus
((b))
Analytical Engine
((c))
Calculator
((d))
Central processing unit (CPU)
((e))
Pascaline

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Analytical Engine

The correct answer is Analytical Engine.

Key Points

Analytical Engine generally considered the first computer, designed and partly built by the English inventor Charles Babbage in the 19th century (he worked on it until his death in 1871).
While working on the Difference Engine, a simpler calculating machine commissioned by the British government, Babbage began to imagine ways to improve it.
Chiefly he thought about generalizing its operation so that it could perform other kinds of calculations.
By the time funding ran out for his Difference Engine in 1833, he had conceived of something far more revolutionary: a general-purpose computing machine called the Analytical Engine.
The Analytical Engine was to be a general-purpose, fully program-controlled, automatic mechanical digital computer.
It would be able to perform any calculation set before it.
The machine was designed to consist of four components: the mill, the store, the reader, and the printer. These components are the essential components of every computer today.

Additional Information

Abacus:
Abacus, plural abaci or abacuses, calculating device, probably of Babylonian origin, that was long important in commerce.
It is the ancestor of the modern calculating machine and computer.
The earliest “abacus” likely was a board or slab on which a Babylonian spread sand so he could trace letters for general writing purposes.
The word abacus is probably derived, through its Greek form abakos, from a Semitic word such as the Hebrew ibeq (“to wipe the dust”; noun abaq, “dust”).
The abacus, generally in the form of a large calculating board, was in universal use in Europe in the Middle Ages, as well as in the Arab world and in Asia.
It reached Japan in the 16th century. The introduction of the Hindu-Arabic notation, with its place value and zero, gradually replaced the abacus, though it was still widely used in Europe as late as the 17th century and survives today in the Middle East, China, and Japan; an expert practitioner can compete against many modern mechanical calculating machines.
Calculator:
Calculator, machine for automatically performing arithmetical operations and certain mathematical functions.
Modern calculators are descendants of a digital arithmetic machine devised by Blaise Pascal in 1642.
Later in the 17th century, Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz created a more advanced machine, and, especially in the late 19th century, inventors produced calculating machines that were smaller and smaller and less and less laborious to use.
In the early decades of the 20th century, desktop adding machines and other calculating devices were developed. Some were key-driven, others required a rotating drum to enter sums punched into a keyboard, and later the drum was spun by an electric motor.
A central processing unit (CPU):
The central processing unit (CPU), the principal part of any digital computer system, generally composed of the main memory, control unit, and arithmetic-logic unit.
It constitutes the physical heart of the entire computer system; to it is linked various peripheral equipment, including input/output devices and auxiliary storage units.
In modern computers, the CPU is contained on an integrated circuit chip called a microprocessor.
The control unit of the central processing unit regulates and integrates the operations of the computer.
It selects and retrieves instructions from the main memory in proper sequence and interprets them so as to activate the other functional elements of the system at the appropriate moment to perform their respective operations.

What does WAN stand for?

((a))
Wired Area network
((b))
Wide area network
((c))
Wide array network
((d))
Wireless area network
((e))
Wanted area network

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Wide area network

A wide area network (WAN) is a telecommunications network or computer network that extends over a large geographical distance. Wide area networks often are established with leased telecommunication circuits

Which one of the following shortcut keys is used to underline the selected text?

((a))
Ctrl + Shift + U
((b))
Ctrl + Shift + D
((c))
Ctrl + U
((d))
Ctrl + D
((e))
Ctrl + M

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + U

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Ctrl + U.

Key Points

An underline is a section of text in a document where the words have a line running beneath them. For example, this text should be underlined. Underlined text is commonly used to help draw attention to the text.

Additional Information

Word shortcut keys

Ctrl + A -- Select all contents of the page.
Ctrl + B -- Bold highlighted selection.
Ctrl + C -- Copy selected text.
Ctrl + X -- Cut selected text.
Ctrl + N -- Open new/blank document.
Ctrl + O -- Open options.
Ctrl + P -- Open the print window.

Ctrl + F -- Open find box.
Ctrl + I -- Italicise highlighted selection.
Ctrl + K -- Insert link.
Ctrl + U -- Underline highlighted selection.
Ctrl + V -- Paste.
Ctrl + Y -- Redo the last action performed.
Ctrl + Z -- Undo last action.

Ctrl + G -- Find and replace options.
Ctrl + H -- Find and replace options.
Ctrl + J -- Justify paragraph alignment.
Ctrl + L -- Align selected text or line to the left.
Ctrl + Q -- Align selected paragraph to the left.
Ctrl + E -- Align selected text or line to the centre.
Ctrl + R -- Align selected text or line to the right.
Ctrl + M -- Indent the paragraph.

Ctrl + T -- Hanging indent.
Ctrl + D -- Font options.
Ctrl + Shift + F -- Change the font.
Ctrl + Shift + > -- Increase selected font +1.
Ctrl + ] -- Increase selected font +1.
Ctrl + [ -- Decrease selected font -1.

Ctrl + Shift + * -- View or hide non printing characters.
Ctrl + (Left arrow) -- Move one word to the left.
Ctrl + (Right arrow) -- Move one word to the right.
Ctrl + (Up arrow) -- Move to the beginning of the line or paragraph.
Ctrl + (Down arrow) -- Move to the end of the paragraph.
Ctrl + Del -- Delete word to the right of the cursor.

Ctrl + Backspace -- Delete word to the left of the cursor.
Ctrl + End -- Move cursor to end of the document.
Ctrl + Home -- Move cursor to the beginning of the document.
Ctrl + Space -- Reset highlighted text to default font.
Ctrl + 1 -- Single-space lines.
Ctrl + 2 -- Double-space lines.
Ctrl + 5 -- 1.5-line spacing.

Ctrl + Alt + 1 Change text to heading 1.
Ctrl + Alt + 2 Change text to heading 2.
Ctrl + Alt + 3 Change text to heading 3.
F1 -- Open help.
Shift + F3 -- Change case of selected text.
Shift + Insert -- Paste.

F4 -- Repeat the last action performed (Word 2000+).
F7 -- Spell check selected text and/or document.
Shift + F7 -- Activate the thesaurus.
F12 -- Save as.
Ctrl + S -- Save.
Shift + F12 -- Save.
Alt + Shift + D -- Insert the current date.
Alt + Shift + T -- Insert the current time.
Ctrl + W -- Close document.

Which is not a UPI Apps?

((a))
BHIM
((b))
Paytm
((c))
PhonePe
((d))
BharatPe
((e))
Flipkart

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Flipkart

The correct answer is Flipkart

Key Points BHIM, Paytm, PhonePe, BharatPe are UPI applications. But Flipkart is a Shopping Application.

The function of Task manager is

((a))
End Non responsive program
((b))
Monitor CPU and RAM usage
((c))
Monitor individual program activity
((d))
option 1 an 2 only
((e))
Options 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Options 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is Options 1, 2 and 3

Key PointsThe function of Task Manager includes:

End Nonresponsive program
Monitor CPU and RAM usage
Monitor individual program activity

Therefore, the correct options are 1, 2, and 3. "View all data" is a vague option and doesn't specifically align with the commonly recognized functions of Task Manager. Task Manager is used primarily for monitoring system performance and managing running applications and processes, but it does not provide a way to "view all data" in a broad sense that could encompass all types of data on a computer.

So, the most accurate options based on the provided list are 1, 2, and 3.

Which of the following is a primary memory?

((a))
Floppy disk
((b))
Hard disk
((c))
DVDs
((d))
Random Access Memory
((e))
CD

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Random Access Memory

The correct answer is Random Access Memory.

The storage device of a computer system is known as memory.

Key Points Memory is of two kinds:

Primary memory:

It is referred to as the working memory or the main memory of a computer system.

Random Access Memory (RAM):

The data stored in RAM is lost when the computer is switched off so it is called volatile memory.

Read-only memory (ROM):

The ROM is non-volatile and retains its information even after the power is turned off.
The ROM cannot be altered.
Information is stored in the ROM at the time of its manufacture.

Secondary memory:

It is used to store data for the long term.
It operates at a much slower rate than primary memory.
It is permanent in nature so it is nonvolatile.
Secondary memories are cheaper than primary memory.
Examples: Floppy disk, Hard disk, Memory cards, CDSs, DVDs, ROM etc.

_______ is not a Web Browser.

((a))
Netscape
((b))
Internet Explorer
((c))
Opera
((d))
Microsoft Outlook
((e))
Chrome

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Microsoft Outlook

The correct answer is Microsoft Outlook.

Microsoft Outlook is not a Web Browser.

Key Points

Microsoft Outlook is a personal information manager and an email client.
It also includes functions such as calendaring, task managing, contact managing, note-taking, journal logging, and web browsing.

Additional Information

Internet Explorer, Opera, and Netscape are all web browsers.
Internet Explorer is a browser started by Microsoft in the year 1995.
The Netscape web browser is produced by Netscape Communications Corporation.
Opera is a web browser developed by Opera Software in the year 1995.

What is artificial intelligence?

((a))
Putting your intelligence into computer
((b))
Programming with your own intelligence
((c))
Making a machine intelligent
((d))
Putting more memory into computer
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Making a machine intelligent

The correct answer is Making a machine intelligent.

Key Points Artificial Intelligence:

Artificial intelligence is a branch of computer science that deals with creating intelligent machines that can perform tasks that typically require human intelligence, such as visual perception, speech recognition, decision-making, and language translation.
The process of making a machine intelligent typically involves using algorithms and models to train the machine to recognize patterns, make decisions, and respond to inputs in a way that simulates human intelligence. This can involve techniques such as machine learning, natural language processing, computer vision, and robotics.
There are different types and levels of AI, ranging from basic rule-based systems to more advanced machine learning systems and deep learning neural networks.
However, the goal of all forms of AI is to create intelligent machines that can perform tasks and make decisions in a way that simulates human intelligence.
In summary, making a machine intelligent involves the field of artificial intelligence, which is concerned with creating intelligent machines that can perform tasks that typically require human intelligence.

Hence, the correct answer is Making a machine intelligent.

Which of the following is not an example of a nonvolatile memory?

((a))
EEPROM
((b))
Flash memory
((c))
SDRAM
((d))
Hard disk
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

SDRAM

The correct answer is SDRAM.

Key Points

Synchronous dynamic random-access memory (SDRAM) is any DRAM where the operation of its external pin interface is coordinated by an externally supplied clock signal.

Important Points

Non-volatile memory or non-volatile storage is a type of computer memory that can retain stored information even after power is removed.

Additional Information

EEPROM stands for electrically erasable programmable read-only memory and is a type of non-volatile memory used in computers.
Flash memory is a type of nonvolatile memory that erases data in units called blocks and rewrites data at the byte level.
Hard disks are nonvolatile storage devices that are used to store and retrieve data quickly.

In MS Word, Vertical mode is a:

((a))
Page orientation
((b))
Page text style
((c))
Page number
((d))
Page print
((e))
Portrait

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Page orientation

The correct answer is Page orientation.

Key Points

Page Orientation
It is the direction in which a document is displayed or printed.
The two basic types of Page Orientation are Portrait( Vertical) and Landscape( Horizontal).
Most monitors have a landscape display, while most documents are printed in portrait mode.

While "Portrait" is indeed a form of vertical orientation, the question specifically asks for the term associated with Vertical mode, which aligns with Page orientation.

MS Word
It is developed by Microsoft.
It was released on 25 October 1983 for the first time.
It is a graphical word processing program that users can type with.
It has helpful tools to make documents, resumes, contracts, etc.
This is one of the most commonly used programs under the office suite.

Linux is a ______.

((a))
Word Processors
((b))
Language Processor
((c))
Adware
((d))
System Software
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

System Software

The correct answer is System Software.

Key PointsLinux is an operating system. Linux was created in 1991 by Linus Torvalds and the Free Software Foundation (FSF). It is an open-source Unix-like operating system. An operating system helps users interact with the computer.

Additional InformationWord Processors: A word processor is a type of software application used for composing, editing, formatting and printing documents. Word processors have a variety of uses and applications within the business environment, at home and in educational contexts.

Language Processor: A language processor is a software program designed or used to perform tasks such as processing program code to machine code. Language processors are found in languages such as Fortran and COBOL.

Adware: Adware, also known as advertisement-supported software, generates revenue for its developers by automatically generating adverts on your screen, usually within a web browser. Adware is typically created for computers but can also be found on mobile devices. Some forms of adware are highly manipulative and create an open door for malicious programs.

Ctrl + Spacebar in MS Word will ______.

((a))
Move to the beginning of the line or paragraph
((b))
Delete word to right of cursor
((c))
Change text to heading
((d))
Switch to another open Microsoft Word document
((e))
Reset highlighted text to the default font

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Reset highlighted text to the default font

Ctrl + Spacebar in MS Word will reset highlighted text to the default font.

Which of the Valid Online Version of MS Office is

((a))
Office 300
((b))
Office XP
((c))
Office 365
((d))
Office 2000
((e))
Office 3030

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Office 365

The correct answer is Office 365

Key PointsOffice 365 is a valid and the most modern version on your list, representing Microsoft's subscription-based service that includes access to Office applications plus other productivity services that are enabled over the internet (cloud services).

In most word processors, which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to bold the text?

((a))
Ctrl + B
((b))
Ctrl + A
((c))
Ctrl + P
((d))
Ctrl + I
((e))
Ctrl + Z

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + B

The correct answer is Ctrl + B

Open a document.	Ctrl+O
Create a new document.	Ctrl+N
Save the document.	Ctrl+S
Close the document.	Ctrl+W
Cut the selected content to the Clipboard.	Ctrl+X
Copy the selected content to the Clipboard.	Ctrl+C
Paste the contents of the Clipboard.	Ctrl+V
Select all document content.	Ctrl+A
Apply bold formatting to the text.	Ctrl+B
Apply italic formatting to text.	Ctrl+I
Apply underline formatting to text.	Ctrl+U
Decrease the font size by 1 point.	Ctrl+[
Increase the font size by 1 point.	Ctrl+]
Center the text.	Ctrl+E
Align the text to the left.	Ctrl+L
Align the text to the right.	Ctrl+R
Cancel a command.	Esc
Undo the previous action.	Ctrl+Z
Redo the previous action, if possible.	Ctrl+Y
Adjust the zoom magnification.	Alt+W, Q, then tab in Zoom dialogue box to the value you want.
Split the document window.	Ctrl+Alt+S
Remove the document window split.	Alt+Shift+C or Ctrl+Alt+S

Which of the following is not an operating system?

((a))
DOS
((b))
Oracle
((c))
Linux
((d))
Windows
((e))
Android

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Oracle

DOS (Disk Operating System) is an operating system for x86-based personal computers
Oracle Database (Oracle) is a multi-model database management system produced and marketed by Oracle Corporation
Linux is a family of free and open-source software operating systems based on the Linux kernel
Windows is a group of several graphical operating system families, all of which are developed, marketed, and sold by Microsoft

In Microsoft Word, what is "Times New Roman"?

((a))
font name
((b))
bullet type
((c))
font style
((d))
alignment option
((e))
Font Design

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

font name

The correct answer is Option (1).

Times New Roman is a serif typeface. It was commissioned by the British newspaper The Times in 1931 and conceived by Stanley Morison, the artistic adviser to the British branch of the printing equipment company Monotype, in collaboration with Victor Lardent, a lettering artist in The Times's advertising department. It has become one of the most popular typefaces of all time and is installed on most desktop computers.

Key PointsSteps to change the font style in MS Word:

Select the text you want to modify
Select the Home tab and locate the Font group

Click the drop-down arrow next to the font style box

Font style menu appears

With a left click select the desired font style

Fastest memory in computer is

((a))
RAM
((b))
Cache
((c))
ROM
((d))
Hard disk
((e))
CD-ROM

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Cache

The correct answer is Cache.

A cache is the smallest and the fastest memory in the computer.

Key Points

Cache:
It is a very high-speed memory used to speed up and synchronizing with a high-speed CPU.
This memory is costlier than main memory or disk memory but economical than CPU registers.
It acts as a buffer between RAM and the CPU.
It holds frequently requested data and instructions and makes them immediately available to the CPU when needed.
It is used to reduce the average time to access data from the Main memory.

Additional Information

Random Access Memory (RAM) is a primary memory.
It is a read/write memory.
It is volatile memory.
The Read-Only Memory (ROM) is non-volatile memory and retains its information even after the power is turned off.

What are the not a Microsoft Word Tools?

((a))
SmartArt
((b))
WordArt
((c))
Drop Cap
((d))
Hyperlink
((e))
Firefox

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Firefox

The correct answer is Firefox

Key PointsFirefox is a web browser developed by Mozilla Foundation and its subsidiary, Mozilla Corporation. It is not a tool or feature within Microsoft Word, which is a word processing software developed by Microsoft. The rest of the options (SmartArt, WordArt, Drop Cap, and Hyperlink) refer to functionalities or features that can be found within Microsoft Word or are related to its document editing capabilities.

In a table in MS word, there should be at least ___ rows & ___ columns?

((a))
Zero
((b))
2 rows and 1 column
((c))
2 rows and 2 column
((d))
1 rows and a column
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1 rows and a column

A table can be inserted using the “table” option from the “insert” menu in MS word. It gives the user an option to specify the number of rows and columns for that table and the minimum of it requires that it must have at least one row and a column.

A modem

((a))
Translates analog signals from a computer into digital signals that can travel along conventional telephone lines.
((b))
Translates digitals signals from a computer into analog signals that can travel along conventional telephone lines.
((c))
Demodulates digital signals from a computer.
((d))
Modulates signals from an analog telephone life.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Translates digitals signals from a computer into analog signals that can travel along conventional telephone lines.

A modem is a device or program that enables a computer to transmit data over, for example, telephone or cable lines. Computer information is stored digitally, whereas information transmitted over telephone lines is transmitted in the form of analog waves.

General Awareness (40 questions)

Who is the current President of the 77th United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)?

((a))
Kristalina Georgieva
((b))
Csaba Korosi
((c))
Ajay Banga
((d))
David Malpass
((e))
Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Csaba Korosi

The correct answer is Csaba Korosi.

In News

United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) president Csaba Korosi on 29 January 2023, arrived in India for a three-day visit.

Key Points

Korosi is a career diplomat from Hungary who served as his country’s permanent representative to the UN.
During his visit, he will interact with officials of NITI Aayog and India’s G20 presidency team to explore the scaling up of the country’s best practices.
He is also a guest at the “Beating the Retreat” ceremony at the iconic Vijay Chowk in Delhi, and is scheduled to pay floral tributes to Mahatma Gandhi at Rajghat on Monday, on the occasion of Shaheed Diwas.
On January 30, he will deliver a public address at the Indian Council of World Affairs on his presidency theme of “Solutions through solidarity, sustainability and science in the UN”.
Korosi will also interact with scientists at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc).
He is also expected to visit development projects in and around Bengaluru and interact with the UN’s India country team.

Additional Information

UNGA:
The United Nations General Assembly is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, serving as the main deliberative, policymaking, and representative organ of the UN.
Its powers, composition, functions, and procedures are set out in Chapter IV of the United Nations Charter.
Headquarters: New York, United States
Founded: 1945

The RBI recently said state-owned SBI, along with private sector lenders ICICI Bank and ____________ continue to be Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) or institutions which are 'too big to fail'.

((a))
IDBI Bank
((b))
Federal Bank
((c))
IDFC First Bank
((d))
HDFC Bank
((e))
Axis Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

HDFC Bank

The correct answer is 'HDFC Bank'.

Key Points

The RBI on January 02 said state-owned SBI, along with private sector lenders ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank continue to be Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) or institutions which are 'too big to fail'.
SIBs are perceived as banks that are 'too big to fail (TBTF)'. This perception of TBTF creates an expectation of government support for these lenders in times of distress. Due to this, these banks enjoy certain advantages in the funding markets.
The additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) requirement for D-SIBs was phased-in from April 1, 2016 and became fully effective from April 1, 2019.
The additional CET1 requirement will be in addition to the capital conservation buffer.

Additional Information

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had announced SBI and ICICI Bank as D-SIBs in 2015 and 2016. Based on data collected from banks as on March 31, 2017, HDFC Bank was also classified as a D-SIB.
The current update is based on data collected from banks as on March 31, 2022.
The framework for dealing with D-SIBs was issued in July 2014. The framework requires the RBI to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs starting from 2015 and place these lenders in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs).

Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2023 have been conferred upon how many children for their exceptional achievement in six categories?

((a))
6
((b))
9
((c))
11
((d))
15
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is 11.

In News

President Droupadi Murmu conferred Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2023 at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi on 23 January 2023.

Key Points

The awards have been conferred upon 11 children for their exceptional achievement in six categories, which include Art, Culture, Bravery, Innovation, Social Service, and Sports.
This year, four students are being awarded in the art and culture category, one for bravery, two for innovation, one for social service and three children have been selected for sports category.
The awards are conferred upon children in the age group of 5–18 years.
Each awardee has received a medal, a cash prize of one lakh rupees, and a certificate from the President.
These awards are a recognition of their contribution and dedication to the country.
Meanwhile, a nationwide painting competition was held in 500 Kendriya Vidyalayas across the country to mark the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, which is observed as Parakram Diwas.

Who is the current Home Minister of India?

((a))
Rajnath Singh
((b))
Amit Shah
((c))
S Jaishankar
((d))
Sushma Swaraj
((e))
Ashwini Vaishnaw

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Amit Shah

The correct answer is Amit Shah.

Key Points

Amit Shah is the current Home Minister of India.
Rajnath Singh is the current Defence Minister of India.
S Jaishankar is the current External Affairs Minister of India.
Sushma Swaraj was the former External Affairs Minister of India.
Ashwini Vaishnaw is the current Railway Minister of India.

In May 2023, Bulgarian writer Georgi Gospodinov and translator Angela Rodel were named as winners of the International Booker Prize. What is the name of the novel for which they have been awarded?

((a))
Tomb of Sand
((b))
The Promise
((c))
Time Shelter
((d))
Milkman
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Time Shelter

The correct answer is Time Shelter.

In News

Bulgarian writer Georgi Gospodinov and translator Angela Rodel were named winners of the International Booker Prize with the novel "Time Shelter" -- a first for a book in Bulgarian.

Key Points

The winning novel focuses on a "clinic for the past" that offers experimental Alzheimer's treatment.
Born in 1968, novelist and poet Gospodinov is the most internationally acclaimed modern Bulgarian author. His works are translated into 25 languages.
Rodel is originally from the US state of Minnesota but lives and works in Bulgaria.
Her poetry and prose translations have been published in literary magazines and anthologies.
In 2014, she was granted Bulgarian citizenship for her work and contribution to Bulgarian culture.
Last year the International Booker Prize was awarded to the Hindi novel "Tomb of Sand" by Indian author Geetanjali Shree, and translated by Daisy Rockwell.

Additional Information

International Booker Prize:
The Booker Prize, formerly known as the Booker Prize for Fiction and the Man Booker Prize, is a literary prize awarded each year for the best novel written in English and published in the United Kingdom or Ireland.
The winner of the Booker Prize receives international publicity which usually leads to a sales boost.
It was first awarded in 1969.
Indian Winners:

V.S. Naipaul in 1971.
Salman Rushdie in 1981.
Arundhati Roy in 1997.
Kiran Desai in 2006.
Aravind Adiga in 2008.

Recently, The government has said that a new portal Sancharsaathi will be launched on World Telecommunication and Information Society Day. What is the purpose of it?

((a))
To improve the efficiency of telecom workers
((b))
To help people track and find their lost mobile phones.
((c))
To get redressal of telecommunication problems
((d))
To improve telecommunication infrastructure
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

To help people track and find their lost mobile phones.

The correct answer is To help people track and find their lost mobile phones.

In News

The government is going to launch a new portal, www.sancharsaathi.gov.in on World Telecommunication and Information Society Day.

Key Points

The portal will be available throughout the country and cater to lost or stolen mobile phones connected to all telecom circles.
As of now, the portal caters only to Delhi and Mumbai circles.
Till date, with the help of this portal, 4,70,000 lost or stolen mobile phones have been blocked.
Also, more than 2,40,000 mobile phones have been tracked through this portal and around 8,000 phones have also been recovered through the portal.
The Sanchar Saathi portal is a welcome initiative by the government to help people track their lost or stolen mobile phones. The portal is easy to use and can be accessed by anyone, regardless of their technical expertise. The portal also provides a number of other features, such as the ability to block SIM cards and track the location of lost or stolen phones.

Who is the Head of the Government in India?

((a))
Speaker of Lok Sabha
((b))
Vice President
((c))
President
((d))
Prime Minister
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Prime Minister

The correct answer is Prime Minister.

Key Points

The Prime Minister of India is the Head of the Government of India.
The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.
Other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
He is also the head of the council of ministers.
Article 74 to Article 78 of Part V deals with the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers.
He is the chairman of the cabinet and presides over the meetings of the Cabinet.
The prime minister is the leader of the lower house of Parliament.
He is the chief spokesman of the Central Government and also in foreign relations.
He acts as the chief advisor to the President of India.
The Prime Minister submits his resignation to the president of India.
He is the head of Nuclear Command Authority, NITI Aayog, Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, Department of Atomic Energy, Department of Space and Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
He communicates all decisions of the Cabinet related to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation to the President and therefore acts as the link between President and cabinet.
The death or resignation of the Prime Minister automatically leads to the dissolution of the Council of Ministers.
To become a prime minister of India, he/she should have completed 30 years of age if he is a member of the Rajya Sabha or can be 25 years of age if he is a member of the Lok Sabha.

Confusion Points

The President of India is the Head of the State and Supreme Commander of the armed forces whereas PM is the head of the government and does not represent the state.

Match the following:

Sportsperson	Sports
A) R Praggnanandhaa	1) Badminton
B) Kidambi Srikanth	2) Chess
C) Sumit Nagal	3) Lawn Tennis

((a))
A-1 B-3 C-2
((b))
A-2 B-3 C-1
((c))
A-1 B-2 C-3
((d))
A-3 B-1 C-2
((e))
A-2 B-1 C-3

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

A-2 B-1 C-3

The correct answer is A-2 B-1 C-3.

Key Points

R Praggnanandhaa is associated with Chess
Kidambi Srikanth is associated with Badminton.
Sumit Nagal is associated with Lawn Tennis.

Which country was the largest importer of Indian seafood in FY 2022-23?

((a))
China
((b))
European Union
((c))
USA
((d))
Japan
((e))
Brazil

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

USA

The correct answer is USA.

In News

India’s seafood exports touch an all-time high $8.09 bn in FY 2022-23.

Key Points

India achieved an all-time high exports of seafood both in terms of volume and value by shipping 17,35,286 MT of seafood worth Rs. 63,969.14 crore (US$ 8.09 billion) during FY 2022-23 despite the several challenges in its major export markets like USA.
Frozen shrimp remained the major export item in terms of both quantity and value while USA and China turned out to be the major importers of India’s seafood.
Frozen Fish, the second largest exported item, fetched Rs. 5,503.18 Cr. (US $687.05 million) accounting for 21.24% in quantity and 8.49% in US$ earnings.
USA became the largest market of imported seafood from India.
China emerged as the second largest seafood export destination from India destination from India.
The European Union continued to be the third largest destination

How many central banks are members of Bank for International Settlements (BIS)?

((a))
57
((b))
63
((c))
65
((d))
54
((e))
69

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is 63.

The Bank's capital is held by central banks only.
63 central banks and monetary authorities are currently members of the BIS and have rights of voting and representation at General Meetings:

Which of the following organisation installed world's first integrated blood collection tube?

((a))
CML Biotech Ltd
((b))
Serum Institute Of India
((c))
Panacea Biotech Ltd
((d))
Biocon Ltd
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

CML Biotech Ltd

The Correct Answer is CML Biotech Ltd.

In News

CML Biotech installs world’s first integrated blood collection tube manufacturing machine.

Key Points

Angamaly-based CML Biotech Ltd., one of the largest manufacturers of blood collection tubes in India, has installed the world’s first integrated machine ‘Husky –Ichor’, for manufacturing blood collection tubes.
CML Biotech Managing Director Paul Jacob switched on the machine at a function held at the factory.
The integrated machine comprises machine mould, hot runner, dowser, dehumidifier, chiller, temperature controller and dryer. Normally, these functions are carried out in different machines.
The machine is manufactured by Canada-based Husky Technologies, a global leader in injection moulds and moulding machines.

With an aim to boost astro-tourism in India,union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh recently said that the first-ever "Night Sky Sanctuary" would be set up in Ladakh. This night sky reserve will be a part of which one of the following protected area?

((a))
Hemis national park
((b))
Karakoram wildlife sanctuary
((c))
Nanda Devi National Park
((d))
Cold desert National Park
((e))
Changthang Cold desert wildlife sanctuary

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Changthang Cold desert wildlife sanctuary

The correct answer is Changthang Cold desert wildlife sanctuary.

Key Points

In a unique and first-of-its-kind initiative, the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Govt of India, has undertaken to set up India’s first-ever "Night Sky Sanctuary" in Ladakh which will be completed within next three months.
The proposed Dark Sky Reserve will be located at Hanle in Ladakh as a part of Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary.
It will boost Astro tourism in India and will be one of the world’s highest-located sites for optical, infra-red, and gamma-ray telescopes.
Dr Jitendra Singh said that all the stakeholders will jointly work towards the preservation of the night sky from unwanted light pollution and illumination, which is a serious threat to the scientific observations and natural sky conditions. It may be noted that Hanle is best suited for the project as it is located in Ladakh’s cold desert region, away from any form of human disturbance and clear sky conditions and dry weather conditions exist throughout the year.
The Union Minister also informed that a tripartite MoU was signed recently among the the UT administration, Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC) Leh and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) for launching the Dark Space Reserve.

Additional Information

International Dark Sky Sanctuaries

Dark Sky Sanctuary is public or private land that has an exceptional or distinguished quality of starry nights and a nocturnal environment that is protected for its scientific, natural, or educational value, its cultural heritage and/or public enjoyment.
A sanctuary differs from a Dark Sky Park or Reserve in that it is typically situated in a very remote location with few (if any) nearby threats to the quality of its dark night skies and it does not otherwise meet the requirements for designation as a park or reserve.
The typical geographic isolation of Dark Sky Sanctuaries significantly limits opportunities for public outreach, so a sanctuary designation is specifically designed to increase awareness of these fragile sites and promote their long-term conservation.

Who is the next High Commissioner of India to the United Kingdom as announced in August 2022?

((a))
Ruchi Ghanashyam
((b))
Vikram Doraiswami
((c))
Gaitri Issar Kumar
((d))
Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha
((e))
Ramesh Chibber

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Vikram Doraiswami

The correct answer is Vikram Doraiswami.

Key Points

Vikram Doraiswami:-
He is a career diplomat who has served in various Indian embassies and consulates around the world, including Bangladesh, Canada, China, and the United States.
The next High Commissioner of India to the United Kingdom is Vikram Doraiswami, as announced in August 2022.

Additional Information

Ruchi Ghanashyam:-
She is a high-ranking Indian bureaucrat who has served in a variety of positions, including as a Secretary at the Ministry of External Affairs and as the High Commissioner of India to the United Kingdom.
Gaitri Issar Kumar:-
She is a retired Indian Foreign Service officer from the 1986 batch.
Her last posting was as the High Commissioner of India to the United Kingdom.
Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha:-
Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha is a retired Indian diplomat who served as the Chief Information Commissioner of India from 2020 to 2023.
He is a 1981 batch Indian Foreign Service officer.

What is the primary aim of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023?

((a))
To boost Ease of Living and Ease of Doing Business
((b))
To increase tax revenue
((c))
To regulate the banking sector
((d))
To enhance national security
((e))
None

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

To boost Ease of Living and Ease of Doing Business

The correct answer is To boost Ease of Living and Ease of Doing Business.

In News

Rajya Sabha passes Jan Vishwas Amendment Bill 2023

Key Points

The Bill was first introduced in Lok Sabha on 22nd December 2022.
Subsequently, it was referred to the Joint Committee of the Parliament.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill received overwhelming support and insightful suggestions from the Members of the Committee across parties.
The Joint Committee on the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2022 held detailed discussions with all the 19 Ministries/Departments along with Legislative Department and Department of Legal Affairs.
The Report of the Committee was laid before Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha on 17th March 2023 and 20th March 2023 respectively.
The Committee recommended a few more amendments in the Bill.
Committee also made 7 general recommendations which provide advice and guidance for future decriminalization efforts.
One of the recommendations include constitution of a group consisting of legal professionals, industry bodies, members of bureaucracy and regulatory authorities, etc. to examine other acts and carry out exercise similar to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023. Working group has been constituted as per the recommendation of the Committee.

How many foreign banks have their branches in India?

((a))
12
((b))
30
((c))
45
((d))
50
((e))
62

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is 45.

Key Points

45 foreign banks have their branches in India.
AB Bank Limited
American Express Banking Corporation Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Ltd.
Barclays Bank Plc.
Bank of America
Bank of Bahrain & Kuwait B.S.C.
Bank of Ceylon
Bank of China
Bank of Nova Scotia
BNP Paribas
Citibank N.A.
Cooperatieve Rabobank U.A./ Coöperatieve Centrale Raiffeisen-
Boerenleenbank B.A.
Credit Agricole Corporate & Investment Bank
Credit Suisse A.G
CTBC Bank Co., Ltd.
DBS Bank India Limited (Subsidiary of DBS Bank Ltd.)
Deutsche Bank A.G.
Doha Bank Q.P.S.C
Emirates NBD Bank PJSC
First Abu Dhabi Bank PJSC
FirstRand Bank Limited
Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corporation Limited
Industrial & Commercial Bank of China
Ltd.
Industrial Bank of Korea
J.P. Morgan Chase Bank N.A.
JSC VTB Bank
KEB Hana Bank
Kookmin Bank
Krung Thai Bank Public Co. Ltd.
Mashreqbank PSC
Mizuho Bank Ltd.
MUFG Bank, Ltd.
NatWest Markets Plc
NongHyup Bank
PT Bank Maybank Indonesia TBK Qatar National Bank (Q.P.S.C.)
Sberbank
SBM Bank (India) Limited (Subsidiary of SBM Group)
Shinhan Bank
Societe Generale India
Sonali Bank Limited
Standard Chartered Bank
Sumitomo Mitsui Banking Corporation
United Overseas Bank Limited
Woori Bank

Who has been appointed as the new Executive Director of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

((a))
K.C. Venugopal
((b))
P Vasudevan
((c))
Rajesh Pillai
((d))
Jatashankar Tiwari
((e))
Mrunal Mahajan

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

P Vasudevan

The correct answer is P Vasudevan.

In News

Reserve Bank of India appoints P Vasudevan as new executive director

Key Points

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed P Vasudevan as Executive Director (ED) and he will look after three departments, including that of currency management.
Prior to being promoted as ED, Vasudevan was the Chief General Manager-in-charge of the Department of Payment and Settlement Systems.
He has, over a span of nearly three decades in the Reserve Bank, served in supervision of banks and non-banking financial companies, payment and settlement systems and other areas, including a stint as Member of Faculty in Bankers' Training College.

Additional Information

Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
RBI was set up on the basis of the Hilton Young Commission recommendation in April 1935, with the enactment of the RBI Act, 1934.
Its first Governor was C.D. Deshmukh.
The headquarters of RBI is in Mumbai.
Current Governor is Shaktikanta Das

Who is the newly appointed Governor of Arunachal Pradesh?

((a))
Lakshman Prasad Acharya
((b))
C P Radhakrishnan
((c))
Shiv Pratap Shukla
((d))
Lt Gen KT Parnaik
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Lt Gen KT Parnaik

The correct answer is Lt Gen KT Parnaik.

In News

Lt Gen KT Parnaik takes oath as 20th Governor of Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

Lieutenant General (Retd) Kaiwalya Trivikram Parnaik took oath as the 20th Governor of Arunachal Pradesh on 16 Feb 2023.
He was administered the oath of office by the Judge of Gauhati High Court, Justice Nani Tagia in a ceremony held at Raj Bhavan in Itanagar. Chief Minister Pema Khandu and Deputy Chief Minister Chowna Mein were among the dignitaries who attended the swearing-in ceremony.

Additional Information

Arunachal Pradesh:
It is a state in Northeastern India.
It was formed from the erstwhile North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) region and became a state on 20 February 1987.
The main tribes of the state are Adi, Nyshi, Singpho, Galo, Tagin, AND Apatani.
Capital: Itanagar
Chief minister: Pema Khandu
Official bird: Great hornbill
Official tree: Dipterocarpus retusus
Union territory: 21 January 1972

Deepak Parekh step down as chairman of HDFC recently, Who is the MD and CEO of HDFC Bank?

((a))
Aditya Puri
((b))
Sashidhar Jagdishan
((c))
Rakesh Sharma
((d))
Aditya Kapoor
((e))
Rakesh Asthana

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Sashidhar Jagdishan

The correct answer is Sashidhar Jagdishan.

In News

Deepak Parekh steps down as HDFC chairman after 46 years

Key Points

Deepak Parekh on 30 June 2023, announced his decision to step down as HDFC chairperson after serving as the chairman for 46 years.
He left his Manhattan Bank job in 1978 to join HDFC when he was 33 and built it into India’s largest private sector housing finance company.
The reverse merger of parent HDFC Ltd with HDFC Bank is expected to be effective from July 1.

Additional Information

Housing Development Finance Corporation(HDFC):
It is also known as Housing Development Finance Corporation and is India’s largest housing finance company and the largest private sector bank by assets.
It was founded in 1977 by Deepak Parekh and has since grown to become one of the most respected financial institutions in India.
In 2023, HDFC announced that it would merge with HDFC Bank, India’s largest private sector bank by market capitalization.
The merger is expected to be completed in 2024. The merged entity will be the largest bank in India by assets and market capitalization.
Headquartered in Mumbai, India
Largest housing finance company in India
Largest private sector bank by assets in India
Listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National Stock Exchange of India
Constituent of the Sensex and Nifty indices

International Film Festival of India (IFFI) Awards is organized by which of the following?

((a))
National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC)
((b))
Times Group
((c))
National School of Drama (NSD)
((d))
Film And Television Institute Of India (FTII)
((e))
None of the Above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC)

The correct answer is National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC).

Key Points

The International Film Festival of India (IFFI) Awards is organized by the National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC).
The International Film Festival of India (IFFI) was founded in 1952.
The festival aims to provide a common platform for the cinemas of the world to project the excellence of film art.

Additional Information

The National Film Development Corporation of India (NFDC) is the central agency established in 1975, to encourage high-quality Indian cinema.
It is based in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
It functions under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

100

Which is the most liveable city in the world revealed in Global Liveability Index 2023?

((a))
Vienna
((b))
Copenhagen
((c))
Melbourne
((d))
Sydney
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Vienna

The Correct Answer is Vienna.

In News

Global Liveability Index 2023 was published by the Economic Intelligence Unit (EIU) of the Economist.

Key Points

Vienna in Austria tops the ranking of the most liveable cities in the world followed by Copenhagen in Denmark, Melbourne and Sydney on 3rd and 4th rank while Vancouver has been placed as the 5th best city on the liveability index.
Damascus in Syria and Tripoli in Libya remained at the bottom of the liveability index.
From India, New Delhi and Mumbai are at 141st position and Chennai at 144th.
Ahmedabad and Bengaluru are ranked 147 and 148.
The top rank of the liveable cities is dominated by European and North American cities.
Among Asian countries, only Osaka in Japan features among the top 10 most liveable countries at number 9.
The concept of livability assesses the best or worst living conditions of cities based on 30 qualitative and quantitative factors across five broad categories of stability, healthcare, culture and environment, education, and infrastructure.

101

Which of the following will be the 12th company to get the status of the 'Maharatna' company?

((a))
Container Corporation of India Limited
((b))
Power Finance Corporation Limited
((c))
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
((d))
Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Rural Electrification Corporation Limited

The correct answer is Rural Electrification Corporation Limited.

Key Points

Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC) has been accorded the status of a ‘Maharatna’ Central Public Sector Enterprise, thus giving REC greater operational and financial autonomy.
An order to this effect was issued on 21st September by the Department of Public Enterprises, under the Ministry of Finance.
Incorporated in 1969, REC is an NBFC focusing on Power Sector Financing and Development across India.
Shri Vivek Kumar Dewangan, CMD, REC said that REC achieved this feat owing to its adaptability, resilience, and consistent performance even during the global covid-19 pandemic.
REC has played a key role in the success of the flagship schemes of the Government of India such as DDUGJY and SAUBHAGYA and has contributed towards achieving village and household electrification in the country.
The Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY) is an Indian government scheme intending to provide an uninterrupted power supply to the rural parts of India.
Saubhagya Scheme or Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana is an Indian government project to provide electricity to non-electrified rural households.

Additional Information List of Maharatna Companies in India 2022

1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
2. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
3. Coal India Limited
4. GAIL (Gas Authority of India) Limited
5. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
6. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
7. NTPC ( National Thermal Power Corporation) Limited
8. Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
9. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
10. Steel Authority of India Limited
11. Power Finance Corporation
12. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited

102

Which of the following is a feature of NBFC?

((a))
NBFC can accept Demand Deposit
((b))
NBFC can issue Cheques
((c))
NBFC can provide loan facility to its customer
((d))
NBFC can issue Demand Drafts
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

NBFC can provide loan facility to its customer

Te correct answer is option (3) i.e. NBFC can provide loan facility to its customer.

NBFC stands for Non-Banking Financial Company it is a company registered under the companies act 1956.
NBFCs are engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares or bonds or debentures or securities.
NBFC allows deposits and also provide loans facility.
All the above options are the facilities that the bank offers but NBFCs have restricted area of operations.

103

What is the name of the highest civilian award given by Suriname to President Droupadi Murmu?

((a))
Order of the Palm
((b))
Order of the Chain of Yellow Star
((c))
Order of the Surinamese Lion
((d))
Order of the Golden Arrow
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Order of the Chain of Yellow Star

The correct answer is Order of the Chain of Yellow Star.

In News

Suriname confers highest civilian award to President Droupadi Murmu in June 2023.

Key Points

Suriname conferred its highest civilian honor, the Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star, to President Droupadi Murmu.
She is the 1st Indian to receive the award.
She received the award from Suriname's President Chandrikapersad Santokhi during her state visit to Suriname.
The visit coincides with Suriname's commemoration of the 150th anniversary of the arrival of Indians in the country.

Additional Information

Suriname:
Suriname is a small country on the northeastern coast of South America.
It is a member of the Caribbean Community (CARICOM).
It is the only sovereign nation outside of Europe where Dutch is the official language.
It is the smallest sovereign state in South America.
Official language: Dutch
Capital: Paramaribo
Currency: Surinamese dollar

104

The Union Cabinet approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore from 2023-24 to ________, aiming to seed, nurture and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT).

((a))
2028-2029
((b))
2025-26
((c))
2035-36
((d))
2030-31
((e))
2036-38

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

2030-31

The correct answer is 2030-31.

In News

The Union Cabinet on 19 April, 2023 approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore from 2023-24 to 2030-31, aiming to seed, nurture and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT).

Key Points

This will accelerate QT led economic growth, nurture the ecosystem in the country and make India one of the leading nations in the development of Quantum Technologies & Applications (QTA).
The new mission targets developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years in various platforms like superconducting and photonic technology.
Satellite based secure quantum communications between ground stations over a range of 2000 kilometres within India, long distance secure quantum communications with other countries, inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km as well as multi-node Quantum network with quantum memories are also some of the deliverables of the Mission.
The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity in atomic systems and Atomic Clocks for precision timing, communications and navigation.

Additional Information

NQM will also support design and synthesis of quantum materials such as superconductors, novel semiconductor structures and topological materials for fabrication of quantum devices.
Single photon sources/detectors, entangled photon sources will also be developed for quantum communications, sensing and metrological applications.
Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) will be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains - Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology and Quantum Materials & Devices.
The hubs which will focus on generation of new knowledge through basic and applied research as well as promote R&D in areas that are mandated to them.

105

Air India signed an agreement with which of the following to provide access to bus & train connections in European cities?

((a))
SNCF
((b))
AccesRail
((c))
Eurostar
((d))
Deutch Bahn
((e))
FlixTrain

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

AccesRail

The correct answer is AccesRail.

Key Points

Air India signed an agreement with AccesRail to provide access to bus & train connections in European cities
Air India has forged an intermodal interline partnership with renowned IATA travel partner, AccesRail.
This collaboration seeks to connect Air India travellers to over 100 European cities, even those in remote regions without airports, via an integrated network of trains and buses.
This alliance empowers Air India travellers with the convenience of a single intermodal ticket, facilitating a smooth transition between air and ground transportation.
Passengers can access interconnected train and bus services, fostering efficient travel across Austria, Belgium, Germany, the Czech Republic, Hungary, Italy, and the United Kingdom.

Additional Information

AccesRail helps to facilitate intermodality in the travel industry by providing seamless access to an extensive network of rail and bus operators worldwide.
Through major airline global distribution systems, travel agents, airlines and online platforms can book rail and bus tickets in conjunction with flights, making it easy for travelers to connect from one mode of transportation to another.

106

Which of the following missions are related to exploring the various facets of the Moon?

Artemis-I
Chang'e 4 project
VIPER Mission
Hope Mission
Mission Chandrayaan

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

((a))
1, 2, and 5 only
((b))
2, 4 and 5 only
((c))
1, 2, 3, and 5 only
((d))
1, 4 and 5 only
((e))
1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1, 2, 3, and 5 only

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.

Key Points

Lunar missions

Artemis mission
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) rolled out its Artemis I moon mission to the launchpad for testing at the Kennedy Space Centre in Florida, United States
NASA’s Artemis mission is touted as the next generation of lunar exploration and is named after the twin sister of Apollo from Greek mythology.
It is the first in a series of increasingly complex missions that will enable human exploration to the Moon and Mars.
With the Artemis programme, NASA aims to land humans on the moon by 2024, and it also plans to land the first woman and first person of colour on the moon.
Chang'e 4
Chang’e 4 is the fourth mission in China’s lunar mission series which is named after the Chinese moon goddess.
The tasks of the Chang’e-4 probe include low-frequency radio astronomical observation, surveying the terrain and landforms, detecting the mineral composition, and measuring the neutron radiation and neutral atoms to study the environment on the far side of the moon.
VIPER
Agency: NASA
VIPER stands for Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover. It is a mobile robot.
Objectives:
To explore the Moon’s South Pole region.
Help create lunar resource maps.
Evaluate the concentration of water as well as other potential resources on its surface.
To understand if it is possible for human life to sustain there, by using locally available resources.
It is the first resource mapping mission on any other celestial body.
Mission Chandrayaan
The Chandrayaan programme also known as the Indian Lunar Exploration Programme is an ongoing series of outer space missions by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) for the exploration of the Moon.
The program incorporates a lunar orbiter, an impactor, a soft lander and a rover spacecraft.

Additional Information

Hope mission

UAE, the Arab world’s first mission to Mars.
The primary objective of the mission is to study Martian weather dynamics.

107

What is the name of India's Autonomous Underwater Vehicle for mine detection, launched in August 2023?

((a))
Neerakshi
((b))
Varunastra
((c))
Sagarika
((d))
Trishul
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Neerakshi

The Correct Answer is Neerakshi.

In News

India launches 'Neerakshi' - Autonomous Underwater Vehicle for mine detection.

Key Points

India has introduced an innovative Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV) named ‘Neerakshi’ designed for mine detection
Developed by: Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) Ltd and AEPL, an MSME entity.
Features: 2.1-meter-long cylindrical AUV, weighing around 45 kg, can perform various tasks such as mine detection, disposal, and underwater surveys.
It has an endurance of four hours and a depth of up to 300 meters, making it a versatile tool for ensuring coastal safety and protection.

108

Match the following;

National Park	Animal
Kanha	Rhinoceros
Kaziranga	Tiger
Gir	Lion

((a))
1-c, 2-b, 3-a
((b))
1-b, 2-a, 3-c
((c))
1-b, 2-c, 3-a
((d))
1-a, 2-b, 3-c
((e))
1-a, 2-c, 3-b

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

1-b, 2-a, 3-c

The correct order is;

National Park	State	Famous Animal
Kanha National Park	Madhya Pradesh	Tiger
Kaziranga National Park	Assam	Rhinoceros
Gir National Park	Gujarat	Asiatic Lion

109

Which of the following Public Authorities come under the Ministry of Civil Aviation?

((a))
Airports Authority of India
((b))
Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
((c))
Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Uran Akademi
((d))
Commissioner of Railway Security
((e))
All of the Above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of the Above

The correct answer is All of the Above.

Key Points

The following Public Authorities come under the Ministry of Civil Aviation:
Aero Club of India
Office of Director General Civil Aviation
Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
Commissioner of Railway Security
Airports Authority of India
AI Assets Holding Limited (AIAHL)
Pawan Hans Helicopters Limited
Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Uran Akademi
Hotel Corporation of India
Airport Economic Regulatory Authority
Airport Economic Regulatory Authority

110

The Sports Authority of India (SAI) recently integrated Khelo India Games Certificates with DigiLocker. DigiLocker was launched in which of the following years?

((a))
2012
((b))
2015
((c))
2017
((d))
2010
((e))
2022

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

2015

The correct answer is 2015.

In News

The Sports Authority of India (SAI) integrated Khelo India Games Certificates with DigiLocker on 6 April 2023.

Key Points

The Khelo India Games participating athletes and other stakeholders will now be able to access their certificates of merit and participation from the Khelo India Youth Games 2022 in Madhya Pradesh onwards.
The Khelo India programme has been introduced to revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level by building a strong framework for all sports played in our country and establish India as a great sporting nation.
DigiLocker is an initiative of the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY).
The beta version of the service was rolled out in February 2015, and launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 1 July 2015.

Additional Information

The Sports Authority of India (SAI) is the apex national sports body of India, established in 1982 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports of Government of India for the development of sports in India.
Two "SAI Sports Academic" institutions- Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports (at Patiala in Punjab) and Lakshmibai National College of Physical Education (at Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala), are conducting research and running certificate to PhD level courses in physical education and sports medicine.

111

Which of the following organization is sole re-insurer of India?

((a))
Sompo International Holdings, Ltd.
((b))
General Insurance Company
((c))
Central Reinsurance Corporation
((d))
Allied World Assurance Company Holdings
((e))
Munich Reinsurance Company

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

General Insurance Company

The Correct Answer is General Insurance Company.

Key Points

The General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC of India) is the sole National Reinsurer.
It provides Reinsurance to the Insurance companies in India.
General Insurance Corporation of India Limited abbreviated as GIC Re.
It is an Indian public sector reinsurance company.
It was incorporated under the Companies Act 1956 on 22 November 1972.
Headquarters of GIC:- Mumbai

112

SVEEP is an initiative for:

((a))
spreading voter awareness and promoting voter literacy in India
((b))
calculating criminal record of politicians
((c))
calculating voter turnout in panchayat elections
((d))
pension plan
((e))
None

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

spreading voter awareness and promoting voter literacy in India

The correct option is 'spreading voter awareness and promoting voter literacy in India'.

Key Points

SVEEP stands for Systematic Voters' Education and Electoral Participation. It is an initiative launched by the Election Commission of India with the aim of spreading voter awareness and promoting voter literacy in India.
The primary objective of SVEEP is to enhance the participation of eligible voters in the electoral process and ensure that they are well-informed about their rights and responsibilities as voters.
Under the SVEEP initiative, various activities are undertaken to educate and engage voters. These activities include voter registration drives, awareness campaigns, voter education programs in schools and colleges, and leveraging various media platforms for disseminating election-related information.
SVEEP also focuses on addressing specific challenges such as low voter turnout in certain regions or sections of the population. It aims to bridge the information gap, encourage voter registration, and facilitate voter participation through innovative and targeted strategies.

113

India's Praveen Kumar won a bronze in the men's high jump T64 event and have Qualified for 2024 Paris Paralympics, He belongs to which state?

((a))
Bihar
((b))
Rajasthan
((c))
Uttar Pradesh
((d))
Maharashtra
((e))
Karnatka

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

In News

Praveen Kumar wins bronze in Para Athletics Worlds, books 2024 Paris Paralympics berth

Key Points

India's Praveen Kumar won a bronze in the men's high jump T64 event in the World Para Athletics Championships here to book a 2024 Paris Paralympics quota.
The 20-year-old Kumar produced a season's best effort of 2.01m to finish third behind Lepiato Maciej (2.05m) of Poland and Broom-Edwards Jonathan (2.05m) of Great Britain on Monday.
Kumar's medal is the first for India in the championships.
The Noida resident had won a silver in the Tokyo Paralympics.
The top-four ranked athletes at the 2023 World Para Athletics Championships in each of the individual medal events qualify for the 2024 Paralympic Games, also to be held in Paris.
T44 classification is for athletes with a leg deficiency, leg length difference, impaired muscle power or impaired passive range of movement in the legs.

114

Who won the FIFA Women’s World Cup 2023 Final?

((a))
Spain
((b))
England
((c))
Morocco
((d))
Brazil
((e))
Bahrin

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Spain

The correct answer is Spain.

In News

Spain beat England 1-0 to become Women's World Cup champions.

Key Points

Spain beat England by a margin of 1-0 in the final of the Women’s World Cup.
This was courtesy of a firm strike from Olga Carmona from the left wing that beat England goalkeeper Mary Earps in the first half.
The Spanish team has a tournament-best 18 goals in this World Cup.
With this win, Spain also became only the second nation to clinch both the men’s and the women’s World Cups after Germany.

115

Which of the following countries is not a member of the African Union?

((a))
Chad
((b))
Kenya
((c))
Egypt
((d))
Jordan
((e))
Lesotho

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Jordan

The correct answer is Jordan.

Key Points

The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
The following are the few aims of the AU:
Achieve greater unity and solidarity between African countries and their the people.
Defend the sovereignty, territorial integrity and independence of its Member States.
Accelerate the political and socio-economic integration of the continent.
Promote and defend African common positions on issues of interest to the continent and its peoples.
Encourage international cooperation.
Promote peace, security, and stability on the continent.
Promote democratic principles and institutions, popular participation and good governance.

116

The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the :

((a))
Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
((b))
Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
((c))
Creation of mini forests in urban areas
((d))
Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Creation of mini forests in urban areas

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The Miyawaki technique is an urban afforestation method by turning someone’s backyard into a forest. Hence Option 3 is correct.
Miyawaki is a technique pioneered by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, that helps build dense, native forests in a short time.
It has revolutionized the concept of urban afforestation by turning backyards into mini-forests.
This method includes planting trees (only native species) as close as possible in the same area which not only saves space, but the planted saplings also support each other in growth and block sunlight from reaching the ground, thereby preventing the growth of weeds.
The saplings become maintenance-free (self-sustainable) after the first three years.
Miyawaki Process
Examine the Soil Texture and Measure Biomass.
Select Native Species for Plantation.
Prepare the Ground and Equip the Forest Area.
Start the Plantation Process.
Take Care of the Forest for the Next 3 Years.
The Miyawaki method helps create self-sustaining vegetation within 2 to 3 years, whereas a traditional procedure takes nearly 100 years.
The approach is supposed to ensure that plant growth is 10 times faster and the resulting plantation is 30 times denser than usual.

117

'Zudio' is a brand associated with which of the following companies?

((a))
Reliance Group
((b))
Tata Group
((c))
Aditya Birla Group
((d))
Biba Fashion
((e))
Raymond

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Tata Group

The correct answer is Tata Group.

Key Points

Zudio is a brand associated with the Tata Group.
Zudio is a fast-fashion brand that's part of the portfolio of Trent Ltd., a retail arm under the esteemed Tata Group umbrella, marking its presence prominently in the Indian retail market.
Zudio was introduced to the Indian market in 2016.
It emerged under the Tata Group's vision to cater to the growing demand for trendy yet affordable fashion across India.

Additional Information

Other famous brands under the Tata Group are:
Zara
Fastrack
Tanishq
Titan
Westside

118

Which of the following are the Pillars of Cooperation under BRICS?

((a))
Political and Security Cooperation
((b))
Financial and Economic Cooperation
((c))
Cultural and People-to-People Cooperation
((d))
Both 1 and 2
((e))
All of the Above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of the Above

The correct answer is All of the Above.

Key Points

The following are the 3 Pillars of Cooperation under BRICS:
Political and Security Cooperation
Financial and Economic Cooperation
Cultural and People-to-People Cooperation

119

Which of the following countries is NOT a full member of G20?

((a))
Turkey
((b))
Indonesia
((c))
Mexico
((d))
United Arab Emirates
((e))
Italy

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

United Arab Emirates

The correct answer is United Arab Emirates.

Key Points

G20:

Founded in 1999.
It is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors.
Aim- To discuss the policies pertaining to the promotion of international financial stability.
Members:
19 countries and the European Union (EU).
Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, the European Union, and the African Union.
Union Commerce and Industry Minister recently attended the 2nd G20 Virtual Trade & Investment Ministers Meeting, held through video-conferencing.

Additional Information

India will assume the presidency of the G20 (Group of Twenty) for a year starting 1 December 2022 and is expected to host over 200 meetings across the country during its presidency tenure.
The next G20 summit will be held in New Delhi on September 9 and September 10, 2023.
The G20 presidency keeps rotating every year among member nations.
The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika.’

120

Which of the following movies won the Best Picture award at the 2023 Oscars?

((a))
All Quiet on the Western Front
((b))
Everything Everywhere All at Once
((c))
Top Gun: Maverick
((d))
Avatar: The Way of Water
((e))
The Fablemans

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Everything Everywhere All at Once

The correct answer is Everything Everywhere All at Once.

Key Points

Everything Everywhere All at Once won the Best Picture award at the 2023 Oscars.

Everything Everywhere All at Once is also known by its initials EEAAO.
It is a 2022 American comedy-drama film written and directed by Daniel Kwan and Daniel Scheinert (collectively known as "Daniels").

Additional Information

The movie Everything Everywhere All At Once won the award for Best Editing at BAFTA 2023.

English Language (40 questions)

Read the given passage carefully and answer the following question.

In 1984, researchers spotted dolphins doing something broken in Shark Bay, Western Australia. When the animals got hungry, they ripped a marine basket sponge from the sea floor and fitted it over their beaks like a person would fit a glove in a hand. The scientists suspected that as the dolphins foraged for fish, the sponges protected their beaks, or rostra, from the rocks and acoustic chunks of coral that litter the sea floor, making this behaviour the first example of tool use in this species.

The researchers surmised that a long time ago one ingenious Shark Bay dolphin figured out that by prodding the sediments with a sponge attached to her beak, she could stir up these swim bladder-less fish without being hurt. Eventually, such a technique became apparent among other dolphins. But why do dolphins go through all of this trouble when they could simply snag a fish from the open sea? The answer is that the bottom-dwelling fish are a lot more nutritious. Some species also don't have swim bladders or gas chambers that help other fish control their buoyancy as they travel up and down the water column. In the Bahamas, where dolphins are also known to forage for bottom-dwelling fish, dolphins hunt partly by echolocating these bladders, which give off a strong popular signal. That helps the cetaceans find prey even when it's buried in sea sand. But bottom-dwelling fish, such as Barred Sandperch, which are favoured by some Shark Bay dolphins, don't have swim bladders and so are harder to find with echolocation. The sea floor is not nearly as soft here as it is in the Bahamas, so if dolphins want to probe for these fish, they risk injuring their rostra.

Not every dolphin in Shark Bay hunts with sponges. "It's primarily done by females," says Janet Mann, a behavioural ecologist. She believes the female dolphins invented the method because of the "selective pressures they face while raising a calf as long as they do," about 4 to 5 years. "These clever dolphins have figured out a way to target fish that other dolphins cannot," she says, adding that even the local fishermen do not catch, or even know about, this particular species. Mann's previous research has shown that dolphin mothers pass the sponging method to their daughters and some of their sons, rare evidence of a cultural tradition in an animal other than humans. The team has documented three generations of sponging dolphins.

The foraging technique came to light a few decades ago - very recently in evolutionary terms - when a local fisherman spotted what looked like a strange tumour on a dolphin’s nose. Researchers eventually worked out that the ‘tumour’ was a conically shaped sponge and it became unusual that the dolphins would spend considerable time searching for one the right shape to fit their nose. The sponge is used to scatter the sand gently on the sea floor and disturb buried fish. When a fish is spotted, the dolphin drops the sponge and gives chase. "It has been thought that behaviours which are exclusively learnt from one parent are not very stable. With our model we could now show that sponging can be a stable behaviour," said Dr Anna Kopps, a biologist at the University of New South Wales.

121

Choose the synonym of the word 'ingenious.'

((a))
ingenuous
((b))
resourceful
((c))
defiant
((d))
inherent
((e))
tenacious

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

resourceful

The correct answer is 'resourceful'.

Key Points

The word 'ingenious' is used for a person and it means clever, original, and inventive.
For example, 'Homi Jahangir Bhaba was ingenious enough to overcome the limited budget for the mission*.*'
Let us see the word meaning and usage of the words given in the options:
ingenuous ⇒ honest, sincere, and trusting, sometimes in a way that seems silly.(सरल)
For example, 'It was rather ingenuous of him to ask a complete stranger to take care of his luggage.'
resourceful ⇒ having the ability to find quick and clever ways to overcome difficulties.(साधन-संपन्न)
For example, 'She's a very resourceful manager and has been very successful in the companies she has worked in the past.'
defiant ⇒ proudly refusing to obey authority.(विद्रोही)
For example, 'The protesters blocking the entrance to the West Bengal PSC offices remained defiant this morning.'
inherent ⇒ existing as a natural or basic part of something.(अंतर्निहित)
For example, 'I have an inherent distrust of lawyers.'
tenacious⇒ holding tightly onto something, or keeping an opinion in a determined way.(दृढ़)
For example, 'There has been tenacious local opposition to the new airport.'
From the above discussion, we can see that the word 'resourceful' can function as a synonym for 'ingenious.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

122

Which of the following is NOT true, according to the given passage?

((a))
When the Shark Bay dolphins forage for fish at the bottom of the sea, the sponges that they picked up protect their beaks
((b))
Evidence of a cultural tradition passing along to the next generation is rare in an animal other than humans
((c))
The dolphin mothers pass the knowledge of sponging method to their daughters and some of their sons
((d))
It is predominantly female sharks that use the sponging method to catch bottom-dwelling fishes
((e))
They acquire the marine basket sponge by ripping it from the sea floor

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

It is predominantly female sharks that use the sponging method to catch bottom-dwelling fishes

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e., the statement of this option is NOT true.

Key Points

Let's take a look at the following sentences:
'In 1984, researchers spotted dolphins doing something unusual in Shark Bay, Western Australia. When the animals got hungry, they ripped a marine basket sponge from the sea floor and fitted it over their beaks like a person would fit a glove over a hand.'
From the above sentence, we can say that the following two statements are correct according to the given passage:
'When the Shark Bay dolphins forage for fish at the bottom of the sea, the sponges that they picked up protect their beaks.'
'They acquire the marine basket sponge by ripping it from the sea floor.'
'Mann's previous research has shown that dolphin mothers pass the sponging method to their daughters and some of their sons, rare evidence of a cultural tradition in an animal other than humans.'
From the above sentence, we can say that the following two statements are correct according to the given passage:
'The dolphin mothers pass the knowledge of the sponging method to their daughters and some of their sons'
'Evidence of a cultural tradition passing along to the next generation is rare in an animal other than humans.'
'Not every dolphin in Shark Bay hunts with sponges. "It's primarily done by females," says Janet Mann, a behavioural ecologist.'
From the above sentence, we can say that the following statement is incorrect according to the given passage:
'It is predominantly female sharks that use the sponging method to catch bottom-dwelling fishes.'
It is female dolphins that use the technique, not female sharks.
From the above references, we can see that except for the marked option, other statements are correct, according to the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

123

What does biologist Dr. Anna say?

((a))
sponging is very dangerous for dolphins.
((b))
dolphins do not inherit sponging method from their parents.
((c))
she has benn studying dolphins for a few decades now.
((d))
sponging can be a stable behaviour.
((e))
sponging is primarily done by the females.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

sponging can be a stable behaviour.

The correct answer is 'sponging can be a stable behaviour.'

Key Points

Let's take a look at the following sentences:
'"It has been thought that behaviours which are exclusively learnt from one parent are not very stable. With our model we could now show that sponging can be a stable behaviour," said Dr Anna Kopps, a biologist at the University of New South Wales.'
From the above sentence, we can say that Dr. Anna has found from their study model that sponging can be a stable behaviour.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Mistake Points

Although the statement 'sponging is primarily done by the females.' is correct, it has been accredited to Janet Mann, as per the passage, and not to Dr. Anna.

124

Why do the Shark Bay Dolphins primarily scavenge for bottom-dwelling fishes instead of catching fishes from the open water?

((a))
They find these fishes more tasty.
((b))
The bottom-dwelling fishes give signal through echolocation.
((c))
The open water fishes injure the rostra of the dolphins
((d))
Open water fishes are hard to locate through echolocation.
((e))
The bottom-dwelling fish are a lot more nutritious than the open water fishes.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The bottom-dwelling fish are a lot more nutritious than the open water fishes.

The correct answer is 'The bottom-dwelling fish are a lot more nutritious than the open water fishes.'

Key Points

The given passage discusses the 'latest observation of the WR-140 star system made by the James Webb Telescope.'
Let's take a look at the following lines of the passage:
'But why do dolphins go through all of this trouble when they could simply snag a fish from the open sea? The answer is that the bottom-dwelling fish are a lot more nutritious.'
From the above part of the text, we can see that the main reason why the Shark Bay dolphins prefer to scavenge bottom-dwelling fish over open-water fish is that the bottom-dwelling fish are a lot more nutritious than the open water fishes.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 5.

125

Choose the antonym of the word 'particular.'

((a))
specific
((b))
distinct
((c))
precise
((d))
typical
((e))
idiosyncratic

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

typical

The correct answer is 'typical'.

Key Points

The word 'particular' as an adjective is used to single out an individual member of a specified group or class and may refer to a special entity.
For example, 'My daughter wanted a particular type of cactus*.*'
Let us see the word meanings and usage of the words given in the options:
specific ⇒ clearly defined or identified; particular.
For example, 'The virus attacks some of the specific cells in the brain.'
distinct ⇒ clearly noticeable.
For example, 'There's a distinct smell of cigarettes in here.'
precise ⇒ exact and accurate.
For example, 'The bunker's precise location is a closely guarded secret.'
typical ⇒ representative of all the distinct qualities of a particular type; general.
For example, 'Typical symptoms of exposure to radiation would include severe headaches, vomiting and dizziness.'
idiosyncratic ⇒ having strange or unusual habits, ways of behaving, or features.
For example, 'The film, Sicario, two hours long, is directed in Denis's usual idiosyncratic style*.*'
From the above discussion, we can see that the word 'typical' can function as an antonym for 'particular.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

126

What improvement is needed in the highlighted phrase "glove in a hand"?

((a))
glove over a hand.
((b))
glove at a hand.
((c))
glove for hand.
((d))
glove to a hand.
((e))
No Improvement

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

glove over a hand.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

The corrected phrase "glove over a hand" accurately describes the action of covering or wearing a glove, which parallels the dolphins' behavior of covering their beaks with sponges.
This Option correctly conveys the idea of something being worn or fitted onto another object, much like how a glove is worn over a hand, making it the most appropriate improvement from the provided options.

127

Why do Shark Bay dolphins prefer to target bottom-dwelling fish despite the inherent risks and added difficulty?

((a))
These fish are easier to catch with echolocation compared to other fish.
((b))
Bottom-dwelling fish are more abundant on the sea floor.
((c))
These fish offer a significant nutritional advantage over open sea fish.
((d))
The dolphins have a cultural preference for the taste of these fish.
((e))
Hunting with sponges for these fish is a rite of passage for young dolphins.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

These fish offer a significant nutritional advantage over open sea fish.

Correct Answer: C. These fish offer a significant nutritional advantage over open-sea fish.

Key Points

The passage explains that dolphins in Shark Bay go through the trouble of using sponges to target bottom-dwelling fish, despite the challenge and risks involved, because these fish are a lot more nutritious.
This nutritional advantage makes the effort worthwhile. Some species of bottom-dwelling fish also lack swim bladders (or gas chambers) that other fish use to control their buoyancy, making them harder to detect with echolocation.
The increased difficulty and potential risk to the dolphins' rostra from the hard sea floor are offset by the nutritional benefits these fish provide.

128

Which of the following sentences is true as per the passage?

Dolphins in Shark Bay show cultural adaptation by using sponges as foraging tools, a behavior passed down generations.
Dolphins communicate complexly and symbolize social standing through the use of sponges in Shark Bay.
Dolphins' preference for sponges is due to the enhanced taste of sponge-filtered water on their prey.

((a))
Only 1
((b))
Only 2
((c))
Only 3
((d))
Both 1 and 2
((e))
Only 1 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only 1

The Correct Answer is: A. Only 1

Key Points

According to the passage, the sponge-using behavior of Shark Bay dolphins is a remarkable example of cultural adaptation and knowledge transmission within their community.
There's no evidence to suggest it's used for complex communication or influenced by a taste preference for sponge-filtered water, making Option A the most accurate option.

Additional Information

2. Dolphins communicate complexly and symbolize social standing through the use of sponges in Shark Bay.
This sentence suggests that dolphins in Shark Bay use sponges not only as tools but also as mediums of complex communication and indicators of social hierarchy within their groups. While dolphins are known for their sophisticated communication skills and social structures, the passage does not provide evidence to support the specific claim that sponges are used for these purposes. The primary context provided emphasizes the tool-use aspect of sponges for foraging, without mentioning their role in communication or social symbolism. Therefore, this statement is not correct as per the passage.
3. Dolphins' preference for sponges is due to the enhanced taste of sponge-filtered water on their prey.
This sentence proposes that the reason dolphins in Shark Bay use sponges as foraging tools is because the sponges somehow alter the taste of the water, making their prey more palatable. This idea introduces a completely novel rationale for sponge use, focusing on taste preference rather than the pragmatic aspects of tool use for protection and efficiency in hunting bottom-dwelling fish. The passage does not suggest that the taste of prey or water plays any role in the dolphins' tool choice. Instead, it emphasizes the cognitive and cultural significance of sponge use. Therefore, this too is incorrect.

In summary, the true insight drawn from the passage is the cultural and cognitive implications of sponge use among Shark Bay dolphins (Option 1), while the ideas of using sponges for complex communication or for taste preferences (Options 2 and 3) are not substantiated by the passage.

129

What is a suitable title for the passage?

((a))
Sponging Dolphins and inheritance of learned behaviour
((b))
Interesting dolphins of the Shark Bay
((c))
Ingenuity of female dolphins
((d))
Sponging: a new technique of fish foraging of the dolphins
((e))
Echolocation vs Sponging: a comparative analysis of food foraging by the dolphins

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Sponging Dolphins and inheritance of learned behaviour

The correct answer is 'Sponging Dolphins and inheritance of learned behaviour.'

Key Points

The given passage is an article that discusses a scientific study on the 'sponging dolphins, their invention of this new tool and how their this new learning is passed on to the next generation.'
In the first very first paragraph, the passage introduces the unusual behaviour of a particular group of dolphins: use of marine basket sponge as a glove on their rostra during fishing at the bottom of the sea.'
The second paragraph elaborates on the reasons scientists found why those dolphins use sponges for the mentioned purpose.
The third and the fourth passage give us an insight into the behaviour from the study of the scientists and the models they have developed based on their observation. The fourth passage also clarifies how the dolphins use the technique. Here we learn that this behaviour is mostly seen among female dolphins and that they pass along the wisdom and the learning to their offspring. We also get an assertion by Dr Anna Kopps that they have learnt that this passage of learning is not random and is actually stable.
Considering the above points, we can rightly conclude that the central theme of the passage is 'Sponging Dolphins and inheritance of learned behaviour.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Important Points

The purpose of the 'Choose A Title' kind of question is to determine a student's understanding of the 'big idea' of a text. Students are required to select a title, that is the most appropriate for the whole passage, from a list of titles that are provided. To successfully recognise the differences between details and main ideas, you have to remember that all of the title options will be relevant to a part of the text – the skill needed is for you to pick the one that is representative of the whole passage, not just a part of it.
Keep a close eye, and try to look for the Topic sentence or Thesis statement (a sentence that sums up the central point of the paper, article or essay).

130

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. on the surface of the earth

B. radiation of the sun

C. gases in the atmosphere

D. trap the infrared

E. which generates heat

((a))
EBDCA
((b))
CDBEA
((c))
DBCEA
((d))
ABDEC
((e))
BEDAC

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

CDBEA

The correct answer is CDBEA.

Key Points

C is the part that establishes the subject of the matter i.e. 'Gases'. Hence, it'll be the first part after rearrangement.
Part D is a continuation of C as gases in the atmosphere are trapped. Hence, D follows C.
Part B talks about radiation which is a form in which these gases are trapped. Hence, B follows D.
Part E talks about the heat that is generated by this radiation. So, E follows B.
Part A is a continuation of E as heat is generated on the surface of earth. Hence, A follows E.

Correct rearrangement of segments is: Gases in the atmosphere trap the infrared radiation of the sun which generates heat on the surface of the earth.

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So those options will be always at the end.

131

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. for numerous people

B. and also means of livelihood

C. various types of forests

D. are home to a

E. thousand animals

((a))
ABECD
((b))
CDEBA
((c))
EDBCA
((d))
DEABC
((e))
BDEAC

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

CDEBA

The correct answer is CDEBA.

Key Points

C is the part that establishes the subject of the matter i.e. 'types of forests'. Hence, it'll be the first part after rearrangement.
Part D talks about the home which refers to various types of forests mentioned in C. Hence, D follows C.
Part E talks about animals for whom forests are a home. Hence, E follows D.
Part B talks about the livelihood that is created because of trees. So, B follows E.
Part A talks about people whose livelihood depends on forests. Hence, A follows B.

Correct rearrangement of segments is: Various types of forests are home to a thousand animals and also means of livelihood for numerous people

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So those options will be always at the end.

132

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. than those who do not.

B. can control and handle

C. in a sophisticated way

D. a disciplined person

E. the situation of living

((a))
ABCED
((b))
EBDCA
((c))
DBECA
((d))
BCDEA
((e))
CDBEA

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

DBECA

The correct answer is DBECA.

Key Points

D is the part that establishes the subject of the matter i.e. 'A disciplined person'. Hence, it'll be the first part after rearrangement.
Part B talks about what a disciplined person can do i.e. control and handle. Hence, B follows D.
Part E talks about the situation of life that can be controlled and handled by a disciplined person. Hence, E follows B.
Part C tells us that these people control and handle life in a sophisticated way. So, C follows E.
Part A talks about people who don't control and handle thier life in a sophisticated way. Hence, A follows C.

Correct rearrangement of segments is: A disciplined person can control and handle the situation of living in a sophisticated way than those who do not.

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So those options will be always at the end.

133

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. life essentials; food and oxygen

B. valuable and necessary

C. trees are very important,

D. have furnished us with two important

E. to our existence as they

((a))
CBEDA
((b))
EDBCA
((c))
ABCDE
((d))
DEBCA
((e))
BDECA

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

CBEDA

The correct answer is CBEDA.

Key Points

C is the part that establishes the subject of the matter i.e. 'Trees'. Hence, it'll be the first part after rearrangement.
Part B mentions valuable which refers to trees. Hence, B follows C.
Part E talks about existence which is necessary as mentioned in B. Hence, E follows B.
Part D tells us why trees are necessary to our existence that is they furnish( means to supply or give) us with important things So, D follows E.
Part A talks about the two important things that trees give u that is food and oxygen. Hence, A follows D.

Correct rearrangement of segments is: Trees are very important, valuable and necessary to our existence as they have furnished us with two important life essentials; food and oxygen.

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So those options will be always at the end.

134

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. electricity through natural means.

B. use megawatts of electricity

C. this can help in getting cheap

D. the industries which

E. must install windmills.

((a))
CBDEA
((b))
EBDCA
((c))
DBECA
((d))
ABEDC
((e))
BCEDA

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

DBECA

The correct answer is DBECA.

Key Points

D is the part that establishes the subject of the matter i.e. 'The industries'. Hence, it'll be the first part after rearrangement.
Part B talks about megawatts of electricity must be used to describes the industries mentioned in D. Hence, B follows D.
Part E talks about windmills that must be installed by these industries. Hence, E follows B.
In part C, this refers to windmills because it helps in getting cheaper electricity. So, C follows E.
Part A talks about electricity through natural means that are referred to windmills as wind is a natural resource. Hence, A follows C.

Correct rearrangement of segments is: The industries which use megawatts of electricity must install windmills. This can help in getting cheap electricity through natural means.

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So those options will be always at the end.

135

In the given question, a sentence is given with a part of it missing and represented by a blank. Choose the phrase that can be placed in the given blank to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.

India has had an inspiring journey towards better production and achieving self-sufficiency and is now one of ______________ exporters.

((a))
a larger agricultural product
((b))
the largest agricultural product
((c))
an larger agricultural product
((d))
the large agricultural product
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

the largest agricultural product

The correct answer is "the largest agricultural product."

Key Points

The phrase “One of the” specifies a person, place, or thing in a sentence and shows that it is different from other people, places, or things or it also falls in the category of the best.
In the given sentence, the export capacity of India has been attributed as the best among the other countries.
Also, since we are mentioning the noun "India" as the best, we will use the superlative degree of comparison with it.
A superlative adjective expresses the extreme or highest degree of quality. We use a superlative adjective to describe the extreme quality of one thing in a group of things.
Example: "Biggest" is the superlative form of the adjective "big."
In the context of the given sentence, we will use the superlative form of the adjective "large" i.e. "largest."
When we use a superlative adjective ('the tallest student') before the noun, we generally use it with 'the'. This is because there's only one (or one group) of the things we are talking about.
Thus, by using the above-given information, we can eliminate options 1, 3, and 4.
The correct sentence: India has had an inspiring journey towards better production and achieving self-sufficiency and is now one of the largest agricultural product exporters.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

136

A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has unanimously held that a judgment delivered by a larger Bench will _____________ of a smaller Bench.

((a))
prevail since the decision
((b))
withheld over the decision
((c))
withheld in the decision
((d))
prevail over the decision
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

prevail over the decision

The correct answer is "prevail over the decision."

Key Points

Let us understand the meaning of the following words:
"Prevail" means to get control or influence on something.
Example: I am sure that the truth will prevail in the end.
"Withheld" means to refuse to give something to somebody.
Example: Payment was withheld until the work was completed.
According to the sentence, it can be inferred that the blank will emphasize the idea that the decision of the larger bench will be more influential than the decision of the smaller bench.
Thus, the correct word to use is "prevail."
Thus, options 2 and 3 will be eliminated.
Also, "over" is used to show that somebody has control or authority.
Example: He ruled over a great empire.
Thus, we will use the phrase "prevail over the decision."
The correct sentence is: A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has unanimously held that a judgment delivered by a larger Bench will prevail over the decision of a smaller Bench.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

137

Hackers can also break into online websites and mobile apps that ___________ details.

((a))
dismantle your credit card
((b))
dislocate your credit card
((c))
store your credit card
((d))
store their credit card
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

store your credit card

The correct answer is "store your credit card."

Key Points

Let us understand the meaning of the following words:
"Dismantle" means to take a machine apart or to come apart into separate pieces.
Example: I had to dismantle the washing machine in order to repair it.
"Dislocate" means to force a bone suddenly out of its correct position.
Example: She dislocated her elbow bones in the accident.
"Store" means to put or keep things in a special place for use in the future.
Example: Squirrels store nuts for the winter.
In the given sentence, the correct word to use will be "store" i.e. the details are stored by the mobile apps.
And since the discussed details are of the person reading the information and not of the hackers, we will use "your" in the phrase.
The correct sentence is: Hackers can also break into online websites and mobile apps that store your credit card details.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

138

The SJM asserted that India had _____________ and methodology used in evaluation of the country.

((a))
questioned the data
((b))
questions the data
((c))
been questioned the data
((d))
have question the data
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

questioned the data

The correct answer is "questioned the data."

Key Points

In the given sentence, the use of "had" indicates that the sentence is in the past tense as the action took place in the past.
'Had' is used in the case of Past Perfect Tense or Present Perfect Tense.
The past perfect simple tense is formed by using the auxiliary verb 'had' together with the V3 (past participle).
Now, among the given options:
Only options 1 and 3 have the V3 form of the verb.
Thus, we will eliminate options 2 and 4.
The past perfect continuous is made from had been and the -ing form of a verb.
Since the given sentence is in the past perfect tense, option 3 will be eliminated as well.
From the above explanation, it is clear that the correct phrase to fill in the blank is "questioned the data."
The correct sentence: The SJM asserted that India had questioned the data and methodology used in the evaluation of the country.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

139

Directions: The given sentence is divided into four parts that are A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark E i.e. No error as your answer.

Twitter’s ability to maintain its (A) previous level of brand safety (B) measures and effectiveness seems (C) impeded in the immediately term. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Part D of the sentence i.e. 'impeded in the immediately term' is erroneous.

The adverb 'immediately' given before the noun 'term' is incorrect and it should be replaced with the adjective 'immediate'.
The noun term need an adjective before it not an adverb.
Hence, the correct answer is D.
The correct sentence would be - Twitter’s ability to maintain its previous level of brand safety measures and effectiveness seems impeded in the immediate term.

Additional Information

Difference between adjectives and adverbs -

Adjective - An adjective is a word that modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. Adjectives can be used to describe the qualities of someone or something independently or in comparison to something else.
For Example -
She wore a beautiful dress at her birthday party.
Adverb - An adverb is a word that modifies (describes) a verb (he sings loudly), an adjective (very tall), another adverb (ended too quickly), or even a whole sentence (Fortunately, I had brought an umbrella). Adverbs often end in –ly, but some (such as fast) look exactly the same as their adjective counterparts.
For Example -
She was beautifully dressed at her birthday party.

140

Advanced economies are (A) expected to bear the brunt as (B) it aggressively pursued (C) monetary tightening in 2022. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Part C of the sentence i.e. 'it aggressively pursued' is erroneous.

The pronoun 'it' given in part C of the question is incorrect as it doesn't agree with the subject of the sentence i.e. Economies.
'It' should be replaced with 'they' because 'they' is a plural personal pronoun and as the subject of the sentence is plural, the pronoun 'they' should be used.
Hence, the correct answer is C.
The correct sentence would be - Advanced economies are expected to bear the brunt as they aggressively pursued monetary tightening in 2022.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of important vocab given in the sentence -

Expect means regard (something) as likely to happen. (अपेक्षा करना)
Aggressively means in a determined and forceful way. (उग्रता के साथ)
Pursue means follow or chase (someone or something). (पाने की कोशिश करना)
Monetary means relating to money or currency. (मौद्रिक)

141

Microsoft had been trying to retiring its (A) Internet Explorer browser for nearly 8 years (B) now, labelling it a compatibility solution for (C) businesses rather than a browser for daily use. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Part A of the sentence i.e. 'Microsoft had been trying to retiring its' is erroneous.

Here, after the preposition 'to' the verb 'retire' is given as its present participle (retiring) which is incorrect because as per English grammar rules, after the preposition 'to' we use the base form of the verb.
Thus, 'retiring' should be replaced with 'retire'.
Hence, the correct answer is A.
The correct sentence would be - Microsoft had been trying to retire its Internet Explorer browser for nearly 8 years now, labelling it a compatibility solution for businesses rather than a browser for daily use.

142

When we get protein through food, (A) the body metabolises it naturally, (B) in a way it is meant to, (C) unlike when its an isolated nutrient. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Part D of the sentence i.e. 'unlike when its an isolated nutrient' is erroneous.

Part D of the sentence is incorrect because the use of the word 'its' is incorrect in the context of the sentence and it should be replaced with 'it's'.
Difference between Its and It's -
Its (without an apostrophe) is a possessive pronoun, like his or her, for nouns that don't have a defined gender. In contrast, It's (with an apostrophe) is the shortened form, or contraction, of it is or it has.
For Example -
It's very cold outside.
The remote is not working properly, we need to change its batteries.
Hence, the correct answer is D.
The correct sentence would be - When we get protein through food, the body metabolises it naturally, in a way it is meant to, unlike when it's an isolated nutrient.

143

For the first time, researchers from (A) the Norwegian Institute for Marine Research has (B) studied the concentration of nutrients in whale (C) excrement before it is dissolved in seawater.(D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Part B of the sentence i.e. 'the Norwegian Institute for Marine Research has' is erroneous.

The helping verb 'has' given in part B of the given sentence is incorrect and it should be replaced with the helping verb 'have'.
The subject of the sentence is plural (researchers) and thus, the helping herb should be plural too.
Hence, the correct answer is B.
The correct sentence would be - For the first time, researchers from the Norwegian Institute for Marine Research have studied the concentration of nutrients in whale excrement before it is dissolved in seawater.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of important vocab given in the sentence -

Concentration means the relative amount of a particular substance contained within a solution or mixture or in a particular volume of space. (सघनता)
Excrement means waste matter discharged from the bowels; faeces. (उत्सर्जित पदार्थ)
Dissolve means (with reference to a solid) become or cause to become incorporated into a liquid so as to form a solution. (घुलना)

144

Direction: Match Column I with Column II (Antonyms)

Column I	Column II
A. Hinder	I. Accidental
B. Hunger	II. Tiny
C. Immense	III. Distaste
D. Intentional	IV. Aid

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

((a))
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
((b))
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
((c))
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
((d))
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

The correct answer is 'A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.'

Key Points

Let us see the meanings of the given options:
Hinder: to make it more difficult for somebody/something to do something. (व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु के लिए कठिनाई पैदा करना, किसी के काम में बाधा डालना)
Hunger: the state of not having enough food to eat, especially when this causes illness or death. (भोजन की कमी (विशेषतः जब इससे रोग या मृत्‍यु हो जाए))
Immense: very big or great. (अत्‍यधिक, असीम, अपार)
Intentional: done on purpose, not by chance. (सोद्देश्‍य किया गया (अकस्‍मात); साभिप्राय)
Accidental: happening by chance; not planned. (आकस्मिक; जिसकी कोई योजना न हो)
Tiny: very small. (बहुत छोटा; नन्‍हा)
Distaste: not liking something; the feeling that somebody/something is unpleasant or offends you. (अरुचि; नाक-भौं सिकोड़ते हुए, नापसंदगी)
Aid: help. (मदद, सहायता)
Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.
Correct match:
Hinder: Aid
Hunger: Distaste
Immense: Tiny
Intentional: Accidental

145

Direction: Match Column I with Column II (Antonyms)

Column I	Column II
A. Misunderstand	I. Slow
B. Possible	II. Comprehend
C. Prudent	III. Unlikely
D. Rapid	IV. Foolish

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

((a))
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
((b))
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
((c))
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
((d))
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

)The correct answer is 'A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.'

Key Points

Let us see the meanings of the given options:
Misunderstand: to understand somebody/something wrongly. (किसी व्यक्ति या वस्‍तु को समझने में ग़लती करना)
Possible: that can happen or be done. (संभव (जो घटित हो सके या किया जा सके), शक्‍य)
Prudent: sensible and careful when making judgements and decisions; avoiding unnecessary risks. (मूल्‍यांकन और निर्णय करने में सावधान और विवेकपूर्ण; अनावश्‍यक ख़तरों से बचते हुए)
Rapid: happening very quickly or moving with great speed. (द्रुत (गति से होने वाला) या द्रुतगामी)
Slow: moving, doing something or happening without much speed; not fast. (धीमी गति से चलते, करते या घटित होते हुए, धीमा या धीमे; वेग से नहीं, मंद)
Comprehend: to understand something completely. ((किसी बात को) पूरी तरह समझना)
Unlikely: not likely to happen; not expected; not probable. (असंभावित; अप्रत्‍याशित; असंभाव्‍य)
Foolish: silly; not sensible. (बेवक़ूफ़; बेअक़ल, बुद्धिहीन, विवेकहीन)
Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.
Correct match:
Misunderstand: Comprehend
Possible: Unlikely
Prudent: Foolish
Rapid: Slow

146

Direction: Match Column I with Column II (Synonyms)

Column I	Column II
A. Calm	I. Certain
B. Dangerous	II. Unruffled
C. Decide	III. Perilous
D. Definite	IV. Settle

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

((a))
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
((b))
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
((c))
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
((d))
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

The correct answer is 'A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.'

Key Points

Let us see the meanings of the given options:
Calm: not excited, worried or angry; quiet. (शांत, चुपचाप)
Dangerous: likely to cause injury or damage. (ख़तरनाक, भयंकर)
Decide: to think about two or more possibilities and choose one of them. (दो या अधिक विकल्‍पों पर विचार कर एक का चयन करना)
Definite: fixed and unlikely to change; certain. (सुनिश्चित और अपरिवर्तनीय; संदेहरहित, निश्‍चित, अवश्‍यंभावी)
Certain: sure to happen or to do something; definite. (अवश्‍यंभावी; निश्चित, पक्‍का, सुस्‍पष्‍ट)
Unruffled: not worried in a difficult situation; calm. (कठिन परिस्थितियों में अविक्षुब्ध; अनुद्विग्न; शांत, बेहरकत)
Perilous: full of danger or risk. (ख़तरनाक, जोखिम-भरा)
Settle: to decide or arrange something finally. (किसी बात को अंतिम रूप से तय या व्‍यवस्थित कर देना)
Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.
Correct match:
Calm: Unruffled
Dangerous: Perilous
Decide: Settle
Definite: Certain

147

Direction: Match Column I with Column II (Synonyms)

Column I	Column II
A. Eager	I. Quick
B. Explain	II. Impartial
C. Fair	III. Elaborate
D. Fast	IV. Keen

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

((a))
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
((b))
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
((c))
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
((d))
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

The correct answer is 'A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.'

Key Points

Let us see the meanings of the given options:
Eager: strongly wanting to do or have something. (कुछ करने या पाने की प्रबल इच्छा)
Explain: to make something clear or easy to understand. (समझना, स्‍पष्‍ट करना)
Fair: treating each person or side equally, according to the law, the rules, etc., impartial. (प्रत्‍येक व्‍यक्ति या पक��ष से समानता का व्‍यवहार करते हुए, निष्पक्ष)
Fast: able to move or act at great speed. (तेज़, तीव्रगामी)
Quick: done with speed; taking or lasting a short time. (फुरती से किया गया; थोड़ा समय लेने या रहने वाला)
Impartial: not supporting one person or group more than another; fair. (जिसमें दो पक्षों में से किसी एक को अधिक प्रमुखता न दी जाए; निष्‍पक्ष)
Elaborate: to give more details about something. (विस्‍तार से वर्णन करना)
Keen: very interested in something; wanting to do something. (किसी बात में बहुत रुचि रखने वाला; कुछ करने का इच्‍छुक, लालायित, उत्‍सुक)
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
Correct match:
Eager: Keen
Explain: Elaborate
Fair: Impartial
Fast: Quick

148

Each of the following sentences has a blank space and five words are given below. Click on the word which you consider the most APPROPRIATE to fit the blank.

Morial also pointed out the necessity for our community to be able to build ______ businesses that can grow.

((a))
scalable
((b))
incorporate
((c))
obsessive
((d))
deployed
((e))
composed

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

scalable

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. scalable.

Explanation

Let's look at the meanings of the given options-

Scalable means able to be changed in size or scale.
Incorporate means take in or contain (something) as part of a whole; include.
Obsessive means of the nature of an obsession.
Deployed means brought into effective action.
Composed means wrote or created (a work of art, especially music or poetry).

The sentence mentions businesses that have the capability of growth. Hence, the most adjective to be used in the blank is 'scalable'.

The sentence is- Morial also pointed out the necessity for our community to be able to build scalable businesses that can grow.

149

Each of the following sentences has a blank space and five words are given below. Click on the word which you consider the most APPROPRIATE to fit the blank.

The police have accused him of _____ with three others to sell illegal products.

((a))
conspiring
((b))
suspecting
((c))
demanding
((d))
honouring
((e))
paving

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

conspiring

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. conspiring.

Explanation

Let's look at the meanings of the options-

Conspiring means making secret plans jointly to commit an unlawful or harmful act.
Suspecting means having an idea or impression of the existence, presence, or truth of (something) without certain proof.
Demanding means requiring much skill or effort.
Honouring means regarding with respect.
Paving means covering (a piece of ground) with flat stones or bricks.

The only word that can make the sentence contextually and grammatically correct is 'conspiring' as the sentence mentions the sale of illegal products.

The sentence is- The police have accused him of conspiring with three others to sell illegal products.

150

Each of the following sentences has a blank space and five words are given below. Click on the word which you consider the most APPROPRIATE to fit the blank.

He was an ______ photographer until the age of 30 when he turned professional.

((a))
obliged
((b))
perpetual
((c))
amateur
((d))
ceasing
((e))
eternal

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

amateur

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. amateur.

Explanation

Let's look at the meanings of the given words-

Obliged means make (someone) legally or morally bound to do something.
Perpetual means never ending or changing.
Amateur means a person who engages in a pursuit, especially a sport, on an unpaid rather than a professional basis.
Ceasing means come or bring to an end.
Eternal means lasting or existing forever; without end.

The person mentioned in the sentence became a professional only after turning 30 years. So, the word that can be used to describe what he was before that is 'amateur'.

The sentence is- He was an amateur photographer until the age of 30 when he turned professional.

Rearrange the following five sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A)The wish of her was to do a challenging study on biotechnology, 'cause she loves adventures of fairy tales from her early childhood.

(B) She flew like a free bird in a beautiful school in Dubai.

(D) Aarthi, a teenage girl loves learning more apart from her syllabus.

(E) One evening, all of a sudden her dad got cardiac arrest and They are forced to move to their home country, India.

151

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The correct answer is E.

Key Points

(D) Aarthi, a teenage girl loves learning more apart from her syllabus.
This introduces the main character, Aarthi.
(A) The wish of her was to do a challenging study on biotechnology, 'cause she loves adventures of fairy tales from her early childhood.
This sentence gives information about her interests and desires.
(B) She flew like a free bird in a beautiful school in Dubai.
This provides context about her current situation, which aligns with her free-spirited nature and adventurous interests.
(C) She had a friend named Lakhmi, she loves her more than any other.
This gives information about her personal relationships in Dubai.
(E) One evening, all of a sudden her dad got cardiac arrest and They are forced to move to their home country, India.
This introduces a turning point that causes a major change in her life.
Thus, the correct order is: D, A, B, C, E.
Hence, the fifth sentence after rearrangement is: E.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 5.

Rearranged Paragraph: Aarthi, a teenage girl loves learning more apart from her syllabus. The wish of her was to do a challenging study on biotechnology, 'cause she loves adventures of fairy tales from her early childhood. She flew like a free bird in a beautiful school in Dubai. She had a friend named Lakhmi, she loves her more than any other. One evening, all of a sudden her dad got cardiac arrest and they are forced to move to their home country, India.

152

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
E
((d))
C
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is C.

Key Points

(D) Aarthi, a teenage girl loves learning more apart from her syllabus.
This introduces the main character, Aarthi.
(A) The wish of her was to do a challenging study on biotechnology, 'cause she loves adventures of fairy tales from her early childhood.
This sentence gives information about her interests and desires.
(B) She flew like a free bird in a beautiful school in Dubai.
This provides context about her current situation, which aligns with her free-spirited nature and adventurous interests.
(C) She had a friend named Lakhmi, she loves her more than any other.
This gives information about her personal relationships in Dubai.
(E) One evening, all of a sudden her dad got cardiac arrest and They are forced to move to their home country, India.
This introduces a turning point that causes a major change in her life.
Thus, the correct order is: D, A, B, C, E.
Hence, the fourth sentence after rearrangement is: C.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Rearranged Paragraph: Aarthi, a teenage girl loves learning more apart from her syllabus. The wish of her was to do a challenging study on biotechnology, 'cause she loves adventures of fairy tales from her early childhood. She flew like a free bird in a beautiful school in Dubai. She had a friend named Lakhmi, she loves her more than any other. One evening, all of a sudden her dad got cardiac arrest and they are forced to move to their home country, India.

153

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
E
((b))
B
((c))
A
((d))
C
((e))
D

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is B.

Key Points

(D) Aarthi, a teenage girl loves learning more apart from her syllabus.
This introduces the main character, Aarthi.
(A) The wish of her was to do a challenging study on biotechnology, 'cause she loves adventures of fairy tales from her early childhood.
This sentence gives information about her interests and desires.
(B) She flew like a free bird in a beautiful school in Dubai.
This provides context about her current situation, which aligns with her free-spirited nature and adventurous interests.
(C) She had a friend named Lakhmi, she loves her more than any other.
This gives information about her personal relationships in Dubai.
(E) One evening, all of a sudden her dad got cardiac arrest and They are forced to move to their home country, India.
This introduces a turning point that causes a major change in her life.
Thus, the correct order is: D, A, B, C, E.
Hence, the third sentence after rearrangement is: B.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

154

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
D
((c))
B
((d))
E
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is A.

Key Points

(D) Aarthi, a teenage girl loves learning more apart from her syllabus.
This introduces the main character, Aarthi.
(A) The wish of her was to do a challenging study on biotechnology, 'cause she loves adventures of fairy tales from her early childhood.
This sentence gives information about her interests and desires.
(B) She flew like a free bird in a beautiful school in Dubai.
This provides context about her current situation, which aligns with her free-spirited nature and adventurous interests.
(C) She had a friend named Lakhmi, she loves her more than any other.
This gives information about her personal relationships in Dubai.
(E) One evening, all of a sudden her dad got cardiac arrest and They are forced to move to their home country, India.
This introduces a turning point that causes a major change in her life.
Thus, the correct order is: D, A, B, C, E.
Hence, the second sentence after rearrangement is: A.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

155

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is D.

Key Points

(D) Aarthi, a teenage girl loves learning more apart from her syllabus.
This introduces the main character, Aarthi.
(A) The wish of her was to do a challenging study on biotechnology, 'cause she loves adventures of fairy tales from her early childhood.
This sentence gives information about her interests and desires.
(B) She flew like a free bird in a beautiful school in Dubai.
This provides context about her current situation, which aligns with her free-spirited nature and adventurous interests.
(C) She had a friend named Lakhmi, she loves her more than any other.
This gives information about her personal relationships in Dubai.
(E) One evening, all of a sudden her dad got cardiac arrest and They are forced to move to their home country, India.
This introduces a turning point that causes a major change in her life.
Thus, the correct order is: D, A, B, C, E.
Hence, the first sentence after rearrangement is: D.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

156

Directions: In the following sentence, four words given in bold are marked as A, B, C, and D, which are possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If no interchange is required, mark option 5 i.e., "No interchange required" as your answer.

Amending exploited (A) funds regulations is integrity (B) to address loopholes alternative (C) by NBFCs, restoring imperative (D) and transparency in financial markets.

((a))
D-C and B-A
((b))
A-C
((c))
C-A and B-D
((d))
B-D
((e))
No interchange required

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

C-A and B-D

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given sentence this way:

Amending ________ funds regulations is ________ to address loopholes ________ by NBFCs, restoring ________ and transparency in financial markets.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the marked words:
(A) Exploited - taken advantage of unfairly or selfishly for one's own gain (शोषित)
For Example -
The workers were exploited by their employers, who paid them below minimum wage for long hours of labour.
(B) Integrity - the quality of being honest and having strong moral principles; the state of being whole or undivided (अखंडता)
For Example -
She admired his integrity, as he always stood by his principles even when facing difficult decisions.
(C) Alternative - an option or choice that is available as a substitute for something else; different from the usual or conventional (विकल्प)
For Example -
They decided to take an alternative route to avoid the traffic jam on the main road.
(D) Imperative - of vital importance; crucial; necessary (अनिवार्य)
For Example -
It is imperative to address climate change to ensure the survival of future generations.
After understanding the meanings of the marked words, we can conclude that, in the given sentence, swapping "exploited (A)" and "alternative (C)" and "integrity (B)" and "imperative (D)" would make the sentence more grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.
The word "exploited" does not logically fit in the context of funds regulations. It suggests that the regulations themselves are being unfairly taken advantage of, which is not the intended meaning. Instead, the word "alternative" should be used here to convey the idea that amending funds regulations is one of the available options to address loopholes. Also, the word "integrity" refers to honesty and strong moral principles, which doesn't align well with the context of addressing loopholes. On the other hand, "imperative" emphasizes the necessity and crucial importance of amending the regulations to address these loopholes effectively.
Hence, the correct answer is "C-A and B-D."
The correct sentence after the rearrangement would be: "Amending alternative funds regulations is exploited to address loopholes imperative by NBFCs, restoring integrity and transparency in financial markets."

157

Our political (A) advancement contrasts with adverse (B) human tendencies to imagine intentions behind persistent (C) events, influencing technological (D) responses to crises.

((a))
A-C and D-B
((b))
C-D and B-A
((c))
C-D
((d))
D-A and C-B
((e))
No interchange required

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

D-A and C-B

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given sentence this way:

Our ________ advancement contrasts with ________ human tendencies to imagine intentions behind ________ events, influencing ________ responses to crises.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the marked words:
(A) Political - relating to the government or the public affairs of a country (राजनीतिक)
For Example -
The political party promised to lower taxes if elected into office.
(B) Adverse - unfavourable or harmful; acting against one's interests (प्रतिकूल)
For Example -
The adverse weather conditions forced the cancellation of the outdoor event.
(C) Persistent - continuing firmly or obstinately in a course of action despite difficulty or opposition (दृढ़)
For Example -
Despite numerous setbacks, he remained persistent in pursuing his dream of becoming a doctor.
(D) Technological - relating to or involving technology (प्रौद्योगिकी)
For Example -
The technological advancements in the medical field have greatly improved patient care.
After understanding the meanings of the marked words, we can conclude that, in the given sentence, swapping "political (A)" and "technological (D)" and the words "adverse (B)" and "persistent (C)" would make the sentence more grammatically and contextually correct.
In the context of the sentence, it makes more sense for the advancement to be technological rather than political, as the contrast is being drawn between technological advancement and human tendencies. Also, swapping the words "adverse (B)" and "persistent (C)" would align the meaning with the intended context. The sentence aims to contrast technological advancement with human tendencies, indicating that these tendencies are persistent despite adverse events.
Hence, the correct answer is "D-A and C-B."
The correct sentence after the rearrangement would be: "Our technological advancement contrasts with persistent human tendencies to imagine intentions behind adverse events, influencing political responses to crises."

158

Bitcoin emerged from early internet communities with mainstream (A) ideals, promising an alternative (B) to libertarian (C) finance amid the dot-com boom's collapse (D).

((a))
D-A
((b))
A-C
((c))
B-D
((d))
C-D
((e))
No interchange required

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

A-C

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given sentence this way:

Bitcoin emerged from early internet communities with ________ ideals, promising an ________ to ________ finance amid the dot-com boom's ________.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the marked words:
(A) Mainstream - widely accepted, prevalent, or conventional; about the dominant or commonly accepted ideas, practices, or culture (प्रमुख)
For Example -
In mainstream media, celebrity gossip often garners more attention than important world events.
(B) Alternative - offering or presenting a choice different from the usual or conventional; differing from the mainstream or commonly accepted option (विकल्प)
For Example -
She opted for alternative medicine instead of traditional treatments for her chronic pain.
(C) Libertarian - advocating for individual liberty, free will, and minimal government intervention in personal and economic matters; promoting a philosophy of freedom from coercion or constraint (स्वतंत्रतावादी)
For Example -
The politician's libertarian views on taxation resonated with many voters who believed in limited government.
(D) Collapse - to break down suddenly and completely; to fall apart or fail catastrophically (पतन)
For Example -
The company faced a collapse in profits due to mismanagement.
After understanding the meanings of the marked words, we can conclude that in the given sentence, swapping "mainstream (A)" and "libertarian (C)" would make the sentence more grammatically and contextually correct. In the context of the sentence, it makes more sense for Bitcoin to promise an alternative to mainstream finance rather than to libertarian finance. Also, Bitcoin, emerging from early internet communities with libertarian ideals, suggests a departure from conventional financial systems, aligning more logically with the concept of libertarianism.
Hence, the correct answer is "A-C."
The correct sentence after the rearrangement would be: "Bitcoin emerged from early internet communities with libertarian ideals, promising an alternative to mainstream finance amid the dot-com boom's collapse."

159

European governments face the discontent (A) task of balancing agricultural livelihoods with climate change escalating (B) efforts amidst mitigation (C) protests and daunting (D) among farmers across the continent.

((a))
C-D
((b))
A-C
((c))
C-B and A-D
((d))
A-C and B-D
((e))
No interchange required

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

C-B and A-D

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given sentence this way:

European governments face the ________ task of balancing agricultural livelihoods with climate change ________ efforts amidst ________ protests and ________ among farmers across the continent.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the marked words:
(A) Discontent - dissatisfaction or lack of contentment with one's situation, circumstances, or conditions (असंतोष)
For Example -
The students expressed their discontent with the new grading system by organizing a protest.
(B) Escalating - increasing rapidly in intensity, magnitude, or scope (तेजी से बढ़ता हुआ)
For Example -
The conflict between the two countries has been escalating, raising concerns about the possibility of war.
(C) Mitigation - the action of reducing the severity, seriousness, or harmful effects of something (कम करना)
For Example -
Planting more trees is one way to contribute to the mitigation of climate change.
(D) Daunting - intimidating or discouraging through sheer size, difficulty, or complexity (भयंकर)
For Example -
The daunting task of writing a novel seemed overwhelming at first, but she persevered and completed it.
After understanding the meanings of the marked words, we can conclude that, in the given sentence, swapping "mitigation (C)" and "escalating (B)" and "discontent (A)" and "daunting (D)" would make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Here, the word "mitigation" refers to the action of reducing the severity, seriousness, or harmful effects of something, which aligns with the efforts European governments need to undertake in the face of climate change. On the other hand, "escalating" means increasing rapidly in intensity, magnitude, or scope, which better fits the protests mentioned in the sentence.
Also, the word "discontent" refers to dissatisfaction or lack of contentment, which is more apt in describing the sentiment among farmers across the continent. Meanwhile, "daunting" means intimidating or discouraging through sheer size, difficulty, or complexity, which better fits the task European governments face in balancing agricultural livelihoods with climate change efforts.
Hence, the correct answer is "C-B and A-D."
The correct sentence after the rearrangement would be: "European governments face the daunting task of balancing agricultural livelihoods with climate change mitigation efforts amidst escalating protests and discontent among farmers across the continent."

160

The imposition (A) of written grammar on spoken language impedes (B) speaking disconnect (C), highlighting the competence (D) between formal rules and spoken communication.

((a))
C-D
((b))
A-C
((c))
B-D
((d))
D-C and B-A
((e))
No interchange required

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

C-D

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given sentence this way:

The ________ of written grammar on spoken language ________ speaking ________, highlighting the ________ between formal rules and spoken communication.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the marked words:
(A) Imposition - forcing something on someone; the act of imposing rules, regulations, or expectations on others (थोपना)
For Example -
The imposition of strict curfew regulations restricted the movements of the residents after dark.
(B) Impedes - hinders or obstructs progress or movement; slows down or prevents something from happening (बाधा डालना)
For Example -
Lack of resources impedes innovation and development in rural areas.
(C) Disconnect - a lack of connection or coherence between two or more things; a gap or disparity in understanding or communication (असंगति)
For Example -
There is often a disconnect between what politicians promise during campaigns and what they achieve in office.
(D) Competence - the ability to do something well or effectively; proficiency or skill in a particular area (कुशलता)
For Example -
Her competence in mathematics allowed her to solve complex problems with ease.
After understanding the meanings of the marked words, we can conclude that, in the given sentence, swapping "disconnect (C)" and "competence (D)" would make the sentence more grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.
The word "disconnect" refers to a lack of connection or coherence between two or more things, whereas "competence" refers to the ability to do something well or effectively. In the original sentence, "disconnect" is used in the context of hindering speaking, which doesn't convey the intended meaning. However, if we swap "disconnect" with "competence," the sentence becomes coherent as it would imply that the imposition of written grammar on spoken language impedes speaking competence, highlighting the gap or disparity between formal rules and spoken communication.
Hence, the correct answer is "C-D."
The correct sentence after the rearrangement would be: "The imposition of written grammar on spoken language impedes speaking competence, highlighting the disconnect between formal rules and spoken communication."

Numerical Ability (40 questions)

Directions: The following table shows the total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked, the Percentage of Economy tickets booked and number of female economy tickets booked in three different airlines A, B and C.

Name of airlines	Total number of tickets booked (Business + Economy)	Percentage of Economy tickets booked	Number of female Economy tickets
A	480	33(1/3)%	50
B	600	75%	120
C	800	62.5%	100

161

Find the ratio between the number of economy tickets booked in A and C to the number of business tickets booked in B and C.

((a))
23: 12
((b))
25: 14
((c))
22: 15
((d))
23: 14
((e))
21:13

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

22: 15

General solution:

Airline A:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 480

Number of Economy tickets booked = 480 × (1/3) = 160

Number of business tickets booked = (480 - 160) = 320

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 50

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 160 - 50 = 110

Airline B:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 600

Number of Economy tickets booked = 600 × (3/4) = 450

Number of business tickets booked = (600 - 450) = 150

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 120

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 450 - 120 = 330

Airline C:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 800

Number of Economy tickets booked = 800 × (5/8) = 500

Number of business tickets booked = (800 - 500) = 300

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 100

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 500 - 100 = 400

Solution:

Number of economy tickets booked in A = 160

Number of economy tickets booked in C = 500

Number of business tickets booked in B = 150

Number of business tickets booked in C = 300

Required ratio = (160 + 500): (150 + 300)

= 660: 450 = 22: 15

162

Number of tickets booked in airline A is 60% of the total tickets and remaining tickets are left vacant. If the number of vacant business tickets is 120 then find the number of vacant economy tickets in airline A.

((a))
240
((b))
120
((c))
180
((d))
200
((e))
220

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

200

General solution:

Airline A:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 480

Number of Economy tickets booked = 480 × (1/3) = 160

Number of business tickets booked = (480 - 160) = 320

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 50

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 160 - 50 = 110

Airline B:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 600

Number of Economy tickets booked = 600 × (3/4) = 450

Number of business tickets booked = (600 - 450) = 150

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 120

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 450 - 120 = 330

Airline C:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 800

Number of Economy tickets booked = 800 × (5/8) = 500

Number of business tickets booked = (800 - 500) = 300

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 100

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 300 - 100 = 200

Solution:

Number of tickets booked in airline A = 480

Total number of tickets present in the airline A = 480/60 × 100 = 800

Total number of vacant tickets = (800 - 480) = 320

Number of vacant business tickets = 120

Number of vacant economy tickets = (320 - 120) = 200

163

If the ticket rates for the airlines A economy and business are Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 respectively. Find the total revenue generated by booking all the given tickets.

((a))
Rs. 138000
((b))
Rs. 546000
((c))
Rs. 400000
((d))
Rs. 324000
((e))
Rs. 245000

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs. 400000

General solution:

Airline A:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 480

Number of Economy tickets booked = 480 × (1/3) = 160

Number of business tickets booked = (480 - 160) = 320

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 50

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 160 - 50 = 110

Airline B:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 600

Number of Economy tickets booked = 600 × (3/4) = 450

Number of business tickets booked = (600 - 450) = 150

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 120

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 450 - 120 = 330

Airline C:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 800

Number of Economy tickets booked = 800 × (5/8) = 500

Number of business tickets booked = (800 - 500) = 300

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 100

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 300 - 100 = 200

Solution:

Economy tickets for airline A = 160

Business tickets for airline A = 320

Total revenue generated = (160 × 500 + 320 × 1000) = (80000 + 320000) = 400000

164

Number of tickets booked by airline D is 25% more than the number of tickets booked by airline C and the number of economy tickets booked by airline D is 60% of the total tickets booked. Find the difference between the number of business tickets booked by company D and company B.

((a))
180
((b))
150
((c))
250
((d))
140
((e))
160

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

250

General solution:

Airline A:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 480

Number of Economy tickets booked = 480 × (1/3) = 160

Number of business tickets booked = (480 - 160) = 320

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 50

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 160 - 50 = 110

Airline B:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 600

Number of Economy tickets booked = 600 × (3/4) = 450

Number of business tickets booked = (600 - 450) = 150

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 120

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 450 - 120 = 330

Airline C:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 800

Number of Economy tickets booked = 800 × (5/8) = 500

Number of business tickets booked = (800 - 500) = 300

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 100

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 400 - 100 = 300

Solution:

Number of tickets booked by airline C = 800

Number of tickets booked by airline D = 800 × 125/100 = 1000

Number of economy tickets booked by airline D = 1000 × (60/100) = 600

Number of business tickets booked by airline D = (1000 - 600) = 400

Number of business tickets booked by airline B = 150

Required difference = (400 - 150) = 250

165

If the number of business tickets booked by male in airline A and airline B is 100 and 50 respectively. Find the difference between the total number of tickets booked by the females in airline A and airline B.

((a))
80
((b))
50
((c))
120
((d))
60
((e))
40

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

General solution:

Airline A:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 480

Number of Economy tickets booked = 480 × (1/3) = 160

Number of business tickets booked = (480 - 160) = 320

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 50

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 160 - 50 = 110

Airline B:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 600

Number of Economy tickets booked = 600 × (3/4) = 450

Number of business tickets booked = (600 - 450) = 150

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 120

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 450 - 120 = 330

Airline C:

Total number of tickets (Business + Economy) booked = 800

Number of Economy tickets booked = 800 × (5/8) = 500

Number of business tickets booked = (800 - 500) = 300

Number of female Economy tickets booked = 100

Number of male Economy tickets booked = 500 - 100 = 400

Solution:

Number of business tickets booked by male in airline A = 100

Number of business tickets booked by male in airline B = 50

Number of business tickets booked by female in airline A = 320 - 100 = 220

Number of business tickets booked by females in airline B = 150 - 50 = 100

Required difference = (220 + 50) - (120 + 100) = 50

166

Find the missing term in the given series.

0, ?, 91, 216, 432, 775

((a))
30
((b))
27
((c))
28
((d))
36
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Solution:

0 + 3³ = 27

27 + 4³ = 91

91 + 5³ = 216

216 + 6³ = 432

432 + 7³ = 775

Thus the missing number is 27

167

Find the missing term in the given series.

85, 115, 75, 125, 65, 135, ?

((a))
90
((b))
75
((c))
55
((d))
115
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Solution:

85 + 30 = 115

115 - 40 = 75

75 + 50 = 125

125 - 60 = 65

65 + 70 = 135

135 - 80 = 55

Thus the missing number is 55

168

Find the missing term in the given series.

734, 613, 469, 300, 104, ?

((a))
-121
((b))
-123
((c))
-223
((d))
-187
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

-121

Solution:

734 - 11² = 613

613 - 12² = 469

469 - 13² = 300

300 - 14² = 104

104 - 15² = -121

Thus the missing number is -121

169

Find the missing term in the given series.

?, 280 , 1680 , 8400 , 33600, 100800

((a))
75
((b))
40
((c))
70
((d))
60
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Solution:

(40 × 7) = 280

(280 × 6) = 1680

(1680 × 5) = 8400

(8400 × 4) = 33600

(33600 × 3) = 100800

Thus the missing number is 40

170

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

51, 106, 183, 282, 403, (?)

((a))
546
((b))
528
((c))
525
((d))
527
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

546

51 + (11 × 5) = 106

106 + (11 × 7) = 183

183 + (11 × 9) = 282

282 + (11 × 11) = 403

403 + (11 × 13) = 546

The following caselet shows the number of hatchback cars and number of sedan cars sold by the three different manufacturers G, H, and K.

Total number of hatchback cars sold by G is 33.33% of the total number of sedan cars sold by H. Total hatchback cars sold by H is 62 more than total sedan cars sold by H. The ratio of total hatchback cars sold by H to K is 2: 1 and the total number of hatchback cars sold by all the three manufacturers is 247. The total number of sedan cars sold by all the three manufacturers is 231.

171

If the ratio between the number of sedan cars sold by G to K are in the ratio 2: 1 and. Find the difference between the 50% of the sedan cars sold by G and the 1/7 th of the sedan cars sold by K.

((a))
46
((b))
38
((c))
42
((d))
54
((e))
32

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Solution:

Total number of sedan cars sold by H = 3x

Total number of hatchback cars sold by G = x

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3x + 62)

Ratio of total hatchback cars sold by H to K = 2: 1

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3x + 62)/2 × 1 = (3x + 62)/2

Total hatchback cars sold by all the manufacturers = 247

Total number of sedan cars sold by all the three manufacturers is 231.

Total number of hatchback cars in all the manufacturers G, H and K = x + (3x + 62) + (3x + 62)/2 = 247

x + 3x + 1.5x + 93 = 247

5.5x = 154

x = 28

Number of sedan cars sold by H = 3 × 28 = 84

Number of hatchback cars sold by G = 28

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3 × 28 + 62) = 146

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3 × 28 + 62)/2 = 73

Solution:

Total number of sedan cars sold by G and K = (231 - 84) = 147

Number of sedan cars sold by G = 147/3 × 2 = 98

Number of sedan cars sold by K = (147 - 98) = 49

50% of the sedan cars sold by G = 98/2 = 49

1/7 of the sedan cars sold by K = 49/7 = 7

Required difference = (49 - 7) = 42

172

If the average number of hatchback cars sold by E and G together is 35 and total number of cars (hatchback and sedan) cars sold by E is 80, then find the total number of sedan cars sold by E.

((a))
48
((b))
38
((c))
43
((d))
51
((e))
54

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Solution:

Total number of sedan cars sold by H = 3x

Total number of hatchback cars sold by G = x

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3x + 62)

Ratio of total hatchback cars sold by H to K = 2: 1

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3x + 62)/2 × 1 = (3x + 62)/2

Total hatchback cars sold by all the manufacturers = 247

Total number of sedan cars sold by all the three manufacturers is 231.

Total number of hatchback cars in all the manufacturers G, H and K = x + (3x + 62) + (3x + 62)/2 = 247

x + 3x + 1.5x + 93 = 247

5.5x = 154

x = 28

Number of sedan cars sold by H = 3 × 28 = 84

Number of hatchback cars sold by G = 28

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3 × 28 + 62) = 146

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3 × 28 + 62)/2 = 73

Solution:

Average number of hatchback cars sold by E and G = 35

Number of hatchback cars sold by G = 28

Number of hatchback cars sold by E = (70 - 28) = 42

Total number of cars (hatchback and sedan) by E = 80

Number of sedan cars sold by E = (80 - 42) = 38

173

Sedan cars sold by H are 60% of the sedan cars sold by F and total number of cars sold by F is 196 then find the ratio between the number of hatchback cars sold by F to the number of hatchback cars sold by G.

((a))
3: 4
((b))
2: 5
((c))
3:2
((d))
2: 1
((e))
3: 2

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

2: 1

Solution:

Total number of sedan cars sold by H = 3x

Total number of hatchback cars sold by G = x

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3x + 62)

Ratio of total hatchback cars sold by H to K = 2: 1

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3x + 62)/2 × 1 = (3x + 62)/2

Total hatchback cars sold by all the manufacturers = 247

Total number of sedan cars sold by all the three manufacturers is 231.

Total number of hatchback cars in all the manufacturers G, H and K = x + (3x + 62) + (3x + 62)/2 = 247

x + 3x + 1.5x + 93 = 247

5.5x = 154

x = 28

Number of sedan cars sold by H = 3 × 28 = 84

Number of hatchback cars sold by G = 28

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3 × 28 + 62) = 146

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3 × 28 + 62)/2 = 73

Solution:

Number of sedan cars sold by H = 84

Number of sedan cars sold by F = 84/60 × 100 = 140

Total number of cars sold by F = 196

Number of hatchback cars sold by F = (196 - 140) = 56

Required ratio = 56: 28 = 2: 1

174

Find the ratio of total number of hatchback cars sold by G to the total number of sedan cars sold by all the manufacturers respectively.

((a))
7: 5
((b))
5: 4
((c))
5: 7
((d))
4: 33
((e))
3: 7

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

4: 33

Solution:

Total number of sedan cars sold by H = 3x

Total number of hatchback cars sold by G = x

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3x + 62)

Ratio of total hatchback cars sold by H to K = 2: 1

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3x + 62)/2 × 1 = (3x + 62)/2

Total hatchback cars sold by all the manufacturers = 247

Total number of sedan cars sold by all the three manufacturers is 231.

Total number of hatchback cars in all the manufacturers G, H and K = x + (3x + 62) + (3x + 62)/2 = 247

x + 3x + 1.5x + 93 = 247

5.5x = 154

x = 28

Number of sedan cars sold by H = 3 × 28 = 84

Number of hatchback cars sold by G = 28

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3 × 28 + 62) = 146

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3 × 28 + 62)/2 = 73

Solution:

Number of hatchback cars sold by G = 28

Total number of sedan cars sold by all manufacturers = 231

Required ratio = 28: 231 = 4: 33

175

If the number of sedan cars sold by the manufacturer H is increased by 2/7 and the number of hatchback cars sold by the manufacturer H is increased by 4, find the difference between the number of sedan cars and hatchback cars sold by H.

((a))
41
((b))
37
((c))
39
((d))
42
((e))
47

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Solution:

Total number of sedan cars sold by H = 3x

Total number of hatchback cars sold by G = x

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3x + 62)

Ratio of total hatchback cars sold by H to K = 2: 1

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3x + 62)/2 × 1 = (3x + 62)/2

Total hatchback cars sold by all the manufacturers = 247

Total number of sedan cars sold by all the three manufacturers is 231.

Total number of hatchback cars in all the manufacturers G, H and K = x + (3x + 62) + (3x + 62)/2 = 247

x + 3x + 1.5x + 93 = 247

5.5x = 154

x = 28

Number of sedan cars sold by H = 3 × 28 = 84

Number of hatchback cars sold by G = 28

Number of hatchback cars sold by H = (3 × 28 + 62) = 146

Number of hatchback cars sold by K = (3 × 28 + 62)/2 = 73

Solution:

Number of sedan cars sold by H at present = 84 + 84 × 2/7 = 108

Number of hatchback cars sold by H at present = (146 + 4) = 150

Required difference = (150 - 108) = 42

176

What approximate value should come in place of x in the following question?

$23\frac{2}{3}{\rm{% ;of;}}\sqrt {323.91} + \left( {{{11.97}^2} \div \sqrt[3]{{26.949}}} \right){\rm{% ;of;}}\sqrt {1679} = 30{\rm{% ;of;x}} + 2.87$

((a))
57
((b))
70
((c))
65
((d))
76
((e))
81

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order is given below:

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

$23\frac{2}{3}$ % of $\sqrt {323.91}$ + (11.97² ÷ $\sqrt[3]{{26.949}}$ )% of $\sqrt {1679}$ = 30% of x + 2.87

$\Rightarrow \frac{{71}}{3}$ % of $\sqrt {324}$ + (12² ÷ $\sqrt[3]{{27}}$ )% of $\sqrt {1681}$ = 30% of x + 2.87

$\Rightarrow$ $\frac{{71}}{{3 \times 100}}$ × 18 + (144 ÷ 3)% of 41 = 30% of x + 2.87

$\Rightarrow$ $\frac{{71}}{{100}}$ × 6 + 48% of 41 = 30% of x + 2.87

$\Rightarrow$ 4.26 + $\frac{{48}}{{100}}$ × 41 = $\frac{{30}}{{100}}$ x + 2.87

$\Rightarrow$ 4.26 + 19.68 = $\frac{{30}}{{100}}$ x + 2.87

$\Rightarrow$ 4.26 + 19.68 – 2.87 = $\frac{{30}}{{100}}$ x

$\Rightarrow$ 21.07 = $\frac{{30}}{{100}}$ x

$\Rightarrow$ 21 = $\frac{{30}}{{100}}$ x

$\Rightarrow$ x = $\frac{{2100}}{{30}}$

$\Rightarrow$ x = 70

177

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

$\left( \frac{\sqrt{120.77}\div 11+\sqrt{64.03}}{2.98} \right)\frac{14.98}{2.94}=~?$

((a))
15
((b))
20
((c))
16
((d))
12
((e))
9

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Given

[(√120.77 ÷ 11 + √64.03)/2.98] × (14.98/2.98) = ?

⇒ [(√121 ÷ 11 + √64)/3] × (15/3) = ?

⇒ (11/11 + 8)/3 × 5 = ?

⇒ (1 + 8)/3 × 5 = ?

∴ ? = 9/3 × 5 = 3 × 5 = 15.

178

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

124.83 × 63.82 ÷ 24.94 + 168.79 × 13.96 ÷ 12.98 + 122.96 = ?²

((a))
20
((b))
22
((c))
25
((d))
26
((e))
23

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Given:

124.83 × 63.82 ÷ 24.94 + 168.79 × 13.96 ÷ 12.98 + 122.96 = ?2

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

124.83 × 63.82 ÷ 24.94 + 168.79 × 13.96 ÷ 12.98 + 122.96 = ?²

⇒ 125 × 64 ÷ 25 + 169 × 14 ÷ 13 + 123 = ?2

⇒ 5 × 64 + 13 × 14 + 123 = ?2

⇒ 320 + 182 + 123 = ?2

⇒ 625 = ?2

⇒ ? = √625

⇒ ? = 25

∴ The value of ‘?’ Is 25.

179

Find the value of x in the following question given below

(√440.98 /7 × 11.98) - 24.98% of 399.98 + (15.89 × 17.89) - (∛1727.79 × 5.09) - (16.09 × 34.98)/7 = x

((a))
108
((b))
96
((c))
84
((d))
72
((e))
60

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Solution:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

(√440.98 /7 × 11.98) - 24.98% of 399.98 + (15.89 × 17.89) - (∛1727.79 × 5.09) - (16.09 × 34.98)/7 = x

(√441 /7 × 12) - 25% of 400 + (16 × 18) - (∛1728 × 5) - (16 × 35)/7 = x

(21/7) × 12 - (0.25 × 400) + 288 - (12 × 5) - (16 × 35)/7 = x

(3 × 12) - 100 + 288 - 60 - 80 = x

36 - 100 + 288 - 60 - 80 = x

x = 84

180

Which of the following approximate value will replace the question mark?

(516.92 + 37.04 + 471.93)/113.98*?= 576.05

((a))
64
((b))
88
((c))
125
((d))
50
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Calculation:

(516.92 + 37.04 + 471.93)/113.98×?= 576.05

(517 + 37 + 472)/114 ×? = 576

1026/114 ×? = 576

? = (576 x 114)/1026

? = 65664/1026

? = 64

181

Find the missing term in the given series.

2000, 1800, 1700, 1600, ?, 600

((a))
1450
((b))
1800
((c))
1400
((d))
1200
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1400

2000, 1800, 1700, 1600, ?, 600

The value of ? is 1400

182

A, B, and C enter into a partnership with their total initial investment of Rs.16200. A invested for 1 year while B and C invested for same time period, Find the time period for which B and C invested their capital.

Statement I: Profit share of B is Rs.2400 out of total annual profit.

Statement II: Ratio of investment of A, B and C is 5: 3: 10 respectively and profit share of person A is Rs.2400.

((a))
Statement I is alone sufficient
((b))
Statement II is alone sufficient
((c))
Either I or II
((d))
Both the Statement I and II together sufficient
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Both the Statement I and II together sufficient

Solution:

Statement I:

Profit share of B is Rs. 2400 and the total investment is Rs. 16200

Statement I is not sufficient to answer

Statement II:

Investment of A, B and C are 5a: 3a: 10a respectively.

Investment amount of A = 16200/18 × 5 = Rs. 4500

Investment amount of B = 16200/18 × 3 = Rs. 2700

Investment amount of C = 16200/18 × 10 =Rs. 9000

Investment period of B and C be x respectively.

Statement II is not sufficient to answer

From statement I and II

Profit share of A = Rs. 2400

Profit share of B = Rs. 2400

Profit share of C = y

To find the profit share C

(5a × 1)/(3a × x) = 2400/2400

x = 5/3 × 12

Investment period of B and C will be 1 year and 8 months respectively.

So statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

183

A and B are positive integers. Is (A × B)/10 is an integer?

Statement I: Both A and B are multiple of 5.

Statement II: A × B is a multiple of 20.

((a))
Statement I is alone sufficient
((b))
Statement I and II both are sufficient
((c))
Either Statement I or II
((d))
Statement II is alone sufficient
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Statement II is alone sufficient

Solution:

Statement I:

Multiples of A and B are 5

The values of A and B can any of the values of 5, 10, 15, 20 and 25 respectively.

So statement I is not sufficient to answer

Statement II:

A × B are the multiples 20

The values of (A × B) can be any of the values of 20, 40, and 60 so on.

Let (A × B) = 20x

So, (A × B)/10 = 20x/10 = 2x where x is an integer so (A × B)/10 is an integer.

Statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.

184

A train of length 'a + 100' m crosses a person running with speed 5 km/h in the same direction in 20 seconds. If speed of train is 50 km/h, then find the time taken by train to cross a platform of length 150 meter.(approx)

((a))
29 seconds
((b))
32 seconds
((c))
44 seconds
((d))
38 seconds
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

29 seconds

Solution:

Length of the train = (a + 100)

Speed of the train = 50 kmph

Speed of the running man = 5 kmph

Time taken by the train to cross the running man = 20 seconds

(a + 100)/(50 - 5) × 5/18 = 20

(a + 100) = 12.5 × 20

(a + 100) = 250

Length of the train is 250m

Time taken by the train to cross the 150m platform

(150 + 250)/50 × 5/18 = 28.8 seconds = 29 seconds

185

Downstream speed of a boat is 24 km/h while it takes a total of 3.75 hours to cover a certain upstream and comes back to the same point. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/h, then find the time taken by the boat with the speed of the boat in still water to the same distance covered upstream and downstream?

((a))
3.6 hours
((b))
4 hours
((c))
3 hours
((d))
5 hours
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3.6 hours

Solution:

Downstream speed of the boat = 24 kmph

Speed of the stream = 4 kmph

Speed of boat in still water = 24 - 4 = 20 kmph

Distance covered = D km

D/(24) + D/(16) = 3.75

D/24 + 1.5D/24 = 3.75

2.5D = 3.75 × 24

D = 90/2.5 = 36 km

Distance covered in upstream and downstream = 36 * 2 = 72km

72/(20) = 3.6 hours

186

A sum '2P' is invested in scheme A for 4 years at 10% simple rate of interest and amount received from scheme A is invested in scheme B for 5 years at 8% simple rate of interest. Difference between total amount received from scheme A and scheme B is 201.60, then find the total amount invested in scheme B.

((a))
504
((b))
484
((c))
552
((d))
450
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

504

Solution:

Investment in scheme A = 2P

Number of years = 4

Rate of interest = 10%

SI = (PNR/100)

SI = (2P × 4 × 10)/100

SI in scheme A = (2P × 4)/10 = 8P/10 = 0.8P

If the amount of (2P + 0.8P) is invested in scheme A for 5 years at 8% rate of interest

SI = (2.8P × 5 × 8)/100 = 1.12P

SI in scheme B = 1.12P

Difference between the amount received = 201.60

(2.8P + 1.12P) - (2.8P) = 201.60

3.92P - 2.8P = 201.60

1.12P = 201.60

P = 180

Amount invested in scheme B = 180 × 2.8 = Rs. 504

187

In 20 L milk, a mixture that contain equal quantity of milk and water is mixed such that quantity of milk becomes 75% of total quantity. Now, 25% of total quantity of this mixture is taken out and replaced by same quantity of water. Find the quantity of water in the final mixture.

((a))
15 litres
((b))
10 litres
((c))
17.5 litres
((d))
12.5 litres
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

17.5 litres

Shortcut Trick

Initial Milk = 20 L. Let added mixture be 2x (x Milk + x Water).

New Milk/Total = (20 + x)/(20 + 2x) = 3/4 ⇒ 80 + 4x = 60 + 6x ⇒ 2x = 20 L.

Total mixture = 40 L (30 L Milk, 10 L Water). 25% removal leaves 75% of Milk.

Final Milk = 30 × 0.75 = 22.5 L. Final Water = 40 − 22.5 = 17.5 L.

∴ The correct answer is 17.5 litres.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Pure Milk = 20 L. Added mixture has Milk : Water = 1 : 1.

⇒ Let Water added = x L, then Milk added = x L. Total added = 2x L.

⇒ Total Milk = 20 + x; Total Mixture = 20 + 2x.

⇒ (20 + x) / (20 + 2x) = 75/100 = 3/4.

⇒ 4(20 + x) = 3(20 + 2x) ⇒ 80 + 4x = 60 + 6x ⇒ 2x = 20 ⇒ x = 10 L.

⇒ Total mixture = 40 L. Initial Milk in this mixture = 30 L, Water = 10 L.

⇒ 25% of mixture (10 L) is removed. Milk removed = 25% of 30 = 7.5 L.

⇒ Remaining Milk = 30 − 7.5 = 22.5 L.

⇒ Final Water = Total Volume − Final Milk = 40 − 22.5 = 17.5 L.

∴ The correct answer is 17.5 litres.

Additional Information

Replacement Formula

When a portion of mixture is replaced by water, the final quantity of original liquid = Initial × (1 − replaced/total)ⁿ.

Alligation Method

Can be used to find the ratio of two liquids mixed to get a final concentration: (Higher value − Mean) / (Mean − Lower value).

188

Ratio of ages of Q and R before 8 years was 5: 6 and average of present ages of P and R is 36 years. If age of P after 5 years will be same as the age of Q before 5 years, find the present age of Q.

((a))
42
((b))
38
((c))
44
((d))
40
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Solution:

Present age of Q = (5x + 8)

Present age of R = (6x + 8)

Average present ages of P and R = 36

Total present ages of P and R = 72

Age of P after 5 years is same as the age of Q before 5 years

Age of P after 5 years = (5x + 8) - 5 = (5x + 3)

Present age of P = (5x + 3) - 5 = 5x - 2

(5x - 2) + (6x + 8) = 72

11x + 6 = 72

11x = 66

x = 6

Present age of Q = (5 * 6 + 8) = 38 years

189

Two persons A and B enter into partnership with total investment of 'X'. If A left the business after 3 months and at the same time C joins with 1000 investment. If ratio of profit share of A, B, and C at end of a year is 3: 8: 3, then find the difference between initial investment of A and B.

((a))
1000
((b))
1200
((c))
2200
((d))
1800
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

1000

Solution:

Profit = Investment × Time

Investment Period of A = 3

Investment Period of B = 12

Investment Period of C = 9

3: 8: 3 = Investment ratio × (1 :4: 3)

(3/1: 8/4: 3/3) = Investment ratio

3: 2: 1

3a: 2a: a

a = 1000

Difference between initial investment of A and B = (3a - 2a) = 1000

190

The average of the height of the 20 employee of the company is 1.5 m.In the month of June, two employees named Rita and Sumit left the company whose height are 1.4 m and 1.6 m respectively. In August, two more people left the company whose average of height is 1.7 m and one person join the company whose height is 87.5% of height of Sumit. Before the December, more four people left the company whose height are 1.3 m, 1.1 m, 1.32 m and 1.25 m respectively and more 5 people join the company whose height are 1.26 m, 1.18 m, 1.39 m and 1.4 m respectively. The average of height in the month of September is ….

((a))
1.2
((b))
1.3
((c))
1.47
((d))
1.62
((e))
1.8

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1.47

Sum of the height of 20 employee = 1.5 × 20 = 30 m

For the average in month of June,

Number of people available = 20 – 2 = 18

Sum of the height of 18 people = 30 – 1.4 – 1.6 = 27 m

Average height = 27/18 = 1.5 m

For the average in month of September,

Number of people available = 18 – 2 + 1 = 17

Sum of height of two person who left the company = 1.7 × 2 = 3.4 m

Height of person who join the company = 87.5% of height of Sumit = (7/8) × 1.6 = 1.4 m

Sum of the height of 17 people = 27 – 3.4 + 1.4 = 25 m

∴ Average of height in the month of September = 25/17 = 1.47 m

Directions: The below given line graph shows the total number of professors who teach (Literature + Commerce) and the number of professors who teach Commerce in five different colleges A, B, C, D and E.

191

All the professors in college D who teaches commerce takes 2 hours of class each and all the professors in college D who teaches Literature takes m hours of class. If the total class taken by all the professors in college D is 590 hours. Find the value of m.

((a))
4
((b))
6
((c))
8
((d))
3
((e))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

General Solution:

College A:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 200

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (200 - 80) = 120

College B:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 180

Number of professor in commerce = 50

Number of professor in Literature = (180 - 50) = 130

College C:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 220

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (220 - 80) = 140

College D:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 240

Number of professor in commerce = 130

Number of professor in Literature = (240 - 130) = 110

College E:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 160

Number of professor in commerce = 90

Number of professor in Literature = (160 - 90) = 70

Name of the college	Number of professors in commerce	Number of professors in Literature
A	80	120
B	50	130
C	80	140
D	130	110
E	90	70

Solution:

Number of hours teached by the commerce professors in college D = 2 hours

Number of hours teached by the literature professors in college D = m hours

If the total class hours teached by the both the professors = 590 hours

590 = 2 × 130 + m × 110

590 - 260 = 110m

330 = 110m

m = 3

192

What is the sum of the average number of commerce professors teaches in all the colleges and the average number of literature professors teaches in all the colleges?

((a))
250
((b))
240
((c))
210
((d))
200
((e))
220

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

200

General Solution:

College A:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 200

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (200 - 80) = 120

College B:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 180

Number of professor in commerce = 50

Number of professor in Literature = (180 - 50) = 130

College C:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 220

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (220 - 80) = 140

College D:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 240

Number of professor in commerce = 130

Number of professor in Literature = (240 - 130) = 110

College E:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 160

Number of professor in commerce = 90

Number of professor in Literature = (160 - 90) = 70

Name of the college	Number of professors in commerce	Number of professors in Literature
A	80	120
B	50	130
C	80	140
D	130	110
E	90	70

Solution:

Average number of commerce professors teaches in all the colleges A, B, C, D and E = (80 + 50 + 80 + 130 + 90)/5 = 86

Average number of literature professors teaches in all the colleges A, B, C, D and E = (120 + 130 + 140 + 110 + 70)/5 = 114

Required sum = (114 + 86) = 200

193

Number of professors who teaches literature in college A has increased by 33.3% and the number of professors who teach commerce in college B has decreased by 20%. Find the ratio between increased professors in literature in college A and decreased commerce professors in college B.

((a))
5: 3
((b))
2: 1
((c))
4: 1
((d))
3: 2
((e))
4: 5

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

4: 1

General Solution:

College A:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 200

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (200 - 80) = 120

College B:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 180

Number of professor in commerce = 50

Number of professor in Literature = (180 - 50) = 130

College C:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 220

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (220 - 80) = 140

College D:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 240

Number of professor in commerce = 130

Number of professor in Literature = (240 - 130) = 110

College E:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 160

Number of professor in commerce = 90

Number of professor in Literature = (160 - 90) = 70

Name of the college	Number of professors in commerce	Number of professors in Literature
A	80	120
B	50	130
C	80	140
D	130	110
E	90	70

Solution:

Number of professors who teaches literature initially in college A = 120

Number of professors who teaches literature at present in college A = 120 × (133.3/100) = 160

Number of professors who teaches commerce initially in college B = 50

Number of professors who teaches commerce at present in college B = 50 × (80/100) = 40

Required ratio = 160: 40 = 4: 1

194

If 3/7 th of the professors who teach literature in college C are females and the total number of female professors in college C is 80, find the difference between the number of male professors who teach literature in college C and the number of male professors who teach commerce in college C.

((a))
30
((b))
20
((c))
25
((d))
35
((e))
15

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

General Solution:

College A:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 200

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (200 - 80) = 120

College B:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 180

Number of professor in commerce = 50

Number of professor in Literature = (180 - 50) = 130

College C:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 220

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (220 - 80) = 140

College D:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 240

Number of professor in commerce = 130

Number of professor in Literature = (240 - 130) = 110

College E:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 160

Number of professor in commerce = 90

Number of professor in Literature = (160 - 90) = 70

Name of the college	Number of professors in commerce	Number of professors in Literature
A	80	120
B	50	130
C	80	140
D	130	110
E	90	70

Solution:

Number of professors who teaches literature in college C = 140

Number of female professors who teaches literature in college C = 140 × 3/7 = 60

Number of male professors who teaches literature in college C = (140 - 60) = 80

Number of female professors who teaches commerce in college C = 80 - 60 = 20

Number of male professors who teaches commerce in college C = 80 - 20 = 60

Required difference = (80 - 60) = 20

195

Number of professors who teach literature in college D has increased by x and the number of professors who teach commerce in college D has decreased by x. Then the ratio between the number of professors who teach literature to the number of professors who teach commerce in college D is 7: 5. Find the value of x.

((a))
20
((b))
30
((c))
25
((d))
15
((e))
35

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

General Solution:

College A:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 200

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (200 - 80) = 120

College B:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 180

Number of professor in commerce = 50

Number of professor in Literature = (180 - 50) = 130

College C:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 220

Number of professor in commerce = 80

Number of professor in Literature = (220 - 80) = 140

College D:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 240

Number of professor in commerce = 130

Number of professor in Literature = (240 - 130) = 110

College E:

Total number of professor (Literature + Commerce) = 160

Number of professor in commerce = 90

Number of professor in Literature = (160 - 90) = 70

Name of the college	Number of professors in commerce	Number of professors in Literature
A	80	120
B	50	130
C	80	140
D	130	110
E	90	70

Solution:

Number of professors who teaches literature in college D initially = 110

Number of professors who teaches literature at present in college D = (110 + x)

Number of professors who teaches commerce in college D initially = 130

Number of professors who teaches commerce at present in college D = (130 - x)

Then the ratio between the number of professors who teach literature to the number of professors who teach commerce in college D is 7: 5.

(110 + x)/(130 - x) = 7/5

(550 + 5x) = (910 - 7x)

360/12 = x

x = 30

196

Find the correct combination regarding the roots of below given equation.

Equation: 3x² - 25x + 28 = 0

I. 3/4

II. 4/3

III. 7

IV. 6

((a))
Only I and IV
((b))
Only II and IV
((c))
Only II and III
((d))
Only III and IV
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Only II and III

3x² - 25x + 28 = 0

3x² - 21x - 4x + 28 = 0

3x(x - 7) - 4(x - 7) = 0

(3x - 4) (x - 7) = 0

x = 4/3, 7

Only II and III follows

197

Find the product of smaller root of equation I and bigger root of equation II.

I: 9x² - 31x + 12 = 0

II: 3x² - 8x - 3 = 0

((a))
1/3
((b))
3
((c))
2(1/3)
((d))
1(1/3)
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1(1/3)

From equation I

9x2 - 31x + 12 = 0

9x² - 27x - 4x + 12 = 0

9x(x - 3) - 4(x - 3) = 0

(9x - 4)(x - 3) = 0

x = 4/9, 3

From equation II

3x² - 8x - 3 = 0

3x² - 9x + x - 3 = 0

3x(x - 3) + 1(x - 3) = 0

(x - 3)(3x + 1) = 0

x = 3, -1/3

Now,

Product of smaller roots of equation I and bigger roots of equation II = 4/9 x 3 = 4/3 = 1(1/3)

198

A, B and C invested in a business in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4. After 4 months of investment, all three of them withdrew an amount in the ratio 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 3. If at the end of the year, they received their profit in the ratio 4 ∶ 5 ∶ 6, then what part of his initial investment did C withdrew after 4 months?

((a))
1/2
((b))
1/3
((c))
2/3
((d))
3/4
((e))
2/5

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

3/4

Let their initial investment be Rs. 2x, Rs. 3x, and Rs. 4x respectively

Let they withdrew Rs. y, Rs. 2y and Rs. 3y respectively after 4 months

A’s total investment = (4 × 2x) + 8 × (2x – y) = 8x + 16x – 8y = 24x – 8y

B’s total investment = (4 × 3x) + 8 × (3x – 2y) = 12x + 24x – 16y = 36x – 16y

C’s total investment = (4 × 4x) + 8 × (4x – 3y) = 16x + 32x – 24y = 48x – 24y

∵ Ratio of profits = Ratio of total investment

⇒ 4 ∶ 5 ∶ 6 = (24x – 8y) ∶ (36x – 16y) ∶ (48x – 24y)

Hence, we can write,

⇒ (24x – 8y)/(36x – 16y) = 4/5

⇒ 8(3x – y)/4(9x – 4y) = 4/5

⇒ (3x – y)/(9x – 4y) = 2/5

⇒ 15x – 5y = 18x – 8y

⇒ 3x = 3y

⇒ x = y

∴ Part of investment withdrew by C = 3y/4x = ¾

199

Mr. Phanse invests an amount of Rs. 25, 200 at the rate of 4 p.c.p.a. for 6 years to obtain a simple interest. Later he invests the principal amount as well as the amount obtained as simple interest for another 4 years at the same rate of interest. What Approximate amount of simple interest will he obtain at the end of the last 4 years?

((a))
Rs. 4,998
((b))
Rs. 4,950
((c))
Rs. 5,000
((d))
Rs. 4,800
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs. 5,000

[Formula:

The simple interest is given by S.I = $\frac{{P \times {\rm{r}} \times {\rm{n}}}}{{100}};,;$

Where P is the principle amount, r is rate of interest and n is number of years]

It is given that principle is Rs. 25200

Rate of interest per annum is 4%

Number of year is 6

Interest earn by Mr Phanse will be $= \frac{{P \times {\rm{r}} \times {\rm{n}}}}{{100}}$

$= \frac{{25200 \times 4 \times 6}}{{100}};$ [∵ substituting the values]

= 6048

At the end of 6 year Mr.Phanse will get with interest = Rs (25200 + 6048) = Rs 31248

If he invests the whole amount again at 4% simple interest for 4 years then interest will be for these years $= \frac{{31248 \times 4 \times 4}}{{100}}$

= 4999.68

≈ 5000

Hence the answer is Rs 5000

200

A can do a work in 24 days, B can do the same work in 48 days and C can do the same work in 72 days. Unfortunately, B could not become the part of the work so the work was completed by A and C only, so in this case how much more money is earned by A than the previous situation, if total amount distributed to them in both the cases was 4400 rupees.

((a))
Rs. 600
((b))
Rs. 700
((c))
Rs. 800
((d))
Rs. 900
((e))
Rs. 1000

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Rs. 900

Given:

A can do a work in 24 days, B can do the same work in 48 days and C can do the same work in 72 days.

Calculation:

In first case

A can do the work in 24 days

B can do the work in 48 days

C can do the work in 72 days

⇒ the ratio of their efficiency will be A : B : C = 1/24 : 1/48 : 1/72 = 6 : 3 : 2

⇒ A will get 6/(6 + 3 + 2) = 6 / 11

of the total amount which will be equal to Rs. 2400

But in second case only A and C work

⇒ the efficiency of A : C = 1 / 24 : 1 / 72 = 3 : 1

So A will get now 3/(1 + 3) = (3/4 )^thof the total amount which will be Rs. 3300

∴ extra money earned by A = Rs. (3300 - 2400) = Rs. 900

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