Official Paper

IBPS Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 07 Oct, 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

190 questions · 160 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

General/Financial Awareness (50 questions)

1

Five Foreign ambassadors have given credentials to ______ when they start their terms in July 2023.

  1. ((a))

    Prime Minister of India

  2. ((b))

    President of India

  3. ((c))

    Home Minister

  4. ((d))

    Foreign Minister

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prime Minister of India

2

IRDAI enables Insurance for All by which year?

  1. ((a))

    2037

  2. ((b))

    2030

  3. ((c))

    2047

  4. ((d))

    2043

  5. ((e))

    2070

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2037

3

Most White Label ATMs are of which company?

  1. ((a))

    Indicash

  2. ((b))

    India1 payments Ltd.

  3. ((c))

    Hitachi Payments Services

  4. ((d))

    Tata Communications Payment Solutions Ltd.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indicash

4

To mark this milestone of India's G20 Presidency, two G20 Commemorative Coins were released by the Prime Minister in the denomination of ___________.

  1. ((a))

    75 and 100

  2. ((b))

    65 and 55

  3. ((c))

    47 and 58

  4. ((d))

    78 and 80

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75 and 100

5

Which of the following are the three grid centres of the Cheque Truncation System (CTS)?

  1. ((a))

    Chennai, Baroda, New Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai, New Delhi, Ladakh

  3. ((c))

    Gandhinagar, Pune, Bhopal

  4. ((d))

    Telangana, Indore, Sonipat

  5. ((e))

    Chennai, Mumbai, New Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chennai, Baroda, New Delhi

6

Indian flag is shall be made of cotton and which material?

  1. ((a))

    Polyester

  2. ((b))

    Woven Wool/Silk Khadi Bunting

  3. ((c))

    Silk

  4. ((d))

    Linen

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Polyester

7

Priority Sector Lending (PSL) shortage falls under which of the following organization?

  1. ((a))

    NABARD

  2. ((b))

    NABFID

  3. ((c))

    SEBI

  4. ((d))

    RBI

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NABARD

8

What is the timeline for the Alternative Investment Fund Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    Three months

  2. ((b))

    Seven months

  3. ((c))

    Four months 

  4. ((d))

    Two months

  5. ((e))

    Five months

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three months

9

Britain's iconic motorcycle manufacturer, Triumph, has unveiled the first two Made-in-India, Triumph Speed 400 and Scrambler 400 X bikes. Which company manufactures the Speed 400?

  1. ((a))

    Hero Motocorp

  2. ((b))

    Bajaj Auto 

  3. ((c))

    Royal Enfield (INDIA)

  4. ((d))

    TVS Motor

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hero Motocorp

10

RBI included ‘NongHyup Bank’ In the List Of Scheduled Banks Under Schedule II of the RBI Act, 1934. Where is the headquarters of Nonghyup Bank?

  1. ((a))

    Cheongju, Republic of Korea

  2. ((b))

    Mandaluyong, Philippines 

  3. ((c))

    Shanghai, China

  4. ((d))

    Seoul, Republic of Korea

  5. ((e))

    Beijing, China

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cheongju, Republic of Korea

11

Which of the following option is correct regarding the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund scheme?

A. The Scheme will be operational from 2020-21 to 2032-33.

B. The loan disbursement period will be between 2020-21 and 2025-26.

C. Interest subvention and credit guarantee for a loan will be applicable only for 7 years.

  1. ((a))

    A & B

  2. ((b))

    B & C

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A & C

  5. ((e))

    A, B, & C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A & B

12

 In April 2023, Recently, The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) has placed a signboard marking it as the country's First Village. What is the name of it ?

  1. ((a))

    Bhawapur

  2. ((b))

    Mana Village

  3. ((c))

    Tana Village

  4. ((d))

    Vishunpur

  5. ((e))

    Shuklanpurwa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhawapur

13

Which among the  following is true regarding Co-operative banks in India?

  1. ((a))

    They are three-tier set-up

  2. ((b))

    Urban Co-operative is divided into short-term and long-term structures

  3. ((c))

    Rural Co-operative is divided into scheduled and non-scheduled

  4. ((d))

    It is urban focused bank

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are three-tier set-up

14

What is the name of the portal to track unclaimed deposits, unveiled by the RBI?

  1. ((a))

    UDGAM

  2. ((b))

    RUPIYA

  3. ((c))

    JANM

  4. ((d))

    UDAY

  5. ((e))

    ANTARDRISHTI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UDGAM

15

Where is the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) headquartered?

  1. ((a))

    Great Britain

  2. ((b))

    Switzerland

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    Germany

  5. ((e))

    Liechtenstein

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Great Britain

16

FAME scheme for increasing the adoption of electric vehicles in India was launched by which ministry?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of road, transport, and highways

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Commerce

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Heavy Industries

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Finance

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of road, transport, and highways

17

How many Debts Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) and Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT) currently working in India?

  1. ((a))

    33 & 6

  2. ((b))

    39 & 5

  3. ((c))

    33 & 5

  4. ((d))

    33 &7

  5. ((e))

    33 & 8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

33 & 6

18

In November 2022, the SEBI reduced the timeline for the listing of debt securities issued through private placement to T+3 days from the current timeline of T+4 days, with effect from  ___________.

  1. ((a))

    1st February 2023

  2. ((b))

    1st January 2023

  3. ((c))

    1st December 2022

  4. ((d))

    1st March 2023  

  5. ((e))

    1st April 2023

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1st February 2023

19

Which Bank has recently launched a mobile banking application "Iris"?

  1. ((a))

    YES Bank

  2. ((b))

    Axis Bank

  3. ((c))

    IndusInd Bank

  4. ((d))

    ICICI Bank

  5. ((e))

    HDFC Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

YES Bank

20

What is the position of India in the Global Gender Gap Report 2023 according to the WEF report?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    125

  3. ((c))

    127

  4. ((d))

    130

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

21

The indigenous aircraft carrier _________being built by the Cochin Shipyard Ltd handed over to the Indian Navy by August 2022.

  1. ((a))

    INS Vikrant

  2. ((b))

    INS Vikramaditya

  3. ((c))

    INS Viraat

  4. ((d))

    INS Vishaal

  5. ((e))

    None of These

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

INS Vikrant

22

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India(IRDAI) selected which Insurance Company Limited as the lead non-life insurer for the State of Maharashtra.

  1. ((a))

    Tata AIG General Insurance

  2. ((b))

    ICICI Lombard General Insurance

  3. ((c))

    Max Bupa General Insurance

  4. ((d))

    Max Life Insurance

  5. ((e))

    HDFC ERGO General Insurance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tata AIG General Insurance

23

Which Railway Station has recently been certified as "Green Railway Station" with the highest rating of Platinum by IGBC - Confederation of India Industry?

  1. ((a))

    Mumbai Central Railway Station 

  2. ((b))

    Vijayawada Railway Station 

  3. ((c))

    Guwahati Railway Station

  4. ((d))

    Chandigarh Railway Station

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mumbai Central Railway Station 

24

In May 2023, The Union Health Ministry Launched launches SAKSHAM Learning Management Information System. What does 'H' stands for ?

  1. ((a))

    Heritage

  2. ((b))

    Health 

  3. ((c))

    Hurb

  4. ((d))

    House

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Heritage

25

Which of the following deposit is NOT insured by DICGC?

  1. Savings
  2. Current 
  3. Deposits of state or Central governments
  4. Non recurreing
  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 3

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    1 , 2 and 4

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

26

Under National Pension System (NPS) a unique number “PRAN” is generated. What does “P” stand for in "PRAN"?

  1. ((a))

    Premium

  2. ((b))

    Present

  3. ((c))

    Permanent

  4. ((d))

    Pension

  5. ((e))

    Primary

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Premium

27

An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of the_______.

  1. ((a))

    Axis Bank

  2. ((b))

    Indian Bank

  3. ((c))

     State Bank of India

  4. ((d))

    BOI

  5. ((e))

    HDFC Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Axis Bank

28

The Reserve Bank of India and the Central Bank of which country signed two MoUs for establishing a framework to promote the use of local currencies for cross-border transactions.

  1. ((a))

    Oman

  2. ((b))

    Saudi Arabia

  3. ((c))

    Belgium

  4. ((d))

    UAE

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Oman

29

Who is the winner of IPL 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Mumbai Indians 

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat Titans

  3. ((c))

    Royal Challengers Bangalore

  4. ((d))

    Chennai Super Kings

  5. ((e))

    Rajasthan Royals

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mumbai Indians 

30

Which organization released Export Preparedness Index 2022 report in New Delhi?

  1. ((a))

    RBI

  2. ((b))

    SEBI

  3. ((c))

    Niti Aayog

  4. ((d))

    NSO

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RBI

31

Who is regarded as the "father of the atomic bomb"?

  1. ((a))

    Thomas Edision 

  2. ((b))

    Albert Einstien

  3. ((c))

    Nicola Tesla

  4. ((d))

    J. Robert Oppenheimer

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thomas Edision 

32

Which company has recently developed the Threads app, a new text-based microblogging platform?

  1. ((a))

    Microsoft Corporation

  2. ((b))

    Google 

  3. ((c))

    Twitter

  4. ((d))

    IBM

  5. ((e))

    Meta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microsoft Corporation

33

The Cinematography (Amendment) Bill 2023 issue the address of __________.

  1. ((a))

    Film Piracy

  2. ((b))

    Adult Content

  3. ((c))

    Violence in the movies

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Film Piracy

34

Recently, Dharmendra Pradhan launched the mobile application of ULLAS. What does ULLAS stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society

  2. ((b))

    Unifying Lifelong Learning and Academic Success

  3. ((c))

    Underlining Learning and Literacy Advancement in Society

  4. ((d))

    Universal Lifelong Learning and Academic Scholarship

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society

35

Which of the following organizations has operationalized the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF) with an initial corpus of Rs 10000 crore?

  1. ((a))

    National Housing Bank 

  2. ((b))

    Reserve Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development 

  4. ((d))

    Small Industries Development Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Housing Bank 

36

How many Singaporean satellites were launched by ISRO's PSLV-C56 rocket in the DS-SAR mission?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

37

Which of the following payment services has launched India's first UPI ATM?

  1. ((a))

    Airtel Payment Bank 

  2. ((b))

    Hitachi Payment Services

  3. ((c))

    Bajaj Finance

  4. ((d))

    Aditya Birla Capital

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Airtel Payment Bank 

38

Union Cabinet approves highest ever Fair and Remunerative Price for Sugarcane Farmers for the season 2023-24. What is the price for per quintel?

  1. ((a))

    115

  2. ((b))

    215

  3. ((c))

    315

  4. ((d))

    415

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

115

39

"The Reserve Bank has released the eligibility criteria for entities to be categorized as 'Specified User' of Credit Information Companies (CICs)." Choose the incorrect option(s) regarding the aforesaid statement.

  1. ((a))

    The criteria set out the requirements for the entities to become eligible as Specified User of CIC under the Credit Information Companies (Amendment) Regulations,2021.

  2. ((b))

    The company should have a net worth of not less than ₹5 crores as per the latest audited balance sheet and should meet the requirement on a continuing basis.

  3. ((c))

    A 'specified user' should be a company incorporated in India or a statutory corporation established in the country.

  4. ((d))

    The company shall have at least three years of experience in running the business or activity of processing information.

  5. ((e))

    The criteria set out the requirements for the entities to become eligible as Specified User of CIC under clause (j) of Regulation 3 of the Credit Information Companies (Amendment) Regulations, 2021.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The criteria set out the requirements for the entities to become eligible as Specified User of CIC under the Credit Information Companies (Amendment) Regulations,2021.

40

Which of the following statement is true about Mahila Samman Savings Certificate?

  1. ((a))

    The small savings scheme is available up to March 2025

  2. ((b))

    offers deposit facility up to Rs 2 lakh in the name of women or girls

  3. ((c))

    It is of 2 years and offer a fixed interest rate of 7.5 per cent

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    Only 1 and 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The small savings scheme is available up to March 2025

41

Consider the following statements regarding World Spice Congress:

  1. It is organized by the Spices Board of India under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  2. Tamilnadu is the largest producer of turmeric in India.
  3. Congress discusses customised production of quality spices to meet the requirements of the consumers and thrusts on organic production.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    1 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

42

To whom did President Murmu present the 'President's Colour'?

  1. ((a))

    INS Dronacharya

  2. ((b))

    INS Vikrant

  3. ((c))

    INS Viraat

  4. ((d))

    INS Kavaratti

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

INS Dronacharya

43

Which of the following ministry is implementing 'Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana' to achieve the goal of integrated social and economic development of tribal people?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Agriculture

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Tribal Affairs

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Finance

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Home Affairs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Agriculture

44

Who inaugurated the "e-Office portal of PCIM&H" and the "Online portal"?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. Kousthubha Upadhyaya

  2. ((b))

    Sarbananda Sonowal

  3. ((c))

    Dr. Raman Mohan Singh

  4. ((d))

    Narendra Modi

  5. ((e))

    Amit Shah

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dr. Kousthubha Upadhyaya

45

In which of the following place UAE-India Economic Summit held in July 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Abu Dhabi

  2. ((b))

    New Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Dubai

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai

  5. ((e))

    Lucknow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abu Dhabi

46

Consider the following statements related to the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana.

1. Any individual aged between 18 years to 70 years are eligible to apply for the scheme. 2. The Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana offers a life cover of Rs. 5 lakhs for one year to all its account holders. This life cover is provided in case of accidental death or permanent disability.

3.It is a government scheme launched on 9th May 2015 by PM Narendra Modi. 

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    2 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

47

Beautiful hand writing comes under which branch of art?

  1. ((a))

    Calligraphy

  2. ((b))

    Commercial Art

  3. ((c))

    Visual Art

  4. ((d))

    Ideography

  5. ((e))

    Epigraphy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Calligraphy

48

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  1. NBFCs can accept demand deposits.
  2. NBFC can issue Demand Drafts like banks.
  3. NBFC stands for Non Banking Franchise Company
  4. DICGC facility is available on the deposits in NBFCs
  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Only 3 and 4

  4. ((d))

    All are incorrect

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

49

National Waterway-1 is on which water system?

  1. ((a))

    West Coast Canal

  2. ((b))

    River Brahmaputra

  3. ((c))

    Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river

  4. ((d))

    Sundarbans Waterways

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

West Coast Canal

50

Which of the following person presented Bhoomi Samman 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Droupadi Murmu

  2. ((b))

    Narendra Modi

  3. ((c))

    Amit Shah

  4. ((d))

    Nirmala Sitharaman

  5. ((e))

    Rajnath Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Droupadi Murmu

General English (40 questions)

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The transition from academia to the job market marks a pivotal moment for fresh graduates, as they step into their professional journey armed with knowledge, ambition, and a thirst for new challenges. In today's digitally advanced era, the job-hunting landscape has transformed significantly, but unfortunately, it has also witnessed a troubling surge in job scams. According to a recent Hirect report, 56% of Indian job seekers have fallen victim to scams during their search. Particularly vulnerable are those between 20 and 29 years old, targeted by scammers employing a strategic approach, and making enticing promises on behalf of entirely fictitious companies. These scams often involve sharing fraudulent bank account numbers and convincing candidates to deposit a sum as an advance payment, leading to substantial losses and compromising confidential information.

Job scams have taken various forms, including fake postings on emails and work-from-home options that look inviting, leading candidates to pay enrollment fees for registration. Scammers also exploit social media platforms, creating counterfeit websites and using various channels to attract potential applicants. Fraudulent calls involve scammers impersonating employers, and soliciting money from unsuspecting job seekers. To combat these scams, students must safeguard their privacy online, utilizing tools like antivirus software, password managers, and ad blockers to prevent scams and attacks. Reporting phishing emails promptly is essential to stop further scams and protect personal information.

Students can also employ several strategies to identify and avoid job scams. Checking the legitimacy of URLs is crucial, as scam emails often come from abrupt addresses, while legitimate companies use official URLs with their precise name. Thorough screening processes, involving multiple rounds of interviews conducted by a Human Resources department, are standard for reputable companies. Any job offer that skips these processes should be treated with caution. Research and Dispersion (R and D) are key, as candidates must investigate job postings and share accurate information to reduce the rate of scams. Being vigilant, making informed decisions, and taking proactive steps are essential in creating a safer job market for individuals and organizations alike.

51

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "pivotal" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    insignificant

  2. ((b))

    peripheral

  3. ((c))

    decisive

  4. ((d))

    irrelevant

  5. ((e))

    incidental

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

insignificant

52

According to the passage, how do scammers often deceive job seekers in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Sending handwritten letters with fake job offers.

  2. ((b))

    Creating fake websites and using various channels on social media.

  3. ((c))

    Conducting in-person interviews at fictional company locations.

  4. ((d))

    Requesting candidates to share personal hobbies and interests.

  5. ((e))

    Offering job opportunities exclusively to recent graduates.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sending handwritten letters with fake job offers.

53

Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "vigilant" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    pensive

  2. ((b))

    unrelated

  3. ((c))

    diligent

  4. ((d))

    complacent

  5. ((e))

    resilient

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pensive

54

Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from the passage?

A. Job scams in today's digitally advanced era take various forms, including fake postings, work-from-home options, and fraudulent calls impersonating employers.

B. To combat job scams, students are advised to safeguard their privacy online by using tools like antivirus software, password managers, and ad blockers.

C. Digital tools like antivirus software, password managers, and ad blockers are recommended to protect against online job scams and phishing attacks.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B

  2. ((b))

    Both B and C

  3. ((c))

    Both C and A

  4. ((d))

    All A, B, and C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and B

55

Which combination of tools does the passage recommend for safeguarding privacy and preventing scams and attacks?

  1. ((a))

    Ad blockers, password managers, and antivirus software.

  2. ((b))

    Thorough screening processes, research and dispersion (R and D), and multiple rounds of interviews.

  3. ((c))

    Legitimate URLs, antivirus software, and ad blockers.

  4. ((d))

    Reporting phishing emails, conducting thorough research, and using password managers.

  5. ((e))

    Job screening processes, sharing accurate information, and utilizing ad blockers.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ad blockers, password managers, and antivirus software.

56

Which of the following is a suitable title for the given passage?

  1. ((a))

    "Common Challenges in Academic Transition"

  2. ((b))

    "The Decline of Job Opportunities in the Digital Age"

  3. ((c))

    "Exploring Opportunities for Fresh Graduates"

  4. ((d))

    "Rising Job Scams: A Global Perspective"

  5. ((e))

    "Effective Strategies for Password Management"

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"Common Challenges in Academic Transition"

57

Directions: Read the following paragraph carefully, which contains two missing words. Below, you will find five options, each containing a pair of words. Choose the pair that correctly fills the blanks in the paragraph to make it both contextually and grammatically correct. Mark the option that best completes the paragraph.

India, joining the global fascination with advanced AI, recently published a (l) report on its potential. IT industry leaders anticipate significant skill landscape shifts but warn about underlying threats. The (ll) rise in digital uncertainties poses unprecedented, complex challenges, shaping our lives and economies, and raising grave concerns seldom fully grasped by many.

(i) Comprehensive, Exponential

(ii) Thorough, Tremendous

(iii) Extensive, Accelerated

  1. ((a))

    Only (i)

  2. ((b))

    Only (ii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (iii)

  4. ((d))

    All (i), (ii), and (iii)

  5. ((e))

    Both (i) and (ii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (i)

58

Directions: Read the following paragraph carefully, which contains two missing words. Below, you will find five options, each containing a pair of words. Choose the pair that correctly fills the blanks in the paragraph to make it both contextually and grammatically correct. Mark the option that best completes the paragraph.

Global debt has soared to unprecedented levels, reaching 307trillionbythesecondquarterof2023,astaggering307 trillion by the second quarter of 2023, a staggering 100 trillion surge in a decade. Despite a prior declining trend, it spiked to 336% of GDP, (l) to inflation-driven currency devaluation. Concerns loom over sustainability, particularly in government borrowing for populist schemes amid rising interest rates, (ll) potential economic risks and limited escape routes.

(i) Attributed, Posing 

(ii) Substituted, Enclosing

(iii) Imputed, Causing

  1. ((a))

    Only (i)

  2. ((b))

    Both (i) and (ii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (iii)

  4. ((d))

    Both (i) and (iii)

  5. ((e))

    Both (ii) and (iii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (i)

59

Directions: Read the following paragraph carefully, which contains two missing words. Below, you will find five options, each containing a pair of words. Choose the pair that correctly fills the blanks in the paragraph to make it both contextually and grammatically correct. Mark the option that best completes the paragraph.

In the thick haze of Delhi's November smog, Fauzia Begum, 39, battles for breath as her brother wheels her to a doctor at AIIMS. Gasping in the toxic air, she faces (l) respiratory distress, a grim annual struggle compounded by the city's severe pollution, leaving her confined to hospital visits, grappling with the (ll) cycle of worsening health.

(i) Deterring, Eloquent

(ii) Conjuring, Tenacious

(iii) Recurring, Relentless

  1. ((a))

    Only (iii)

  2. ((b))

    Only (ii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (i)

  4. ((d))

    Both (i) and (iii)

  5. ((e))

    All (i), (ii), and (iii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (iii)

60

Directions: Read the following paragraph carefully, which contains two missing words. Below, you will find five options, each containing a pair of words. Choose the pair that correctly fills the blanks in the paragraph to make it both contextually and grammatically correct. Mark the option that best completes the paragraph.

The WHO advises no screen exposure for infants under one year and limits screen time for children aged 1-5 to an hour daily. The Indian Academy of Paediatrics suggests no screens for under-twos and (l) access for older kids. Psychologists stress potential cognitive and emotional risks from early gadget exposure while acknowledging the (ll) of online learning for older children, notably during the pandemic.

(i) Controlled, Significance 

(ii) Acquainted, Obscurity

(iii) Restricted, Necessity

  1. ((a))

    Only (i)

  2. ((b))

    Both (ii) and (iii)

  3. ((c))

    Both (i) and (iii)

  4. ((d))

    Only (iii)

  5. ((e))

    All (i), (ii), and (iii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (i)

61

Directions: A passage is given below, and in the options, there are four sentences given. Find out which of the given sentence can be inferred from the given passages and mark that as your answer. If none of the given sentences can be inferred from the given passage, mark 'none of these' as your answer.

While Meta CEO Mark Zuckerberg has suffered a reputational crisis for several years due to the Cambridge Analytica scandal and Facebook’s poor user privacy track record, Twitter owner Elon Musk’s recent comments and actions have helped present Zuckerberg as a more competent tech company head. As Meta unrolled its text-based conversation app Threads, Musk’s lawyer threatened to sue Zuckerberg while the Tesla billionaire called him names and urged him to fight. Zuckerberg’s responses, for the most part, were more mature and less aggressive in tone. With Threads seeing around 100 million sign-ups within a week of launching even as Twitter users struggle with daily tweet reading limits, Zuckerberg’s critics are also starting to rethink their assessment of him and Meta’s thorny relationship with regulators.

  1. ((a))

    Rather than rethinking their assessment, Zuckerberg's critics remain steadfast in their negative opinions of him and Meta's regulatory challenges.

  2. ((b))

    In light of recent events, Zuckerberg's handling of the Threads app launch and his measured responses have positively impacted his reputation.

  3. ((c))

    Facebook's stock price experienced a significant surge following the launch of Meta's text-based conversation app Threads.

  4. ((d))

    Despite Twitter users struggling with daily tweet reading limits, Threads failed to gain significant traction within its first week.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rather than rethinking their assessment, Zuckerberg's critics remain steadfast in their negative opinions of him and Meta's regulatory challenges.

62

Directions: A passage is given below, and in the options, there are four sentences given. Find out which of the given sentence can be inferred from the given passages and mark that as your answer. If none of the given sentences can be inferred from the given passage, mark 'none of these' as your answer.

As children, we used to go to our maternal grandmother’s house for 12 to 15 days during the summer. No study, only play. Rarely did anyone have an air conditioner at that time. The power cuts were frequent then. As a result, we all used to sleep on the terrace under the starry nights, keeping an earthen pot of water to quench our thirst. The ice cream vendor was an important figure during summer. Early-morning park visits, Sunday picnics, and Nani’s special brunch with siblings doubled our enjoyment. The days passed on so fast that we all siblings eagerly wait for the next summer once the vacation is over. We never wanted to return to a routine life full of rush and competition.

  1. ((a))

    The nostalgic memories of our childhood summers spent with family evoke a sense of longing for simpler times and cherished traditions.

  2. ((b))

    Power cuts were rare during our summer visits to our grandmother's house, and air conditioning was commonplace.

  3. ((c))

    In our childhood summers, we eagerly anticipated visiting our grandmother's house, where carefree playtime and simple joys outweighed academic pursuits.

  4. ((d))

    We had a packed schedule of study and intense competition during our summer vacations at our grandmother's house.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The nostalgic memories of our childhood summers spent with family evoke a sense of longing for simpler times and cherished traditions.

63

Directions: A passage is given below, and in the options, there are four sentences given. Find out which of the given sentence can be inferred from the given passages and mark that as your answer. If none of the given sentences can be inferred from the given passage, mark 'none of these' as your answer.

From anthropocentrism to technocentrism, humanity’s journey of multifarious triumphs is certainly worth reveling in. I am no conservationist to talk about the impacts of this progression on the planet, but I am concerned about how its ramifications could be on the skill-building of the students of the 21st century. Ever since ChatGPT was made available, there have been debates on its benefits and limitations for people from different walks of life, especially academics. And the outcome of these debates is varied. At the risk of sounding old school, as an educator, I am much concerned that it not only diminishes students’ autonomy but also risks their agency.

  1. ((a))

    The debates surrounding ChatGPT have unanimously concluded that it strengthens students' critical thinking and fosters their skill development.

  2. ((b))

    ChatGPT has revolutionized education, empowering students with enhanced autonomy and agency in their learning journeys.

  3. ((c))

    In the age of technological advancement, concerns arise regarding the potential negative effects of ChatGPT on students' independence and control over their learning.

  4. ((d))

    The integration of AI technologies in education requires a comprehensive evaluation of their long-term effects on students' intellectual growth and cognitive abilities.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The debates surrounding ChatGPT have unanimously concluded that it strengthens students' critical thinking and fosters their skill development.

64

Directions: In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Find out the most appropriate word from the given options that can be replaced with the emboldened word. If none are correct select option 5 as your answer.

Families hit by the Sardar Sarovar dam project after the swelled up Narmada backwaters dehydrated 178 villages in August, took part in a public hearing on Sunday as the protests demanding rehabilitation entered the second day.

  1. ((a))

    increased 

  2. ((b))

    submerged

  3. ((c))

    moisturized

  4. ((d))

    thrived

  5. ((e))

    No Improvement 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

increased 

65

In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer. 

The missile was launched from the ship without the knowledge of the captain.

  1. ((a))

    Defeated

  2. ((b))

    Destroyed

  3. ((c))

    Planted

  4. ((d))

    Released

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Defeated

66

In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer. 

Michelle was so badly manipulated by her previous partner that she couldn't trust anyone anymore.

  1. ((a))

    Ashamed

  2. ((b))

    Preserved

  3. ((c))

    Exploited

  4. ((d))

    Valued

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ashamed

67

In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer. 

The enemy of the state was tortured for 5 days but she didn't reveal anything.

  1. ((a))

    Treasured

  2. ((b))

    Tormented

  3. ((c))

    Cherished

  4. ((d))

    Chaperoned

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Treasured

68

Directions: In the following sentence, four words given in bold are marked as A, B, C, and D, which are possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If no interchange is required, mark option 5 i.e., "No interchange required" as your answer.

The debate over humanism's relevance (A) intensifies as alternative ideologies challenge its centrality (B), questioning the humane essence (C) amidst historical atrocities (D) and ecological crises.

  1. ((a))

    A-C

  2. ((b))

    C-A and B-D

  3. ((c))

    C-D  and A-B

  4. ((d))

    D-A and C-B

  5. ((e))

    No interchange required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-C

69

Directions: In the following sentence, four words given in bold are marked as A, B, C, and D, which are possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If no interchange is required, mark option 5 i.e., "No interchange required" as your answer.

Understanding the pivotal (A) complexities of a situation is manifold (B) in resolving disputes, as it requires being cognizant (C) of various perspectives (D) in arguments.

  1. ((a))

    C-D

  2. ((b))

    A-B

  3. ((c))

    C-A and B-D

  4. ((d))

    D-A and C-B

  5. ((e))

    No interchange required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C-D

70

Directions: In the following sentence, four words given in bold are marked as A, B, C, and D, which are possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If no interchange is required, mark option 5 i.e., "No interchange required" as your answer.

The adept (A) scientist found a conducive (B) environment for her research, leading to acrimonious (C) discoveries despite profound (D) debates among colleagues.

  1. ((a))

    C-D

  2. ((b))

    B-D

  3. ((c))

    D-A

  4. ((d))

    A-B

  5. ((e))

    No interchange required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C-D

71

Directions: In the following sentence, four words given in bold are marked as A, B, C, and D, which are possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If no interchange is required, mark option 5 i.e., "No interchange required" as your answer.

Urban redevelopment necessitates a compassionate (A) approach, aiming to reduce carbon footprint, mitigate (B) liveability, and enhance (C) challenges such as air pollution and affordable (D) housing shortages.

  1. ((a))

    A-D and B-C

  2. ((b))

    D-A

  3. ((c))

    C-A and B-D

  4. ((d))

    B-C

  5. ((e))

    No interchange required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-D and B-C

72

Directions: In the following sentence, four words given in bold are marked as A, B, C, and D, which are possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If no interchange is required, mark option 5 i.e., "No interchange required" as your answer.

European governments face the discontent (A) task of balancing agricultural livelihoods with climate change escalating (B) efforts amidst mitigation (C)  protests and daunting (D) among farmers across the continent.

  1. ((a))

    C-D

  2. ((b))

    A-C

  3. ((c))

    C-B and A-D

  4. ((d))

    A-C and B-D

  5. ((e))

    No interchange required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C-D

Directions: Given below is a set of five sentences that, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer the questions that follow.

A. Geopolitical shifts, including the diminishing U.S. presence, have allowed China to fill vacuums in the region.

B. India's traditional norms-based approach contrasts with China's non-normative engagement, altering regional dynamics.

C. India's foreign policy vision extends globally but faces challenges within its neighbourhood, impacting its aspirations.

D. China's rising influence in South Asia through initiatives like the BRI poses a significant challenge.

E. Recognizing this shift, India must adjust its approach, engage diverse actors, and address its diplomatic personnel shortage.

73

Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

74

Which of the following pairs represent the SECOND and THIRD sentences in the correct arrangement?

  1. ((a))

    AB

  2. ((b))

    DC

  3. ((c))

    AC

  4. ((d))

    EA

  5. ((e))

    DA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AB

75

Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the sentences?

  1. ((a))

    ECADB

  2. ((b))

    CEABD

  3. ((c))

    BDCEA

  4. ((d))

    CDABE

  5. ((e))

    EBCDA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ECADB

76

Which of the following is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

77

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically and contextually correct, and mark it as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    The more explicit the violence, greater the chances of a movie achieving success.

  2. ((b))

    Filmmakers increasingly rely in shock and awe, prioritizing violence over other filmmaking aspects.

  3. ((c))

    Viewers find cathartic release and hedonistic pleasure in safely witnessing unthinkable violence in movies.

  4. ((d))

    Human nature draws us to violence; its ingrained, seeking thrill and pleasure.

  5. ((e))

    Our movie choices define societal values, offering insights of our collective identity and trajectory.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The more explicit the violence, greater the chances of a movie achieving success.

78

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically and contextually correct, and mark it as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    Having been unfortunately forgotten at home due to the rush, the car keys caused delays.

  2. ((b))

    The teacher, as well as the students, were surprised by the announcement.

  3. ((c))

    Their decision to go on a vacation was influenced by their stressfully work schedules.

  4. ((d))

    The teacher asked, "Whom can identify the main idea in this passage?"

  5. ((e))

    The committee has been working diligently to ensuring all concerns are addressed.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Having been unfortunately forgotten at home due to the rush, the car keys caused delays.

79

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically and contextually correct, and mark it as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    In contemporary society, education served as a fundamental pillar in shaping our future.

  2. ((b))

    Despite the challenges we faced, we managed to succeed in the end, did we?

  3. ((c))

    Having finished her assignment, Maria took a deep breath and felt a sense of accomplishment.

  4. ((d))

    If I possessed the ability to time travel, I will visit historical events to witness them firsthand.

  5. ((e))

    My sister bought vibrant red three decorative candles for the cosy living room ambience.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In contemporary society, education served as a fundamental pillar in shaping our future.

80

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically and contextually correct, and mark it as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    Lack of policy scrutiny on the DLI scheme contrasts to quick revisions for foundries and assembly.

  2. ((b))

    India's Semicon India Program aims to reduce dependence on semiconductor imports, especially from China.

  3. ((c))

    The funding landscape for chip start-ups in India remain challenging, reducing domestic investor risk appetite.

  4. ((d))

    The scheme needs revision to focused on cultivating semiconductor design capabilities in India.

  5. ((e))

    The focus on design ecosystem stimulation can establish strongly linkages for fabrication and assembly.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lack of policy scrutiny on the DLI scheme contrasts to quick revisions for foundries and assembly.

Direction: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Trade and investment Ministers of the G-20 nations, representing 80% of the world economy’s output, three-quarters of trade flows and three-fifths of the population, concluded their deliberations under India’s presidency of the bloc last week. A comprehensive communiqué was scuttled as China and Russia blocked a reference to geopolitical issues arising from the conflict in Ukraine, as has been the case since last year’s G-20 Bali summit. Yet, amid flailing prospects for global trade and investment in the near-term, the G-20 nations did agree to take joint actions to reaffirm the world’s faith in cross-border commerce and investment flows as a route to prosperity and growth for all. The government counted five concrete and action-oriented deliverables from the meet, including a dialogue on global standards to bridge regulatory divergences across countries and a compendium on best practices for mutual recognition of qualifications for professional services such as medicine, law and nursing. Asserting that the trade track outcomes were the most significant so far in the G-20 parleys, Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal highlighted the other three deliverables as new elements that hold importance for India. A generic framework to map global value chains, essentially to identify the weakest links and mitigate any shocks like those seen during the pandemic, is a good idea that may prove tricky to execute. Digitalisation of trade documents to ease flow of goods and services is welcome, but the principles identified in the pact pertain to paperwork on transactions such as transport, insurance, and storage, “not necessarily” to government filings for cross-border trade.

What has been coined as the Jaipur Call for Action to enhance Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises’ (MSMEs’) access to information’ may yield quicker and more tangible results. The International Trade Centre, WTO and UNCTAD, which operate the Global Trade Helpdesk, have been urged to work with G-20 members to upgrade their data portal for businesses and bridge the “information asymmetry” that often hinders small players. This resonates with Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s plea that G-20 Ministers strive to help MSMEs which account for 60%-70% of employment and 50% of the global GDP, integrate with global value chains as empowering them translates to societal empowerment. India, on its part, must also consider steps to bolster the capacity of its small enterprises. For one, its nudge for greenfield investments through productivity-linked incentives across sectors, can be tweaked to create a separate window for fresh outlays by MSMEs that cannot qualify for incentives based on larger investments. Moreover, bureaucratic red tape may have turned into a ‘red carpet’ for some large investors, but for smaller firms, getting a project off the ground is not easy yet.

81

Which of the given words is similar in meaning to "mitigate" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Exacerbate

  2. ((b))

    Alleviate

  3. ((c))

    Aggrandize

  4. ((d))

    Perplex

  5. ((e))

    Dissipate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Exacerbate

82

Which of the following is the primary focus of the "Jaipur Call for Action" mentioned in the passage? 

  1. ((a))

    Enhancing global trade standards 

  2. ((b))

    Promoting greenfield investments 

  3. ((c))

    Bridging information gaps for MSMEs 

  4. ((d))

    Facilitating cross-border commerce 

  5. ((e))

    Empowering large investors

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Enhancing global trade standards 

83

Which of the following sentence(s) is true according to the passage?

A. China and Russia consistently blocked references to geopolitical issues in G-20 communiqués.

B. The digitalization of trade documents primarily focuses on government filings for cross-border trade.

C. The International Trade Centre, WTO, and UNCTAD are solely responsible for upgrading data portals for businesses.

  1. ((a))

    Both A & B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Both A & C

  4. ((d))

    Only B

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A & B

84

Which of the given words is opposite in meaning to "tangible" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Esoteric

  2. ((b))

    Compassionate

  3. ((c))

    Abstract

  4. ((d))

    Implacable

  5. ((e))

    Perspicuous

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Esoteric

85

According to the passage, what percentage of global employment and GDP do MSMEs account for?

  1. ((a))

    40%-50% of employment and 60% of GDP

  2. ((b))

    50%-60% of employment and 40% of GDP

  3. ((c))

    60%-70% of employment and 50% of GDP

  4. ((d))

    70%-80% of employment and 30% of GDP

  5. ((e))

    30%-40% of employment and 70% of GDP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%-50% of employment and 60% of GDP

86

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The geopolitical tensions between China and Russia at G-20 summits.

  2. ((b))

    The significance of the G-20 summit in India's presidency.

  3. ((c))

    The digitalization of trade documents and its impact on cross-border trade.

  4. ((d))

    The challenges faced by Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in global trade.

  5. ((e))

    The role of government filings in facilitating cross-border trade.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The geopolitical tensions between China and Russia at G-20 summits.

87

Directions: Read the sentence provided below carefully, which contains two blanks. Choose the option that correctly fills in the blanks with appropriate phrases. Each option consists of two phrases that may or may not fit correctly in the given sentence. Select the option that results in a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.

____________________ is crucial for personal growth and societal improvement; reluctance, ____________________, hinders progress and perpetuates errors, impacting individuals and leaders alike.

  1. ((a))

    Patience, a virtue often overlooked

  2. ((b))

    Procrastination, a common habit among many individuals

  3. ((c))

    Dedication to excellence, a trait that often leads to success

  4. ((d))

    Acceptance of mistakes, often fueled by ego

  5. ((e))

    Collaboration with others, a key factor in achieving goals

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Patience, a virtue often overlooked

88

Directions: Read the sentence provided below carefully, which contains two blanks. Choose the option that correctly fills in the blanks with appropriate phrases. Each option consists of two phrases that may or may not fit correctly in the given sentence. Select the option that results in a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.

Winter, with its chilly challenges and festive delights, ____________________ the season's warmth, relish hearty foods, and find joy in family moments ____________________.

  1. ((a))

    hinders us from enjoying, under the summer sun

  2. ((b))

    encourages us to embrace, amid the cold

  3. ((c))

    hinders our enjoyment, amidst the winter wonderland

  4. ((d))

    invites us to reject, during the wintry days

  5. ((e))

    prohibits us from enjoying, during the summer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

hinders us from enjoying, under the summer sun

89

Directions: Read the sentence provided below carefully, which contains two blanks. Choose the option that correctly fills in the blanks with appropriate phrases. Each option consists of two phrases that may or may not fit correctly in the given sentence. Select the option that results in a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.

Teaching children to be orderly and systematic in their habits ____________________, saving time and fostering a salutary life-long habit ____________________.

  1. ((a))

    encourages responsibility, leading to a disorganized lifestyle

  2. ((b))

    prevents misplacing items, with a positive example

  3. ((c))

    enhances efficiency, by promoting a disorganized approach

  4. ((d))

    inhibits a chaotic lifestyle, by setting an unhealthy precedent

  5. ((e))

    promotes chaos, with a positive example

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

encourages responsibility, leading to a disorganized lifestyle

90

Directions: Read the sentence provided below carefully, which contains two blanks. Choose the option that correctly fills in the blanks with appropriate phrases. Each option consists of two phrases that may or may not fit correctly in the given sentence. Select the option that results in a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.

The meticulously crafted narratives in advertising agencies ____________________, sparking desires for products on social media, and blurring boundaries ____________________.

  1. ((a))

    build a transparent environment, between browsing and purchasing

  2. ((b))

    shape compelling tales, among marketing and reality

  3. ((c))

    construct an illusory world, between browsing and purchasing

  4. ((d))

    dismantle consumer trust, behind digital innovation

  5. ((e))

    construct an illusory world, among online and offline activities

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

build a transparent environment, between browsing and purchasing

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude (50 questions)

Directions: A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input:   378557  467899  632978  984768  549489  755623

Step I:  10785    13678    14329    17847    14494    10556

Step II: 17825    46764    53281    88449    54916    15536

Step III: 17852   46764    35281    88494    45961    15563

Step IV:  6854     2768     2282      0498      1962       4566

                  /\          /\             /\          /\            /\             /\ 

Step V: 196 20   81 48     16 16    16 72    100 12     81 36

Find the different steps of output using the above-mentioned logic for the following input.

Input: 478667  578688  543867  765879   658574   866734

91

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. There are equal odd numbers and even numbers in Step III.

B. There are atleast two odd numbers in Step IV.

C. The second number from the right end in Step II is not divisible by 2.

  1. ((a))

    Only C

  2. ((b))

    Only A and C

  3. ((c))

    All A, B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only A and B

  5. ((e))

    Only B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only C

92

How many such numbers are there in Step II which are divisible by 3?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    More than Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None

93

What is the difference between the third smallest number and fourth largest number in Step V?

  1. ((a))

    85

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    33

  4. ((d))

    73

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

85

94

In how many steps is an even number is immediately preceded and succeeded by an odd number?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

95

What is the difference between the second digit from the left of the third number from the left in Step IV and the fourth digit from the left of the second number from the right end in Step III?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are three stacks i.e. X, Y, and Z from west to east, which contain a different number of boxes placed one above the other. The height of each of the boxes is the same. Information about a few of the boxes is known.

D is in the northwest of V. V is two boxes below K in the same stack. Four boxes are placed between S and the box which is in west of D in the same stack. P is in the east of S. At most two boxes are below V in the same stack. There is no box towards the east of V. Three boxes are placed between P and K in the same stack. Five boxes are placed between L, which is at the top, and M in the same stack, which is not east of H. N is placed immediately below K's stack. Box L is to the east of box S. H is placed at the bottom and in the Stack which is at the extreme west. The number of boxes above V in the same stack is 3 times the number of boxes placed below S in the same stack but not more than 21. The number of boxes in stack X is one more than the difference between the number of boxes in stack Z and stack Y. Two boxes are placed between D and G in the same stack.

96

Which among the following is not true with respect to box D?

  1. ((a))

    Box M kept immediately south of box D.

  2. ((b))

    Box N kept east of box D.

  3. ((c))

    Box D is kept at exactly middle of Stack Y.

  4. ((d))

    Box K is in the Northeast of box D.

  5. ((e))

    All are true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Box M kept immediately south of box D.

97

Which of the following box is kept at an odd position?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    M

  5. ((e))

    N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

98

What is the sum of the boxes of above S and above K?

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    26

  3. ((c))

    31

  4. ((d))

    27

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

19

99

Which is box is kept at the position obtained after dividing the box number of L by box number of K?

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    G

  5. ((e))

    H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V

100

Which of the stacks has odd number of boxes in it?

  1. ((a))

    Only Box X

  2. ((b))

    Both Box X and Z

  3. ((c))

    Only Box Z

  4. ((d))

    All X, Y and Z.

  5. ((e))

    No any such stack.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Box X

101

If from the word CLANDESTINE, if the letters which come after K according to the English alphabetical order are replaced with two letters before them, and if the letters which come before K are replaced with their succeeding letter and then remove the repeated letters and arrange the remaining letters alphabetically from left to right, then how many letters, as per English alphabetical order, are there between the letters which are 2nd from the left and 3rd from the right after the rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    Zero

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zero

Direction: Study the given information and answer which conclusion definitely follows:

P @ Q means P is neither less nor equal to Q.

P # Q means P is neither greater nor equal to Q.

P $ Q means P is neither less nor greater than Q.

P & Q means P is not greater than Q.

P % Q means P is not less than Q.

102

Statements: T # N @ M & H # D; M $ L # Z; N % V @ C

Conclusions:

I) N % Z

II) H @ C

III) V # D

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion I and II is true.

  4. ((d))

    All are true

  5. ((e))

    None is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I is true.

103

Statements: M @ L Y Y C # V & O; S @ N @ Y & G

Conclusions:

I) V # G

II) S @ C

III) O % M

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion I and II is true.

  4. ((d))

    All are true

  5. ((e))

    None is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I is true.

104

Statement: Y # X & Z # N; X % R $ T @ W

Conclusions:

I) N @ W

II) T % Y

III) Z % R

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion I and III is true.

  4. ((d))

    All are true

  5. ((e))

    None is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I is true.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are three rows 1,2,3 in each of the questions. To get the final resultant of each row follow the conditions given below:

  1. If an even number is followed by a perfect square then the resultant will be the difference between those numbers.
  2. If an odd number is followed by an even number then the resultant will be the addition of those numbers.
  3. If an even number is followed by an odd number which is not a perfect square then the resultant will be obtained by taking the difference of those two numbers and then multiplying it by 2.
  4. If an odd number is followed by a prime number then the resultant will be the difference between those numbers.
  5. If an odd number is followed by an odd number which is not a prime number then the resultant will be obtained by adding those two numbers and then multiplying it by 2.
  6. If an even number is followed by an even number which is not a perfect square then the resultant will be obtained by taking the difference between those two numbers and then adding it to the larger number among the two even numbers as mentioned.
105

Row 1: 24  x   y

Row 2: 21 29 12

Row 3: 14 36 11

What is the resultant of Row 1, if x is the resultant of row 2 and y is the resultant of row 3?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    44

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

106

Row 1: 44 38 9

Row 2: 27 17 5

Row 3:  2 16 8

What is the sum of the resultants of all the rows?

  1. ((a))

    84

  2. ((b))

    92

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    56

  5. ((e))

    71

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

84

107

Row 1:  7 25 3

Row 2: 12 49 7

Row 3: 13  8  9

Form a new row after arranging the resultants of each row in descending order and then find out the resultant of the newly formed row.

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    52

  3. ((c))

    226

  4. ((d))

    338

  5. ((e))

    130

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45

108

Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:

In a family of six members, how is F is related to J?

Statement I - B is the brother of C. F is the niece of B. B is the only sibling of C. J is the only daughter of R. R has two children. C is the sister-in-law of J.

Statement II - Y is the father of F. M is the grandfather of F. C is the only daughter-in-law of M. M has two children. B is the brother of C. J is the daughter of M.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both the statements I and II are together are sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.

109

Direction:  Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:

Six persons, with one of them being E, are sitting around a circular table and all of them are facing inwards. Who among the following sits second to the right of D?

Statement I –  A is sitting to the immediate left of B. One person sits between A and D. Two persons are sits between C and D.

Statement II – One person sits between B and C. A sits immediate left of B. D and F are immediate neighbours.

  1. ((a))

    If the data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data given in statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

110

Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:

There are six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F visit on different days of the week starting from Monday. How many persons visit after E?

Statement I - B goes before Thursday. F goes immediately before B. Two persons visit between F and C. A goes immediately before D.

Statement II - D goes after Thursday. The number of persons who go after D is the same as the number of persons who go before F. One person goes between F and E. C goes immediately before A.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

I. In alphabetical series A - Z, each letter except vowels and consonants (M, N, and P) is assigned a different number starting from 1 (for ex- B is coded as 1, C as 2, D as 3), and again those numbers get repeated (for ex- Q as 1, R as 2 and so on). Also, each consonant (M, N, and P) is coded with a different symbol viz. #, % and $ respectively.

II. If a word has an odd number of letters then the second vowel (if present) is coded as ‘+’ and if a word has an even number of letters and has three or more than three consonants after the first vowel, then the first vowel is coded as ‘△\bigtriangleup’.

III. If the third letter from the left end of the word is a vowel then use <.

IV. If the word ends with the letters M, N, and P then the code of the first vowel will be the code of that particular consonant (M, N, and P).

V. If there are more than two consonants that are immediately followed by vowels then those vowels are coded as &.

VI. If there are more than 3 vowels in a word then the code of all the vowels will be β\beta.

VII. If there is no condition applied to a vowel then the particular vowel will be coded as >.

111

What will be the codes of the words “BALM” and “INSIDE” respectively?

  1. ((a))

    1>9#, △\bigtriangleup%3#3#

  2. ((b))

    1#9#, △\bigtriangleup#3%3%

  3. ((c))

    1#9△\bigtriangleup, △\bigtriangleup$3%3#

  4. ((d))

    1#9#, △\bigtriangleup%3>3>

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1>9#, △\bigtriangleup%3#3#

112

If the word “ DE_ _ DE is a meaningful word then what is its code?

  1. ((a))

    3>2>3>

  2. ((b))

    3*2>3>

  3. ((c))

    3&2&3&

  4. ((d))

    3#2#3*

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3>2>3>

113

Which of the following words are coded as “36<44, #><4” respectively?

  1. ((a))

    SAREN, MOST

  2. ((b))

    DWAFT, MANT

  3. ((c))

    DHARA, MORE

  4. ((d))

    SWIFT, MEAT

  5. ((e))

    SOREP, MEAL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SAREN, MOST

114

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is 9m to the north of B. C is 4 to the north of D. E is 8m to the west of D. C is 6m to the east of B. H is to the east of A and north of D. E is 7m to the south of F. G is 4m to the east of F.

Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    EG

  2. ((b))

    BH

  3. ((c))

    FA

  4. ((d))

    AC

  5. ((e))

    EB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

EG

115

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Six people i.e., A, B, C, D, E, F were born in different years i.e., 1969, 1976, 1983, 1989, 1996, and 2010 but not necessarily in the same order.

(Note: Consider the base year as 2023.)

Age of A is a multiple of 9. The difference between the ages of A and B is 14 years. The sum of the ages of C and E is 81 years. C was born before E. The age of C is equal to the sum of the ages of E and F.

What is the age of D?

  1. ((a))

    13 years

  2. ((b))

    27 years

  3. ((c))

    47 years

  4. ((d))

    40 years

  5. ((e))

    54 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 years

116

In the following question a premise is provided, solve the question as per the individual direction.

A fallacy is an argument that is based on mistaken reasoning.

Example: 

Person A: I think it's important to limit the amount of fast food we eat.

Person B: So, you want to implement a dictatorship where the government controls what we eat? We should ban all restaurants and only allow people to eat at home? You're suggesting we turn into a society where no one is allowed to enjoy a burger or fries ever again?

Which fallacy does the example represent?

  1. ((a))

    Slippery Slope (SS) - It is an argument that suggests taking a minor action will lead to major and sometimes ludicrous consequences.

  2. ((b))

    False Dilemma (FD) - Two choices are presented, when more might exist, and the claim is made that one is false and one is true-or one is acceptable and the other is not. Often, there are other alternatives, or both choices might be false or true.

  3. ((c))

    Hasty Generalization (HG): An argument based on a hasty generalization always proceeds from the particular to the general. It takes a small sample and tries to extrapolate an idea about that sample and apply it to a larger population, and it doesn't work.

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Slippery Slope (SS) - It is an argument that suggests taking a minor action will lead to major and sometimes ludicrous consequences.

117

In the following question a premise is provided, solve the question as per the individual direction.

A fallacy is an argument that is based on mistaken reasoning.

Example: In a local community, there is an upcoming election for a city council seat. John, a passionate member of the Blue Party, is actively campaigning for their candidate. He asks Amy to join the campaign. Amy clarifies that she is an independent voter and does not align with any political party. Without seeking clarification or engaging in a discussion with Amy, John starts thinking that she must be supporting the Red Party, the main opposition to the Blue Party in the election.

Which fallacy does the example represent?

  1. ((a))

    Slippery Slope (SS) - It is an argument that suggests taking a minor action will lead to major and sometimes ludicrous consequences.

  2. ((b))

    False Dilemma (FD) - Two choices are presented, when more might exist, and the claim is made that one is false and one is true-or one is acceptable and the other is not. Often, there are other alternatives, or both choices might be false or true.

  3. ((c))

    Hasty Generalization (HG): An argument based on a hasty generalization always proceeds from the particular to the general. It takes a small sample and tries to extrapolate an idea about that sample and apply it to a larger population, and it doesn't work.

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Slippery Slope (SS) - It is an argument that suggests taking a minor action will lead to major and sometimes ludicrous consequences.

118

Read the four statements given below and select the option that can fill the blanks appropriately.

Statement A: The global temperature is rising due to human activities.

Statement B: The ice caps are melting at an alarming rate.

Statement C: The greenhouse gas emissions from fossil fuels are trapping more heat in the atmosphere.

Statement D: The average surface temperature of the Earth has increased by about 1.2°C since the pre-industrial era.

Statement A __________________ statement D. Statement C __________________ statement B.

  1. ((a))

    strengthens the argument given in, can be concluded from

  2. ((b))

    is the inference drawn from, is a possible reason for

  3. ((c))

    is the cause of, is the effect of

  4. ((d))

    is an assumption derived from, is the cause of 

  5. ((e))

    None of the given.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

strengthens the argument given in, can be concluded from

119

A customer claims that they were charged a fee for a service they never requested or used. How should the bank handle the complaint and ensure customer satisfaction?

I. The bank should thoroughly review the customer's account details, transaction history, and statements to invalidate the claim made by the customer and to prove that the customer had indeed stated a preference against the service in question.

II. If it is determined that an unauthorized fee was incorrectly charged, the bank should promptly apologize to the customer, explain the error, and initiate a refund for the amount deducted.

III. Assess and review internal procedures to identify the root cause of the issue, ensuring that similar errors are not repeated in the future by implementing necessary changes and establishing robust checks and balances within the system.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is to be a course of action.

  2. ((b))

    Either I or II is to be a course of action.

  3. ((c))

    I, II and III are independently correct courses of action, though they can't coexist.

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II and III is to be the correct course of action.

  5. ((e))

    None of I, II and III is to be a course of action.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is to be a course of action.

120

P: I think we should respect the rights of all people, regardless of their race, gender, or religion and it's important to be tolerant of other people's beliefs, even if we don't agree with them.

Q: So you are saying that we should just let people do whatever they want, even if it's wrong and we should tolerate any kind of behavior, even if it goes against our moral values and traditions?

What has Q misinterpreted from P's statement?

  1. ((a))

    Q has misinterpreted that P is supporting the rights of minorities, which means that they should have special privileges and advantages over the majority.

  2. ((b))

    Q has misinterpreted that P is promoting the equality of outcomes, which means that everyone should have the same level of wealth and opportunity regardless of their merit and effort.

  3. ((c))

    Q has misinterpreted P's statement to mean that there are no universal moral standards and that everything is permissible and tolerance means agreeing with everything everyone says, even if it is wrong.

  4. ((d))

    Q's interpretation of P's statement was that we should feel sorry for people with different beliefs and tolerate them to help them progress and eventually dominate us.

  5. ((e))

    Person Q has not misinterpreted Person P's statement.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q has misinterpreted that P is supporting the rights of minorities, which means that they should have special privileges and advantages over the majority.

121

Directions: Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows.

According to a report by the World Health Organization, Dr. Lee, a renowned epidemiologist, has been working tirelessly to combat the spread of a new virus that has emerged in his country. He has been collecting data, conducting tests, and advising the government on the best measures to contain the outbreak. He has also been communicating with other experts around the world to share his findings and learn from their experiences.

What can be inferred about Dr. Lee's qualities or purpose from this information?

  1. ((a))

    He is a curious scientist who enjoys discovering new things.

  2. ((b))

    He is a collaborative professional who values teamwork and cooperation.

  3. ((c))

    He is a confident leader who takes charge and makes decisions.

  4. ((d))

    He is a cautious planner who anticipates and prepares for future scenarios.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He is a curious scientist who enjoys discovering new things.

122

Statement: To manage the heavy workload, the workers of company X are demanding to increase the number of workers. The workers have also threatened the company to go on strike if the demand is not fulfilled by the company.

Which of the following will strengthen or weaken the above statement?

I: For the last few years, due to the heavy workload, the workers have been working extra hours and did not take any leave.

II: In the last six months, the workers of company X have repeatedly taken rest in between the work, thus the work is not completed.

  1. ((a))

    I weakens and II Strengthens

  2. ((b))

    Both Strengthens

  3. ((c))

    Both weakens

  4. ((d))

    I Strengthens and II weakens

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II weakens

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I weakens and II Strengthens

123

Direction: A statement is given and then two conclusions – I & II are given. You have to consider the statement as true though it seems to be different from the actual facts. Then give your answer regarding the given statement that which of the conclusion/s is/are followed by it properly.

Statement: The café nearest to the airport is experiencing a heavy rush in peak hours. So the café owner decided to close the café during the peak hour and appoint more workers.

Conclusions:

I. During peak hours some customers will go to other cafés.

II. By appointing new workers the work can be managed smoothly and the new workers will take the place of the old workers.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusions follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

124

Read the statement below followed by two conclusions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit from the statement.

Statement: The Railways have requested all their passengers to check the status of the train operations before leaving their homes as the heavy fog is causing immense problems to continue normal train operations.

Assumptions:

I. The majority of the railways passengers may check their train status before starting their journey to the railway station. 

II. The Government may take serious objection to the notice issued by the Railways.

III. Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal.

  1. ((a))

    None is implicit

  2. ((b))

    Only assumption I is implicit

  3. ((c))

    Only assumption II is implicit

  4. ((d))

    Only assumption III is implicit

  5. ((e))

    Only assumption I and III are implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None is implicit

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

There are 13 houses in a horizontal line from west to east facing north as the house number left most is 1 and so on to 13. Among them, nine houses are filled with a person each, and four houses are empty.

Note - 1. No two vacant houses are immediately to each other.

  1. If it is given that there are two persons between any two person's houses then there may be two or more than two houses in between those two houses.

The house number of P is 7. There are three houses between P and Y. R is immediately right of Y. The number of houses to the right of R is one less than the number of houses to the left of M. No house adjacent to M is vacant. There are four houses between N and T. T is to the right of S but left of K. There are two persons between M and J. The house of J is not at any extreme end. N is third to the right of J.

125

Which of the following person has the same number of persons to his left as well as right?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    J

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    K

  5. ((e))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

126

How many vacant houses are there between S and J?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None

127

What is the sum of the house numbers of Y and K?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    16

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

128

If M and P interchanged their position then whose house is fifth to the right of M?

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    Y

  5. ((e))

    Vacant House

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N

129

Find the odd one out:

  1. ((a))

    House 1

  2. ((b))

    House 4

  3. ((c))

    House 8

  4. ((d))

    House 10

  5. ((e))

    House 13

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

House 1

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Twelve persons were born in two different years 1998 and 1999. The number of persons born in 1998 is more than the number of persons born in 1999. No two persons were born in the same month of the same year.

G was born in a month having less than 31 days after June. There was a gap of three months between G and H and both were born in the same year. H and K were born in the same month. There was a gap of five months between H and L irrespective of the year. B was born in November and in the same year as of Z. One person was born in a month having 31 days between the month of July and the month of Q. Q was born in the month having 30 days before G. There was a gap of 3 months between Q and U and both were born in the same year. As many months between Q and J as before J in the same year. P and J were born in the same month. S and Q were born in the same month. M was born five months after S. P was born before Z in the same year.

130

How many such months are there in which no one was born in both the years?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    More than Three

  5. ((e))

    No such month

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

131

How many persons were born after M?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Six

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

132

In which month Z was born?

  1. ((a))

    March

  2. ((b))

    May

  3. ((c))

    August

  4. ((d))

    October

  5. ((e))

    December

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

March

133

The number of people born before S is same as the number of people born after _________.

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    H

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

134

Which of the following is true?

I. P was born in the month having an even number of days.

II. U was born in the month having an odd number of days.

III. M was born in the month having the least number of days.

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    All I, II and III

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    Only III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

135

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows and facing towards each other. In row 1 P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting and all of them are facing south. In row 2 A, B, C, D, and E are sitting and all of them are facing North. No two person according to English alphabetical consecutive order sits adjacent to each other.

R sits at the extreme end. C sits opposite to the one who is two places away from R. S sits second to the left of T. Q does not sit at extreme end. A sits immediate right of the one who sits opposite to S.

Who sits opposite to Q?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

136

In the question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion (s) among the given two conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.

Statements: 

Only Match is Stadium.

Some Crowd is Match.

Only a few Umpires are Crowd.

Conclusions:

I. All Match being Crowd is not a possibility.

II. All Umpires can be Match.

  1. ((a))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    Only conclusion I follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

137

Direction: In the question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion (s) among the given two conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.

Statements: 

Only a few Temples are Devotees.

All Devotees are Mosques.

Some Mosques are not Prayers.

Conclusions:

I. All Devotees can never be Prayers.

II. All Mosques can be Temples.

  1. ((a))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Either conclusion I or II follows

138

Directions: In each of the given questions, a few statements have been given followed by three conclusions based on them. Consider the statements to be true and answer which of the given conclusions logically follows the statement.

Statements:

All J are S.

Only a few S are G.

All G are M.

No M is T.

Conclusions:

I. Some G are T.

II. Some S are not T.

III. All T being G is a possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion III follow

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I and III follows

  5. ((e))

    All follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

139

Directions: In each of the given questions, a few statements have been given followed by three conclusions based on them. Consider the statements to be true and answer which of the given conclusions logically follows the statement.

Statements:

All T are J.

Only a few J are L.

All L are D.

No D is F.

Conclusions:

I. All J being F is a possibility.

II. Some T is L.

III. Some J is not F.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion III follows

  4. ((d))

    All conclusions follow

  5. ((e))

    None follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

140

Directions: In each of the given questions, a few statements have been given followed by three conclusions based on them. Consider the statements to be true and answer which of the given conclusions logically follows the statement.

Statements:

No K is T.

All B are T.

Only a few B are G.

All G are C.

Conclusions:

I. Some T are not G.

II. All T being G is a possibility.

III. Some C are not K.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion III follow

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I and III follows

  5. ((e))

    All follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total cost of a company to make a unit of a product. The total revenue of the company is Rs.78125 by selling all the products. 

 

 

Note:

i) Information regarding one unit product are given:

Gross profit = Total revenue - Total cost 

Net profit = Gross profit - Tax

Tax = 20% of Gross profit

Net profit/ unit = Rs. 500

The advertisement cost is Rs. 25 more than the tax value.

b)Unit sold = 25

c) The Selling price is the same for all the units

141

If the marketing cost and Extras for each unit is increased by 20% and 30% respectively Then find the total amount of the new marketing cost, New Extras and 40% of the packing cost of 1 unit material.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1625

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1505

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1385

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1425

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 1375

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1625

142

If the selling price per unit is increased by 40% and gross profit remains the same then find the difference between the new advertisement cost of 2 items and the previous advertisement cost of 2 items.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 180

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 160

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 150

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 120

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 140

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 180

143

 If manufacturing one unit of item requires 15 kg of material which consist of A material and B material. If per kg of A material costs Rs. 30 and total cost of A material is Rs. 300, then find the per kg cost of B material.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 105

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 125

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 115

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 120

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 135

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 105

144

Find the difference between total cost of 15 units and total advertisement cost of 25 units.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 39150

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 34650

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 32850

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 33750

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 32550

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 39150

145

If no tax is deducted, find the sum of the packing cost of 5 unit items and net profit earned by selling those items.

  1. ((a))

    5000

  2. ((b))

    5500

  3. ((c))

    6000

  4. ((d))

    7000

  5. ((e))

    6500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5000

146

A sum of Rs. X is distributed among P, Q, R and S. P received Rs. 2000 and the amount received by P is 40% of that by S. The ratio of amount received by R and S is 1: 4 and Q received 60% of the amount received by R. Find the value of X.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 8000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 10000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 11000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 9000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 7000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 8000

147

Ratio of ages of A and B before 6 years was 2: 3 then ratio of age of A and B after 10 years becomes 3:4. If the age of C is 1.5 times the present age of B, then find the age of C 11 years ago. Present age of A and B is to be taken as a and b respectively.

  1. ((a))

    (2a - b)

  2. ((b))

    (2b - a)

  3. ((c))

    (2a + b)

  4. ((d))

    (2b + a)

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(2a - b)

148

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

750 + 24.5 × 2 + 1 – (10 % of 500 ÷ 5 × 2 ) of 5 + √16 = ?

  1. ((a))

    750

  2. ((b))

    780

  3. ((c))

    804

  4. ((d))

    724

  5. ((e))

    704

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

750

149

Find the approximate value of ‘?’ in the following question.

\(64.14 \times \frac{9}{8}{\rm{;of;}}500{\rm{% }} - 71.92{\rm{;of;}}\frac{7}{{9{\rm{;}}}} \times 400{\rm{% }} = {\rm{;}}?\)

  1. ((a))

    136

  2. ((b))

    126

  3. ((c))

    146

  4. ((d))

    132

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

136

150

What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

\(\sqrt[3]{{19683}} + \sqrt[2]{{9604}}; - ;\sqrt[3]{{3375}} = ;? - \left( {3\frac{1}{3}% ;of;2070} \right)\)

  1. ((a))

    159

  2. ((b))

    169

  3. ((c))

    179

  4. ((d))

    149

  5. ((e))

    189

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

159

151

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

65 % of 3400 + 4096 ÷ 32 × 2 = 12.5 % of 512 + ?

  1. ((a))

    2502

  2. ((b))

    2872

  3. ((c))

    2252

  4. ((d))

    2402

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2502

152

Sum of 4 consecutive even numbers is (P + 12) and there are 4 consecutive odd numbers in which 2nd highest number is 39 more than the 2nd lowest even number in the previous series. Sum of the Highest number of both series is 105. Find the value of P.

  1. ((a))

    124

  2. ((b))

    112

  3. ((c))

    122

  4. ((d))

    116

  5. ((e))

    118

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

124

153

In the question, two quantities (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity (I) and Quantity (II) and choose the correct option.

Quantity (I): A path of uniform width of 6 meters is to be made around a square park. If the area of the path is 1224 m2 then find the perimeter of the park.

Quantity (II): From a pizza in the shape of a circle of radius 28 meters a slice making an angle of 90° at the center is taken out. Find the perimeter of the remaining pizza.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity (I) > Quantity (II)

  2. ((b))

    Quantity (I) < Quantity (II)

  3. ((c))

    Quantity (I) = Quantity (II)

  4. ((d))

    Quantity (I) ≥ Quantity (II)

  5. ((e))

    Quantity (I) ≤ Quantity (II)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity (I) > Quantity (II)

154

In the following question, two statements are numbered as A and B. On solving these statements, we get quantities A and B respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity A: Three mixtures of milk and water in the ratio of 2 : 1 : 4 are mixed. The percentage of water in the three mixtures is 30%, 45%, and 25% respectively. Find the ratio between milk and water in the resultant mixture of three mixtures.

Quantity B: A invests Rs.500 and B invests Rs. M into a partnership for a year. After 8 months, A added Rs.200 to his investment, and B removes Rs.100 from his investment. If the difference between the profit shares of B and A after a year is Rs. 720 and the total profit of Rs.3440, then find the ratio between the initial investment of A and B.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

  2. ((b))

    Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

  3. ((c))

    Quantity A < Quantity B

  4. ((d))

    Quantity A > Quantity B

  5. ((e))

    Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

155

In a class there is (x + 10) number of students whose average weight is 40 kg. If y more students having an average weight is 48 kg is added, then the average weight of the class is increased by 2. If (y + 5) students having an average weight of 44 kg is added then the average weight of the class is increased by 1.6. Find the value of 2 (x + y)?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    20

  5. ((e))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28

156

Efficiency of A is 33.33% more than sum of efficiency of B and C and efficiency of C is 83.33% less than sum of efficiency  of A and B together. If A and C together can complete 75% of work in 12 days than find in how many days B can complete 120% of total work

  1. ((a))

    60 days

  2. ((b))

    48 days

  3. ((c))

    36 days

  4. ((d))

    45 days

  5. ((e))

    54 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60 days

Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.

There are two colleges Amber and Dhara that offer two courses (Traditional and Professional) in a city in 3 different years 2019, 2020 and 2021. 

The Table below shows the data about the number of students who opted for these courses in 2 colleges.

 

YearsNumber of students in Amber and Dhara colleges opted for both the coursesNumber of students in Amber colleges opted for traditional coursesNumber of students in Amber colleges opted for professional coursesNumber of students in Dhara colleges opted for traditional coursesNumber of students in Dhara colleges opted for professional coursesNumber of students in Dhara college opted for both the courses
2019150—-2P—-4P70
2020200—-2P—-—-80
2021321—-3P—-—-99

 

Note: 48, 44, and 54 students opted for professional courses at Dhara College in 2019, 2020, and 2021, respectively.

157

 Find the ratio between the total number of students who opted both the courses in Amber college in 2019 and total number of students who opted both the courses in 2020 in Dhara college.

  1. ((a))

    1: 1

  2. ((b))

    1: 3

  3. ((c))

    2: 1

  4. ((d))

    3: 1

  5. ((e))

    2: 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1: 1

158

Number of students who opted professional courses in Dhara college in 2022 is 25% more than the number of students who opted professional courses in Dhara college in 2019.Total number of students opted both the courses in 2022 is 130. Find the number of students who opted traditional courses in Dhara college in 2022.

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    70

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    85

  5. ((e))

    90

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80

159

If 3/8 of number of students opted for traditional courses from Amber college in 2019 are females and remaining are males and 1/3rd of students opted traditional courses from Amber college in 2021 are females and remaining are males.Find the total  number of males opted traditional courses from Amber college in 2019 and 2021.

  1. ((a))

    161

  2. ((b))

    171

  3. ((c))

    178

  4. ((d))

    159

  5. ((e))

    179

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

161

160

If the difference between number of students opted for traditional and professional courses from Amber college in 2021 is x and sum of the number of  students opted for professional course from Dhara college in 2019 and 2020 together is y then find the sum of the values of x and y.

  1. ((a))

    272

  2. ((b))

    232

  3. ((c))

    246

  4. ((d))

    242

  5. ((e))

    254

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

272

161

Find the difference between the number of students who opted for a traditional course from Amber college in 2021 and the number of students who opted for a professional course from Dhara college in 2019.

  1. ((a))

    5.5P - 48

  2. ((b))

    7.5P +48

  3. ((c))

    12.5P - 10

  4. ((d))

    12P - 11

  5. ((e))

    10P + 24

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5.5P - 48

162

Mohan deposit certain amount in bank saving account for 6 year which give simple interest of x% annually and invest same principle in fix deposit for 2 year which gives interest rate 10% and compounded annually, total interest he get from saving account to fix deposit in the ratio of 6 : 7, if bank provide (x + 3)% rate annually on saving account deposit, then difference of interest arise Rs.7,500 between saving account and fix deposit after respective time period, what amount he invest in fix deposit?

  1. ((a))

    Rs.40,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs.1,00,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs.70,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs.60,000

  5. ((e))

    Rs.50,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs.40,000

163

The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly.

<br>

There are two articles 'P' and 'Q'. The selling price of article 'Q' is Rs.240 more than that of article 'P'. Find the selling price of article 'P'?

Statement I: Article 'P' is marked up by 20% above its cost price and the discount offered on article 'Q' is Rs.390.

Statement II: Article 'Q' is marked up by Rs.90 above its cost price and the discount offered on article 'P' is Rs.540.

  1. ((a))

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

164

The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly.

<br>

The average weight of 'N' students in a class is 'A' kg. Find the value of 'N'?

Statement I: When a student having a weight of 35 kg is added then the average weight of the class is increased by 4 kg.

Statement II: When two students weighing 33 kg each are added then the average weight of the class is increased by 2 kg.

  1. ((a))

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

165

A and B start a business. Sum invested by B is half of that invested by A. Nine months after the start of the business, B completely withdraws from the business and C joins the business with Rs. 9000. If the total annual profit earned was Rs. 27000 and C earned Rs. 5000 as his share from the profit, what was A's initial investment?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 8000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 9000 

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 6000 

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 4000 

  5. ((e))

    Other than those given as options

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 8000

Directions: Study the following directions shows the number of athletes selected for Olympic games from country A, B and C in 2010 , 2014 and 2018.

 

Number of athletes selected from country A in 2014 is (2z + 16) which is 16 more than the number of athletes selected from country C in 2010. Number of athletes selected from country C in 2010 is twice the number of athletes selected from country B in 2018. Number of athletes selected from country C in 2014 is 40 more than the number of athletes selected from country C in 2010.

Ratio of the number of athletes selected from country C in 2010 to 2018 is 15: 16 respectively. Number of athletes selected from country B in 2010 and 2014 are 5y and 4y respectively. Number of athletes selected from country A in 2010 is 12 more than the number of athletes selected from country C in 2010. Total number of athletes selected from country A, B, and C in all the three given years is 450, 300, and 500 respectively.

166

Out of total athletes selected from country C in 2018 , 25% participated in track and field games, 40% of the remaining participated in archery, and remaining participated in board games, then find the total number of athletes participated in track and field games and board games together.

  1. ((a))

    106

  2. ((b))

    112

  3. ((c))

    118

  4. ((d))

    116

  5. ((e))

    128

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

106

167

If the number of athletes from country C in 2010 , 1/5rd of the athletes won the medal and the number of athletes from country C in 2014, 40% of them won medals. If the total number of medals won by athletes in all the given years is 120. Find the number of medals won by athletes from country C in 2018.

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    14

  5. ((e))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

168

If the total number of athletes selected from country B in 2022 is 36% less than the total number of athletes selected from country B in 2010 and 2014 together, and the number of athletes selected in 2016 from country B is 80% of the total number of athletes selected from country B in 2018 and 2014. Find the difference between athletes selected in 2022 and 2016 in country B.

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

169

If the average  number of athletes selected from country A, B, C, and D in 2014 is 140 then find the number of athletes selected from country D in 2014?

  1. ((a))

    106

  2. ((b))

    104

  3. ((c))

    110

  4. ((d))

    108

  5. ((e))

    112

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

106

170

Find the difference between the total  number of athletes selected from country A in 2010, 2014 and 2018  and the number of athletes selected from country C in 2010, 2014 and 2018

  1. ((a))

    60

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    65

  4. ((d))

    55

  5. ((e))

    70

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60

171

Find the wrong term in the series given below.

5.5,  2.75,  2.75,  5.5,  24,  176, 2816

  1. ((a))

    5.5

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    176

  4. ((d))

     Series is correct

  5. ((e))

    2816

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5.5

172

Find the wrong term in the number series given below:

18.5,  22.5,  26.5,  38.5,  58.5

  1. ((a))

    58.5

  2. ((b))

    26.5

  3. ((c))

    18.5

  4. ((d))

    38.5

  5. ((e))

    22.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

58.5

173

Directions: Two quantities A and B are given in the following questions. You have to find the value to both A and B by using your knowledge of mathematics and choose the most suitable relation between the magnitude of A and B from the given options.

Quantity A - Time for sum invested to become 8 times of itself. Sum of money doubles itself in 3 years at compound interest, compounded annually.

Quantity B- Time for which money is invested. Sum of Rs. 12540 becomes Rs. 19437. Rate of interest (S.I.) for first 3 years is 5% and after that is 8%.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

  2. ((b))

    Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

  3. ((c))

    Quantity A = Quantity B or no relationship can be established

  4. ((d))

    Quantity A > Quantity B

  5. ((e))

    Quantity A < Quantity B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

174

Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.

Quantity 1: An orange vendor makes a profit of 10% by selling oranges at a certain price. If he charges Rs. 1.4 more per orange he would gain 30%. Find the original price at which he sold an orange.

Quantity 2: A real estate agent sells two sites for Rs. 200 each. On one he gains 25% and on the other he loses 25%. What is his loss or gain percent?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Either Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation can be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

175

Ratio of time taken by a Ship to go 'S' km distance upstream to the time taken by that ship to go (S - 6) km downstream is 15 :8 respectively and also the ratio of speed of ship in still water to the speed of stream is 5 : 1 respectively. What is the respective ratio of time taken by that ship to go (S + 2) km upstream and (S + 12) km downstream?

  1. ((a))

    8 :7

  2. ((b))

    7 :6

  3. ((c))

    9 :8

  4. ((d))

    10 :9

  5. ((e))

    6 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 :7

Directions: Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.

There are some officers (Private + Government) working in four areas A, B, C and D.

Pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the total number of officers (Private and Government) in four areas

Total number of officers = 5000

.

 

Table given below shows the number of private officers working in these 4 areas.

 

AreaNumber of private officers
A200
B—
C—
D40% of the total

 

Note : 

i) Average number of private officers working in Area A, B and C is 400

ii) Number of private officers working in Area B to C are in the ratio 7: 3

176

If out of total private and government officers in Area A, 40% and 60% respectively are male officers , then find the difference between private and government female officers in Area A.

  1. ((a))

    320

  2. ((b))

    300

  3. ((c))

    200

  4. ((d))

    240

  5. ((e))

    260

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

320

177

If out of total officers working in Area C, 75% are Banking officers and out of total private officers working in that Area, 80% are banking officers , then find the number of non - baking government officers working in area C.

  1. ((a))

    75

  2. ((b))

    70

  3. ((c))

    80

  4. ((d))

    65

  5. ((e))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75

178

If 45% of total private officers in Area D works 12 hours/day and the remaining works 10 hours/day while 50% of total government officers in Area D work 11 hours/day and remaining works 5 hours/ day, then find the sum of total weekly working hours of all the officers working in city D.

(1 week = 7 days)

  1. ((a))

    122030

  2. ((b))

    150400

  3. ((c))

    124500

  4. ((d))

    128240

  5. ((e))

    123400

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

122030

179

If 20% officers from each Area A,B, C and D are moved to another city E and the total number of officers are represented in a pie chart having degree distribution, then what will be the central angle belonged to the number of officers in Area E?

  1. ((a))

    90

  2. ((b))

    80

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    60

  5. ((e))

    72

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90

180

If total annual tax paid each officer in area is given below:

A = 1 lakh

B = 1.2 lakhs

C = 1.5 lakhs

D = 1.8 lakhs

Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

I: Total tax paid by officers in Area A is 1/6th of total tax paid by officers in Area D. 

II: Total tax paid by officers in Area B is equal to the 50% of total tax paid by officers in Area D.

III: Sum of total tax paid by officers in Areas A and C together is less than the total tax paid by officers in Area D.

  1. ((a))

    I only

  2. ((b))

    I and II only

  3. ((c))

    II and III only

  4. ((d))

    III only

  5. ((e))

    II only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I only

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In the following question, two missing number series I and II are given. Both the given series are following the same pattern.

Series I: P, Q, 139, 200, 267, 338

Series II: 79, 132, 191, R, S, 390

181

Which of the following term in series  (I) is 6 more than the value of the value of (P × R)/12 ?

  1. ((a))

    7th term

  2. ((b))

    8th term

  3. ((c))

    9th term

  4. ((d))

    10th term

  5. ((e))

    11th term

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7th term

182

Find the average of value of Q, R and S?

  1. ((a))

    207

  2. ((b))

    217

  3. ((c))

    227

  4. ((d))

    237

  5. ((e))

    247

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

207

183

There is another series (III) which is also following the same pattern as above. If sum of the 2nd term of series (I) and that of series (III) is 137 then the 5th term of series (III) is what percent more/less than the value of 'Q'?

  1. ((a))

    205%

  2. ((b))

    210%

  3. ((c))

    215%

  4. ((d))

    220%

  5. ((e))

    225%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

205%

184

Given below are quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose among the possible answer.

A mixture of two chemicals H2SO4 and H2O2 contains 79% H2O2 and 21% H2SO4. 

Quantity A: Find the quantity of H2O2required to add into 39 litres of mixture to make it a 18% solution of H2SO4 in H2O2. 

Quantity B: Find the quantity of H2O2 required to add into 5.25 litres of mixture to make it a 91% solution of H2O2 in H2SO4.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity A > Quantity B

  2. ((b))

    Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

  3. ((c))

    Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

  4. ((d))

    Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

  5. ((e))

    Quantity A < Quantity B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity A > Quantity B

185

If m and n are the roots of equation 9x2 - 18x + 27 = 0, then what will be the equation with roots: (6m + 3) and (6n + 3).

  1. ((a))

    x2 - 18x + 153 = 0

  2. ((b))

    x2 - 18x + 15 = 0

  3. ((c))

    x2 + 18x + 153 = 0

  4. ((d))

    x2 - 18x - 153 = 0

  5. ((e))

    x2 + 18x - 153 = 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x2 - 18x + 153 = 0

186

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both equations and mark the appropriate answer.

1. x2−512x+712=0x^2 - 5\frac{1}{2}x+7\frac{1}{2} = 0 2. 11y2−2y+1.75=2y−2\frac{1}{\frac{1}{y^2-2y+1.75}} = 2y-2

  1. ((a))

     x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

  2. ((b))

    x > y

  3. ((c))

    x < y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x ≥ y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

187

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. (x - 6)(2x - 5)2zn = 0 ('n' is the smallest whole number).

II. y3 = 343

  1. ((a))

    x < y

  2. ((b))

    x > y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x < y

188

Directions: Following questions have two quantities as Quantity I and Quantity II. You have to determine the relationship between them and give answer as,

Quantity I: Peter invested some amount in scheme A which offers 25% CI pa while some amount in scheme B which offers 10% SI pa. After 2 years ratio of interest earned from A to B is 13 : 6. Amount invested by Peter in scheme A is what percent of the amount invested by him in scheme B.

Quantity II: Shyam invested Rs. 22000 in a scheme A which offered SI at the rate of R% for two years. After two years, he withdrew the principle amount plus interest and invested the entire amount in another scheme B which offers SI at the rate of 25% for two years. If he got total interest of Rs. 14740 after two years, find the value of R.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. ((b))

    Quantity II > Quantity I 

  3. ((c))

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 

  4. ((d))

    Quantity II ≥ Quantity I

  5. ((e))

    Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can’t be established. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

189

Jar A comprises a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. Another mixture of milk and water is added to jar A and the ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture changes. What was the initial quantity of mixture present in Jar A?

I. The ratio of milk and water in the mixture that was added to Jar A was 2 : 1 respectively.

II. The ratio of the new quantities of milk and water in Jar A was 8 : 5 respectively. The quantity of water in the mixture added to jar A was 6 litre.

  1. ((a))

    The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

  5. ((e))

    The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

190

In the following question, two statements are numbered as A and B. On solving these statements, we get quantities A and B respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity A: Saurav can row a boat 40 km upstream in 8 hours. If speed of Saurav’s boat is 7 km/h. Find how much Saurav can row downstream in 9 hours.

Quantity B: Vaibhav’s boat travelled 100 km in 10 hours in still water. If total time taken by Vaibhav to reach the distance is 8 hours for first half of time he goes against the stream and for remaining half along with the stream. Find the distance travelled, if speed of stream is 2 km/h.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity A > Quantity B

  2. ((b))

    Quantity A < Quantity B

  3. ((c))

    Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

  4. ((d))

    Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

  5. ((e))

    Either Quantity A = Quantity B or no relation can be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity A > Quantity B

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