Official Paper

IBPS Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 29 November 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

155 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

General/ Financial Awareness (40 questions)

1

In July 2024, Keir Starmer led the Labour Party to a landslide victory in the general election, ending 14 years of Conservative rule. Following this historic win, he assumed office as the new Prime Minister. Keir Starmer became the new Prime Minister of which country following Labour's landslide election victory?

  1. ((a))

    United States

  2. ((b))

    United Kingdom

  3. ((c))

    Canada

  4. ((d))

    Australia

  5. ((e))

    France

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

United States

2

Under India’s Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS), Short-Term Bank Deposits (STBD) allow gold holders to earn interest by depositing with banks, with Medium and Long-Term options discontinued for new deposits since March 2025. What is the maximum duration for a short-term bank deposit in India, like the option of the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS)?

  1. ((a))

    2 years

  2. ((b))

    1 year

  3. ((c))

    3 years

  4. ((d))

    5 years

  5. ((e))

    10 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 years

3

Recent GST Council reforms in September 2025 rationalised slabs to simplify compliance and boost revenue, maintaining 18% rate for key industrial inputs amid rate rationalisation debates. As of the recent GST reforms in September 2025, which of the following goods covered under 18% GST slab?

  1. ((a))

    Electronics components

  2. ((b))

    Cement

  3. ((c))

    Batteries

  4. ((d))

    Auto parts

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Electronics components

4

The Unique Disability ID (UDID) card serves as a lifetime identity document for Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) in India, facilitating access to government schemes, benefits, and reservations. It is issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. How many digits/characters does a UDID card contain?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

5

The Sultan of Johor Cup is an annual international invitational tournament hosted in Johor Bahru, Malaysia, featuring under-21 men's teams from top nations. India recently defeated the host nation Malaysia 2-1 to reach the final against Australia. The Sultan of Johor Cup is related to a tournament belonging to which sport?

  1. ((a))

    Cricket

  2. ((b))

    Hockey

  3. ((c))

    Football

  4. ((d))

    Kabaddi

  5. ((e))

    Volleyball

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cricket

6

The Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025 is a national innovation challenge launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to develop cutting-edge solutions for urban infrastructure transformation. The event aims to engage young innovators for India's development vision by 2047. Who has been named the brand ambassador for the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Neeraj Chopra

  2. ((b))

    Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla

  3. ((c))

    PV Sindhu

  4. ((d))

    R Praggnanandhaa

  5. ((e))

    Shubman Gill

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neeraj Chopra

7

The Automotive Research Association of India (ARAI) has established a landmark facility for testing advanced vehicle technologies critical to India's automotive future. ARAI's recent inauguration marks India's first dedicated facility for testing Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS) under real Indian road conditions. This 20-acre 'ADAS Test City' replicates urban traffic scenarios. In which city is India's first ADAS Test City being established by ARAI?

  1. ((a))

    Bengaluru

  2. ((b))

    Chennai

  3. ((c))

    Pune

  4. ((d))

    Hyderabad

  5. ((e))

    Gurugram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bengaluru

8

Digital life certificate for pensioners streamlines the verification process through biometric authentication via Aadhaar, eliminating physical document submission. It enables pensioners to generate certificates from home using mobile apps or doorstep services. Digital life certificate for pensioners, for digitizing the process of securing life certificates and making it easier for them, is also known as?

  1. ((a))

    Jeevan Suraksha

  2. ((b))

    Jeevan Praman

  3. ((c))

    Pension Praman

  4. ((d))

    Aadhaar Yojana

  5. ((e))

    Digital Pension Patra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jeevan Suraksha

9

The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has streamlined claim settlements through digital processes, enhancing member convenience. As part of its modernization drive, EPFO enhanced the auto-settlement threshold for advance claims. The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has increased the auto-settlement limit for advance claims from Rs 1 lakh to how much?

  1. ((a))

    Rs 10 lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs 2 lakh

  3. ((c))

    Rs 3 lakh

  4. ((d))

    Rs 5 lakh

  5. ((e))

    Rs 7.5 lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs 10 lakh

10

World Solidarity Day, also known as International Human Solidarity Day, promotes unity in diversity and cooperation to address global challenges like poverty and inequality. On which date is World Solidarity Day, also known as International Human Solidarity Day, celebrated to promote unity, cooperation and the importance of solidarity in addressing global challenges?

  1. ((a))

    December 25

  2. ((b))

    November 29

  3. ((c))

    December 1

  4. ((d))

    December 10

  5. ((e))

    December 20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

December 25

11

Which Indian bank became the first major bank in the country to join the Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials (PCAF)?

  1. ((a))

    State Bank of India

  2. ((b))

    Union Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    HDFC Bank

  4. ((d))

    Punjab National Bank

  5. ((e))

    ICICI Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

State Bank of India

12

In October 2025, the United Nations Troop Contributing Countries' (UNTCC) Chiefs' Conclave was convened to discuss global peacekeeping priorities and strengthening multinational coordination. In which city was this high-level international conclave held?

  1. ((a))

    Mumbai

  2. ((b))

    New Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

  5. ((e))

    Kolkata

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mumbai

13

Pochampalli, renowned for its distinctive Ikat handloom textiles and celebrated for receiving the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag for its craftsmanship, holds a significant place in India’s cultural heritage. In which Indian state is this famous weaving town located?

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Telangana

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

  5. ((e))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Andhra Pradesh

14

The Arattai app, developed as a secure and user-friendly instant messaging and calling platform offering an Indian alternative in the digital communication space, has gained notable attention in recent years. This innovative application belongs to which company?

  1. ((a))

    Microsoft

  2. ((b))

    Zoho Corporation

  3. ((c))

    Google

  4. ((d))

    Infosys

  5. ((e))

    Tata Consultancy Services

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microsoft

15

In the history of international football, several legendary players have set remarkable records through their exceptional goal-scoring performances on the global stage. Among the following names, who has scored the maximum number of goals in international football?

  1. ((a))

    Cristiano Ronaldo

  2. ((b))

    Lionel Messi

  3. ((c))

    Bader Al-Mutawa

  4. ((d))

    Sunil Chhetri

  5. ((e))

    Pelé

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cristiano Ronaldo

16

SCORES, the dedicated online grievance redressal platform created to empower investors by enabling them to lodge complaints against listed companies and market intermediaries, plays a key role in financial market transparency. This important digital mechanism was established by which organisation?

  1. ((a))

    IRDAI

  2. ((b))

    RBI

  3. ((c))

    SEBI

  4. ((d))

    MCA

  5. ((e))

    NPCI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IRDAI

17

In the abbreviation NHIS, in the context of the upcoming national survey to be launched by MoSPI in February 2026, what does the letter “H” stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Health

  2. ((b))

    Housing

  3. ((c))

    Human

  4. ((d))

    Habitat

  5. ((e))

    Household

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Health

18

The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project, recognized as one of India’s major renewable energy initiatives aimed at enhancing clean power generation through large-scale floating solar technology, has gained national attention. In which part of India is this significant floating solar power project located?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

  5. ((e))

    Telangana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat

19

Which organisation initiated the Self Help Group–Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP) as a pilot project in 1992–93 to connect poor households with formal financial institutions?

  1. ((a))

    RBI

  2. ((b))

    NABARD

  3. ((c))

    SIDBI

  4. ((d))

    State Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Rural Development

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RBI

20

Which of the following leaders is the second-longest serving Prime Minister of India by overall cumulative tenure?

  1. ((a))

    Lal Bahadur Shastri

  2. ((b))

    Indira Gandhi

  3. ((c))

    Narendra Modi

  4. ((d))

    Manmohan Singh

  5. ((e))

    Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lal Bahadur Shastri

21

The English book, translated from Kannada and authored by Banu Mushtaq, presents a compelling collection of short stories that vividly portray the diverse struggles and experiences of women in Karnataka. What is the name of this impactful literary work?

  1. ((a))

    Burning Hearts

  2. ((b))

    Silent Courtyards

  3. ((c))

    Heart Lamp: Selected Stories

  4. ((d))

    Voices from the South

  5. ((e))

    Lamp of Hope

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Burning Hearts

22

What was India's rank in the medal tally at the World Para Athletics Championships 2025 held in New Delhi?

  1. ((a))

    5th

  2. ((b))

    7th

  3. ((c))

    8th

  4. ((d))

    10th

  5. ((e))

    12th

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5th

23

In early October 2025, the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) completed the world's highest motorable road under Project Himank, surpassing Umling La and setting a new Guinness World Record. Where is the world's highest motorable road, constructed by Project Himank of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), located?

  1. ((a))

    Chang La Pass

  2. ((b))

    Khardung La Pass

  3. ((c))

    Mig La Pass

  4. ((d))

    Umling La Pass

  5. ((e))

    Rohtang Pass

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chang La Pass

24

In 2025, India’s Special Economic Zones (SEZs) continue to drive exports, FDI, and employment through incentives like tax exemptions and single-window clearances under the SEZ Act, 2005. Which Indian state has the highest number of operational special economic zones (SEZs) in 2025, with 51 SEZs?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Telangana

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

  5. ((e))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

25

Launched in 2015, Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) provides renewable life insurance cover of Rs. 2 lakh annually for just Rs. 436 premium. Age limit for enrollment in the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is from 18 to _____?

  1. ((a))

    55 years

  2. ((b))

    50 years

  3. ((c))

    60 years

  4. ((d))

    65 years

  5. ((e))

    70 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55 years

26

Scheduled for early 2026, assembly elections in several states will shape regional politics amid key issues like development and governance. These polls cover full-term and union territory elections post-2021 cycles. Which of the following states will have assembly elections in 2026?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Puducherry

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assam

27

Established to mobilize household savings into capital markets, India's mutual fund industry began with a public sector unit in 1963. Which was the first mutual fund established in India in 1963 to encourage savings and investment?

  1. ((a))

    SBI Mutual Fund

  2. ((b))

    Unit Trust of India

  3. ((c))

    LIC Mutual Fund

  4. ((d))

    Canara Robeco

  5. ((e))

    Kotak Mahindra MF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SBI Mutual Fund

28

India's atomic energy program began with research reactors before commercial power generation. The first grid-connected station marked entry into nuclear electricity production for self-reliance. Which was the first commercial nuclear power station built in India in 1969?

  1. ((a))

    Narora Atomic Power Station

  2. ((b))

    Kakrapar Atomic Power Station

  3. ((c))

    Tarapur Atomic Power Station

  4. ((d))

    Kaiga Generating Station

  5. ((e))

    Madras Atomic Power Station

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Narora Atomic Power Station

29

Nirmala Sitharaman serves as a key member of the Union Cabinet under Prime Minister Narendra Modi, holding multiple portfolios critical to India's economic management and policy formulation. In addition to her primary responsibility, she oversees another significant ministry. Which ministry does Nirmala Sitharaman currently govern in the Government of India, along with the Ministry of Finance?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Corporate Affairs

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of External Affairs

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Home Affairs

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Labour and Employment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Commerce and Industry

30

India was recently elected unopposed to the United Nations Human Rights Council for the 2027-2028 term, marking its seventh tenure since inception. For how long will India serve on the UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC) during its tenure?

  1. ((a))

    2 years

  2. ((b))

    3 years

  3. ((c))

    4 years

  4. ((d))

    5 years

  5. ((e))

    6 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 years

31

Betla National Park is renowned for its rich biodiversity, particularly as a tiger reserve and elephant habitat in the Latehar and Palamu districts. It holds the distinction of being the sole national park within its state boundaries. Betla National Park, the only national park in its state, is located in which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Chhattisgarh

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

  5. ((e))

    Bihar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

32

The IUCN World Conservation Congress serves as the premier global forum for biodiversity conservation, bringing together governments, NGOs, scientists, and indigenous leaders every few years. IUCN World Conservation Congress is held at an interval of how many years?

  1. ((a))

    5 years

  2. ((b))

    2 years

  3. ((c))

    3 years

  4. ((d))

    4 years

  5. ((e))

    6 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 years

33

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) compulsorily delisted several companies from stock exchanges for regulatory violations, including non-submission of financials and fraudulent practices. Which company was delisted from the exchange by SEBI?

  1. ((a))

    Zee Learn Ltd

  2. ((b))

    Reliance Power

  3. ((c))

    GMR Airports Infrastructure

  4. ((d))

    Adani Green Energy

  5. ((e))

    Yes Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zee Learn Ltd

34

Wildlife Week 2025 (October 2-8) marked significant conservation milestones with multiple national projects launched to protect India's flagship species. In Wildlife Week 2025, during which of the following national projects on conservation were launched?

  1. ((a))

    Project Gharial

  2. ((b))

    Tigers Outside Tiger Reserve Initiative

  3. ((c))

    Project Sloth Bear

  4. ((d))

    Dolphins

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Project Gharial

35

Producer Organisations (POs) empower small producers through collective bargaining, market access, and value addition under the Companies Act 2013. A Producer Organisation (PO) is a legal entity formed by primary producers. Who are they classified as primary producers?

  1. ((a))

    Farmers

  2. ((b))

    Craftsmen

  3. ((c))

    Fishermen

  4. ((d))

    Weavers

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Farmers

36

The National Security Guard (NSG) was raised as a federal counter-terrorism force following Operation Blue Star and the assassination of Indira Gandhi. The National Security Guard (NSG) was formally established on which year?

  1. ((a))

    1984

  2. ((b))

    1985

  3. ((c))

    1986

  4. ((d))

    1987

  5. ((e))

    1988

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1984

37

The National Pension System (NPS), initially launched for government employees, was opened to all Indian citizens to promote long-term retirement savings and financial security. When was the National Pension System (NPS) extended to all citizens in India?

  1. ((a))

    2004

  2. ((b))

    2009

  3. ((c))

    2011

  4. ((d))

    2015

  5. ((e))

    2020

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2004

38

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) maintains strategic subsidiaries to support commercial space activities, technology transfer, and international collaborations. Which of the following organisations is a subsidiary owned by ISRO?

  1. ((a))

    Antrix Corporation

  2. ((b))

    New Space India Limited

  3. ((c))

    Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre

  4. ((d))

    Skyroot Aerospace

  5. ((e))

    Agnikul Cosmos

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Antrix Corporation

39

Financial inclusion schemes in India aim to provide affordable banking, credit, insurance, and pension services to underserved populations, particularly in rural and unbanked areas. Which of the following is not included under Financial Inclusion Schemes?

  1. ((a))

    PM Mudra Yojana

  2. ((b))

    Standup India

  3. ((c))

    PM Jan Dhan Yojana

  4. ((d))

    Atal Pension Yojana

  5. ((e))

    Make in India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PM Mudra Yojana

40

The International Space Station (ISS) represents unprecedented international cooperation in space exploration, serving as a microgravity laboratory orbiting Earth at 28,000 km/h. The First piece of the International Space Station was launched in which year?

  1. ((a))

    2000

  2. ((b))

    1996

  3. ((c))

    1997

  4. ((d))

    1998

  5. ((e))

    1999

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2000

General English (40 questions)

41

Direction: From the options given below, select the option which states the correct set of sentences.

A. A rocket-propelled grenade hits the headquarters near Chandigarh.

B. There was a clash between the groups in the area a month ago.

C. His supporters brutally assaulting anti-government protesters amid a worsening economic crisis.

  1. ((a))

    B and C

  2. ((b))

    A only

  3. ((c))

    A and B

  4. ((d))

    B only

  5. ((e))

    C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B and C

42

Direction: From the options given below, select the option which states the correct set of sentences.

A. The court made the observation while rejecting the bail pleas of four co-accused.

B. The national capital witnessed another round of bulldozer politics against the Citizenship Act.

C. A rough sea damaged the State's first floating bridge inauguration on Malpe Beach.

  1. ((a))

    A and C

  2. ((b))

     A only

  3. ((c))

    A and B

  4. ((d))

    B and C

  5. ((e))

    C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and C

43

Direction: From the options given below, select the option which states the correct set of sentences.

A. The State has decided to accommodate people being evicted from their homes in Chennai

B. The film begins to tell the story of the Sully family, the trouble that follows it, the lengths they go to keep each other safe, and the tragedies they endure.

C. There are no magic wands to ensure the party's revival except selfless work, disciplined and an overriding sense of unity, party's president.

  1. ((a))

    A only

  2. ((b))

    A and C

  3. ((c))

    B and C

  4. ((d))

    C only

  5. ((e))

    A and B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A only

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The recent discovery of a new exoplanet, ______(1) Kepler-186f, has sparked significant excitement among the astronomical community. Its size and orbital position within the habitable zone suggest the potential for liquid water and, conceivably, ______(2) life. However, detecting biosignatures remains an immense technical challenge, one that will ______(3) state-of-the-art instruments. The search for extraterrestrial intelligence (SETI) is a/an ______(4) endeavour, often facing scepticism and funding limitations. Critics argue that the resources could be better used on terrestrial problems, a stance that scientists ______(5) as shortsighted, given the profound implications of finding life beyond Earth. The next generation of space telescopes is being ______(6) to focus precisely on these distant worlds, promising to revolutionise our understanding of the universe.

44

Find the word that fits (1).

  1. ((a))

    entitled

  2. ((b))

    nominating

  3. ((c))

    designated

  4. ((d))

    labelled

  5. ((e))

    titled

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

entitled

45

Find the word that fits (2).

  1. ((a))

    probable

  2. ((b))

    flourishing

  3. ((c))

    potential

  4. ((d))

    imminent

  5. ((e))

    existing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

probable

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The recent discovery of a new exoplanet, ______(1) Kepler-186f, has sparked significant excitement among the astronomical community. Its size and orbital position within the habitable zone suggest the potential for liquid water and, conceivably, ______(2) life. However, detecting biosignatures remains an immense technical challenge, one that will ______(3) state-of-the-art instruments. The search for extraterrestrial intelligence (SETI) is a/an ______(4) endeavour, often facing scepticism and funding limitations. Critics argue that the resources could be better used on terrestrial problems, a stance that scientists ______(5) as shortsighted, given the profound implications of finding life beyond Earth. The next generation of space telescopes is being ______(6) to focus precisely on these distant worlds, promising to revolutionise our understanding of the universe.

46

Find the word that is inappropriate for (3).

  1. ((a))

    necessitate

  2. ((b))

    mandate

  3. ((c))

    require

  4. ((d))

    demand

  5. ((e))

    consume

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

necessitate

47

What Should come in place of (4)?

  1. ((a))

    momentous

  2. ((b))

    lucrative

  3. ((c))

    challenging

  4. ((d))

    ambitious

  5. ((e))

    worthwhile

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

momentous

48

What Cannot come in place of (5)?

  1. ((a))

    reject

  2. ((b))

    dismiss

  3. ((c))

    regard

  4. ((d))

    characterize

  5. ((e))

    describe

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reject

49

What Should come in place of (6)?

  1. ((a))

    fabricated

  2. ((b))

    designed

  3. ((c))

    fashioned

  4. ((d))

    constructed

  5. ((e))

    executed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fabricated

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Genome sequencing has revolutionized the field of genetics, offering unprecedented insights into the detailed structures and functions of genomes across a wide array of organisms. By decoding the DNA sequences of different cells, scientists can understand genetic variations, disease mechanisms, and evolution at a molecular level. Two primary distinctions in genome sequencing are between bacterial genomes and eukaryotic cells, each presenting unique complexities and challenges. Bacterial genomes, generally smaller and simpler, have been sequenced in large numbers due to their relative ease and the profound impact such research can have. More than 3,000 varieties of bacterial genome cells have been sequenced, vastly surpassing initial targets of about 20-30. These efforts have enhanced our understanding of antibiotic resistance, pathogenesis, and the role of bacteria in various ecosystems. In contrast, sequencing eukaryotic cells, which are more complex and larger, involves intricate procedures due to their organized structure of multiple chromosomes and abundant non-coding DNA.

The University of Cambridge, under the leadership of Professor Sarah Brown, has been at the forefront of bacterial genome sequencing. Her team's work on the genomic diversity of Escherichia coli has provided critical insights into its adaptability and pathogenicity. Meanwhile, at Harvard University, Professor James Wilson has been spearheading research on the human genome. His comparative studies between various eukaryotic species have revealed significant genetic commonalities and diversities that underline developmental and evolutionary biology. Three notable scientists have made landmark contributions to the field of genome sequencing. Dr. Emily Carter has made significant advances in sequencing fungal genomes, uncovering genetic pathways crucial for industrial applications and biocontrol. Dr. Michael Thompson's work focuses on plant genome sequencing, which holds tremendous potential for enhancing crop yields and ensuring food security. Lastly, Dr. Rachel Adams has conducted pivotal research on marine bacterial genomes, improving our understanding of oceanic ecosystems and bioremediation processes. The term "low hanging fruit" in this context refers to the initial sequences of simpler genomes, such as bacterial cells, which are relatively easier to obtain and analyse compared to more complex eukaryotic genomes. These early successes have provided foundational knowledge and methodologies that pave the way for more challenging sequencing projects.

50

According to the passage, how many varieties of bacterial genome cells have been sequenced?

  1. ((a))

    Approximately 30

  2. ((b))

    Over 3,000

  3. ((c))

    Roughly 1,000

  4. ((d))

    Less than 500

  5. ((e))

    Between 200 to 300

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Approximately 30

51

Which University is Professor Sarah Brown affiliated with?

  1. ((a))

    Harvard University

  2. ((b))

    Stanford University

  3. ((c))

    University of Cambridge

  4. ((d))

    Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)

  5. ((e))

    University of Oxford

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Harvard University

52

Which of the following is implied about eukaryotic genome sequencing compared to bacterial genome sequencing?

  1. ((a))

    It is generally easier and faster.

  2. ((b))

    It poses fewer financial challenges.

  3. ((c))

    It requires more intricate and complex procedures.

  4. ((d))

    It does not require advanced technology.

  5. ((e))

    It has fewer applications in scientific research.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is generally easier and faster.

53

Which of the following can be inferred about Dr. Michael Thompson's work?

  1. ((a))

    His research is aimed at improving agricultural outcomes.

  2. ((b))

    He focuses on marine bacterial genomes.

  3. ((c))

    His work is primarily related to human genome sequencing.

  4. ((d))

    He does not engage in fungal genome projects.

  5. ((e))

    His studies are mainly in bacterial antibiotic resistance.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

His research is aimed at improving agricultural outcomes.

54

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Professor James Wilson conducts research on the human genome at Harvard University.

B) Dr. Emily Carter's advances in genome sequencing focus on plant genomes.

C) Dr. Rachel Adams has improved our understanding of oceanic ecosystems through her research on marine bacterial genomes.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and B

  5. ((e))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

55

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) Genome sequencing has been more extensively completed for bacterial genomes than for eukaryotic cells.

B) "Low hanging fruit" in genome sequencing refers to the early sequencing of complex eukaryotic genomes.

C) Dr. Michael Thompson's work focuses on enhancing crop yields through sequencing fungal genomes.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and C

  5. ((e))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

56

Match the following scientists with their respective contributions in genome sequencing as described in the passage:

ScientistContribution
1. Dr. Emily CarterA. Marine bacterial genomes
2. Dr. Michael ThompsonB. Eukaryotic comparative studies
3. Dr. Rachel AdamsC. Fungal genomes
  1. ((a))

    1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A

  2. ((b))

    1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - B

  3. ((c))

    1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A

  4. ((d))

    1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - B

  5. ((e))

    1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A

57

Directions: Select the appropriate phrase(s) or connector(s) from the three options provided that can be used to create a single sentence by connecting the two given sentences without changing their meaning.

Sentence l - Plastic molecules are found in human blood and placenta.

Sentence ll - This could lead to carcinogenic disorders in humans.

1. To put it differently

2. Notwithstanding

3. The presence of

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    All 1, 2, and 3

  5. ((e))

    Only 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

58

Directions: Select the appropriate phrase(s) or connector(s) from the three options provided that can be used to create a single sentence by connecting the two given sentences without changing their meaning.

Sentence l - People with good friends recover more quickly from illnesses and surgeries.

Sentence ll - Friendships can protect individuals from physical and mental health problems.

1. In addition to this

2. To make matters worse

3. Furthermore

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    All 1, 2, and 3

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1

59

Directions: Select the appropriate phrase(s) or connector(s) from the three options provided that can be used to create a single sentence by connecting the two given sentences without changing their meaning.

Sentence l - Job descriptions emphasize behavioural skills, but only 38% of resumes include them.

Sentence ll - Candidates often find it challenging to meet the new hiring criteria.

1. In the meantime candidates

2. Owing to this disconnect

3. Given that job descriptions

  1. ((a))

    Both 2 and 3

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 3

  4. ((d))

    All 1, 2, and 3

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both 2 and 3

60

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select "No correction required."

All of the applicants who fail to provide valid identification documents will not be considered for the loan approval process, as per the updated guidelines issued by the bank.

  1. ((a))

    All applicants who fail to provide

  2. ((b))

    Each of the applicants who fail to provide 

  3. ((c))

    Any of the applicants who fail to provide

  4. ((d))

    Any applicant who fails to provide

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All applicants who fail to provide

61

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select "No correction required."

If the customer paid his dues on time every month instead of delaying payments repeatedly, the bank would not have imposed additional penalties, and his credit score could have remained unaffected.

  1. ((a))

    will pay his dues at time

  2. ((b))

    pays his dues within time

  3. ((c))

    had paid his dues on time

  4. ((d))

    has paid his dues on time

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

will pay his dues at time

62

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select "No correction required."

The new CEO, who was appointed last year to address the company’s declining profitability, was leading the organization effectively and implementing several new measures, but some employees remain resistant to change.

  1. ((a))

    had been leading

  2. ((b))

    has been leading

  3. ((c))

    is leading

  4. ((d))

    will be leading

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

had been leading

63

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select "No correction required."

The CEO emphasized the need for increased vigilance by employees, stating that negligence might lead to severe consequences in highly regulated industries.

  1. ((a))

    can lead to severe consequences

  2. ((b))

    should lead severe consequences

  3. ((c))

    can be led to severely consequences

  4. ((d))

    shall be leading to severe consequences

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

can lead to severe consequences

64

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on “No improvement required.”

  1. We will crack up to pay his bills.
  2. I will check through to collect money for the campaign.
  3. He will check with to serve the meal.
  1. ((a))

    Came across

  2. ((b))

    Chip in

  3. ((c))

    Come apart

  4. ((d))

    Fall out

  5. ((e))

    No improvement needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Came across

65

Directions: Read the following four sentences marked as A, B, C, and D. Each sentence may or may not be based on the same theme as that of the other three. Identify the odd sentence, if there is one, that can be replaced with the sentence given in bold which follows the theme. If all four sentences align with the same theme, mark "No replacement required" as your answer.

Transport infrastructure supports economic development by improving connectivity, reducing travel time, and enhancing trade efficiency.

A. Well-maintained highways enable faster logistics and boost regional market integration.

B. Renewable-energy subsidies encourage households to adopt eco-friendly power solutions.

C. Upgraded ports facilitate smoother export-import operations and stimulate industrial growth.

D. Modern railway systems promote affordable mobility and reduce traffic congestion.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No replacement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

66

Directions: Column I contains sentences in Active Voice. Column II contains sentences that attempt to be the Passive Voice version. Match the sentence in Column I with the sentence in Column II that correctly retains the same meaning and grammatical tense. Identify the option below that represents this grammatically correct Active-to-Passive transformation.

Column I (Active Voice)Column II (Passive Voice)
(A) The company has manufactured one thousand units.(D) One thousand units have been manufactured by the company.
(B) My father drives the car very fast.(E) The car is being driven very fast by my father.
(C) The committee will finalize the dates soon.(F) The dates will be finalized by the committee soon.
  1. ((a))

    A-F

  2. ((b))

    C-D

  3. ((c))

    B-F

  4. ((d))

    A-D

  5. ((e))

    B-D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-F

67

Directions: Column I contains sentences in Active Voice. Column II contains sentences that attempt to be the Passive Voice version. Match the sentence in Column I with the sentence in Column II that correctly retains the same meaning and grammatical tense. Identify the option below that represents this grammatically correct Active-to-Passive transformation.

Column I (Active Voice)Column II (Passive Voice)
(A) Students should respect their elders.(D) Their elders should be respected by students.
(B) They were conducting the interview yesterday.(E) The interview was being conducted by them yesterday.
(C) The noise surprised everyone.(F) Everyone is surprised by the noise.
  1. ((a))

    A-E

  2. ((b))

    B-F

  3. ((c))

    C-D

  4. ((d))

    A-F

  5. ((e))

    B-E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-E

68

Directions: Column I contains sentences in Active Voice. Column II contains sentences that attempt to be the Passive Voice version. Match the sentence in Column I with the sentence in Column II that correctly retains the same meaning and grammatical tense. Identify the option below that represents this grammatically correct Active-to-Passive transformation.

Column I (Active Voice)Column II (Passive Voice)
(A) The captain awarded the winner a medal.(D) The winner was awarded a medal by the captain.
(B) Bring the file immediately.(E) The file is brought by someone immediately.
(C) The local press is reviewing the new film.(F) The new film is being reviewed by the local press.
  1. ((a))

    A-F

  2. ((b))

    A-D

  3. ((c))

    C-E

  4. ((d))

    B-F

  5. ((e))

    B-D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-F

69

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A) responsible for 66% of deaths in India in 2019, 

B) the alarming surge in non-communicable diseases, 

C) signals a critical shift in public health priorities 

D) and emphasizes the preventability of these 

E) fatalities through lifestyle choices

  1. ((a))

    ABDCE

  2. ((b))

    CABDE

  3. ((c))

    BACDE

  4. ((d))

    ECABD

  5. ((e))

    DBEAC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ABDCE

70

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A) supplies a significant portion of global seafarers, 

B) and expertise in ship management, 

C) yet lags in ship owning and building compared to 

D) India, with a rich seafaring tradition 

E) China's strategic shipbuilding advancements

  1. ((a))

    CDEAB

  2. ((b))

    ABDCE

  3. ((c))

    EABCD

  4. ((d))

    DBACE

  5. ((e))

    DCEBA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CDEAB

71

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A) despite advocating women-led development, 

B) and skewed expenditure patterns 

C) undermine meaningful progress toward 

D) gender-inclusive development models

E) inadequate budget allocation

  1. ((a))

    AEBCD

  2. ((b))

    DBACE

  3. ((c))

    DBEAC

  4. ((d))

    EABDC

  5. ((e))

    ACBDE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AEBCD

72

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A) and food prices persisted post-2008 crisis, 

B) softening only as oil prices fell in 2014, 

C) the intricate relationship between crude oil 

D) yet rising again post-pandemic, 

E) breaching 2011's record levels

  1. ((a))

    ACBDE

  2. ((b))

    CABDE

  3. ((c))

    DEABC

  4. ((d))

    EBCDA

  5. ((e))

    CABED

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACBDE

73

Directions: Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A) between AI and human creativity, 

B) ethical integration ensures progress 

C) while acknowledging the synergy of their 

D) in the evolving collaboration 

E) unique strengths for the future of work

  1. ((a))

    DAEBC

  2. ((b))

    EBCAD

  3. ((c))

    ACBDE

  4. ((d))

    CEDAB

  5. ((e))

    DABCE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DAEBC

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The United States economy, one of the largest and most dynamic in the world, relies heavily on its workforce to drive growth and ensure competitiveness on the global stage. In recent years, the U.S. labour market has demonstrated significant resilience and adaptability, contributing substantially to economic expansion even amid challenging conditions. As of 2023, the U.S. labour force comprises approximately 165 million people, representing a diverse mix of skills, professions, and industries. A key factor in the economic growth observed over the past decade has been the increasing participation rate, which stands at 62.7%, up from 61.5% earlier in the decade. This rise can be attributed to various demographic shifts, including higher labour force participation among women and older workers, and the steady influx of skilled immigrants boosting the workforce pool. Inflation has been another critical aspect affecting the U.S. economy. The Consumer Price Index (CPI), which measures the average change in prices paid by consumers for goods and services, has shown fluctuations but maintained an upward trend, averaging around 3.2% in 2023. Factors driving this inflation include supply chain disruptions, increased consumer demand post-pandemic, and higher production costs. Despite these inflationary pressures, real wage growth has managed to outpace inflation in certain sectors, providing workers with more disposable income and _________ consumer spending, a primary driver of economic growth.

Technological advancements and innovation continue to play pivotal roles in shaping the labour market. The adoption of automation and artificial intelligence (AI) in various industries, such as manufacturing, healthcare, and finance, has led to a shift in the skills demanded by employers. This shift necessitates continuous learning and upskilling opportunities for the workforce, supported by both private sector initiatives and government programmes aimed at enhancing job readiness in a transforming economy. Small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs), accounting for about 44% of the U.S. GDP, exhibit significant influence on economic dynamism. These businesses are essential in job creation, innovation, and fostering competition. However, they face unique challenges such as limited access to capital and resources, which can be alleviated through targeted economic policies and support systems. The gig economy also represents a growing segment of the U.S. labour market, with approximately 36% of workers participating in freelancing, contract work, or other forms of non-traditional employment. This shift reflects broader trends towards flexible work arrangements and the desire for greater autonomy among workers. While the gig economy offers substantial opportunities for income diversification and entrepreneurship, it also raises questions about job security, benefits, and regulations. In conclusion, the labor workforce in the United States is a critical driver of the country's economic growth. Through diverse participation, adaptive skills, and entrepreneurial spirit, American workers continue to propel the economy forward. Addressing challenges such as inflation, upskilling needs, and gig economy regulations will be key to sustaining this growth and ensuring economic stability.

74

According to the passage, what was the U.S. labour force participation rate in 2023?

  1. ((a))

    60.3%

  2. ((b))

    61.5%

  3. ((c))

    62.7%

  4. ((d))

    63.1%

  5. ((e))

    64.2%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60.3%

75

The passage states that small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) account for what percentage of the U.S. GDP?

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    36%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    44%

  5. ((e))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30%

76

Which of the following can be inferred about the impact of technological advancements on the U.S. labour market?

  1. ((a))

    Technological advancements have drastically reduced employment in all sectors.

  2. ((b))

    Technological advancements have led to an immediate replacement of human workers by machines in most sectors.

  3. ((c))

    Technological advancements require the workforce to engage in continuous learning and upskilling.

  4. ((d))

    Technological advancements have solely benefitted large corporations.

  5. ((e))

    Technological advancements have made traditional employment practices obsolete.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Technological advancements have drastically reduced employment in all sectors.

77

Which of the following is likely a challenge for workers in the gig economy, according to the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Consistent access to healthcare benefits

  2. ((b))

    Fixed and predictable work hours

  3. ((c))

    Long-term job security

  4. ((d))

    Stable relationships with employers

  5. ((e))

    Guaranteed promotions and raises

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Consistent access to healthcare benefits

78

Despite these inflationary pressures, real wage growth has managed to outpace inflation in certain sectors, providing workers with more disposable income and ______ consumer spending, a primary driver of economic growth.

  1. ((a))

    reducing

  2. ((b))

    moderating

  3. ((c))

    stabilizing

  4. ((d))

    fuelling

  5. ((e))

    balancing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reducing

79

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) The U.S. labour market has seen a rise in participation rates due to younger workers joining the workforce.

B) Higher labour force participation among women and older workers contributed to the rise in participation rate.

C) Supply chain disruptions are one of the factors that contributed to fluctuations in the Consumer Price Index (CPI).

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and B

  5. ((e))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

80

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) The U.S. labour force comprises approximately 165 million people as of 2023.

B) Automation and AI adoption in various industries lead to job losses without creating any new job opportunities.

C) The U.S. gig economy shows about 50% of the workforce engaged in non-traditional employment.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and B

  5. ((e))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

Reasoning Ability (40 questions)

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Six persons, K, L, M, N, O, and P, are born in six different years: 1950, 1962, 1969, 1975, 1990, and 2001, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them prefers a different shopping app: Amazon, Flipkart, Meesho, Myntra, Ajio, and Nykaa, but not necessarily in the same order. All ages must be calculated on the basis of the year 2025.

The sum of the ages of K and the one who likes Nykaa is 110. L does not like Nykaa. N and K don't like Amazon. O likes Ajio and was born in an odd-numbered year. The person who likes Myntra was born in an even-numbered year. The one who likes Myntra is older than the one who likes Meesho. The sum of the ages of N and the person who likes Flipkart is 113. M is older than the one who likes Flipkart but younger than K.

81

Who among the following is definitely younger than the one who likes Flipkart?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    The one who likes Amazon

  3. ((c))

    The one who likes Nykaa

  4. ((d))

    The one who likes Meesho

  5. ((e))

    N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

82

What is the sum of the ages of the person who likes Ajio and Amazon?

  1. ((a))

    63 years

  2. ((b))

    75 years

  3. ((c))

    56 years

  4. ((d))

    80 years

  5. ((e))

    85 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

63 years

83

Who among the following likes Nykaa?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    O

  5. ((e))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

84

Which one is odd?

  1. ((a))

    The one who likes Myntra

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    The one who likes Nykaa

  4. ((d))

    The one who likes Amazon

  5. ((e))

    The one who likes Meesho

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The one who likes Myntra

85

Which of the following statements is true regarding N?

  1. ((a))

    N likes Amazon.

  2. ((b))

    N is younger than P.

  3. ((c))

    N was born in 1975.

  4. ((d))

    N likes Flipkart.

  5. ((e))

    The sum of N’s age and the Nykaa user’s age is 98.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N likes Amazon.

Directions: In each of the following questions, a word is given. A coding table with letters and their corresponding symbols/digits is provided. You must determine which option correctly represents the code of the given word according to the conditions given below. If none of the combinations match, choose ‘None of these’.

LettersALKDTRBFGEQSHMV
Symbols/Numbers%2#8@5!9&4?6^3*

 

Conditions:

Condition 1: If the second and last letters of the word are consonants, then the entire code is written in reverse order.

Condition 2: If the word contains more than one vowel, then the codes of the 1st and 3rd letters are interchanged.

Condition 3: If the first letter of the word is a consonant and the fourth letter is a vowel, then double the symbol of the fourth letter (repeat twice).

Note: If more than one condition is satisfied, apply Condition 3 only.

86

What is the code for the word ‘MTFAL’?

  1. ((a))

    3%4@2

  2. ((b))

    2@4%3

  3. ((c))

    3@4%2

  4. ((d))

    3@9%%2

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3%4@2

87

What will be the correct code for ‘BEAKS’?

  1. ((a))

    %4!#6

  2. ((b))

    #^68!

  3. ((c))

    !8#6^

  4. ((d))

    ^6#8!

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

%4!#6

88

What will be the code of the word ‘TRHAV’?

  1. ((a))

    @^5*%

  2. ((b))

    *^5@%

  3. ((c))

    @5^%

  4. ((d))

    @5^%%*

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

@^5*%

89

What will be the code of the word ‘AFGQM’?

  1. ((a))

    %9&?3

  2. ((b))

    &9%?3

  3. ((c))

    3?&9%

  4. ((d))

    %&9?3

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

%9&?3

90

What will be the code of the word ‘LBRST’?

  1. ((a))

    2!5@6

  2. ((b))

    @65!2

  3. ((c))

    2!6@5

  4. ((d))

    @5!62

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2!5@6

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Six individuals, namely,  R, T, V, X, Y, and Z, are sitting in a single straight row. Some of them face North, while others face South, but no more than two adjacent persons face the same direction. Each of them prefers a different colour: Crimson, Emerald, Amber, Indigo, Magenta, and Teal, but not necessarily in the same order. 

The person who prefers Amber does not face South. R is positioned two seats away from Z, who sits immediately to the right of Y. Exactly four people sit between V and the one who prefers Emerald. ​No one sits to the left of R. Y likes Crimson. R and T sit next to each other. T is seated third to the right of the person who likes Magenta. Exactly two people sit between V and the one who likes Indigo, who sits immediately to the left of the person whose favourite is Amber.

91

How many persons sit between R and the one who likes Indigo?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None

92

Which among the following is the right combination?

  1. ((a))

    R - Amber

  2. ((b))

    X - Teal

  3. ((c))

    V - Teal

  4. ((d))

    T - Crimson

  5. ((e))

    Z - Magenta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R - Amber

93

Who among the following sits immediately to the right of Y?

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    Z

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V

94

Which of the following statements is definitely true?

  1. ((a))

    Z is two places away from X

  2. ((b))

    V sits immediately next to T

  3. ((c))

    Y likes Indigo

  4. ((d))

    Teal is liked by someone facing North

  5. ((e))

    Y sits to the right of T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Z is two places away from X

95

Which among the following colour is liked by the person who sits third to the right of R?

  1. ((a))

    Amber

  2. ((b))

    Crimson

  3. ((c))

    Teal

  4. ((d))

    Indigo

  5. ((e))

    Emerald

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amber

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Seven individuals, namely, H, M, X, L, R, Y, and K, reside in a building that has seven floors, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is associated with a different flower, viz. Rose, Lily, Orchid, Jasmine, Sunflower, Tulip, and Marigold, but not necessarily in the same order. Not more than one person stays on the same floor. The lowest floor is numbered 1, and the one above it is 2, and so on.

There are exactly two floors separating the Jasmine-holder and K, who is linked with Orchid. M occupies an even-numbered floor and stays directly below the person associated with Jasmine. The number of floors above K is equal to the number of floors below the person with Sunflower. R lives three floors apart from the individual connected with Sunflower. Y, who is associated with Tulip, does not reside on any floor above M. The number of floors between M and Y is identical to the number of floors between L and H. The person linked with Rose stays on the topmost floor. X does not have Lily, and R does not have Marigold. H doesn't have Marigold. The person with Lily does not stay on a floor lower than the person with Marigold.

96

Which among the following statements is/are true?

  1. ((a))

    L has Jasmine flower.

  2. ((b))

    K lives two floors above the one who has Marigold flower.

  3. ((c))

    H lives on the first floor.

  4. ((d))

    X lives immediately above the Jasmine flower.

  5. ((e))

    Both A and B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

L has Jasmine flower.

97

Which of the following flowers is associated with the person living on the 5th floor?

  1. ((a))

    Rose

  2. ((b))

    Orchid

  3. ((c))

    Jasmine

  4. ((d))

    Lily

  5. ((e))

    Tulip

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rose

98

How many floors are there between the person who has Tulip and the person who has Jasmine?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None

99

Who among the following stays immediately below the person associated with Orchid?

  1. ((a))

    H

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H

100

The number of floors above the one who has Orchid is equal to the number of floors below the one who has _____.

  1. ((a))

    Lily

  2. ((b))

    Sunflower

  3. ((c))

    Marigold

  4. ((d))

    Tulip

  5. ((e))

    Jasmine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lily

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

A number arrangement machine, when given an input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement.

Input: 85  16  36  28  43  97  55  73

Step I: 40  06  18  16  12  63  25  21

Step II: 04  10  14  16  23  27  38  65

Step III: 16  01  15  35  05  45  55  11

Step IV: 01  05  11   15  16  35  45  55

Step V: 10  09  08  07  06  05  02  01

Step V is the last step of the arrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions.  

Input: 35  39  96  47  58  55  75  86

101

Which of the element comes third to the right of the fifth element from the right end in Step IV?

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    55

  5. ((e))

    46

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40

102

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A) As many elements to the left of '32' in Step III as many to the right of '38' in step II.

B) There are only two elements present between '77' and '20' in step III.

C) The difference of the second element from the left end and third element from the right end is divisible by third element from the right end in Step V.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Both B and C

  4. ((d))

    Both C and A

  5. ((e))

    Only B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

103

Which of the following represents Step IV of the given Input?

  1. ((a))

    20   32  21   40   45   48   55   77

  2. ((b))

    20   21   40   32   45   48   55   77

  3. ((c))

    20   21   32   40   45   55   48   77

  4. ((d))

    20   21   32   40   45   48   55   77

  5. ((e))

    20   21   32   40   45   48   77    55

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20   32  21   40   45   48   55   77

104

What is the sum of the third element from the left end in Step I and fourth element from the right end in Step IV?

  1. ((a))

    90

  2. ((b))

    87

  3. ((c))

    96

  4. ((d))

    99

  5. ((e))

    104

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90

105

Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answers accordingly.

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table and facing towards the centre of the table but not necessarily in same order. Who among the following person sits immediate left to B?

Statement I: Only two persons sit between B and E. Neither D nor A sits adjacent to B.

Statement II: D sits second to the left of A. B is the immediate neighbour of C and F who does not sit near to D.

  1. ((a))

    If the data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data given in statement I and II together is necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

106

Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answers accordingly.

Six persons H, I, J, K, L and M work in a company and each person is designated at different position in the company but not necessarily in same order. The designation is in descending order of their seniority is as Chief Executive Officer (CEO), Chief Operating Officer (COO), Chief Financial Officer (CFO), Chief Technology Officer (CTO), Chief Marketing Officer (CMO) and Chief Law officer (CLO). Who among the following person is just senior to J?

Statement I: Only two persons are designated between K and I who is senior to L. K is senior to CFO.

Statement II: H is two positions senior to M who is senior to J and L. Only one person is designated between K and J.

  1. ((a))

    If the data given in either statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question. 

  2. ((b))

    If the data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data given in statement I and II together is necessary to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data given in statement I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data given in either statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question. 

107

Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answers accordingly.

Six boxes Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed one over another from bottom to top but not necessarily in same order. Which among the following box is placed two boxes below the box T?

Statement I: Two boxes are placed between Box U and Box V. Box T is placed exactly between the Box Q and Box V. Box Q is placed above the Box U. Box V is placed below Box U. 

Statement II: Three boxes are placed between Box U and Box S which is placed below it. Box R placed just below the Box T which is placed adjacent to Box U. Box Q placed above the Box V.

  1. ((a))

    If the data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data given in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data given in either statement I or II is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

108

Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answers accordingly.

What is the direction of point A with respect to point C?

Statement I: Point D is 4 Km to the north point A. Point C is 5 Km south to point B. Point B is 5 Km southeast to point D such that it makes a right angle triangle with point A.

Statement II: Point E is 3 Km west of point D. Point B is 5 Km south of point C. Point A is 6 Km north of point E. Point B is 4 Km south of point D.

  1. ((a))

    Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data given in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Data given in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

109

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

In a family of five members, K is the father – in – law of R. F is the only grandson of K. V is the sister of H. K has a son and a daughter. V is unmarried person. How R is related to F?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Uncle

  4. ((d))

    Aunt

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Seven boxes K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are stacked one over another from bottom to top but not necessarily in same order. Each box contains different number of pencils ranging from 10 to 60. Box N is placed three boxes above the box of Q which contains half the number of pencils contained in Box N. Box P contains prime number of pencils which lie between the number of pencils contained in Box N and Box L. Box M and Box O placed adjacent to each other and Box O contains three more pencils than Box M. The number of pencils contained in Box L and Box N are consecutive multiple of 9. Only two boxes placed between Box O and Box L but none of them is placed either top or bottom position. Box M contains thrice the number of pencils contained in box Q. At least two boxes are present between the Box P and Box O which is placed above the Box K. Box L contains number of pencils which is a perfect cube. The sum of number of pencils contained in Box O and Box N is a multiple of number of pencils contained in Box P. Box N is not placed just above Box M. Box K contains 12 more pencils than Box P. Box L placed above the Box M.

110

How many pencils does Box K contains?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    39 

  3. ((c))

    41

  4. ((d))

    43

  5. ((e))

    47

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

111

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A) Box O contains maximum number of pencils.

B) Box N contains perfect square number of pencils.

C) Only two boxes placed below the box Q.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B

  2. ((b))

    Both B and C

  3. ((c))

    All of these

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and B

112

Which box is placed three boxes above the Box M?

  1. ((a))

    The box that contains 27 pencils.

  2. ((b))

    Box N

  3. ((c))

    The box contains 31 pencils.

  4. ((d))

    Box L

  5. ((e))

    More than one option.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The box that contains 27 pencils.

113

Four of the five are alike in a certain way find the one which does not follow the same pattern?

  1. ((a))

    Box P - 31 pencils

  2. ((b))

    Box N - 36 pencils

  3. ((c))

    Box K - 41 pencils

  4. ((d))

    Box M - 54 pencils

  5. ((e))

    Box O - 57 pencils

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Box P - 31 pencils

114

How many boxes are placed between the box which contains least number of pencils and the one which contains maximum number of pencils?

  1. ((a))

    As many boxes above the Box N.

  2. ((b))

    As many boxes between Box O and Box K.

  3. ((c))

    As many boxes between Box P and Box M.

  4. ((d))

    As many boxes below the Box K.

  5. ((e))

    As many boxes above the Box P.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

As many boxes above the Box N.

115

Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

A recent study found that social media platforms, while connecting people, also amplify the spread of misinformation. Users who lack critical thinking skills are particularly vulnerable, as their initial exposure to false claims often occurs through these platforms. However, the study noted that many users, even those who are digitally native, still struggle to identify and verify information independently, sometimes believing content based on its perceived authority or emotional appeal rather than its factual accuracy. 

Assumptions:

I. Users are more likely to believe false information if it is presented in a way that appears credible, such as by a trusted organization or with strong emotional appeals.

II. The lack of critical thinking skills is a significant factor in the spread of misinformation, as users are more susceptible to accepting information at face value.

  1. ((a))

    Only assumption I is implicit

  2. ((b))

    Only assumption II is implicit

  3. ((c))

    Either assumption I or II is implicit

  4. ((d))

    Neither assumption I nor II is implicit

  5. ((e))

    Both assumptions I and II are implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only assumption I is implicit

116

Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of the them logically follow(s) beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Company X, a fabric manufacturer, has seen a 30% increase in revenue over the past year. This growth coincides with several key initiatives: the launch of a new line of sustainable fabrics, the installation of new high-speed weaving machines, and a heavy investment in its e-commerce platform. A rival company is now questioning if the growth is solely due to the popularity of eco-friendly products.

Conclusions:

I. Company X's success is a result of a multifaceted strategy that includes product innovation (eco-friendly fabrics), operational efficiency (automation), and improved market reach (e-commerce).

II. Company X's revenue growth is entirely due to the popularity of its eco-friendly fabrics, and the investment in new machines and online sales was unnecessary.

  1. ((a))

    Either I or II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Only I follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Either I or II follows

117

Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the following inference logically follow(s) for pursuing.

On Saturday, the city's largest shopping complex experienced an unusually high number of visitors, with its parking lots full by midday. However, the total sales recorded across all stores were significantly lower than on a typical weekend, despite the large crowd. Which of the following can be most directly inferred?

Inferences:

I. Many visitors were primarily interested in the complex's other amenities, like the cinema or food court.

II. The high traffic caused congestion, leading to frustration and a disincentive to shop.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Either I or II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

118

Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

The air quality in Delhi has reached severe levels, primarily due to a combination of vehicle emissions, industrial pollution, and crop residue burning in neighboring states. This has resulted in a significant rise in respiratory illnesses and a deterioration of the overall public health crisis. Which of the following courses of action is the most logical and effective to address this issue? 

Courses of Action:

I. Temporarily ban all non-CNG private vehicles from the city until the AQI drops below 150.

II. Implement a robust public transport system powered by renewable energy and create subsidies for farmers to use bio-decomposer technology on crop residue.

  1. ((a))

    Either I or II follows

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only I follows

  4. ((d))

    Only II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Either I or II follows

119

Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

The rise of the gig economy presents a significant challenge: gig workers often lack access to traditional social security benefits like health insurance, retirement plans, and unemployment protection, which can lead to financial instability and increased vulnerability. To address this, which of the following courses of action would be the most effective in providing sustainable social security to gig workers?

Courses of Action:

I. Mandate that all gig platforms provide comprehensive health insurance and retirement plans for their workers.

II. Subsidize private health insurance and encourage gig workers to set up their own retirement savings plans by providing tax incentives.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

120

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

In the given letter string “LBKFMQTVGINTPC”, the letters written to the left of the sixth element from the right end change to the previous letter as per alphabetical series and rest of the letters remain unchanged, then take the second, fourth, fifth, seventh, eighth, tenth and twelfth letter of the new word, then make a four letter meaningful word and use only one vowel at a time and no repetition of letter is allowed then what will be the second letter of the new formed word?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    U

  4. ((d))

    I

  5. ((e))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

Quantitative Aptitude (35 questions)

121

PQ and MT are two-digit numbers that satisfy PQ + MT = 132. The following conditions are given:

  1. P, Q, M, and T are distinct non-zero single digits.

  2. Q < P and Q < T.

  3. The ratio  P : M = 1 : 2

    P:M = 1:2.

Based on this information, determine the sum of the digits of the number PQ.

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

The pie chart shows the percentage of total number of teachers [ Physics + Chemistry] in four different university [A, B, C, and D].

The table shows the number of physics teacher in each university.

Total number teacher [ Physics + Chemistry] in all university together is 250. Average number of physics teacher in all university together is 37.

UniversityNumber of physics teacher
A60% of total number of teachers
BSix less than 3 times of chemistry teacher of same university
CX
D33 more than average chemistry teacher of A and B together
122

Number of physics in E is 150% more than number total number of teachers [ Physics + chemistry] in C and D together. Total number of chemistries in E is sum of physics teacher in C and D together. Find the total number of teachers in E?

  1. ((a))

    524

  2. ((b))

    324

  3. ((c))

    624

  4. ((d))

    452

  5. ((e))

    488

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

524

123

Out of total physics teacher in B 50% is male teacher.  Out of total female teacher in university B, 75% are form physics department. Find the number male chemistry teacher in B?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

124

Find the average of Chemistry lecturers in colleges A, B and C.

  1. ((a))

    74

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    24

  5. ((e))

    26

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

74

125

Find the ratio of number of chemistry lecturers of B and C together to total number of lecturers of college A.

  1. ((a))

    2:3

  2. ((b))

    4:5

  3. ((c))

    37:20

  4. ((d))

    7:2

  5. ((e))

    5:4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2:3

126

Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

a. Total number of lecturers of A is 40

b. Value of X is 60

c. If we add 2 in the number of chemistry lecturers of B, then the sum of chemistry lecturers of A and B is 32.

  1. ((a))

    Only c

  2. ((b))

    Only a

  3. ((c))

    Only a and c

  4. ((d))

    Only b and c

  5. ((e))

    Only b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only c

Calculate value of A and B, Answer the following Question? 

Series 3, 4, 9, 28, 113, A, B

127

Find B is approximately what percentage of A?

  1. ((a))

    824%

  2. ((b))

    600%

  3. ((c))

    500%

  4. ((d))

    240%

  5. ((e))

    320%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

824%

128

Find the value of B.

  1. ((a))

    3368

  2. ((b))

    3247

  3. ((c))

    3397

  4. ((d))

    3577

  5. ((e))

    3567

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3368

129

A number series is given as:

8, 12, 39, 55, 180, 216, ………

Find the 8th term of the given series.

  1. ((a))

    559

  2. ((b))

    480

  3. ((c))

    623

  4. ((d))

    640

  5. ((e))

    524

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

559

An equation is given as:

(2x³ – 11x² + px) / x = 0

One of the roots of the given equation is 3.

130

A new equation is given:

2x² – 9x + 10 = 0

Find the difference between the larger root of this equation and the value of p.

  1. ((a))

    13.5

  2. ((b))

    12.5

  3. ((c))

    4.5

  4. ((d))

    5.6

  5. ((e))

    10.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13.5

131

Find the difference between the roots of the given equation?

  1. ((a))

    2/3

  2. ((b))

    4.5

  3. ((c))

    10.5

  4. ((d))

    1/2

  5. ((e))

    2.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2/3

132

A person invested Rs. X in scheme A at 20% simple interest for 3 years and invested Rs. X in scheme B at Y% simple interest for 2 years. The total interest received from scheme A and B is 2(1/5)​ times the interest received from scheme B. Find the value of Y.

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    225

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    15%

  5. ((e))

    35%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30%

133

P, Q, R, and S are four distinct non-prime numbers. You need to determine their total sum.

Statements:

I. The ratio of R : P : S is 2 : 5 : 6.

II. The difference between Q and R is 9.

III. The sum of P, Q, and R is 81.

  1. ((a))

    Only Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Only Statements I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Only Statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the question

  4. ((d))

    All three statements I, II, and III are required to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Even all three statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

134

Train A travels at Y km/hr and takes 1 hour longer than Train B to cross a platform K that is 400 m long. Both trains have the same length, but Train A runs 10 km/hr slower than Train B.

If the length of Train A and the length of the platform are each multiplied by 10, what will be the new time taken by Train A to cross this enlarged platform?

  1. ((a))

    3(y-10) hours

  2. ((b))

    3(y+10) hours

  3. ((c))

    (y-10) hours

  4. ((d))

    (y+10) hours

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3(y-10) hours

135

A person spends X% of his monthly salary on rent. From the remaining amount, he allocates 30% towards EMI. The leftover sum is then divided between FDI and savings in the ratio 3 : 4. If the money spent on EMI is equal to the amount invested in FDI, determine the value of X.

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    30

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

136

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

7775.002 - 599.991 + 94.625 - 1203.926 + (?) = 7001.00 - 25.789 + (63.99)1/2

  1. ((a))

    890

  2. ((b))

    910

  3. ((c))

    917

  4. ((d))

    950

  5. ((e))

    900

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

890

137

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

? = √(225.22) × (24.96% of 500) + (39.8% of 6000) ÷ (39.6% of 900)

  1. ((a))

    1882

  2. ((b))

    1890

  3. ((c))

    1870

  4. ((d))

    1858

  5. ((e))

    1899

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1882

138

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

91.09 ÷ 13.045 + 989.85 ÷ 11.009 + 75.023 ÷ 5 – 1380.978 ÷ 19.001 = (?)2

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    11

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

139

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

98.88 % of 1200 + 7.05 % of 2100 + (24.11)2 = 81.20 % of 1700 + (?)2

  1. ((a))

    33

  2. ((b))

    38

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    23

  5. ((e))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

33

The bar graph shows the number of chess match played by five persons [A, B, C, D and E] and Number of chess match win by same persons. Match result is either Win, draw or Loss.

 

Note – Ratio of number of match Draw and Loss by any player is either 2:1 or 1:1. No of player loss more than 5 Match

140

If Z played average number of matches played by A and B together, 25% match won by Z. If Z lost three times of Match loss by A, then find the number of match draw by Z?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

141

If A played 12 more match and he draw 50% of those match and win rest of match then find the difference between number of match win and loss by A?

  1. ((a))

    23

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    31

  4. ((d))

    19

  5. ((e))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

23

142

If Player B plays 12 more matches and wins all of them, then his new winning percentage will be what percent more than the initial winning percentage of Player A?

  1. ((a))

    14.5%

  2. ((b))

    16.5%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    10.5%

  5. ((e))

    6.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14.5%

143

If any player wins a match, then he got Rs. 8500 as bonus. Find the total amount by A and B together?

  1. ((a))

    624000

  2. ((b))

    685000

  3. ((c))

    612000

  4. ((d))

    604000

  5. ((e))

    666000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

624000

144

D played against China, Japan and Australia. Ratio of number of matches played by China and Australia is 2:1. D win all match against Japan. Number of win against Japan 1/3rd of total match win by D. Find winning percentage against Chaina and Australia?

  1. ((a))

    15.5%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    32.5%

  4. ((d))

    47.5%

  5. ((e))

    66.67%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15.5%

145

If the difference between number of matches lost by B and C is more than 1, then find the sum of number of matches drawn by A and B together.

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

146

The speed of a boat in still water is 2.5 times its upstream speed. The boat requires 6 hours less to travel a distance of D km downstream than it takes to travel the same distance upstream. What is the total time taken by the boat to cover D km upstream and D km downstream together?

  1. ((a))

    8 hours

  2. ((b))

    9 hours

  3. ((c))

    10 hours

  4. ((d))

    12 hours

  5. ((e))

    15 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 hours

147

The combined present ages of A, B, and C is 73 years. Five years ago, A’s age was twice B’s age at that time. The present age of C exceeds the present age of B by Z years, where Z < 6. All ages are natural numbers.

What is the sum of the current ages of A and C?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    52

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    56

  5. ((e))

    58

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

148

Following question contains two equations as I and II. You have to solve both equations and determine the relationship between them and give an answer as,

I. 6x² + 45x + 84 = 0

II. 2y² + 9y + 10 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x< y

  2. ((b))

    x>  y

  3. ((c))

    x≤ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≥ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or No relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x< y

149

A can do a work in 20 days, B can do the same work in x days and C can do that work in 2x days. They all started working together and after 5 days A left. B and C together complete the remaining work in 10 days. Find the value of x.

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    40

  5. ((e))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

Three schools namely A, B, and C have different numbers of boys and girls. In School A, if the number of boys were increased by 5 and the number of girls were reduced by 5, then the girls would be 20% of the boys in that school. The total number of students in School B is 10 less than twice the number of boys in School A. In School B, boys constitute 60% of the total students. The total number of students in School C is half of the total number of students in School B. The boys in School C are one-third of the boys in School B, while the girls in School C are 9 fewer than the number of boys in School A.

150

If the number of girls in School B is increased by 50%, then what will be the difference between the sum of the total students in school A and total students in school C and the new number of girls in school B?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

151

If 25% of the boys in School B are transferred to School C and 2 new girls join School C, then the new number of boys in School C will be what percent of its new total strength?

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    46.66%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    33.33%

  5. ((e))

    51.50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50%

152

Find the ratio of: the sum of girls in school A and girls in school C to the sum of boys in school B and the total students in school C.

  1. ((a))

    11:12

  2. ((b))

    13:14

  3. ((c))

    15:22

  4. ((d))

    None of these

  5. ((e))

    13:28

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11:12

153

Jar A contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 3 : X, while Jar B contains milk and water in the ratio 7 : 5. Equal amounts from both jars are poured into Jar C to form a new mixture. If the resulting milk-to-water ratio in Jar C becomes 13 : 11, determine the value of X.

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

154

The selling price of Articles A and B is the same. Their cost prices are in the ratio 5 : 3. Article A is sold at a loss of ₹125, while Article B is sold at a profit of ₹75. Both articles are marked 40% above their respective cost prices.

What is the discount allowed on Article A?

  1. ((a))

    ₹225

  2. ((b))

    ₹300

  3. ((c))

    ₹325

  4. ((d))

    ₹350

  5. ((e))

    ₹375

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹225

155

Following question contains two equations as I and II. You have to solve both equations and determine the relationship between them and give an answer as,

I.9x² + 45x + 56 = 0

II. y² + 213\frac13y + 113\frac13 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x < y  

  2. ((b))

    x >  y 

  3. ((c))

    x ≤ y 

  4. ((d))

    x ≥ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or No relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x < y  

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