Official Paper

IBPS Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held on:19 January 2020) (Previous Year Paper)

190 questions · 160 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

General/Financial Awareness (50 questions)

1

Whose birthday is celebrated as "The National Youth Day" on 12th January every year?

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Swami Vivekananda

  3. ((c))

    Sri Aurobindo

  4. ((d))

    Jiddu Krishnamurti

  5. ((e))

    Chanakya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahatma Gandhi

2

Who among the following took oath as the 11th Chief Minister(Dec 2019) of Jharkhand?

  1. ((a))

    Hemant Soren

  2. ((b))

    Raghubar Das

  3. ((c))

    Babulal Marandi

  4. ((d))

    Madhu Koda

  5. ((e))

    Dushyant Chautala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hemant Soren

3

According to Swachh Survekshan 2018 survey, which is the cleanest city in India?

  1. ((a))

    Indore

  2. ((b))

    Chandigarh

  3. ((c))

    Mysore

  4. ((d))

    Surat

  5. ((e))

    Vishakhapatnam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indore

4

Seema has been banned for 4-years by National Anti-Doping Agency, which is a national organization responsible for monitoring the doping control program in sports (Dec 2019). Seema is related to which sport?

  1. ((a))

    Weightlifting

  2. ((b))

    Shooting

  3. ((c))

    Tennis

  4. ((d))

    Gymnastics

  5. ((e))

    Athletics

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Weightlifting

5

Where is the Headquarter of International atomic energy Agency (IAEA)?

  1. ((a))

    London 

  2. ((b))

    Vienna

  3. ((c))

    Vietnam

  4. ((d))

    Washington D.C

  5. ((e))

    Rome

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

London 

6

With respect to Debit Cards, in MDR , M stands for ________.

  1. ((a))

    Minimum

  2. ((b))

    Maximum

  3. ((c))

    Merchant

  4. ((d))

    Micro

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Minimum

7

What is the maximum loan amount given under "Kishore Scheme" of PM Mudra yojana?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 50,000/-

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5 lakhs

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1 lakh

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 10 lakhs

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 25,000/-

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 50,000/-

8

In January 2020, RBI has launched a mobile app, MANI, to help visually challenged people to identify denomination of currency notes. What does 'M' stand for in MANI?

  1. ((a))

    Money

  2. ((b))

    Mobile

  3. ((c))

    Monetary

  4. ((d))

    Machine

  5. ((e))

    Merger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Money

9

Headquarters of NDB (New Development Bank) is in ________.

  1. ((a))

    Shanghai

  2. ((b))

    Tokyo

  3. ((c))

    Beijing

  4. ((d))

    Hong Kong

  5. ((e))

    Guangzhou

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shanghai

10

Where is the headquarters of “Society for worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication - SWIFT” situated?

  1. ((a))

    New York

  2. ((b))

    Los Angels

  3. ((c))

    Brussels

  4. ((d))

    Hague

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New York

11

Where among the following was the 30th edition of Konark Festival, which was a five-day-long festival which showcased art, culture and tradition of that state? (Dec 2019)

  1. ((a))

    West Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Chattisgarh

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

  5. ((e))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

West Bengal

12

Who among the following has won 2019 Nobel Prize in Literature?

  1. ((a))

    Olga Tokarczuk

  2. ((b))

    Jim Peebles

  3. ((c))

    Peter Handke

  4. ((d))

    Michel Mayor

  5. ((e))

    Didier Queloz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Olga Tokarczuk

13

Which state has the famous Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP)?

  1. ((a))

    Sikkim

  2. ((b))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Uttarakhand

  5. ((e))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sikkim

14

Which Australian cricketer announced his retirement recently(Dec 2019)?

  1. ((a))

    Mitchell Johnson

  2. ((b))

    Peter Siddle

  3. ((c))

    Tyson Chandler

  4. ((d))

    Simon Katich

  5. ((e))

    Andrew McDonald

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mitchell Johnson

15

Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated the "Young scientists Laboratories" to the Nation. The "Young Scientists Laboratories" was developed by ________.

  1. ((a))

    ISRO

  2. ((b))

    IISC

  3. ((c))

    DRDO

  4. ((d))

    NAL

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ISRO

16

When was the "World Pulse Day" celebrated for the very first time?

  1. ((a))

    7  March

  2. ((b))

    11 April

  3. ((c))

    9 February

  4. ((d))

    10 February

  5. ((e))

    11 March

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7  March

17

In which state is the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant located?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Telangana

  5. ((e))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

18

What is the theme of the 28th edition of annual New Delhi World Book Fair at Pragati Maidan in New Delhi?

  1. ((a))

    Gandhi: The Writers' Writer

  2. ((b))

    Books for Readers with Special Needs

  3. ((c))

    uryodaya: Emerging voices from North East India

  4. ((d))

    Vivid Bharat - Diverse India

  5. ((e))

    Kathasagara: Celebrating Children's Literature

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gandhi: The Writers' Writer

19

Where will ISRO establish a second launch port exclusively to launch small satellite launch vehicles?

  1. ((a))

    Nagapattinam

  2. ((b))

    Thoothukudi

  3. ((c))

    Salem

  4. ((d))

    Madurai

  5. ((e))

    Coimbatore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nagapattinam

20

By which year, India aims to increase the share of non-fossil fuels to 175 GigaWatt?

  1. ((a))

    2021

  2. ((b))

    2022

  3. ((c))

    2023

  4. ((d))

    2024

  5. ((e))

    2025

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2021

21

Recently Punjab National Bank has merged with which if the following banks?

  1. ((a))

    ICICI Bank

  2. ((b))

    United Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Bank

  4. ((d))

    Corporation bank

  5. ((e))

    Allahabad Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ICICI Bank

22

Who has become the 2019 Women's World Rapid Champion?

  1. ((a))

    Harika Dronavalli

  2. ((b))

    Tania Sachdev

  3. ((c))

    Koneru Humpy

  4. ((d))

    Subbaraman Vijayalakshmi

  5. ((e))

    Eesha Karavade

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Harika Dronavalli

23

Which Indian city on September 1, 2017 was formally accorded the status of India's first World Heritage City by UNESCO?

  1. ((a))

    Surat

  2. ((b))

    Ahmedabad

  3. ((c))

    Agra

  4. ((d))

    Jaipur

  5. ((e))

    Ajmer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Surat

24

The RBI has allowed co-operative banks to issue prepaid payment instruments PPIs like mobile wallets. The limit to the transactions is Rs. ________.

  1. ((a))

    10000

  2. ((b))

    15000

  3. ((c))

    12000

  4. ((d))

    16000

  5. ((e))

    18000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10000

25

RBI has changed the timings of NEFT and RTGS, Now in how many batches transaction through NEFT can be done?

  1. ((a))

    48

  2. ((b))

    34

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    24

  5. ((e))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

48

26

Where will the IAF Pilots receive training for the 'Gaganyaan' project?

  1. ((a))

    USA

  2. ((b))

    Japan

  3. ((c))

    England

  4. ((d))

    France

  5. ((e))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

USA

27

The RBI notified that the timeline for the conversion of minimum KYC for prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) to full KYC compliant PPIs, the time has been extended from 18 months to ________.

  1. ((a))

    36 months

  2. ((b))

    24 months

  3. ((c))

    20 months

  4. ((d))

    22 months

  5. ((e))

    30 months

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36 months

28

Which of the following is gearing up to host the 107th Indian Science Congress in January 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Shimoga

  2. ((b))

    Imphal

  3. ((c))

    Raipur

  4. ((d))

    Bengaluru

  5. ((e))

    Jabalpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shimoga

29

With which country will India be conducting joint Tri services Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise named ‘TIGER TRIUMPH’?

  1. ((a))

    Russia

  2. ((b))

    Japan

  3. ((c))

    USA

  4. ((d))

    China

  5. ((e))

    Maldives

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Russia

30

Where did the 11th BRICS Summit is going to be held?

  1. ((a))

    South Africa

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    Brazil

  4. ((d))

    China

  5. ((e))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South Africa

31

Recently Reserve Bank of India stated the minimum capital requirement for  UCB(Urban Cooperative Bank) to convert into Small Finance Bank?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 500 Crore

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 100 Crore

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 250 Crore

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 200 Crore

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 300 Crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 500 Crore

32

Recently, Vidya Sinha passed away. She was a/an ________.

  1. ((a))

    Actress

  2. ((b))

    Politician

  3. ((c))

    Singer

  4. ((d))

    Doctor

  5. ((e))

    Judge

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Actress

33

Atal Tunnel is the new name given to Rohtang passageway in Himachal Pradesh by PM Modi in December 2019. The tunnel is 9.02Km long and reduces the distance between Leh and ________ by 46Km.

  1. ((a))

    Shimla

  2. ((b))

    Manali

  3. ((c))

    Sri Nagar

  4. ((d))

    Ladakh

  5. ((e))

    Dehradun

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shimla

34

To beat the current cash crunch in the country, which bank has allowed its debit cardholders to withdraw money from its Point of Sale terminals without any charges?

  1. ((a))

    ICICI Bank

  2. ((b))

    State Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    Bank of Baroda

  4. ((d))

    Axis Bank

  5. ((e))

    Punjab National Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ICICI Bank

35

Which bank in partnership with First Hive , a cross channel marketing platform has launched SME empowered Market place?

  1. ((a))

    IDBI Bank

  2. ((b))

    SBI

  3. ((c))

    HDFC

  4. ((d))

    PNB

  5. ((e))

    ICICI Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IDBI Bank

36

The RBI has appointed which bank as the Interim Head for the Newly Formed Union Teritorry Ladakh.

  1. ((a))

    SBI

  2. ((b))

    RBI

  3. ((c))

    PNB

  4. ((d))

    Bank Of Baroda

  5. ((e))

    Jammu & Kashmir Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SBI

37

The 'Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision 2019 - 2021' expects the number of digital transactions to increase more than 4 times to ________crore in December 2021.

  1. ((a))

    2000

  2. ((b))

    7,707

  3. ((c))

    8,707

  4. ((d))

    5,707

  5. ((e))

    6,707

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2000

38

Urban cooperative bodies target for priority-sector lending has been proposed at 75 per cent of their credit from 40 per cent now. The target has to be reached in phases — 50 per cent by March 2021, 60 per cent by March 2022, and 75 per cent by ________.

  1. ((a))

    2025

  2. ((b))

    2023

  3. ((c))

    2024

  4. ((d))

    2026

  5. ((e))

    2027

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2025

39

Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) for MSEs' technology up-gradation for a capital subsidy of 15% is available upto Rs ________ crore.

  1. ((a))

    1.1

  2. ((b))

    1.3

  3. ((c))

    1.5

  4. ((d))

    1 

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.1

40

PM KISAN Yojana provides income support of Rs 6000, which is released in ________ instalments.

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

41

________ has granted free access to 450 patents to the Indian industry for technologies developed by it.

  1. ((a))

    IISC

  2. ((b))

    BHEL

  3. ((c))

    BEL

  4. ((d))

    NAL

  5. ((e))

    DRDO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IISC

42

Which cricketer holds the records for having a batting average of 99.84 in test cricket?

  1. ((a))

    Shubham Gill

  2. ((b))

    Rohit Sharma

  3. ((c))

    Yuvraj Singh

  4. ((d))

    Virat Kohli

  5. ((e))

    Hardik Pandya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shubham Gill

43

Which bank, in association with Universal Sompo General Insurance Co Ltd., has launched upgraded health care plus insurance policy in October 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Bank of Baroda

  2. ((b))

    ​Indian Overseas Bank

  3. ((c))

    HDFC Bank

  4. ((d))

    Punjab National Bank

  5. ((e))

    Central Bank of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bank of Baroda

44

With which bank has the Investor Education & Protection Fund Authority signed an MoU to spread customer awareness and investor education and reaching out to investors and stakeholders?

  1. ((a))

    Bank of India

  2. ((b))

    Punjab National Bank

  3. ((c))

    Bank of Baroda

  4. ((d))

    Union Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    Yes Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bank of India

45

Recently, the Union Minister of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Steel ________ inaugurated the India Pavilion at the Abu Dhabi International Petroleum Exhibition and Conference (ADIPEC).

  1. ((a))

    Prakash Javadekar

  2. ((b))

    Dharmendra Pradhan

  3. ((c))

    Ravi Shankar Prasad

  4. ((d))

    Piyush Goyal

  5. ((e))

    Suresh Prabhu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prakash Javadekar

46

Currently BHIM App is available in how many languages?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    15

  5. ((e))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

47

What is the maximum loan limit applicable to Individual woman beneficiaries per borrower under priority sector lendings?

  1. ((a))

    Rs 5 lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs 2 lakh

  3. ((c))

    Rs 3 lakh

  4. ((d))

    Rs 1 lakh

  5. ((e))

    Rs 50,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs 5 lakh

48

The RBI has recently proposed a minimum equity capital of Rs 200 crore to set up a small finance bank under which License regime to expand the banking services.

  1. ((a))

    On tap

  2. ((b))

    In Tap

  3. ((c))

    For tap

  4. ((d))

    Of tap

  5. ((e))

    From tap

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

On tap

49

What is the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit permitted by government in Banking-public Sector?

  1. ((a))

    100%

  2. ((b))

    74%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    49%

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100%

50

According to RBI, what is the maximum permissible limit for the recurring transactions (merchant payments)?

  1. ((a))

    2000

  2. ((b))

    4000

  3. ((c))

    10000

  4. ((d))

    1000

  5. ((e))

    7100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2000

General English (40 questions)

51

Each of the following questions has three sentences with one blank each. Choose the option that best fits in all the blanks.

1. There were so many spelling mistakes in the first _______, the whole letter had to be written. 2. If there’s a space under your front door, there will be a _______ in the house and it might get cold. 3. This text is a  ________, subject to constant alteration by erasure, re-writing, interlineation and by the addition of material in the margins.

  1. ((a))

    Person

  2. ((b))

    Copy

  3. ((c))

    Draft

  4. ((d))

    Manifesto

  5. ((e))

    Version

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Person

52

Each of the following questions has three sentences with one blank each. Choose the option that best fits in all the blanks.

1. In her _______ time, Dot enjoyed needlework, listening to operas, and spending time with her friends and family. 2. There was no way the men would _______ her after what she has seen.  3. The interior is ________, almost minimalist.

  1. ((a))

    Change

  2. ((b))

    Supplementary 

  3. ((c))

    Spare

  4. ((d))

    Alternative

  5. ((e))

    Reserve

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Change

53

Each of the following questions has three sentences with one blank each. Choose the option that best fits in all the blanks.

1. One encouraging ______ is that more people are using the railway network. 2. The savage civil war there could be a ______ of what's to come in the rest of the region.

3. To have an owl calling about your house was usually read as an ominous _______ for those inside.

  1. ((a))

    Fervent

  2. ((b))

    Portent

  3. ((c))

    Fervor

  4. ((d))

    Deterrent

  5. ((e))

    Intent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fervent

54

Each of the following questions has three sentences with one blank each. Choose the option that best fits in all the blanks.

1. Because the coach continued to ______ his team with abusive talk, he was given a warning by the college dean. 2.  Every week the minister would ascend the pulpit and ______ the parishioners for a litany of vices. 3. While the buyers are apt to _______ the workmen, in too many cases they are the culprits.

  1. ((a))

    Calibrate

  2. ((b))

    Vituperate

  3. ((c))

    Premeditate

  4. ((d))

    Umbrage

  5. ((e))

    Turpitude

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Calibrate

DIRECTIONS: ​In the passage given below there are 6 words given in bold which have been jumbled. Find the correct word for each place, and mark it as your answer. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e No change required.

After weeks of contemplation (A), the White House is expected to renege on America’s commitment to the Paris climate agreement, the Associated Press reported Wednesday.

It’s been less than a year since the U.S. formally endorsed the Paris accord, which has been triumphed (B) by 146 other nations since it was agreed upon in December 2015. The agreement calls on countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions in a federation (C) to keep global warming below 2 degrees Celsius.

Though the globe appears off-track to hit this target, many scientists view the deal as an essential step in preventing global catastrophe wrought by drought, devastating storms, coastal erosion and the decrepit (D) of aquatic ecosystems like coral reefs due to warming and ocean acidification. The Paris accord also establishes an international bargaining table for the energy industry, given the infirm (E) ties between fossil fuel power plants and greenhouse gas emissions.

Certainly, we’ve seen a lot of shift out of coal and into natural gas because natural gas is now kind of better, cheaper, greener, so you know that momentum is going to carry on. Now that does not mean that we can be simply comfortable about pulling out of the agreement, because the agreement provides a continual nudge to gripe (F) up those ambitions further.

55

Which of the following fits in place of the word labelled (A)?

  1. ((a))

    Speculation

  2. ((b))

    Debasement

  3. ((c))

    Laud

  4. ((d))

    Disparage

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speculation

56

Which of the following fits in place of the word labelled (B)?

  1. ((a))

    Ratified

  2. ((b))

    Apprehended

  3. ((c))

    Ventured

  4. ((d))

    Vacillated

  5. ((e))

    No improved

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ratified

57

Which of the following fits in place of the word labelled (C)?

  1. ((a))

    Boon

  2. ((b))

    Trial

  3. ((c))

    Catastrophe

  4. ((d))

    Juncture

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Boon

58

Which of the following fits in place of the word labelled (D)?

  1. ((a))

    Recoil

  2. ((b))

    Decimation

  3. ((c))

    Predicament

  4. ((d))

    Stagnation

  5. ((e))

    No improvement 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Recoil

59

Which of the following fits in place of the word labelled (E)?

  1. ((a))

    Strait

  2. ((b))

    Occasional

  3. ((c))

    Stipulated

  4. ((d))

    Intimate

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Strait

60

Which of the following fits in place of the word labelled (F)?

  1. ((a))

    Prospect

  2. ((b))

    Suffice

  3. ((c))

    Amp

  4. ((d))

    Surmount

  5. ((e))

    No improvement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prospect

Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention.

The educational reformers of the late eighteenth and nineteenth centuries dealt with two distinct aspects of children’s problems. One concerned the claims of childhood as a specific and independent stage in human growth. This perennial problem arises from the efforts of adults to subject growing children to ends foreign to their own needs and to press them into moulds shaped, not by the requirements of the maturing personality, but by the external interests of the ruling order. Rousseau had protested against this when he wrote: ‘’Nature wants children to be children before they are men. Childhood has ways of seeing, thinking, and feeling peculiar to itself, nothing can be more foolish than to substitute our ways for them.” The other involved efforts to reshape the obsolete system of schooling to make it fit the revolutionary changes in social life. These two problems were closely connected. The play school, for example, was devised not only to care for the specific needs of very young children but also to meet new needs which had grown out of the transformations in the family affected by industrial and urban conditions; it was no longer a unit of production as in feudal and colonial times but became more and more simply a center of consumption. Dewey’s theories blended attention to the child as an individual with rights and claims of his own with a recognition of the gulf between an outdated and class-distorted educational setup inherited from the past and urgent requirements of the new era. The educational system had to be thoroughly overhauled, he said, because of the deep-going changes in American civilization. Under colonial, agrarian, small-town life, the child took part in household, community and productive activities, which spontaneously fostered capacities for self-direction, discipline, leadership and independent judgment. Such worthwhile qualities were discouraged and stunted by the new industrialized, urbanized, atomized conditions, which had disintegrated the family and weakened the influence of religion. In the city the training of children became one-sided and distorted because intellectual activities were dissociated from practical everyday occupations. Dewey wrote: ‘while the child of bygone was getting an intellectual discipline whose significance he appreciated in the school, in his home life he was securing acquaintance in a direct fashion with the chief lines of social and industrial activity. Life was in the main rural. The child came into contact with the scenes of nature, and was familiarized with the care of domestic animals, the cultivation of the soil, and the raising of crops. The factory system being undeveloped, the house was the center of industry. Spinning, weaving, the making of clothes etc were all carried on there.”

61

What were the two problems faced by the children according to the educational reformers?

  1. ((a))

    The super imposing nature of the adults on the children to make them more competent and the increasing stress of learning books in the reforming education system.

  2. ((b))

    The changing patterns of the education which pressurized the children and the ever increasing industrialization.

  3. ((c))

    The continuing efforts of the adults to mould the children according to their own needs and the changes introduced in the education system.

  4. ((d))

    The ever increasing industrialization and its practices which had an impact on the children and the increasing agricultural activities at the same time which contradicted the teachings at school.

  5. ((e))

    The lack of agricultural knowledge imparted in school and the students getting captivated, away from the touch of nature.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The super imposing nature of the adults on the children to make them more competent and the increasing stress of learning books in the reforming education system.

62

What impact was there on the children due to the adult interference in their mindset?

  1. ((a))

    The children were shaped according to the adults’ wishes which deteriorated the society.

  2. ((b))

    The children lacked going through the independent stage of childhood where they use their own imaginations and creations and learn while growing up.

  3. ((c))

    The children were stressed and that hampered their quality of education.

  4. ((d))

    The children were away from the normal process of learning through experience and were only exposed to books.

  5. ((e))

    The children lacked proper education and it was unfair of the adults to interfere in the activities of the children.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The children were shaped according to the adults’ wishes which deteriorated the society.

63

What do you mean by the word ‘obsolete’ in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Ineffective

  2. ((b))

    That which has remained same for a very long time

  3. ((c))

    Obstinate

  4. ((d))

    Abstruse

  5. ((e))

    Expensive and partial

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ineffective

64

What changes were brought about by the urbanized and atomized society?

  1. ((a))

    The education system was reformed which produced more self sufficient individuals.

  2. ((b))

    It had broken up families into smaller units and religion could least affect the lives of the people.

  3. ((c))

    It had taken agriculture behind all other activities.

  4. ((d))

    Each house became the center of industry as spinning, weaving, the making of clothes etc were all carried on here.

  5. ((e))

    The training of children became complete which brought about the reformations in the society.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The education system was reformed which produced more self sufficient individuals.

65

What is the main idea of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The reformed society is a total failure and the lifestyle followed by the earlier times helped in creating more intellectually disciplined individuals.

  2. ((b))

    The problem in the education system of the children is due to the difference between the ideal requirement and the pragmatic requirement of the society.

  3. ((c))

    Urbanization is the basic factor of the deterioration of the society causing fragmentations in families and creating incomplete individuals.

  4. ((d))

    The reformation in the education system was a failure and it became partial and expensive.

  5. ((e))

    The comparison of the former time education and the present day education.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The reformed society is a total failure and the lifestyle followed by the earlier times helped in creating more intellectually disciplined individuals.

DIRECTIONS: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

The contest between China and America, the world’s two superpowers, has many dimensions, from skirmishes over steel quotas to squabbles over student visas. One of the most alarming and least understood is the race towards artificial-intelligence-enabled warfare. Both countries are investing large sums in militarised artificial intelligence (ai), from autonomous robots to software that gives generals rapid tactical advice in the heat of battle. AI-enabled weapons may offer superhuman speed and precision. But they also have the ______ to upset the balance of power. In order to gain a military advantage, the temptation for armies will be to allow them not only to recommend decisions but also to give orders. That could have worrying consequences. Able to think faster than humans, an ai-enabled command system might cue up missile strikes on aircraft carriers and airbases at a pace that leaves no time for diplomacy and in ways that are not fully understood by its operators. On top of that, ai systems can be hacked, and tricked with manipulated data.

During the 20th century, the world eventually found a way to manage a pattern shift in military technology, the emergence of the nuclear bomb. A global disaster was avoided through a combination of three approaches: deterrence, arms control and safety measures. Many are looking to this template for ai. Unfortunately, it is only of limited use—and not just because the technology is new. Discouragement rested on the consensus that if nuclear bombs were used, they would pose catastrophic risks to both sides. But the threat posed by ai is less lurid and less clear. It might aid surprise attacks or confound them, and the death toll could range from none to millions. Likewise, cold-war arms-control rested on transparency, the ability to know with some confidence what the other side was up to. Unlike missile silos, the software cannot be spied on from satellites. And whereas warheads can be inspected by enemies without reducing their potency, showing the outside world an algorithm could compromise its effectiveness. The incentive may be for both sides to mislead the other. 

That leaves the last control—safety. Nuclear arsenals involve complex systems in which the risk of accidents is high. Protocols have been developed to ensure weapons cannot be used without authorization, such as fail-safe mechanisms that mean bombs do not detonate if they are dropped prematurely. More thinking is required on how analogous measures might apply to AI systems, particularly those entrusted with orchestrating military forces across a chaotic and foggy battlefield.

66

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

But they also have the ______ to upset the balance of power.

  1. ((a))

    Energy

  2. ((b))

    Potential

  3. ((c))

    Mystique

  4. ((d))

    Contempt

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Energy

67

Which of the following words can replace the emboldened word in the given sentence?

Discouragement rested on the consensus that if nuclear bombs were used, they would pose catastrophic risks to both sides.

  1. ((a))

    Despondency

  2. ((b))

    Restraint

  3. ((c))

    Deterrence

  4. ((d))

    Pessimism

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Despondency

68

Which of the following words can replace the emboldened word in the given sentence?

During the 20th century, the world eventually found a way to manage a pattern shift in military technology, the emergence of the nuclear bomb.

  1. ((a))

    Calibre

  2. ((b))

    Proficiency

  3. ((c))

    Notional

  4. ((d))

    Paradigm

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Calibre

69

Which of these is the best possible explanation of the given sentence?

Able to think faster than humans, an AI-enabled command system might cue up missile strikes on aircraft carriers and airbases at a pace that leaves no time for diplomacy and in ways that are not fully understood by its operators.

  1. ((a))

    AI can deploy unpredictable missile attacks and cause destruction.

  2. ((b))

    AI offers no time lag for the interpretation even by its operators.

  3. ((c))

    AI offers conspirational and automatic missile strikes.

  4. ((d))

    AI can think swiftly and securely.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AI can deploy unpredictable missile attacks and cause destruction.

70

Which of these is the best possible explanation of the given sentence?

Nuclear arsenals involve complex systems in which the risk of accidents is high.

  1. ((a))

    The complex system poses a threat on the nations.

  2. ((b))

    Nuclear weapons can increase the rate of destruction.

  3. ((c))

    The complex systems are erroneous.

  4. ((d))

    Nuclear arsenals require sophisticated handling.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The complex system poses a threat on the nations.

Coffee was first discovered in Eastern Africa in an area we know today as Ethiopia. A popular legend refers to a goat herder by the name of Kaldi, who observed his goats acting unusually friskily after eating berries from a bush. Curious about this phenomenon, Kaldi tried eating the berries himself. He found that these berries gave him _______ energy. The news of this energy loaded fruit quickly moved throughout the region. Coffee berries were transported from Ethiopia to the Arabian Peninsula and were first cultivated in what today is the country of Yemen. Coffee remained a secret in Arabia before spreading to Turkey and then to the European continent by means of Venetian trade merchants.

Coffee was first eaten as food though later people in Arabia would make a drink out of boiling the beans for its narcotic effects and medicinal value. Coffee for a time was known as Arabian wine to Muslims who were banned from alcohol by Islam. It was not until after coffee had been eaten as a food product, a wine, and a medicine that it was discovered, probably by complete accident in Turkey, that by roasting the beans a delicious drink could be made. The roasted beans were first crushed and then boiled in water, creating an unrefined version of the beverage we enjoy today. The first coffee houses were opened in Europe in the 17th Century and in 1675, the Viennese established the habit of refining the brew by filtering out the grounds, sweetening it, and adding a dash of milk. If you were to explore the planet for coffee, you would find about 60 species of coffee plants growing wild in Africa, Malaysia, and other regions. But only about ten of them are actually cultivated. Of these ten, two species are responsible for almost all the coffee produced in the world: Coffea Arabica and Coffea Canephora (usually known as Robusta). Because of ecological differences existing among the various coffee-producing countries, both types have undergone many mutations and now exist in many sub-species.

Coffee plants need special conditions to give a satisfactory crop. The climate needs to be hot-wet or hot temperate, between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, with frequent rains and temperatures varying from 15 to 25 Degrees C. The soil should be deep, hard, permeable, well irrigated, with well-drained subsoil. The best lands are the hilly ones or from just-tilled woods. The perfect altitude is between 600 and 1200 metres, though some varieties thrive at 2000-2200 metres. Cultivation aimed at protecting the plants at every stage of growth is needed. Sowing should be in sheltered nurseries from which, after about six months, the seedlings should be moved to plantations in the rainy season where they are usually alternated with other plants to shield them from wind and excessive sunlight.

71

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

He found that these berries gave him _______ energy.

  1. ((a))

    scrutinising

  2. ((b))

    sustainable

  3. ((c))

    renewed

  4. ((d))

    overhauled

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

scrutinising

72

Which of the following words can replace the emboldened word in the given sentence?

The news of this energy loaded fruit quickly moved throughout the region.

  1. ((a))

    impeded

  2. ((b))

    laden

  3. ((c))

    burdened

  4. ((d))

    bridled

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

impeded

73

Which of the following words is the synonym of the emboldened word in the given sentence?

The roasted beans were first crushed and then boiled in water, creating an unrefined version of the beverage we enjoy today.

  1. ((a))

    crude

  2. ((b))

    primitive

  3. ((c))

    improvised

  4. ((d))

    unpurified

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

crude

74

Which of these is the best possible explanation of the given sentence?

Because of ecological differences existing among the various coffee-producing countries, both types have undergone many mutations and now exist in many sub-species.

  1. ((a))

    Due to difference in terms of ecology, coffee exists in sub-species.

  2. ((b))

    Coffee undergoes many mutations due to weather.

  3. ((c))

    Two species are responsible for almost all the coffee produced in the world.

  4. ((d))

    Due to ecological differences, many countries produce coffee.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Due to difference in terms of ecology, coffee exists in sub-species.

75

Which of these is the best possible explanation of the given sentence?

Coffee plants need special conditions to give a satisfactory crop.

  1. ((a))

    Coffee plants cannot produce good crops under some restricted conditions.

  2. ((b))

    Plants of coffee require specific conditions to give the best crop.

  3. ((c))

    Temperature should be high for coffee plants to give a better crop.

  4. ((d))

    Frequent rains are required for coffee plants to produce the best crop.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Coffee plants cannot produce good crops under some restricted conditions.

76

In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which possibly need be rearranged. Choose their correct arrangement to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

Many college students, particularly those who (A)integrate a decline in status from their high-school days, fall (B)withdrawal to the first-year adjustment reaction--feelings of depression, anxiety, and (C)victim that typically pass quickly as the students (D)experience themselves into their new (E)surroundings.

  1. ((a))

    BADCE

  2. ((b))

    DCBAE

  3. ((c))

    BDCEA

  4. ((d))

    EACBD

  5. ((e))

    ABDCE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BADCE

77

In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which possibly need be rearranged. Choose their correct arrangement to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

The main aim of the (A)unsuccessful 1953 raid on the Moncada Barracks, in Santiago de Cuba, by 160 rebels led by Castro had been to (B)secure weapons for an (C)dictatorship against the (D)insurrection of Fulgencio Batista, who had come to power in a (E)coup the previous year.

  1. ((a))

    BAEDC

  2. ((b))

    ABDCE

  3. ((c))

    DCBAE

  4. ((d))

    DACBE

  5. ((e))

    DBCAE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BAEDC

78

In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which possibly need be rearranged. Choose their correct arrangement to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

“We know that the finest (A)implicated from dirty air can reach the brain via both the bloodstream and the nose, and that air pollution has been (B)particulates in increased [brain] (C)inflammation, damage to nerve cells and to changes in stress hormone (D)production, which have been (E)linked to poor mental health,” Braithwaite said.

  1. ((a))

    DBCEA

  2. ((b))

    ACBED

  3. ((c))

    AECDB

  4. ((d))

    CBADE

  5. ((e))

    BACDE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DBCEA

79

In the given question, a sentence is divided into five parts out of which the last part is correct. Out of the remaining four, there are errors in three parts. Choose the part which doesn't have an error. If all the parts are correct, mark 5 i.e. All are correct as the answer.

(A)The feeling and experienced (B) of subordination (C) destroy self-respects, self-esteem and self-confidence (D) and set limited (E) on our aspirations.

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

80

In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts out of which the last part is correct. Out of the remaining four, three parts have errors. Choose the part which doesn’t have an error. If all the four parts are correct, mark E i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

The cyclone have devastated the coastal cities (A)/ and is being citing as (B)/ yet another example of nature’s fury (C)/ if climate changing and global warming continue (D)/ due to human activities. (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

81

In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts out of which the last part is correct. Out of the remaining four, three parts have errors. Choose the part which doesn’t have an error. If all the four parts are correct, mark E i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

Although this is not a commercial areas (A)/ many houses has converted (B)/ their ground floors into shops and (C)/ places of businesses thereby (D)/ giving it the appearance of a market. (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

82

In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts out of which the last part is correct. Out of the remaining four, three parts have errors. Choose the part which doesn’t have an error. If all the four parts are correct, mark E i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

Ones must defend their ideas (A)/ and thoughts, if they think (B)/ they are right but ones must (C)/ never become overbear to convince (D)/ others to adopt their perceptions. (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

83

In the given question, a sentence is divided into four parts out of which the last part is correct. Out of the remaining four, three parts have errors. Choose the part which doesn’t have an error. If all the four parts are correct, mark E i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

It is important to not let (A)/ one bad incident dictating (B)/ the directions your life might take(C)/, therefore, one must striving (D) to overcome hurdles with determination. (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The following sentences form a paragraph. The sentences are numbered as P, Q, R, S, and T. These sentences are not given in their proper order. Also, there is an emboldened part in sentences P, Q, R and S marked as 1,2,3, and 4. These emboldened parts can be interchanged among themselves. First, interchange these emboldened parts if required then read all the sentences carefully and choose the alternative that arranges them in the correct order.

P- In today’s current society self-worth and success is linked with being extremely thin (1). 

Q- In the past 3 years the number of children and beautiful models and actresses which teenagers idolise,  (2)

R- what a lot of teenagers don’t realize is that the images they see on things like social media and in magazines have been edited so even the women themselves don’t look that perfect (3).

S- Sociocultural causes of anorexia come from modern western culture, the Western culture often portrays an unrealistic image of extremely thin and teenagers who are receiving help for an eating disorder has risen by 110%, (4)

T- more than 10,500 calls and online inquire have been made to ChildLine by minors struggling with weight-related anxiety.

84

Choose the correct option having the correct interchanging pair of emboldened parts -

  1. ((a))

    Only 2-3

  2. ((b))

    Only 2-4

  3. ((c))

    Only 1-3

  4. ((d))

    Only 1-4

  5. ((e))

    Both 2-4 & 1-3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 2-3

85

Which is the First sentence after rearrangement ?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

86

Which is the Second sentence after rearrangement ?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

87

Which is the Third sentence after rearrangement ?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

88

Which is the Fourth sentence after rearrangement ?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

89

Select the phrase/ connector from the given three alternatives, which can be used to form a single coherent sentence from the sentences given below, implying the same meaning.

I broke my arm during the game. I managed to score a goal.

I. Even though I broke my arm during the game

II. My broken arm during the game

Ill. Having managed to break my arm during the game

  1. ((a))

    Only II

  2. ((b))

    I and III

  3. ((c))

    Only I

  4. ((d))

    II and III

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only II

90

Select the phrase/ connector from the given three alternatives, which can be used to form a single coherent sentence from the sentences given below, implying the same meaning.

The guitar was broken. We sang without any instruments.

I. The guitar being broken 

II. Because the guitar was broken

Ill. Having to sing without any instruments

  1. ((a))

    I and III

  2. ((b))

    Only II

  3. ((c))

    I and II

  4. ((d))

    Only I

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I and III

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude (50 questions)

91

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are six-persons A, B, C, D, E, and F with different weights. A is lighter than only one person. C is heavier than F but lighter than D. E is heavier than D. Person F is not the lightest one. The person who is the third lightest weighs 67 kgs. What is the weight of B?

  1. ((a))

    88

  2. ((b))

    71

  3. ((c))

    57

  4. ((d))

    67

  5. ((e))

    69

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

88

92

In the question below are given two statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few Crimes are Murder

Some Deaths are not Crime

Conclusions:

I. Some Crimes are not Death

II. Some Crimes are not Murder

III. Some Murder being Death is a possibility

  1. ((a))

    Both I and III follows

  2. ((b))

    All follows

  3. ((c))

    Only II follows

  4. ((d))

    Only II and III follows

  5. ((e))

    Only I follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both I and III follows

93

In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

I. Only a few leaves are holidays

II. Few trips are funny

III. No funny is holiday

Conclusions:

I. Some leaves are not holiday

II. Some trips are not holiday

III. Some trips are holiday

  1. ((a))

    Either conclusion II or III follows

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion I follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor III follows

  5. ((e))

    All follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Either conclusion II or III follows

94

In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

I. Some preparation are not good

II. Only a few good are wise

III. No wise is preparation

Conclusions:

I. Many preparation are wise

II. Some good are not wise

III. Some wise are good

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion III follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion I follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusion I and II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusion II and III follows 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows

95

In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

I. Few holders are share

II. Only a few accounts are bank

III. No bank is share

Conclusions:

I. All share can be holders

II. Some bank is not share

III. Some accounts are not bank is a possibility

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion III follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I and II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusion I and III follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II follows

  5. ((e))

    Only conclusion I follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion III follows

96

Direction: In the question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only Animals are Bird

Only few Insects are Animals

Few Insects are Mammals

Conclusions:

I. Some Animals are Insects

II. No Mammal is Bird

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both conclusions I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

97

How many pairs of digits in the number 839456 have as many numbers between them as in the series of natural numbers both in backward and forward directions?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    More than three

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

Directions: Study the following information and answer the given below questions.

In a certain code language,

‘india have many temples’ is written as ‘5D% 4V@ 4N# 7M&’.

‘temple has tiny plants’ is written as ‘6M& 3S@ 4N& 6A$’.

‘more peoples attends prayers’ is written as ‘4R# 7O7T∗7A 7T* 7A’.

98

Which of the following is the code for ‘marriage’?

  1. ((a))

    8R$

  2. ((b))

    8A$

  3. ((c))

    7A$

  4. ((d))

    8R#

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8R$

99

Which of the following code for “important area”?

  1. ((a))

    9P%, 4A*

  2. ((b))

    8P%. 4E*

  3. ((c))

    4E*, 9P%

  4. ((d))

    9P%, 4E*

  5. ((e))

    8P%, 3E*

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9P%, 4A*

100

In the given code language, code “6L$” is for which of the given word?

  1. ((a))

    Poetic

  2. ((b))

    Poems

  3. ((c))

    People

  4. ((d))

    Public

  5. ((e))

    Police

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Poetic

101

What is the code for “indians are tidy”?

  1. ((a))

    7D%, 3R*, 4D&

  2. ((b))

    7D%, 3E*, 4D$

  3. ((c))

    5D%, 3E*, 4D$

  4. ((d))

    7D%, 3E*, 4D&

  5. ((e))

    3E&, 4D&, 7D%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7D%, 3R*, 4D&

102

In the given code language, code “6N&” is for which of the given word?

  1. ((a))

    tender

  2. ((b))

    temple

  3. ((c))

    tempts

  4. ((d))

    toilet

  5. ((e))

    todays

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

tender

Direction: In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.

Rules:

i) If a number which is divisible by 3 is followed by an odd number then they are to be multiplied.

ii) If a number which is divisible by 3 is followed by an even number then they are to be added.

iii) If a number which is not divisible by 3 is followed by an odd number then smaller number is to be subtracted from larger number.

iv) If a number which is not divisible by 3 is followed by an even number then they are to be added.

103
3112
24610

 

If the resultants of the given sets are added, then which of the following is obtained?

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    88

  4. ((d))

    77

  5. ((e))

    66

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55

104
1232
1861

 

If resultants of the given sets are added, which digit is at the unit place of the number so obtained?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    7

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

105
1212
1061

 

If resultants of the given sets are multiplied, which of the following is obtained?

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    210

  3. ((c))

    219

  4. ((d))

    430

  5. ((e))

    290

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200

106
1062
541

 

If resultants of the given sets are multiplied, then which digit is at the unit place of the number so obtained?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

107
861
1132

 

If the resultants of the given sets are subtracted (larger number – smaller number), then which of the following is obtained?

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

108

Directions: In this question, certain symbols have been used to indicate relationships between elements as follows:

A % B means A is either smaller than or equal to B.

A - B means A is greater than B.

A # B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B.

A $ B means A not smaller than B.

A @ B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.

Statements:

U # F, F $ W, W - K

Conclusions:

I. K $ U

II. K # U

III. W @ U

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II and III follows

  3. ((c))

    Only I and III follows

  4. ((d))

    None follows

  5. ((e))

    All follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and II follows

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols *, #, %, & and $ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘X * Y’ means ‘X is neither less than nor greater than Y’.

‘X # Y’ means ‘X is either greater than or equal to Y’.

‘X % Y’ means ‘X is less than Y’.

‘X & Y’ means ‘X is neither less than nor equal to Y’.

‘X $ Y’ means ‘X is not greater than Y’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely True?

109

Statements: 

A % B, C & D, F * E # C, D % A

Conclusions:

I. D % B

II. E & A

III. F & D

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I is True.

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II is True.

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion III is True.

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusions I and III are True.

  5. ((e))

    Both Conclusions II and III are True.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion I is True.

Directions: In these types of questions the symbols $, *, @, ©, # are used with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘P$Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’

‘P©Q’ means P is greater than Q’

‘P#Q’ means P is equal to Q’

‘P@Q’ means P is either equal to or greater than Q

‘P*Q’ means P is either equal to or less than Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely True?

110

Statements:

B © C # D @ X; E * X; D @ Z

Conclusions:

I. B © E

II. Z @ B

  1. ((a))

    if only Conclusion I is true.

  2. ((b))

    if only Conclusion II is true.

  3. ((c))

    if either Conclusion I or II is true. 

  4. ((d))

    if neither Conclusion I or II is true.

  5. ((e))

    if both conclusion I and II are true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

if only Conclusion I is true.

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols #, @, $, % are used with the following meaning illustrated.

‘M#N’means‘M is neither smaller than nor equal to N’

‘M@N’means‘M is neither greater than nor equal to N’

‘M $ N’ means‘M is not smaller than N’

‘M * N’means‘M is not greater than N’

‘M&N’means‘M is neither greater than nor smaller than N’

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

111

Statement: P # Q, R $ S # Q, R @ T * U

Conclusion:

I. R $ P

II. Q @ U

  1. ((a))

    Both I and II are true

  2. ((b))

    Either I or II is true

  3. ((c))

    Only I is true

  4. ((d))

    Only II is true

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both I and II are true

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols ‘@, #, !, $ and +’ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘A$B’ means ‘A is not smaller thanB’.

‘A+B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal toB’.

‘A!B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.

‘A@B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’.

‘A#B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely follow?

112

Statements: 

P ! U, R + Q, P $ S, T @ R, Q # U

Conclusions:

I. U ! T

II. R # P

III. Q + S

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and III follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    None of the conclusions follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion I follows

113

Directions: The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

What is the rank of K from bottom in a class of 30 students?

I. M is third from the top and there are five students between M and K.

II. The rank of P is fourth from the bottom and there are 17 students between P and K.

  1. ((a))

    Data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

114

Directions: The question below consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

How many children does Mr. Sharma have?

  1. Mr. Sharma has eight sons and each has one sister.
  2. Number of sons of Mr. Sharma is eight times the number of his daughter(s).
  1. ((a))

    The data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

115

Directions: The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

There are seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V sitting in a row. All are facing towards the north direction. Who sits at the immediate right of P?

I. There are two persons sitting between P and V. Either P or V sits at the extreme end. There is only one person between T and R. Q sits third to the right of P.

II. S is the immediate right of T. More than one people sit between P and Q. Only one person sits between S and P. P sits in the middle of the row.

  1. ((a))

    Data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Study the following information carefully and answer the question that follow:

There are eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T sitting around a circular table and all are facing centre. They all are from different cities viz. Mumbai, Chennai, Gorakhpur, Lucknow, Kolkata, Pune, Bangalore and Delhi but not necessarily in the same order.

S, who is from Chennai, is sitting just opposite to the person from Lucknow.

O is neither from Gorakhpur nor from Kolkata.

R is sitting third to the right of N who is from Delhi.

P is sitting to the immediate left of the person from Kolkata.

N is sitting to the immediate left of Q who is from Lucknow.

R is neither from Bangalore nor from Gorakhpur and M is from Mumbai.

M and R are the immediate neighbours.

The person from Bangalore and T are sitting opposite to each other.

116

Who is sitting third to the right of the person from Kolkata?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    The person from Gorakhpur

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    O

  5. ((e))

    The person from Mumbai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

117

Who is the immediate neighbour of N?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    M

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q

118

Who is sitting third to the right of the person from Mumbai?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    P

  5. ((e))

    N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O

119

Who is from Pune?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    N

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T

120

How many person/persons are sitting between T and P in anticlockwise direction from T?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question asked below

7 M 4 $ G U * 5 % @ X 3 # S & 2 9 ∆ I 8 O 1 J © 6 V P ^

Step 1: The letters which are immediately preceded by number are to be arranged in the alphabetical order immediately after the last element of the series.

Step 2: The number which is immediately followed by another number and immediately preceded by the symbol are to be arranged in descending order immediately after the last element of the series.

Step 3: The symbol which is immediately preceded by a letter is to be interchange with the element that immediately followed that symbol.

Note – Step 2 is performed after completion of step 1 and step 3 is to be performed after completion of step 2.

121

What is the sum of the element which is sixth from the left in step 3 and eighth from the right in step 2?

  1. ((a))

    Addition of element is not possible

  2. ((b))

    13

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Addition of element is not possible

122

How many letters are there between the fourth element from the right and twelfth element from the right after completion of all the steps?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

123

Which of the following is seventh to the right of eight from the left in step 2?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    &

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    ∆

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

124

If half of the series get reversed from starting after last step which of the following will be eighth element from the left end?

  1. ((a))

    %

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    @

  4. ((d))
  5. ((e))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

%

125

If all the alphabets are arranged in alphabetical order on the same places where alphabets placed after the last step which of the following element is seventh to the left of seventeenth from the left end?

  1. ((a))

    X

  2. ((b))

    O

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    P

  5. ((e))

    J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

X

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given Questions:

Eleven persons A, C, D, E, F, M, N, P, Q, R and X are standing in a queue to checkout some items but not necessarily in same order. Each of the person bought different items among Pen, Eraser, Pencil, Shoes, Tie, notebook, speaker, bottle, trouser, socks and shampoo.

R is the first persons to stand in the line while C is the last person. There are five persons between C and E, who bought shoes. The number of persons, who bought items after E is equal to number of persons, who bought items before F. There are two persons between C and D. Q bought an item just before P, who bought shampoo. Equal number of persons bought items before and after N, who bought tie. Only one person bought an item just before the person, who bought pen. C bought a speaker. One person bought trouser just before the person, who bought bottle and neither of them is F or D. A bought a pencil. Neither R nor F bought a notebook.

126

Who among the following bought notebook?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q

127

How many persons bought items after F?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    Five

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    One

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three

128

Which of the following pair is definitely correct?

  1. ((a))

    A, Shampoo

  2. ((b))

    Q, Pen

  3. ((c))

    N, bottle

  4. ((d))

    R, socks

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, Shampoo

129

How many persons bought items before M?

  1. ((a))

    Eight

  2. ((b))

    Nine

  3. ((c))

    Six

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Eight

130

If R bought Eraser then who among the following bought Socks?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G. They are members of a three generation family. They were born in the different years 1961, 1966, 1973, 1986, 1995, 1996 and 2002. There age is calculated from their birth year till 2020.

B is the wife of the person who is most senior person in the family. The one born in the year 1966 is the grandmother of C. B has only one child, who is married to E’s daughter. E has only two children. D is the only brother in law of son of E. Age of F is more than G but less than D. The one who is brother in law of D is born in the year which is a leap year. The one who born in the year 1986 has only one child. The one born in 1966 is the mother in law of the one born in 1995. The one who is the only child of F is born in the year which comes in the 21st century. The age of the person who is the father of the one who born in the year which is multiple of 5 is a prime number.

131

Who was born in the year 1986?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F

132

How B related to the only girl child of E?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Daughter

  3. ((c))

    Mother in law

  4. ((d))

    Sister

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother

133

How is C related to B?

  1. ((a))

    Granddaughter

  2. ((b))

    Grandson

  3. ((c))

    Either 1 or 2

  4. ((d))

    Son

  5. ((e))

    Daughter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Granddaughter

134

What is the age of the person who is the father in law of only son of A?

  1. ((a))

    43 years

  2. ((b))

    47 years

  3. ((c))

    54 years

  4. ((d))

     55 years

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

43 years

135

In which year mother of F born?

  1. ((a))

    1961

  2. ((b))

    1966

  3. ((c))

    1973

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be determined

  5. ((e))

    1986

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1961

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given Questions:

In the following questions, the symbols #, %, &, @ are used with the following meaning illustrated.

P @ Q → Point P is in east of point Q.

P * Q → Point P is in west of Point Q.

P # Q → Point P is in south of Point Q.

P & Q → Point P is in north of Point Q.

P @20 → means point P is 20 km in the east of point Q.

Two persons V and U started from point A and point G respectively and finally meet at point W. 

V follows: A *16 B #10 C @8 D #14 E *23 F &16 W

U follows: G #4 H @9 I &6 J @5 K #9 L @10 W

136

In which direction is point F with respect to the point I?

  1. ((a))

    North

  2. ((b))

    South-West

  3. ((c))

    North-East

  4. ((d))

    North-West

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North

137

What is the shortest distance between point B and point W?

  1. ((a))

    16 km

  2. ((b))

    20 km

  3. ((c))

    17 km

  4. ((d))

    18 km

  5. ((e))

    21 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16 km

138

What is the distance between point K and H?

  1. ((a))

    2322\sqrt[2]{232} km

  2. ((b))

    54 km

  3. ((c))

    60 km

  4. ((d))

    44 km

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2322\sqrt[2]{232} km

139

If both V and U are walking at 1km/s speed and follow the same path then who reaches the point W first and in how many seconds?

  1. ((a))

    U, 48 seconds

  2. ((b))

    W, 39 seconds

  3. ((c))

    W, 64 seconds

  4. ((d))

    U, 43 seconds

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

U, 48 seconds

140

In which direction is point L with respect to point E?

  1. ((a))

    North-East

  2. ((b))

    South-East

  3. ((c))

    South-West

  4. ((d))

    East

  5. ((e))

    North-West

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North-East

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

Direction: In the following Line graph, Line P shows the percent by which the marked price of an article above the cost price and Line Q shows the discount percent on 5 different products. Study the Line graph carefully and answer the following questions.

141

If the selling price of an article A is Rs.3450, then find the cost price of the article.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2300

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2400

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2500

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2700

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 2200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 2300

142

If the discount percent on article C is 10% additional, then find the selling price of the article if the cost price of the article is Rs. 2500.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1220

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1080

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1040

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 980

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 804

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1220

143

Find the ratio of the selling price of article E and the marked price of article D, if the cost price of the article D is two times of the cost price of article E.

  1. ((a))

    12 ∶ 23

  2. ((b))

    9 ∶ 35

  3. ((c))

    15 ∶ 31

  4. ((d))

    8 ∶ 27

  5. ((e))

    27 ∶ 70

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 ∶ 23

144

Find the loss percent on article B if a further discount of 9.09% is given on the article.

  1. ((a))

    45%

  2. ((b))

    47%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    53%

  5. ((e))

    30%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45%

145

If the cost price of article D is four times the cost price of the article C and the selling price of article C is Rs.1440 then find the difference in the loss on selling article C and article D.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 12

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 60

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 30

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 23

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 19

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 12

146

Find the ratio of marked price to selling price by selling an article B.

  1. ((a))

    5 ∶ 2

  2. ((b))

    4 ∶ 3

  3. ((c))

    3 ∶ 5

  4. ((d))

    4 ∶ 1

  5. ((e))

    2 ∶ 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 ∶ 2

147

The area of a square is 1764m2 (approx) and the length of a rectangle is 1/3 of the side of a square. If the breadth is 4m less than length, then find area (in m2) of a rectangle.

  1. ((a))

    126

  2. ((b))

    130

  3. ((c))

    135

  4. ((d))

    140

  5. ((e))

    120

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

126

148

A person sold an article for Rs. 806. If it is sold for Rs.38 more, then the total selling price will become 20% more than the cost price of the article. Original Selling price is how much percent more than the cost price?

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    15%

  3. ((c))

    30%

  4. ((d))

    25%

  5. ((e))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

149

An article is sold for 12.5% more than the cost price. SP is 90% of the marked price. If the article is sold for Rs. 31.25 less than marked price, then find the loss percentage.

  1. ((a))

    8.25%

  2. ((b))

    7.75%

  3. ((c))

    6.75%

  4. ((d))

    4.25%

  5. ((e))

    Can't be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.25%

150

A boat covers a certain distance in 4 hours in upstream and covers 2 km less distance in downstream in 3 hrs. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/hour then find the distance covered by boat in upstream.

  1. ((a))

    56 km

  2. ((b))

    10 km

  3. ((c))

    12 km

  4. ((d))

    15 km

  5. ((e))

    18 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

56 km

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions:

In three different colleges, there are three branches Mechanical Engineering, Civil Engineering and Electrical Engineering. The total number of students in college B is 760. The number of students in Mechanical Engineering in college B is 300. The number of students in Electrical Engineering in college C is twice than the number of Mechanical Engineering in the same college. The number of students in Mechanical Engineering in college B is 60% of the students in number of students in same branch in college A. The number of Civil engineering is half the number of Mechanical engineering in college A and 50 more than the number of students in Electrical Engineering from college C. The total number of students in Civil Engineering in college B is 160 more than the number of students in Electrical Engineering in college C. The total number of students in Civil Engineering in all the colleges together is 750. The number of students in Electrical Engineering in college A is 50% more than the number of students in same branch in college B.

151

What is the difference between the number of students in Mechanical Engineering in college B and C?

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    120

  4. ((d))

    200

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80

152

Find the total number of students in college C.

  1. ((a))

    380

  2. ((b))

    520

  3. ((c))

    440

  4. ((d))

    660

  5. ((e))

     None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

380

153

Find the average number of students in Mechanical Engineering in all the colleges together.

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    300

  3. ((c))

    450

  4. ((d))

    250

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200

154

What is the ratio between the number students in Civil Engineering in college A to the number of students in Electrical Engineering in college C?

  1. ((a))

    2 : 3

  2. ((b))

    4 : 7

  3. ((c))

    4 : 5

  4. ((d))

    5 : 3

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 : 3

155

The total number of students in Civil Engineering in college B and C together is what percent of the total number of students in Mechanical Engineering in same colleges together?

  1. ((a))

    62.5%

  2. ((b))

    80%

  3. ((c))

    150%

  4. ((d))

    125%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

62.5%

156

If 140% of one third of a number is equal to 46.2, then the number 132 is how much more than the original number?

  1. ((a))

    66.67%

  2. ((b))

    33.34%

  3. ((c))

    17.50%

  4. ((d))

    22.50%

  5. ((e))

    27.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66.67%

157

Train A whose length is 180 m crosses a pole in 9 seconds. Another Train B whose length is 120 m running at a speed of 63 kmph crosses Train A while moving in the same direction. Find the time required for Train A to cross Train B, when both trains start at the same time.

  1. ((a))

    120 seconds

  2. ((b))

    130 seconds

  3. ((c))

    140 seconds

  4. ((d))

    135 seconds

  5. ((e))

    150 seconds

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120 seconds

158

Aman travels 180 km with a constant speed and again travels a distance which is 180 km less than three times the previous distance covered by him. If the total time taken by him to cover the whole distance is 36 hours, then find the speed of Aman. 

  1. ((a))

    15 Km/hr

  2. ((b))

    25 Km/hr

  3. ((c))

    18 Km/hr

  4. ((d))

    24 Km/hr

  5. ((e))

    16 Km/hr

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 Km/hr

Direction: Read the graph carefully and answer the following questions.

There are six companies A, B, C, D, E and F. The pie chart shows the percentage of female employees in different companies. The table shows the percentage of male employees more than the female employees in the given company.

COMPANYNumber of Male (in %) more than Female
A50%
B30%
C45%
D25%
E70%
F15%
159

If the number of females is 1000. What is the ratio of Females in company A to the males in company D?

  1. ((a))

    9 ∶ 10

  2. ((b))

    8 ∶ 11

  3. ((c))

    7 ∶ 5

  4. ((d))

    5 ∶ 7

  5. ((e))

    8 ∶ 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9 ∶ 10

160

If the number of females is 1000. Find the average number of males in company B, D and E?

  1. ((a))

    245

  2. ((b))

    242

  3. ((c))

    236

  4. ((d))

    252

  5. ((e))

    212

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

245

161

If the number of females is 1000. What is the difference between the number of Females in company E and number of Males in company C?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

162

The number of males in company F is how much percentage more/less than the number of males in company A?

  1. ((a))

    31% less

  2. ((b))

    35% more

  3. ((c))

    35% less

  4. ((d))

    42% more

  5. ((e))

    28% loss

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31% less

163

If the total number of females is 1500, then find the difference between the number of females in company B and the number of males in company A.

  1. ((a))

    235

  2. ((b))

    255

  3. ((c))

    215

  4. ((d))

    345

  5. ((e))

    225

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

235

164

What is the central angle corresponding to number of females in company C and F together?

  1. ((a))

    92.5°

  2. ((b))

    100.8° 

  3. ((c))

    108°

  4. ((d))

    75°

  5. ((e))

    60°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

92.5°

165

A pipe A can fill 3/4th of a cistern in 15 hours and pipe B can fill 2/3rd of the same cistern in 20 hours. If both the pipes open simultaneously then find the time taken by them to fill 80% of the cistern.  

  1. ((a))

    8 hour 45 minutes

  2. ((b))

    9 hour 15 minutes

  3. ((c))

    9 hour 36 minutes

  4. ((d))

    10 hour 15 minutes

  5. ((e))

    10 hour 45 minutes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 hour 45 minutes

166

A can do a piece of work in 20 days while B can do the same piece of work in 30 days. The started working together and after 6 days, A leaves the work. Two days later B is joined by C. If the work is completed in the same time as before then how much percentage efficient is C more than A?

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    60%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    35%

  5. ((e))

    45%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%

167

A square is inscribed in a circle and another circle is inscribed in the square in such a way that it touches the sides of square. If the radius of smaller circle is 14√2 cm, then find the circumference of the larger circle.

  1. ((a))

    176 cm

  2. ((b))

    154 cm

  3. ((c))

    77 cm

  4. ((d))

    88 cm

  5. ((e))

    144 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

176 cm

168

The present age of mother is 42 years. After 12 years the ratio of ages of father and mother is 10:9 and the ratio of the present ages of their son and daughter is 5:6. Fathers present age is four times the present age of daughter. Find the sum of the ages of son and daughter after 12 years.

  1. ((a))

    42 years

  2. ((b))

    46 years

  3. ((c))

    45 years

  4. ((d))

    48 years

  5. ((e))

    38 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42 years

169

A container contains 96 litres mixture of milk and water with 35% milk. If 16 litres of the mixture is taken out and then 10 litres of water is added. What is the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture?

  1. ((a))

    29 : 38

  2. ((b))

    13 : 17

  3. ((c))

    25 : 41

  4. ((d))

    14 : 31

  5. ((e))

    52 : 97

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

29 : 38

170

The simple interest for 2 years is Rs. 4200. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest for 2 years is Rs. 420. Find the Compound interest for 3 years.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 8682

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 7632

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 7644

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 8456

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 7822

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 8682

Two friends Aaru and Chand started a business in which Aaru invests Rs. 12600 and Chand invested 1/3rd of the amount invested by Aaru. Aaru left the business after 5 months and at the same time Sandhu joins with the investment of Rs.6000. At the end of one-year Chand receives Rs. 3000 as the share of a profit.

171

The share of Aaru is how much percent more than the share of Sandhu at the end of one year?

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    50%

  4. ((d))

    20%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%

172

Find the total profit earned in the business.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 10750

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 8750

  3. ((c))

     Rs. 8250

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 9250

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 12250

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 10750

173

Find the share of Aaru from the profit after one year?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2500

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 3750

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 4000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 4500

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 2500

174

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

(11.91)2 ÷ (3.98)2 × (12.94)2 – (18.89)2 = ?

  1. ((a))

    1244

  2. ((b))

    1221

  3. ((c))

    1160

  4. ((d))

    1241

  5. ((e))

    1143

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1244

175

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

26.91 ÷ 2.97 × (13.84)2 – 169.89 = ?

  1. ((a))

    1459

  2. ((b))

    1381

  3. ((c))

    1432

  4. ((d))

    1594

  5. ((e))

    1279

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1459

176

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

22.87% of 1199.79 + 29.95% of 229.92 = ?

  1. ((a))

    435

  2. ((b))

    349

  3. ((c))

    381

  4. ((d))

    397

  5. ((e))

    345

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

435

177

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

124.97% of 300 + 24.99% of 100 – 9.99% of 29.79 = (?)

  1. ((a))

    397

  2. ((b))

    396

  3. ((c))

    398

  4. ((d))

    394

  5. ((e))

    399

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

397

178

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

(69.98% of 99.99) – (19.98% of 224.99) = (?)

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    26

  5. ((e))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

179

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

14.98% of 100.11 ÷ 4.99 × (?) = 29.98

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    8.5

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    9

  5. ((e))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

180

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

 √624.98 ÷ (29.99 ÷ √(36.12)) – x = √3.99

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

Direction: The table shows the number of students, the percentage of boys participated, the percentage of girls participated, the percentage of students who did not participate in the final examination in 5 years. Some values are missing in the table. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

YearsTotal number of students% of boys out of total participated students% of girls out of total participated students% of students who did not participate
2015--65--20
2016500--2515
201770025--12
2018750--8010
2019--45--30
181

If the number of total students present in 2015 is 20% more than that in 2016, then find the number of girls who participated in the final examination of 2015.

  1. ((a))

    192

  2. ((b))

    188

  3. ((c))

    204

  4. ((d))

    168

  5. ((e))

    172

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

192

182

Find the ratio of the number of students not participated in 2016 to the number of students not participated in 2017. 

  1. ((a))

    25 : 28

  2. ((b))

    23 : 28

  3. ((c))

    25 : 27

  4. ((d))

    21 : 25

  5. ((e))

    20 : 29

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 : 28

183

If the number of total students present in 2019 is 250 more than the number of total students present in 2018, then find the number of girls who participated in the examination of 2019.

  1. ((a))

    235

  2. ((b))

    346

  3. ((c))

    385

  4. ((d))

    240

  5. ((e))

    245

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

235

184

Find the average number of total students in 2016, 2017 and 2018 together. 

  1. ((a))

    625

  2. ((b))

    675

  3. ((c))

    690

  4. ((d))

    700

  5. ((e))

    650

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

625

185

Find the ratio on the number of girls who participated in 2017 to the number of girls who participated in 2018.

  1. ((a))

    78 : 149

  2. ((b))

    77 : 150

  3. ((c))

    77 : 90

  4. ((d))

    78 : 151

  5. ((e))

    77 : 153

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

78 : 149

186

Given below are quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose among the possible answer.

Quantity A: The average weight of 4 students is 40kg. If one more person joins the team then average weight becomes 42kg, then find the weight of the new person.

Quantity B: The price of sugar increases by 20% and the person can buy 9kg less sugar. Find the final quantity of sugar he has.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity A > Quantity B

  2. ((b))

    Quantity A < Quantity B

  3. ((c))

    Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

  4. ((d))

    Quantity A ≥ Quantity B 

  5. ((e))

    Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity A > Quantity B

187

Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

Determine the total cost to paint all the walls of the cuboidal room.

I. The total surface area of the cuboidal room is 30 m2.

II. The cost of painting is Rs. 25 per meter square.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

188

Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

Find the weight of the new person?

I. The average of the 5 person’s weight is 65 kg.        

II. One more person joins the group, then the new average weight becomes 68 kg.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

189

Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

The compound interest after 5 years will be?

I. The sum of the amount Rs. 5000 is received at a rate of 5% per annum.

II. The simple interest after one year is Rs. 250.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

190

Given below are quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose among the possible answer.

Quantity A: The cost price of article X when selling an article X for Rs. 225, the shopkeeper incurred a loss of 10%. 

Quantity B: Rs. 240.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity A > Quantity B

  2. ((b))

    Quantity A < Quantity B

  3. ((c))

    Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

  4. ((d))

    Quantity A ≥ Quantity B 

  5. ((e))

    Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity A > Quantity B

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