Held in 2024
Paper last updated:
Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.
Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.
Which state emerged as the best performer in Category B of the 'States’ Startup Ranking 2022' for supporting startup ecosystems?
Himachal Pradesh
Uttarakhand
Goa
Jammu & Kashmir
Chhattisgarh
Correct answer
Himachal Pradesh
Which of the following countries is NOT among the top 5 zinc-producing nations globally?
China
Peru
Australia
India
Mexico
Correct answer
China
Which organization will issue certificates for migrant workers under the social security scheme?
RBI
EPFO
NPS Trust
IRDAI
State Governments
Correct answer
RBI
Which organization is responsible for the National Strategy for Financial Education (NSFE) in India?
SEBI
RBI
PFRDA
IRDAI
None of these
Correct answer
SEBI
In which state is the traditional bull race known as 'Kalappoottu' or 'Maramadi' conducted?
Tamil Nadu
Karnataka
Kerala
Andhra Pradesh
Maharashtra
Correct answer
Tamil Nadu
Which of the following terms is NOT related to mutual funds?
KIM (Key Information Memorandum)
SID (Scheme Information Document)
Free Look Period
STP (Systematic Transfer Plan)
Exit Load
Correct answer
KIM (Key Information Memorandum)
Which institute's team has developed a new model for early disease detection?
IISc Bangalore
IASST (Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology)
AIIMS Delhi
CSIR-IGIB
ICMR-NIV
Correct answer
IISc Bangalore
In which state is the 'Karthumbi' umbrella initiative by tribal women located?
Tamil Nadu
Kerala
Maharashtra
Karnataka
Bihar
Correct answer
Tamil Nadu
From how much did the allocation for the ‘Nirbhaya Fund’ increase in the financial year 2024-25?
From Rs 50 crore to Rs 100 crore
From Rs 100 crore to Rs 200 crore
From Rs 150 crore to Rs 250 crore
From Rs 200 crore to Rs 400 crore
None of these
Correct answer
From Rs 50 crore to Rs 100 crore
Under which overarching statutory framework does the Reserve Bank of India regulate financial markets?
Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Banking Regulation Act, 1949
Companies Act, 2013
Correct answer
Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
Which Indian state has the highest wetland area coverage?
Kerala
West Bengal
Gujarat
Tamil Nadu
Uttar Pradesh
Correct answer
Kerala
Which Indian state has the highest wetland area coverage?
Kerala
West Bengal
Gujarat
Tamil Nadu
Uttar Pradesh
Correct answer
Kerala
Which of the following is NOT a category for the National Award for e-Governance 2024?
Excellence in Government Process Reengineering
Outstanding Performance in Citizen-Centric Service Delivery
Best District-Level Initiative in e-Governance
Most Innovative Use of Emerging Technologies
Best Corporate Social Responsibility Project
Correct answer
Excellence in Government Process Reengineering
Who among the following won a Golden Lotus Award (Best Director) at the 70th National Film Awards for the year 2022?
Sanjay Leela Bhansali
Sooraj R. Barjatya
Rajkumar Hirani
SS Rajamouli
Vetrimaaran
Correct answer
Sanjay Leela Bhansali
Where was the 2,492-carat diamond (the second largest in the world) discovered?
South Africa
Russia
Botswana
Canada
Australia
Correct answer
South Africa
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) as per recent changes notified by the Finance Ministry?
Interest rate of 8.2% per annum (Q3 FY2024)
Maximum investment limit of ₹30 lakh
Tax deduction under Section 80C
Premature withdrawal allowed after 1 year
Joint account facility with spouse
Correct answer
Interest rate of 8.2% per annum (Q3 FY2024)
What percentage of liquid assets must deposit-taking Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) maintain as per RBI's new directive effective January 1, 2025?
10%
12%
14%
18%
20%
Correct answer
10%
Under the expanded Model Skill Loan Scheme, what percentage of loan disbursed does MSDE guarantee against default?
50%
75%
70%
80%
95%
Correct answer
50%
At what annual interest rate has SEBI instructed BSE to pay differential regulatory fees for past periods?
10%
12%
15%
18%
20%
Correct answer
10%
According to the MSME Development Act 2006, what is the maximum investment limit for micro-enterprises in plant/machinery/equipment?
Rs 25 lakh
Rs 50 lakh
Rs 1 crore
Rs 2 crore
Rs 5 crore
Correct answer
Rs 25 lakh
Which underwater geographical structures in the Indian Ocean were named by IHO and IOC-UNESCO in August 2024?
Ashoka Seamount, Chandragupt Ridge, Kalpataru Ridge
Maurya Trench, Gupta Plateau, Chola Canyon
Buddha Basin, Akbar Ridge, Tipu Seamount
Ganga Trench, Yamuna Ridge, Saraswati Plateau
Himalaya Ridge, Vindhya Basin, Satpura Seamount
Correct answer
Ashoka Seamount, Chandragupt Ridge, Kalpataru Ridge
The Department of Biotechnology's BioE3 policy does NOT include which of the following in its definition of E3?
Economy
Environment
Employment
Energy
None of those given as options
Correct answer
Economy
Which of the following are revenue sources of the Consolidated Fund of India?
Only Direct and Indirect Taxes
Taxes, Government Services, and PSU Dividends
Indirect Taxes, Direct Taxes, Government Services, PSU Profits, Disinvestment, Loan Recoveries
Only Tax Revenues and Disinvestment
Taxes, Disinvestment, and Foreign Grants
Correct answer
Only Direct and Indirect Taxes
What percentage increase in private capital expenditure (capex) does RBI project for the financial year 2024-25?
35%
42%
48%
54%
60%
Correct answer
35%
How many core promoter banks form the consortium that owns the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?
6
8
10
12
14
Correct answer
6
What is the name of the Income Tax Return Form which can be filed by resident Individuals with income up to Rs. 50 lakh from Salaries, one house property, and income from other sources?
ITR-1 (SAHAJ)
ITR-2
ITR-3
ITR-5
None of the above
Correct answer
ITR-1 (SAHAJ)
Which country tops the 2024 global competitiveness rankings?
Switzerland
Denmark
Singapore
Sweden
None of these
Correct answer
Switzerland
Under the National Pension System (NPS), what is the maximum percentage of an employee's basic salary that a private company can contribute?
10%
12%
14%
16%
18%
Correct answer
10%
Where is the headquarters of the Animal Welfare Board of India located?
New Delhi
Ballabgarh, Haryana
Bengaluru, Karnataka
Chennai, Tamil Nadu
Kolkata, West Bengal
Correct answer
New Delhi
What is Shikhar Dhawan famously known for in his cricket career?
Most sixes in T20 cricket
Fastest Test century on debut
Highest individual ODI score
Most catches in World Cups
Longest Test innings
Correct answer
Most sixes in T20 cricket
Which sport is wrestler Aman Sehrawat associated with at the Paris Olympics 2024?
Boxing
Wrestling
Shooting
Badminton
Athletics
Correct answer
Boxing
What was the theme of India's first National Space Day observed on 23rd August 2024?
"Reaching for the Stars: India's Space Odyssey"
"Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India's Space Saga"
"Beyond Boundaries: India's Cosmic Journey"
"From Earth to Space: India's Technological Leap"
"Chandrayaan to Gaganyaan: India's Space Ambitions"
Correct answer
"Reaching for the Stars: India's Space Odyssey"
How many digits does the ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) ID number contain?
10 digits
12 digits
14 digits
16 digits
8 Digits
Correct answer
10 digits
What is the new upper limit for offline transactions in UPI Lite as increased by RBI in August 2023?
Rs. 200
Rs. 300
Rs. 400
Rs. 500
Rs. 1000
Correct answer
Rs. 200
With which country has the RBI recently signed a local currency agreement?
Japan
UAE
Russia
Sri Lanka
Malaysia
Correct answer
Japan
Which insurance companies retained their 'Domestic Systemically Important Insurers' (D-SIIs) status as per IRDAI's recent announcement?
LIC and ICICI Lombard
GIC Re and SBI Life
LIC, GIC Re and New India Assurance
HDFC Ergo and Bajaj Allianz
United India Insurance and Oriental Insurance
Correct answer
LIC and ICICI Lombard
Which Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise signed an MoU with USA-based Petron Scientech Inc (PSI) to establish a bio-ethylene plant in India?
ONGC
BHEL
BPCL
NTPC
GAIL India Limited
Correct answer
ONGC
RBI has increased the threshold for bulk fixed deposits to Rs 3 crore from what previous amount for Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs)?
Rs 1 crore
Rs 1.5 crore
Rs 2 crore
Rs 2.5 crore
Rs 5 crore
Correct answer
Rs 1 crore
Tata Power Solar Systems Limited (TPSSL) has partnered with which bank to offer financial solutions for solar panel purchases for residential and corporate customers?
HDFC Bank
State Bank of India
ICICI Bank
Axis Bank
Punjab National Bank
Correct answer
HDFC Bank
The Government of India has signed a USD 200 million loan agreement with which institution to enhance solid waste management and sanitation in 100 cities across 8 states as part of Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) 2.0?
World Bank
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Asian Development Bank
New Development Bank
Japan International Cooperation Agency
Correct answer
World Bank
Which institution has provided a USD 1.5 billion loan for low carbon energy purposes?
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Asian Development Bank (ADB)
World Bank
New Development Bank
European Investment Bank
Correct answer
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Which financial and investment services provider has the RBI approved for conversion from an NBFC-Core Investment Company (CIC) to an NBFC-Investment and Credit Company (ICC)?
L&T Finance
Tata Capital Limited (TCL)
Bajaj Finance
Mahindra Finance
Aditya Birla Capital
Correct answer
L&T Finance
What does 'B' stand for in NBSL (NPCI BHIM Services Limited)?
Bharat
Bhim
Banking
Blockchain
None of these
Correct answer
Bharat
What is the name of Life Insurance Corporation's (LIC) digital transformation initiative for which it has partnered with Infosys?
DIVE (Digital Innovation and Value Enhancement)
DRIVE (Digital Revolution and Innovation Ventures)
LIVE (Leading Innovation and Value Excellence)
NEXT (New Era Transformation)
EDGE (Enhanced Digital Growth Evolution)
Correct answer
DIVE (Digital Innovation and Value Enhancement)
What is the name of the generative AI-powered Virtual Relationship Manager introduced by Bank of Baroda?
ADI
Gyan Sahay.AI
Aditi
BoB Genie
Alexa
Correct answer
ADI
What is the amount of the penalty imposed by SEBI on Anmol Ambani for his failure to exercise due diligence in approving loans in the Reliance Home Finance matter?
Rs 25 lakh
Rs 15 lakh
Rs 50 lakh
Rs 1 crore
Rs 2 crore
Correct answer
Rs 25 lakh
What is India’s global rank in terms of installed renewable energy capacity as of 2024?
2nd
3rd
4th
5th
6th
Correct answer
2nd
In September 2024, What was the monetary penalty imposed by the RBI on Axis Bank for non-compliance with regulations?
₹1.91 crore
₹1 crore
₹2 crore
₹1.5 crore
₹1.75 crore
Correct answer
₹1.91 crore
What is the name of the scholarship program launched by the SBI Foundation that provides financial support to meritorious students from underprivileged backgrounds?
Asha Scholarship Program
SBI Scholars Program
Shiksha Scholarship Initiative
Prerna Scholarship Program
Udaan Scholarship Scheme
Correct answer
Asha Scholarship Program
Which institution was recently notified as a "Public Financial Institution" under the Companies Act by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)?
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID)
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL)
Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
Correct answer
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically and contextually correct, and mark it as your answer.
The teacher, who has been working at the school for nearly two decades, always encourage her students to pursue their passions beyond the classroom and explore new interests.
After realizing that he had lost his wallet somewhere between the restaurant and the train station, Marcus retraced his steps in hopes of finding it before someone else does.
The company, despite having faced several financial setbacks over the past year, remains committed to its core values and continues to support local communities through various outreach programs.
The chef prepared an elaborate meal for the guests, which were impressed by the variety of flavors and the beautiful presentation on each plate.
Every members of the orchestra practiced diligently for weeks leading up to the performance, ensuring that the concert would be a resounding success.
Correct answer
The teacher, who has been working at the school for nearly two decades, always encourage her students to pursue their passions beyond the classroom and explore new interests.
Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.
The university’s new research facility, which features state-of-the-art laboratories and advanced equipment, attracts scholars from around the world.
The committee members, after reviewing the proposals, agrees that the project should move forward to the next phase of development.
The annual report highlights significant achievements in the areas of sustainability and community outreach.
The manager, along with her team, has developed a comprehensive strategy to improve customer satisfaction.
Recent advances in artificial intelligence have led to the creation of innovative tools that streamline complex processes.
Correct answer
The university’s new research facility, which features state-of-the-art laboratories and advanced equipment, attracts scholars from around the world.
Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.
The orchestra’s performance, which included several complex compositions by contemporary composers, was met with enthusiastic applause from the audience.
Upon completion of the training program, participants receive a certificate that acknowledges their new skills and competencies.
The marketing team, after analyzing recent consumer trends and feedback, developed a multifaceted campaign aimed at increasing brand awareness and customer engagement.
The newly published novel, though praised by critics for its literary merit, have not yet achieved significant commercial success.
The conference schedule was packed with keynote speeches, panel discussions, and interactive workshops that provided valuable learning opportunities for all attendees.
Correct answer
The orchestra’s performance, which included several complex compositions by contemporary composers, was met with enthusiastic applause from the audience.
Directions
Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
A. BRICS refers to Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
B. South Africa was added as its member in 2010.
C. The idea of the creation of BRICS was initiated by Russia.
D. BRICS is the bridge between the developed western and the developing countries.
E. A brick is a type of block used to build walls, pavements, and other elements in masonry construction.
A
B
C
D
E
Correct answer
A
Directions
Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
A. On 7th August 2019, President Ram Nath Kovind declared the abrogation of Article 370 of the Indian constitution.
B. By abolishing article 370, teachers, doctors and other professionals can settle there bringing better facilities.
C. And also industries can be set up in the region and hence Jammu & Kashmir can be economically developed.
D. By abolishing this article, the government can act tough against the terrorism present in the region.
E. Malaysia Airlines Flight 370 was a scheduled international passenger flight operated by Malaysia Airlines that disappeared on 8 March 2014.
A
B
C
D
E
Correct answer
A
Directions
Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
A. Mission Shakti, an anti-satellite missile test by India, was conducted on March 27, 2019.
B. There are many ancient shakti devotional songs and vibrational chants in the Hindu and Sikh traditions.
C. India is the 4th country after the US, Russia & China that have successfully tested A-SAT missiles.
D. The technology was indigenously developed and tested by India’s DRDO.
E. The missile engaged and destroyed a decommissioned Indian satellite in the Lower Earth Orbit at an altitude of nearly 300 km.
A
B
C
D
E
Correct answer
A
Directions
Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
A. The Cauvery dispute started in the year 1892, between the Madras Presidency and the Princely state of Mysore.
B. The Treaty of Lisbon, which was signed by the EU member states on 13 December 2007, entered into force on 1 December 2009.
C. The dispute has been unresolved until the date and has become the longest-running water war in the world.
D. As a solution, a peace treaty was signed in 1956 after all the bilateral talks between the governments of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
E. The Supreme Court has now requested Karnataka Government to release 12,000 cusecs of Cauvery water per day to Tamil Nadu.
A
B
C
D
E
Correct answer
A
Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.
Solar power, heralded as one of the most sustainable and environmentally friendly energy sources, has seen remarkable advancements over the past few years. Unlike fossil fuels, solar energy harnesses the power of the sun to generate electricity, producing no greenhouse gas emissions during operation. This clean energy source has been crucial in the global fight against climate change, with many countries making substantial investments in solar infrastructure. One of the main advantages of solar power is its abundant nature. The sun provides more energy in one hour than the entire world consumes in a year. This makes solar power a virtually inexhaustible resource, especially advantageous in regions with high levels of sunlight, such as Australia and the Philippines. These countries have significantly expanded their solar capacities, reducing their reliance on imported fuels and enhancing energy security.
When compared to hydropower, solar power has several distinct benefits. While hydropower projects can generate large amounts of electricity, they often require substantial environmental alterations, such as damming rivers, which can disrupt local ecosystems and communities. Solar installations, on the other hand, have a much lower environmental impact and can be deployed on a smaller scale, making them suitable for urban and rural areas alike. In Canada, the integration of solar power with wind turbines has shown promising results. Hybrid systems, combining both solar and wind energy, can provide a more consistent electricity supply as they balance the intermittent availability of these resources. This hybrid approach helps mitigate the variability associated with renewable energies and contributes to a more stable and reliable power grid. Overall, the evolution of solar power technology and its integration with other renewable sources presents a compelling argument for its increased adoption worldwide. As countries strive to achieve their climate targets, solar energy will undoubtedly play a pivotal role in the transition to a sustainable energy future.
According to the passage, what makes solar power particularly advantageous in certain regions?
It is less expensive to install than other renewable energy sources.
It requires minimal maintenance.
It is especially effective in cloudy regions.
Its abundant nature in areas with high levels of sunlight.
It integrates seamlessly with existing fossil fuel infrastructure.
Correct answer
It is less expensive to install than other renewable energy sources.
Which of the following has NOT been mentioned as an advantage of solar power according to the passage?
Low greenhouse gas emissions.
Enhancement of energy security.
Potential for integration with other renewable sources.
Reduction of reliance on imported fuels.
Production of energy at night.
Correct answer
Low greenhouse gas emissions.
How can the author's tone regarding the adoption of solar power be best described?
Cautiously optimistic
Neutral
Pessimistic
Highly critical
Enthusiastic
Correct answer
Cautiously optimistic
Directions. In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/s contains an error and mark the appropriate option. If there is no error, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Only I
Both I and II
Only III
Both II and III
No error
Correct answer
Only I
Directions. In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/s contains an error and mark the appropriate option. If there is no error, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Only I
Both I and II
Only II
Both I and III
No error
Correct answer
Only I
Directions. In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/s contains an error and mark the appropriate option. If there is no error, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Only I
Both I and II
Only III
Both II and III
No error
Correct answer
Only I
In the following sentence, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.
The auditors found a small, seemingly clear discrepancy in the company's financial records that was easily corrected by a junior accountant.
Transparent; easy to see through.
Obvious; easy to understand or interpret.
Empty; free from objects or obstruction.
Certain; without doubt or reservation.
Bright; emitting or reflecting much light.
Correct answer
Transparent; easy to see through.
In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.
The Prime Minister's speech highlighted the country's need to invest in infrastructure as a key to economic recovery.
An object used to lock or unlock something.
Central or crucial importance.
A set of answers to questions or problems.
A characteristic tone or pitch of sound.
A projecting piece used to guide or secure a part.
Correct answer
An object used to lock or unlock something.
In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.
The supermarket manager decided to liquidate the stock of seasonal winter clothing at a 50% discount to make room for new merchandise.
A handle or support, as on a rifle.
The line of lineage from which an individual descends.
The capital or shares of a company.
A liquid preparation used as a base for soups and sauces.
A supply of goods kept on hand for sale.
Correct answer
A handle or support, as on a rifle.
In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.
The committee decided to table the proposal until more data could be gathered to make an informed decision.
To postpone or delay consideration
To discuss immediately
To remove permanently
To approve without discussion
To reject completely
Correct answer
To postpone or delay consideration
In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.
The manager’s brief response indicated that he was not interested in discussing the issue further.
Friendly and welcoming
Detailed and thorough
Short and concise
Confusing and unclear
Emotional and persuasive
Correct answer
Friendly and welcoming
In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.
The witness’s credible testimony helped the jury reach a fair verdict in the complicated legal case.
Unclear and doubtful
Emotional and biased
Brief and incomplete
Believable and trustworthy
Detailed and lengthy
Correct answer
Unclear and doubtful
Direction: In the passage given below there are 6 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e, No improvement required.
The rapid spread of digital technology has completely _______ (A) [eroded] the way people communicate across the world. With the rise of social media, individuals can now __________ (B) [digest] information instantly, regardless of their geographical location. However, this convenience has also led to the ___________ (C) [evaporation] of misinformation, which spreads much faster than verified news. To combat this, many organizations are trying to __________ (D) [paint] awareness programs that teach users how to identify fake information. But despite these efforts, a large number of users continue to __________ (E) [decorations] to online scams and misleading posts. Therefore, experts believe that only a combination of education and regulation can truly ___________ (F) [harvest] the problem effectively.
Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (A)?
transformed
destroyed
modified
reshaped
No improvement required
Correct answer
transformed
Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (B)?
share
consume
spread
circulate
No improvement required
Correct answer
share
Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (C)?
circulation
emergence
dissemination
outbreak
No improvement required
Correct answer
circulation
Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (D)?
launch
promote
develop
implement
No improvement required
Correct answer
launch
Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (E)?
victim
prey
fall for
fall victim
No improvement required
Correct answer
victim
Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (F)?
address
tackle
eliminate
solve
No improvement required
Correct answer
address
John frequently arrives late to work and often has elaborate excuses for his tardiness. He usually blames external factors such as traffic or a family emergency, and while his explanations are plausible, his habitual lateness is becoming a concern for his colleagues and supervisors.
Based on the paragraph, what can be inferred about John’s reliability as an employee?
John is exceptionally reliable and always on time.
John is somewhat dependable but struggles with punctuality.
John is known for always having a valid reason for his actions.
John is highly unreliable due to his consistent tardiness.
John is perceived as highly reliable by his coworkers despite his lateness.
Correct answer
John is exceptionally reliable and always on time.
What does the passage suggest about John’s likelihood to change his behaviour in the future?
John is likely to continue arriving late since he always has plausible excuses.
John will improve his punctuality due to his genuine reasons for being late.
John is not willing to change and will likely get worse over time.
John will be disciplined and become punctual due to management's concerns.
John’s excuses are taken at face value, so he doesn’t feel the need to change.
Correct answer
John is likely to continue arriving late since he always has plausible excuses.
The given question has one blank, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.
After reviewing the initial proposals, we need to __________ and discuss the details further next week.
sign off
circle back
move forward
celebrate
close out
Correct answer
sign off
Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.
Nuclear power has been a subject of intense debate for decades, characterised by discussions regarding its safety, environmental impact, and geopolitical implications. One of the main attractions of nuclear power is its ability to generate large amounts of electricity without emitting greenhouse gases. However, the issues of radioactive waste management and the risk of nuclear accidents remain significant concerns.
In recent years, nuclear power has also found a place in the realm of space exploration. The ability to provide consistent and reliable energy in the harsh environment of space makes nuclear power an _________ option for long-duration missions. NASA’s Perseverance rover, for example, utilises a radioisotope thermoelectric generator (RTG) that converts heat released by the decay of radioactive material into electricity. International dynamics further complicate the nuclear power landscape. China and the United States, being two of the world’s leading economies, have engaged in both collaboration and competition in the nuclear sector. While both nations recognise the potential of nuclear energy to fulfil their growing energy needs and meet climate goals, their relationship is often strained by broader geopolitical tensions. This dynamic interplay affects global policy, supply chains, and technological advancements in the nuclear industry. As the world contemplates its future energy sources amidst climate change concerns, nuclear power remains a contentious yet pivotal part of the discussion. Whether through improved safety measures, advanced reactor designs, or international cooperation, the evolution of nuclear power will be closely followed and highly influential in shaping the global energy landscape.
According to the passage, which of the following benefits of nuclear power is highlighted?
It is highly cost-effective in the long run.
It produces large amounts of electricity without emitting greenhouse gases.
It can be implemented swiftly compared to renewable energy sources.
It requires minimal initial investment.
It eliminates the need for fossil fuels entirely.
Correct answer
It is highly cost-effective in the long run.
The passage states that nuclear power is especially useful for space exploration because:
It is lightweight and easy to transport.
It can provide consistent and reliable energy in harsh environments.
It is the most affordable source of energy for space missions.
It poses no risk to the surrounding environment in space.
It requires less maintenance than solar panels.
Correct answer
It is lightweight and easy to transport.
Which of the following nations are identified in the passage as leading the charge in the nuclear sector?
Russia and Germany
Japan and South Korea
India and Brazil
China and the United States
France and Canada
Correct answer
Russia and Germany
According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?
A) NASA’s Perseverance rover uses solar panels to generate power.
B) The relationship between China and the United States in the nuclear sector is unaffected by geopolitical tensions.
C) Nuclear power is seen as a significant part of meeting climate goals.
Only A
Only B
Only C
A and C
A and B
Correct answer
Only A
What can be deduced as the author's tone regarding nuclear power in the passage?
Skeptical
Oppositional
Balanced
Indifferent
Optimistic
Correct answer
Skeptical
What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: "The ability to provide consistent and reliable energy in the harsh environment of space makes nuclear power an ________ option for long-duration missions."
fanciful
futuristic
renewable
attractive
inhibitory
Correct answer
fanciful
Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "pivotal" in the context of the passage?
Marginal
Critical
Supplementary
Redundant
Negligible
Correct answer
Marginal
Directions. In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/s contains an error and mark the appropriate option. If there is no error, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Only I
Both I and II
Only III
Both II and III
No error
Correct answer
Only I
Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.
A recent scientific report has brought attention to a fascinating phenomenon observed in the plant kingdom, referred to as "sleeping species." These are plant species that remain dormant for extended periods, sometimes for years or even decades, before germinating and growing. This trait, while still not completely understood, offers remarkable insights into plant survival strategies and ecosystem dynamics. "Sleeping species," such as some types of desert plants, possess seeds that can withstand prolonged adverse conditions. These seeds remain viable until the environment becomes favourable for growth, at which point they break dormancy and begin to germinate. This survival strategy ensures that the species can thrive even in unpredictable and harsh habitats by synchronizing their growth with optimal environmental conditions.
One well-documented case is the desert ephemerals found in arid regions. These plants can lie dormant as seeds under the scorching sun for years, waiting for the rare occurrence of sufficient rainfall. When these conditions finally materialise, the seeds germinate rapidly, completing their life cycle in a short span before the harsh conditions return. This adaptive mechanism highlights the resilience and ingenuity of plant life in facing environmental challenges. Scientists are particularly interested in understanding the genetic and biochemical mechanisms that regulate seed dormancy and germination in these "sleeping species." The study of these mechanisms could have significant implications for agriculture, particularly in developing crops that are more resilient to climate variability and extreme weather events. It could also provide insights into conserving biodiversity by revealing how plants can survive in changing environments. The discovery and study of "sleeping species" remind us that there is still much to learn about the natural world. These plants not only contribute to biodiversity but also offer potential solutions to some of the pressing challenges posed by climate change and environmental degradation. Their unique life strategies underscore the complexity and adaptability of life on Earth, prompting further research and exploration into the secrets of plant survival.
According to the passage, "sleeping species" are plant species that:
Grow continuously without any dormancy period.
Germinate only in the presence of specific pollinators.
Remain dormant for extended periods before growing.
Require a symbiotic relationship with fungi to thrive.
Can survive only in tropical climates.
Correct answer
Grow continuously without any dormancy period.
According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?
A) "Sleeping species" seeds germinate only after a fire.
B) Desert ephemerals complete their life cycle quickly after germination.
C) The study of seed dormancy has limited implications for agriculture.
Only A
Only B
Only C
A and B
B and C
Correct answer
Only A
How can the author's tone regarding the potential of "sleeping species" be best described?
Skeptical
Cautiously optimistic
Neutral
Pessimistic
Enthusiastic
Correct answer
Skeptical
Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "phenomenon" in the context of the passage?
Secret
Event
Routine
Chaos
Theory
Correct answer
Secret
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.
Seven persons form a family of three generations – K, L, M, N, O, P and Q were born in different years viz,- 1973, 1980, 1984, 1989, 1995, 2002, 2010. Age of the each person is calculated from the base year 2024. All the given information is not necessarily in same order.
Note – It is assumed that the husband is older than the wife.
The difference between ages of P and the sister – in – law of O is 7 years. N is the grandson of M. Q, who is the son – in – law of K, has an age which is a multiple of 5. The difference between ages of K and P is equal to the age of P. L is the aunt of N. O has only one brother. M is the father – in – law of L’s brother. The sum of the ages of L and M is 80. There is no single parent of a child that is either both of them alive or none.
Who among the following is the father of N?
K
P
O
Q
None of these
Correct answer
K
What is the difference between ages of Q and L?
15 years
9 years
13 years
11 years
7 years
Correct answer
15 years
Who among the following born in the year 1989?
K
Q
O
L
P
Correct answer
K
What is the age of M and he is related to P?
44 years , Brother
40 years, Uncle
50 years, Father
45 years, Brother - in - law
51 years, Father
Correct answer
44 years , Brother
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding O?
O is the only son of M.
O is the sister of Q.
L is the sister of O.
O is the mother of N.
K is the father of O.
Correct answer
O is the only son of M.
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.
A certain number of persons sit on a square table and a circular table which is inscribed in the square table that is a circular table is inside the square table. In circular table, there are eight seats present and persons sit on the circular table faces towards the centre and eight seats also present on square table in such way four seats are present at the corners and persons sit at the corner faces towards the centre and four seats are present at the middle of the each side of the square table and persons sit on the middle of the side of square table faces away from the centre. Each person on square table sits opposite to the one who sits on a circular table.
F sits second to the right of Q who faces towards the centre. Y faces the one who sits opposite to him on different table. No one sits opposite to T on the same table but P sits behind that seat. R sits opposite to the one who sits immediate left to U. No one sits opposite to V in different table. K faces U and sit on the same table. There is a vacant seat adjacent to T. U sits third to the left of V. Both the seats adjacent to Q are occupied and both the seats adjacent to R are unoccupied. V and Y sit on different tables. P and U sit on different tables. S faces neither towards the centre nor sits opposite to F and Q. A sits second to the left of R and adjacent to P.
Who among the following sits opposite to A on the different table ?
Q
U
K
F
None
Correct answer
Q
In a certain way, T is related to R and U is related to A and then in the same way V is related to whom?
S
P
Y
R
None of these
Correct answer
S
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
There is a one vacant seat between T and K.
A sits immediate left to P.
R sits second to the left of S.
F sits immediate left to U.
More than one option.
Correct answer
There is a one vacant seat between T and K.
How many persons sit between F and T when counted from the right of F?
None
Two
Three
One
More than three
Correct answer
None
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding V?
A) V sits immediate right to K.
B) No one sits to the immediate left of V.
C) V sits second to the right of the person who sits opposite to A.
Only A
Only B
Both A and B
Both B and C
Both A and C
Correct answer
Only A
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are designated at different posts viz, Assistant, Assistant Manager (AM), Deputy Manager (DM), Manager, Senior Manager (SM), Assistant General Manager (AGM), Deputy General Manager (DGM), General Manager (GM). Designations are given in increasing order of seniority such as Assistant is the junior most whereas General Manager is the senior most designations. They play different sports such as Badminton, Basketball, Cricket, Football, Golf, Squash, Tennis and Volleyball. All the given information is not necessarily in same order.
There are only two designations between B and A. D is senior to G but junior to F. The number of persons senior to the one who likes Football is same as the number of persons junior to the one who likes Squash. D is immediate junior to the one who is immediate junior to the person who likes Golf. B is immediate senior to the one who likes Squash who is junior to Deputy Manager. The person who likes Cricket is two posts senior to G. As many persons are senior to the one who likes Badminton as many persons junior to the one who likes Basketball. E likes neither Badminton nor Volleyball. C is junior to H but senior to F who likes Tennis. E is junior to G.
Who among the following is the DGM and likes which sports?
A, Golf
F, Tennis
C, Badminton
H, Football
C, Football
Correct answer
A, Golf
As many persons are junior to the one who likes squash as many persons are senior to whom?
H
The one who likes Football.
The one who likes Golf.
C
Both 2 and 4
Correct answer
H
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
A is senior to AGM.
D likes Volleyball.
Only three persons are designated between C and F.
E is the Assistant.
More than one option.
Correct answer
A is senior to AGM.
Who among the following person likes Volleyball?
C
H
D
G
B
Correct answer
C
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
A) H is immediate senior to the one who likes Football.
B) G likes Squash.
C) A is senior to F.
Both A and B
Both B and C
Both A and C
None of these
All of these
Correct answer
Both A and B
If in the word "KNOWLEDGE", each consonant are replaced with the letter which comes two place before it in the alphabetical series and vowels are replaced with the letters which comes three place after it in the alphabetical series then rearrange all the letters in reverse alphabetical series then which letters comes at the fourth position from right end?
J
H
I
L
R
Correct answer
J
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
A Q # Z 2 5 N * ) U S 7 % D 3 J R & 4 ^ K 9 Y P G F 1 % 5 H ! V 7 E
Step 1: The letters which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by the number will be written in right end after E in alphabetical order.
Step 2: The element which is immediately followed by the letter and immediately preceded by an odd number will interchange its position with the immediate next element.
Step 3: The first eleven elements from the right end will be written at the start of the series in reverse order that is last element from the right end will become first element from the left end and so on in same order.
Note: (STEP 2 is applied after STEP 1 and STEP 3 is applied after STEP 2).
How many such pairs are present in which numbers are immediately preceded by symbol and followed by letter after the rearrangement?
Four
Three
Two
One
None
Correct answer
Four
Which of the following element comes third to the right of the element which comes eleventh from the left end in Step 2?
S
%
R
3
None of these
Correct answer
S
How many consonants are present between the sixth element from the left end and fourth symbol from the right end in Step 3?
One
Two
Three
Four
More than four
Correct answer
One
Direction: In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given.
The resultant number in each row is to be works out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
I. If the even number is followed by an even number then they are subtracted with each other.
II. If the even number is followed by an odd number then the second number is multiplied by the first number.
III. If the odd number is followed by an odd number then they are added with each other.
IV. If the odd number is followed by an even number then the second number is divided by first number.
V. If the odd number is followed by an odd perfect square number then the second number is subtracted by first number.
What is the difference of the resultant of the two rows?
| 17 | 34 | 15 |
|---|---|---|
| 35 | 7 | 18 |
18
27
6
11
15
Correct answer
18
What is the remainder if the resultant of the first row is divided by the resultant of the second row?
| 7 | 56 | 13 |
|---|---|---|
| 43 | 81 | 12 |
5
0
4
2
1
Correct answer
5
Find the average of the resultant of the two rows.
| 32 | 3 | 12 |
|---|---|---|
| 25 | 17 | 5 |
200
192
185
150
147
Correct answer
200
Find the sum of the resultant of the two rows.
| 17 | 49 | 20 |
|---|---|---|
| 24 | 8 | 7 |
140
133
112
124
174
Correct answer
140
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.
Seven friends B, F, G, K, O, P and R went to showroom to purchase a smartphone in a week starting from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in same order. R went to buy smartphone one of the days before G. Neither B nor P went to buy smartphone on Wednesday and Monday. At least two persons buy smartphone between F and K. G buys after two days of P. Only one person bought smartphone after the one who bought just after K. Not more than one person bought smartphone between B and F.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Box B bought smartphone on Tuesday.
Box P bought smartphone between R and K.
O is the last person who bought smartphone.
More than three persons bought smartphone between B and O.
None of these.
Correct answer
Box B bought smartphone on Tuesday.
Direction: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statement and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Statement I: The IUCN has identified more than 1,000 species of fungi as threatened with extinction.
Statement II: Most of the countries are cutting the tree for timber, agriculture and infrastructure. It releases nitrogen and ammonia run – off in the water.
Both statements I and II are independent causes.
Statement I is the effect and statement II is the cause.
Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Correct answer
Both statements I and II are independent causes.
Direction: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statement and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Statement I: Fugitive emissions like methane leaks from oil and gas sector constitute significant environmental concerns.
Statement II: The emission of methane gas contributed about a quarter of the cumulative warming of global temperature.
Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
Both statements I and II are independent causes.
Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Correct answer
Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.
Statement:
The idea behind ‘smart villages’ is to use digital technology as a catalyst for comprehensive and sustainable rural development, while preserving their natural essence. Agriculture 4.0 looks to digitalize and automize crop and livestock production by use of artificial intelligence to address agricultural and environmental challenges such as weeding, pest control, and harvesting.
Inferences:
I. The digitally technology help the farmers to assess their crops growth and act accordingly.
II. Digital technology helps to boost their livelihood and economic growth.
Either I or II is implicit
Only I is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit
Only II is implicit
Both I and II is implicit
Correct answer
Either I or II is implicit
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.
Statement:
Invasive species like Lantana camara and Senna spectabilis (weeping cassia) unleash a form of chemical warfare as their shed leaves decompose and change the chemical composition of the soil, rendering it unsuitable for the growth of other plant species. Lantana camara, introduced around 200 – 250 years ago as an ornamental plant, and plants likes Prosopis julifora (mesquite), extensively propagated for their year – round greenery in arid and semi – arid regions of India.
Inferences:
I. There is a need to limit the growth of these invasive species as it reduces the fertility of the soil.
II. These species need to be conserved as it can sustain in any regions of India and create beautiful scenery.
Only I follows
Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows
Only II follows
Both I and II follow
Correct answer
Only I follows
Direction: The passage given below is followed by two statements. Choose the one which can be the correct course of actions of following the passage.
Himalayan towns experience a massive influx of tourists, often far exceeding their resident population. This puts enormous strain on the fragile environment, depleting natural resources and overwhelming infrastructure like sanitation systems. For example, Bhimtal, Uttarakhand, sees 200,000 annual visitors compared to only 15,000 residents. Most Himalayan towns are unaware of their load – bearing capacity or carrying capacity and influx of tourists and unregulated construction activities make them even more vulnerable to disasters.
Course of Actions:
I. Limit construction in all areas and use climate data to identify future vulnerabilities.
II. With hilly areas seeing a large influx of floating populations, there is a need for sound tourism and resource management strategies, including for traffic, water and waste.
Only I follows
Both I and II follows
Either I or II follows
Only II follows
Neither I nor II follows
Correct answer
Only I follows
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.
A@B means A is either 8 meter north or 8 meter south of B.
A%B means A is either 10 meter east or 10 meter west of B.
A&1B means A is 5 meter west of B.
A&2B means A is 5 meter east of B.
A#B means A is 4 meter south of B.
A*B means A is southeast of B.
A$B means A is northwest of B.
Note:
N@O, L&1P, P%O, L#S, S&2K, K%M and N$M.
What is the direction of point N with respect to point P?
North
Southwest
Southeast
West
Northwest
Correct answer
North
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Point N is in south direction with respect to point O.
Point S is in Northeast direction to point P.
Point M is in east direction to point K.
Point O is in North direction to point K.
Point K is in Southwest direction to point P.
Correct answer
Point N is in south direction with respect to point O.
In a certain way, N is related to S and K is related to L then which among the following point is related to S ?
Point M
Point K
Point O
Point L
Point P
Correct answer
Point M
In the given choices, if it is possible to make a meaningful word by using the second letter of the first word, fourth letter of the second word, first letter of the third word and fifth letter of the fourth word, then which among the following choice can make a meaningful word ?
CAVIL, DECOY, FLOUT, INDICT
JAUNT, KUDOS, MELEE, NEXUS
PITHY, QUELL, REALM, SOLAR
TACIT, VOGUE, WIELD, YEARN
ABASH, BUXOM, DOYEN, ELITE
Correct answer
CAVIL, DECOY, FLOUT, INDICT
Directions
In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.
In a family of seven members who are A, B, C, D, F, G and H, there are only two married couples and either both or none of the parent is alive. How D is related to H?
Statement I: C is the uncle of F who has only one brother. A is the son – in – law of H. B is the grandmother of D. G is the mother of F’s brother. C has only one sister who is married.
Statement II: B has two child one son and a daughter. H is the husband of C’s sister’s mother. D is the nephew of G’s brother. G has two sons and she is a female member.
Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the given question.
Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question
Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.
Correct answer
Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the given question.
Directions
In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.
Six boxes E, L, M, S, V and X are placed one over another from bottom to top but not necessarily in same order. Which of the following box is placed just below the Box M?
Statement I: Three boxes are placed between Box V and Box X. Box L is placed two boxes above Box S. Box E is placed adjacent to Box X. Box V is placed above the box L.
Statement II: Box M is placed three boxes above Box X. Two boxes are placed between Box V and Box S. Box L is placed above the Box E which is placed just below the box S.
Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.
Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
Both statements I and II together are required to answer the given question.
Correct answer
Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.
Directions
In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.
Six persons L, N, P, R, T and V went to amusement park on six different days starting from Monday to Saturday but not necessarily in same order. Who among the following person went to amusement park on Thursday?
Statement I: Only two persons went to the park between P and V. L goes to the park one of the days after N. R goes to the park before V. T goes after N. Neither P nor V is the last person.
Statement II: Three persons went to the park between N and T. R goes to the park neither on Thursday nor on Friday. P goes to the park before L who goes to the park before T.
Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question
Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the given question
Statement I and II together is not sufficient to answer the given question.
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
Correct answer
Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
Directions
In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.
In a certain code language, “Everyone loves flowers” is written as “cu ix st”? What could be the possible code for the word ‘flowers’ in the given code language?
Statement I: “Riya wears a pink dress” is written as “uh fh mr yl nk” and “Sia makes a dress” is written as “jd uh eo nk”.
Statement II: “Riya made the picture beautiful” is written as “tq zb hg am rv” and “Pink flowers are beautiful” is written as “am yl st bi”.
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given questions while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
Statement I and statement II together is not sufficient to answer the given question.
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
Both statement I and II together are required to answer the given question.
Correct answer
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given questions while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.
A number arrangement machine, when given an input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement.
Input: 27 key are 75 56 ten 40 sip fan 17
Step I: 71 27 key are 75 56 40 sip fan net
Step II: pis 71 27 key are 75 56 fan net 04
Step III: 72 pis 71 are 75 56 fan net 04 yek
Step IV: naf 72 pis 71 are 75 net 04 yek 65
Step V: 57 naf 72 pis 71 net 04 yek 65 rea
Step V is the last step.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions.
Input: 34 lie 26 sun dim 27 15 kim yes 61
How many elements are there between the 3rd odd number from the left end and 'nus' in Step II of the given input?
One
Four
Two
Three
More than four
Correct answer
One
As per the given input, 'mik' is related to '72' in Step IV and 'sey' is related to '62' in Step II in a certain way. Then in the same way in Step I, 'kim' is related to which of the following element?
dim
27
sey
61
sun
Correct answer
dim
Which of the following is the 5th element to the left of the 8th element from the left end in Step V of the given input?
16
mik
72
nus
51
Correct answer
16
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE as per the given arrangement?
A) There is only one number between the fifth element from the left end and 'sey' in the Step III of the given input.
B) As many elements are there to the left of 'nus' in Step III as to the right of '43' in Step IV of the given input.
C) The sum of '62' and the second element from the right of Step V is more than the sum of '72' and the second element from the left of Step II of the given input.
Only A
Only C
All of these
Only B
Only B and C
Correct answer
Only A
In step III, what is the difference between the 4th element and the 7th element from left end?
35
33
27
25
29
Correct answer
35
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.
Statement:
The idea of Artificial Intelligence (AI) stems from replicating the problem – solving ability of humans in machine. AI models of artificial intelligence evolved to ‘deep learning’, ‘reinforcement learning’, ‘machine learning’, and many others, one of which is Generative Artificial Intelligence (GAI). GAI is an extension of existing models of artificial and operates on Large Language Models, that have been trained on huge data – sets of texts or other information. Government uses GAI in governance in citizen interaction, real – time reports etc.
Assumptions:
I. GAI can decrease flexibility and responsiveness while citizen’s engagement with the government.
II. GAI can be used to aid decision making by using real – time analytical reports which are possible by processing large volumes of data.
Either I or II implicit
Both I and II implicit
Only I implicit
Only II implicit
Neither I nor II implicit
Correct answer
Either I or II implicit
Direction: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statement and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Statement I: With massive digital illiteracy, the population is vulnerable to phishing attacks and online scams. It also leads to data security and potential misuse of personal information for a country pioneering in digital payments.
Statement II: There is a need to promote digital literacy and awareness about its potential threats.
Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect.
Both statements I and II are independent causes.
Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Correct answer
Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.
Statement:
India is the second largest food producer in the world. However, the existing infrastructure can accommodate only 47% of the produce. According to the National Academy of Agricultural Sciences, storage is the leading cause of post – harvest losses for all kinds of food in India. To enhance food grain storage capacity in cooperative sector the new storage plan is based on the hub and spoke model. The plan will let cooperatives set up decentralised storage facilities across the country.
Inferences:
I. The new model helps India with the better storage facility which will help to preserve the food grains for long duration.
II. The new model gives all the power to control and manage the store house to the government of India.
Only II implicit
Either I or II implicit
Both I and II implicit
Only I implicit
Neither I nor II implicit
Correct answer
Only II implicit
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit from the given statement.
Statement:
Geographical Indications (GI) are intellectual property rights that recognize the unique character of goods that originate from a specific geographical location. This uniqueness is often attributed to a combination of factors such as climate, soil and the traditional knowledge and skills of the local producers.
Assumptions:
I. Consumers prefer genuine products and GI provides the assurance of authenticity.
II. GI tag helps the local products to be successfully marketed and command premium prices only domestically.
Only I is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit
Both I and II is implicit
Either I or II is implicit
Only II is implicit
Correct answer
Only I is implicit
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.
Statement: As of 2024, approximately 47% of primary school pupils globally benefited from school meals. However, the nutritional quality of these meals is often inadequate. UNESCO stresses that improving meal quality is essential for reducing child undernourishment and supporting academic performance. Studies indicate that nutritious meals can boost enrollment and attendance rates.
Inference:
I. Presently the nutritional quality of school meals is not good enough for child’s nourishment.
II. A healthy nutritious food helps in the mental growth of the students that boost their academic performances.
Only I implicit
Either I or II implicit
Only II implicit
Both I and II implicit
Neither I nor II implicit
Correct answer
Only I implicit
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.
Eight boxes R, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are placed one over another from bottom to top but not necessarily in same order. Box R is placed two boxes above the box T. Two boxes are placed between the box X and Box Y. Box V is placed one of the boxes above the box U. Box T and Box X are placed adjacent to each other. Box W is below the box Y. Box R is above the Box Y but below the Box Z. At least two boxes are present between Box T and Box V which is not at top most position.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
A) Box V is placed just below the box R.
B) Only two boxes are placed between Box T and Box W.
C) Only two boxes are placed below the box Y.
Only A
Both B and C
Only B
Both A and C
All of these
Correct answer
Only A
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Series 1: B ) F ^ * 9 T A & G U 3 R M K ( 6 S 2 W N E
Series 2: O & K 7 T K % D A @ F J 4 P W Y 3 # H Q S
Series 3: # 2 A ) H 7 K I $ W 9 D M J 8 4 G ^ 8 * Y E C
Step 1: Remove all the numbers which are immediately followed or preceded by the symbols from all the series.
Step 2: The elements which are followed by the number and preceded by the letters will be written at the right end in same order of their occurrence.
Note: Both the steps will be followed in each series and Step 2 is followed by Step 1$.
Which of the following element comes fifth to the left of the tenth element from the right end of the series 3 after rearrangement?
W
$$
9
I
K
Correct answer
W
How many letters as per alphabetical series will come between the sixth element from the left end of the series 1 and eight element from the right end of the series 2 after the rearrangement?
4
6
3
5
2
Correct answer
4
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The table below provides information about the ratio of the number of pens to sharpeners in three different boxes (P, Q, and R), the difference between the probabilities of selecting one pen and one eraser from each respective box, and the total number of erasers and sharpeners in each box.
| Boxes | Ratio (Pens : Sharpeners) | Difference between Probability of Picking a Pen and an Eraser | Erasers + Sharpeners |
|---|---|---|---|
| P | 3 : 1 | 3/11 | 5 |
| Q | 4 : 3 | 2/9 | 10 |
| R | 6 : 7 | 1/18 | 12 |
Note: The number of pens in each box is greater than the number of erasers.
Find the ratio of the average number of pens in boxes P and Q together to the total number of sharpeners in boxes Q and R together.
4:9
5:11
7:13
9:17
6:7
Correct answer
4:9
Find the probability of selecting two sharpeners from any one of the three boxes.
79/1050
77/1115
79/935
77/935
75/977
Correct answer
79/1050
If the total number of erasers in all three boxes is k, and the total number of pens in all three boxes is m, find the value of (m – k).
8
9
4
5
6
Correct answer
8
The total number of sharpeners in boxes P and Q together is what percent of the total number of erasers in boxes P and R together?
40%
100%
30%
20%
50%
Correct answer
40%
The number of sharpeners in box Q is x times the number of erasers in box P, and the number of pens in box R is y% more than the number of erasers in box Q.
Which of the following statements about x and y is/are correct?
(i) Both x and y are prime numbers.
(ii) (1500x+100y) is a multiple of 80.
(iii) xy/5=20
Only (i) and (ii)
Only (i) and (iii)
Only (iii)
Only (ii) and (iii)
All (i), (ii), and (iii)
Correct answer
Only (i) and (ii)
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The following data shows the number of male and female visitors on three different days – Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday.
The total number of visitors on Monday is 70. The number of female visitors on Monday is 40% less than that on Tuesday. The number of male visitors on Tuesday is 1.5 times the number of female visitors on Monday. The number of male visitors on Monday is 8 more than the number of female visitors on Wednesday. The number of male visitors on Wednesday is 10 less than that on Tuesday. The total number of female visitors on all three days together is 112.
Further, the number of female visitors on Thursday is twice the number of female visitors on Wednesday. The number of male visitors on Thursday is 20% less than the number of male visitors on Tuesday.
The number of female visitors on Wednesday is approximately what percent of the total number of visitors on Tuesday?
38%
34%
27%
44%
41%
Correct answer
38%
What is the difference between the number of male visitors on Monday and Wednesday?
10
15
6
5
4
Correct answer
10
Find the approximate average number of visitors on all three given days (Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday).
79
71
77
78
73
Correct answer
79
What is the total number of visitors on Thursday?
150
100
80
105
116
Correct answer
150
For how many years was the sum invested at simple interest (SI)?
Statements:
I. The ratio of the sum invested to the interest earned under simple interest is 20 : 9.
II. If the same sum is invested at compound interest (CI) at 10% per annum for 2 years, the interest received is twice the interest earned under simple interest.
III. The total amount received is ₹58,000.
Only I and II together are sufficient
Only II and III together are sufficient
Only I and III together are sufficient
All statements together are sufficient
Even all statements together are not sufficient
Correct answer
Only I and II together are sufficient
Find the total amount of initial investment.
Statements:
I. R and S invested Rs. P and Rs. (P + 800) respectively in a partnership. R invested for 2 months longer than S.
II. The ratio of their profit shares is 2 : 3.
III. R’s share of profit after one year is ₹35,000.
Which of the statements together are sufficient to find the total initial investment?
Only I and II together
Only II and III together
Only I and III together
All together are sufficient
All together are not sufficient
Correct answer
Only I and II together
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The given series follows a specific pattern:
4, 7, 22, 87, 7P + 16, Q
Find the value of Q - P.
2645
2640
1575
2555
None of these
Correct answer
2645
If √(P + 4) equals the difference between the roots of the quadratic equation z2 − hz − 15 = 0, find the value of √(h + 2).
±2
0
1
3
More than one of the above
Correct answer
±2
Which of the following statements about P is/are false?
I. P is exactly divisible by the third term of the given series.
II. (P + 5) is a perfect square.
III. P is a multiple of 5.
Only I
Only I & II
Only II & III
Only I & III
None of these
Correct answer
Only I
If another series follows the same pattern and its first term is 2 and second term is 3, find the fourth term of this new series.
88
29
39
34
0
Correct answer
88
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The pie chart below shows the percentage distribution of unsold toys for four shops: A, B, C, and D. The total number of unsold toys across all shops is 30.
The table below provides the difference between the number of metallic toys sold and plastic toys sold by each shop.
| Shops | Metallic Toys Sold - Plastic Toys Sold |
|---|---|
| A | 16 |
| B | 14 |
| C | 20 |
| D | 8 |
Notes:
If the number of plastic toys manufactured by shop B is 1/3 of its total manufactured toys, find the sum of unsold metallic toys by shop B and the total plastic toys sold by shops C and D.
36
31
30
25
27
Correct answer
36
If the number of unsold toys by shop X is P units more than shop A, the number of metallic toys sold by shop X is Q units more than shop C, and the number of plastic toys sold by shop X is 4. If shop X manufactures an average number of toys of shops A and C and sold 15 toys less than manufactured, find the value of P³.
1
9
16
4
None of these
Correct answer
1
If shop D sells each metallic toy at Rs.200 and each plastic toy at Rs.150, calculate the total revenue earned by it.
Rs. 4800
Rs. 7200
Rs. 8400
Rs. 6000
Rs. 5400
Correct answer
Rs. 4800
If the number of metallic toys unsold by shop C is 3/4 of the total plastic toys sold by it, find the total number of plastic toys manufactured by shop C.
8
10
4
12
6
Correct answer
8
If the ratio of metallic toys sold by shop C to shop E is 7:5, and the number of metallic toys sold by shop E is 20% of its total manufactured toys, while the number of plastic toys sold by shop E is twice the metallic toys sold by it, find the difference between the number of unsold toys by shop E and shop B.
34
31
20
45
46
Correct answer
34
If the ratio of metallic to plastic toys manufactured by shop A is 3:2, find the percentage of plastic toys unsold by shop A with respect to the number of metallic toys sold by shop D.
40.33%
37.5%
41.66%
55.55%
64.33%
Correct answer
40.33%
A person invested Rs. 5500 in Scheme A at a simple interest rate of 12% per annum for t years. He then invested twice the interest earned from Scheme A in Scheme B, which offers 15% simple interest per annum for the same period. If the interest earned from Scheme B amounts to Rs. 4950, find the value of t.
3
5
6
8
12
Correct answer
3
The profit obtained from selling 2 articles is equal to the cost price of 4 articles. The ratio of the marked price to the selling price of each article is 6 : 5. Find the ratio of the marked price to the cost price of one article.
5 : 3
3 : 5
12 : 5
13 : 5
18 : 5
Correct answer
5 : 3
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The average number of students in Schools A, B, and C together was 1500 in 2021 and 1650 in 2022. The number of students in School A remained the same in both years. In School B, the number of students in 2022 was 20% more than in 2021, and in School C, it was 25% more than in 2021.
In 2022, the number of students in School C exceeded that in School B by 50 students.
The number of students in School C in 2022 is how much percent more or less than the number of students in School A in both years?
37.5%
100%
30%
75%
None of these
Correct answer
37.5%
What was the difference between the number of students in Schools B and C in 2021?
100
50
10
0
500
Correct answer
100
A and B entered into a partnership investing ₹520 and ₹(640 + x) respectively. After 6 months, B withdrew ₹(2x − 60) from his investment. At the end of the year, the ratio of their profits was 26 : 33. Find the value of x.
120
240
280
Cannot be determined
None of these
Correct answer
120
Train A, 300 meters long, takes the same time to cross a pole as Train B, which is 200 meters long, takes to cross a platform 300 meters in length. Train A can cross a platform of 600 meters in 30 seconds. The two trains are approaching each other from opposite directions, with a distance of 300 meters between them. Find the time taken by Train B to completely cross Train A.
15 sec
12 sec
10 sec
20 sec
None of these
Correct answer
15 sec
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The following series follows a specific pattern:
X, 168, 172, 145, 161, Y, Z
Find the value of (Y + 14).
54
46
40
50
64
Correct answer
54
Find the value of Z
36
84
45
72
68
Correct answer
36
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
I. If the series were extended, the eighth term would be a positive even number.
II. The value of X is a perfect square.
III. The sum of Z and the fourth term of the series is 195.
Only I and II
Only I and III
Only III
Only II
Only II and III
Correct answer
Only I and II
A can complete 1/2 of a piece of work in 4 days. B takes 4 days more than A to finish the same work. A and C together started the work, and after working for 2 days, they left. The remaining work was then completed by B alone in 3 days. Find the time taken by C alone to complete the entire work.
3(8/11) days
4(8/11) days
3 days
4 days
5 days
Correct answer
3(8/11) days
A container has X litres of a mixture containing 40% water and the rest milk. From this mixture, 20 litres are removed and replaced with X/2 litres of pure milk. After this operation, the ratio of milk to water in the mixture becomes 43 : 12. What is the value of X?
40
50
45
60
None of these
Correct answer
40
A boat takes 4 hours longer to cover a distance of d km downstream than it takes to cover (d-116) km upstream. The ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 9 : 2. If the boat takes 8 hours to travel 176 km downstream, find the time taken by the boat to cover (d – 60) km upstream.
8 hrs 15 min
8 hrs
7 hrs 50 min
7 hrs 30 min
None of these
Correct answer
8 hrs 15 min
A total amount of Rs. X is distributed among five friends — P, Q, R, S, and T. The combined amount received by P and Q is Rs. 500 more than what R receives. Together, R and S receive Rs. 1,600 more than T. S receives Rs. 600 more than T. The ratio of the amounts received by R and T is 5 : 3. Find the total amount X.
3600
4800
5100
4300
None of these
Correct answer
3600
What approximate value should come in place of x in the following question?
\(24\frac{2}{3}\) % of (4.993 + 4.972) × 909.98 ÷ 12.91 + (13.97)2 = x
2311
2496
2881
2786
2996
Correct answer
2311
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
(√360.91 – ∛26.77) ÷ (1023.24)1/5 × 14.97 + (23.07)2 = ?
487
579
479
547
589
Correct answer
487
What approximate value should come in place of x in the following question?
\(11\frac{1}{9}%\) of (29.99)2 + (7.979)2 ÷ (511.98)1/3 = -(x)2 + (11.979)2
11
9
6
7
8
Correct answer
11
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
152.99 ÷ √288.97 + 8.99 × (28.02)2 ÷ √195.94 = ?
523
527
497
498
513
Correct answer
523
What approximate value should come in place of x in the following question?
(234.567 + 206.433)1/2 ÷ 6.99 = x% of 229.99 – 19.998
5
9
16
10
12
Correct answer
5
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The bar graph given below represents the total number of votes cast (both valid and invalid) in four different villages (A, B, C, and D) during the years 2013 and 2018.
In village C (2013), 420 people did not cast their votes. The total population of the village increased by 25% from 2013 to 2018. In 2018, the ratio of males to females in the total population was 5 : 6. If 40% of the males voted and 10% of the total votes were declared invalid, out of which 60% were male votes, find the difference between the number of valid female votes and invalid female votes in village C in 2018.
137
124
210
164
142
Correct answer
137
In village B (2018), elections were contested between two parties — X and Y. The ratio of invalid votes cast in 2013 and 2018 in village B was 4 : 5, and in 2013, the valid votes were 2/3 of the total votes cast. In 2018, Party X won by a margin of 55 votes. Find the number of votes received by Party Y in 2018.
125
200
145
175
None of these
Correct answer
125
In village A (2013), 30% of the total population cast their votes, of which 20% were invalid. In 2018, the number of valid votes was 133.33% more than the invalid votes cast in 2013. The invalid votes in 2018 were 50% of the total population in that year. Find how much the number of people in village A who did not vote in 2018 decreased compared to 2013.
1024
1130
1234
1124
None of these
Correct answer
1024
In village D (in 2018), the valid votes were three times the invalid votes. The valid votes were distributed among three parties — P, Q, and R. Party R won by securing 60% of the valid votes, while P and Q received an equal number of votes, resulting in a tie. A re-election was conducted between P and Q, where only the previously invalid voters were allowed to vote again — and this time, all votes were valid. If Party P finally received 138 votes in total, find the number of votes that Q received in the re-election.
62
54
72
66
None of these
Correct answer
62
In another village E, the total votes cast in 2018 were twice the number of votes cast in village D in 2013.The number of valid votes in village E in 2018 was equal to the average of the votes cast in villages B and C together in 2018. Find the ratio between the invalid votes cast in village E in 2018 and the total votes cast in village B in 2013.
41:85
43:84
37:75
48:87
None of these
Correct answer
41:85
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
l. 2x2 – 19x + 44 = 0
ll. 5y2 – 31y + 44 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or relation between x and y cannot be determine.
Correct answer
x > y
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x2 - x - 156 = 0
II. 13y2 - 93y + 14 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Correct answer
x > y
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 15x2 – 30x – 225 = 0
II. 12y2 + 96y + 180 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Correct answer
x > y
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
i. 3x2 + 2x – 85 = 0
ii. 3y2 + 10y – 57 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Correct answer
x > y
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x2 + 61x + 510 = 0
II. y2 + 87y + 770 = 0
x > y
x ≥ y
y > x
y ≥ x
x = y, Relation doesn’t exist
Correct answer
x > y
Average number of girls in school A and school B is 110. The total number of boys in both the school is 6 times the average number of girls. The number of girls in both the school is (1/3)rd of the number of boys in the respective school. The number of boys in school B is 360. Find the percentage of the number of girls in school A to the number of girls in school B.
33.33 %
23.46 %
12.36 %
35.67 %
83.33 %
Correct answer
33.33 %
190 questions in the full paper