Official Paper

IBPS Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13 October 2024) (Previous Year Paper)

190 questions · 160 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

General/Financial Awareness (50 questions)

1

Which state emerged as the best performer in Category B of the 'States’ Startup Ranking 2022' for supporting startup ecosystems?

  1. ((a))

    Himachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Uttarakhand

  3. ((c))

    Goa

  4. ((d))

    Jammu & Kashmir

  5. ((e))

    Chhattisgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Himachal Pradesh

2

Which of the following countries is NOT among the top 5 zinc-producing nations globally?

  1. ((a))

    China

  2. ((b))

    Peru

  3. ((c))

    Australia

  4. ((d))

    India

  5. ((e))

    Mexico

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

China

3

Which organization will issue certificates for migrant workers under the social security scheme?

  1. ((a))

    RBI

  2. ((b))

    EPFO

  3. ((c))

    NPS Trust

  4. ((d))

    IRDAI

  5. ((e))

     State Governments

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RBI

4

Which organization is responsible for the National Strategy for Financial Education (NSFE) in India?

  1. ((a))

    SEBI

  2. ((b))

    RBI

  3. ((c))

    PFRDA

  4. ((d))

    IRDAI

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SEBI

5

In which state is the traditional bull race known as 'Kalappoottu' or 'Maramadi' conducted?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

6

Which of the following terms is NOT related to mutual funds?

  1. ((a))

    KIM (Key Information Memorandum)

  2. ((b))

    SID (Scheme Information Document)

  3. ((c))

    Free Look Period

  4. ((d))

    STP (Systematic Transfer Plan)

  5. ((e))

    Exit Load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

KIM (Key Information Memorandum)

7

Which institute's team has developed a new model for early disease detection?

  1. ((a))

    IISc Bangalore

  2. ((b))

    IASST (Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology)

  3. ((c))

    AIIMS Delhi

  4. ((d))

    CSIR-IGIB

  5. ((e))

    ICMR-NIV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IISc Bangalore

8

In which state is the 'Karthumbi' umbrella initiative by tribal women located?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

  5. ((e))

    Bihar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

9

From how much did the allocation for the ‘Nirbhaya Fund’ increase in the financial year 2024-25?

  1. ((a))

    From Rs 50 crore to Rs 100 crore

  2. ((b))

    From Rs 100 crore to Rs 200 crore

  3. ((c))

    From Rs 150 crore to Rs 250 crore

  4. ((d))

    From Rs 200 crore to Rs 400 crore

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

From Rs 50 crore to Rs 100 crore

10

Under which overarching statutory framework does the Reserve Bank of India regulate financial markets?

  1. ((a))

    Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956

  2. ((b))

    Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

  3. ((c))

    Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

  4. ((d))

    Banking Regulation Act, 1949

  5. ((e))

    Companies Act, 2013

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956

11

Which Indian state has the highest wetland area coverage?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

  5. ((e))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

12

Which Indian state has the highest wetland area coverage?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

  5. ((e))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

13

Which of the following is NOT a category for the National Award for e-Governance 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Excellence in Government Process Reengineering

  2. ((b))

    Outstanding Performance in Citizen-Centric Service Delivery

  3. ((c))

    Best District-Level Initiative in e-Governance

  4. ((d))

    Most Innovative Use of Emerging Technologies

  5. ((e))

    Best Corporate Social Responsibility Project

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Excellence in Government Process Reengineering

14

Who among the following won a Golden Lotus Award (Best Director) at the 70th National Film Awards for the year 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Sanjay Leela Bhansali

  2. ((b))

    Sooraj R. Barjatya

  3. ((c))

    Rajkumar Hirani

  4. ((d))

    SS Rajamouli

  5. ((e))

    Vetrimaaran

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sanjay Leela Bhansali

15

Where was the 2,492-carat diamond (the second largest in the world) discovered?

  1. ((a))

    South Africa

  2. ((b))

    Russia

  3. ((c))

    Botswana

  4. ((d))

    Canada

  5. ((e))

    Australia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South Africa

16

 Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) as per recent changes notified by the Finance Ministry?

  1. ((a))

    Interest rate of 8.2% per annum (Q3 FY2024)

  2. ((b))

    Maximum investment limit of ₹30 lakh

  3. ((c))

    Tax deduction under Section 80C

  4. ((d))

    Premature withdrawal allowed after 1 year

  5. ((e))

    Joint account facility with spouse

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Interest rate of 8.2% per annum (Q3 FY2024)

17

What percentage of liquid assets must deposit-taking Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) maintain as per RBI's new directive effective January 1, 2025?

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    12%

  3. ((c))

    14%

  4. ((d))

    18%

  5. ((e))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10%

18

Under the expanded Model Skill Loan Scheme, what percentage of loan disbursed does MSDE guarantee against default?

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    75%

  3. ((c))

    70%

  4. ((d))

    80%

  5. ((e))

    95%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50%

19

At what annual interest rate has SEBI instructed BSE to pay differential regulatory fees for past periods?

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    12%

  3. ((c))

    15%

  4. ((d))

    18%

  5. ((e))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10%

20

According to the MSME Development Act 2006, what is the maximum investment limit for micro-enterprises in plant/machinery/equipment?

  1. ((a))

    Rs 25 lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs 50 lakh

  3. ((c))

    Rs 1 crore

  4. ((d))

    Rs 2 crore

  5. ((e))

    Rs 5 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs 25 lakh

21

Which underwater geographical structures in the Indian Ocean were named by IHO and IOC-UNESCO in August 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Ashoka Seamount, Chandragupt Ridge, Kalpataru Ridge

  2. ((b))

    Maurya Trench, Gupta Plateau, Chola Canyon

  3. ((c))

    Buddha Basin, Akbar Ridge, Tipu Seamount

  4. ((d))

    Ganga Trench, Yamuna Ridge, Saraswati Plateau

  5. ((e))

    Himalaya Ridge, Vindhya Basin, Satpura Seamount

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ashoka Seamount, Chandragupt Ridge, Kalpataru Ridge

22

The Department of Biotechnology's BioE3 policy does NOT include which of the following in its definition of E3?

  1. ((a))

    Economy

  2. ((b))

    Environment

  3. ((c))

    Employment

  4. ((d))

    Energy

  5. ((e))

    None of those given as options

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Economy

23

Which of the following are revenue sources of the Consolidated Fund of India?

  1. ((a))

    Only Direct and Indirect Taxes

  2. ((b))

    Taxes, Government Services, and PSU Dividends

  3. ((c))

    Indirect Taxes, Direct Taxes, Government Services, PSU Profits, Disinvestment, Loan Recoveries

  4. ((d))

    Only Tax Revenues and Disinvestment

  5. ((e))

    Taxes, Disinvestment, and Foreign Grants

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Direct and Indirect Taxes

24

What percentage increase in private capital expenditure (capex) does RBI project for the financial year 2024-25?

  1. ((a))

    35%

  2. ((b))

    42%

  3. ((c))

    48%

  4. ((d))

    54%

  5. ((e))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35%

25

How many core promoter banks form the consortium that owns the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

26

What is the name of the Income Tax Return Form which can be filed by resident Individuals with income up to Rs. 50 lakh from Salaries, one house property, and income from other sources?

  1. ((a))

    ITR-1 (SAHAJ)

  2. ((b))

    ITR-2

  3. ((c))

    ITR-3

  4. ((d))

    ITR-5

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ITR-1 (SAHAJ)

27

Which country tops the 2024 global competitiveness rankings?

  1. ((a))

    Switzerland

  2. ((b))

    Denmark

  3. ((c))

    Singapore

  4. ((d))

    Sweden

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Switzerland

28

Under the National Pension System (NPS), what is the maximum percentage of an employee's basic salary that a private company can contribute?

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    12%

  3. ((c))

    14%

  4. ((d))

    16%

  5. ((e))

    18%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10%

29

Where is the headquarters of the Animal Welfare Board of India located?

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Ballabgarh, Haryana

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru, Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Chennai, Tamil Nadu

  5. ((e))

    Kolkata, West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New Delhi

30

What is Shikhar Dhawan famously known for in his cricket career?

  1. ((a))

    Most sixes in T20 cricket

  2. ((b))

    Fastest Test century on debut

  3. ((c))

    Highest individual ODI score

  4. ((d))

    Most catches in World Cups

  5. ((e))

    Longest Test innings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Most sixes in T20 cricket

31

Which sport is wrestler Aman Sehrawat associated with at the Paris Olympics 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Boxing

  2. ((b))

    Wrestling

  3. ((c))

    Shooting

  4. ((d))

    Badminton

  5. ((e))

    Athletics

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Boxing

32

What was the theme of India's first National Space Day observed on 23rd August 2024?

  1. ((a))

    "Reaching for the Stars: India's Space Odyssey"

  2. ((b))

    "Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India's Space Saga"

  3. ((c))

    "Beyond Boundaries: India's Cosmic Journey"

  4. ((d))

    "From Earth to Space: India's Technological Leap"

  5. ((e))

     "Chandrayaan to Gaganyaan: India's Space Ambitions"

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

"Reaching for the Stars: India's Space Odyssey"

33

How many digits does the ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) ID number contain?

  1. ((a))

    10 digits

  2. ((b))

    12 digits

  3. ((c))

    14 digits

  4. ((d))

    16 digits

  5. ((e))

    8 Digits

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 digits

34

What is the new upper limit for offline transactions in UPI Lite as increased by RBI in August 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 200

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 300

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 400

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 500

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 1000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 200

35

With which country has the RBI recently signed a local currency agreement?

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    UAE

  3. ((c))

    Russia

  4. ((d))

    Sri Lanka

  5. ((e))

    Malaysia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Japan

36

Which insurance companies retained their 'Domestic Systemically Important Insurers' (D-SIIs) status as per IRDAI's recent announcement?

  1. ((a))

    LIC and ICICI Lombard

  2. ((b))

    GIC Re and SBI Life

  3. ((c))

    LIC, GIC Re and New India Assurance

  4. ((d))

    HDFC Ergo and Bajaj Allianz

  5. ((e))

    United India Insurance and Oriental Insurance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LIC and ICICI Lombard

37

Which Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise signed an MoU with USA-based Petron Scientech Inc (PSI) to establish a bio-ethylene plant in India?

  1. ((a))

    ONGC

  2. ((b))

    BHEL

  3. ((c))

    BPCL

  4. ((d))

    NTPC

  5. ((e))

    GAIL India Limited

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ONGC

38

RBI has increased the threshold for bulk fixed deposits to Rs 3 crore from what previous amount for Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs)?

  1. ((a))

    Rs 1 crore

  2. ((b))

    Rs 1.5 crore

  3. ((c))

    Rs 2 crore

  4. ((d))

    Rs 2.5 crore

  5. ((e))

    Rs 5 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs 1 crore

39

Tata Power Solar Systems Limited (TPSSL) has partnered with which bank to offer financial solutions for solar panel purchases for residential and corporate customers?

  1. ((a))

    HDFC Bank

  2. ((b))

    State Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    ICICI Bank

  4. ((d))

    Axis Bank

  5. ((e))

    Punjab National Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HDFC Bank

40

The Government of India has signed a USD 200 million loan agreement with which institution to enhance solid waste management and sanitation in 100 cities across 8 states as part of Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) 2.0?

  1. ((a))

    World Bank

  2. ((b))

    Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

  3. ((c))

    Asian Development Bank

  4. ((d))

    New Development Bank

  5. ((e))

    Japan International Cooperation Agency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

World Bank

41

Which institution has provided a USD 1.5 billion loan for low carbon energy purposes?

  1. ((a))

    International Monetary Fund (IMF)

  2. ((b))

    Asian Development Bank (ADB)

  3. ((c))

    World Bank

  4. ((d))

    New Development Bank

  5. ((e))

    European Investment Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

42

Which financial and investment services provider has the RBI approved for conversion from an NBFC-Core Investment Company (CIC) to an NBFC-Investment and Credit Company (ICC)?

  1. ((a))

    L&T Finance

  2. ((b))

    Tata Capital Limited (TCL)

  3. ((c))

    Bajaj Finance

  4. ((d))

    Mahindra Finance

  5. ((e))

    Aditya Birla Capital

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

L&T Finance

43

What does 'B' stand for in NBSL (NPCI BHIM Services Limited)?

  1. ((a))

    Bharat

  2. ((b))

    Bhim

  3. ((c))

    Banking

  4. ((d))

    Blockchain

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bharat

44

What is the name of Life Insurance Corporation's (LIC) digital transformation initiative for which it has partnered with Infosys?

  1. ((a))

    DIVE (Digital Innovation and Value Enhancement)

  2. ((b))

    DRIVE (Digital Revolution and Innovation Ventures)

  3. ((c))

    LIVE (Leading Innovation and Value Excellence)

  4. ((d))

    NEXT (New Era Transformation)

  5. ((e))

    EDGE (Enhanced Digital Growth Evolution)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DIVE (Digital Innovation and Value Enhancement)

45

What is the name of the generative AI-powered Virtual Relationship Manager introduced by Bank of Baroda?

  1. ((a))

    ADI

  2. ((b))

    Gyan Sahay.AI

  3. ((c))

    Aditi

  4. ((d))

    BoB Genie

  5. ((e))

    Alexa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ADI

46

What is the amount of the penalty imposed by SEBI on Anmol Ambani for his failure to exercise due diligence in approving loans in the Reliance Home Finance matter?

  1. ((a))

    Rs 25 lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs 15 lakh

  3. ((c))

    Rs 50 lakh

  4. ((d))

    Rs 1 crore

  5. ((e))

    Rs 2 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs 25 lakh

47

What is India’s global rank in terms of installed renewable energy capacity as of 2024?

  1. ((a))

    2nd

  2. ((b))

    3rd

  3. ((c))

    4th

  4. ((d))

    5th

  5. ((e))

    6th

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2nd

48

In September 2024, What was the monetary penalty imposed by the RBI on Axis Bank for non-compliance with regulations?

  1. ((a))

    ₹1.91 crore

  2. ((b))

    ₹1 crore

  3. ((c))

    ₹2 crore

  4. ((d))

    ₹1.5 crore

  5. ((e))

    ₹1.75 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹1.91 crore

49

What is the name of the scholarship program launched by the SBI Foundation that provides financial support to meritorious students from underprivileged backgrounds?

  1. ((a))

    Asha Scholarship Program

  2. ((b))

    SBI Scholars Program

  3. ((c))

    Shiksha Scholarship Initiative

  4. ((d))

    Prerna Scholarship Program

  5. ((e))

    Udaan Scholarship Scheme

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Asha Scholarship Program

50

Which institution was recently notified as a "Public Financial Institution" under the Companies Act by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)?

  1. ((a))

    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

  2. ((b))

    National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID)

  3. ((c))

    Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

  4. ((d))

    Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL)

  5. ((e))

    Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

General English (40 questions)

51

Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically and contextually correct, and mark it as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    The teacher, who has been working at the school for nearly two decades, always encourage her students to pursue their passions beyond the classroom and explore new interests.

  2. ((b))

    After realizing that he had lost his wallet somewhere between the restaurant and the train station, Marcus retraced his steps in hopes of finding it before someone else does.

  3. ((c))

    The company, despite having faced several financial setbacks over the past year, remains committed to its core values and continues to support local communities through various outreach programs.

  4. ((d))

    The chef prepared an elaborate meal for the guests, which were impressed by the variety of flavors and the beautiful presentation on each plate.

  5. ((e))

    Every members of the orchestra practiced diligently for weeks leading up to the performance, ensuring that the concert would be a resounding success.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The teacher, who has been working at the school for nearly two decades, always encourage her students to pursue their passions beyond the classroom and explore new interests.

52

Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    The university’s new research facility, which features state-of-the-art laboratories and advanced equipment, attracts scholars from around the world.

  2. ((b))

    The committee members, after reviewing the proposals, agrees that the project should move forward to the next phase of development.

  3. ((c))

    The annual report highlights significant achievements in the areas of sustainability and community outreach.

  4. ((d))

    The manager, along with her team, has developed a comprehensive strategy to improve customer satisfaction.

  5. ((e))

    Recent advances in artificial intelligence have led to the creation of innovative tools that streamline complex processes.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The university’s new research facility, which features state-of-the-art laboratories and advanced equipment, attracts scholars from around the world.

53

Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    The orchestra’s performance, which included several complex compositions by contemporary composers, was met with enthusiastic applause from the audience.

  2. ((b))

    Upon completion of the training program, participants receive a certificate that acknowledges their new skills and competencies.

  3. ((c))

    The marketing team, after analyzing recent consumer trends and feedback, developed a multifaceted campaign aimed at increasing brand awareness and customer engagement.

  4. ((d))

    The newly published novel, though praised by critics for its literary merit, have not yet achieved significant commercial success.

  5. ((e))

    The conference schedule was packed with keynote speeches, panel discussions, and interactive workshops that provided valuable learning opportunities for all attendees.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The orchestra’s performance, which included several complex compositions by contemporary composers, was met with enthusiastic applause from the audience.

54

Directions: Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. BRICS refers to Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.

B. South Africa was added as its member in 2010.

C. The idea of the creation of BRICS was initiated by Russia.

D. BRICS is the bridge between the developed western and the developing countries.

E. A brick is a type of block used to build walls, pavements, and other elements in masonry construction.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

55

Directions: Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. On 7th August 2019, President Ram Nath Kovind declared the abrogation of Article 370 of the Indian constitution.

B. By abolishing article 370, teachers, doctors and other professionals can settle there bringing better facilities.

C. And also industries can be set up in the region and hence Jammu & Kashmir can be economically developed.

D. By abolishing this article, the government can act tough against the terrorism present in the region.

E. Malaysia Airlines Flight 370 was a scheduled international passenger flight operated by Malaysia Airlines that disappeared on 8 March 2014.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

56

Directions: Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. Mission Shakti, an anti-satellite missile test by India, was conducted on March 27, 2019.

B. There are many ancient shakti devotional songs and vibrational chants in the Hindu and Sikh traditions.

C. India is the 4th country after the US, Russia & China that have successfully tested A-SAT missiles.

D. The technology was indigenously developed and tested by India’s DRDO.

E. The missile engaged and destroyed a decommissioned Indian satellite in the Lower Earth Orbit at an altitude of nearly 300 km.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

57

Directions: Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. The Cauvery dispute started in the year 1892, between the Madras Presidency and the Princely state of Mysore.

B. The Treaty of Lisbon, which was signed by the EU member states on 13 December 2007, entered into force on 1 December 2009.

C. The dispute has been unresolved until the date and has become the longest-running water war in the world.

D. As a solution, a peace treaty was signed in 1956 after all the bilateral talks between the governments of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

E. The Supreme Court has now requested Karnataka Government to release 12,000 cusecs of Cauvery water per day to Tamil Nadu.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Solar power, heralded as one of the most sustainable and environmentally friendly energy sources, has seen remarkable advancements over the past few years. Unlike fossil fuels, solar energy harnesses the power of the sun to generate electricity, producing no greenhouse gas emissions during operation. This clean energy source has been crucial in the global fight against climate change, with many countries making substantial investments in solar infrastructure. One of the main advantages of solar power is its abundant nature. The sun provides more energy in one hour than the entire world consumes in a year. This makes solar power a virtually inexhaustible resource, especially advantageous in regions with high levels of sunlight, such as Australia and the Philippines. These countries have significantly expanded their solar capacities, reducing their reliance on imported fuels and enhancing energy security.

When compared to hydropower, solar power has several distinct benefits. While hydropower projects can generate large amounts of electricity, they often require substantial environmental alterations, such as damming rivers, which can disrupt local ecosystems and communities. Solar installations, on the other hand, have a much lower environmental impact and can be deployed on a smaller scale, making them suitable for urban and rural areas alike. In Canada, the integration of solar power with wind turbines has shown promising results. Hybrid systems, combining both solar and wind energy, can provide a more consistent electricity supply as they balance the intermittent availability of these resources. This hybrid approach helps mitigate the variability associated with renewable energies and contributes to a more stable and reliable power grid. Overall, the evolution of solar power technology and its integration with other renewable sources presents a compelling argument for its increased adoption worldwide. As countries strive to achieve their climate targets, solar energy will undoubtedly play a pivotal role in the transition to a sustainable energy future.

58

According to the passage, what makes solar power particularly advantageous in certain regions?

  1. ((a))

    It is less expensive to install than other renewable energy sources.

  2. ((b))

    It requires minimal maintenance.

  3. ((c))

    It is especially effective in cloudy regions.

  4. ((d))

    Its abundant nature in areas with high levels of sunlight.

  5. ((e))

    It integrates seamlessly with existing fossil fuel infrastructure.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is less expensive to install than other renewable energy sources.

59

Which of the following has NOT been mentioned as an advantage of solar power according to the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Low greenhouse gas emissions.

  2. ((b))

    Enhancement of energy security.

  3. ((c))

    Potential for integration with other renewable sources.

  4. ((d))

    Reduction of reliance on imported fuels.

  5. ((e))

    Production of energy at night.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low greenhouse gas emissions.

60

How can the author's tone regarding the adoption of solar power be best described?

  1. ((a))

    Cautiously optimistic

  2. ((b))

    Neutral

  3. ((c))

    Pessimistic

  4. ((d))

    Highly critical

  5. ((e))

    Enthusiastic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cautiously optimistic

61

Directions. In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/s contains an error and mark the appropriate option. If there is no error, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

  1. While the eventual ramp-up in vaccine distribution offers hope of a vigorous economic rebound in the second half of the year, the economy would have entered 2021 on an unsteady footing and suffer a modest contraction in the first quarter.
  2. If Trump trashed US allies as freeloaders and free riders, Biden would be rebuilding Asian alliances to produce a more effective coalition to persuade China to abide by the rules.
  3. If she had reached the set on time, she would have stopped the producer from taking such a harsh decision.
  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    Only III

  4. ((d))

    Both II and III

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

62

Directions. In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/s contains an error and mark the appropriate option. If there is no error, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

  1. If he had done his research correctly, he would have knew the accurate data of the survey.
  2. Unless the total amount exceeds ten thousand rupees, he will not get the discount.
  3. If Donald Trump wins the presidency, it would start a new age of endarkenment- a prophecy by the global media and pundits.
  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    Only II

  4. ((d))

    Both I and III

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

63

Directions. In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/s contains an error and mark the appropriate option. If there is no error, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

  1. When Biden takes the oath of office at noon on Wednesday, he will be facing a city under the protection of more than 20,000 National Guard soldiers.
  2. If the government passed that legislation, it will probably suffice to mop up any excess PhDs in engineering, biology, and other STEM fields.
  3. If I had learned cooking from my grandmother, I would have participated in a cooking show.
  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    Only III

  4. ((d))

    Both II and III

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

64

In the following sentence, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.

The auditors found a small, seemingly clear discrepancy in the company's financial records that was easily corrected by a junior accountant.

  1. ((a))

    Transparent; easy to see through.

  2. ((b))

    Obvious; easy to understand or interpret.

  3. ((c))

    Empty; free from objects or obstruction.

  4. ((d))

    Certain; without doubt or reservation.

  5. ((e))

    Bright; emitting or reflecting much light.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Transparent; easy to see through.

65

In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.

The Prime Minister's speech highlighted the country's need to invest in infrastructure as a key to economic recovery.

  1. ((a))

    An object used to lock or unlock something.

  2. ((b))

    Central or crucial importance.

  3. ((c))

    A set of answers to questions or problems.

  4. ((d))

     A characteristic tone or pitch of sound.

  5. ((e))

    A projecting piece used to guide or secure a part.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An object used to lock or unlock something.

66

In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.

The supermarket manager decided to liquidate the stock of seasonal winter clothing at a 50% discount to make room for new merchandise.

  1. ((a))

    A handle or support, as on a rifle.

  2. ((b))

    The line of lineage from which an individual descends.

  3. ((c))

    The capital or shares of a company.

  4. ((d))

    A liquid preparation used as a base for soups and sauces.

  5. ((e))

    A supply of goods kept on hand for sale.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A handle or support, as on a rifle.

67

In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.

The committee decided to table the proposal until more data could be gathered to make an informed decision.

  1. ((a))

    To postpone or delay consideration

  2. ((b))

    To discuss immediately

  3. ((c))

    To remove permanently

  4. ((d))

    To approve without discussion

  5. ((e))

    To reject completely

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To postpone or delay consideration

68

In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.

The manager’s brief response indicated that he was not interested in discussing the issue further.

  1. ((a))

    Friendly and welcoming

  2. ((b))

    Detailed and thorough

  3. ((c))

    Short and concise

  4. ((d))

    Confusing and unclear

  5. ((e))

    Emotional and persuasive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Friendly and welcoming

69

In the following sentences, one word is highlighted. Choose the option that correctly provides the meaning of the highlighted word as it is used in the context of the sentence.

The witness’s credible testimony helped the jury reach a fair verdict in the complicated legal case.

  1. ((a))

    Unclear and doubtful

  2. ((b))

    Emotional and biased

  3. ((c))

    Brief and incomplete

  4. ((d))

    Believable and trustworthy

  5. ((e))

    Detailed and lengthy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unclear and doubtful

Direction: In the passage given below there are 6 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e, No improvement required.

The rapid spread of digital technology has completely _______ (A) [eroded] the way people communicate across the world. With the rise of social media, individuals can now __________ (B) [digest] information instantly, regardless of their geographical location. However, this convenience has also led to the ___________ (C) [evaporation] of misinformation, which spreads much faster than verified news. To combat this, many organizations are trying to __________ (D) [paint] awareness programs that teach users how to identify fake information. But despite these efforts, a large number of users continue to __________ (E) [decorations] to online scams and misleading posts. Therefore, experts believe that only a combination of education and regulation can truly ___________ (F) [harvest] the problem effectively.

70

Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (A)?

  1. ((a))

    transformed

  2. ((b))

    destroyed

  3. ((c))

    modified

  4. ((d))

    reshaped

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

transformed

71

Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (B)?

  1. ((a))

    share

  2. ((b))

    consume

  3. ((c))

    spread

  4. ((d))

    circulate

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

share

72

Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (C)?

  1. ((a))

    circulation

  2. ((b))

    emergence

  3. ((c))

    dissemination

  4. ((d))

    outbreak

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

circulation

73

Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (D)?

  1. ((a))

    launch

  2. ((b))

    promote

  3. ((c))

    develop

  4. ((d))

    implement

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

launch

74

Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (E)?

  1. ((a))

    victim

  2. ((b))

    prey

  3. ((c))

    fall for

  4. ((d))

    fall victim

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

victim

75

Which of the following words most appropriately fits Blank (F)?

  1. ((a))

    address

  2. ((b))

    tackle

  3. ((c))

    eliminate

  4. ((d))

    solve

  5. ((e))

    No improvement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

address

John frequently arrives late to work and often has elaborate excuses for his tardiness. He usually blames external factors such as traffic or a family emergency, and while his explanations are plausible, his habitual lateness is becoming a concern for his colleagues and supervisors.

76

Based on the paragraph, what can be inferred about John’s reliability as an employee?

  1. ((a))

    John is exceptionally reliable and always on time.

  2. ((b))

    John is somewhat dependable but struggles with punctuality.

  3. ((c))

    John is known for always having a valid reason for his actions.

  4. ((d))

    John is highly unreliable due to his consistent tardiness.

  5. ((e))

    John is perceived as highly reliable by his coworkers despite his lateness.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

John is exceptionally reliable and always on time.

77

What does the passage suggest about John’s likelihood to change his behaviour in the future?

  1. ((a))

    John is likely to continue arriving late since he always has plausible excuses.

  2. ((b))

    John will improve his punctuality due to his genuine reasons for being late.

  3. ((c))

    John is not willing to change and will likely get worse over time.

  4. ((d))

    John will be disciplined and become punctual due to management's concerns.

  5. ((e))

    John’s excuses are taken at face value, so he doesn’t feel the need to change.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

John is likely to continue arriving late since he always has plausible excuses.

78

The given question has one blank, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

After reviewing the initial proposals, we need to __________ and discuss the details further next week.

  1. ((a))

    sign off

  2. ((b))

    circle back

  3. ((c))

    move forward

  4. ((d))

    celebrate

  5. ((e))

    close out

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

sign off

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Nuclear power has been a subject of intense debate for decades, characterised by discussions regarding its safety, environmental impact, and geopolitical implications. One of the main attractions of nuclear power is its ability to generate large amounts of electricity without emitting greenhouse gases. However, the issues of radioactive waste management and the risk of nuclear accidents remain significant concerns.

In recent years, nuclear power has also found a place in the realm of space exploration. The ability to provide consistent and reliable energy in the harsh environment of space makes nuclear power an _________ option for long-duration missions. NASA’s Perseverance rover, for example, utilises a radioisotope thermoelectric generator (RTG) that converts heat released by the decay of radioactive material into electricity. International dynamics further complicate the nuclear power landscape. China and the United States, being two of the world’s leading economies, have engaged in both collaboration and competition in the nuclear sector. While both nations recognise the potential of nuclear energy to fulfil their growing energy needs and meet climate goals, their relationship is often strained by broader geopolitical tensions. This dynamic interplay affects global policy, supply chains, and technological advancements in the nuclear industry. As the world contemplates its future energy sources amidst climate change concerns, nuclear power remains a contentious yet pivotal part of the discussion. Whether through improved safety measures, advanced reactor designs, or international cooperation, the evolution of nuclear power will be closely followed and highly influential in shaping the global energy landscape.

79

According to the passage, which of the following benefits of nuclear power is highlighted?

  1. ((a))

    It is highly cost-effective in the long run.

  2. ((b))

    It produces large amounts of electricity without emitting greenhouse gases.

  3. ((c))

    It can be implemented swiftly compared to renewable energy sources.

  4. ((d))

    It requires minimal initial investment.

  5. ((e))

    It eliminates the need for fossil fuels entirely.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is highly cost-effective in the long run.

80

The passage states that nuclear power is especially useful for space exploration because:

  1. ((a))

    It is lightweight and easy to transport.

  2. ((b))

    It can provide consistent and reliable energy in harsh environments.

  3. ((c))

    It is the most affordable source of energy for space missions.

  4. ((d))

    It poses no risk to the surrounding environment in space.

  5. ((e))

    It requires less maintenance than solar panels.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It is lightweight and easy to transport.

81

Which of the following nations are identified in the passage as leading the charge in the nuclear sector?

  1. ((a))

    Russia and Germany

  2. ((b))

    Japan and South Korea

  3. ((c))

    India and Brazil

  4. ((d))

    China and the United States

  5. ((e))

    France and Canada

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Russia and Germany

82

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) NASA’s Perseverance rover uses solar panels to generate power.

B) The relationship between China and the United States in the nuclear sector is unaffected by geopolitical tensions.

C) Nuclear power is seen as a significant part of meeting climate goals.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and C

  5. ((e))

    A and B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

83

What can be deduced as the author's tone regarding nuclear power in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Skeptical

  2. ((b))

    Oppositional

  3. ((c))

    Balanced

  4. ((d))

    Indifferent

  5. ((e))

    Optimistic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Skeptical

84

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: "The ability to provide consistent and reliable energy in the harsh environment of space makes nuclear power an ________ option for long-duration missions."

  1. ((a))

    fanciful

  2. ((b))

    futuristic

  3. ((c))

    renewable

  4. ((d))

    attractive

  5. ((e))

    inhibitory

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fanciful

85

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "pivotal" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Marginal

  2. ((b))

    Critical

  3. ((c))

    Supplementary

  4. ((d))

    Redundant

  5. ((e))

    Negligible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Marginal

86

Directions. In the question given below three sentences are given and are named as I, II, and III. You have to determine which sentence/s contains an error and mark the appropriate option. If there is no error, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

  1. Unless China's economy doesn’t crash or its system cracks, it will fund defence and intelligence budgets more than the United States.
  2. If they achieved success, they will even encourage China to modify its current course and join the new consensus.
  3. Had I liked your idea for the ad campaign, I would have made you the head of the ad unit.
  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    Only III

  4. ((d))

    Both II and III

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent scientific report has brought attention to a fascinating phenomenon observed in the plant kingdom, referred to as "sleeping species." These are plant species that remain dormant for extended periods, sometimes for years or even decades, before germinating and growing. This trait, while still not completely understood, offers remarkable insights into plant survival strategies and ecosystem dynamics. "Sleeping species," such as some types of desert plants, possess seeds that can withstand prolonged adverse conditions. These seeds remain viable until the environment becomes favourable for growth, at which point they break dormancy and begin to germinate. This survival strategy ensures that the species can thrive even in unpredictable and harsh habitats by synchronizing their growth with optimal environmental conditions.

One well-documented case is the desert ephemerals found in arid regions. These plants can lie dormant as seeds under the scorching sun for years, waiting for the rare occurrence of sufficient rainfall. When these conditions finally materialise, the seeds germinate rapidly, completing their life cycle in a short span before the harsh conditions return. This adaptive mechanism highlights the resilience and ingenuity of plant life in facing environmental challenges. Scientists are particularly interested in understanding the genetic and biochemical mechanisms that regulate seed dormancy and germination in these "sleeping species." The study of these mechanisms could have significant implications for agriculture, particularly in developing crops that are more resilient to climate variability and extreme weather events. It could also provide insights into conserving biodiversity by revealing how plants can survive in changing environments. The discovery and study of "sleeping species" remind us that there is still much to learn about the natural world. These plants not only contribute to biodiversity but also offer potential solutions to some of the pressing challenges posed by climate change and environmental degradation. Their unique life strategies underscore the complexity and adaptability of life on Earth, prompting further research and exploration into the secrets of plant survival.

87

According to the passage, "sleeping species" are plant species that:

  1. ((a))

    Grow continuously without any dormancy period.

  2. ((b))

    Germinate only in the presence of specific pollinators.

  3. ((c))

    Remain dormant for extended periods before growing.

  4. ((d))

    Require a symbiotic relationship with fungi to thrive.

  5. ((e))

    Can survive only in tropical climates.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Grow continuously without any dormancy period.

88

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) "Sleeping species" seeds germinate only after a fire.

B) Desert ephemerals complete their life cycle quickly after germination.

C) The study of seed dormancy has limited implications for agriculture.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and B

  5. ((e))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

89

How can the author's tone regarding the potential of "sleeping species" be best described?

  1. ((a))

    Skeptical

  2. ((b))

    Cautiously optimistic

  3. ((c))

    Neutral

  4. ((d))

    Pessimistic

  5. ((e))

    Enthusiastic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Skeptical

90

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "phenomenon" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Secret

  2. ((b))

    Event

  3. ((c))

    Routine

  4. ((d))

    Chaos

  5. ((e))

    Theory

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Secret

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude (50 questions)

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Seven persons form a family of three generations – K, L, M, N, O, P and Q were born in different years viz,- 1973, 1980, 1984, 1989, 1995, 2002, 2010. Age of the each person is calculated from the base year 2024. All the given information is not necessarily in same order.

Note – It is assumed that the husband is older than the wife.

The difference between ages of P and the sister – in – law of O is 7 years. N is the grandson of M. Q, who is the son – in – law of K, has an age which is a multiple of 5. The difference between ages of K and P is equal to the age of P. L is the aunt of N.  O has only one brother. M is the father – in – law of L’s brother. The sum of the ages of L and M is 80. There is no single parent of a child that is either both of them alive or none.

91

Who among the following is the father of N?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

92

What is the difference between ages of Q and L?

  1. ((a))

    15 years

  2. ((b))

    9 years

  3. ((c))

    13 years

  4. ((d))

    11 years

  5. ((e))

    7 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 years

93

Who among the following born in the year 1989?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    L

  5. ((e))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

94

What is the age of M and he is related to P?

  1. ((a))

    44 years , Brother

  2. ((b))

    40 years, Uncle

  3. ((c))

    50 years, Father

  4. ((d))

    45 years, Brother - in - law

  5. ((e))

    51 years, Father

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44 years , Brother

95

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding O?

  1. ((a))

    O is the only son of M.

  2. ((b))

    O is the sister of Q.

  3. ((c))

    L is the sister of O.

  4. ((d))

    O is the mother of N.

  5. ((e))

    K is the father of O.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

O is the only son of M.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

A certain number of persons sit on a square table and a circular table which is inscribed in the square table that is a circular table is inside the square table. In circular table, there are eight seats present and persons sit on the circular table faces towards the centre and eight seats also present on square table in such way four seats are present at the corners and persons sit at the corner faces towards the centre and four seats are present at the middle of the each side of the square table and persons sit on the middle of the side of square table faces away from the centre. Each person on square table sits opposite to the one who sits on a circular table.

F sits second to the right of Q who faces towards the centre. Y faces the one who sits opposite to him on different table. No one sits opposite to T on the same table but P sits behind that seat. R sits opposite to the one who sits immediate left to U. No one sits opposite to V in different table. K faces U and sit on the same table. There is a vacant seat adjacent to T. U sits third to the left of V. Both the seats adjacent to Q are occupied and both the seats adjacent to R are unoccupied. V and Y sit on different tables. P and U sit on different tables. S faces neither towards the centre nor sits opposite to F and Q. A sits second to the left of R and adjacent to P.

96

Who among the following sits opposite to A on the different table ?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q

97

In a certain way, T is related to R and U is related to A and then in the same way V is related to whom?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    Y

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

98

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

  1. ((a))

    There is a one vacant seat between T and K.

  2. ((b))

    A sits immediate left to P.

  3. ((c))

    R sits second to the left of S.

  4. ((d))

    F sits immediate left to U.

  5. ((e))

    More than one option.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

There is a one vacant seat between T and K.

99

How many persons sit between F and T when counted from the right of F?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    One

  5. ((e))

    More than three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

None

100

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding V?

A) V sits immediate right to K.

B) No one sits to the immediate left of V.

C) V sits second to the right of the person who sits opposite to A.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Both A and B

  4. ((d))

    Both B and C

  5. ((e))

    Both A and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are designated at different posts viz, Assistant, Assistant Manager (AM), Deputy Manager (DM), Manager, Senior Manager (SM), Assistant General Manager (AGM), Deputy General Manager (DGM), General Manager (GM). Designations are given in increasing order of seniority such as Assistant is the junior most whereas General Manager is the senior most designations. They play different sports such as Badminton, Basketball, Cricket, Football, Golf, Squash, Tennis and Volleyball. All the given information is not necessarily in same order.

There are only two designations between B and A. D is senior to G but junior to F. The number of persons senior to the one who likes Football is same as the number of persons junior to the one who likes Squash. D is immediate junior to the one who is immediate junior to the person who likes Golf. B is immediate senior to the one who likes Squash who is junior to Deputy Manager. The person who likes Cricket is two posts senior to G. As many persons are senior to the one who likes Badminton as many persons junior to the one who likes Basketball. E likes neither Badminton nor Volleyball. C is junior to H but senior to F who likes Tennis. E is junior to G.

101

Who among the following is the DGM and likes which sports?

  1. ((a))

    A, Golf

  2. ((b))

    F, Tennis

  3. ((c))

    C, Badminton

  4. ((d))

    H, Football

  5. ((e))

    C, Football

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, Golf

102

As many persons are junior to the one who likes squash as many persons are senior to whom?

  1. ((a))

    H

  2. ((b))

    The one who likes Football.

  3. ((c))

    The one who likes Golf.

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    Both 2 and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H

103

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 

  1. ((a))

    A is senior to AGM.

  2. ((b))

    D likes Volleyball.

  3. ((c))

    Only three persons are designated between C and F.

  4. ((d))

    E is the Assistant.

  5. ((e))

    More than one option.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A is senior to AGM.

104

Who among the following person likes Volleyball?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    G

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

105

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

A) H is immediate senior to the one who likes Football.

B) G likes Squash.

C) A is senior to F.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B

  2. ((b))

    Both B and C

  3. ((c))

    Both A and C

  4. ((d))

    None of these

  5. ((e))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and B

106

If in the word "KNOWLEDGE", each consonant are replaced with the letter which comes two place before it in the alphabetical series and vowels are replaced with the letters which comes three place after it in the alphabetical series then rearrange all the letters in reverse alphabetical series then which letters comes at the fourth position from right end?

  1. ((a))

    J

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    L

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

J

Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

A Q # Z 2 5 N * ) U S 7 % D 3 J R & 4 ^ K 9 Y P G F 1 % 5 H ! V 7 E

Step 1: The letters which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by the number will be written in right end after E in alphabetical order.

Step 2: The element which is immediately followed by the letter and immediately preceded by an odd number will interchange its position with the immediate next element.

Step 3: The first eleven elements from the right end will be written at the start of the series in reverse order that is last element from the right end will become first element from the left end and so on in same order.

Note: (STEP 2 is applied after STEP 1 and STEP 3 is applied after STEP 2).

107

How many such pairs are present in which numbers are immediately preceded by symbol and followed by letter after the rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    One

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

108

Which of the following element comes third to the right of the element which comes eleventh from the left end in Step 2?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    %

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S

109

How many consonants are present between the sixth element from the left end and fourth symbol from the right end in Step 3?

  1. ((a))

    One 

  2. ((b))

    Two 

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One 

Direction: In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given.

The resultant number in each row is to be works out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.

I. If the even number is followed by an even number then they are subtracted with each other.

II. If the even number is followed by an odd number then the second number is multiplied by the first number.

III. If the odd number is followed by an odd number then they are added with each other.

IV. If the odd number is followed by an even number then the second number is divided by first number.

V. If the odd number is followed by an odd perfect square number then the second number is subtracted by first number.

110

What is the difference of the resultant of the two rows?

173415
35718
  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    11

  5. ((e))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

111

What is the remainder if the resultant of the first row is divided by the resultant of the second row?

75613
438112
  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    2

  5. ((e))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

112

Find the average of the resultant of the two rows.

32312
25175
  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    192

  3. ((c))

    185

  4. ((d))

    150

  5. ((e))

    147

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200

113

Find the sum of the resultant of the two rows.

174920
2487
  1. ((a))

    140

  2. ((b))

    133

  3. ((c))

    112

  4. ((d))

    124

  5. ((e))

    174

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

140

114

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Seven friends B, F, G, K, O, P and R went to showroom to purchase a smartphone in a week starting from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in same order. R went to buy smartphone one of the days before G. Neither B nor P went to buy smartphone on Wednesday and Monday. At least two persons buy smartphone between F and K. G buys after two days of P. Only one person bought smartphone after the one who bought just after K. Not more than one person bought smartphone between B and F.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

  1. ((a))

    Box B bought smartphone on Tuesday.

  2. ((b))

    Box P bought smartphone between R and K.

  3. ((c))

    O is the last person who bought smartphone.

  4. ((d))

    More than three persons bought smartphone between B and O.

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Box B bought smartphone on Tuesday.

115

Direction: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statement and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statement I: The IUCN has identified more than 1,000 species of fungi as threatened with extinction.

Statement II: Most of the countries are cutting the tree for timber, agriculture and infrastructure. It releases nitrogen and ammonia run – off in the water.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements I and II are independent causes.

  2. ((b))

    Statement I is the effect and statement II is the cause.

  3. ((c))

    Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.

  5. ((e))

    Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements I and II are independent causes.

116

Direction: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statement and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statement I: Fugitive emissions like methane leaks from oil and gas sector constitute significant environmental concerns.

Statement II: The emission of methane gas contributed about a quarter of the cumulative warming of global temperature.

  1. ((a))

    Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.

  2. ((b))

    Both statements I and II are independent causes.

  3. ((c))

    Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.

  5. ((e))

    Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.

117

Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.

Statement:

The idea behind ‘smart villages’ is to use digital technology as a catalyst for comprehensive and sustainable rural development, while preserving their natural essence. Agriculture 4.0 looks to digitalize and automize crop and livestock production by use of artificial intelligence to address agricultural and environmental challenges such as weeding, pest control, and harvesting.

Inferences:

I. The digitally technology help the farmers to assess their crops growth and act accordingly.

II. Digital technology helps to boost their livelihood and economic growth.

  1. ((a))

    Either I or II is implicit

  2. ((b))

    Only I is implicit

  3. ((c))

    Neither I nor II is implicit

  4. ((d))

    Only II is implicit

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II is implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Either I or II is implicit

118

Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.

Statement:

Invasive species like Lantana camara and Senna spectabilis (weeping cassia) unleash a form of chemical warfare as their shed leaves decompose and change the chemical composition of the soil, rendering it unsuitable for the growth of other plant species. Lantana camara, introduced around 200 – 250 years ago as an ornamental plant, and plants likes Prosopis julifora (mesquite), extensively propagated for their year – round greenery in arid and semi – arid regions of India.

Inferences:

I. There is a need to limit the growth of these invasive species as it reduces the fertility of the soil.

II. These species need to be conserved as it can sustain in any regions of India and create beautiful scenery.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Either I or II follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Only II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

119

Direction: The passage given below is followed by two statements. Choose the one which can be the correct course of actions of following the passage.

Himalayan towns experience a massive influx of tourists, often far exceeding their resident population. This puts enormous strain on the fragile environment, depleting natural resources and overwhelming infrastructure like sanitation systems. For example, Bhimtal, Uttarakhand, sees 200,000 annual visitors compared to only 15,000 residents. Most Himalayan towns are unaware of their load – bearing capacity or carrying capacity and influx of tourists and unregulated construction activities make them even more vulnerable to disasters.  

Course of Actions:

I. Limit construction in all areas and use climate data to identify future vulnerabilities.

II. With hilly areas seeing a large influx of floating populations, there is a need for sound tourism and resource management strategies, including for traffic, water and waste.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II follows

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Only II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

A@B means A is either 8 meter north or 8 meter south of B.

A%B  means A is either 10 meter east or 10 meter west of B.

A&1B  means A is 5 meter west of B.

A&2B  means A is 5 meter east of B.

A#B  means A is 4 meter south of B.

A*B  means A is southeast of B.

A$B  means A is northwest of B.

Note:

  1. O, K and N form a vertical straight line.
  2. No two points overlap with each other.

N@O, L&1P, P%O, L#S, S&2K, K%M and N$M.

120

What is the direction of point N with respect to point P?

  1. ((a))

    North

  2. ((b))

    Southwest

  3. ((c))

    Southeast

  4. ((d))

    West

  5. ((e))

    Northwest

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North

121

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Point N is in south direction with respect to point O.

  2. ((b))

    Point S is in Northeast direction to point P.

  3. ((c))

    Point M is in east direction to point K.

  4. ((d))

    Point O is in North direction to point K.

  5. ((e))

    Point K is in Southwest direction to point P.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Point N is in south direction with respect to point O.

122

In a certain way, N is related to S and K is related to L then which among the following point is related to S ?

  1. ((a))

    Point M

  2. ((b))

    Point K

  3. ((c))

    Point O

  4. ((d))

    Point L

  5. ((e))

    Point P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Point M

123

In the given choices, if it is possible to make a meaningful word by using the second letter of the first word, fourth letter of the second word, first letter of the third word and fifth letter of the fourth word, then which among the following choice can make a meaningful word ?

  1. ((a))

    CAVIL, DECOY, FLOUT, INDICT

  2. ((b))

    JAUNT, KUDOS, MELEE, NEXUS

  3. ((c))

    PITHY, QUELL, REALM, SOLAR

  4. ((d))

    TACIT, VOGUE, WIELD, YEARN

  5. ((e))

    ABASH, BUXOM, DOYEN, ELITE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CAVIL, DECOY, FLOUT, INDICT

124

Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.

In a family of seven members who are A, B, C, D, F, G and H, there are only two married couples and either both or none of the parent is alive. How D is related to H?

Statement I: C is the uncle of F who has only one brother. A is the son – in – law of H. B is the grandmother of D. G is the mother of F’s brother. C has only one sister who is married.

Statement II: B has two child one son and a daughter. H is the husband of C’s sister’s mother. D is the nephew of G’s brother. G has two sons and she is a female member.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the given question. 

  2. ((b))

    Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

  4. ((d))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question

  5. ((e))

    Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the given question. 

125

Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.

Six boxes E, L, M, S, V and X are placed one over another from bottom to top but not necessarily in same order. Which of the following box is placed just below the Box M?

Statement I: Three boxes are placed between Box V and Box X. Box L is placed two boxes above Box S. Box E is placed adjacent to Box X. Box V is placed above the box L.

Statement II: Box M is placed three boxes above Box X. Two boxes are placed between Box V and Box S. Box L is placed above the Box E which is placed just below the box S.

  1. ((a))

    Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

  2. ((b))

    Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question 

  4. ((d))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

  5. ((e))

    Both statements I and II together are required to answer the given question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

126

Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.

Six persons L, N, P, R, T and V went to amusement park on six different days starting from Monday to Saturday but not necessarily in same order. Who among the following person went to amusement park on Thursday?

Statement I: Only two persons went to the park between P and V. L goes to the park one of the days after N. R goes to the park before V. T goes after N. Neither P nor V is the last person.

Statement II: Three persons went to the park between N and T. R goes to the park neither on Thursday nor on Friday. P goes to the park before L who goes to the park before T.

  1. ((a))

    Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

  2. ((b))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question

  3. ((c))

    Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the given question

  4. ((d))

    Statement I and II together is not sufficient to answer the given question.

  5. ((e))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

127

Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.

In a certain code language, “Everyone loves flowers” is written as “cu  ix  st”? What could be the possible code for the word ‘flowers’ in the given code language?

Statement I: “Riya wears a pink dress” is written as “uh  fh  mr  yl  nk” and “Sia makes a dress” is written as “jd  uh  eo  nk”.

Statement II: “Riya made the picture beautiful” is written as “tq  zb  hg  am  rv” and “Pink flowers are beautiful” is written as “am  yl  st  bi”.

  1. ((a))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given questions while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

  2. ((b))

    Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I and statement II together is not sufficient to answer the given question.

  4. ((d))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

  5. ((e))

    Both statement I and II together are required to answer the given question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given questions while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

A number arrangement machine, when given an input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement.

Input: 27 key are 75 56 ten 40 sip fan 17

Step I: 71 27 key are 75 56 40 sip fan net

Step II: pis 71 27 key are 75 56 fan net 04

Step III: 72 pis 71 are 75 56 fan net 04 yek

Step IV: naf 72 pis 71 are 75 net 04 yek 65

Step V: 57 naf 72 pis 71 net 04 yek 65 rea

Step V is the last step.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions.

Input: 34 lie 26 sun dim 27 15 kim yes 61

128

How many elements are there between the 3rd odd number from the left end and 'nus' in Step II of the given input?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

129

As per the given input, 'mik' is related to '72' in Step IV and 'sey' is related to '62' in Step II in a certain way. Then in the same way in Step I, 'kim' is related to which of the following element?

  1. ((a))

    dim

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    sey

  4. ((d))

    61

  5. ((e))

    sun

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

dim

130

Which of the following is the 5th element to the left of the 8th element from the left end in Step V of the given input?

  1. ((a))

    16 

  2. ((b))

    mik

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    nus

  5. ((e))

    51

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16 

131

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE as per the given arrangement?

A) There is only one number between the fifth element from the left end and 'sey' in the Step III of the given input.

B) As many elements are there to the left of 'nus' in Step III as to the right of '43' in Step IV of the given input.

C) The sum of '62' and the second element from the right of Step V is more than the sum of '72' and the second element from the left of Step II of the given input.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only C

  3. ((c))

    All of these

  4. ((d))

    Only B

  5. ((e))

    Only B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

132

In step III, what is the difference between the 4th element and the 7th element from left end?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    33

  3. ((c))

    27

  4. ((d))

    25

  5. ((e))

    29

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35

133

Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.

Statement:

The idea of Artificial Intelligence (AI) stems from replicating the problem – solving ability of humans in machine. AI models of artificial intelligence evolved to ‘deep learning’, ‘reinforcement learning’, ‘machine learning’, and many others, one of which is Generative Artificial Intelligence (GAI). GAI is an extension of existing models of artificial and operates on Large Language Models, that have been trained on huge data – sets of texts or other information. Government uses GAI in governance in citizen interaction, real – time reports etc.

Assumptions:

I. GAI can decrease flexibility and responsiveness while citizen’s engagement with the government.

II. GAI can be used to aid decision making by using real – time analytical reports which are possible by processing large volumes of data.

  1. ((a))

    Either I or II implicit

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II implicit

  3. ((c))

    Only I implicit

  4. ((d))

    Only II implicit

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Either I or II implicit

134

Direction: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statement and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statement I: With massive digital illiteracy, the population is vulnerable to phishing attacks and online scams. It also leads to data security and potential misuse of personal information for a country pioneering in digital payments.

Statement II: There is a need to promote digital literacy and awareness about its potential threats.

  1. ((a))

    Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.

  2. ((b))

    Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect.

  3. ((c))

    Both statements I and II are independent causes.

  4. ((d))

    Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

  5. ((e))

    Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.

135

Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.

Statement:

India is the second largest food producer in the world. However, the existing infrastructure can accommodate only 47% of the produce. According to the National Academy of Agricultural Sciences, storage is the leading cause of post – harvest losses for all kinds of food in India. To enhance food grain storage capacity in cooperative sector the new storage plan is based on the hub and spoke model. The plan will let cooperatives set up decentralised storage facilities across the country.

Inferences:

I. The new model helps India with the better storage facility which will help to preserve the food grains for long duration.

II. The new model gives all the power to control and manage the store house to the government of India.

  1. ((a))

    Only II implicit

  2. ((b))

    Either I or II implicit

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II implicit

  4. ((d))

    Only I implicit

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only II implicit

136

Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit from the given statement.

Statement:

Geographical Indications (GI) are intellectual property rights that recognize the unique character of goods that originate from a specific geographical location. This uniqueness is often attributed to a combination of factors such as climate, soil and the traditional knowledge and skills of the local producers. 

Assumptions:

I. Consumers prefer genuine products and GI provides the assurance of authenticity.

II. GI tag helps the local products to be successfully marketed and command premium prices only domestically.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is implicit

  2. ((b))

    Neither I nor II is implicit

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II is implicit

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II is implicit

  5. ((e))

    Only II is implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is implicit

137

Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide which of the inferences is/are implicit from the given statement.

Statement: As of 2024, approximately 47% of primary school pupils globally benefited from school meals. However, the nutritional quality of these meals is often inadequate. UNESCO stresses that improving meal quality is essential for reducing child undernourishment and supporting academic performance. Studies indicate that nutritious meals can boost enrollment and attendance rates.

Inference:

I. Presently the nutritional quality of school meals is not good enough for child’s nourishment.

II. A healthy nutritious food helps in the mental growth of the students that boost their academic performances.

  1. ((a))

    Only I implicit

  2. ((b))

    Either I or II implicit

  3. ((c))

    Only II implicit

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II implicit

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I implicit

138

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight boxes R, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are placed one over another from bottom to top but not necessarily in same order. Box R is placed two boxes above the box T. Two boxes are placed between the box X and Box Y. Box V is placed one of the boxes above the box U. Box T and Box X are placed adjacent to each other. Box W is below the box Y. Box R is above the Box Y but below the Box Z. At least two boxes are present between Box T and Box V which is not at top most position.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A) Box V is placed just below the box R.

B) Only two boxes are placed between Box T and Box W.

C) Only two boxes are placed below the box Y.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both B and C

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Series 1: B ) F ^ * 9 T A & G U 3 R M K ( 6 S 2 W N E

Series 2: O & K 7 T K % D A @ F J 4 P W Y 3 # H Q S

Series 3: # 2 A ) H 7 K I $ W 9 D M J 8 4 G ^ 8 * Y E C

Step 1: Remove all the numbers which are immediately followed or preceded by the symbols from all the series.

Step 2: The elements which are followed by the number and preceded by the letters will be written at the right end in same order of their occurrence.

Note: Both the steps will be followed in each series and Step 2 is followed by Step 1.

139

Which of the following element comes fifth to the left of the tenth element from the right end of the series 3 after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    $

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    I

  5. ((e))

    K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

W

140

How many letters as per alphabetical series will come between the sixth element from the left end of the series 1 and eight element from the right end of the series 2 after the rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The table below provides information about the ratio of the number of pens to sharpeners in three different boxes (P, Q, and R), the difference between the probabilities of selecting one pen and one eraser from each respective box, and the total number of erasers and sharpeners in each box.

BoxesRatio (Pens : Sharpeners)Difference between Probability of Picking a Pen and an EraserErasers + Sharpeners
P3 : 13/115
Q4 : 32/910
R6 : 71/1812

 

Note: The number of pens in each box is greater than the number of erasers.

141

Find the ratio of the average number of pens in boxes P and Q together to the total number of sharpeners in boxes Q and R together.

  1. ((a))

    4:9

  2. ((b))

    5:11

  3. ((c))

    7:13

  4. ((d))

    9:17

  5. ((e))

    6:7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4:9

142

Find the probability of selecting two sharpeners from any one of the three boxes.

  1. ((a))

    79/1050

  2. ((b))

    77/1115

  3. ((c))

    79/935

  4. ((d))

    77/935

  5. ((e))

    75/977

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

79/1050

143

If the total number of erasers in all three boxes is k, and the total number of pens in all three boxes is m, find the value of (m – k).

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

144

The total number of sharpeners in boxes P and Q together is what percent of the total number of erasers in boxes P and R together?

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    100%

  3. ((c))

    30%

  4. ((d))

    20%

  5. ((e))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%

145

The number of sharpeners in box Q is x times the number of erasers in box P, and the number of pens in box R is y% more than the number of erasers in box Q.

Which of the following statements about x and y is/are correct?

(i) Both x and y are prime numbers.

(ii) (1500x+100y) is a multiple of 80.

(iii) xy/5=20

  1. ((a))

    Only (i) and (ii)

  2. ((b))

    Only (i) and (iii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (iii)

  4. ((d))

    Only (ii) and (iii)

  5. ((e))

    All (i), (ii), and (iii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (i) and (ii)

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The following data shows the number of male and female visitors on three different days – Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday.

The total number of visitors on Monday is 70. The number of female visitors on Monday is 40% less than that on Tuesday. The number of male visitors on Tuesday is 1.5 times the number of female visitors on Monday. The number of male visitors on Monday is 8 more than the number of female visitors on Wednesday. The number of male visitors on Wednesday is 10 less than that on Tuesday. The total number of female visitors on all three days together is 112.

Further, the number of female visitors on Thursday is twice the number of female visitors on Wednesday. The number of male visitors on Thursday is 20% less than the number of male visitors on Tuesday.

146

The number of female visitors on Wednesday is approximately what percent of the total number of visitors on Tuesday?

  1. ((a))

    38%

  2. ((b))

    34%

  3. ((c))

    27%

  4. ((d))

    44%

  5. ((e))

    41%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

38%

147

What is the difference between the number of male visitors on Monday and Wednesday?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

148

Find the approximate average number of visitors on all three given days (Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday).

  1. ((a))

    79

  2. ((b))

    71

  3. ((c))

    77

  4. ((d))

    78

  5. ((e))

    73

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

79

149

What is the total number of visitors on Thursday?

  1. ((a))

    150

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    80

  4. ((d))

    105

  5. ((e))

    116

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150

150

For how many years was the sum invested at simple interest (SI)?

Statements:

I. The ratio of the sum invested to the interest earned under simple interest is 20 : 9.

II. If the same sum is invested at compound interest (CI) at 10% per annum for 2 years, the interest received is twice the interest earned under simple interest.

III. The total amount received is ₹58,000.

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II together are sufficient

  2. ((b))

    Only II and III together are sufficient

  3. ((c))

    Only I and III together are sufficient

  4. ((d))

    All statements together are sufficient

  5. ((e))

    Even all statements together are not sufficient

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and II together are sufficient

151

Find the total amount of initial investment.

Statements:

I. R and S invested Rs. P and Rs. (P + 800) respectively in a partnership. R invested for 2 months longer than S.

II. The ratio of their profit shares is 2 : 3.

III. R’s share of profit after one year is ₹35,000.

Which of the statements together are sufficient to find the total initial investment?

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II together

  2. ((b))

    Only II and III together

  3. ((c))

    Only I and III together

  4. ((d))

    All together are sufficient

  5. ((e))

    All together are not sufficient

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and II together

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The given series follows a specific pattern:

4, 7, 22, 87, 7P + 16, Q

152

Find the value of Q - P.

  1. ((a))

    2645

  2. ((b))

    2640

  3. ((c))

    1575

  4. ((d))

    2555

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2645

153

If √(P + 4) equals the difference between the roots of the quadratic equation z2 − hz − 15 = 0, find the value of √(h + 2).

  1. ((a))

    ±2

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

±2

154

Which of the following statements about P is/are false?

I. P is exactly divisible by the third term of the given series.

II. (P + 5) is a perfect square.

III. P is a multiple of 5.

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Only I & II

  3. ((c))

    Only II & III

  4. ((d))

    Only I & III

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

155

If another series follows the same pattern and its first term is 2 and second term is 3, find the fourth term of this new series.

  1. ((a))

    88

  2. ((b))

    29

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    34

  5. ((e))

    0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

88

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The pie chart below shows the percentage distribution of unsold toys for four shops: A, B, C, and D. The total number of unsold toys across all shops is 30.

The table below provides the difference between the number of metallic toys sold and plastic toys sold by each shop.

ShopsMetallic Toys Sold - Plastic Toys Sold
A16
B14
C20
D8

 

Notes:

  1. Total toys manufactured by shops A, B, C, and D are 40, 33, 42, and 43, respectively.
  2. Each shop manufactures two types of toys: metallic and plastic.
156

If the number of plastic toys manufactured by shop B is 1/3 of its total manufactured toys, find the sum of unsold metallic toys by shop B and the total plastic toys sold by shops C and D.

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    25

  5. ((e))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36

157

If the number of unsold toys by shop X is P units more than shop A, the number of metallic toys sold by shop X is Q units more than shop C, and the number of plastic toys sold by shop X is 4. If shop X manufactures an average number of toys of shops A and C and sold 15 toys less than manufactured, find the value of P³.

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

158

If shop D sells each metallic toy at Rs.200 and each plastic toy at Rs.150, calculate the total revenue earned by it.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 4800

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 7200

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 8400

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 6000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 5400

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 4800

159

If the number of metallic toys unsold by shop C is 3/4 of the total plastic toys sold by it, find the total number of plastic toys manufactured by shop C.

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

160

If the ratio of metallic toys sold by shop C to shop E is 7:5, and the number of metallic toys sold by shop E is 20% of its total manufactured toys, while the number of plastic toys sold by shop E is twice the metallic toys sold by it, find the difference between the number of unsold toys by shop E and shop B.

  1. ((a))

    34

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    45

  5. ((e))

    46

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

34

161

If the ratio of metallic to plastic toys manufactured by shop A is 3:2, find the percentage of plastic toys unsold by shop A with respect to the number of metallic toys sold by shop D.

  1. ((a))

    40.33%

  2. ((b))

    37.5%

  3. ((c))

    41.66%

  4. ((d))

    55.55%

  5. ((e))

    64.33%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40.33%

162

A person invested Rs. 5500 in Scheme A at a simple interest rate of 12% per annum for t years. He then invested twice the interest earned from Scheme A in Scheme B, which offers 15% simple interest per annum for the same period. If the interest earned from Scheme B amounts to Rs. 4950, find the value of t.

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

163

The profit obtained from selling 2 articles is equal to the cost price of 4 articles. The ratio of the marked price to the selling price of each article is 6 : 5. Find the ratio of the marked price to the cost price of one article.

  1. ((a))

    5 : 3

  2. ((b))

    3 : 5

  3. ((c))

    12 : 5

  4. ((d))

    13 : 5

  5. ((e))

    18 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 : 3

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The average number of students in Schools A, B, and C together was 1500 in 2021 and 1650 in 2022. The number of students in School A remained the same in both years. In School B, the number of students in 2022 was 20% more than in 2021, and in School C, it was 25% more than in 2021.

In 2022, the number of students in School C exceeded that in School B by 50 students.

164

The number of students in School C in 2022 is how much percent more or less than the number of students in School A in both years?

  1. ((a))

    37.5%

  2. ((b))

    100%

  3. ((c))

    30%

  4. ((d))

    75%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

37.5%

165

What was the difference between the number of students in Schools B and C in 2021?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    0

  5. ((e))

    500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

166

A and B entered into a partnership investing ₹520 and ₹(640 + x) respectively. After 6 months, B withdrew ₹(2x − 60) from his investment. At the end of the year, the ratio of their profits was 26 : 33. Find the value of x.

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    240

  3. ((c))

    280

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be determined

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120

167

Train A, 300 meters long, takes the same time to cross a pole as Train B, which is 200 meters long, takes to cross a platform 300 meters in length. Train A can cross a platform of 600 meters in 30 seconds. The two trains are approaching each other from opposite directions, with a distance of 300 meters between them. Find the time taken by Train B to completely cross Train A.

  1. ((a))

    15 sec

  2. ((b))

    12 sec

  3. ((c))

    10 sec

  4. ((d))

    20 sec

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15 sec

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The following series follows a specific pattern:

X, 168, 172, 145, 161, Y, Z

168

Find the value of (Y + 14).

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    46

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    50

  5. ((e))

    64

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54

169

Find the value of Z

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    84

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    72

  5. ((e))

    68

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36

170

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

I. If the series were extended, the eighth term would be a positive even number.

II. The value of X is a perfect square.

III. The sum of Z and the fourth term of the series is 195.

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II

  2. ((b))

    Only I and III

  3. ((c))

     Only III

  4. ((d))

    Only II

  5. ((e))

    Only II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and II

171

A can complete 1/2 of a piece of work in 4 days. B takes 4 days more than A to finish the same work. A and C together started the work, and after working for 2 days, they left. The remaining work was then completed by B alone in 3 days. Find the time taken by C alone to complete the entire work.

  1. ((a))

    3(8/11) days

  2. ((b))

    4(8/11) days

  3. ((c))

    3 days

  4. ((d))

    4 days

  5. ((e))

    5 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3(8/11) days

172

A container has X litres of a mixture containing 40% water and the rest milk. From this mixture, 20 litres are removed and replaced with X/2 litres of pure milk. After this operation, the ratio of milk to water in the mixture becomes 43 : 12. What is the value of X?

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    60

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40

173

A boat takes 4 hours longer to cover a distance of d km downstream than it takes to cover (d-116) km upstream. The ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 9 : 2. If the boat takes 8 hours to travel 176 km downstream, find the time taken by the boat to cover (d – 60) km upstream.

  1. ((a))

    8 hrs 15 min

  2. ((b))

    8 hrs

  3. ((c))

    7 hrs 50 min

  4. ((d))

    7 hrs 30 min

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 hrs 15 min

174

A total amount of Rs. X is distributed among five friends — P, Q, R, S, and T. The combined amount received by P and Q is Rs. 500 more than what R receives. Together, R and S receive Rs. 1,600 more than T. S receives Rs. 600 more than T. The ratio of the amounts received by R and T is 5 : 3. Find the total amount X.

  1. ((a))

    3600

  2. ((b))

    4800

  3. ((c))

    5100

  4. ((d))

    4300

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3600

175

What approximate value should come in place of x in the following question?

242324\frac{2}{3} % of (4.993 + 4.972) × 909.98 ÷ 12.91 + (13.97)2 = x

  1. ((a))

    2311

  2. ((b))

    2496

  3. ((c))

    2881

  4. ((d))

    2786

  5. ((e))

    2996

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2311

176

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

(√360.91 – ∛26.77) ÷ (1023.24)1/5 × 14.97 + (23.07)2 = ?

  1. ((a))

    487

  2. ((b))

    579

  3. ((c))

    479

  4. ((d))

    547

  5. ((e))

    589

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

487

177

What approximate value should come in place of x  in the following question?

111911\frac{1}{9}% of (29.99)2 + (7.979)2 ÷ (511.98)1/3 = -(x)2 + (11.979)2

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

178

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

152.99 ÷ √288.97 + 8.99 × (28.02)2 ÷ √195.94 = ?

  1. ((a))

    523

  2. ((b))

    527

  3. ((c))

    497

  4. ((d))

    498

  5. ((e))

    513

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

523

179

What approximate value should come in place of x in the following question?

(234.567 + 206.433)1/2 ÷ 6.99 = x% of 229.99 – 19.998

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The bar graph given below represents the total number of votes cast (both valid and invalid) in four different villages (A, B, C, and D) during the years 2013 and 2018.

180

In village C (2013), 420 people did not cast their votes. The total population of the village increased by 25% from 2013 to 2018. In 2018, the ratio of males to females in the total population was 5 : 6. If 40% of the males voted and 10% of the total votes were declared invalid, out of which 60% were male votes, find the difference between the number of valid female votes and invalid female votes in village C in 2018.

  1. ((a))

    137

  2. ((b))

    124

  3. ((c))

    210

  4. ((d))

    164

  5. ((e))

    142

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

137

181

In village B (2018), elections were contested between two parties — X and Y. The ratio of invalid votes cast in 2013 and 2018 in village B was 4 : 5, and in 2013, the valid votes were 2/3 of the total votes cast. In 2018, Party X won by a margin of 55 votes. Find the number of votes received by Party Y in 2018.

  1. ((a))

    125

  2. ((b))

    200

  3. ((c))

    145

  4. ((d))

    175

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

125

182

In village A (2013), 30% of the total population cast their votes, of which 20% were invalid. In 2018, the number of valid votes was 133.33% more than the invalid votes cast in 2013. The invalid votes in 2018 were 50% of the total population in that year. Find how much the number of people in village A who did not vote in 2018 decreased compared to 2013.

  1. ((a))

    1024

  2. ((b))

    1130

  3. ((c))

    1234

  4. ((d))

    1124

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1024

183

In village D (in 2018), the valid votes were three times the invalid votes. The valid votes were distributed among three parties — P, Q, and R. Party R won by securing 60% of the valid votes, while P and Q received an equal number of votes, resulting in a tie. A re-election was conducted between P and Q, where only the previously invalid voters were allowed to vote again — and this time, all votes were valid. If Party P finally received 138 votes in total, find the number of votes that Q received in the re-election.

  1. ((a))

    62

  2. ((b))

    54

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    66

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

62

184

In another village E, the total votes cast in 2018 were twice the number of votes cast in village D in 2013.The number of valid votes in village E in 2018 was equal to the average of the votes cast in villages B and C together in 2018. Find the ratio between the invalid votes cast in village E in 2018 and the total votes cast in village B in 2013.

  1. ((a))

    41:85

  2. ((b))

    43:84

  3. ((c))

    37:75

  4. ((d))

    48:87

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

41:85

185

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

l. 2x2 – 19x + 44 = 0

ll. 5y2 – 31y + 44 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relation between x and y cannot be determine.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

186

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 - x - 156 = 0

II. 13y2 - 93y + 14 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

187

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 15x2 –  30x – 225 = 0

II. 12y2 +  96y + 180 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

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Answer: ((a))

x > y

188

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

i. 3x2 + 2x – 85 = 0

ii. 3y2 + 10y – 57 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

189

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 + 61x + 510 = 0

II. y2 + 87y + 770 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x ≥ y

  3. ((c))

    y > x

  4. ((d))

    y ≥ x

  5. ((e))

    x = y, Relation doesn’t exist

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

190

Average number of girls in school A and school B is 110. The total number of boys in both the school is 6 times the average number of girls. The number of girls in both the school is (1/3)rd of the number of boys in the respective school. The number of boys in school B is 360. Find the percentage of the number of girls in school A to the number of girls in school B.

  1. ((a))

    33.33 %

  2. ((b))

    23.46 %

  3. ((c))

    12.36 %

  4. ((d))

    35.67 %

  5. ((e))

    83.33 %

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Answer: ((a))

33.33 %

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