PYST 4: IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper - General Studies (Held On: 24 March, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 1942.

Key Points

• In the year 1942, Jayaprakash Narayan escaped from Hazaribagh Prison and joined the Quit India Movement.
• Jayaprakash Narayan was a freedom fighter and political leader who played a significant role in India's struggle for independence.
• He is renowned for spearheading the opposition movement against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in the middle of the 1970s and advocating for a "total revolution" to remove her.
• In 1999, Narayan received the highest civilian honor in India, the Bharat Ratna, posthumously for his social contribution.
• Among his other honors is the 1965 Magsaysay Award for Public Service.

Additional Information

• The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India.
• The campaign adopted the catchphrases "Bharat Chodo" or "Quit India."
• Gandhi urged the populace to "do or die."
• It was intended to be a nonviolent, nonviolent movement in keeping with Congress doctrine, pushing the British to give India independence.
• On August 8, 1942, in Bombay, the Congress Working Committee passed the Quit India Resolution.
• The very following day, in response to Gandhi's request, the British administration arrested every significant Congress leader.
• An arrest was made of Gandhi, Nehru, Patel, and others.
• As a result, younger activists like Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia took up leadership of the campaign.

The correct answer is FICCI.

Key Points

• FICCI stands for Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry.
• It was established in 1927 by the Indian Business Community.
• FICCI is a non-government, not-for-profit organisation that focuses on promoting and protecting the interests of Indian businesses and industries.
• Its president is Subhrakant Panda.

Additional Information

• Allahabad Bank was established in 1865 in Allahabad and is one of the oldest banks in India. 
• ​It is a nationalised bank in India and was one of the 14 banks that were nationalised in 1969.
• It has its headquarters in Kolkata, India.
• CIBS stands for Central Institute of Business Studies.
• It is a business school in Kolkata, India.
• It offers various management courses such as MBA, PGDM, and Executive MBA.
• Punjab National Bank (PNB) is a public sector bank in India.
• It was established in 1894 and is one of the largest banks in India.
• It is a public sector bank in India and has its headquarters in New Delhi, India.
• It has a wide network of branches and ATMs across the country.
• It offers various banking and financial services such as personal banking, corporate banking, and international banking.

The correct answer is Speaker.

Key Points

• The Speaker is the head of the Vidhan Sabha, which is the legislative assembly of a state in India.
• As the head, the Speaker is responsible for maintaining order and decorum during the proceedings of the house.
• The Speaker also decides who gets to speak and for how long, and has the power to adjourn the house in case of any disruption or disturbance.
• The Speaker is elected by the members of the Vidhan Sabha and holds the position until the end of their term or until they resign or are removed by a vote of no confidence.
• The Deputy Speaker, on the other hand, assists the Speaker in their duties and presides over the house in the absence of the Speaker.

Additional Information

• The Chief Minister is the head of the executive branch of the state government and is responsible for implementing the policies and decisions of the government.
• They are appointed by the Governor and are usually the leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Vidhan Sabha.
• The Chief Minister is accountable to the Vidhan Sabha and can be removed from office by a vote of no confidence.
• The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the Vidhan Sabha and assists the Speaker in their duties.
• They preside over the house in the absence of the Speaker and help maintain order and decorum during the proceedings.
• The Governor is the head of the state and represents the President of India.
• They are appointed by the President and hold office for a term of five years.
• The Governor's role is largely ceremonial, but they do have some powers related to the functioning of the state government, such as appointing the Chief Minister and other ministers, and giving assent to bills passed by the Vidhan Sabha.

The correct answer is Duties and Powers of the CAG.

Key Points

• Article 149 deals with the duties and powers of the CAG.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments.
• The CAG has the power to audit all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of each State.
• The CAG also audits the accounts of bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of each State.

Additional Information

• CAG appointment, oath and conditions of service:
• This is covered under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 148 deals with the appointment and term of office of the CAG.
• The oath and conditions of service of the CAG are mentioned in the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.
• The form of accounts of the Union and of the States:
• This is covered under Article 150 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 150 deals with the form in which accounts of the Union and State governments shall be kept.
• Audit Reports:
• This is covered under Article 151 of the Indian Constitution.
• The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
• The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State.

The correct answer is Output.

Key Points

• Production Function is a mathematical model that shows the relationship between inputs (factors of production) and output in the production process.
• Factors of Production are the resources that are used in the production process to produce goods and services.
• The factors of production are classified into four categories - land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship.
• Output is the final product that is produced after the production process is completed.
• It is not a factor of production but the result of the production process.

Additional Information

• Capital is one of the important factors of production that includes all the man-made resources used in the production process, such as machinery, tools, buildings, etc.
• Land is another important factor of production that refers to all the natural resources that are used in the production process, such as land, water, air, minerals, etc.
• Labour is also an important factor of production that refers to the human resources that are involved in the production process, such as workers, managers, supervisors, etc.

The correct answer is 2/3.

Key Points

• Vidhan Sabha can ask the President to create or dissolve the Vidhan Parishad if it has a majority of 2/3 members in the house.
• This provision is mentioned in Article 169 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Vidhan Sabha can pass a resolution requesting the President to create or dissolve the Vidhan Parishad, and if the President approves the request, then the necessary steps are taken to implement it.
• Vidhan Sabha is the lower house of the state legislature in India, and it is responsible for making laws and policies at the state level.
• Vidhan Parishad is the upper house of the state legislature, which is also known as the Legislative Council.
• It acts as a check on the Vidhan Sabha and plays a crucial role in the legislative process.

Additional Information

• The Vidhan Parishad is not present in all the states of India.
• It is only present in a few states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
• The creation or dissolution of the Vidhan Parishad is a political decision, and it is often influenced by the ruling party's agenda and the opposition's demands.
• The Vidhan Parishad's members are not directly elected by the people, unlike the Vidhan Sabha.
• Instead, they are elected by different constituencies like local bodies, teachers, graduates, and others.

The correct answer is 91.80%.

Key Points

• As per the 2011 Census, in Lakshadweep 91.8% of the population is literate.
• The literacy rate of Lakshadweep has increased from 86.7% in the 2001 Census to 91.8% in the 2011 Census.
• Lakshadweep has the highest literacy rate among all the Union Territories of India.
• The literacy rate of Lakshadweep is higher than the national average literacy rate of India, which is 73.0%.

Additional Information

• 94.0 % is the literacy rate of Kerala as per the 2011 Census, which is the highest among all Indian states.
• 91.3% is the literacy rate of Mizoram as per the 2011 Census, which is the second-highest among all Indian states.
• 65.4% is the literacy rate of Bihar as per the 2011 Census, which is one of the lowest among all Indian states.
• The percentage of a population that is literate is known as the literacy rate.
• It is a crucial indicator of the state of a nation's education system and the capacity of its people to engage with the outside world and obtain information.

The correct answer is 1936.

Key Points

• The All India Kisan Sabha was founded in 1936 in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
• It was a peasant organization that aimed to fight for the rights of farmers and peasants against the exploitation by landlords and moneylenders.
• The organization played a significant role in the Indian independence movement and was associated with the Communist Party of India.

Additional Information

• The Sabha was led by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
• NG Ranga served as this association's secretary.
• The All India Kisan Sabha sought to institutionalize credit, decrease land tax, and abolish the Zamindari system.

The correct answer is Gurjara-Pratihara.

Key Points

• The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty was able to maintain its hold over Kannauj till the end in the Tripartite Struggle.
• The dynasty was able to do so by forming alliances with other regional powers and using their military might to defeat their rivals.
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas were also able to maintain their hold over Kannauj due to their efficient administration and patronage of the arts and culture.
• The dynasty's decline was ultimately caused by internal conflicts and external invasions by the Ghaznavids and the Gahadavalas.

Additional Information

• The Pala dynasty was based in Bengal and Bihar.
• It was known for its patronage of Buddhism and the arts.
• The Rashtrakuta dynasty was based in the Deccan.
• It was known for its military exploits and architectural achievements.
• The Chola dynasty was based in South India.
• It was known for its maritime trade and temple architecture.

The correct answer is Polaj.

Key Points

• The term used to describe the land which had been continuously cultivated in the Zabti system during the Mughal Empire is "Polaj".
• The Zabti system was a land revenue system introduced by Akbar in the 16th century, which aimed to ensure a regular flow of revenue to the state and prevent exploitation of peasants by officials.
• "Banjar" refers to the uncultivated or fallow land.
• "Parauti" refers to the land which was cultivated but left uncultivated for a year or more.
• "Chachar" refers to the land which was cultivated but produced no crop due to natural calamities.

Additional Information

• The Zabti system was based on an assessment of the yield of the land and fixed rates of revenue were charged accordingly.
• The system was efficient in ensuring a regular flow of revenue to the state, but it also led to the exploitation of peasants who were forced to pay fixed rates even if their crops failed due to natural calamities.
• The Zabti system was later replaced by the Ryotwari system in British India, which gave individual cultivators the right to own and cultivate land and pay revenue directly to the state.

The correct answer is 6.8%.

Key Points

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) revised India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth projection for 2022-23 to 6.8% from the earlier projection of 7.4% in October 2022.
• The revision was made due to the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic and the subsequent lockdowns on India's economy.
• The IMF also stated that India's economy is expected to recover in the coming years, with growth projections of 6.9% in 2023-24 and 7.4% in 2024-25.

Additional Information

• With its main office in Washington, D.C., the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a prominent United Nations financial agency and a global financial institution supported by 190 member nations.
• It is recognized as the international lender of last resort for national governments and as one of the main forces behind stable currency rates.
• It claims to be "working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world."
• Bulgarian economist Kristalina Georgieva serves as the IMF's managing director (MD) and chairwoman at the moment.

The correct answer is English.

Key Points

• The proceedings of the Supreme Court are conducted in English.
• English is the official language of the Supreme Court of India.
• The Constitution of India specifies that all proceedings of the Supreme Court shall be in English.
• The use of English in the Supreme Court helps to ensure consistency and clarity in legal language and facilitates communication between judges, lawyers, and litigants from different parts of the country.

Additional Information

• Regional Language of States:
• While the Constitution of India recognizes the importance of regional languages and provides for their use in various contexts, it does not permit the use of regional languages in the Supreme Court.
• This is because the Supreme Court is a national institution that deals with issues of national importance, and the use of a common language helps to promote unity and coherence in the legal system.
• Hindi:
• Although Hindi is one of the official languages of India, it is not used in the proceedings of the Supreme Court.
• This is because Hindi is not widely spoken or understood by all sections of the population, particularly in the southern and northeastern parts of the country.
• Moreover, the legal language in India has been traditionally influenced by English common law, and the use of Hindi would require the development of a new legal vocabulary and terminology.

The correct answer is 1037.

Key Points

• The sex ratio of Puducherry as per the 2011 Census is 1037.
• Sex ratio is a demographic indicator that represents the number of females per 1000 males in a population.
• Puducherry is a Union Territory located in the southern part of India with an area of 479 sq. km. and a population of 9,50,289 as per the 2011 Census.

Additional Information

• Sex ratio is an important demographic indicator that reflects the social, economic, and cultural status of a region or country.
• A higher sex ratio indicates a better gender balance in the population, whereas a lower sex ratio indicates a skewed gender distribution.
• Puducherry has a higher sex ratio compared to the national average of India, which was 943 as per the 2011 Census.

The correct answer is indirect tax.

Key Points

• Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax.
• GST is a consumption-based tax that is levied on the supply of goods and services.
• It is not directly imposed on income, property, or wealth.
• The tax is collected by businesses on behalf of the government and is ultimately borne by the end consumer.
• This makes it an indirect tax.
• GST is designed to be a comprehensive tax that replaces multiple indirect taxes such as excise duty, service tax, and value-added tax (VAT).
• This simplifies the tax system and reduces the cascading effect of multiple taxes.
• The GST system has a mechanism for input tax credit, which allows businesses to claim credit for the GST paid on purchases.
• This ensures that the tax is levied only on the value added at each stage of the supply chain.

Additional Information

• Wealth tax is a direct tax that is levied on the net wealth of an individual or entity.
• Capital gains tax is also a direct tax that is levied on the profits earned from the sale of assets such as property, stocks, or bonds.
• Direct taxes are taxes that are imposed directly on income, property, or wealth.
• They are paid by the person or entity that is subject to the tax.
• Indirect taxes are taxes that are imposed on goods and services.
• They are collected by businesses and ultimately borne by the end consumer.

The correct answer is Chapter II.

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution is divided into 25 parts, and Chapter II falls under Part V, which deals with the Union Government.
• Chapter II consists of Articles 79 to 122, which lay down the provisions for the composition, powers, and procedures of the Parliament of India.
• The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), and the Lok Sabha (House of the People), as per Article 79.
• Some of the important provisions mentioned in Chapter II include the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament, the procedure for passing bills, the powers and privileges of members, and the role of the Speaker and the Chairman in conducting the proceedings.

Additional Information

• Chapter I deals with the Union and its territory.
• Chapter III deals with the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.
• Chapter IV deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy, which lay down the guidelines for the governance of the country.
• There is no Chapter in the Indian Constitution that is solely dedicated to the Constitution of the Executive branch of the government.
• However, the provisions related to the Executive are scattered across various parts and chapters of the Constitution.

The correct answer is Hunza.

Key Points

• A right bank tributary is a river or stream that flows into a larger river from the right side when looking downstream.
• The Indus river flows through Pakistan and is one of the longest rivers in Asia.
• It originates in the Tibetan plateau and flows through the Himalayas before entering Pakistan.
• Hunza is a river in Pakistan that flows into the Indus river from the right bank.
• It is known for its scenic beauty and is a popular tourist destination.

Additional Information

• The Indus River's first significant tributary is the Zanskar River. 
• It rises northeast of the Great Himalayan Range and empties into the Zanskar region, draining both the Himalayas and the Zanskar Range.
• Beas is a river in northern India that flows into the Sutlej river, which is a tributary of the Indus.
• It is 470 kilometers long overall.
• Jhelum is a river in northern India and eastern Pakistan.
• It flows into the Indus river from the left bank and is not a right bank tributary.

The correct answer is Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is one of the most important fundamental rights provided to every citizen of India.
• It guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to every individual, which means that no person shall be deprived of his/her life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• This article also includes the right to live with dignity, which encompasses various aspects such as the right to privacy, freedom from torture, and inhuman treatment.
• The Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 in a broad manner, expanding its scope to include several other rights such as the right to clean environment, right to education, and right to healthcare.

Additional Information

• Right to Vote is covered under Article 326 of the Constitution, which provides for the right to vote to every citizen of India who is above the age of 18 years.
• Child Labour is prohibited under Article 24 of the Constitution, which prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any hazardous occupation.
• Widow Marriage is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, but it is allowed under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and the Special Marriage Act, 1954.

The correct answer is Rihand Thermal Power Station.

Key Points

• Rihand Thermal Power Station is located in Uttar Pradesh and is operated by NTPC Limited.
• It has a total installed capacity of 3000 MW and is one of the largest thermal power plants in India.
• The power plant has five units, each with a capacity of 500 MW.
• Rihand Thermal Power Station primarily uses coal as a fuel source to generate electricity.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh is a state in Northern India and is the most populous state in the country.
• Thermal power stations generate electricity by burning fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and natural gas.
• Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant is located in Madhya Pradesh and is one of the largest integrated power plants in the world.
• Talcher Super Thermal Power Station is located in Odisha and has a capacity of 3000 MW.
• Tiroda Thermal Power Plant is located in Maharashtra and is a coal-based thermal power plant.

The correct answer is 42.

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution was passed during the Emergency period in 1976 by the Indira Gandhi-led Congress government.
• It is also known as the "Mini Constitution" because it brought significant changes to the Constitution of India.
• Some of the key changes introduced by the 42nd Amendment include the insertion of Fundamental Duties, the extension of the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, the curtailment of the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and the declaration of India as a "Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic".
• The 42nd Amendment was also criticized for being a tool to centralize power in the hands of the ruling party and for undermining the principles of federalism and judicial independence.

Additional Information

• The 61st Amendment of the Indian Constitution was passed in 1989.
• It lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
• The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution was passed in 1978.
• It made changes to the Constitution to undo some of the provisions introduced by the 42nd Amendment.
• The 52nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution was passed in 1985.
• It made changes related to the anti-defection law and the powers of the Election Commission.

The correct answer is Dibang Valley.

Key Points

• Dibang Valley district of Arunachal Pradesh is the least populated district of India as per Census 2011.
• The total population of Dibang Valley district as per the 2011 Census is 7,948.
• The district is located in the northeastern part of Arunachal Pradesh and is known for its scenic beauty and rich biodiversity.
• The district has a low population density of only 1 person per square kilometer, making it one of the most sparsely populated districts in India.

Additional Information

• Changlang district is located in the southeastern part of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It has a total population of 1,48,226 as per the 2011 Census.
• Anjaw district is located in the northeastern part of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It has a total population of 21,089 as per the 2011 Census.
• Itanagar is the capital city of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is located in the Papum Pare district, which has a total population of 1,76,385 as per the 2011 Census.