Official Paper

PYST 2: IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper - General Studies (Held On: 23 March, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

20 questions · 8 minutes · with answers · free

Test (20 questions)

1

The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021, was introduced in Rajya Sabha by whom among the following Ministers for Tribal Affairs?

  1. ((a))

    Dharmendra Pradhan 

  2. ((b))

    Arjun Munda 

  3. ((c))

    Ashwini Vaishnaw 

  4. ((d))

    Pralhad Joshi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Arjun Munda 

The correct answer is Arjun Munda.

Key Points

  • The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021, was introduced in Rajya Sabha by Arjun Munda, the Minister for Tribal Affairs.
  • Arjun Munda is a senior politician from Jharkhand and a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
  • The bill seeks to amend the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, to modify the list of Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the states of Assam, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Tripura.
  • The amendment aims to include certain communities as STs and remove some communities from the list of STs based on the recommendations of the respective state governments and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST).
  • The bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on February 9, 2021, and passed by the Upper House on February 10, 2021.

Additional Information

  • Dharmendra Pradhan is the Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas and Minister for Steel in the Union Cabinet.
  • Ashwini Vaishnaw is the Minister for Railways, Communications, and Electronics and Information Technology in the Union Cabinet.
  • Pralhad Joshi is the Minister for Coal, Mines, and Parliamentary Affairs in the Union Cabinet.
2

Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution talk about citizenship?

  1. ((a))

    Articles from 7 to 14  

  2. ((b))

    Articles from 6 to 12  

  3. ((c))

    Articles from 8 to 15  

  4. ((d))

    Articles from 5 to 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Articles from 5 to 11

The correct answer is Articles from 5 to 11.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India has provisions for citizenship under Part II, Articles 5 to 11.
  • Article 5 talks about citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
  • It states that any person who was born in India or either of whose parents were born in India or who has been ordinarily resident in India for not less than five years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution shall be a citizen of India.

Additional Information

  • Article 12 defines who is considered a person for the purposes of the Constitution and Article 13 provides for the laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights to be void.
  • Articles from 7 to 14 talk about the right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, and right to constitutional remedies.
  • Articles from 12 to 35 talk about fundamental rights, specifically the right to equality, right to freedom, and right against exploitation.
3

In October 2022, which of the following political parties was allotted the 'two swords and shield' poll symbol by the election commission of India?

  1. ((a))

    North East India Development Party 

  2. ((b))

    Shiv Sena 

  3. ((c))

    Kuki National Assembly 

  4. ((d))

    Balasahebanchi Shiv Sena

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Balasahebanchi Shiv Sena

The correct answer is Balasahebanchi Shiv Sena.

Key Points

  • The election commission of India allotted the 'two swords and shield' poll symbol to Balasahebanchi Shiv Sena in October 2022.
  • Balasahebanchi Shiv Sena is a faction of the Shiv Sena party, formed by Narayan Rane, who was a former Shiv Sena leader.
  • The 'two swords and shield' symbol is unique and represents the party's ideology and principles.

Additional Information

  • North East India Development Party:
  • This is a regional political party in India, primarily based in the state of Assam.
  • It was formed in 2012 with the aim of promoting the development of the Northeast region of India.
  • The party's symbol is a plough.
  • Shiv Sena:
  • This is a regional political party in the state of Maharashtra, India.
  • It was founded in 1966 by Bal Thackeray and is currently led by his son, Uddhav Thackeray.
  • The party's symbol is a bow and arrow.
  • Kuki National Assembly:
  • This is a political party based in the state of Manipur, India.
  • It primarily represents the Kuki tribe in the state.
  • The party's symbol is a torch.
4

Sultan Abu Bakr Shah was from which of the following dynasties?

  1. ((a))

    Tughlaq dynasty 

  2. ((b))

    Ghori dynasty 

  3. ((c))

    Slave dynasty 

  4. ((d))

    Lodi dynasty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tughlaq dynasty 

The correct answer is Tughlaq dynasty.

Key Points

  • The Tughlaq dynasty ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1320 to 1413 AD.
  • Sultan Abu Bakr Shah was the third ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty and he ruled from 1390 to 1394 AD.
  • During his reign, he faced several challenges such as rebellions, famine, and economic crisis.
  • He was succeeded by his nephew, Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah, who ruled from 1394 to 1412 AD.

Additional Information

  • There was no such dynasty as Ghori dynasty in India.
  • However, Muhammad Ghori was a ruler from the Ghurid dynasty who invaded and conquered parts of northwestern India.
  • Slave dynasty ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1206 to 1290 AD. 
  • Some of the notable rulers of this dynasty were Qutubuddin Aibak, Iltutmish, and Balban.
  • Lodi dynasty ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1451 to 1526 AD.
  • The most famous ruler of this dynasty was Sikandar Lodi who built the city of Agra and shifted the capital from Delhi to Agra.
5

Pulicat Lake is a salt water lagoon on the Coromandel Coast of _________. 

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh 

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka 

  3. ((c))

    Odisha 

  4. ((d))

    Telangana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Andhra Pradesh 

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Pulicat Lake is the second-largest brackish water lagoon in India.
  • It is located in the Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh and also extends to Tamil Nadu.
  • Pulicat Lake is a significant breeding ground for various species of birds, including migratory birds like flamingos, pelicans, and storks.
  • The lake is also a source of livelihood for the local fishermen who depend on it for their daily catch.

Additional Information

  • During October to December, the lagoon is one of three significant wetlands that draws rain clouds from the northeast monsoon.
  • The areas that make up the lagoon include Venadu Reserve Forest (AP), Pernadu Reserve Forest (AP), Marshy/Wetland Land Region (AP), and Pulicat Lake (Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu).
  • The Sriharikota Link Road split the lagoon in half, creating a boundary between the water body and the marshland.
  • Included in the lagoon is the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary.
  • The Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located on the barrier island of Sriharikota, which divides the lagoon from the Bay of Bengal.
6

The receipts which neither create any liability nor reduce any asset are called ______.

  1. ((a))

    revenue receipts

  2. ((b))

    returns receipts

  3. ((c))

    capital receipts 

  4. ((d))

    principal receipts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

revenue receipts

The correct answer is revenue receipts.

Key Points

  • Revenue receipts are the receipts that are earned by a business through its normal operations.
  • These receipts are not associated with any liability or reduction in assets.
  • For instance, sales revenue, rent received, commission earned, etc. are all examples of revenue receipts.
  • Revenue receipts are recorded in the income statement of a business, which shows the revenue earned and expenses incurred during a particular period.
  • Since revenue receipts do not create any liability or reduce any asset, they do not affect the financial position of a business.
  • However, they do affect the profitability of the business, as they contribute to the net income earned by the business.
  • Revenue receipts are also important for tax purposes, as they are considered taxable income for a business.

Additional Information

  • Returns receipts:
  • These are the receipts that a business receives when it accepts returns from customers.
  • Returns receipts are not considered revenue receipts, as they are associated with a reduction in assets (i.e. inventory).
  • Capital receipts:
  • These are the receipts that a business receives from sources other than its normal operations, such as the sale of assets, loans received, or equity investments.
  • Capital receipts are recorded in the balance sheet of a business, and they affect the financial position of the business.
  • Principal receipts:
  • These are the receipts that a business receives as repayment of loans or other debt obligations.
  • Principal receipts are not considered revenue receipts, as they are associated with a reduction in liabilities.
7

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with cultural and educational rights? 

  1. ((a))

    Articles 22 and 23

  2. ((b))

    Articles 24 and 25

  3. ((c))

    Articles 26 and 27

  4. ((d))

    Articles 29 and 30

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Articles 29 and 30

The correct answer is Articles 29 and 30.

Key Points

  • Cultural and educational rights are fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 29 deals with the protection of the interests of minorities by providing them with the right to conserve their language, script, and culture.
  • Article 30 gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Additional Information

  • Articles 22 and 23 deal with protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
  • Articles 24 and 25 deal with the rights of children to education and the freedom of religion.
  • Articles 26 and 27 deal with the freedom to manage religious affairs and the freedom to practice and propagate religion.
8

Who formed the association in favour of widow remarriage in Madras Presidency? 

  1. ((a))

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy 

  2. ((b))

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 

  3. ((c))

    Veerasalingam Pantulu 

  4. ((d))

    Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Veerasalingam Pantulu 

The correct answer is Veerasalingam Pantulu.

Key Points

  • Veerasalingam Pantulu formed the association in favor of widow remarriage in Madras Presidency.
  • He was a social reformer and writer who advocated for women's rights and worked towards abolishing several social evils prevalent at that time.
  • He founded the "Widow Remarriage Association" in 1891, which aimed to promote widow remarriage and provide support to widows.
  • His efforts towards social reforms and women's rights were commendable and had a significant impact on society.

Additional Information

  • Widow remarriage was a taboo in Indian society during the 19th century.
  • The practice was prevalent in some parts of India, but it was not widely accepted.
  • Social reformers and activists worked towards abolishing this practice and promoting widow remarriage.
  • The movement gained momentum during the 19th century, and several associations were formed to support the cause.
  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a social reformer who worked towards the abolition of Sati and advocated for women's rights.
  • Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was another social reformer who worked for the upliftment of women and supported widow remarriage.
  • Swami Dayanand Saraswati was a religious leader and founder of Arya Samaj.
9

The Udaygiri caves are located at ______ in Odisha state.

  1. ((a))

    Cuttack 

  2. ((b))

    Angul 

  3. ((c))

    Bhubaneswar 

  4. ((d))

    Puri

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bhubaneswar 

The correct answer is Bhubaneswar.

Key Points

  • The Udaygiri caves are a group of artificial caves located near the city of Bhubaneswar in Odisha state.
  • These caves were originally built in the 2nd century BCE and were later expanded and decorated by various rulers over the centuries.
  • The caves are known for their intricate carvings, especially those depicting Hindu deities and scenes from mythology.
  • The Udaygiri caves are a popular tourist destination and are often visited along with the nearby Khandagiri caves, which are also a group of ancient rock-cut caves.

Additional Information

  • Cuttack is a city located about 25 km north of Bhubaneswar.
  • Because of its 1,000-year history and well-known silver filigree creations, Cuttack is sometimes referred to as the Silver City and the Millennium City.
  • Angul is a district located in central Odisha.
  • In addition, Angul is well-known for the Satkosia Gorge, hills, rivers (Mahanadi, Brhamani), and stunning natural forests.
  • Puri is a coastal city located about 60 km south of Bhubaneswar.
  • It is known for its famous Jagannath Temple, beaches, and festivals like the Rath Yatra.
10

In 1951-52, the first year of the National Sample Survey (NSS), the head-count ratio of poverty in India was deemed to be close to _________ of the population. 

  1. ((a))

    45%

  2. ((b))

    61%

  3. ((c))

    58%

  4. ((d))

    51%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45%

The correct answer is 45%.

Key Points

  • Almost 45% of the population was living below the poverty line in the first year of the National Sample Survey in India.
  • The NSS is a large-scale survey conducted by the government of India to collect socioeconomic data from households across the country.
  • The poverty line is defined as the minimum level of income or consumption required to meet basic needs such as food, shelter, and clothing.
  • Poverty in India has been a persistent issue, and various measures have been taken by the government to alleviate it, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and the National Food Security Act (NFSA).

Additional Information

 

  • Since 1972, National Sample Survey has been a component of the **Ministry of Statistics (**MOS) and Program Implementation of the Government of India (GOI), under the direction of the National Sample Survey Organisation.
  • An essential component of India's economic growth is the survey.
  • These surveys are carried out at the state and local levels to gather information about people's financial situation, habits, and product use.
  • Around 1950–1951, the first national sample survey was carried out, recording information on land use, daily salaries for skilled and unskilled laborers, etc.
  • Data on land or property ownership, farming, weekly and monthly product use, etc. were gathered at the household level.
11

As per the Census 2011, which of the following states has the lowest literacy rate?

  1. ((a))

    Meghalaya 

  2. ((b))

    Mizoram 

  3. ((c))

    Nagaland 

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • According to the Census 2011, Odisha has the lowest literacy rate among the given options.
  • The literacy rate of Odisha was recorded at 72.9%, which is lower than the national average of 74.04%.
  • Odisha has been making efforts to improve its literacy rate through various schemes and initiatives such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan and the Mid-Day Meal Scheme.
  • Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland have relatively higher literacy rates compared to Odisha.

Additional Information

  • Meghalaya has a literacy rate of 74.4%, Mizoram has 91.3%, and Nagaland has 79.55%.
  • Mizoram is also one of the most literate states in India and has achieved 100% literacy in some of its districts.
  • Nagaland has shown significant improvement in its literacy rate in recent years.
  • In 2001, its literacy rate was 61.92%, which increased to 79.55% in 2011.
  • The percentage of people in a specific age group that are literate is known as the literacy rate.
  • In 2023, the literacy rate in India was 77.7%, a 5% rise from the previous census (2011).
12

Vide which of the following Acts was the Board of Control formed in the East India Company?

  1. ((a))

    Regulating Act, 1773

  2. ((b))

    Pitts India Act, 1784

  3. ((c))

    Government of India Act, 1858 

  4. ((d))

    Charter Act, 1813

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Pitts India Act, 1784

The correct answer is Pitts India Act, 1784.

Key Points

  • The Board of Control was a British government department created in 1784 to oversee the administration and policies of the East India Company.
  • The Pitts India Act, named after British Prime Minister William Pitt the Younger, established the Board of Control and gave it significant powers over the Company's affairs in India.
  • The British Parliament passed Pitt's India Act 1784, also known as the East India Company Act 1784, to address the shortcomings of the Regulating Act 1773.
  • It led to the British East India Company and the British Crown having joint or dual rule over India, with the Crown holding final say.

Additional Information

  • The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first major British law related to the governance of India.
  • It established a governor-general and a supreme court in Calcutta.
  • The Charter Act of 1813 renewed the Company's charter for another 20 years.
  • It allowed Christian missionaries to enter India.
  • The Government of India Act of 1858 transferred the powers of the East India Company to the British Crown.
  • It established a Secretary of State for India.
13

As per the treaty of Amritsar 1809, what would be the boundary of Maharaja Ranjit Singh’s Empire? 

  1. ((a))

    Lahore 

  2. ((b))

    Sutlej 

  3. ((c))

    Amritsar 

  4. ((d))

    Malwa

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sutlej 

The correct answer is Sutlej.

Key Points

  • As per the treaty of Amritsar 1809, the boundary of Maharaja Ranjit Singh's Empire would be Sutlej.
  • The treaty of Amritsar was signed between the British East India Company and Maharaja Ranjit Singh in 1809.
  • The treaty defined the boundary between the British territories and the Sikh Empire.
  • The treaty also allowed the British to maintain their military stations at Ludhiana, Ferozepur, and Phillaur, which were located on the British side of the Sutlej river.
  • The treaty of Amritsar was a significant event in the history of India as it marked the beginning of the British-Sikh relationship, which lasted until the annexation of Punjab by the British in 1849.

Additional Information

  • Early in the 19th century, the Sikh Empire governed the northwest Indian subcontinent, and Ranjit Singh was its first Maharaja.
  • He was able to escape smallpox as a baby, although he lost his left eye's sight.
  • At the age of 21, he was crowned the "Maharaja of Punjab".
  • Kharak Singh, Ranjit Singh's son, succeeded him.
14

India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL) was set up in the year __________.

  1. ((a))

    2009 

  2. ((b))

    2006 

  3. ((c))

    2007 

  4. ((d))

    2008

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2006 

The correct answer is 2006.

Key Points

  • India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL) is a government-owned financial institution that provides long-term funding to infrastructure projects in India.
  • IIFCL was set up in 2006.
  • IIFCL was set up under the Companies Act, 1956.
  • The main objective of IIFCL is to provide long-term financial assistance to viable infrastructure projects through the Scheme for Financing Viable Infrastructure Projects.
  • IIFCL also provides credit enhancement facilities to infrastructure projects, which helps in lowering the cost of borrowing and making the projects more attractive to investors.
  • The government has recently announced plans to merge IIFCL with two other state-owned infrastructure financing companies to create a larger entity that can provide more funding to infrastructure projects in the country.​

Additional Information

  • ​Since September 2013, IIFCL has been registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an NBFC-ND-IFC, adhering to the relevant prudential guidelines set forth by the RBI.
  • Loans of Rs 8,800 crore were recently authorized by IIFCL for the development of the nation's airports and civil aviation infrastructure.
15

In which of the following months did DY Chandrachud take oath as the 50th Chief Justice of India?

  1. ((a))

    October 2022

  2. ((b))

    November 2022 

  3. ((c))

    September 2022

  4. ((d))

    August 2022

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

November 2022 

The correct answer is November 2022.

Key Points

  • DY Chandrachud took oath as the 50th Chief Justice of India in November 2022.
  • He is a judge of the Supreme Court of India and was appointed as the Chief Justice on 10th November 2022.
  • He succeeded Justice NV Ramana as the Chief Justice of India.
  • He was born on 11th November 1959 in Mumbai, India.
  • He is the son of YV Chandrachud, who was also a Chief Justice of India.
  • Before his appointment as the Chief Justice, DY Chandrachud served as a judge of the Supreme Court of India since 2016.

Additional Information

  • The Indian Constitution gives the president the authority to name the next chief justice, who will hold office until they turn 65 or are removed through the constitutional process of impeachment, in accordance with the wishes of the outgoing chief justice and after consulting with the judicial cabal of 21 Supreme Court judges.
  • As the chief justice of the Supreme Court, he or she is in charge of assigning cases and appointing constitutional benches that hear significant legal cases.
  • Article 145 of the Indian Constitution and the Supreme Court Rules of Procedure from 1966 mandate that the Chief Justice assigns all cases to the other justices, who are obligated to bring the case back to them whenever necessary.
16

Gross Direct Tax collections for the Financial Year (FY) 2022-23 registered a growth of _________. 

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    30% 

  3. ((c))

    35% 

  4. ((d))

    45%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

35% 

The correct answer is 35%.

Key Points

  • Gross Direct Tax collections refer to the total amount of tax collected by the government before any deductions or exemptions.
  • The Financial Year (FY) 2022-23 is the period from April 1, 2022, to March 31, 2023.
  • The growth rate of 35% indicates that the Gross Direct Tax collections in FY 2022-23 were 35% higher than the collections in the previous year (FY 2021-22).
  • This growth rate is a positive sign for the economy as it indicates an increase in the tax base and higher compliance by taxpayers.
  • A higher tax collection also helps the government to finance its various developmental and welfare schemes.

Additional Information

  • A 12-month period during which revenue is earned is the simplest definition of the Financial Year.
  • Revenue earned during the current Fiscal Year (FY) 2022–2023 will be evaluated starting on April 1, 2022, and ending on March 31, 2023.
  • The computation of income statements is the main objective of the fiscal year.
17

Which of the following states of India touches minimum state boundaries?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Sikkim

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sikkim

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

  • Sikkim shares its borders with only 1 Indian states - West Bengal.
  • Sikkim is the least populous state in India and is located in the northeastern part of the country.
  • Sikkim has borders with Tibet as well.
  • The highest peak in India and the third highest peak worldwide, Kangchenjunga, is located in Sikkim.
  • Gangtok is the capital and largest city in Sikkim.

Additional Information

  • Odisha shares its borders with 4 states- Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
  • Odisha is the 9th largest state in India by area and is located in the eastern part of the country.
  • Tamil Nadu shares its borders with 4 states - Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, and Puducherry.
  • Tamil Nadu is the 10th largest state in India by area and is located in the southern part of the country.
  • Kerala shares its borders with 2 states - Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • Kerala is the 22nd largest state in India by area and is located in the southwestern part of the country.
18

Raghav Chadha is a Rajya Sabha member from which of the following Political Parties?

  1. ((a))

    INC

  2. ((b))

    AAP

  3. ((c))

    AITC

  4. ((d))

    AIADMK

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

AAP

The correct answer is AAP.

Key Points

  • Raghav Chadha is a Rajya Sabha member from the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
  • AAP is a political party primarily active in the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
  • It was founded in 2012 by a group of social activists and anti-corruption crusaders, led by Arvind Kejriwal.
  • AAP emphasizes on issues such as decentralization of power, anti-corruption, and people's participation in governance.
  • It has implemented several innovative policies in Delhi, including free electricity and water supply, Mohalla Clinics providing primary healthcare, and doorstep delivery of government services.

Additional Information

  • The Indian National Congress (INC) is one of the oldest political parties in India, founded in 1885.
  • It was the leading force in India's freedom struggle and has been in power at the national level for several decades.
  • The All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) is a regional political party primarily active in the state of West Bengal.
  • It was founded in 1998 by Mamata Banerjee and has been in power in the state since 2011.
  • The All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) is a regional political party primarily active in the state of Tamil Nadu.
  • It was founded in 1972 by M. G. Ramachandran and has been in power in the state several times.
19

The Orissa High Court is located in which of the following part of the Odisha state?

  1. ((a))

    Bhubaneswar

  2. ((b))

    Cuttack

  3. ((c))

    Berhampur

  4. ((d))

    Rourkela

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cuttack

The correct answer is Cuttack.

Key Points

  • The location of the Orissa High Court is Cuttack, which is a city in the eastern Indian state of Odisha.
  • The Orissa High Court is one of the oldest High Courts in India, established on 26th July 1948.
  • The High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Odisha.

Additional Information

  • Cuttack is also known as the judicial capital of Odisha, as it houses several other important legal institutions like the Odisha State Legal Services Authority, the Odisha Judicial Academy, and the National Law University, Odisha.
  • Bhubaneswar is the capital city of Odisha and has several other important government institutions, including the Odisha Secretariat, the State Assembly, and the Raj Bhavan (Governor's House).
  • Berhampur and Rourkela are other important cities in Odisha, but they do not have any High Court or significant legal institutions.
20

Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

  2. ((b))

    To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

  3. ((c))

    To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

  4. ((d))

    To develop a scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

The correct answer is To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

Key Points

  • To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India is NOT a Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution.
  • The Fundamental Duties are a set of moral obligations listed in the Indian Constitution under Article 51A.
  • They were added to the Constitution in 1976 through the 42nd Amendment.
  • The 11 Fundamental Duties are aimed at promoting a sense of discipline and commitment towards the nation among citizens.

Additional Information

  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  • This duty emphasizes the importance of national defense and encourages citizens to serve the country when required.
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
  • This duty highlights the need to respect and preserve India's diverse cultural heritage.
  • To develop a scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  • This duty promotes scientific thinking, human values, and the importance of questioning and improving existing systems.

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