Official Paper

PYST 2: IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper - General Awareness (Held On: 23 March, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

20 questions · 8 minutes · with answers · free

Test (20 questions)

1

Which Indian shuttler won a Gold at Commonwealth Games 2022 in Birmingham?

  1. ((a))

    PV Sindhu 

  2. ((b))

    Saina Nehwal

  3. ((c))

    Gayatri Gopichand

  4. ((d))

    Sayali Gokhale

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

PV Sindhu 

The correct answer is PV Sindhu.

Key Points

  • PV Sindhu is a top Indian badminton player who has won numerous accolades in her career, including an Olympic silver medal and multiple World Championship medals.
  • At the Commonwealth Games 2022 held in Birmingham, England, Sindhu won the gold medal in the women's singles category by defeating Singapore's Yeo Jia Min in the final match.
  • Sindhu defeated Michelle Li by 21-15, 21-13.
  • This became Sindhu's maiden gold medal from the Commonwealth Games in the singles category.

Additional Information

  • Saina Nehwal is another top Indian badminton player.
  • She has competed in three Olympics as an Indian representative, taking home a bronze medal in her second trip to London in 2012.
  • Gayatri Gopichand is a young Indian badminton player who has been making a mark in the junior circuit. 
  • She won a silver in the women's singles and a gold in the women's team competition at the 2019 South Asian Games for her country.
  • Sayali Gokhale is a retired Indian badminton player.
  • In both the women's singles and team competitions, she won the gold medal at the 2010 South Asian Games in Dhaka.
2

The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Bilaspur, is located in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat 

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh 

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Telangana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Himachal Pradesh

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

  • ​A public institution of national significance is the All India Institute of Medical Sciences in Bilaspur.
  • The hospital and medical school are located in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh, India.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the institute's foundation stone on October 4, 2017.
  • The first day of ope ration was October 5, 2022.

Additional Information

  • A collection of independent, state-run, public medical institutes in higher education is known as the All India Institutes of Medical Sciences (AIIMS).
  • The Government of India's Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is in charge of it.
  • An Act of Parliament has designated these institutions as Institutes of National Importance.
  • The first institute, AIIMS New Delhi, was founded in 1956 and was directed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Twenty institutes are functioning as of January 2023, and four more are anticipated to open by 2025.
3

The International Finance Facility for Education (IFFEd) was launched at the Transforming Education Summit in September ______ by the United Nations.

  1. ((a))

    2019 

  2. ((b))

    2021 

  3. ((c))

    2022

  4. ((d))

    2020

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2022

The correct answer is 2022.

Key Points

  • The International Finance Facility for Education (IFFEd) was launched in September 2022 at the Transforming Education Summit by the United Nations.
  • IFFEd is a new global financing mechanism that aims to leverage funding for education in low and middle-income countries.
  • The facility will use innovative financing instruments, such as bonds and guarantees, to mobilize funds from public and private sources to support education.
  • The IFFEd has set a goal to raise $10 billion in funding over the next ten years to support education in developing countries.

Additional Information

  • IFFEd closes a significant gap in the global finance architecture for education and supports already-existing grant instruments like Education Cannot Wait (ECW) and the Global Partnership for Education (GPE).
  • IFFEd multiplies donor contributions seven times in the current resource-constrained climate, meaning that it gives 7forevery7 for every 1 in traditional aid.
  • In partnership with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the African Development Bank (AfDB), IFFEd will first concentrate on the Asia-Africa region before going global.
4

Pandit Bhimsen Joshi became the most popular artist of which Gharana?

  1. ((a))

    Gwalior Gharana

  2. ((b))

    Mewati Gharana

  3. ((c))

    Kirana Gharana

  4. ((d))

    Patiala Gharana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kirana Gharana

The correct answer is Kirana Gharana.

Key Points

  • Pandit Bhimsen Joshi became the most popular artist of Kirana Gharana.
  • He was one of the best vocalists in the Hindustani classical style from Karnataka, India.
  • He is well-known for both his popular interpretations of religious music and the khayal style of singing.
  • He received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 1998.
  • In 2009, he was bestowed with India's highest civilian accolade, the Bharat Ratna.
  • Kirana Gharana is one of the oldest Gharanas of Indian classical music, which originated in the town of Kirana near Delhi.
  • The Kirana Gharana is famous for its melodious style and is known for its emphasis on the 'gayaki ang' or the vocal style of singing.

Additional Information

  • Gwalior Gharana is known for its Dhrupad style of singing.
  • This style is characterized by a slow and rhythmic rendition of the composition.
  • Mewati Gharana is known for its unique blend of classical and folk music.
  • It is famous for its 'bol-banav' or the art of improvising lyrics on the spot.
  • Patiala Gharana is known for its powerful and energetic style of singing.
  • It is famous for its use of 'tans' or fast-paced improvisations.
5

Which country won the gold medal in the Commonwealth Games 2022 by defeating India in the women's cricket final?

  1. ((a))

    England 

  2. ((b))

    Australia 

  3. ((c))

    Bangladesh 

  4. ((d))

    Pakistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Australia 

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

  • Australia defeated India in the women's cricket final of the Commonwealth Games 2022 to win the gold medal.
  • Australia won the match by a score of nine runs.
  • With 179 runs, Australian batswoman Beth Mooney led all scorers in the competition.
  • Renuka Singh of India took the most wickets with 11 in the tournament.
  • Australia has a strong women's cricket team and has won multiple international tournaments in the past.
  • They are currently ranked as the number one team in the ICC Women's T20I rankings.

Additional Information

  • England is another top team in women's cricket and has won multiple World Cups and Ashes series.
  • They finished in third place in the Commonwealth Games 2022.
  • Bangladesh and Pakistan are not known for their women's cricket teams and did not participate in the Commonwealth Games 2022 women's cricket tournament.
  • Commonwealth Games is a multi-sport event where athletes from various countries compete in different sports.
  • The 2022 edition was held in Birmingham, England and featured 19 sports including athletics, swimming, gymnastics, and squash, among others.
6

Which of the following trophic levels (in the pyramid of number) has maximum number of individuals? 

  1. ((a))

    Secondary consumers 

  2. ((b))

    Producers 

  3. ((c))

    Primary consumer 

  4. ((d))

    Tertiary consumers

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Producers 

The correct answer is Producers.

Key Points

  • Producers are the base of the food chain and support all other trophic levels.
  • They are the organisms that can make their own food through the process of photosynthesis or chemosynthesis.
  • Therefore, they have the highest number of individuals in the pyramid of numbers.
  • Producers are also known as autotrophs, which means "self-feeders."

Additional Information

  • Primary consumers are the herbivores that eat producers.
  • They have fewer individuals than producers because they need to consume a larger quantity of producers to meet their energy requirements.
  • Secondary consumers are the carnivores that eat herbivores.
  • They have even fewer individuals than primary consumers because they need to consume a larger quantity of primary consumers to meet their energy requirements.
  • Tertiary consumers are the top predators that eat other carnivores.
  • They have the fewest individuals in the pyramid of numbers because they need to consume a larger quantity of secondary consumers to meet their energy requirements.
7

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the subkingdom Protozoa?

  1. ((a))

    They are mostly aquatic organisms.

  2. ((b))

    They are unicellular organisms.

  3. ((c))

    They can’t move from one place to another.

  4. ((d))

    Mode of nutrition is holozoic.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

They can’t move from one place to another.

The correct answer is They can’t move from one place to another.

Key Points

  • The incorrect statement about the subkingdom Protozoa is "They can't move from one place to another."
  • Protozoa are a diverse group of unicellular eukaryotic organisms that belong to the subkingdom Protozoa.
  • They are found in a variety of habitats, including freshwater, marine environments, and soil.
  • Protozoa are capable of movement, and many species are motile.
  • They use different mechanisms for locomotion, such as cilia, flagella, and pseudopodia.

Additional Information

  • They are mostly aquatic organisms:
  • This statement is true.
  • Most protozoa are found in aquatic environments, such as freshwater and marine habitats.
  • However, some species can also be found in soil, sediments, and even in the bodies of other organisms.
  • They are unicellular organisms:
  • This statement is true.
  • Protozoa are composed of a single cell and do not have complex body structures like multicellular organisms.
  • Mode of nutrition is holozoic:
  • This statement is true for many protozoa.
  • Holozoic nutrition involves ingesting whole or partially digested food particles.
  • However, some protozoa are saprophytic, meaning they feed on dead organic matter, while others are parasitic and obtain their nutrition from a host organism.
8

When did the Sangeet Natak Akademi adopt its Memorandum of Association? 

  1. ((a))

    11 January 1962

  2. ((b))

    11 November 1961 

  3. ((c))

    11 September 1961

  4. ((d))

    11 December 1961

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

11 September 1961

The correct answer is 11 September 1961.

Key Points

  • Sangeet Natak Akademi is the national academy of music, dance, and drama in India.
  • The Memorandum of Association is a legal document that defines the constitution and objectives of an organization.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi adopted its Memorandum of Association on September 11, 1961.

Additional Information

  • Sangeet Natak Akademi was established in 1952 by the Government of India.
  • It is headquartered in New Delhi and has regional centers in different parts of the country.
  • The academy promotes and preserves the traditional arts of India and also encourages new and innovative forms of expression.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi also confers awards and fellowships to outstanding artists and scholars in the field of music, dance, and drama.
9

In 2019, the Honourable Supreme Court ordered the demolition of five apartments in Ernakulam’s Maradu Municipality for violation of which rules and regulations?

  1. ((a))

    National Green Tribunal Act

  2. ((b))

    The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

  3. ((c))

    Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Rules

  4. ((d))

    The Hazardous Waste Management Regulations

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Rules

The correct answer is Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Rules.

Key Points

  • The Maradu Municipality in Ernakulam, Kerala had given permission for the construction of five apartment complexes in violation of the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Rules.
  • These rules were introduced in 1991 to regulate development activities along the coast and protect the coastal environment from degradation.
  • The CRZ rules prohibit construction within 200 meters of the high tide line and also restrict certain activities such as mining, reclamation and bunding.
  • The Supreme Court's order for the demolition of the apartments came in response to a petition filed by residents of the area, who had raised concerns about the environmental impact of the constructions.
  • The demolition was carried out in January 2020 and was a significant step towards enforcing environmental regulations in the country.

Additional Information

  • National Green Tribunal Act:
  • The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized court that deals with environmental disputes and violations.
  • NGT can order the closure of industries or impose penalties for violating environmental laws.
  • It is modeled after Article 21 Protection of life and personal liberty in the Indian Constitution, which guarantees inhabitants of India the right to a healthy environment.
  • The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act:
  • This is a law that deals with the prevention and control of water pollution in India.
  • The act was enacted in 1974.
  • The Hazardous Waste Management Regulations:
  • These regulations deal with the management, handling and disposal of hazardous waste.
10

The Thiksey Monastery, the famous Buddhist building is located in which State/UT of India?

  1. ((a))

    Ladakh 

  2. ((b))

    Pondicherry 

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh 

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ladakh 

The correct answer is Ladakh.

Key Points

  • Thiksey Monastery is one of the largest and most famous Buddhist monasteries in Ladakh, located around 19 km east of Leh.
  • It is situated on top of a hill and offers a stunning panoramic view of the surrounding valleys and mountains.
  • The monastery is a 12-storied complex with several prayer halls, stupas, and Buddha statues, and is home to around 80 monks.
  • The annual Thiksey Gustor festival, celebrated in the lunar month of the Tibetan calendar, is a major attraction for tourists and devotees alike.

Additional Information

  • Pondicherry is a Union Territory in South India known for its French colonial architecture and serene beaches.
  • It does not have any significant Buddhist heritage sites.
  • Himachal Pradesh is a state in Northern India known for its scenic beauty and rich cultural heritage.
  • It has several ancient Buddhist monasteries, including the famous Tabo Monastery and the Dhankar Monastery.
  • Kerala is a state in South India known for its backwaters, beaches, and Ayurvedic treatments.
  • It does not have any significant Buddhist heritage sites.
11

The Rajasthan Government launched the 512 new Indira Rasoi from which place, in September 2022? 

  1. ((a))

    Jaipur 

  2. ((b))

    Udaipur 

  3. ((c))

    Jodhpur 

  4. ((d))

    Kota

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jodhpur 

The correct answer is Jodhpur.

Key Points

  • The Rajasthan Government launched 512 new Indira Rasoi in September 2022 from Jodhpur city.
  • Indira Rasoi is a scheme launched by the Rajasthan Government to provide affordable and nutritious food to the needy people of the state.
  • Under this scheme, the government provides breakfast for Rs. 5 and lunch/dinner for Rs. 8 to the poor and needy people of the state.
  • The scheme aims to provide food to the needy people during the COVID-19 pandemic and to eradicate hunger and malnutrition from the state.

Additional Information

  • ​On August 20, 2020, 213 Urban Body Area contained 358 Indira Rasoi at the time of debut.
  • However, the number of Indira Rasoi in Rajasthan has increased from 358 to 1000 as per the 2022–2023 Budget Announcement.
  • Under the Indira Rasoi Yojana, the Rajasthani government aims to feed 2.30 lakh people daily and 9.25 crore people annually at a reasonable cost with nutritious meals.
  • Each food plate that is given to residents of Indira Rasoi will have 250 grams of chapati and achar, 100 grams of vegetables, and 100 grams of Dal.
12

Which of the following folk dances is performed by the tribes of Araku Valley in Visakhapatnam District? 

  1. ((a))

    Chakri 

  2. ((b))

    Dhimsa 

  3. ((c))

    Kajari 

  4. ((d))

    Wancho

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Dhimsa 

The correct answer is Dhimsa.

Key Points

  • Dhimsa is a popular folk dance performed by the tribes of Araku Valley in Visakhapatnam District.
  • Dhimsa is a ritual dance performed during various occasions like weddings, festivals, and other celebrations.
  • The dance is performed by both men and women in a circular formation, with the dancers holding each other's hands and moving in a synchronized manner.
  • The dance is accompanied by the beats of various musical instruments like dhol, madal, and cymbals.

Additional Information

  • Chakri is a folk dance form popular in Rajasthan and Gujarat, which involves spinning in circles while holding dandiya sticks.
  • The Kanjar tribe of Rajasthan is known for its Chakri folk dance.
  • Kajari is a folk dance form popular in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, which is performed during the Kajari festival.
  • It is especially well-liked in the areas of Shahabad, Munger, and Bhojpur.
  • Wancho is a tribal dance form performed by the Wancho tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • It is done for fun and relaxation.
13

Which of the following pairs represents biodegradable materials?

  1. ((a))

    Silver foil : Wool 

  2. ((b))

    Iron nails: Wool 

  3. ((c))

    Silver foil : Iron nails

  4. ((d))

    Leather belt : Wool

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Leather belt : Wool

The correct answer is Leather belt : Wool.

Key Points

  • Biodegradable materials are those that can be broken down naturally by microorganisms into simpler substances that can be reused in nature.
  • Wood, wool, cotton, animal excrement, and any other organic substance that may be broken down by microorganisms into simple organic molecules such as methane and carbon dioxide are examples of biodegradable materials.
  • They're frequently called "bio-waste."
  • Leather belt is a biodegradable material made of animal skin, which can be decomposed naturally by microorganisms in the soil.
  • Wool is a natural fiber obtained from sheep, which is a biodegradable material and can be decomposed naturally.

Additional Information

  • Since non-biodegradable materials do not readily react with or disintegrate in soil, they are not easily influenced by natural processes.
  • Among the objects that are frequently utilized in daily life are plastic items, bottles, cans, aluminum scraps, glasses, supermarket bags, Styrofoam (polystyrene), and metal scraps.
  • Silver foil is a non-biodegradable material made of metal.
  • It does not decompose naturally and remains in the environment for a long time, causing pollution.
  • Iron nails are also non-biodegradable materials made of metal, which do not decompose naturally and cause environmental pollution.
14

A student was given 4 solutions to test with a universal indicator. He reported pH values as solution I : 3, Solution II : 5, Solution III : 7, Solution IV : 9. Which of the following represents a strong alkaline solution?

  1. ((a))

    Solution III 

  2. ((b))

    Solution II

  3. ((c))

    Solution IV 

  4. ((d))

    Solution I

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Solution IV 

The correct answer is Solution IV.

Key Points

  • A strong alkaline solution has a pH value greater than 7, which means that it is basic in nature.
  • Solution III has a pH value of 7, which means it is neutral, not acidic or basic.
  • Solution II has a pH value of 5, which means it is slightly acidic, not alkaline.
  • Solution IV has a pH value of 9, which means it is slightly basic, but not strong alkaline.
  • Solution I has a pH value of 3, which means it is strongly acidic, not alkaline.

Additional Information

  • The universal indicator is a pH indicator used to measure the pH of a solution.
  • "Potential of hydrogen" is what pH has historically meant.
  • It is a scale for indicating how basic or acidic an aqueous solution is.
  • Lower pH values are associated with acidic solutions (those containing more hydrogen (H+) ions) than with basic or alkaline solutions.
  • The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral, below 7 being acidic and above 7 being basic.
15

Doctors use a/an ____________ to listen the sounds of various organs in the human body. 

  1. ((a))

    proctoscope 

  2. ((b))

    otoscope 

  3. ((c))

    stethoscope 

  4. ((d))

    ophthalmoscope

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

stethoscope 

The correct answer is "stethoscope."

Key Points

  • A stethoscope is a medical instrument that doctors use to listen to sounds produced by various organs in the human body, such as the heart, lungs, and intestines.
  • It consists of two earpieces connected by flexible tubing to a chestpiece that is placed on the patient's skin.
  • When the doctor places the chestpiece on the patient's body, the sound waves produced by the organs are transmitted through the tubing to the earpieces, allowing the doctor to hear the sounds.

Additional Information

  • A proctoscope is a medical instrument used to examine the rectum and anus.
  • Proctoscopes are hollow metal tubes that are short, rigid, and straight.
  • Usually, a small light bulb is attached at the end of the tube.
  • An otoscope is a medical instrument used to examine the ear.
  • An ear examination can identify the source of symptoms including hearing loss, fullness in the ear, or earaches.
  • An ophthalmoscope is a medical instrument used to examine the eye.
  • The provider can see the back of the eyeball thanks to its light and several tiny optics.
16

Sathiyan Gnanasekaran won a bronze medal in the Commonwealth Games 2022 by defeating Paul Drinkhall of England in which of the following events?

  1. ((a))

    Cricket 

  2. ((b))

    Chess 

  3. ((c))

    Badminton 

  4. ((d))

    Table tennis

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Table tennis

The correct answer is Table tennis.

Key Points

  • Sathiyan Gnanasekaran won a bronze medal in the Commonwealth Games 2022 in table tennis.
  • He defeated Paul Drinkhall of England in the men's singles bronze medal match.
  • Sathiyan is a professional table tennis player from India who has won multiple national and international titles.
  • The Commonwealth Games is a multi-sport event held every four years, featuring athletes from countries that are part of the Commonwealth of Nations.

Additional Information

  • Two teams of eleven players each play the bat-and-ball game of cricket.
  • The field on which it is played has a 22-yard (20-meter) pitch in the middle, and there are wickets at each end, each with two bails balanced on three stumps.
  • Chess is an abstract strategy game with no elements of chance or concealed knowledge.
  • The game is played on an 8x8 chessboard with 64 squares arranged.
  • Racquets are used in the racquet sport of badminton to strike shuttlecocks over nets. 
  • When the shuttlecock is struck with the racquet and lands inside the opposite team's half of the court, points are scored.
17

Which of the following is an example of folk instrument? 

  1. ((a))

    Giddha 

  2. ((b))

    Munari 

  3. ((c))

    Loor 

  4. ((d))

    Khanjari

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Khanjari

The correct answer is Khanjari.

Key Points

  • A folk instrument is a musical instrument that is typically associated with a particular culture or region and is played by ordinary people rather than professional musicians.
  • Khanjari is an example of a folk instrument.
  • It is a small, handheld percussion instrument that is commonly used in traditional music in Iran and other parts of the Middle East.

Additional Information

  • Giddha is a traditional folk dance form of Punjab, India.
  • It is usually accompanied by dhol, a large barrel-shaped drum, and tumbi, a small stringed instrument.
  • Munari is a type of drum that is used in the music of the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India.
  • It is played with sticks and is often used in religious and cultural ceremonies.
  • Loor is a type of flute that is used in the music of the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, India.
  • It is made from bamboo and is played by blowing air into it.
18

The deficiency of which vitamin causes anaemia? 

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin E 

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin D

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin B3

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin B12

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Vitamin B12

The correct answer is Vitamin B12.

Key Points

  • Vitamin B12 plays a crucial role in the production of red blood cells, which carry oxygen throughout the body.
  • Without enough Vitamin B12, the body is unable to produce enough healthy red blood cells, leading to a condition called megaloblastic anaemia.
  • Symptoms of megaloblastic anaemia include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and pale skin.
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause neurological symptoms such as tingling or numbness in the hands and feet, difficulty walking, and memory problems.

Additional Information

  • Vitamin E: Deficiency of Vitamin E can cause muscle weakness, vision problems, and impaired immune function.
  • Vitamin D: Deficiency of Vitamin D can lead to weakened bones, muscle weakness, and increased risk of fractures.
  • Vitamin B3: Deficiency of Vitamin B3 can cause a condition called pellagra, which is characterized by symptoms such as skin rashes, diarrhea, and mental confusion.
19

In 2015, how many United Nations members adopted Sustainable Development Goals? 

  1. ((a))

    193

  2. ((b))

    150 

  3. ((c))

    112

  4. ((d))

    120

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

193

The correct answer is 193.

Key Points

  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by all 193 United Nations member states in September 2015.
  • "Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development" was the title of the 2030 Development Agenda that was accepted by the 193 member UN General Assembly.
  • The 92 paragraphs in this agenda, the 17 Sustainable Development Goals, together with the 169 targets and 232 indicators that go along with them, are listed in paragraph 59.
  • The SDGs are a set of 17 goals with 169 targets that aim to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure prosperity for all.

Additional Information

  • The SDGs were established by the UNGA in 2015 as a component of the Post-2015 Development Agenda.
  • The goal of this agenda was to create a new framework for global development in place of the Millennium Development Goals, which were finished that year.
  • These objectives were publicly stated and approved in a resolution passed by the UNGA that became known as the 2030 Agenda, or simply Agenda 2030.
  • A UNGA decision adopted on July 6, 2017, gave the SDGs more concrete deadlines and progress indicators, making them more implementable.
  • While some goals have no deadline, the majority are expected to be completed by 2030.
20

Which of the following elements does NOT belong to the 2nd period of the periodic table?

  1. ((a))

    ​Beryllium

  2. ((b))

    Lithium

  3. ((c))

    Boron

  4. ((d))

    Helium

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Helium

The correct answer is Helium.

Key Points

  • He does not belong to the 2nd period as it has only 1 energy level, which is the first period.
  • Helium has atomic number two and the symbol He.
  • It is the first gas in the periodic table's noble gas category and is colorless, odorless, tasteless, non-toxic, and inert.
  • Among all the elements, it has the lowest boiling point and, at standard pressures, no melting point.

Additional Information

  • The 2nd period of the periodic table consists of elements with 2 energy levels, which are Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F, and Ne.
  • Beryllium (Be) is a chemical element with the symbol Be and atomic number 4.
  • Be belongs to the 2nd period as it has 2 energy levels.
  • It is a relatively rare element in the universe, usually occurring as a product of the spallation of larger atomic nuclei that have collided with cosmic rays.
  • Lithium (Li) is a chemical element with the symbol Li and atomic number 3.
  • Li belongs to the 2nd period as it has 2 energy levels.
  • It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal and the lightest solid element.
  • Boron (B) is a chemical element with the symbol B and atomic number 5.
  • B belongs to the 2nd period as it has 2 energy levels.
  • It is a metalloid and the only non-metal of the group 13 elements on the periodic table.

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt