Official Paper

PYST 16: IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper - General Awareness (Held On: 30 Sept, 2025 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

20 questions · 8 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

Test (20 questions)

1

Who among the following was appointed as India's executive director at the Asian Development Bank in September 2025?

  1. ((a))

    G Aparna Rao

  2. ((b))

    Pankaj Kumar Mishra

  3. ((c))

    Sanjay Bahadur

  4. ((d))

    L Satya Srinivas

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

L Satya Srinivas

The correct answer is L Satya Srinivas.

Key Points

  • L Satya Srinivas was appointed as India's Executive Director at the Asian Development Bank (ADB) in September 2025.
  • He replaced the outgoing Executive Director and joined the team responsible for representing India's interests at the ADB.
  • The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank headquartered in Manila, Philippines, established in 1966 to promote economic and social development in Asia and the Pacific region.
  • India is among the founding members of the ADB and holds a significant position in the bank's operations and governance.
  • As an Executive Director, Srinivas is expected to play a pivotal role in ensuring India's developmental priorities align with ADB's policies and funding mechanisms.

Additional Information

  • G Aparna Rao:
  • No recent information or significant appointments have been found about G Aparna Rao related to the Asian Development Bank or similar institutions in 2025.
  • She might be a prominent figure in another domain; however, she is not associated with this appointment.
  • Pankaj Kumar Mishra:
  • No credible information or association with the Asian Development Bank in the context of Executive Director appointments in 2025.
  • He could be involved in other government or administrative roles unrelated to the ADB.
  • Sanjay Bahadur:
  • Similarly, no recent news or appointments link Sanjay Bahadur to the Asian Development Bank in 2025.
  • He may hold other key roles outside the scope of this specific appointment.
  • Asian Development Bank (ADB):
  • The ADB works to foster economic growth, reduce poverty, and improve living standards in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • It provides loans, grants, and technical assistance to its member countries for various development projects.
  • India has been a major beneficiary of ADB funding for infrastructure, energy, and social development projects.
  • ADB’s governance structure includes a Board of Governors and a Board of Directors, with representatives from member countries.
2

In 2025, which state became the first to empanel sign language interpreters and special educators under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, to assist children with special needs during judicial proceedings?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gujarat

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • In 2025, Gujarat became the first state in India to empanel sign language interpreters and special educators under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.
  • This initiative aims to assist children with special needs during judicial proceedings, ensuring their rights and access to justice.
  • The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, mandates special provisions for children in conflict with the law and children in need of care and protection.
  • Empaneling sign language interpreters and special educators ensures inclusivity and compliance with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), which India ratified in 2007.
  • The move is a significant step toward empowering children with disabilities, providing them a fair opportunity for justice, and addressing their unique requirements.

Additional Information

  • Juvenile Justice Act, 2015:
  • The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, governs the care, protection, and rehabilitation of children in conflict with the law and children in need of care and protection.
  • It emphasizes the importance of child-friendly procedures in judicial proceedings to ensure children’s rights are protected.
  • The Act also provides for the establishment of Juvenile Justice Boards and Child Welfare Committees.
  • Special Educators and Sign Language Interpreters:
  • Special educators are professionals trained to work with children with disabilities, tailoring educational methods to their needs.
  • Sign language interpreters facilitate communication for individuals with hearing and speech disabilities.
  • Their inclusion in judicial processes ensures accessibility and compliance with disability rights.
  • Other States and Disability Inclusion:
  • Punjab, West Bengal, and Bihar have implemented several disability-related initiatives but have not yet empaneled interpreters and educators under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.
  • Gujarat’s move sets a precedent for other states to adopt similar measures for inclusivity.
3

The Basic Customs Duty (BCD) on which of the following was increased from 10% to 20% in the Union Budget 2025-26?

  1. ((a))

    Lithium Ion Batteries

  2. ((b))

    Interactive Flat Panel Display

  3. ((c))

    Wet Blue Leather

  4. ((d))

    Carrier Grade Ethernet Switches

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Interactive Flat Panel Display

The correct answer is Interactive Flat Panel Display.

Key Points

  • In the Union Budget 2025-26, the Basic Customs Duty (BCD) on Interactive Flat Panel Displays was increased from 10% to 20%.
  • This measure was taken to promote domestic manufacturing under the “Make in India” initiative and reduce dependency on imports.
  • Interactive Flat Panel Displays are widely used in education, corporate environments, and conference setups, making them a significant part of the electronics and technology market.
  • The increased duty is expected to boost local production capacity and encourage investment in this sector.
  • This step aligns with India’s goal of reducing the import of non-essential electronic items and achieving self-reliance in technology and manufacturing.

Additional Information

  • Lithium-Ion Batteries
  • Lithium-ion batteries are widely used in electronic devices such as mobile phones, laptops, and electric vehicles.
  • India has been focusing on boosting the domestic production of lithium-ion batteries to reduce reliance on imports, especially for the electric vehicle (EV) sector.
  • The government has introduced the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme to promote local manufacturing of advanced chemistry cells, including lithium-ion batteries.
  • Wet Blue Leather
  • Wet blue leather refers to semi-processed leather that has been treated with chromium salts to prevent decomposition.
  • India is one of the leading exporters of leather products, but wet blue leather is often regarded as an intermediate product in the leather value chain.
  • The government has been encouraging higher-value processing of leather to increase export earnings instead of exporting semi-processed leather.
  • Carrier Grade Ethernet Switches
  • Carrier-grade Ethernet switches are used in telecommunications networks to provide high-speed data transfer and reliability.
  • They are critical for the deployment of advanced communication networks such as 5G and broadband infrastructure.
  • India has been working on enhancing the local production of such components under schemes like the PLI for telecom and networking products.
4

Which of the following is identified as a structural or land-use measure that can effectively help mitigate the adverse impacts of floods in India?

  1. ((a))

    Encourage settlement and promote further human activities in the riverine floodplains

  2. ((b))

    Straighten natural river courses extensively to accelerate the flow of excess water

  3. ((c))

    Remove human encroachments from channels and depopulate floodplains wherever necessary

  4. ((d))

    Pave catchment areas heavily to increase surface runoff and reduce infiltration

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Remove human encroachments from channels and depopulate floodplains wherever necessary

The correct answer is Remove human encroachments from channels and depopulate floodplains wherever necessary.

Key Points

  • Removing human encroachments from flood channels prevents blockages that exacerbate flooding during heavy rainfall.
  • Depopulating floodplains is a structural measure to mitigate flood impacts as it reduces risk to life and property in areas prone to frequent flooding.
  • Floodplains are natural buffers during heavy rainfall; clearing encroachments ensures unhindered flow of water and reduces the likelihood of waterlogging and inundation.
  • Such measures are aligned with sustainable urban planning practices and disaster risk reduction initiatives promoted by organizations like the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
  • These actions also allow proper utilization of floodplains for activities such as agriculture or as natural ecosystems, which can absorb excess water and reduce flood intensity.

Additional Information

  • Flood management in India:
  • Flood management involves structural measures like embankments, flood shelters, and drainage systems, along with non-structural measures like early warning systems, zoning regulations, and public awareness campaigns.
  • The NDMA and State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) play a pivotal role in implementing flood mitigation strategies in India.
  • Sustainable urban planning, afforestation in catchment areas, and community participation are integral to reducing flood risks.
5

What is the total allocation for the Ministry of Minority Affairs in the Union Budget 2025-26?

  1. ((a))

    ₹3,350.00 crore

  2. ((b))

    ₹2,000.00 crore

  3. ((c))

    ₹3,183.24 crore

  4. ((d))

    1,868.18 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹3,350.00 crore

The correct answer is ₹3,350.00 crore.

Key Points

  • The total allocation for the Ministry of Minority Affairs in the Union Budget 2025-26 is ₹3,350.00 crore.
  • This allocation is aimed at supporting the welfare of minority communities through various schemes and programs.
  • The ministry focuses on socio-economic and educational development initiatives for minorities, including scholarships, skill development, and infrastructure development.
  • Some flagship schemes under this allocation include the "Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)" and pre-matric and post-matric scholarships for minority students.
  • The allocation has been made to empower and uplift minority communities as a part of the government's inclusive growth strategy.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Minority Affairs:
  • The Ministry of Minority Affairs was established in 2006 to ensure a focused approach to the issues related to the minorities and to facilitate their growth.
  • It administers programs such as the "Nai Roshni" scheme for leadership development of minority women, "Seekho aur Kamao" for skill development, and the "USTTAD" scheme for promoting traditional arts and crafts.
  • The ministry also oversees initiatives like the "Maulana Azad National Fellowship" and "Padho Pardes" for the educational advancement of minority students.
6

What is the primary purpose of establishing the second 'Gene Bank' for crops germplasm, as announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?

  1. ((a))

    To promote the research of genetically modified crops

  2. ((b))

    To centralise seed certification

  3. ((c))

    To ensure future food and nutritional security

  4. ((d))

    To boost the export of hybrid seeds

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To ensure future food and nutritional security

The correct answer is To ensure future food and nutritional security.

Key Points

  • The second 'Gene Bank' for crop germplasm is aimed at preserving genetic material to address challenges like climate change, biodiversity loss, and food insecurity.
  • It serves as a repository for seeds and genetic material of crops, ensuring their availability for future generations.
  • Crop germplasm conservation contributes to developing resilient crop varieties capable of withstanding environmental stressors such as droughts, floods, and pest attacks.
  • This initiative aligns with India's commitment to sustainable agriculture and safeguarding the food and nutritional security of its population.
  • The gene bank enhances research opportunities, enabling scientists to innovate and improve crop yields and nutritional profiles.

Additional Information

  • Gene Banks and Their Role
  • Gene banks play a pivotal role in preserving plant genetic resources, ensuring their availability for future research and breeding programs.
  • They act as insurance against the loss of biodiversity due to factors like climate change, habitat destruction, and over-exploitation.
  • India already has an established National Gene Bank at the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR), and the creation of a second gene bank further strengthens its efforts in sustainable agriculture.
7

What process allows plants to produce sugars using the sun's energy and carbon dioxide?

  1. ((a))

    Photosynthesis

  2. ((b))

    Germination

  3. ((c))

    Respiration

  4. ((d))

    Fermentation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Photosynthesis

The correct answer is Photosynthesis.

Key Points

  • Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water into glucose (sugar) and oxygen.
  • This process primarily occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells, which contain the green pigment chlorophyll that absorbs light energy.
  • The chemical equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2.
  • Photosynthesis is essential for life on Earth as it produces oxygen, which is vital for the survival of most living organisms, and it forms the base of the food chain.
  • The two main stages of photosynthesis are: Light-dependent reactions (occur in the thylakoid membranes and produce ATP and NADPH) and Calvin Cycle or light-independent reactions (occur in the stroma and produce glucose).

Additional Information

  • Germination
  • Germination is the process by which a seed develops into a seedling under favorable environmental conditions such as water, oxygen, and temperature.
  • It begins with the absorption of water (imbibition), which activates enzymes that break down stored food in the seed to provide energy for growth.
  • The primary stages include radicle (root) emergence, plumule (shoot) development, and growth into a young plant.
  • While germination is crucial for plant growth, it does not involve the production of sugars through sunlight and carbon dioxide.
  • Respiration
  • Respiration is a biological process in which glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen to release energy in the form of ATP.
  • The chemical equation for aerobic respiration is: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP).
  • Unlike photosynthesis, respiration occurs in all living organisms, including plants, animals, and microbes, and it does not produce sugars but rather utilizes them as a source of energy.
  • Fermentation
  • Fermentation is an anaerobic process (occurs in the absence of oxygen) in which glucose is partially broken down to produce energy.
  • Products of fermentation depend on the organism: for example, yeast produces ethanol and carbon dioxide, while lactic acid bacteria produce lactic acid.
  • Fermentation is used in various industries, such as brewing, baking, and dairy production, but it does not involve photosynthesis or sugar production through sunlight and carbon dioxide.
8

Which scheme has the Maharashtra government proposed to cover high cost medical treatments exceeding ₹5 lakh (e.g. organ transplants)?

  1. ((a))

    Ayushman Bharat State Plan

  2. ((b))

    Free Insurance for critical illness

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra Swasthya Suraksha Yojana

  4. ((d))

    Creation of a special corpus fund for such treatments

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Maharashtra Swasthya Suraksha Yojana

The correct answer is Maharashtra Swasthya Suraksha Yojana.

Key Points

  • The Maharashtra government has proposed the Maharashtra Swasthya Suraksha Yojana to provide financial assistance for high-cost medical treatments exceeding ₹5 lakh.
  • This scheme aims to cover treatments such as organ transplants, cancer treatments, and other critical illnesses requiring significant financial resources.
  • The initiative is designed to bridge the gap in medical coverage for families who are unable to afford expensive treatments under existing schemes.
  • It is expected to leverage the infrastructure and network of empaneled hospitals across the state for delivering these specialized healthcare services.
  • The scheme aligns with the state's larger objective of ensuring universal health coverage and reducing the financial burden on economically weaker sections.

Additional Information

  • Ayushman Bharat State Plan
  • This is a modified version of the Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), tailored to the needs of individual states.
  • The scheme provides health insurance coverage of ₹5 lakh per family annually for secondary and tertiary healthcare services.
  • While beneficial, it does not cover medical treatments exceeding ₹5 lakh, which necessitated the introduction of Maharashtra Swasthya Suraksha Yojana.
  • Free Insurance for Critical Illness
  • This is a general concept rather than a specific scheme in Maharashtra.
  • Critical illness insurance plans typically cover diseases such as cancer, heart attacks, kidney failure, and strokes, but they might not address the high costs of organ transplants or other advanced treatments.
  • Such plans are often provided by private insurance companies rather than state governments.
  • Creation of a Special Corpus Fund for Such Treatments
  • This option refers to the establishment of a dedicated financial reserve to support high-cost medical treatments.
  • While it is a feasible approach, Maharashtra has chosen to implement the Maharashtra Swasthya Suraksha Yojana for a structured and sustainable solution instead of a one-time corpus fund.
9

Which of the following is a famous monument in Vijayapura, Karnataka and is the tomb of Mohammed Adil Shah?

  1. ((a))

    Gol Gumbaz

  2. ((b))

    Wazir Khan Mosque

  3. ((c))

    Pari Mahal

  4. ((d))

    Hazira Maqbara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gol Gumbaz

The correct answer is Gol Gumbaz.

Key Points

  • Gol Gumbaz is the tomb of Mohammed Adil Shah, the Sultan of Bijapur (Vijayapura), and is located in Karnataka, India.
  • The monument is renowned for its massive dome, which is one of the largest unsupported domes in the world, measuring approximately 44 meters in diameter.
  • Gol Gumbaz was constructed in 1656 and represents the architectural brilliance of the Deccan Sultanate.
  • The structure is famous for its acoustic features, particularly the whispering gallery, where even the faintest sound can be heard clearly across the chamber.
  • The monument is built using dark grey basalt and features Indo-Islamic architectural elements such as arches, domes, and minarets.

Additional Information

  • Wazir Khan Mosque
  • The Wazir Khan Mosque is located in Lahore, Pakistan, and is a renowned example of Mughal architecture.
  • It was built in the 17th century during the reign of Emperor Shah Jahan.
  • The mosque is celebrated for its intricate tile work and frescoes, which adorn its walls and arches.
  • Pari Mahal
  • Pari Mahal, also known as the “Palace of Fairies,” is located in Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir.
  • It was built by Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan, in the mid-17th century.
  • This structure served as a library and an observatory for Dara Shikoh and is surrounded by beautiful gardens.
  • It is unrelated to the Deccan Sultanate or Gol Gumbaz.
  • Hazira Maqbara
  • Hazira Maqbara is a tomb located in Vadodara, Gujarat, India.
  • It is the resting place of Qutb-ud-Din Muhammad Khan, a Mughal governor of Gujarat.
  • The monument is known for its Indo-Islamic architecture, featuring domes and intricate carvings.
10

Mustard, rose and petunia are examples of plants with __________

  1. ((a))

    dioecious flowers

  2. ((b))

    bisexual flowers

  3. ((c))

    incomplete flowers

  4. ((d))

    unisexual flowers

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

bisexual flowers

The correct answer is bisexual flowers.

Key Points

  • Mustard, rose, and petunia are examples of plants with bisexual flowers, also referred to as perfect flowers.
  • A bisexual flower contains both male (stamens) and female (carpels) reproductive organs in the same flower, making it capable of self-pollination.
  • Bisexual flowers ensure higher chances of reproduction and do not rely solely on external pollinators, although cross-pollination can still occur.
  • These flowers are common in angiosperms and are characterized by their ability to perform both male and female reproductive functions.
  • Some other examples of plants with bisexual flowers include sunflower, lily, and hibiscus.

Additional Information

  • Dioecious flowers
  • Dioecious plants have unisexual flowers, meaning the male and female flowers are borne on separate plants.
  • Examples of dioecious plants include papaya and date palm.
  • This arrangement prevents self-pollination and ensures cross-pollination, which promotes genetic diversity.
  • Incomplete flowers
  • An incomplete flower is one that lacks one or more of the four main floral parts: sepals, petals, stamens, or carpels.
  • Examples include corn and squash.
  • These flowers can be either unisexual or bisexual.
  • Unisexual flowers
  • Unisexual flowers contain either stamens (male reproductive organs) or carpels (female reproductive organs), but not both.
  • Examples include cucumber, pumpkin, and watermelon.
  • They can occur in monoecious plants (both male and female flowers on the same plant) or dioecious plants (male and female flowers on different plants).
11

Which of the following statements about tiger reserves in India is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Namdapha TR is in Assam, while Dampa TR is in Manipur.

  2. ((b))

    Indravati TR is in Chhattisgarh, and Udanti-Sitanadi TR is also in Chhattisgarh.

  3. ((c))

    Nameri TR is in Arunachal Pradesh, while Pakke TR is in Assam.

  4. ((d))

    Bandhavgarh TR lies in Chhattisgarh, whereas Kaziranga TR lies in Madhya Pradesh.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Indravati TR is in Chhattisgarh, and Udanti-Sitanadi TR is also in Chhattisgarh.

The correct answer is Indravati TR is in Chhattisgarh, and Udanti-Sitanadi TR is also in Chhattisgarh..

Key Points

  • Indravati Tiger Reserve is situated in the state of Chhattisgarh and is one of the most prominent tiger reserves in the region.
  • Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve is also located in Chhattisgarh, adding to the state's rich biodiversity and commitment to tiger conservation.
  • Both tiger reserves are part of India's Project Tiger initiative, which aims to protect and increase the population of Bengal tigers across the country.
  • Chhattisgarh is known for its dense forests and serves as an important habitat for a variety of flora and fauna, making it a critical region for wildlife conservation.
  • These reserves not only serve as tiger habitats but are also home to other species such as leopards, bears, and a variety of herbivores and birds.

Additional Information

  • Namdapha Tiger Reserve and Dampa Tiger Reserve (Option 1)
  • Namdapha Tiger Reserve is located in Arunachal Pradesh, not Assam.
  • Dampa Tiger Reserve is situated in Mizoram, not Manipur.
  • Namdapha is known for its unique biodiversity and is one of the largest protected areas in the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot.
  • Dampa is a lesser-known tiger reserve but plays a crucial role in the conservation of the tiger population in Northeast India.
  • Nameri Tiger Reserve and Pakke Tiger Reserve (Option 3)
  • Nameri Tiger Reserve is located in Assam, not Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Pakke Tiger Reserve, also known as Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary, is situated in Arunachal Pradesh, not Assam.
  • Both reserves are part of the Eastern Himalayan region and are known for their rich biodiversity, including tigers, elephants, and several bird species.
  • Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve and Kaziranga Tiger Reserve (Option 4)
  • Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh.
  • Kaziranga Tiger Reserve is situated in Assam, not Madhya Pradesh.
  • Kaziranga is world-renowned for its population of one-horned rhinoceroses, in addition to being a tiger reserve.
12

What is a key feature of Khelo Bharat Niti 2025 introduced by the Indian Government?

  1. ((a))

    It reduces the budget allocation for sports to focus on other sectors.

  2. ((b))

    It integrates sports programmes with the National Education Policy 2020.

  3. ((c))

    It limits participation of women and persons with disabilities in sports.

  4. ((d))

    It seeks to privatise all national sports federations.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It integrates sports programmes with the National Education Policy 2020.

The correct answer is It integrates sports programmes with the National Education Policy 2020.

Key Points

  • Khelo Bharat Niti 2025 is a significant initiative launched by the Indian Government to promote sports and physical education as a vital component of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
  • The policy encourages integrating sports into the education curriculum to foster holistic development among students, emphasizing physical and mental well-being.
  • Under NEP 2020, sports and physical education are considered essential for developing critical life skills such as teamwork, leadership, and discipline, aligning with the goals of Khelo Bharat Niti.
  • The initiative aims to create a sports-centric ecosystem by improving sports infrastructure in schools and colleges and encouraging participation in regional, national, and international events.
  • The policy also focuses on inclusivity, ensuring access to sports for all sections of society, including women, persons with disabilities, and economically disadvantaged groups.

Additional Information

  • Key Pillars & Objectives Khelo Bharat Niti:
  • Global Excellence: Nurturing champions via early talent ID (KIRTI), robust support, and world-class systems to compete globally.
  • Economic Development: Leveraging sports for tourism, manufacturing, tech, jobs, and attracting CSR.
  • Social Development: Promoting inclusivity (women, PwDs, rural) and health through mass participation and awareness.
  • Mass Movement: Integrating sports into daily life, supported by robust competitions and leagues from local to national levels.
  • Integration with Education: Merging sports with NEP 2020 for holistic development, dual career paths, and recognizing sports as a career.
13

As per World Bank's Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, India's poverty at the $3.65/day line fell from 61.8% (2011-12) to how much percentage in 2022-23?

  1. ((a))

    22.0%

  2. ((b))

    28.1%

  3. ((c))

    15.5%

  4. ((d))

    41.0%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

28.1%

The correct answer is 28.1%.

Key Points

  • According to the World Bank's Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, India's poverty at the $3.65/day line decreased significantly from 61.8% in 2011-12 to 28.1% in 2022-23.
  • This marks a notable reduction in poverty levels, driven by economic growth, poverty alleviation programs, and improved access to basic services.
  • The $3.65/day poverty line is used by the World Bank as a measure of lower-middle-income poverty, aligning with India's classification as a lower-middle-income country.
  • The decrease reflects India's focus on increasing financial inclusion, employment generation, and targeted welfare programs for marginalized communities.
  • India's efforts in areas such as rural electrification, sanitation, education, and healthcare have contributed to lifting millions out of poverty.

Additional Information

  • Some reasons of Poverty in India:
  • Unemployment & Underemployment: More job seekers than available jobs, especially in formal sectors.
  • Lack of Capital & Entrepreneurship: Shortage of investment and entrepreneurial drive.
  • Unequal Growth: Economic growth benefits few, with a weak trickledown effect.
  • Rising Prices (Inflation): Increases cost of basic goods, affecting the poor most.
  • Rapid Population Growth: Strains resources and lowers per capita income.
  • Caste System & Discrimination: Hinders access to education, jobs, and basic services for certain groups.
  • Lack of Quality Education & Healthcare: Illiteracy and poor health trap people in poverty.
  • S ocial Customs: High spending on ceremonies/obligations leading to debt.
14

What was the original name of Bharatanatyam before it evolved into its present form?

  1. ((a))

    Sadir or Dasi Attam

  2. ((b))

    Sattriya

  3. ((c))

    Kathak

  4. ((d))

    Mohiniattam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sadir or Dasi Attam

The correct answer is Sadir or Dasi Attam.

Key Points

  • Bharatanatyam, one of the oldest classical dance forms in India, was traditionally known as Sadir or Dasi Attam.
  • Sadir was performed by Devadasis (female temple dancers) in temples as a form of religious offering and expression of devotion to the deities.
  • The dance form was an essential part of temple rituals, often narrating mythological stories and expressing spiritual themes through intricate hand gestures (mudras) and facial expressions (abhinaya).
  • In the early 20th century, Bharatanatyam was redefined and restructured by prominent artists such as Rukmini Devi Arundale, who elevated it from temple performances to a respected art form on stage.
  • The name Bharatanatyam is derived from “Bha” (expression or Bhava), “Ra” (melody or Raga), “Ta” (rhythm or Tala), and “Natyam” (dance).

Additional Information

  • Sattriya:
  • Sattriya is a classical dance form of India that originated in Assam and was introduced by the Vaishnavite saint Sankardev in the 15th century.
  • It was traditionally performed in Satras (Vaishnavite monasteries) as part of religious rituals and storytelling.
  • The dance form includes expressive hand gestures, footwork, and rhythmic movements that convey spiritual and mythological themes.
  • Kathak:
  • Kathak is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating in North India.
  • The term “Kathak” is derived from the Sanskrit word “Katha,” meaning story, as this dance form involves narrating stories through gestures, expressions, and intricate footwork.
  • It has influences from both Hindu temple traditions and Persian/Mughal culture.
  • Kathak is known for its swift spins (chakkars) and rhythmic patterns of foot movements.
  • Mohiniattam:
  • Mohiniattam is a classical dance form that originated in Kerala and is characterized by graceful, feminine movements.
  • The name “Mohiniattam” is derived from “Mohini,” the mythical female avatar of Lord Vishnu, and “attam,” meaning dance.
  • This dance form is performed as a solo recital and often depicts themes of love and devotion, especially towards Lord Vishnu.
  • It incorporates elements of both Bharatanatyam and Kerala’s traditional dance forms like Kathakali.
15

In September 2025, what is the purpose of the 'i-Passport' launched by AMTZ in Visakhapatnam?

  1. ((a))

    Support foreign investor entry

  2. ((b))

    Fast-track MedTech innovation

  3. ((c))

    Facilitate international travel

  4. ((d))

    Create digital health records

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fast-track MedTech innovation

The correct answer is Fast-track MedTech innovation.

Key Points

  • The 'i-Passport' was launched by Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone (AMTZ) in Visakhapatnam in September 2025 to accelerate MedTech innovation and research.
  • It is designed to support innovators, researchers, and manufacturers in the medical technology sector.
  • The platform aims to streamline regulatory processes, enhance collaboration, and provide a fast-track mechanism for MedTech product development.
  • It is expected to foster global competitiveness by simplifying access to resources and facilitating connections between innovators and regulatory bodies.
  • AMTZ is India's premier medical device manufacturing park, and its initiatives, like the 'i-Passport,' are geared towards strengthening India's position in the global MedTech industry.

Additional Information

  • Support foreign investor entry (Option 1):
  • This refers to initiatives or policies that facilitate the entry of foreign investors into specific industries or markets.
  • While fostering foreign investments is crucial for economic growth, the 'i-Passport' is specifically aimed at MedTech innovation and not directly related to foreign investor entry.
  • India already has several schemes and policies to attract foreign investments in the healthcare and MedTech sectors.
  • Facilitate international travel (Option 3):
  • This option suggests tools or mechanisms aimed at simplifying international travel processes, such as passports, visas, or travel documentation.
  • The 'i-Passport' launched by AMTZ does not relate to travel facilitation but rather focuses on innovation in the MedTech sector.
  • It is a specialized initiative for healthcare technology, not for global mobility or tourism.
  • Create digital health records (Option 4):
  • Digital health records refer to electronic systems that store and manage patient health information for better healthcare delivery.
  • Although digital health records are an important aspect of healthcare innovation, the 'i-Passport' is specifically tailored to MedTech innovation and does not directly address this domain.
  • India has separate initiatives like the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM) for digital health records.
16

Which of the following was NOT a typical feature of Harappan architecture?

  1. ((a))

    Public baths

  2. ((b))

    Drainage systems

  3. ((c))

    Pyramidal temples

  4. ((d))

    Large granaries

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pyramidal temples

The correct answer is Pyramidal temples.

Key Points

  • Harappan civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization (2600–1900 BCE), was renowned for its advanced urban planning and architecture.
  • Pyramidal temples were not a characteristic feature of Harappan architecture. Unlike Mesopotamian or Egyptian civilizations, the Harappans did not construct monumental religious structures like pyramids or ziggurats.
  • The Harappan society primarily focused on utilitarian structures such as granaries, public baths, and residential complexes, reflecting their emphasis on civic planning and practicality over religious monumentalism.
  • The religious practices of the Harappans were decentralized, and their worship was likely conducted in smaller shrines or at household levels, rather than in large temple complexes.
  • The absence of pyramidal temples highlights the cultural and architectural distinctions between the Harappan civilization and other contemporary ancient civilizations like Egypt and Mesopotamia.

Additional Information

  • Public baths:
  • The most famous example of a public bath in the Harappan civilization is the Great Bath of Mohenjo-Daro.
  • The Great Bath is a large, rectangular tank built with baked bricks and a layer of bitumen for waterproofing.
  • It was likely used for ritualistic or ceremonial bathing, emphasizing the importance of cleanliness and water in their culture.
  • Drainage systems:
  • The Harappans are celebrated for their advanced drainage systems, which included covered drains and manholes for maintenance.
  • Each house had a private bathroom connected to the drainage network, showcasing their understanding of sanitation and urban planning.
  • This sophisticated system ensured efficient waste disposal and reduced the risk of waterlogging or contamination.
  • Large granaries:
  • Granaries were massive storage structures used to store surplus grain, indicating a well-organized agricultural economy.
  • Some of the granaries, like those found in Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro, were strategically located near trade routes and residential areas.
  • These granaries likely served as central storage for food supplies and played a key role in trade and distribution.
17

The Tamil Nadu government launched which scheme in 2025 to support parentless children by giving them monthly assistance until they turn 18?

  1. ((a))

    Ungaludan Stalin

  2. ((b))

    Anbu Karangal

  3. ((c))

    Amma Nanna Vote

  4. ((d))

    Pennin Perumai

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Anbu Karangal

The correct answer is Anbu Karangal.

Key Points

  • The Tamil Nadu government launched the Anbu Karangal scheme in 2025 to provide monthly financial assistance to parentless children until they turn 18 years old.
  • The scheme aims to address the social and economic challenges faced by parentless children by ensuring financial stability and access to basic needs.
  • Under this initiative, eligible children receive a monthly assistance amount directly credited to their bank accounts.
  • The scheme is part of Tamil Nadu's broader efforts to prioritize child welfare and provide support to vulnerable sections of society.
  • It emphasizes the government's commitment to social justice and equitable development in the state.

Additional Information

  • Ungaludan Stalin
  • This is a public grievance redressal program launched by the Tamil Nadu government to address the concerns of citizens and provide timely solutions.
  • It allows people to directly communicate their issues to the Chief Minister, ensuring transparency and accountability in governance.
  • Amma Nanna Vote
  • This is not an official scheme but could be interpreted as a fictional or political slogan referring to voter engagement campaigns.
  • Such slogans are often used to encourage public participation in elections and highlight the importance of voting as a democratic right.
  • Pennin Perumai
  • While "Pennin Perumai" translates to "Pride of Women," there is no specific government scheme under this name as of now.
  • However, Tamil Nadu has several women-centric initiatives like financial aid for women's education and self-help groups.
18

The Veer Savarkar Sports Complex, India's largest sports complex, was inaugurated by Union Home Minister Amit Shah in September 2025 in which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Saharanpur

  2. ((b))

    Faridabad

  3. ((c))

    Bikaner

  4. ((d))

    Naranpura

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Naranpura

The correct answer is Naranpura.

Key Points

  • The Veer Savarkar Sports Complex was inaugurated in Naranpura, Ahmedabad, Gujarat, by Union Home Minister Amit Shah in September 2025.
  • This sports complex is India's largest sports infrastructure, designed to promote sports culture and provide world-class facilities for athletes.
  • The facility spans a vast area and includes amenities for multiple sports such as swimming, athletics, indoor games, and outdoor sports.
  • The sports complex is equipped with state-of-the-art technology and infrastructure to host national and international sporting events.
  • The project emphasizes the Indian government's commitment to developing sports infrastructure under its vision of promoting sports and fitness in the country.

Additional Information

  • Saharanpur
  • Saharanpur is located in Uttar Pradesh and is known for its hand-carved wooden handicrafts industry.
  • Faridabad
  • Faridabad, in Haryana, is a major industrial hub in India and is known for its manufacturing industries.
  • Bikaner
  • Bikaner, located in Rajasthan, is famous for its historical forts, temples, and cultural heritage.
  • Veer Savarkar Sports Complex
  • The sports complex is named after Veer Savarkar, a prominent freedom fighter, and nationalist.
  • This initiative aligns with the government's goal of promoting sports infrastructure under programs such as Khelo India.
  • It is expected to play a significant role in nurturing young talent and boosting India's sports capabilities on the global stage.
19

Which fund was launched in the Union Budget 2025 to provide relief to distressed housing projects and homebuyers?

  1. ((a))

    Urban Rejuvenation Mission

  2. ((b))

    Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana

  3. ((c))

    National Infrastructure Pipeline

  4. ((d))

    SWAMIH Fund 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

SWAMIH Fund 2

The correct answer is SWAMIH Fund 2.

Key Points

  • The SWAMIH (Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing) Fund 2 was launched to provide last-mile funding for stalled housing projects.
  • This initiative was introduced in the Union Budget 2025 to address the issue of distressed housing projects and provide relief to homebuyers.
  • It builds upon the success of the first SWAMIH Fund, which was launched in 2019, targeting completion of delayed housing projects.
  • The fund is managed by SBICAP Ventures Limited, a subsidiary of the State Bank of India (SBI).
  • The primary objective is to revive stalled housing projects in the affordable and mid-income categories, ensuring homebuyers get possession of their homes.
  • SWAMIH Fund 2 is backed by the Ministry of Finance, providing financial support to developers to complete unfinished projects and reduce the financial burden on homebuyers.

Additional Information

  • Urban Rejuvenation Mission (AMRUT)
  • AMRUT stands for the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation.
  • It was launched in 2015 to improve infrastructure and basic services in urban areas, focusing on water supply, sewerage, and non-motorized urban transport.
  • It aims to make cities sustainable and improve the quality of life for urban residents.
  • Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)
  • Launched in 2015, PMAY aims to provide affordable housing to all by 2022 under the slogan “Housing for All.”
  • It has two components: PMAY-Urban (PMAY-U) and PMAY-Gramin (PMAY-G) for urban and rural areas, respectively.
  • It offers subsidies on home loans for economically weaker sections (EWS), low-income groups (LIG), and middle-income groups (MIG).
  • National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP)
  • The NIP is a comprehensive plan launched in 2019 to develop infrastructure across various sectors in India.
  • It aims to enhance economic growth and improve the quality of life for citizens by addressing critical infrastructure gaps.
  • The NIP envisions investments in sectors like energy, transportation, water, sanitation, and digital infrastructure.
20

Who won the award for the Best Film Critic at the 71st National Film Awards, announced in August 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Subash Sahoo

  2. ((b))

    Utpal Datta

  3. ((c))

    Sanjib Parasar

  4. ((d))

    Piyush Thakur

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Utpal Datta

The correct answer is Utpal Datta.

Key Points

  • Utpal Datta is a renowned Indian film critic, writer, and filmmaker from Assam.
  • He won the Best Film Critic award at the 71st National Film Awards announced in August 2025.
  • His contributions to the field of film criticism are widely recognized for their depth, insight, and emphasis on regional cinema, particularly Assamese cinema.
  • Utpal Datta has authored several books on cinema and has worked extensively to promote and document the history and evolution of Assamese and Indian films.
  • The National Film Awards honor his critical analysis and significant efforts in enriching the film culture of India.

Additional Information

  • Subash Sahoo
  • Subash Sahoo is a prominent sound designer in the Indian film industry.
  • He has previously won National Film Awards for his exceptional work in sound design, particularly for films like "Rangasthalam."
  • While his contributions are significant in the technical domain of filmmaking, he was not the recipient of the Best Film Critic award at the 71st National Film Awards.
  • Sanjib Parasar
  • Sanjib Parasar is a notable figure in Indian cinema and literature, particularly in Assam.
  • He has contributed to the Assamese film industry.
  • Piyush Thakur
  • Piyush Thakur is not a recognized name in the domain of film criticism or related fields as per current records.

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