Official Paper

PYST 13: IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper - General Awareness (Held On: 30 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

20 questions · 8 minutes · with answers · free

Test (20 questions)

1

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with the type of solar application?

  1. ((a))

    Passive solar – captures sunlight using pumps and motors to move heated fluids

  2. ((b))

    Solar cell (photovoltaic) - converts sunlight directly into electricity through

    semiconductors

  3. ((c))

    Solar thermal tower uses optical fibres to provide daylight inside buildings

  4. ((d))

    Active solar - depends only on building design without mechanical equipment

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Solar cell (photovoltaic) - converts sunlight directly into electricity through

semiconductors

The correct answer is Solar cell (photovoltaic) - converts sunlight directly into electricity through semiconductors.

Key Points

  • Photovoltaic cells (solar cells) are devices that convert sunlight directly into electricity using semiconductors such as silicon.
  • When sunlight hits the semiconductor material, electrons are knocked loose, creating an electric current that can be harnessed.
  • Photovoltaic systems are widely used in renewable energy applications, including solar panels installed on rooftops, solar farms, and portable solar chargers.
  • Solar cells are highly efficient and environmentally friendly, as they do not emit greenhouse gases during electricity generation.
  • They play a critical role in reducing dependence on fossil fuels and promoting sustainable energy sources.

Additional Information

  • Passive solar:
  • Passive solar systems are designed to use building features (such as windows, walls, and roofs) to capture, store, and distribute sunlight as heat, without the use of mechanical systems.
  • They rely on the natural movement of heat and do not involve pumps or motors to move heated fluids.
  • Examples include solar water heaters, greenhouses, and buildings designed for thermal insulation and heat retention.
  • Solar thermal tower:
  • A solar thermal tower is a type of concentrated solar power system that uses mirrors to focus sunlight onto a central receiver to generate heat, which is then used to produce electricity.
  • It does not use optical fibers for daylight; the receiver converts solar energy into thermal energy for steam generation and turbine operation.
  • This technology is primarily utilized in large-scale power plants to produce renewable energy efficiently.
  • Active solar:
  • Active solar systems involve mechanical or electrical devices (such as fans, pumps, or motors) to collect, store, and distribute solar energy.
  • Examples include solar water heaters with pumps, photovoltaic panels with inverters, and solar cooling systems.
  • They are distinct from passive systems, which rely solely on building design and do not use mechanical equipment.
2

Which one of the following string instruments has no frets and is played using a bow?

  1. ((a))

    Tanpura

  2. ((b))

    Sarangi

  3. ((c))

    Sitar

  4. ((d))

    Tambura

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sarangi

The correct answer is Sarangi.

Key Points

  • The Sarangi is a traditional Indian string instrument known for its soulful and rich sound.
  • It is a fretless instrument played using a bow, and the strings are stopped by the cuticles or sides of the fingers.
  • The Sarangi typically has three main gut strings and around 30–40 sympathetic strings that resonate to create a deep, melodious tone.
  • It is widely used in Indian classical music, especially to accompany vocal performances, due to its ability to mimic the nuances of the human voice.
  • The Sarangi has a distinct place in Indian music and is considered one of the most challenging instruments to master due to its fretless structure and complex technique.

Additional Information

  • Tanpura
  • The Tanpura is a long-necked string instrument used in Indian classical music to provide a continuous harmonic drone.
  • It typically has 4–6 strings and is plucked with the fingers, but it is not played with a bow.
  • Unlike the Sarangi, the Tanpura is a fretless instrument but serves a rhythmic and harmonic role rather than a melodic one.
  • Sitar
  • The Sitar is a plucked string instrument with frets and a distinctive resonating sound, commonly associated with Hindustani classical music.
  • It has 6–7 main strings and 11–13 sympathetic strings that enhance its tonal richness.
  • The Sitar is played using a pick called a mizrab, and not with a bow.
  • Tambura
  • The Tambura, similar to the Tanpura, is a drone instrument with no frets and is used to provide a sustained harmonic background in Indian classical music.
  • It has 4–5 strings and is typically plucked with the fingers instead of being played with a bow.
  • It is often confused with the Tanpura but is known for its slightly larger body and deeper sound.
3

All children, regardless of whether they are boys or girls, will inherit which of the following chromosomes from their mother?

  1. ((a))

    An X chromosome

  2. ((b))

    Only Chromosome 21

  3. ((c))

    A Y chromosome

  4. ((d))

    Only Chromosome 13

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

An X chromosome

The correct answer is An X chromosome.

Key Points

  • All humans inherit one chromosome from each parent, forming a pair for each chromosome. Mothers contribute an X chromosome to their children irrespective of their gender.
  • The X chromosome is one of the two sex chromosomes in humans, and its inheritance determines certain genetic traits and disorders.
  • Females inherit one X chromosome from their mother and one X chromosome from their father, making them XX.
  • Males inherit one X chromosome from their mother and one Y chromosome from their father, making them XY.
  • The X chromosome carries genes essential for various biological processes, including immunity, reproduction, and development.

Additional Information

  • Only Chromosome 21:
  • Chromosome 21 is one of the 23 pairs of chromosomes humans possess. It plays a role in genetic disorders like Down syndrome, caused by an extra copy of this chromosome (trisomy 21).
  • Chromosome 21 is not specifically inherited from the mother or father. Rather, one copy is inherited from each parent.
  • This chromosome contains approximately 200-400 genes, many of which are involved in brain function and development.
  • A Y chromosome:
  • The Y chromosome is one of the sex chromosomes in humans and is responsible for male sex determination.
  • It is exclusively inherited from the father and only by male offspring (XY), while females do not inherit a Y chromosome (XX).
  • The Y chromosome contains genes like SRY (Sex-determining Region Y) that trigger the development of male characteristics.
  • Only Chromosome 13:
  • Chromosome 13 is one of the autosomal chromosomes in humans, meaning it is not a sex chromosome.
  • It contains genes related to cancer suppression (e.g., RB1 gene) and other important biological functions.
  • Like Chromosome 21, one copy of Chromosome 13 is inherited from each parent, not specifically from the mother.
  • Trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) is a genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of Chromosome 13.
  • Main Theme:
  • Sex chromosomes (X and Y) play a crucial role in determining the gender and inheritance of genetic traits.
  • All individuals inherit one X chromosome from their mother, regardless of their gender, which makes the X chromosome a vital carrier of genetic information.
  • Understanding how chromosomes are inherited helps in comprehending genetic disorders and human development.
4

The Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, passed by the Lok Sabha in March 2025, EXCLUDES which of the following hydrocarbons?

  1. ((a))

    Coal

  2. ((b))

    Petroleum

  3. ((c))

    Natural gas

  4. ((d))

    Crude Oil

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Coal

The correct answer is Coal.

Key Points

  • The Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, primarily regulates the exploration and production of hydrocarbons such as petroleum, natural gas, and crude oil.
  • The term "hydrocarbons" in this context refers to organic compounds made of carbon and hydrogen, which include petroleum, natural gas, and crude oil but explicitly excludes coal.
  • Coal is classified as a fossil fuel but is not considered a hydrocarbon under this bill due to its distinct composition and regulatory framework.
  • Coal falls under the purview of separate legislation, such as the Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973, and is regulated independently by the Ministry of Coal in India.
  • The exclusion of coal from the bill emphasizes its distinct role in energy production and mining regulations compared to hydrocarbons like petroleum and natural gas.

Additional Information

  • Petroleum:
  • Petroleum is a liquid hydrocarbon extracted from beneath the earth's surface through drilling operations.
  • It is refined to produce fuels like gasoline, diesel, and kerosene and is a crucial energy source globally.
  • Petroleum exploration and production in India are regulated under the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP).
  • Natural Gas:
  • Natural gas is a hydrocarbon composed primarily of methane and is extracted from underground reserves.
  • It is used as a cleaner alternative to coal and petroleum for power generation, industrial processes, and domestic cooking.
  • India has significant reserves of natural gas, which are regulated under policies like HELP and the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill.
  • Crude Oil:
  • Crude oil is an unrefined liquid hydrocarbon extracted from oil wells and is processed in refineries to produce petroleum products.
  • It is one of the most traded commodities globally and a cornerstone of the energy sector.
  • The regulatory framework for crude oil exploration and production in India aligns with international standards under HELP and other relevant laws.
5

What two components primarily react in the Maillard reaction to produce the browning and flavour in cooked foods?

  1. ((a))

    Fats and oils

  2. ((b))

    Amino acids and reducing sugars

  3. ((c))

    Water and salt

  4. ((d))

    Starch and fibre

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Amino acids and reducing sugars

The correct answer is Amino acids and reducing sugars.

Key Points

  • The Maillard reaction occurs between amino acids and reducing sugars when exposed to heat, leading to browning and the development of complex flavors in cooked foods.
  • Reducing sugars such as glucose and fructose play a crucial role in this reaction as they contain a free aldehyde or ketone group, allowing them to react with amino acids.
  • Amino acids, the building blocks of proteins, interact with reducing sugars during this reaction to form a variety of compounds responsible for the aroma and taste of cooked foods.
  • The Maillard reaction is responsible for the characteristic flavors of foods such as grilled meats, baked goods, roasted coffee, and fried potatoes.
  • This reaction typically occurs at temperatures above 140°C (284°F) and is influenced by factors such as pH, temperature, and the presence of water.

Additional Information

  • Fats and oils:
  • Fats and oils primarily consist of triglycerides, which are formed from glycerol and fatty acids. They do not directly participate in the Maillard reaction.
  • While fats and oils contribute to the texture and richness of food, their main role in cooking is to act as a medium for heat transfer and enhance flavor through other chemical reactions like lipid oxidation.
  • Fats can also aid in browning through processes like caramelization, but they are not a key component of the Maillard reaction.
  • Water and salt:
  • Water is essential for maintaining moisture levels during cooking, but it does not play a significant role in the Maillard reaction.
  • Salt enhances flavor by interacting with taste receptors, but it does not chemically contribute to the Maillard reaction.
  • However, salt can influence the texture and water retention of foods, indirectly affecting how the Maillard reaction occurs in certain cases.
  • Starch and fiber:
  • Starch and fiber are complex carbohydrates found in foods like grains and vegetables.
  • These components do not directly participate in the Maillard reaction, as starches are polysaccharides and lack the free aldehyde or ketone groups found in reducing sugars.
  • Starch contributes to food texture and structure, while fiber aids in digestion, but they are not involved in the chemical browning and flavoring processes of the Maillard reaction.
6

Which state unveiled a 150-day action plan in 2025 focused on e-governance, linking tehsils, and faster business approvals?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • Maharashtra unveiled a 150-day action plan in 2025 aimed at enhancing governance and economic growth.
  • The plan focuses on e-governance, enabling digital integration and connecting tehsils for improved public service delivery.
  • A significant aspect of the action plan is the streamlining of processes for faster business approvals and economic activities.
  • The initiative aligns with Maharashtra's vision of becoming a leading state in digital transformation and ease of doing business.
  • It highlights the importance of leveraging technology to improve administrative efficiency and foster economic growth.

Additional Information

  • Karnataka
  • Karnataka is a leading state in India for innovation and technology, housing a significant number of IT and biotech firms, particularly in Bengaluru, known as the "Silicon Valley of India."
  • The state has implemented several e-governance initiatives, such as Bhoomi (for land records) and Sakala (guaranteed delivery of citizen services).
  • It is known for its initiatives aimed at fostering ease of doing business and attracting investments in sectors like IT, aerospace, and manufacturing.
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Tamil Nadu is one of India's most industrialized states, with a strong emphasis on automobile manufacturing, textiles, and electronics.
  • The state has launched digital governance platforms like e-Sevai, which provides online access to various government services.
  • Tamil Nadu's Vision 2023 focuses on infrastructure development, inclusive growth, and social progress.
  • Gujarat
  • Gujarat is known for its business-friendly policies and has been a leader in ease of doing business rankings in India.
  • The state has implemented several e-governance initiatives, such as iORA (Integrated Online Revenue Applications) for land-related services.
  • It is a hub for industries like petrochemicals, textiles, and pharmaceuticals, along with a strong emphasis on renewable energy initiatives.
7

The famous Hindustani musician, Ustad Haddu khan, was associated with __________Gharana.

  1. ((a))

    Indore

  2. ((b))

    Bhendibazaar

  3. ((c))

    Mewati

  4. ((d))

    Gwalior

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gwalior

The correct answer is Gwalior.

Key Points

  • Ustad Haddu Khan was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist associated with the Gwalior Gharana, one of the oldest and most prominent gharanas in Indian classical music.
  • The Gwalior Gharana is known for its emphasis on purity of ragas and is considered the foundation of Khayal singing in Hindustani music.
  • Haddu Khan, along with his brother Hassu Khan, played a crucial role in shaping and preserving the traditions of the Gwalior Gharana during the 19th century.
  • The Gwalior Gharana is characterized by its straightforward and unembellished style, focusing on clarity of notes, rhythmic precision, and the systematic development of ragas.
  • Ustad Haddu Khan's contributions to Indian classical music have been instrumental in making the Gwalior Gharana a celebrated tradition in the world of Hindustani music.

Additional Information

  • Indore Gharana
  • The Indore Gharana is known for its unique style of Khayal singing, emphasizing melody and emotional expression.
  • It was popularized by Ustad Amir Khan, a legendary Hindustani classical vocalist.
  • This gharana is notable for its use of slow tempo (vilambit) compositions and intricate ornamentation like meend and murki.
  • Bhendibazaar Gharana
  • The Bhendibazaar Gharana originated in Mumbai and is known for its emphasis on voice culture and intricate taans.
  • It was established by Ustad Chhajju Khan, Ustad Nazir Khan, and Ustad Khadim Hussain Khan.
  • This gharana is also recognized for its focus on proper pronunciation and clarity of words in compositions.
  • Mewati Gharana
  • The Mewati Gharana was founded by Pandit Natthulal and gained prominence through Pandit Jasraj, one of its most celebrated exponents.
  • It is characterized by its devotional content and emphasis on a melodious and soulful presentation.
  • The gharana incorporates elements of Haveli Sangeet, a form of temple music dedicated to Lord Krishna.
8

Which of the following organisations launched 'Innovation Passport', a single-access gateway designed to transform healthcare ideas into market-ready solutions in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

  2. ((b))

    National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER)

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone (AMTZ)

  4. ((d))

    Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone (AMTZ)

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone (AMTZ).

Key Points

  • The 'Innovation Passport' is an initiative launched by the Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone (AMTZ) to accelerate the transformation of healthcare ideas into market-ready solutions.
  • This initiative will serve as a single-access gateway for innovators, startups, and enterprises in the medtech sector.
  • The program aims to address various challenges faced by innovators in the healthcare industry, such as regulatory bottlenecks, funding gaps, and lack of infrastructure.
  • AMTZ is a leading medical technology park in India, established to promote domestic manufacturing of medical devices and reduce dependency on imports.
  • The Innovation Passport is expected to be a game-changer in the healthcare and medtech ecosystem, enhancing India's position as a global hub for medical device innovation and manufacturing by 2025.

Additional Information

  • Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR):
  • ICMR is one of the oldest and most prestigious research bodies in the world, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
  • Its primary mandate is to promote, coordinate, and conduct biomedical research for improving public health.
  • ICMR contributes significantly to India's healthcare innovation but is not directly associated with the 'Innovation Passport' initiative.
  • National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER):
  • NIPER is a national-level institute for advanced research in pharmaceutical sciences, under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
  • It aims to enhance pharmaceutical education and research in India, focusing on drug development and related fields.
  • While it plays a critical role in the pharmaceutical sector, it is not related to the 'Innovation Passport' initiative.
  • Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC):
  • BIRAC is a public sector enterprise under the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
  • It supports and promotes biotech innovation and entrepreneurship in India.
  • Though BIRAC has launched several initiatives to foster innovation, it is not the organization behind the 'Innovation Passport' program.
  • About Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone (AMTZ):
  • AMTZ is India's first integrated medical device manufacturing park, located in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
  • It provides state-of-the-art infrastructure, testing facilities, and regulatory support to medtech companies.
  • AMTZ has been instrumental in reducing India's dependency on imported medical devices and promoting domestic innovation.
9

Which of the following can be classified as a Sushir Vadya in Indian classical music?

  1. ((a))

    Tappu

  2. ((b))

    Shehnai

  3. ((c))

    Ghatam

  4. ((d))

    Cymbal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Shehnai

The correct answer is Shehnai.

Key Points

  • The Shehnai is a traditional Sushir Vadya (wind instrument) used in Indian classical music.
  • It is an aerophonic instrument, producing sound by blowing air through its reed and body.
  • The Shehnai is commonly used in auspicious occasions, such as weddings and temple ceremonies, due to its melodious and soothing sound.
  • It is believed to bring good fortune and is widely played in North Indian classical music performances.
  • Ustad Bismillah Khan, a legendary musician, is considered the maestro of Shehnai and played a vital role in popularizing the instrument globally.

Additional Information

  • Tappu:
  • Tappu is a percussion instrument mainly used in South Indian folk music.
  • It belongs to the Avanaddha Vadya category, which comprises instruments that produce sound by striking a stretched membrane.
  • The Tappu is typically used in religious and festive celebrations, particularly in Tamil Nadu.
  • Ghatam:
  • The Ghatam is a traditional South Indian percussion instrument made of clay.
  • It is classified as a Ghana Vadya (solid instrument) and is played by striking its body with fingers, palms, and nails.
  • The Ghatam is a key accompaniment in Carnatic music concerts.
  • Cymbal:
  • Cymbals are metallic percussion instruments that fall under the Ghana Vadya category.
  • They are commonly used in both classical and folk music performances worldwide.
  • In Indian music, cymbals such as the Manjira are used in devotional and folk music traditions.
10

What was the theme for the National Ayurveda Day 2025, celebrated on 23rd September?

  1. ((a))

    Ayurveda Innovation for Global Health

  2. ((b))

    Har Din Har Ghar Ayurveda

  3. ((c))

    Ayurveda for One Health

  4. ((d))

    Ayurveda for People and Planet

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ayurveda for People and Planet

The correct answer is Ayurveda for People and Planet.

Key Points

  • The theme for National Ayurveda Day in 2025, celebrated on 23rd September, was “Ayurveda for People and Planet.”
  • This theme emphasizes the importance of Ayurveda not just for individual health but also for promoting environmental sustainability and harmony.
  • Ayurveda, as a traditional system of medicine, integrates human well-being with ecological balance, advocating for natural remedies and eco-friendly practices.
  • The celebration aims to increase global awareness about the benefits of Ayurveda and its role in combating modern health challenges while being sustainable for the planet.
  • National Ayurveda Day is an initiative of the Ministry of AYUSH, India, to promote and preserve Ayurveda, one of the world's oldest holistic healing systems.

Additional Information

  • National Ayurveda Day
  • National Ayurveda Day is celebrated annually on the occasion of Dhanvantari Jayanti (Dhanteras).
  • It was first observed in 2016 to promote and propagate the benefits of Ayurveda globally.
  • The day honors Lord Dhanvantari, considered the god of Ayurveda and health, and his contributions to holistic healing.
  • The Ministry of AYUSH organizes various events, seminars, and awareness campaigns on this day to highlight Ayurveda’s role in preventive and curative healthcare.
11

Which country's President was the chief guest at the 76th Republic Day Parade in New Delhi on 26 January 2025?

  1. ((a))

    United Kingdom

  2. ((b))

    Australia

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia

  4. ((d))

    United States

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Indonesia

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

  • The President of Indonesia, Joko Widodo, was invited as the chief guest for the 76th Republic Day of India on 26 January 2025.
  • India and Indonesia share a long-standing relationship founded on historical ties, cultural exchanges, and strategic cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
  • The invitation highlights India’s focus on strengthening ties with Southeast Asian nations as part of its Act East Policy.
  • Indonesia is the largest economy in Southeast Asia and a key partner for India in areas such as trade, defense, maritime security, and combating terrorism.
  • This invitation underscores the growing significance of Indonesia as a pivotal player in global politics and regional stability in the Indo-Pacific region.

Additional Information

  • United Kingdom
  • The United Kingdom is one of India’s oldest allies and shares a robust bilateral relationship, especially in areas like trade, defense, and cultural exchange.
  • India and the UK launched the Roadmap 2030 to deepen ties in five key areas: trade, connectivity, defense, climate change, and health.
  • Although the UK has been a guest at Republic Day celebrations in the past, it was not chosen for the 76th Republic Day.
  • Australia
  • Australia is a key partner for India in the Indo-Pacific, with a growing collaboration in defense, trade, and environmental sustainability.
  • Both countries are part of the Quad alliance along with the United States and Japan, focusing on maintaining regional peace and stability.
  • While Australia plays a critical role in India’s foreign policy, it was not invited as the chief guest for the 76th Republic Day.
  • United States
  • The United States and India share a comprehensive global strategic partnership, with strong cooperation in defense, technology, trade, and people-to-people ties.
  • India and the United States are also key partners in multilateral forums such as the G20 and Quad.
  • Despite the strategic importance of the U.S., it was not invited as the guest for the 76th Republic Day celebrations.
12

In which city was India's first-ever Sports Goods Manufacturing Conclave held in August 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Jalandhar

  2. ((b))

    Kolkata

  3. ((c))

    Ahmedabad

  4. ((d))

    New Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

New Delhi

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

  • India's first-ever Sports Goods Manufacturing Conclave was held in New Delhi in August 2025.
  • The event aimed to bring together stakeholders from the sports goods manufacturing sector, including manufacturers, exporters, and policymakers.
  • It focused on promoting the 'Make in India' initiative in the sports goods sector, encouraging domestic production and reducing dependence on imports.
  • The conclave also addressed issues such as technological advancements, innovation, and sustainability in manufacturing sports goods.
  • Key government officials and industry leaders attended the event to discuss strategies for boosting exports of Indian sports goods and making India a global hub for sports equipment.

Additional Information

  • Jalandhar
  • Jalandhar, located in Punjab, is a significant hub for sports goods manufacturing in India.
  • The city is renowned for producing high-quality cricket bats, hockey sticks, and other sports equipment.
  • Despite its prominence, the first-ever Sports Goods Manufacturing Conclave was not held here, though Jalandhar continues to play a vital role in the industry.
  • Kolkata
  • Kolkata is known for its rich cultural and industrial heritage but is not a primary hub for sports goods manufacturing.
  • The city has a growing interest in sports, particularly football and cricket, but it is not a major production center for sports goods.
  • Ahmedabad
  • Ahmedabad, situated in Gujarat, is an industrial hub with a focus on textiles, chemicals, and machinery.
  • While it has a strong industrial base, it is not widely recognized for sports goods manufacturing.
  • Sports Goods Manufacturing in India
  • India is one of the leading manufacturers and exporters of sports goods globally, with a significant portion of production concentrated in Punjab (Jalandhar) and Uttar Pradesh (Meerut).
  • The industry is known for producing cricket equipment, footballs, hockey sticks, and other sports accessories.
  • Government initiatives such as 'Make in India' and export promotion policies aim to strengthen the sports goods manufacturing sector further.
13

Which Indian cricketer won the ICC Men's Player of the Month for August 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Mohammad Siraj

  2. ((b))

    Ravichandran Ashwin

  3. ((c))

    Shardul Thakur

  4. ((d))

    Jasprit Bumrah

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mohammad Siraj

The correct answer is Mohammad Siraj.

Key Points

  • Mohammad Siraj won the ICC Men's Player of the Month award for August 2025 due to his exceptional performances in international cricket.
  • He played a pivotal role in India's victories during the Asia Cup 2025, showcasing his brilliance with the ball.
  • Siraj grabbed a match-winning 6-wicket haul in the Asia Cup final against Sri Lanka, where he dismantled the opposition's batting lineup.
  • His bowling figures in the final stood at 6 wickets for just 21 runs, earning him accolades worldwide.
  • His consistent performances throughout the tournament made him a standout player and a deserving winner of the prestigious ICC award.

Additional Information

  • Ravichandran Ashwin
  • Ravichandran Ashwin is one of India's finest spin bowlers and an all-rounder known for his intelligent bowling strategies.
  • He has been a consistent performer for India in both Test and limited-overs formats.
  • However, Ashwin's performances in August 2025 did not stand out as prominently as Siraj's, particularly in the Asia Cup.
  • Shardul Thakur
  • Shardul Thakur is a versatile bowler and lower-order batsman who has delivered key performances for India in the past.
  • Though he contributed to India's Asia Cup campaign in August 2025, his performances were overshadowed by Siraj's extraordinary bowling displays.
  • Jasprit Bumrah
  • Jasprit Bumrah is India's premier fast bowler, renowned for his lethal yorkers and consistency in all formats of the game.
  • While Bumrah made a successful comeback after his injury and performed well in the Asia Cup 2025, Siraj's match-winning efforts in the final were more impactful.
14

Which of the following was one of the locations of the inaugural Khelo India Beach

Games 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Andaman Islands

  2. ((b))

    Lakshadweep

  3. ((c))

    Goa

  4. ((d))

    Diu

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Diu

The correct answer is Diu.

Key Points

  • The inaugural Khelo India Beach Games 2025 will be held in Diu, a part of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
  • Diu is known for its picturesque beaches and rich Portuguese heritage, making it an ideal location for hosting beach sports events.
  • The Khelo India Beach Games aim to promote beach and water sports in India, encouraging youth participation in these activities.
  • This initiative is part of the larger Khelo India program, which focuses on sports development and talent identification across the country.
  • The event will include a variety of beach sports such as beach volleyball, beach football, and water sports like kayaking and sailing, among others.

Additional Information

  • Andaman Islands
  • The Andaman Islands are a group of islands in the Bay of Bengal, known for their pristine beaches, coral reefs, and biodiversity.
  • They have hosted several water sports events, including scuba diving and snorkeling, but were not chosen for the inaugural Khelo India Beach Games 2025.
  • Lakshadweep
  • Lakshadweep is a group of 36 islands in the Arabian Sea, famous for their crystal-clear lagoons and marine life.
  • Despite its potential for hosting water sports, it was not selected as a location for the inaugural Khelo India Beach Games 2025.
  • Goa
  • Goa is a popular beach destination in India, known for its vibrant culture and water sports activities.
  • Though it hosts numerous sports events and festivals, it was not among the selected venues for the 2025 Khelo India Beach Games.
  • Khelo India Program
  • Khelo India is a national program launched by the Government of India to revive the sports culture and identify talent at the grassroots level.
  • The program includes initiatives like Khelo India Youth Games, Khelo India University Games, and Khelo India Winter Games.
  • It aims to promote a healthy lifestyle and encourage widespread participation in sports across the country.
  • The Khelo India Beach Games are a new addition to this initiative, focusing specifically on beach and water sports.
15

In April 2025, which Government of India enterprise declared its first-ever dividend of ₹1.42 crore for the 2023-24 fiscal year, since its inception in 2011?

  1. ((a))

    Power Electronics Limited

  2. ((b))

    Millennium Telecom

  3. ((c))

    Agrinnovate India Limited

  4. ((d))

    Antrix Corporation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Agrinnovate India Limited

The correct answer is Agrinnovate India Limited.

Key Points

  • Agrinnovate India Limited is a government enterprise established in 2011 under the administrative control of the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.
  • The primary aim of Agrinnovate India Limited is to promote, commercialize, and manage agricultural innovations and technologies developed by Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
  • In April 2025, Agrinnovate India Limited declared its first-ever dividend of ₹1.42 crore for the fiscal year 2023-24, marking a significant milestone in its operations since its inception.
  • The enterprise focuses on bridging the gap between agricultural research and industry, thereby enhancing the reach and impact of innovative agricultural solutions.
  • Key areas of operation include agri-biotechnology, seed production, technology transfer, and consultancy services to improve agricultural productivity and sustainability.

Additional Information

  • Power Electronics Limited:
  • Power Electronics Limited is a private entity focusing on manufacturing and developing electronic components, including power converters and automation solutions.
  • This entity is not associated with government-owned enterprises or agricultural initiatives.
  • Millennium Telecom:
  • Millennium Telecom Limited (MTL) is a subsidiary of Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL), operating in the telecommunications sector.
  • It primarily focuses on providing IT-enabled services and solutions related to network infrastructure and communication technologies.
  • MTL does not engage in agricultural innovations or dividend declarations related to the Ministry of Agriculture.
  • Antrix Corporation:
  • Antrix Corporation Limited is the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), established to promote and market space products and services.
  • Its scope includes satellite launch services, transponder leasing, and space mission support, unrelated to agricultural development.
16

Which Indian state organised the Judicial Colloquium on 'Anti-Human Trafficking' for judicial officers, public prosecutors, police officers and NGOs on 27 July 2024 at the state Judicial Academy?

  1. ((a))

    West Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Telangana

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

  • Telangana organized the Judicial Colloquium on 'Anti-Human Trafficking' on 27 July 2024 to strengthen the fight against human trafficking in the region.
  • The event was held at the state Judicial Academy, emphasizing the role of judicial officers, public prosecutors, police officers, and NGOs in combating human trafficking.
  • This colloquium aimed to enhance coordination among various stakeholders and build awareness about legal frameworks and preventive measures.
  • Telangana has been actively focusing on anti-human trafficking initiatives and has established dedicated Anti-Human Trafficking Units in the state.
  • Human trafficking is a critical issue in India, and Telangana’s proactive measures serve as a model for other states in addressing this issue systematically.

Additional Information

  • Anti-Human Trafficking:
  • Human trafficking involves the illegal trade of humans for exploitation such as forced labor, sexual slavery, or commercial sexual exploitation.
  • India has several laws to combat trafficking, including the Immoral Traffic Prevention Act (ITPA) and sections of the Indian Penal Code.
  • Coordination between law enforcement, judiciary, and NGOs is crucial for effective prevention, rescue, and rehabilitation of trafficking victims.
  • Events like Judicial Colloquiums help stakeholders understand the gravity of the problem and build collaborative solutions.
17

Which of the following was ranked 7th among the world's busiest airport pairs according to the World Air Transport Statistics (WATS) for 2024, released by the International Air Transport Association (IATA) in August 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Delhi-Bengaluru

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai-Hyderabad

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai-Chennai

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai-Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mumbai-Delhi

The correct answer is Mumbai-Delhi.

Key Points

  • The Mumbai-Delhi airport pair was ranked 7th among the world's busiest airport pairs according to the World Air Transport Statistics (WATS) for 2024, released by the International Air Transport Association (IATA) in August 2025.
  • This ranking is based on factors such as passenger traffic, connectivity, and the frequency of flights between the two cities.
  • The Mumbai-Delhi route is one of the busiest domestic air routes in the world, connecting two major commercial, financial, and political hubs of India.
  • According to IATA, this pair recorded exceptional post-pandemic recovery in air travel demand, driven by robust domestic tourism and business travel.
  • India's aviation market is one of the fastest-growing globally, and the Mumbai-Delhi route serves as a key indicator of this growth.

Additional Information

  • World Air Transport Statistics (WATS) by IATA
  • The WATS report provides comprehensive and reliable data on the performance of the global airline industry.
  • It ranks airport pairs based on passenger traffic and highlights trends in air travel worldwide.
  • The report serves as a critical resource for aviation stakeholders to assess market dynamics and growth opportunities.
18

In which year did India sign and ratify the Kyoto Protocol to support international emission-reduction efforts?

  1. ((a))

    1997

  2. ((b))

    2002

  3. ((c))

    2005

  4. ((d))

    2000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2002

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

  • India signed the Kyoto Protocol on 26 August 2002 and ratified it later that year to support global emission-reduction efforts.
  • The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits its signatories to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to combat climate change.
  • It was adopted on 11 December 1997 in Kyoto, Japan, and came into force on 16 February 2005.
  • India, as a developing country, was not required to reduce emissions but actively participated in the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) under the protocol.
  • The protocol categorized countries into Annex I (developed) and non-Annex I (developing), where India fell under non-Annex I, allowing it to benefit from CDM projects without mandatory emission reduction targets.

Additional Information

  • About the Kyoto Protocol
  • The Kyoto Protocol is a landmark treaty under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • It introduced three flexible mechanisms: Emissions Trading, Joint Implementation (JI), and Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).
  • Developing countries like India benefited from CDM projects, which allowed developed countries to invest in emission-reduction projects in developing nations.
  • The protocol eventually led to the Paris Agreement in 2015, which replaced it with broader and more inclusive goals.
19

In January 2025, famous ghazal singer Pankaj Udhas was honoured with which prestigious award?

  1. ((a))

    Padma Vibhusan

  2. ((b))

    Sangeet Natak Akademi Award

  3. ((c))

    Padma Bhushan

  4. ((d))

    Padma Shri

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Padma Bhushan

The correct answer is Padma Bhushan.

Key Points

  • Pankaj Udhas, one of India’s most celebrated ghazal singers, was honoured with the Padma Bhushan, the third-highest civilian award in India, in January 2025.
  • The Padma Awards are bestowed annually by the Government of India to recognize exceptional contributions in various fields, including art, literature, music, and social work.
  • Pankaj Udhas is renowned for his melodious ghazals and has contributed significantly to Indian music over decades, popularizing the genre both domestically and globally.
  • His work includes iconic albums such as "Aahat," "Pehla Pyar," and "Jashn," which have left a lasting impact on the Indian music industry.
  • The award highlights his contributions to the cultural heritage of India through his unique style and timeless music.

Additional Information

  • Padma Vibhushan
  • The Padma Vibhushan is India’s second-highest civilian award, given for exceptional and distinguished service in any field.
  • It was instituted in 1954 and is awarded to individuals who have made unparalleled contributions to public service, arts, science, or other domains.
  • Notable recipients include A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Lata Mangeshkar, and Amartya Sen.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
  • The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is the highest national recognition given to artists in the fields of music, dance, and drama.
  • It is conferred by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy of Music, Dance, and Drama, established in 1952.
  • The award recognizes sustained achievement in the performing arts and includes a citation and monetary reward.
  • Padma Shri
  • The Padma Shri is India’s fourth-highest civilian award, given for distinguished contributions in various fields, such as arts, literature, sports, and public service.
  • It was established in 1954 and is awarded to individuals who have demonstrated excellence in their respective domains.
  • Prominent recipients include Mary Kom, Ratan Tata, and Saina Nehwal.
  • Overview of Padma Awards
  • The Padma Awards are divided into three categories: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
  • These awards recognize achievements across diverse fields, including arts, science, social work, public affairs, and sports.
  • Instituted in 1954, the awards are announced annually on Republic Day and are regarded as one of the highest civilian honors in India.
20

In 2025, which state mandated a Child Protection Policy in all residential schools and hostels, covering anti-bullying, anti-drug measures, grievance redressal, and staff training?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Karnataka

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • In 2025, Karnataka became the first state in India to mandate a comprehensive Child Protection Policy in all residential schools and hostels.
  • The policy includes measures for anti-bullying, anti-drug awareness, grievance redressal mechanisms, and staff training to ensure the safety and well-being of children.
  • This initiative aims to create a safe and supportive environment for children residing in hostels and schools.
  • The policy also emphasizes the importance of psychological support and counseling for children, addressing issues like mental health and emotional well-being.
  • Karnataka’s move aligns with the broader goal of enhancing child rights and safety in institutional settings, setting a benchmark for other states to follow.

Additional Information

  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Uttar Pradesh has taken initiatives to enhance child welfare through schemes like the Bal Shramik Vidya Yojana, which provides financial support to children of laborers for education.
  • The state has also been proactive in implementing the POSCO Act to address child abuse and exploitation.
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Tamil Nadu has implemented various measures for child protection, including the Integrated Child Protection Scheme (ICPS), which focuses on rehabilitating vulnerable children.
  • The state is also known for its Noon Meal Scheme, which aims to improve nutrition and education for underprivileged children.
  • Maharashtra
  • Maharashtra has been at the forefront of child welfare initiatives, implementing the Childline 1098 service to provide emergency assistance to children in distress.
  • Additionally, the state has focused on improving the conditions of child care institutions under the Juvenile Justice Act.
  • Child Protection Policies
  • Child Protection Policies are frameworks designed to safeguard children from harm, including abuse, neglect, exploitation, and violence.
  • These policies emphasize awareness, prevention, and response mechanisms to ensure a safe environment for children in educational and residential settings.
  • They also stress the role of stakeholders such as parents, teachers, and government authorities in implementing effective child safety measures.
  • India has been actively working towards strengthening child protection through laws like the POSCO Act, Juvenile Justice Act, and the National Policy for Children.

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