Official Paper

PYST 12: IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper - General Awareness (Held On: 29 Sept, 2025 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

20 questions · 8 minutes · with answers · free

Test (20 questions)

1

As per the Union Budget 2025-26, a urea plant with annual capacity of 12.7 lakh metric tons was announced to be set up in which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Berhampur, Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Namrup, Assam

  3. ((c))

    Haldwani, Uttarakhand

  4. ((d))

    Ballari, Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Namrup, Assam

The correct answer is Namrup, Assam.

Key Points

  • A new urea plant with an annual capacity of 12.7 lakh metric tons has been announced to be set up in Namrup, Assam, as part of the Union Budget 2025-26.
  • Namrup is home to the Brahmaputra Valley Fertilizer Corporation Limited (BVFCL), which currently operates existing urea production plants in the region.
  • The new plant aims to enhance India’s fertilizer production capacity, reducing dependence on imports and ensuring self-reliance in urea production.
  • This initiative aligns with the government’s goal of promoting agricultural development and ensuring the availability of fertilizers for Indian farmers.
  • Namrup has strategic importance due to its location in Assam, facilitating the supply of urea to the northeastern states and nearby regions.

Additional Information

  • Berhampur, Odisha:
  • Berhampur is known as the commercial hub of southern Odisha and is famous for its silk sarees and handicrafts.
  • Although it is an important city in Odisha, it is not associated with the announcement of a urea plant in the Union Budget 2025-26.
  • Haldwani, Uttarakhand:
  • Haldwani is a city located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand and serves as a gateway to several hill stations.
  • The region is primarily known for its horticulture and tourism industry rather than large-scale fertilizer production facilities.
  • Ballari, Karnataka:
  • Ballari is a major industrial and mining hub in Karnataka, particularly known for its iron ore reserves and steel production.
2

Who directed the short film 'Flowering Man', which won the Best Non-Feature Film award at the 71st National Film Awards announced in August 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Yeshoda Prakash Kottukathira

  2. ((b))

    Harshavardhan Rameshwar

  3. ((c))

    Soumyajit Ghosh Dastidar

  4. ((d))

    Yashowardhan Mishra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Soumyajit Ghosh Dastidar

The correct answer is Soumyajit Ghosh Dastidar.

Key Points

  • Soumyajit Ghosh Dastidar directed the short film 'Flowering Man', which won the Best Non-Feature Film award at the 71st National Film Awards.
  • The film was praised for its unique storytelling, visual representation, and poignant depiction of its subject matter.
  • The National Film Awards are among the most prestigious film awards in India, recognizing excellence in Indian cinema across various languages and categories.
  • 'Flowering Man' reflects Soumyajit Ghosh Dastidar's creative approach to filmmaking, focusing on compelling narratives and emotional depth.
  • The 71st National Film Awards were announced in August 2025, celebrating exceptional cinematic contributions from across the country.

Additional Information

  • Yeshoda Prakash Kottukathira:
  • Yeshoda Prakash Kottukathira is an independent filmmaker, recognized for her work in regional cinema.
  • Her films often explore themes related to cultural identity, folklore, and women's empowerment.
  • Harshavardhan Rameshwar:
  • Harshavardhan Rameshwar is a noted music composer and filmmaker in the Indian film industry.
  • He is best known for his contribution to film scores and soundtracks, especially in the Telugu film industry.
  • Yashowardhan Mishra:
  • Yashowardhan Mishra is a rising filmmaker who has gained recognition for his thought-provoking and socially relevant cinema.
  • He has worked on several acclaimed projects, but he is not the director of 'Flowering Man'.
3

In September 2025 (Asia Cup, Super Four vs Pakistan), which Indian broke Yuvraj Singh's record for the fastest T20I fifty against Pakistan?

  1. ((a))

    Abhishek Sharma

  2. ((b))

    Rishabh Pant

  3. ((c))

    Suryakumar Yadav

  4. ((d))

    Shubman Gill

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abhishek Sharma

The correct answer is Suryakumar Yadav.

Key Points

  • Suryakumar Yadav broke Yuvraj Singh's record for the fastest T20I fifty by an Indian against Pakistan during the Asia Cup, Super Four in September 2025.
  • He achieved this remarkable feat in just 22 balls, showcasing his aggressive batting style and ability to dominate bowlers in high-pressure matches.
  • Suryakumar Yadav is widely regarded for his innovative shot-making and versatility, making him one of the most impactful T20I players in the world.
  • His innings was crucial in India’s performance against their arch-rivals Pakistan, contributing significantly to the team's total score.
  • Yuvraj Singh previously held the record for the fastest T20I fifty against Pakistan, which was broken by Suryakumar Yadav during this match.

Additional Information

  • Abhishek Sharma:
  • Abhishek Sharma is an emerging Indian cricketer known for his all-round abilities in domestic cricket and IPL.
  • He has made a mark in franchise cricket but has not broken any records related to T20I fifties against Pakistan.
  • Though talented, he is yet to establish himself in the international arena as a consistent performer.
  • Rishabh Pant:
  • Rishabh Pant is a dynamic Indian wicketkeeper-batsman known for his aggressive batting and match-winning abilities.
  • While Pant has played some memorable T20I innings, he has not set records for the fastest fifty against Pakistan.
  • His role in the Indian team is crucial, especially in chasing targets and finishing games.
  • Shubman Gill:
  • Shubman Gill is a technically sound Indian batsman who excels in all formats of the game, especially ODIs and Tests.
  • Although Gill has shown promise in T20Is, he is not known for breaking records like the fastest fifties in this format.
  • He is more suited to anchoring innings rather than playing explosive knocks like Suryakumar Yadav.
  • Main Theme:
  • This question highlights the significance of individual performances in high-stakes matches like India vs Pakistan in the Asia Cup.
  • Records such as the fastest T20I fifty showcase the evolving nature of the game and the emergence of aggressive players like Suryakumar Yadav.
  • Suryakumar Yadav’s achievement reflects his contribution to modern cricket, where innovation and adaptability play key roles.
4

In Karnataka's Mysuru district, which two places were declared tourist spots under the Karnataka Tourism Policy 2024-29?

  1. ((a))

    Mysuru Palace and Suttur Srikshetra

  2. ((b))

    Shuka Vana and Chamundi Hills

  3. ((c))

    Suttur Srikshetra and Shuka Vana

  4. ((d))

    RK Narayan's house and Shuka Vana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Suttur Srikshetra and Shuka Vana

The correct answer is Suttur Srikshetra and Shuka Vana.

Key Points

  • Suttur Srikshetra and Shuka Vana are the two places in Karnataka's Mysuru district declared as tourist spots under the Karnataka Tourism Policy 2024-29.
  • Suttur Srikshetra is a renowned pilgrimage center located in the Mysuru district, which is famous for its spiritual significance and annual fairs.
  • Shuka Vana, also known as the Parrot Park, is an aviary established by Dr. Sri Ganapathy Sachchidananda Swamiji. It is home to over 2,100 rare and endangered species of birds, including parrots.
  • The Karnataka Tourism Policy 2024-29 aims to promote tourism by identifying and developing unique cultural, spiritual, and ecological destinations across the state.
  • This declaration is part of the state government’s initiative to enhance tourism infrastructure and attract more visitors to Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Mysuru Palace, also known as Amba Vilas Palace, is one of the most famous royal residences in India and a popular tourist attraction.
  • Chamundi Hills is a sacred hill located near Mysuru, known for the Chamundeshwari Temple dedicated to Goddess Durga.​
  • RK Narayan's house in Mysuru has been converted into a museum to honor the legacy of the legendary Indian author.
  • Karnataka Tourism Policy 2024-29:
  • The Karnataka Tourism Policy is a strategic framework designed to promote the state as a leading destination for cultural, spiritual, and eco-tourism.
  • The policy focuses on infrastructure development, employment generation, and boosting both domestic and international tourism.
  • It identifies specific regions and sites for development to enhance Karnataka’s tourism potential.
5

Which Indian athlete clinched the long jump title at the Meeting Maia Cidade do Desporto in Portugal with a leap of 7.75 metre, in July 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Sandeep Singh Maan

  2. ((b))

    Solairaj Dharmaraj

  3. ((c))

    Kumaravel Premkumar

  4. ((d))

    Murali Sreeshankar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Murali Sreeshankar

The correct answer is Murali Sreeshankar.

Key Points

  • Murali Sreeshankar, an accomplished Indian long jumper, secured the title at the Meeting Maia Cidade do Desporto in Portugal in July 2025 with a jump of 7.75 meters.
  • He is one of India’s top long jump athletes and has consistently performed well in international events, including the Olympics and World Championships.
  • Murali Sreeshankar is known for his national record-breaking leap of 8.36 meters, achieved at the Federation Cup in 2022.
  • He has represented India in multiple prestigious competitions, including the Commonwealth Games 2022, where he won a silver medal in long jump.
  • Sreeshankar’s consistent performances have elevated India’s presence in athletics on the global stage, particularly in field events.

Additional Information

  • Sandeep Singh Maan
  • Sandeep Singh Maan is a para-athlete from India who has represented the country in various international events, including the Paralympics.
  • He specializes in track and field events and has won numerous medals at the Asian Para Games and other regional championships.
  • He is an inspiration for budding para-athletes in India, showcasing perseverance and excellence.
  • Solairaj Dharmaraj
  • Solairaj Dharmaraj is a lesser-known Indian athlete who has participated in regional and national events.
  • While he has contributed to athletics, his achievements have not yet reached the scale of international recognition like Murali Sreeshankar.
  • Kumaravel Premkumar
  • Kumaravel Premkumar is an Indian long jumper who has represented India in various international and national competitions.
  • He held the national record in long jump with a leap of 8.09 meters until it was surpassed by Murali Sreeshankar in 2018.
  • Premkumar has been a significant figure in Indian athletics, inspiring younger athletes in the long jump discipline.
6

The rock-cut caves at Ellora (Maharashtra), constructed between the 6th and 10th centuries CE, include some caves that are related to ______

  1. ((a))

    only Buddhist and Jain

  2. ((b))

    Buddhist, Jain and Hindu

  3. ((c))

    only Jain

  4. ((d))

    only Buddhist

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Buddhist, Jain and Hindu

The correct answer is Buddhist, Jain and Hindu.

Key Points

  • The Ellora Caves, located in Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and represent the pinnacle of Indian rock-cut architecture.
  • These caves were built between the 6th and 10th centuries CE and comprise 34 monasteries and temples carved into the vertical face of the Charanandri hills.
  • The caves are divided into three groups based on religious affiliations: Buddhist (Caves 1–12), Hindu (Caves 13–29), and Jain (Caves 30–34), showcasing the religious harmony and coexistence in ancient India.
  • The Buddhist caves primarily consist of monasteries and include the famous Vishvakarma Cave (Cave 10), also known as the Carpenter’s Cave, which features a large seated Buddha in a prayer pose.
  • The Hindu caves are known for their intricate carvings, with the Kailasa Temple (Cave 16) being the most notable. This monolithic structure is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is considered a masterpiece of Indian rock-cut architecture.
  • The Jain caves are smaller but highly detailed, reflecting Jain principles of asceticism and simplicity, with elaborate decorations and carvings of Tirthankaras.

Additional Information

  • Ajanta Caves
  • Focus: Exclusively Buddhist, known for exquisite murals (frescoes) and sculptures depicting Jataka tales and Buddha's life.
  • Features: 30 caves with monasteries (viharas) and prayer halls (chaityas).
  • Period: Carved between the 2nd century BCE and 6th century CE.
  • Ellora Caves
  • Focus: A unique mix of Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain monuments, showcasing religious coexistence.
  • Features: 34 caves, including the magnificent Kailasa Temple (Cave 16), carved from a single rock.
  • Period: Built between the 6th and 11th centuries.
7

Which plant tissue is primarily responsible for transporting water and minerals from the soil?

  1. ((a))

    Phloem

  2. ((b))

    Epidermis

  3. ((c))

    Cortex

  4. ((d))

    Xylem

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Xylem

The correct answer is Xylem.

Key Points

  • Xylem is a vascular tissue in plants responsible for the transport of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.
  • Xylem consists of specialized cells such as tracheids and vessel elements, which are tubular and help in the upward movement of water through capillary action.
  • The transport in xylem is a passive process driven by physical forces like transpiration pull, cohesion, and adhesion of water molecules.
  • In addition to transportation, xylem also provides mechanical support to the plant due to the presence of lignified cell walls in its structure.
  • Xylem operates unidirectionally, meaning water moves only from roots to leaves and other parts of the plant.

Additional Information

  • Phloem
  • Phloem is another vascular tissue in plants responsible for the transport of organic nutrients (mainly sucrose) produced during photosynthesis.
  • It consists of specialized cells such as sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem fibers, and phloem parenchyma.
  • Unlike xylem, phloem transport is bidirectional, meaning nutrients can move both upward and downward in the plant.
  • Epidermis
  • The epidermis is the outermost layer of cells in plants and serves as a protective barrier against physical damage, water loss, and pathogen invasion.
  • It does not play a role in the transport of water or nutrients but may have specialized structures like stomata for gas exchange and root hairs for water absorption.
  • Cortex
  • The cortex is a layer of tissue between the epidermis and vascular tissues in stems and roots.
  • It primarily functions in the storage of nutrients and the transport of materials to the vascular tissues but does not specialize in the transport of water and minerals.
  • In roots, the cortex also helps in the absorption of water and nutrients before they enter the vascular system.
8

Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula and Khakhara Deula were the main features of which temple architecture?

  1. ((a))

    Deccan architecture

  2. ((b))

    Dravidian architecture

  3. ((c))

    Khmer architecture

  4. ((d))

    Kalinga architecture

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kalinga architecture

The correct answer is Kalinga architecture.

Key Points

  • Kalinga architecture is a distinctive style of temple architecture that originated in the historical region of Kalinga, corresponding to present-day Odisha and parts of Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
  • The three principal types of temples in Kalinga architecture are Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula, each having unique structural features.
  • Rekha Deula refers to temples with a tall, curvilinear spire (Shikhara), as seen in the Lingaraja Temple in Bhubaneswar.
  • Pidha Deula is characterized by stepped pyramidal roofs, as observed in the Jagannath Temple in Puri.
  • Khakhara Deula has a barrel-shaped roof and is associated with temples dedicated to goddesses, such as the Vaital Deula in Bhubaneswar.
  • Kalinga architecture is renowned for its intricate carvings, sculptures, and the use of sandstone and laterite as construction materials.

Additional Information

  • Deccan architecture
  • Deccan architecture emerged in the Deccan Plateau region of India and is influenced by Hindu, Islamic, and Persian styles.
  • It is known for its fortresses, palaces, mosques, and tombs, such as the Golconda Fort and Charminar in Hyderabad.
  • Key architectural features include domes, arches, and intricate stucco designs.
  • Dravidian architecture
  • Dravidian architecture originated in South India and is associated with Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala.
  • It is known for its towering gopurams (gateway towers), mandapas (pillared halls), and vimanas (temple towers).
  • Notable examples include the Brihadeeswara Temple in Thanjavur and the Meenakshi Temple in Madurai.
  • Khmer architecture
  • Khmer architecture is associated with the Khmer Empire, centered in present-day Cambodia.
  • It is characterized by monumental temple complexes, such as Angkor Wat and Bayon, built using sandstone and laterite.
  • Temples often feature intricate bas-reliefs, central towers, and water reservoirs (barays).
9

Which festival location will feature environment-friendly green fireworks and decorative arrangements along the Saryu River ghats and Ram Ki Paidi in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Mathura-Vrindavan Festival

  2. ((b))

    Varanasi Dev Deepawali

  3. ((c))

    Haridwar Deepotsav

  4. ((d))

    Ayodhya Deepotsav

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ayodhya Deepotsav

The correct answer is Ayodhya Deepotsav.

Key Points

  • The Ayodhya Deepotsav is an annual festival celebrated in Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh, to commemorate the return of Lord Rama to Ayodhya after 14 years of exile.
  • In 2025, the event will feature environment-friendly green fireworks and grand decorative arrangements along the Saryu River ghats and Ram Ki Paidi.
  • The festival is known for its grandeur, including the lighting of millions of diyas (earthen lamps) along the ghats, creating a spectacular visual treat.
  • The event is organized by the Uttar Pradesh government and has gained recognition in recent years as a symbol of cultural and spiritual heritage.
  • Ayodhya Deepotsav has also set several records, including lighting the maximum number of diyas, certified by the Guinness World Records.

Additional Information

  • Mathura-Vrindavan Festival
  • The Mathura-Vrindavan region is famous for its vibrant celebrations of festivals like Holi and Janmashtami.
  • During Holi, the region celebrates with unique traditions such as Lathmar Holi in Barsana and Nandgaon, where women playfully hit men with sticks.
  • Janmashtami, the birth anniversary of Lord Krishna, is celebrated with great enthusiasm, including performances of Ras Leela and devotional singing.
  • Varanasi Dev Deepawali
  • Dev Deepawali is celebrated on the full moon night (Kartik Purnima) in Varanasi, marking the victory of Lord Shiva over the demon Tripurasura.
  • The ghats of the Ganges are illuminated with millions of diyas, and devotees perform the sacred Ganga Aarti.
  • This festival attracts thousands of pilgrims and tourists every year, showcasing the spiritual and cultural essence of Varanasi.
  • Haridwar Deepotsav
  • Haridwar is renowned for its religious festivals and rituals, particularly the Ganga Aarti performed at Har Ki Pauri.
  • Though not specifically associated with Deepotsav, Haridwar celebrates festivals like Diwali with the lighting of lamps along the Ganga ghats, symbolizing devotion and spirituality.
  • Haridwar holds immense significance in Hinduism as one of the seven holiest cities in India.
10

In September 2025, which state's common 'unused village land' (surplus land arising from agricultural consolidation) has the Supreme Court ruled should remain with original landowners rather than be transferred to gram panchayats?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Haryana

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Haryana

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court of India ruled in September 2025 that Haryana's unused village land, arising from agricultural consolidation, should remain with the original landowners rather than being transferred to gram panchayats.
  • This decision emphasizes the protection of property rights of individuals, promoting the fair distribution of surplus land.
  • The judgment was based on the Haryana Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1948, which governs the consolidation of agricultural land in the state.
  • Under the Act, surplus land generated during consolidation processes is traditionally redistributed among landowners instead of being transferred to local administrative bodies.
  • The verdict sets a precedent for similar cases in other states, reinforcing the importance of individual ownership rights over government acquisition.

Additional Information

  • Punjab
  • Punjab has its own laws governing agricultural consolidation, such as the Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887.
  • However, the state has not been involved in similar legal disputes regarding surplus land redistribution.
  • Punjab focuses on irrigation and land improvement policies to enhance agricultural productivity.
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Uttar Pradesh follows the UP Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953, for land consolidation and redistribution.
  • In this state, surplus land generated during consolidation has been used for public purposes or redistributed to landless farmers in some cases.
  • Madhya Pradesh
  • Madhya Pradesh handles land consolidation under its Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code, 1959.
  • The state focuses on equitable redistribution of agricultural land to improve socio-economic conditions of farmers.
11

The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the first commercial sea shipment of which fruit variety from Maharashtra to the USA in April 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Bhagwa pomegranate

  2. ((b))

    Jalgaon banana

  3. ((c))

    Nagpur orange

  4. ((d))

    Purandar figs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhagwa pomegranate

The correct answer is Bhagwa pomegranate.

Key Points

  • The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the first commercial sea shipment of Bhagwa pomegranates from Maharashtra to the USA in April 2025.
  • The Bhagwa variety is known for its bright red arils, soft seeds, and high antioxidant content, making it a premium export-quality fruit.
  • Maharashtra is the leading state for pomegranate production in India, contributing significantly to the country's total output.
  • APEDA has played a pivotal role in promoting agricultural exports by providing necessary infrastructure, certifications, and marketing support to farmers and exporters.
  • India has been focusing on diversifying export destinations for its agricultural produce, and this shipment marks a significant step in strengthening agricultural trade with the USA.

Additional Information

  • Jalgaon banana
  • Jalgaon, a district in Maharashtra, is known as the "Banana City of India" due to its high production of bananas.
  • Bananas from this region are mainly exported to Gulf countries and other international markets.
  • The Jalgaon banana has a high market demand due to its taste, nutritional value, and extended shelf life.
  • Nagpur orange
  • Nagpur oranges are a famous citrus fruit grown in the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra.
  • They are known for their unique sweet and sour taste, high juice content, and vibrant orange color.
  • The Nagpur orange holds a Geographical Indication (GI) tag and is often referred to as the "Orange City of India."
  • Purandar figs
  • Purandar figs are cultivated in the Purandar taluka of Pune district, Maharashtra.
  • These figs are known for their sweet taste, smooth texture, and nutritional benefits.
  • The cultivation of Purandar figs is supported by local farmers and agricultural initiatives to boost their market presence domestically and internationally.
12

Which of the following from Narsapur, Andhra Pradesh, holds a Geographical Indications (GI) tag, safeguarding its unique cultural identity?

  1. ((a))

    Crochet lace products

  2. ((b))

    Gharchola sarees

  3. ((c))

    Paabu stitched boots

  4. ((d))

    Kalamkari paintings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Crochet lace products

The correct answer is Crochet lace products.

Key Points

  • Crochet lace products from Narsapur, Andhra Pradesh, hold a Geographical Indications (GI) tag, ensuring their unique cultural and historical identity.
  • The art of crochet lace making has been practiced in Narsapur for over 150 years and is a significant source of livelihood for local artisans, especially women.
  • These intricate lace products are handcrafted using traditional techniques and are renowned for their delicate patterns and high-quality craftsmanship.
  • The GI tag protects the intellectual property rights of these products and prevents unauthorized use of the name, ensuring economic benefits to the artisans.
  • Crochet lace products from Narsapur are globally recognized and exported to multiple countries, including the United States, Europe, and Japan.

Additional Information

  • Gharchola sarees:
  • Gharchola sarees are traditional sarees originating from Gujarat and Rajasthan, known for their intricate tie-and-dye Bandhani patterns combined with zari checks.
  • These sarees are commonly worn during weddings and religious ceremonies, symbolizing auspiciousness and heritage.
  • While Gharchola sarees hold cultural significance, they do not have a GI tag associated with Narsapur, Andhra Pradesh.
  • Paabu stitched boots:
  • Paabu stitched boots refer to traditional footwear, often associated with regions in North India and Tibet, known for their unique hand-stitched designs and durability.
  • Kalamkari paintings:
  • Kalamkari is a traditional art form of hand-painted or block-printed textile designs, primarily associated with Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
  • These paintings often depict mythological themes and are created using natural dyes.
13

In a cell, which of the following is the active site of Ribosomal RNA synthesis?

  1. ((a))

    DNA

  2. ((b))

    Nucleoplasm

  3. ((c))

    Nucleus

  4. ((d))

    Nucleolus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nucleolus

The correct answer is Nucleolus.

Key Points

  • The nucleolus is a dense, spherical structure within the nucleus of a cell and is the primary site for ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis.
  • rRNA is an essential component of ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis in cells.
  • In the nucleolus, rRNA genes are transcribed, and rRNA is processed and assembled with ribosomal proteins to form ribosomal subunits.
  • The nucleolus also plays a key role in regulating cellular stress responses and maintaining genomic stability.
  • The size and activity of the nucleolus are directly proportional to the protein synthesis demands of the cell, making it more prominent in cells with high protein production.

Additional Information

  • DNA:
  • DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the molecule that carries genetic information in all living organisms and many viruses.
  • It serves as the template for the synthesis of RNA during transcription but is not directly involved in ribosomal RNA synthesis.
  • In eukaryotic cells, rRNA is transcribed from specific regions of DNA known as rRNA gene clusters, which are located on multiple chromosomes.
  • Nucleoplasm:
  • The nucleoplasm, also known as nuclear sap, is the semi-fluid substance that fills the nuclear space within the nuclear membrane.
  • It serves as a medium for the diffusion of ions, molecules, and enzymes required for nuclear processes like transcription, replication, and RNA transport.
  • However, the nucleoplasm itself is not directly involved in rRNA synthesis.
  • Nucleus:
  • The nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle in eukaryotic cells that houses the genetic material (DNA).
  • It is the control center for cellular activities such as transcription, replication, and RNA processing.
  • While the nucleus contains the nucleolus, which is responsible for rRNA synthesis, the nucleus as a whole is not specifically the active site for rRNA synthesis.
14

The initiative 'CM with Me', aimed at boosting citizen participation and transparency in welfare schemes, was launched in 2025 by which state?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Odisha

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • The initiative 'CM with Me' was launched by the Kerala state government in 2025 to promote citizen participation and transparency in welfare schemes.
  • It is aimed at strengthening the relationship between the government and the public by allowing individuals to directly interact with the Chief Minister and provide feedback or suggestions.
  • The program focuses on enhancing transparency and accountability in the implementation of welfare schemes by involving citizens in decision-making processes.
  • It is one of Kerala's innovative efforts to leverage technology and participatory governance for ensuring the effective delivery of welfare programs.
  • The initiative reflects Kerala's commitment to fostering inclusive governance and empowering citizens by providing a direct communication channel with the state leadership.

Additional Information

  • Punjab
  • Punjab has launched several welfare schemes like 'Mera Ghar, Mere Naam', aimed at providing property ownership rights to residents of villages and cities.
  • Another notable program is 'Smart Village Campaign', which focuses on improving infrastructure and amenities in rural areas of Punjab.
  • Though Punjab has implemented various schemes for welfare, it has not launched the 'CM with Me' initiative.
  • Odisha
  • Odisha has been a pioneer in welfare programs like 'KALIA Scheme' (Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation), which supports farmers with financial aid.
  • Another flagship initiative is 'Mo Sarkar', aimed at improving the delivery of public services through citizen feedback.
  • While Odisha has shown innovation in governance, 'CM with Me' is not among its initiatives.
  • West Bengal
  • West Bengal has introduced major welfare schemes such as 'Duare Sarkar' (Government at Doorstep) to ensure doorstep delivery of various government services.
  • Another significant initiative is 'Kanyashree Prakalpa', focusing on empowering girls through financial assistance for education and prevention of child marriage.
15

In 2025, which state government designated District Child Protection Officers as Child Marriage Prohibition Officers to strengthen its fight against child marriage?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Haryana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Assam

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

  • In 2025, the Assam government designated District Child Protection Officers (DCPOs) as Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) to curb the menace of child marriage in the state.
  • The initiative is part of Assam's broader efforts to strengthen the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, ensuring stricter implementation and enforcement.
  • DCPOs, as CMPOs, are responsible for preventing child marriages, reporting cases to authorities, and ensuring legal actions against those involved in such practices.
  • Assam has been actively working to reduce child marriage rates, which are among the highest in India, with numerous campaigns and legal measures.
  • This step is expected to create a more effective framework for preventing child marriages and safeguarding the rights of children, particularly young girls.

Additional Information

  • Kerala
  • Kerala has one of the lowest rates of child marriage in India, largely due to its high literacy rate and awareness campaigns.
  • The state has implemented various women empowerment schemes, such as Kudumbashree, to uplift women and prevent social evils like child marriage.
  • Kerala has also focused on promoting gender equality and providing education to girls.
  • Rajasthan
  • Rajasthan has historically had one of the highest rates of child marriage in India due to deep-rooted social and cultural practices.
  • The state government has been implementing awareness campaigns and legal actions to combat child marriage, especially in rural areas.
  • Under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, Rajasthan has introduced measures to prevent child marriages during festivals like Akshaya Tritiya, when such practices are more prevalent.
  • Haryana
  • Haryana has made significant progress in combating child marriage through campaigns like "Beti Bachao Beti Padhao."
  • The state government has focused on improving female literacy and tackling social issues such as dowry and gender discrimination, which contribute to child marriages.
  • Efforts have also been made to ensure stricter enforcement of laws against child marriage.
  • Main Theme: The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
  • This is a central law enacted by the Government of India to prevent the solemnization of child marriages.
  • Under this Act, the legal age for marriage is 18 years for females and 21 years for males.
  • The Act provides for the appointment of Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) to implement its provisions effectively.
  • Violation of this law can result in legal consequences, including fines and imprisonment for those responsible for organizing or participating in child marriages.
16

On 17 July 2025, the launch of a skill training and women entrepreneurship development project at IIIT Kottayam took place under which central government scheme?

  1. ((a))

    Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)

  2. ((b))

    Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

  3. ((c))

    Bharatiya Mahila Kaushalya Abhiyan (BMKA)

  4. ((d))

    Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS).

Key Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) is an integrated scheme launched by the Government of India to boost the skills and entrepreneurship of artisans, craftsmen, and other traditional sectors.
  • The scheme aims to offer skill development training, capacity building, and financial assistance to enhance the livelihood of marginalized communities.
  • Under this scheme, the focus is on preserving and promoting India’s traditional heritage by empowering artisans, especially women and marginalized groups.
  • PM VIKAS also includes a component of women's entrepreneurship development by providing technical and managerial training, along with financial support for starting or expanding businesses.
  • It aligns with the government’s vision of Aatmanirbhar Bharat, fostering self-reliance and economic independence for rural and urban artisans.

Additional Information

  • Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):
  • Launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), this flagship scheme aims to provide skill training to India’s youth.
  • The scheme focuses on industry-relevant skill training and certification, enabling individuals to secure better livelihood opportunities.
  • It also includes Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) to certify individuals with existing skills.
  • PMKVY is executed through National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and promotes both short-term training and long-term skill development programs.
  • Bharatiya Mahila Kaushalya Abhiyan (BMKA):
  • This initiative is aimed at empowering women by providing skill training to enhance their employability and entrepreneurial capabilities.
  • It focuses on sectors like textiles, handicrafts, food processing, and other areas where women’s participation is significant.
  • Although not as prominent as PMKVY, BMKA seeks to address gender disparity in the workforce by specifically targeting women from economically weaker sections.
  • Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY):
  • Implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), DDU-GKY focuses on skill development of rural youth aged 15-35 years, especially from poor families.
  • The scheme aims to provide employment-linked skill training to promote wage employment and uplift rural livelihoods.
  • DDU-GKY is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) and works in collaboration with state governments, private training providers, and industry partners.
17

Which writer won the Kendra Sahitya Akademi's Yuva Puraskar, 2025, for Malayalam for the popular work 'Ram C/o Anandhi'?

  1. ((a))

    Abin Joseph

  2. ((b))

    Anuja Akathoottu

  3. ((c))

    Amal Pirappancode

  4. ((d))

    Akhil P Dharmajan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Akhil P Dharmajan

The correct answer is Akhil P Dharmajan.

Key Points

  • Akhil P Dharmajan won the prestigious Kendra Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in 2025 for Malayalam literature.
  • The award-winning work 'Ram C/o Anandhi' is a celebrated piece of contemporary Malayalam literature that gained widespread recognition.
  • The Kendra Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar is an annual recognition for young writers who demonstrate exceptional literary merit in their respective languages.
  • This award is aimed at promoting emerging talent in Indian literature under the age of 35.
  • Akhil P Dharmajan's work reflects modern storytelling techniques and explores themes relevant to contemporary society, resonating deeply with readers.

Additional Information

  • Abin Joseph
  • Abin Joseph is an emerging writer in Malayalam literature, known for his contributions to poetry and short stories.
  • He has gained recognition for his creative use of language and deep exploration of human emotions.
  • Anuja Akathoottu
  • Anuja Akathoottu is celebrated for her contributions to Malayalam fiction, particularly focusing on feminist themes.
  • Her works often highlight the struggles and resilience of women in society, making her a significant voice in Indian literature.
  • Amal Pirappancode
  • Amal Pirappancode is known for his experimental writing style and innovative narrative techniques in Malayalam literature.
  • He has contributed to both prose and poetry, and his works often challenge traditional literary norms.
18

Which international think tank published The Limits to Growth (1972), highlighting potential resource depletion amid population growth?

  1. ((a))

    Club of Rome (global policy think tank)

  2. ((b))

    United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

  3. ((c))

    World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)

  4. ((d))

    Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Club of Rome (global policy think tank)

The correct answer is Club of Rome (global policy think tank).

Key Points

  • The Club of Rome, an international think tank, published the seminal report "The Limits to Growth" in 1972, which analyzed the interrelationship of population growth, industrialization, resource depletion, and environmental degradation.
  • The report was based on a computer simulation model called World3, developed by a team led by Dennis Meadows, Donella Meadows, and Jørgen Randers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT).
  • It highlighted that if current trends in population growth and resource consumption continued, the world would face resource depletion and environmental collapse within a century.
  • The report served as a wake-up call, emphasizing the need for sustainable development and resource conservation to ensure long-term global stability.
  • The Club of Rome continues to work on global challenges such as climate change, poverty, and inequality, promoting the concept of a sustainable future.

Additional Information

  • United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):
  • UNEP is a leading global environmental authority established in 1972, headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
  • It coordinates the United Nations' environmental activities and assists developing countries in implementing environmentally sound policies and practices.
  • Key initiatives include climate action, biodiversity conservation, and sustainable resource management.
  • World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF):
  • WWF, founded in 1961, is an international non-governmental organization focused on wildlife conservation and reducing the human impact on the environment.
  • It works on critical issues such as climate change, deforestation, and water conservation.
  • WWF is known for its iconic panda logo and efforts to protect endangered species worldwide.
  • Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
  • The IPCC, established in 1988 by the United Nations, assesses scientific information related to climate change, its impacts, and potential future risks.
  • The IPCC does not conduct its own research but provides comprehensive assessments based on peer-reviewed scientific literature.
  • Its reports, such as the Sixth Assessment Report (AR6), are critical for informing global climate policies and agreements like the Paris Agreement.
19

Which of the following is NOT classified as part of the global commons (shared areas beyond national jurisdiction)?

  1. ((a))

    Outer space

  2. ((b))

    Earth's atmosphere

  3. ((c))

    Amazon Rainforest (within national territory)

  4. ((d))

    Ocean floor (the deep seabed)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Amazon Rainforest (within national territory)

The correct answer is Amazon Rainforest (within national territory).

Key Points

  • The Amazon Rainforest is located within the national territory of several South American countries, primarily Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Venezuela, and others.
  • Because it falls under the jurisdiction of specific nations, it is not considered part of the global commons.
  • The term "global commons" refers to areas that are not owned or governed by any one country and are shared resources for all of humanity.
  • Examples of global commons include the high seas, the atmosphere, outer space, and the deep seabed.
  • The Amazon Rainforest, despite its critical environmental importance, is managed under national laws and policies of the countries it spans.

Additional Information

  • Outer Space
  • Outer space is considered part of the global commons as per the Outer Space Treaty of 1967.
  • The treaty states that the exploration and use of outer space shall be free for all nations and not subject to appropriation by any country.
  • It includes celestial bodies like the Moon and planets, which are shared by all of humanity.
  • Earth's Atmosphere
  • The Earth's atmosphere is another element of the global commons as it transcends national boundaries.
  • It plays a crucial role in supporting life and regulating global climate systems.
  • International agreements like the Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement aim to regulate activities that impact the atmosphere.
  • Ocean Floor (Deep Seabed)
  • The deep seabed, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, is part of the global commons.
  • It is governed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which ensures that its resources are used for the benefit of all humanity.
  • The International Seabed Authority (ISA) manages activities related to mining and exploration in these areas.
20

In July 2025, which satellite was launched by ISRO in collaboration with NASA, aimed at enhancing climate resilience and natural disasters using dual-band radar imaging?

  1. ((a))

    GSAT-7R

  2. ((b))

    NVS-02

  3. ((c))

    EOS-09

  4. ((d))

    NISAR

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

NISAR

The correct answer is NISAR.

Key Points

  • NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, a collaborative satellite project between NASA and ISRO.
  • It is designed to provide detailed, dual-band radar imaging using L-band (from NASA) and S-band (from ISRO), making it capable of monitoring changes in Earth's surface with unprecedented precision.
  • The satellite aims to enhance climate resilience by tracking ecosystem disturbances, ice-sheet collapse, and natural disasters such as earthquakes, tsunamis, and landslides.
  • Scheduled for launch in July 2025, NISAR will play a pivotal role in studying carbon cycles, deforestation, and agricultural patterns.
  • The mission represents a significant technological collaboration between the United States and India, leveraging cutting-edge radar systems for global environmental monitoring.

Additional Information

  • GSAT-7R
  • GSAT-7R is a communication satellite developed by ISRO, primarily meant for defense applications in India.
  • It serves to enhance secure communication for military and strategic purposes, particularly for naval operations.
  • While GSAT-7R is crucial for national security, it does not focus on climate resilience or disaster monitoring like NISAR.
  • NVS-02
  • NVS-02 is part of India's Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) satellite series aimed at providing accurate navigation services.
  • NavIC satellites are used for terrestrial, aerial, and maritime navigation but do not focus on climate resilience or radar imaging.
  • The satellite strengthens India's navigation system and is essential for disaster management and transportation but is unrelated to NISAR's objectives.
  • EOS-09
  • EOS-09 refers to an Earth Observation Satellite developed by ISRO for optical remote sensing applications.
  • Its primary objectives include agriculture monitoring, forestry, and disaster management.
  • While EOS-09 contributes to environmental monitoring, it does not feature dual-band radar imaging or involve collaboration with NASA as NISAR does.

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