Official Paper

PYST 11: IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper - General Studies (Held On: 30 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

20 questions · 8 minutes · with answers · free

Test (20 questions)

1

Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes?

  1. ((a))

    Fourth Schedule

  2. ((b))

    Ninth Schedule

  3. ((c))

    Fifth Schedule

  4. ((d))

    Sixth Schedule

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fifth Schedule

The correct answer is Fifth Schedule.

Key Points

  • The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than the northeastern states.
  • It grants special rights and protections to the Scheduled Tribes (STs) living in the Scheduled Areas to preserve their distinct identity and culture.
  • It empowers the President of India to declare any area as a Scheduled Area and make regulations for their governance, including the prohibition or restriction of land transfers and moneylending practices.
  • The Governor of the state having Scheduled Areas is required to submit an annual report to the President on the administration of these areas.
  • The Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) is constituted under the Fifth Schedule to advise on the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the states covered under this schedule.

Additional Information

  • Fourth Schedule
  • The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the states and union territories.
  • This schedule specifies the number of representatives a state or union territory can send to the Rajya Sabha based on its population.
  • It ensures proportional representation of states and union territories in the Rajya Sabha, providing a platform for regional interests at the national level.
  • Ninth Schedule
  • The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment Act of 1951.
  • It contains laws that are protected from judicial review, primarily aimed at safeguarding land reform and agrarian laws from being challenged in courts.
  • The laws included in this schedule were meant to address socio-economic inequalities, particularly to protect land redistribution measures from legal challenges.
  • However, the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati case (1973) and later in the I.R. Coelho case (2007) ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
  • Sixth Schedule
  • The Sixth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in the northeastern states, including Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • It provides for the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in these regions to enable self-governance by tribal communities.
  • The councils have legislative, judicial, and executive powers over specified matters such as land use, agriculture, and local governance.
  • This schedule aims to preserve the cultural and administrative autonomy of the tribal communities in the northeastern region.
2

Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution, commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law, to curb political defections by legislators?

  1. ((a))

    61st Amendment Act, 1988

  2. ((b))

    42nd Amendment Act, 1976

  3. ((c))

    52nd Amendment Act, 1985

  4. ((d))

    73rd Amendment Act, 1992

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

52nd Amendment Act, 1985

The correct answer is 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

Key Points

  • The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 added the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution, introducing the Anti-Defection Law.
  • The law was enacted to curb political defections by legislators, ensuring stability in the government and preventing unethical practices.
  • The Tenth Schedule lists provisions related to disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection.
  • The Anti-Defection Law applies to both Parliament and State Legislatures, and disqualification can occur if a member voluntarily gives up their party membership or violates party directives during voting.
  • Exceptions under the law include mergers where at least two-thirds of the members of a party agree to merge with another party.

Additional Information

  • 61st Amendment Act, 1988
  • This amendment reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years.
  • The change aimed to increase political participation among youth and strengthen democracy.
  • It amended Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with elections and adult suffrage.
  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  • Known as the "Mini-Constitution," this amendment brought significant changes to the Indian Constitution.
  • It introduced the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" into the Preamble of the Constitution.
  • It strengthened the Directive Principles of State Policy and curtailed the powers of the judiciary in certain aspects.
  • This amendment also increased the tenure of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 to 6 years, though it was later reversed by the 44th Amendment Act.
  • 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
  • This amendment introduced Panchayati Raj institutions in India, providing constitutional status to local governance.
  • It added Part IX to the Constitution and the Eleventh Schedule, listing 29 subjects under the jurisdiction of Panchayats.
  • The amendment mandated the creation of Gram Sabhas and established a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • It aimed to promote decentralization and empower grassroots democracy.
  • Tenth Schedule and Anti-Defection Law
  • The Tenth Schedule was introduced to ensure political stability and discourage legislators from switching parties for personal gains.
  • Under this law, the Speaker or Chairman of the House decides on disqualification cases related to defection.
  • The law has faced criticism for empowering party leadership over individual legislators and undermining parliamentary debate.
  • Various judicial rulings, such as the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992), have clarified aspects of the law and the role of the judiciary in defection cases.
3

Which mountain pass is correctly paired with its range?

  1. ((a))

    Nathu-La - Greater Himalaya

  2. ((b))

    Zoji-La - Ladakh Range

  3. ((c))

    Bara Lacha-La - Himadri

  4. ((d))

    Shipki-La - Siwalik

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nathu-La - Greater Himalaya

The correct answer is Nathu-La - Greater Himalaya.

Key Points

  • Nathu-La Pass is located in the Greater Himalaya range and connects the Indian state of Sikkim with Tibet (China).
  • The pass lies at an altitude of approximately 4,310 meters and is a vital trade route between India and China under the India-China bilateral trade agreement.
  • Nathu-La was reopened for trade in 2006 after remaining closed for over 44 years post the 1962 Sino-Indian War.
  • The name "Nathu-La" translates to "Listening Ear Pass" in Tibetan.
  • The pass is also strategically important for India and is managed by the Indian Army due to its proximity to the Indo-China border.

Additional Information

  • Zoji-La - Ladakh Range (Incorrect Pairing)
  • Zoji-La is a high mountain pass located in the Greater Himalayan Range, not the Ladakh Range.
  • It connects Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir to Leh in Ladakh, serving as a lifeline for the region.
  • Zoji-La lies at an altitude of 3,528 meters and is known for its treacherous terrain and heavy snowfall during winters.
  • It is also a strategically important pass for India as it facilitates connectivity to Ladakh.
  • Bara Lacha-La - Himadri (Incorrect Pairing)
  • Bara Lacha-La is located in the Zanskar Range, not Himadri (Greater Himalaya).
  • The pass connects Lahaul in Himachal Pradesh to Leh in Ladakh.
  • It lies at an altitude of 4,890 meters and is a part of the Leh-Manali Highway.
  • The pass is a popular route for trekkers and adventure enthusiasts traveling to Ladakh.
  • Shipki-La - Siwalik (Incorrect Pairing)
  • Shipki-La is a mountain pass located in the Himalayas, not the Siwalik range.
  • It connects the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh with Tibet (China).
  • The Sutlej River enters India through Shipki-La.
  • It has historical significance as part of an ancient trade route and is also a point of bilateral trade between India and China.
4

An oil-refining plant that processes crude petroleum belongs to which category of industries by raw material?

  1. ((a))

    Forest-based

  2. ((b))

    Agro-based

  3. ((c))

    Mineral-based

  4. ((d))

    Marine-based

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mineral-based

The correct answer is Mineral-based.

Key Points

  • An oil-refining plant that processes crude petroleum is categorized as a mineral-based industry.
  • Mineral-based industries utilize minerals or ores as their primary raw materials. Crude petroleum is a naturally occurring mineral resource derived from the earth.
  • Refineries process crude petroleum into useful products such as petrol, diesel, kerosene, and lubricants, making it a key mineral-based activity.
  • These industries are considered capital-intensive as they require significant investment in advanced machinery and technology.
  • Crude petroleum and its derivatives are extensively used in various sectors, including transportation, energy production, and manufacturing, highlighting the importance of mineral-based industries in economic development.

Additional Information

  • Forest-based Industries:
  • These industries utilize forest resources such as wood, bamboo, and resin as raw materials.
  • Examples include paper manufacturing, furniture making, and industries producing lac and rubber.
  • They play a significant role in regions where forest resources are abundant.
  • Agro-based Industries:
  • These industries depend on agricultural products as raw materials.
  • Examples include cotton textiles, sugar production, food processing, and jute manufacturing.
  • They are labor-intensive and often located in agricultural regions.
  • Marine-based Industries:
  • Marine-based industries rely on resources obtained from the sea or other water bodies.
  • Examples include fishing, seafood processing, and industries producing salt or pearls.
  • They are important for coastal economies and depend heavily on sustainable resource management.
5

Which of the following is a correct statement about India's islands?

  1. ((a))

    Nicobar Islands are extensions of the Arakan Yoma range.

  2. ((b))

    Barren Island belongs to the Lakshadweep chain.

  3. ((c))

    The Andaman group is made of corals over submerged plateaus.

  4. ((d))

    Lakshadweep has mainly rocky coasts with no lagoons.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nicobar Islands are extensions of the Arakan Yoma range.

The correct answer is Nicobar Islands are extensions of the Arakan Yoma range..

Key Points

  • The Nicobar Islands are geologically part of the Arakan Yoma range, which extends from Myanmar into the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • The Arakan Yoma range is a subduction zone formed due to the collision of the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, and the Nicobar Islands are its southernmost extension.
  • The Nicobar Islands consist of 22 islands, known for their tropical rainforests and unique biodiversity.
  • The geological formation of these islands is primarily influenced by tectonic activity along the Indo-Burma plate boundary.
  • These islands are located in the Bay of Bengal and are closer to Indonesia than mainland India.

Additional Information

  • About India's Islands
  • India has two major island groups: the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal and the Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea.
  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are volcanic and tectonic in origin, while the Lakshadweep Islands are coral atolls.
  • Both island groups are known for their biodiversity and strategic importance.
6

Which of the following initiatives was launched to facilitate digital transactions in the agricultural sector post-1991?

  1. ((a))

    National Agricultural Market (e-NAM)

  2. ((b))

    Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme

  3. ((c))

    National e-Governance Plan

  4. ((d))

    Digital India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Agricultural Market (e-NAM)

The correct answer is National Agricultural Market (e-NAM).

Key Points

  • e-NAM (National Agricultural Market) was launched in April 2016 to promote digital transactions in the agricultural sector.
  • It is a pan-India electronic trading platform that aims to connect existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
  • This initiative was introduced by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare under the Digital India Campaign.
  • e-NAM facilitates online trading of agricultural produce, price transparency, and better market linkages for farmers.
  • The platform allows farmers to access real-time price discovery and reduces middlemen, ensuring better income for farmers.
  • As of 2023, e-NAM connects more than 1,260 mandis across the country, benefiting millions of farmers.

Additional Information

  • Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Scheme
  • The DBT Scheme was launched in January 2013 to transfer subsidies and benefits directly into the bank accounts of beneficiaries.
  • It aims to reduce leakages, delays, and corruption in the delivery of subsidies.
  • Under DBT, schemes like PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) ensure direct financial support to farmers.
  • However, DBT focuses on direct monetary transfers and not on creating digital agricultural markets.
  • National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)
  • Launched in 2006, the NeGP aims to bring transparency, efficiency, and accountability in government services through e-governance initiatives.
  • It covers multiple sectors, including agriculture, health, education, and rural development.
  • The goal of the NeGP is to improve service delivery to citizens but it does not specifically focus on agricultural marketing or digital platforms for farmers.
  • Digital India
  • Launched in July 2015, Digital India aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
  • It focuses on digital infrastructure, digital literacy, and delivering government services digitally.
  • While e-NAM is a part of Digital India, the latter is a broader initiative covering diverse areas like e-governance, financial inclusion, and internet connectivity.
7

Who was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty in the Delhi Sultanate?

  1. ((a))

    Firoz Shah Tughlaq

  2. ((b))

    Muhammad bin Tughlaq

  3. ((c))

    Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

  4. ((d))

    Mahmud Ibn Muhammad

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

The correct answer is Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.

Key Points

  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, also known as Ghazi Malik, was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty in the Delhi Sultanate.
  • He came to power in 1320 AD after overthrowing the Khilji dynasty and became the first ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty.
  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq established his capital at Tughlaqabad, near Delhi, which is known for its massive fortifications and architecture.
  • He was known for his administrative reforms and efforts to consolidate the empire. He focused on improving the economic and military strength of the Sultanate.
  • Ghiyasuddin ruled from 1320 to 1325 AD, and his reign ended with his sudden death, after which his son Muhammad bin Tughlaq succeeded him.

Additional Information

  • Firoz Shah Tughlaq
  • Firoz Shah Tughlaq was a ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty who ruled from 1351 to 1388 AD.
  • He is known for his public works, including the construction of canals, mosques, and madrasas (educational institutions).
  • He introduced several reforms, including reducing taxes and promoting agriculture, and is remembered for his policy of religious tolerance.
  • Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  • He was the son of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq and ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1325 to 1351 AD.
  • Muhammad bin Tughlaq is known for his ambitious but often unsuccessful policies, such as the transfer of the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad and the introduction of token currency.
  • Despite his failures, he was an educated and visionary ruler, excelling in multiple fields like literature, philosophy, and administration.
  • Mahmud Ibn Muhammad
  • Mahmud Ibn Muhammad was not a ruler of the Delhi Sultanate or associated with the founding of any dynasty.
  • This option appears to be incorrect in the context of the Tughlaq dynasty.
  • Tughlaq Dynasty
  • The Tughlaq dynasty was the third dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate and ruled from 1320 to 1414 AD.
  • It is known for its ambitious rulers, architectural innovations, and administrative experiments.
  • The dynasty witnessed both the expansion and decline of the Delhi Sultanate.
8

Which of the following best describes Rabindranath Tagore's contribution to the national movement?

  1. ((a))

    He led the Quit India Movement.

  2. ((b))

    He combined cultural nationalism with a critique of narrow nationalism.

  3. ((c))

    He worked only in revolutionary groups.

  4. ((d))

    He was a founder of the Indian National Congress.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

He combined cultural nationalism with a critique of narrow nationalism.

The correct answer is He combined cultural nationalism with a critique of narrow nationalism.

Key Points

  • Rabindranath Tagore's contribution to the national movement was unique as he emphasized cultural nationalism while remaining critical of narrow, divisive, and aggressive forms of nationalism.
  • Tagore believed in the idea of universal humanism and sought to integrate India's freedom struggle with a broader vision of global harmony and cultural exchange.
  • He used his writings, poetry, and music to inspire Indians towards freedom while cautioning against exclusivism and intolerance in the name of nationalism.
  • Tagore composed the national anthem of India, "Jana Gana Mana," highlighting his patriotic sentiments and vision for a united India.
  • He renounced his knighthood in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919, marking his solidarity with the Indian freedom movement and condemnation of British atrocities.

Additional Information

  • Rabindranath Tagore's Vision of Nationalism
  • Tagore's vision of nationalism was rooted in spiritual and cultural ideals, where he emphasized the importance of unity, tolerance, and global harmony.
  • He criticized aggressive nationalism that fostered hatred and division, advocating instead for a society based on mutual respect and understanding.
  • His works like Gitanjali and essays on nationalism reflect his commitment to these ideals and his contributions to India's intellectual and cultural awakening.
9

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Globalisation in India?

  1. ((a))

    Higher standards of living

  2. ((b))

    Increase in employment

  3. ((c))

    Reduction in income inequality

  4. ((d))

    Increase in compensation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Reduction in income inequality

The correct answer is Reduction in income inequality.

Key Points

  • Globalisation in India has facilitated economic growth and development, but it has not significantly contributed to reducing income inequality. Income disparities remain prevalent across different segments of society.
  • The benefits of globalisation, such as increased trade and investment, have largely concentrated in urban areas, leaving rural areas and economically weaker sections behind.
  • Unequal access to education, healthcare, and infrastructure continues to hinder inclusive growth, exacerbating income inequality despite globalisation.
  • India's Gini coefficient (a measure of income inequality) has shown limited improvement over the years, suggesting that globalisation has not adequately addressed this issue.
  • The focus on capital-intensive industries under globalisation has led to uneven distribution of wealth, with the rich gaining disproportionately compared to the poor.

Additional Information

  • Globalisation (G):
  • Trade Liberalisation: Substantially reduced import tariffs and removed quantitative restrictions.
  • FDI Promotion: Opened doors for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII).
  • Exchange Rate Reforms: Made the Indian Rupee partially convertible for trade.
  • Integration: Shifted from import substitution to export promotion, integrating India with the global economy.
10

When was NITI Aayog established by an executive resolution to replace the Planning Commission?

  1. ((a))

    2016

  2. ((b))

    2014

  3. ((c))

    2015

  4. ((d))

    2017

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2015

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

  • NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015, through an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet, replacing the Planning Commission of India.
  • The full form of NITI Aayog is National Institution for Transforming India.
  • It was created to serve as a policy think tank of the Government of India with the aim to foster cooperative federalism and promote sustainable development.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog, while the governing council includes Chief Ministers of all states and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories.
  • NITI Aayog focuses on providing strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments on various developmental issues.

Additional Information

  • Importance of NITI Aayog
  • NITI Aayog represents a significant shift from the centralized planning approach of the Planning Commission to a more decentralized, bottom-up approach focused on cooperative federalism.
  • It emphasizes innovation, entrepreneurship, and sustainable development tailored to the needs of individual states and regions.
  • The organization’s key initiatives include the Atal Innovation Mission, Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), and the Aspirational Districts Programme.
11

Which river divides the Peninsular Plateau into the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau? 

  1. ((a))

     Krishna

  2. ((b))

    Mahanadi

  3. ((c))

     Godavari

  4. ((d))

    Narmada 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Narmada 

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

  • The Narmada River is one of the major rivers of peninsular India that flows westward, originating from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It acts as a natural boundary, dividing the Peninsular Plateau into two distinct parts: the Central Highlands (north) and the Deccan Plateau (south).
  • The Narmada flows through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges, which is a unique geological feature of the river.
  • It is the fifth-largest river in India and drains into the Arabian Sea, forming an estuary near Bharuch in Gujarat.
  • The river is culturally significant and is often referred to as the "Lifeline of Madhya Pradesh".

Additional Information

  • Krishna River:
  • The Krishna River is the fourth-largest river in India, originating from the Mahabaleshwar region in Maharashtra.
  • It flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Major tributaries of the Krishna River include the Bhima, Tungabhadra, and Koyna rivers.
  • Mahanadi River:
  • The Mahanadi River originates from the Sihawa region in Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
  • It is known for its fertile delta and serves as a major water source for agriculture in eastern India.
  • The Hirakud Dam, one of the longest dams in the world, is built on the Mahanadi River.
  • Godavari River:
  • The Godavari River, also known as the "Dakshina Ganga" or the "Ganges of the South," is the second-largest river in India.
  • It originates from the Trimbakeshwar region in Maharashtra and flows through Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha before joining the Bay of Bengal.
  • The river has a significant role in agriculture and is home to several irrigation projects.
  • Peninsular Plateau:
  • The Peninsular Plateau is a vast highland region in southern India, divided into two parts: the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
  • The Central Highlands lie to the north of the Narmada River, while the Deccan Plateau lies to its south.
  • The plateau is characterized by its ancient crystalline rocks, rich mineral deposits, and diverse topography.
12

Who among the following was called the 'Lion of Punjab' during the Extremist phase? 

  1. ((a))

    Bipin Chandra Pal 

  2. ((b))

    Lala Lajpat Rai

  3. ((c))

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  4. ((d))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lala Lajpat Rai

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai.

Key Points

  • Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent leader in India’s struggle for independence, and he was popularly known as the 'Lion of Punjab'.
  • He was an advocate of the Extremist phase of the Indian National Movement, emphasizing more radical and assertive methods to achieve independence.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai was one of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal), who were key leaders of the extremist faction in the Indian National Congress.
  • He played a key role in the Swadeshi Movement and advocated for the boycott of foreign goods to promote Indian self-reliance.
  • Lajpat Rai succumbed to injuries sustained during a lathi charge while protesting against the Simon Commission on 30 October 1928, which had no Indian representation.

Additional Information

  • Bipin Chandra Pal
  • Bipin Chandra Pal was another prominent leader of the Extremist phase of the Indian National Movement and part of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio.
  • Known as the 'Father of Revolutionary Thoughts' in India, he strongly advocated for Swaraj (self-rule) and was a vocal critic of British rule.
  • He emphasized the need for national education and the Swadeshi movement to build a self-reliant nation.
  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and was associated with the Moderate faction of the Congress.
  • Unlike the Extremists, he believed in constitutional methods and dialogue with the British for achieving reforms and self-governance.
  • He was also the mentor of Mahatma Gandhi and emphasized the importance of education and social reforms.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak, another member of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, was referred to as the 'Father of Indian Unrest'.
  • He was a staunch advocate of Swaraj and believed that independence was the birthright of every Indian.
  • He played a major role in the Swadeshi Movement and popularized the slogan, "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it."
13

The famous Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang (Hsüan-tsang) visited India during the reign of:

  1. ((a))

    Skandagupta

  2. ((b))

    Pulakeshin II 

  3. ((c))

    Harshavardhana 

  4. ((d))

    Chandragupta II 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Harshavardhana 

The correct answer is Harshavardhana.

Key Points

  • Xuanzang (Hsüan-tsang), a famous Chinese Buddhist monk and scholar, visited India during the reign of Emperor Harshavardhana (606–647 CE).
  • Harshavardhana ruled over northern India and was known for his patronage of art, culture, and Buddhism.
  • Xuanzang documented his travels in India in his book “Great Tang Records on the Western Regions” (Da Tang Xi Yu Ji), providing valuable insights into Indian society, religion, and politics of that era.
  • He visited prominent Buddhist centers such as Nalanda University, which was flourishing under Harsha’s reign.
  • Xuanzang attended a great Buddhist assembly organized by Harsha at Prayag (modern-day Allahabad), highlighting the emperor’s devotion to Buddhism and his encouragement of interfaith dialogue.

Additional Information

  • Skandagupta (c. 455–467 CE):
  • Skandagupta was a ruler of the Gupta Empire, credited with successfully defending India against the invasions of the Huns.
  • He is known for his administrative reforms and efforts to stabilize the empire during a period of internal and external challenges.
  • His reign is marked by the decline of the Gupta Empire due to economic strains and continuous invasions.
  • Pulakeshin II (610–642 CE):
  • Pulakeshin II was a ruler of the Chalukya dynasty in southern India, known for his military prowess and administrative capabilities.
  • He defeated Harshavardhana when the latter attempted to expand his territory into the Deccan region.
  • His reign saw the flourishing of culture, architecture, and trade in the Deccan region, as evidenced by the inscriptions at Aihole and Badami.
  • Chandragupta II (c. 380–415 CE):
  • Also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya, he was one of the most powerful rulers of the Gupta Empire and is credited with ushering in the "Golden Age" of India.
  • He strengthened the empire through military conquests and matrimonial alliances, expanding its territory and influence.
  • His reign was marked by advancements in science, literature, and art, with scholars such as Kalidasa and Aryabhata flourishing during this period.
14

Which of the following was a primary objective of India's First Five Year Plan (1951-1956)?

  1. ((a))

    Promotion of information technology 

  2. ((b))

    Heavy industrialisation 

  3. ((c))

    Self-reliance in technology 

  4. ((d))

    Development of agriculture and transport 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Development of agriculture and transport 

The correct answer is Development of agriculture and transport.

Key Points

  • The First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) was primarily focused on the development of agriculture and irrigation to ensure food security in a newly independent India.
  • The plan emphasized increasing agricultural productivity through land reforms, soil conservation, and irrigation projects, as agriculture was the backbone of India’s economy at the time.
  • It allocated a significant portion of the budget (approximately 44.6%) to agriculture, irrigation, and energy projects.
  • The plan also stressed improving rural infrastructure, including rural roads, transport facilities, and irrigation canals, to support agricultural activities.
  • Projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Dam, Hirakud Dam, and Damodar Valley Project were initiated during this plan to boost irrigation and hydroelectric power generation.

Additional Information

  • Heavy industrialization
  • Heavy industrialization was the primary focus of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), inspired by the Soviet model of economic planning.
  • The Second Plan emphasized the development of industries like steel, heavy machinery, and engineering goods, marking a shift from the agrarian focus of the First Plan.
  • Self-reliance in technology
  • The objective of achieving self-reliance in technology became more prominent in the later Five-Year Plans, especially during the 1970s and 1980s.
  • This included initiatives to reduce dependence on foreign technology and imports by promoting indigenous research and development in areas like space exploration, nuclear energy, and defense.
15

On which date did the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occur?

  1. ((a))

    13 April 1919 

  2. ((b))

    18 May 1919 

  3. ((c))

    15 August 1919 

  4. ((d))

    13 April 1819 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 April 1919 

The correct answer is 13 April 1919.

Key Points

  • The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on 13 April 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab, during British rule in India.
  • It was perpetrated by British Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer, who ordered his troops to open fire on a peaceful gathering.
  • Thousands of unarmed men, women, and children had gathered at Jallianwala Bagh for a peaceful protest against the Rowlatt Act and to celebrate the Punjabi festival of Baisakhi.
  • Official British records state that 379 people were killed and over 1,200 were injured, but Indian estimates place the death toll much higher.
  • This event was a turning point in India's struggle for independence, leading to widespread outrage and strengthening the non-cooperation movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.

Additional Information

  • Key points of its impact:
  • End of Moderate Faith: Moderates who previously supported British rule lost faith, becoming ardent nationalists.
  • Galvanized Nationalism: Ignited widespread anger and united Indians, accelerating the freedom movement.
  • Non-Cooperation Movement: Directly led to Gandhi launching the Non-Cooperation Movement, a nationwide protest.
  • Shattered Image of British Justice: Revealed the brutal, unjust nature of colonial rule, ending illusions of fair governance.
  • Rise of Gandhi: Solidified Gandhi's leadership as he called for mass action against the atrocities.
  • National Trauma: Became a deep-seated national wound, symbolizing colonial oppression and inspiring future generations.
16

Who appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) in India?

  1. ((a))

    Speaker of Lok Sabha 

  2. ((b))

    Prime Minister of India 

  3. ((c))

    Chairman of Rajya Sabha 

  4. ((d))

    President of India 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Speaker of Lok Sabha 

The correct answer is Speaker of Lok Sabha.

Key Points

  • The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) in India is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  • The PAC is one of the most important financial committees in the Indian Parliament, tasked with examining the accounts and audit reports of the government.
  • By convention, the Chairman of the PAC is a member of the opposition party to ensure unbiased scrutiny of government expenditure.
  • It consists of 22 members—15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.
  • The PAC works in close collaboration with the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, whose audit reports form the basis for its examination.

Additional Information

  • Public Accounts Committee
  • The PAC was established in 1921 under the Government of India Act of 1919 and continues to play a crucial role in parliamentary oversight.
  • It examines the annual finance accounts and audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
  • The committee ensures accountability in government spending and serves as a critical mechanism for maintaining transparency in public finances.
  • Types of Committees:
  • Standing Committees: Permanent, recurring committees (e.g., Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) cover ministries).
  • Ad Hoc Committees: Temporary, set up for specific tasks (e.g., Select/Joint Committees on Bills).
  • Authority & Operation:
  • Draw authority from the Constitution (Articles 105 & 118).
  • Work under the direction of the Speaker (Lok Sabha) or Chairman (Rajya Sabha).
  • Meetings often held in-camera (closed-door) to encourage free discussion.
17

Which among the following is NOT one of the broad indicators of the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) in India?

  1. ((a))

    Standard of living

  2. ((b))

    Health 

  3. ((c))

    Education

  4. ((d))

    Employment

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Employment

The correct answer is Employment.

Key Points

  • The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) in India is based on three major dimensions — Health, Education, and Standard of Living.
  • These three dimensions comprise a total of 12 indicators such as nutrition, school attendance, years of schooling, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, and others.
  • The MPI is aligned with the global Multidimensional Poverty Index, developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • Employment is not included as a distinct indicator under the National MPI framework, as it focuses more on outcome-based indicators of poverty rather than employment status.
  • The MPI measures deprivations faced by households across the three defined dimensions to provide a more comprehensive view of poverty than income-based measures.

Additional Information

  • Health
  • Indicators under the health dimension include nutrition, child mortality, and ante-natal care.
  • These indicators aim to capture the health-related deprivations faced by individuals, especially in vulnerable communities.
  • Nutrition is assessed based on the nutritional status of children and adults, while child mortality looks at the death of children under 5 years of age.
  • Education
  • Indicators under the education dimension include years of schooling and school attendance.
  • The focus is on whether household members have completed at least six years of schooling and if school-aged children are attending school.
  • This dimension reflects the importance of education in empowering individuals and reducing poverty in the long term.
  • Standard of Living
  • Indicators under this dimension include access to electricity, drinking water, sanitation, cooking fuel, housing, and assets.
  • This dimension highlights the physical and material deprivations faced by households in their daily lives.
  • For example, lack of access to clean cooking fuel or safe drinking water directly affects the quality of life and health of individuals.
  • National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) in India
  • The National MPI was launched by the NITI Aayog in 2021 and serves as a key benchmark for tracking poverty alleviation efforts in India.
  • It is designed to provide a granular understanding of poverty at the state, district, and sub-district levels for targeted policymaking.
  • The MPI complements income-based poverty measures by focusing on multiple deprivations that affect people's lives.
18

Which Indian Constitutional Amendment Act lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?

  1. ((a))

    42nd Amendment Act, 1976

  2. ((b))

    44th Amendment Act, 1978

  3. ((c))

    86th Amendment Act, 2002

  4. ((d))

    61st Amendment Act, 1988

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

61st Amendment Act, 1988

The correct answer is 61st Amendment Act, 1988.

Key Points

  • The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988, reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years.
  • This amendment was introduced to give greater representation to the youth in the democratic process and to involve them in the electoral process.
  • The amendment modified Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, which pertains to elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every state.
  • The government believed that lowering the voting age would enable a greater segment of the population to exercise their political rights and participate in nation-building.
  • The amendment was passed in 1988 and came into effect on 28 March 1989.

Additional Information

  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  • Known as the "Mini-Constitution," it introduced significant changes to the Constitution, including the addition of the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble.
  • It curtailed the powers of the judiciary and enhanced the authority of the executive, especially during the Emergency (1975–1977).
  • It also extended the term of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies from five to six years, though this was later reversed by the 44th Amendment.
  • 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  • This amendment was enacted to reverse some provisions of the 42nd Amendment and to strengthen democratic institutions.
  • It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies to five years.
  • It ensured that fundamental rights, particularly the Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21), could not be curtailed arbitrarily even during an emergency.
  • 86th Amendment Act, 2002
  • The 86th Amendment made education a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
  • It mandated that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.
  • It also modified Article 51A to add a fundamental duty for parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children.
19

Which of the following is NOT one of the pillars of the Sagarmala Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    Port modernisation 

  2. ((b))

    Port-linked industrialisation 

  3. ((c))

    Port connectivity enhancement 

  4. ((d))

    Coastal tourism development 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Coastal tourism development 

The correct answer is Coastal Tourism Development.

Key Points

  • Coastal tourism development is not officially listed as one of the pillars under the Sagarmala Scheme.
  • The Sagarmala Scheme focuses on port-led development strategies rather than directly catering to tourism-related activities.
  • While coastal tourism might indirectly benefit from enhanced port infrastructure and connectivity, it is not a core element of the scheme.
  • The four key pillars of Sagarmala include port modernization and new port development, port connectivity enhancement, port-linked industrialization, and coastal community development.
  • The scheme aims to reduce logistics costs and enhance India’s maritime trade competitiveness through these pillars.

Additional Information

  • Port-Linked Industrialization:
  • Special Economic Zones (SEZs), industrial clusters, and manufacturing hubs are planned near ports to leverage port connectivity for export-oriented industries.
  • This initiative promotes job creation and boosts industrial growth in regions surrounding major ports.
  • The development of Coastal Employment Zones (CEZs) is a significant aspect of this pillar.
  • Coastal Community Development:
  • This pillar focuses on improving the livelihood of coastal communities by promoting skill development, fisheries, and other sustainable economic activities.
  • It also includes measures to address environmental concerns and ensure the well-being of communities living in coastal regions.
  • Social infrastructure projects like housing, healthcare, and education facilities are implemented under this pillar.
20

Which natural feature is typical of the Lakshadweep Islands of India? 

  1. ((a))

    Volcanic mountains 

  2. ((b))

    Coral formations 

  3. ((c))

    Sand dunes

  4. ((d))

    Glacial deposits

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Coral formations 

The correct answer is Coral formations.

Key Points

  • The Lakshadweep Islands are a group of 36 small islands located in the Arabian Sea, off the southwestern coast of India.
  • These islands are primarily composed of coral atolls, reefs, and lagoons, which are formed by the accumulation of calcium carbonate over millennia by coral polyps.
  • Coral formations in Lakshadweep play a vital role in protecting the islands from coastal erosion and provide habitat to diverse marine species, making the region ecologically significant.
  • The coral reefs of Lakshadweep are classified as atolls, a unique type of reef structure that encircles a lagoon, making it one of the few such ecosystems in India.
  • Lakshadweep’s coral reefs contribute to its rich biodiversity and are part of India’s efforts to protect marine ecosystems through conservation initiatives.

Additional Information

  • Volcanic mountains
  • Volcanic mountains are formed due to volcanic activity when magma erupts from the Earth’s crust and solidifies on the surface.
  • Examples of volcanic mountains include Mount Vesuvius in Italy and Mount Fuji in Japan.
  • In India, the Barren Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is home to the only active volcano in the country.
  • However, the Lakshadweep Islands are not volcanic; they are formed from coral reefs.
  • Sand dunes
  • Sand dunes are accumulations of sand formed by the action of wind, typically found in deserts and coastal areas.
  • They are not a feature of the Lakshadweep Islands, as the islands are predominantly characterized by coral reefs and lagoons rather than sandy formations.
  • Examples of sand dunes in India include those in the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.
  • Glacial deposits
  • Glacial deposits are sedimentary formations created by the movement and melting of glaciers, which carry rocks and debris along their paths.
  • Such deposits are commonly found in cold, high-altitude regions like the Himalayas.
  • The Lakshadweep Islands, being tropical and situated in the Arabian Sea, have no glacial deposits.

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