Official Paper

PYST 10: IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper - General Awareness (Held On: 29 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

20 questions · 8 minutes · with answers · free

Test (20 questions)

1

The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, regulates which sector?

  1. ((a))

    Fantasy sports only

  2. ((b))

    Real-money online games and esports

  3. ((c))

    Offline card games

  4. ((d))

    Free-to-play mobile games only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Real-money online games and esports

The correct answer is Real-money online games and esports.

Key Points

  • The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, primarily regulates real-money online games and esports to ensure fair practices and transparency.
  • The Act seeks to curb illegal activities, such as gambling, underage gaming, and match-fixing, in the online gaming ecosystem.
  • It mandates a licensing system for platforms offering real-money games to ensure compliance with rules and consumer protection standards.
  • Real-money games typically involve financial transactions, necessitating regulation to prevent issues like fraud, addiction, and exploitation.
  • Esports, a significant part of the Act, is included to promote fair competition and address concerns like cheating and unethical practices in tournaments.

Additional Information

  • Fantasy Sports Only
  • Fantasy sports involve creating virtual teams based on real-life players, with outcomes determined by real-world game performances.
  • While popular, fantasy sports are not the sole focus of the Act, as they do not always involve real-money transactions.
  • Examples include Dream11, MPL Fantasy, and MyTeam11.
  • Offline Card Games
  • Offline card games like bridge, poker, and rummy are traditional games played physically.
  • These games are not covered under the Act, which exclusively regulates online gaming platforms.
  • Offline card games do not pose the same risks as online real-money games, such as fraud or addiction.
  • Free-to-Play Mobile Games Only
  • Free-to-play games like Candy Crush, Subway Surfers, and Among Us do not involve real-money transactions.
  • These games are primarily meant for entertainment and are not subject to the regulatory framework of the Act.
  • Although popular, these games do not pose the financial risks associated with real-money gaming.
2

Which of the following is a religious dance festival of Meghalaya?

  1. ((a))

    Kang Chingba

  2. ((b))

    Moatsu Mong

  3. ((c))

    Saga Dawa

  4. ((d))

    Nongkrem

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nongkrem

The correct answer is Nongkrem.

Key Points

  • Nongkrem Dance Festival is one of the most famous religious and cultural festivals celebrated by the Khasi tribe of Meghalaya.
  • The festival is held annually in Smit village, located near Shillong, the capital of Meghalaya.
  • It is a religious ceremony performed to seek blessings for a good harvest, peace, and prosperity for the entire community.
  • During the festival, unmarried Khasi girls dressed in traditional attire perform dances, while men equipped with swords symbolize strength and protection.
  • Rituals during the festival include offerings to the deity U-Lei Shillong and animal sacrifices by the Khasi priests.

Additional Information

  • Kang Chingba:
  • This is a traditional festival of Manipur and is celebrated by the Meitei community.
  • Kang Chingba marks the procession of Lord Jagannath's chariot and resembles the famous Rath Yatra of Puri, Odisha.
  • It holds religious significance and is observed during the month of June-July.
  • Moatsu Mong:
  • Moatsu Mong is a festival celebrated by the Ao tribe of Nagaland.
  • The festival signifies the end of the sowing season and the beginning of a new cycle of cultivation.
  • It includes community feasts, songs, dances, and rituals to mark the occasion.
  • Saga Dawa:
  • Saga Dawa is a Buddhist festival celebrated predominantly in Sikkim and other Himalayan regions.
  • It commemorates the birth, enlightenment, and death of Lord Buddha.
  • The festival is observed with prayer processions, rituals, and the offering of butter lamps in monasteries.
  • Meghalaya:
  • Meghalaya is a northeastern state of India known for its vibrant tribal culture and scenic beauty.
  • It is home to three major tribes – Khasi, Jaintia, and Garo.
  • The state hosts other renowned festivals such as:
  • Shad Suk Mynsiem – A thanksgiving festival celebrated by the Khasi tribe.
  • Wangala Festival – Celebrated by the Garo tribe to honor the Sun God and mark the harvest season.
  • Behdienkhlam – Celebrated by the Jaintia tribe to drive away evil spirits and seek prosperity.
3

The compass needle behaves as a tiny __________.

  1. ((a))

    magnet

  2. ((b))

    resistor

  3. ((c))

    conductor

  4. ((d))

    insulator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

magnet

The correct answer is magnet.

Key Points

  • A compass needle behaves as a tiny magnet that aligns itself with the Earth’s magnetic field.
  • The needle is magnetized, possessing a north and south pole, which allows it to interact with the Earth’s magnetic field.
  • The north pole of the needle points toward the magnetic north pole (geographically the South Magnetic Pole).
  • The compass needle pivots freely, making it a reliable tool for navigation and determining directions.
  • It utilizes the principle of magnetism, where opposite poles attract, to indicate the cardinal directions.

Additional Information

  • Resistor:
  • A resistor is an electronic component that opposes the flow of electric current in a circuit.
  • It is used to control voltage and current in electrical circuits.
  • Unlike a compass needle, a resistor does not interact with magnetic fields and is unrelated to magnetism.
  • Conductor:
  • A conductor is a material that allows the free flow of electric current through it due to the presence of free electrons.
  • Examples include metals like copper, aluminum, and silver.
  • A compass needle, being a magnet, is not related to the properties of electrical conductors.
  • Insulator:
  • An insulator is a material that resists the flow of electric current.
  • Examples include rubber, plastic, and glass.
  • Insulators are used to protect and separate electrical conductors but have no role in the functioning of a compass needle.
4

Which state's government launched India's first ride monitoring service, T-Safe, by police, for women, on 12 March 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Tripura

  3. ((c))

    Telangana

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

  • On 12 March 2024, the Telangana government launched T-Safe, India's first ride monitoring service aimed at ensuring the safety of women passengers.
  • The initiative is a collaborative effort between the Telangana government and Telangana Police, integrating technology-driven solutions to enhance women’s safety.
  • T-Safe includes features like real-time vehicle tracking, driver monitoring, and emergency response mechanisms for addressing safety concerns during rides.
  • The Telangana Police oversee the operations of T-Safe, ensuring women passengers feel secure and their journeys are monitored effectively.
  • This initiative reinforces Telangana’s position as a leader in adopting innovative public safety measures, especially for women.

Additional Information

  • Tamil Nadu
  • Tamil Nadu is known for its proactive measures for women’s safety, including the Amma Patrol initiative launched to ensure the safety of women and children in public spaces.
  • The state also has effective measures like women’s helpline numbers and exclusive women-friendly police stations.
  • Tripura
  • Tripura has been focusing on improving women’s safety through various awareness campaigns and initiatives.
  • The state has taken steps to strengthen law enforcement and provide quicker responses to crimes against women.
  • Andhra Pradesh
  • Andhra Pradesh has implemented the Disha Act, which includes provisions for fast-tracking cases of crimes against women.
  • The state has also launched the Disha app, a mobile application to help women in distress, providing immediate assistance and emergency services.
5

The Tarpa dance is performed by which tribal community in Maharashtra?

  1. ((a))

    Warli

  2. ((b))

    Gond

  3. ((c))

    Bhil

  4. ((d))

    Santhal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Warli

The correct answer is Warli.

Key Points

  • The Tarpa dance is a traditional group dance performed by the Warli tribal community, primarily located in the Thane and Palghar districts of Maharashtra.
  • This dance is performed during festivals, community gatherings, and special celebrations, serving as a symbol of unity, joy, and social bonding.
  • The dance is accompanied by the Tarpa, a wind instrument made from bamboo or gourd, and the dancers move in a circular chain, synchronizing their steps with the rhythm.
  • Participants hold hands and perform coordinated movements, showcasing the community's harmony and cultural richness.
  • The Tarpa dance reflects the Warli community’s close connection with nature and their vibrant traditional practices.

Additional Information

  • Warli Tribe and Culture:
  • The Warli tribe is one of the oldest tribal communities in India, predominantly residing in Maharashtra and parts of Gujarat.
  • They are known for their Warli art, a unique style of painting that uses simple geometric shapes such as circles, triangles, and lines to depict daily life, rituals, and nature.
  • Warli paintings are traditionally created using white rice paste on a red mud background and are often showcased during festivals and weddings.
  • Other Tribal Dances in Maharashtra:
  • Gond Tribe: The Gond community performs the Karma dance during festivals and weddings to celebrate social gatherings and agricultural harvests.
  • Bhil Tribe: The Bhil tribe is known for their energetic and colorful Ghoomar dance, which is performed on special occasions like weddings and festivals.
  • Santhal Tribe: Although primarily found in eastern India, the Santhal tribe performs the Santhal dance, a vibrant and rhythmic group dance during community celebrations.
  • Significance of Tribal Dances:
  • Tribal dances are important expressions of culture, reflecting the traditions, beliefs, and lifestyles of indigenous communities.
  • They often carry religious, social, or agricultural significance and serve as a medium to transmit oral traditions across generations.
  • Such dances highlight the importance of community bonding and the preservation of cultural heritage.
6

__________ is a rich source of iodine.

  1. ((a))

    Wheat

  2. ((b))

    Refined sugar

  3. ((c))

    Seafood

  4. ((d))

    Puffed rice

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Seafood

The correct answer is Seafood.

Key Points

  • Seafood is one of the richest natural sources of iodine, an essential mineral required for the proper functioning of the thyroid gland.
  • Iodine is found abundantly in fish such as cod, tuna, shrimp, and shellfish, as well as seaweed like kelp and nori.
  • Consuming iodine-rich seafood helps in the synthesis of thyroid hormones such as thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate metabolism, growth, and development.
  • Regular consumption of seafood can prevent iodine deficiency disorders such as goiter, hypothyroidism, and related developmental issues.
  • Seafood provides iodine in bioavailable forms, which makes it easier for the human body to absorb compared to other dietary sources.

Additional Information

  • Wheat:
  • Wheat is primarily a source of carbohydrates, dietary fiber, and some B vitamins such as folate and niacin.
  • It does not naturally contain significant amounts of iodine. However, fortified wheat products may occasionally have added iodine.
  • Wheat is not considered a reliable source of iodine for dietary needs.
  • Refined Sugar:
  • Refined sugar primarily provides empty calories and lacks essential nutrients, including iodine.
  • Excessive consumption of refined sugar can lead to health problems such as obesity, type 2 diabetes, and dental issues.
  • It is not associated with any iodine benefits or contributions to the daily iodine requirement.
  • Puffed Rice:
  • Puffed rice is a light and airy grain product made by heating rice grains under pressure.
  • It is primarily a source of carbohydrates and may contain trace amounts of minerals, but it is not a significant source of iodine.
  • Fortification can sometimes add nutrients like iron, but it is not typically enriched with iodine.
7

In 2025, which state launched the 'Yashoda Yojana' in Koraput to provide care and protection for parentless, single-parented or neglected children and link them to educational benefits?

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Odisha

  4. ((d))

    Chhattisgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • The 'Yashoda Yojana' was launched by the Government of Odisha in the Koraput district in 2025.
  • This scheme is aimed at providing care and protection to children who are parentless, single-parented, or neglected.
  • It ensures children are linked to educational benefits, providing access to proper schooling and development opportunities.
  • The initiative emphasizes the welfare of underprivileged and vulnerable children, focusing on their holistic development and security.
  • The program aligns with Odisha's commitment to improving child welfare and promoting social security measures within the state.

Additional Information

  • Andhra Pradesh
  • Andhra Pradesh is known for welfare schemes such as 'Amma Vodi,' which provides financial assistance to mothers for their children's education.
  • The state also implements 'YSR Kanti Velugu,' a comprehensive eye care program aimed at treating eye-related issues for its citizens.
  • However, no scheme similar to 'Yashoda Yojana' has been launched in Andhra Pradesh in 2025.
  • Jharkhand
  • Jharkhand focuses on tribal and rural welfare programs, such as the 'Birsa Harit Gram Yojana,' which promotes sustainable livelihoods and afforestation.
  • 'Phoolo Jhano Ashirwad Abhiyan' is another initiative aimed at empowering women engaged in manual labor.
  • Jharkhand has not introduced a child welfare program like the 'Yashoda Yojana' in 2025.
  • Chhattisgarh
  • Chhattisgarh has launched schemes like 'Godhan Nyay Yojana,' which encourages animal husbandry and organic farming.
  • It also runs 'Mukhyamantri Suposhan Abhiyan,' aimed at eradicating malnutrition among children and women.
  • While the state has initiated various welfare programs, it has not implemented a scheme similar to 'Yashoda Yojana' in 2025.
8

Who among the following was awarded the Verchol Dalit Literary Award for the year 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Toral Jatin Gajarawala

  2. ((b))

    Yogesh Maitreya

  3. ((c))

    Yashica Dutt

  4. ((d))

    P Sivakami

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

P Sivakami

The correct answer is P Sivakami.

Key Points

  • P Sivakami is an acclaimed Indian author, activist, and former IAS officer, renowned for her contributions to Dalit literature.
  • She is celebrated for her groundbreaking novels such as "The Grip of Change" and "Author’s Notes", which explore caste and gender oppression in Indian society.
  • Her literary works have been pivotal in addressing issues of caste discrimination, gender inequality, and the intersectionality of oppression.
  • Sivakami is widely regarded as a pioneer of Dalit feminism, using her writings to highlight the unique challenges faced by Dalit women.
  • The Verchol Dalit Literary Award is a prestigious recognition in Dalit literature, honoring authors for their remarkable contributions, and P Sivakami was awarded this honor in 2025.

Additional Information

  • Yogesh Maitreya:
  • He is a contemporary Dalit poet, writer, and publisher, known for his contributions to modern Dalit literature.
  • Maitreya’s works often explore the socio-political struggles of Dalits in contemporary India.
  • He is the founder of Panther’s Paw Publication, which focuses on publishing Dalit literature and amplifying marginalized voices.
  • Yashica Dutt:
  • She is the author of "Coming Out as Dalit", a memoir that details her personal journey of embracing her Dalit identity.
  • Dutt’s work sheds light on the lived experiences of Dalits and the pervasive caste-based discrimination in Indian society.
  • She has been an advocate for caste equity and social justice through her writings and speeches.
  • Toral Jatin Gajarawala:
  • She is an academic and scholar specializing in South Asian literature and caste studies.
  • Her work often examines the intersection of caste, literature, and social justice.
  • Gajarawala’s research and writings contribute significantly to the global understanding of Dalit literature and caste dynamics.
  • Dalit Literature:
  • Dalit literature emerged as a powerful literary movement, giving voice to the experiences and struggles of marginalized communities in India.
  • It highlights themes such as caste oppression, social inequality, and the pursuit of justice.
  • The movement has produced renowned authors like Baburao Bagul, Namdeo Dhasal, and Sharankumar Limbale.
9

The foundation stone of the country's first Pradhan Mantri Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) Park was laid in which district, in September 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Datia

  2. ((b))

    Betul

  3. ((c))

    Seoni

  4. ((d))

    Dhar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dhar

The correct answer is Dhar.

Key Points

  • In September 2025, the foundation stone of India’s first Pradhan Mantri Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) Park was laid in Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh.
  • The PM MITRA Park in Dhar is envisioned to provide world-class industrial infrastructure for the textile sector, encompassing spinning, weaving, dyeing, printing, and garment manufacturing.
  • This initiative is expected to generate significant employment opportunities in the region and contribute to the socio-economic development of the area.
  • The project aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ vision, aiming to reduce reliance on imports and boost domestic textile production and exports.
  • The PM MITRA scheme is supported under the Union Budget 2021-22 and aims to establish seven textile parks across India over five years, with an outlay of Rs. 4,445 crore.

Additional Information

  • About PM MITRA Scheme:
  • The PM MITRA scheme was announced with the aim of creating ‘5F Vision’: Farm to Fiber to Factory to Fashion to Foreign.
  • The scheme promotes integrated and sustainable textile parks with advanced infrastructure, plug-and-play facilities, and R&D centers.
  • These parks will enhance India’s competitiveness in the global textile market and attract large-scale private investments.
  • Significance of the Textile Sector in India:
  • The textile industry contributes 14% to India’s total industrial production and 11% to its export earnings.
  • It is the second-largest employer in India after agriculture, providing direct employment to over 45 million people.
  • India is one of the world’s largest producers of textiles and garments, excelling in areas such as cotton, jute, and silk.
10

In the context of the three major phases of disaster management, which of the following actions is mismatched with the phase named?

  1. ((a))

    During disaster: evacuation of people, setting up shelters and relief camps

  2. ((b))

    Pre-disaster: rehabilitation and recovery of victims

  3. ((c))

    Post-disaster: capacity-building for future resilience and strengthening coping mechanisms

  4. ((d))

    Pre-disaster: preparing vulnerability zoning maps and spreading public awareness

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Pre-disaster: rehabilitation and recovery of victims

The correct answer is Pre-disaster: rehabilitation and recovery of victims.

Key Points

  • Disaster management consists of three major phases: Pre-disaster, During disaster, and Post-disaster.
  • The phase of rehabilitation and recovery is part of the Post-disaster phase, not the Pre-disaster phase.
  • Rehabilitation and recovery activities include rebuilding damaged infrastructure, restoring livelihoods, and providing long-term mental health and social support to victims.
  • The Pre-disaster phase is centered on preparedness measures such as vulnerability assessment, public awareness campaigns, and capacity-building activities to mitigate potential disaster risks.
  • Therefore, the association of rehabilitation and recovery with the Pre-disaster phase is a mismatch, making Option 2 the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: During disaster - evacuation of people, setting up shelters and relief camps
  • The During disaster phase focuses on immediate response to a disaster to minimize its impact.
  • Activities include evacuation of affected individuals, provision of medical aid, setting up temporary shelters, and organizing relief camps.
  • Emergency services, rescue operations, and ensuring safety are the main priorities during this phase.
  • Option 3: Post-disaster - capacity-building for future resilience and strengthening coping mechanisms
  • The Post-disaster phase involves long-term recovery, rehabilitation, and reconstruction efforts.
  • Capacity-building activities include training communities to handle future disasters, improving infrastructure, and enhancing coping mechanisms for resilience.
  • This phase ensures that communities are better prepared to face similar disasters in the future.
  • Option 4: Pre-disaster - preparing vulnerability zoning maps and spreading public awareness
  • The Pre-disaster phase focuses on disaster risk reduction and preparedness.
  • Activities include creating vulnerability zoning maps to identify high-risk areas, conducting public awareness campaigns, and designing evacuation plans.
  • The objective is to reduce disaster risks and ensure communities are equipped to handle emergencies.
11

What key reform did the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, introduce?

  1. ((a))

    Transferred all Waqf properties to district magistrates

  2. ((b))

    Allowed non-Muslims to create waqf

  3. ((c))

    Abolished waqf tribunals

  4. ((d))

    Mandated women's representation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Allowed non-Muslims to create waqf

The correct answer is Allowed non-Muslims to create waqf.

Key Points

  • The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 introduced a significant reform by allowing non-Muslims to create waqf properties, provided the intention aligned with public welfare.
  • This amendment aimed to promote inclusivity and broaden the scope of individuals contributing to the creation of waqf assets for philanthropic purposes.
  • Waqf properties created under this provision must comply with the existing regulations of the Waqf Act, ensuring their use for charitable and religious purposes.
  • Previously, only Muslims were permitted to create waqf properties, but this amendment marked a progressive step towards religious harmony and collective welfare.
  • The inclusion of non-Muslims in waqf creation is expected to increase the overall corpus of waqf properties, allowing their enhanced utilization for societal benefits such as education, healthcare, and poverty alleviation.

Additional Information

  • Waqf:
  • Waqf refers to a permanent dedication of movable or immovable property for religious, educational, or charitable purposes as recognized under Islamic law.
  • Traditionally, it has been an instrument to support causes such as building mosques, schools, and hospitals or assisting the underprivileged.
  • Waqf Board:
  • A waqf board is a statutory body established under the Waqf Act to oversee and manage waqf properties in India.
  • It ensures that waqf properties are used appropriately and for the intended charitable or religious purposes.
  • Key Features of the Waqf Act:
  • The Waqf Act, 1995, governs the administration of waqf properties in India.
  • It provides for the establishment of Central and State Waqf Boards to manage waqf assets effectively.
  • It also includes provisions for resolving disputes related to waqf properties through waqf tribunals.
  • Impact of the Amendment:
  • The amendment is expected to foster greater collaboration among communities for social welfare initiatives.
  • It also ensures that waqf properties continue to play a pivotal role in addressing societal challenges, such as poverty and lack of access to basic amenities.
12

The Mudumal Megalithic Menhirs, which have been added to the tentative list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites from India in 2025, are located in ____

  1. ((a))

    Telangana

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

  • Located in Mudumal village, Narayanpet district of Telangana.
  • Represents a unique megalithic menhir tradition dating back over 3,500 years.
  • Added to India’s Tentative List of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2025.

Additional Information

  • Tamil Nadu
  • Known for megalithic burial sites like cairn circles and dolmens.
  • UNESCO-listed heritage includes Great Living Chola Temples.
  • Kerala
  • Kerala is known for its Edakkal Caves, which feature ancient rock art dating back thousands of years.
  • The state also has megalithic sites, such as dolmens and stone alignments, but the Mudumal Menhirs are not located here.
  • Kerala’s megaliths are typically associated with burial practices and provide insights into the region's prehistoric culture.
  • Karnataka
  • Karnataka is home to important megalithic sites, including the Hirebenkal Megalithic Tombs, which are protected as a UNESCO World Heritage tentative site.
  • Rich in megalithic sites, especially stone circles and burial monuments.
  • Home to UNESCO sites like Hampi and Pattadakal.
13

At the 64th National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships held in August 2025, which athlete broke the men's 400 m national record?

  1. ((a))

    Animesh Kujur

  2. ((b))

    Rajesh Ramesh

  3. ((c))

    Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi

  4. ((d))

    Muhammed Anas Yahiya

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi

The correct answer is Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi.

Key Points

  • At the 64th National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships held in August 2025, Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi broke the men’s 400 m national record.
  • Vishal achieved a remarkable timing of 44.60 seconds, surpassing the previous record of 44.96 seconds set by Muhammed Anas Yahiya in 2019.
  • The championship was held in Kolkata, West Bengal, showcasing top athletes from across India.
  • This achievement highlights India’s growing prowess in athletics and Vishal’s potential as a strong contender for international events like the Asian Games and Olympics.
  • Vishal’s record-breaking performance is a testament to his talent and dedication, positioning him as a rising star in Indian athletics.

Additional Information

  • Animesh Kujur
  • Animesh Kujur is an emerging sprinter in Indian athletics but has not set any national records in the 400 m event.
  • He is known for competing at various domestic-level athletics competitions and represents the younger generation of sprinters in India.
  • Rajesh Ramesh
  • Rajesh Ramesh is a prominent name in Indian athletics, particularly in relay races such as the 4x400 m relay.
  • While he has contributed to India’s medal tally in international competitions, he has not broken the men’s 400 m national record.
  • Muhammed Anas Yahiya
  • Muhammed Anas Yahiya previously held the national record for the men’s 400 m event with a timing of 44.96 seconds, set in 2019.
  • He is one of India’s most accomplished sprinters and has represented India in prestigious competitions like the Olympics and World Championships.
  • His contribution to Indian athletics includes multiple medals in relay events and individual sprints.
  • Men’s 400 m Sprint
  • The 400 m sprint is a single-lap race around the track, demanding a mix of speed, endurance, and strategy.
  • The event is one of the most challenging in athletics due to its requirement for both anaerobic and aerobic capacity.
  • The current world record in men’s 400 m is held by Wayde van Niekerk of South Africa, with a timing of 43.03 seconds, set in the 2016 Olympics.
14

What did the Supreme Court order a father to pay in respect of a divorced wife for their daughter's marriage expenses in a September 2025 judgment?

  1. ((a))

    ₹5 lakh

  2. ((b))

    ₹10 lakh

  3. ((c))

    ₹12.5 lakh

  4. ((d))

    ₹7.5 lakh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹10 lakh

The correct answer is ₹10 lakh.

Key Points

  • In September 2025, the Supreme Court of India directed a father to pay ₹10 lakh towards the marriage expenses of his daughter.
  • The judgment was delivered as part of a divorce case, emphasizing the father's financial responsibility for his daughter's welfare post-divorce.
  • The court stressed the importance of protecting the rights and interests of children involved in matrimonial disputes, ensuring they do not face undue hardship due to parental separation.
  • This judgment reinforces the judiciary’s commitment to securing financial and emotional stability for children affected by divorce.
  • Under Indian law, fathers are traditionally seen as bearing responsibility for their daughter’s marriage expenses, which the court upheld in this case.

Additional Information

  • Legal Framework and Matrimonial Cases in India:
  • The Indian judiciary frequently intervenes in divorce cases to ensure children’s rights are protected and their welfare is prioritized.
  • Under Hindu law, fathers traditionally bear the financial responsibility for their daughters' marriage. This principle is often upheld in matrimonial disputes.
  • Courts in India aim to minimize the impact of divorce on children by ensuring financial stability and emotional well-being.
15

What was India's overall unemployment rate for people aged 15 and above in August 2025, according to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)?

  1. ((a))

    5.6%

  2. ((b))

    5.1%

  3. ((c))

    6.2%

  4. ((d))

    4.8%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5.1%

The correct answer is 5.1%.

Key Points

  • The overall unemployment rate for people aged 15 and above in India in August 2025 was reported as 5.1%, according to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS).
  • The unemployment rate is an important economic indicator representing the percentage of individuals in the labor force actively seeking employment but unable to find work.
  • This figure indicates a slight improvement compared to previous years, signaling better employment conditions in certain sectors of the economy.
  • The PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and is considered the most comprehensive source of employment data in India.
  • The survey provides insights into employment trends across rural and urban sectors, aiding policymakers in designing targeted employment strategies.

Additional Information

  • Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
  • Launched in 2017, the PLFS is aimed at generating estimates on key labor market indicators such as unemployment rate, worker population ratio, and labor force participation rate.
  • The survey covers both urban and rural areas and provides quarterly updates for urban regions along with annual reports for the entire country.
  • It serves as a critical tool for assessing employment and unemployment trends in India.
  • Unemployment Rate:
  • Defined as the percentage of people in the labor force who are actively looking for jobs but unable to find employment.
  • A high unemployment rate indicates economic distress, while a lower rate signals better job opportunities and economic growth.
  • The unemployment rate is an essential parameter used by policymakers to gauge the economic health of a country.
  • Employment Trends in India:
  • India's unemployment rate fluctuates due to global economic conditions, domestic policy changes, and disruptions like pandemics.
  • Key employment-contributing sectors include agriculture, manufacturing, services, and information technology.
  • Government initiatives such as Skill India, Start-Up India, and Make in India aim to boost employment opportunities and entrepreneurship in the country.
  • Youth Unemployment:
  • Youth unemployment, particularly among individuals aged 15–29, remains a significant challenge in India.
  • The youth unemployment rate is generally higher than the overall unemployment rate, highlighting the need for targeted interventions.
  • Government schemes like Skill India and other vocational training programs aim to address this issue by promoting skill development and employability.
16

In 2025, India tested its most advanced missile, the ET-LDHCM (developed under DRDO's secretive Project Vishnu), which can

  1. ((a))

    fly at Mach 8 and hit targets 1500 km away

  2. ((b))

    fly at Mach twelve speed with five-thousand-kilometre reach

  3. ((c))

    fly at Subsonic cruise with one-thousand-kilometre range capability

  4. ((d))

    fly at Mach 2 speed with a three-hundred-kilometre range capability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fly at Mach 8 and hit targets 1500 km away

The correct answer is fly at Mach 8 and hit targets 1500 km away.

Key Points

  • The ET-LDHCM missile, developed under DRDO's secretive Project Vishnu, can fly at a hypersonic speed of Mach 8, which is eight times the speed of sound.
  • This advanced missile system boasts a range of 1,500 kilometers, making it suitable for long-range precision strikes.
  • The missile incorporates cutting-edge navigation and guidance systems, ensuring precision targeting of high-value assets and enhancing its strategic deterrence.
  • ET-LDHCM represents India's advancement in hypersonic missile technology, aligning with global defense trends to improve military capabilities.
  • Hypersonic missiles provide a tactical edge in modern warfare due to their speed, maneuverability, and ability to evade traditional missile defense systems.

Additional Information

  • Hypersonic Missile Technology:
  • Hypersonic missile technology is a key focus for defense advancements due to its ability to travel at speeds greater than Mach 5.
  • These missiles are highly maneuverable, capable of evading detection and interception by traditional missile defense systems.
  • India’s development of hypersonic systems under programs like Project Vishnu highlights its commitment to staying competitive in global military capabilities.
  • Types of Hypersonic Missiles
  • Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGVs):
  • Boosted by a rocket to high altitude and then released.
  • Glides back to Earth at hypersonic speeds, capable of changing direction mid-flight.
  • Evades defenses due to unpredictable trajectories.
  • Hypersonic Cruise Missiles (HCMs):
  • Use air-breathing scramjet engines for sustained flight.
  • Fly at lower altitudes than HGVs, using the atmosphere to compress air for combustion.
17

Who among the following secured a gold medal for India in the Paris Paralympic Games, 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Nishad Kumar

  2. ((b))

    Mona Agarwal

  3. ((c))

    Preethi Pal

  4. ((d))

    Navdeep Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Navdeep Singh

The correct answer is Navdeep Singh.

Key Points

  • Navdeep Singh won the gold medal for India at the Paris Paralympic Games 2024 in his respective category.
  • He is recognized as an accomplished para-athlete, known for his exceptional performance in various international competitions.
  • His victory at the Paris Paralympics 2024 was a significant achievement, showcasing India’s growing prominence in the global para-sports arena.
  • Navdeep Singh’s success was a result of his hard work, rigorous training, and unwavering dedication.
  • His win contributed to India’s medal tally and inspired the Indian sports community, promoting inclusivity and the potential of para-athletes.

Additional Information

  • Nishad Kumar:
  • Nishad Kumar is a prominent Indian para high jumper who won a silver medal in the men’s T47 high jump at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games.
  • He also holds the Asian record in his category, showcasing India’s strength in para-athletics.
  • Mona Agarwal:
  • Mona Agarwal is not currently known for any notable achievements in the field of para-sports or the Paralympic Games.
  • Preethi Pal:
  • Preethi Pal is not associated with any major accomplishments in the Paralympic Games or international para-sports events.
  • Paris Paralympic Games 2024:
  • The Paris Paralympic Games 2024 will take place from August 28 to September 8, featuring athletes with disabilities competing in various sports disciplines.
  • India has been consistently improving its performance at the Paralympics, with increasing support for para-athletes through government schemes, financial assistance, and training initiatives.
  • The event serves as a platform to showcase the exceptional capabilities of para-athletes and promote inclusivity in sports worldwide.
18

The National Makhana Board, announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in September 2025 at which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Dhanbad

  2. ((b))

    Bharuch

  3. ((c))

    Purnea

  4. ((d))

    Kanpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Purnea

The correct answer is Purnea.

Key Points

  • The National Makhana Board was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Purnea, Bihar, in September 2025.
  • The announcement for the establishment of this Board was first made in the Union Budget 2025-26 to promote makhana cultivation and trade.
  • Purnea is widely recognized as the hub of makhana production in India, contributing significantly to the nation’s overall output.
  • The Board aims to address challenges faced by makhana farmers and enhance the productivity, quality, and market access for makhana.
  • India is one of the largest producers of makhana globally, with Bihar accounting for nearly 90% of the total production.

Additional Information

  • Dhanbad
  • Dhanbad, located in Jharkhand, is known as the “Coal Capital of India” due to its rich coal deposits and significant contributions to the coal industry.
  • It is home to the prestigious Indian School of Mines (ISM), which is now part of the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT).
  • While Dhanbad is crucial for its mining industry, it does not have a significant role in makhana production.
  • Bharuch
  • Bharuch is a city in Gujarat, famous for its chemical and petrochemical industries.
  • It is also known for its historical importance and rich cultural heritage but does not play a role in makhana cultivation.
  • Kanpur
  • Kanpur is a major industrial city in Uttar Pradesh, known for its leather and textile industries.
  • It has no direct connection to makhana production or agriculture but is historically significant as an important center during India’s independence movement.
  • About Makhana
  • Makhana, also known as fox nuts, are seeds derived from the Euryale Fox plant, which thrives in water bodies like ponds.
  • It is a nutritious food item rich in protein, fiber, and antioxidants and is widely used in snacks, sweets, and traditional cuisines.
  • The establishment of the National Makhana Board is expected to boost the production, research, and export of this significant agro-product.
19

Kamalini Dutt, who passed away in April 2025, was noted for her contributions to which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Shadow puppetry

  2. ((b))

    Baul music

  3. ((c))

    Traditional sculpture

  4. ((d))

    Bharatnatyam

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bharatnatyam

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam.

Key Points

  • Kamalini Dutt was an eminent figure in the realm of Indian classical dance and was celebrated for her significant contributions to Bharatnatyam.
  • Bharatnatyam is a traditional dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu and is considered one of the oldest and most revered classical dance forms in India.
  • Kamalini Dutt dedicated her life to the promotion, teaching, and preservation of Bharatnatyam, ensuring its recognition both nationally and internationally.
  • She was instrumental in showcasing Bharatnatyam on global platforms, enhancing its reputation as a symbol of India's rich cultural heritage.
  • Through her efforts, she inspired the younger generation to take up Bharatnatyam as both an art form and a medium for spiritual expression.

Additional Information

  • Shadow Puppetry
  • Shadow puppetry is a traditional form of storytelling using flat, articulated figures that cast shadows on a screen or surface.
  • In India, this art form is known as "Tholu Bommalata" in Andhra Pradesh and "Togalu Gombeyaata" in Karnataka.
  • The puppets are often made from leather and are illuminated by a light source to project their shadows.
  • It is a popular folk art form that combines music, narration, and intricate designs to convey stories from epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • Baul Music
  • Baul music is a unique folk tradition from Bengal that combines spiritual and philosophical themes with simple, soulful melodies.
  • It is performed by the Bauls, a mystic community of wandering minstrels known for their distinctive lifestyle and attire.
  • The songs often emphasize themes of universal love, self-realization, and oneness with the divine.
  • Baul music was recognized by UNESCO as a part of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2008.
  • Traditional Sculpture
  • Traditional Indian sculpture is a significant part of India's cultural heritage and is often associated with religious and spiritual themes.
  • Examples include temple carvings, stone idols, bronze statues, and terracotta figurines found across India.
  • The sculptures typically depict deities, mythical creatures, and scenes from epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • Famous examples include the sculptures at Khajuraho, Ellora, and Mahabalipuram.
20

 Which of the following is NOT in India’s 'Very High Damage Risk Zone' for earthquakes?

  1. ((a))

    Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh) 

  2. ((b))

    Kashmir Valley (Jammu & Kashmir) 

  3. ((c))

    Kachchh (Gujarat)

  4. ((d))

    Latur (Maharashtra)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Latur (Maharashtra)

The correct answer is Latur (Maharashtra).

Key Points

  • Latur (Maharashtra) is categorized under Seismic Zone III, which is considered a moderate-risk zone for earthquakes.
  • India is divided into four seismic zones: II, III, IV, and V, with Zone V being the most prone to earthquakes and Zone II being the least.
  • Regions in Seismic Zone V include areas like Kashmir Valley (Jammu & Kashmir), Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh), and Kachchh (Gujarat), which are classified as 'Very High Damage Risk Zones.'
  • The 1993 Latur earthquake was a significant seismic event with a magnitude of 6.2, but the region's geological stability limits its classification to moderate risk.
  • Seismic Zone III reflects reduced tectonic activity compared to Zone V, which comprises areas near active tectonic plate boundaries or fault lines.

Additional Information

  • Kashmir Valley (Jammu & Kashmir):
  • This region lies in Seismic Zone V, classified as a 'Very High Damage Risk Zone' due to its proximity to active tectonic plate boundaries in the Himalayan region.
  • The area is prone to frequent earthquakes caused by the collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates.
  • Major earthquakes in this region include the 2005 Kashmir earthquake, which caused widespread destruction.
  • Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh):
  • Himachal Pradesh, including Dharamshala, is also part of Seismic Zone V, making it highly susceptible to earthquakes.
  • The Himalayan region experiences high seismic activity due to ongoing tectonic movements and fault lines.
  • Strict building codes are enforced in this area to mitigate earthquake damage.
  • Kachchh (Gujarat):
  • Kachchh is another region within Seismic Zone V due to its location near geological fault lines, including the Kachchh Rift Basin.
  • It has witnessed devastating earthquakes, such as the 2001 Gujarat earthquake, which caused significant loss of life and property.
  • The region's vulnerability to earthquakes necessitates stringent disaster preparedness measures.
  • Seismic Zones in India:
  • India's seismic zones range from Zone II (least prone) to Zone V (most prone) based on earthquake risk.
  • Factors influencing seismic activity include tectonic plate movements, fault lines, and geological features.
  • Regions in Zone V face the highest risk due to their proximity to active tectonic zones, while Zone III reflects moderate risk.

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