Official Paper

IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper (Held On: 24 March, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

General Awareness (20 questions)

1

Which Indian badminton player won the gold medal in men's singles badminton at the Commonwealth Games 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Chirag Shetty

  2. ((b))

    Lakshay Sen

  3. ((c))

    Satwiksairaj Rankireddy

  4. ((d))

    Srikanth Kidambi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lakshay Sen

The correct answer is Lakshay Sen.

Key Points

  • Lakshya Sen won the gold medal in men's singles badminton at the Commonwealth Games 2022.
  • He defeated his opponent, Felix Burestedt from Sweden, in the final match with a score of 21-19, 21-15.
  • Lakshya Sen is a young Indian badminton player who has been making waves in the international circuit. He has won several junior tournaments and has also been a runner-up in the 2021 Swiss Open..

Additional Information

  • Srikanth Kidambi is a well-known Indian badminton player who has won several major tournaments in the past, including the Commonwealth Games gold medal in 2018. However, he did not participate in the 2022 Commonwealth Games due to personal reasons.
  • Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy are Indian badminton players who specialize in men's doubles. They won the bronze medal in men's doubles at the Commonwealth Games 2022

 Important Points Commonwealth Games 2022:

  • On July 28, 2022, the Commonwealth Games got underway in Birmingham, United Kingdom.
  • The games were held in venues across London, Birmingham and the West Midlands from 28 July to 8 August 2022.
  • Athletes from 72 nations and territories competed in 19 different sports at the Games.
  • India won 22 gold, 16 silver and 23 bronze medals to record its fifth-best medal haul in CWG history.

 

 Medal tally of Commonwealth games 2022:

RankTeamGoldSilverBronzeTotal
1Australia675755179
2England586533176
3Canada26323492
4India22162361
5New Zealand20121850
2

The normal boiling point of water is ______.

  1. ((a))

    373 K

  2. ((b))

    371 K 

  3. ((c))

    377 K

  4. ((d))

    375 K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

373 K

The correct answer is 373K.

Key Points

  • The normal boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.
  • For water, this temperature is 100 degrees Celsius or 373 Kelvin (K).
  • The boiling point of water can vary with changes in atmospheric pressure, but the normal boiling point is a constant value.

Additional Information Boiling points of some compounds at atmospheric pressure 1 atm :

MaterailsBoiling point in degree Celcius
Ethanol78.37
Methanol64.7
Acetone56
Alcohol78.37
Nitrogen-195.8
Hydrgen-252.9
liquid Helium-269
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3

Which is not a percussion instrument from following? 

  1. ((a))

    Cymbal 

  2. ((b))

    Timpani 

  3. ((c))

    Harp 

  4. ((d))

    Maracas

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Harp 

The correct answer is Harp.

Key Points

  • "Harp" is a string instrument and not a percussion instrument.
  • Percussion instruments are those that produce sound when they are struck, shaken, or scraped. They are commonly used in various genres of music, including classical, rock, jazz, and pop.
  • Cymbals are a type of percussion instrument that consist of two round metal plates that are struck together to produce a ringing sound.
  • Timpani, also known as kettledrums, are large bowl-shaped drums that are tuned to specific pitches. They are commonly used in orchestral music.
  • Maracas are a type of percussion instrument that consist of two hollow balls filled with beads or seeds. They are shaken to produce a rattling sound.

 

Additional Information

  • Harp is a string instrument that has a series of strings stretched between a frame and a sounding board. It is played by plucking the strings with fingers or a pick.
  • Other examples of percussion instruments include drums, tambourines, xylophones, and gongs.
  • Percussion instruments can be further classified into tuned percussion instruments and untuned percussion instruments. Tuned percussion instruments produce a specific pitch, while untuned percussion instruments do not.
  • They are essential in many forms of music, providing rhythm, texture, and energy to a piece of music.

 Important Points

  • Percussion instruments are those that produce sound when they are struck, shaken, or scraped.
  • Examples: Timpani, xylophone, cymbals, triangle, snare drum, bass drum, tambourine, maracas, gongs, chimes.
  • String instruments are musical instruments that produce sound by vibrating strings
  • .Examples: Guitar, electric bass, violin, viola, cello, double bass, banjo, mandolin, ukulele, harp.
4

Kuchipudi is one of the major dance forms of India that originated in the state of _______. 

  1. ((a))

    Kerala 

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Assam 

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Kuchipudi is a classical dance form that originated in the village of Kuchipudi in Andhra Pradesh, India.
  • It is one of the eight major classical dance forms of India.
  • It is known for its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and expressive facial expressions.
  • It is often performed as a solo dance, but can also be performed in groups.
  • It has a rich history and is believed to have originated in the 17th century.
  • It was initially performed by male dancers, but later women also started performing the dance form.
  • It is often accompanied by classical Carnatic music and the dancers wear colorful costumes and jewelry. The dance form is known for its elaborate makeup and costumes.

Additional Information 

Dance formsStates related
1. BharatnatyamTamil Nadu
2. KathakUttar Pradesh
3. Mohiniyattam and 4. KathakaliKerala
5. KuchipudiAndhra Pradesh
6. OdissiOdisha
Chhau(not classical)Jharkhand, Odisha, and
West Bengal
Garba(not classical)Gujarat
7. SattriyaAssam
8. Manipuri dance or JagoiManipur
5

Thomas Edison was ________ inventor who received the historic patent for the light bulb. 

  1. ((a))

    a British

  2. ((b))

    a German

  3. ((c))

    a Dutch

  4. ((d))

    an American

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

an American

The correct answer is an American.

Key Points

  • Thomas Alva Edison was an American inventor who was born in Ohio in 1847.
  • He is credited with inventing many devices that greatly influenced life around the world, including the phonograph, the motion picture camera, and a long-lasting, practical electric light bulb.
  • He is considered as one of the most prolific inventors in history, holding 1,093 US patents in his name, as well as many patents in the United Kingdom, France, and Germany.
  • His most famous invention is the electric light bulb, for which he received the historic patent in 1879.

Important Points 

  • Edition never won a Nobel prize despite these contributions to science andd technology.
6

Which of the following is the Ladakhi dance that got its place in the Guinness Book of World Records? 

  1. ((a))

    Kathok Chenmo

  2. ((b))

    Shon dance

  3. ((c))

    Shondol dance

  4. ((d))

    Spao dance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shondol dance

The correct answer is Shondol dance.

Key Points

  • Shondol dance, which got its place in the Guinness Book of World Records for being the largest Ladakhi dance performance, with 4087 participants dancing together in 2016.

Important Points Shondol dance

  • Shondol dance is a traditional dance form of the Brokpa tribe, which is one of the indigenous communities living in the Zanskar region of Ladakh.
  • This dance is performed by both men and women, and it is characterized by its slow and graceful movements.
  • It is usually performed during the Losar festival, which is the Tibetan New Year, and it is believed to bring good luck and happiness to the community.

 

Additional Information

 Kathok Chenmo

  • Kathok Chenmo is a popular Ladakhi dance that is performed during the Ladakh Festival, which is held every year in September.
  • This dance is performed by both men and women, and it is characterized by its slow and graceful movements.
  • It is a tribute to the region's rich cultural heritage and is a symbol of the people's pride in their traditions and customs.
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Shon dance

  • Shon dance is a traditional dance form of the Monpa tribe, which is one of the ethnic groups living in the Himalayan region.
  • This dance is performed by both men and women, and it is usually accompanied by the sound of cymbals and drums.
  • It is performed during various festivals and ceremonies, and it is believed to bring good luck and prosperity to the community.
<br>

Spao dance:

  • Spao dance is a traditional dance form of the Changpa tribe, which is one of the nomadic communities living in the high altitude regions of Ladakh.
  • This dance is performed by both men and women, and it is usually accompanied by the sound of drums and trumpets.
  • It is performed during various occasions such as weddings, births, and other celebrations, and it is believed to bring good luck and prosperity to the community.

 

 Ladakhi dance:

  • Ladakh is a region in the northernmost part of India, bordering with Tibet.
  • Ladakhi dance is a traditional form of dance that is performed by the people of Ladakh on various occasions such as festivals, weddings, and other celebrations.
  • This dance is known for its colorful costumes, intricate footwork, and rhythmic music.
  • There are many types of Ladakhi dances, each with its own unique style and significance.
7

UN General Secretary visited which place in October 2022 to attend the launch of a Special Environmental Programme along with Prime Minister Narender Modi? 

  1. ((a))

    Surat 

  2. ((b))

    Gandhi Nagar

  3. ((c))

    Kevadiya 

  4. ((d))

    Ahmedabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kevadiya 

The correct answer is Kevadiya.

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Key Points 

  • The UN General Secretary Antonio Guterres visited Kevadiya in October 2022 to attend the launch of a Special Environmental Programme along with Prime Minister Narender Modi.
  • Kevadiya is a small town in the Narmada district of Gujarat, India, known for the world's tallest statue, the Statue of Unity.
  • The Special Environmental Programme aims to promote sustainable development, biodiversity conservation, and climate change mitigation in the region.
  • The UN General Secretary's visit to Kevadiya highlights the importance of international cooperation in addressing global environmental challenges.

 

Additional Information

  • The Secretary General of United Nations serves as the Chief Administrative officer of United Nations.
  • He/She is elected by the General Assembly's 193 member states.
  • Common responsibilities include making appointments to UN posts, overseeing peacekeeping missions, and mediating conflict.
  • The incumbet Secretary general is Antonio Guterres ( Portuguese) since 1st January 2017.
8

Which of the following is NOT used as an indicator to detect acid or base? 

  1. ((a))

    Table salt

  2. ((b))

    Red cabbage

  3. ((c))

    Turmeric 

  4. ((d))

    Litmus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Table salt

The correct answer is Table Salt.

Key Points

  • Table salt is a compound made up of sodium and chlorine ions.
  • It is commonly used in food preparation and as a preservative.
  • It is not used as an indicator to detect acid or base.
  • It is a neutral compound and does not show any color change when it comes in contact with an acid or a base.

Important Points

  • An indicator is a substance that changes its color when it comes in contact with an acid or a base.
  • It helps in detecting whether a solution is acidic or basic.
  • Two common types of indicators are :
  • pH Indicators: examples are Litmus paperphenolphthalein.
  • Redox Indicators: examples are Potassium permanganate.

Additional Information

  • Red cabbage is a natural indicator that changes its color from red to blue or green when it comes in contact with an acid or a base.
  • It is commonly used in science experiments to detect the presence of acid or base in a solution.
  • It contains a pigment called anthocyanin that changes its color based on the pH of the solution it is in contact with.
  • Turmeric is also a natural indicator that changes its color from yellow to red when it comes in contact with an acid or a base. .
  • It is commonly used in food industry to detect the presence of acid or base in food products
  • It is a spice commonly used in Indian and Middle Eastern cuisine.
  • It is also known for its medicinal properties.
  • Litmus is a synthetic indicator that changes its color from blue to red in the presence of an acid and from red to blue in the presence of a base
  • It is one of the most commonly used indicators in chemistry experiments.
  • It is a mixture of dyes extracted from lichens.
  • It is available in the form of strips or solution and is widely used in laboratories for detecting the pH of a solution.
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9

In which state of India was the 6th National Women’s Marathon - 2022 organised with the object to promoting women empowerment and save the girl child? 

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan 

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points 

  • The 6th National Women's Marathon was organized in Madhya Pradesh to promote women empowerment and save the girl child.
  • It was held on 30th January 2022 and was organized by the Madhya Pradesh Athletics Association.
  • It saw the participation of around 2,000 women runners from all over the country, including Olympians and international athletes.
  • The event aimed to create awareness about the importance of empowering women and promoting gender equality in the society.
10

What is the name of the large-plucked string instrument used in Carnatic classical music and made from the Jackwood Tree? 

  1. ((a))

    Ghatam 

  2. ((b))

    Saraswati Veena

  3. ((c))

    Violin 

  4. ((d))

    Banjo

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Saraswati Veena

The correct answer is Saraswati Veena.

<br>

Key Points 

  • Saraswati Veena is a classical Indian musical instrument that belongs to the family of plucked string instruments.
  • It is one of the most popular instruments used in Carnatic classical music.
  • The instrument is made from the Jackwood Tree, which is known for its durability and strength. The wood is carved into a hollow body with a long neck and seven strings.
  • It has a unique sound that is rich, resonant, and soothing.
  • It is played by plucking the strings with the fingers of the right hand while the left hand presses the strings against the frets to produce different notes and melodies.

Additional Information

  • Ghatam is another classical Indian musical instrument that belongs to the family of percussion instruments
  • It is a clay pot that is played by striking it with the fingers of both hands.
  • It is commonly used in Carnatic classical music.
  • Violin is a Western musical instrument that belongs to the family of string instruments.
  • It is played by drawing a bow across the strings to produce different notes and melodies.
  • It is not commonly used in Carnatic classical music.
  • Banjo is a musical instrument that belongs to the family of plucked string instruments.
  • It is commonly used in Western folk music.
  • It is not used in Carnatic classical music.

 Important Points

 Carnatic Music

  • It is a form of Indian classical music with origins in Southern India.
  • It owes its name to the Sanskrit term Karnâtaka Sangîtam which means 'traditional or codified' music.
  • Lyrics in Carnatic music are largely devotional; most of the songs are addressed to the Hindu deities.
  • Many songs emphasize love and other social issues or rest on the concept of sublimation of human emotions for union with the divine.
  • Some important singers of this style are :  Aruna Sairam, K.J. Yesudas, Musiri Subramania Iyer, M.S. Subbulakshmi, Semmangudi Srinivasa Iyer, Lalgudi Jayaraman.
11

The chemical name of which compound is sodium hydrogen carbonate?

  1. ((a))

    Plaster of Paris 

  2. ((b))

    Baking Soda

  3. ((c))

    Gypsum 

  4. ((d))

    Washing Soda

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Baking Soda

The correct answer is Baking Soda.

 

Key Points

  • Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a chemical compound with the molecular formula NaHCO3, which is commonly known as Baking Soda.
  • It is also known as sodium bicarbonate or bicarbonate of soda.
  • It is widely used in cooking as a leavening agent to make cakes, bread, and other baked goods rise.
  • It is also used as an antacid to neutralize stomach acid and relieve heartburn and indigestion.
  • It has various other uses, such as cleaning, deodorizing, and as a natural toothpaste.

​ 

Additional Information

  • Plaster of Paris, also known as calcium sulfate hemihydrate (CaSO4·1/2H2O), is a white powder that is used for making casts and molds in the construction and medical industries.
  • Gypsum, also known as calcium sulfate dihydrate (CaSO4·2H2O), is a soft sulfate mineral that is used in making plaster and fertilizers.
  • Washing Soda, also known as sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na2CO3.10H2O), is a white powder that is used as a cleaning agent and in the manufacturing of glass, paper, and soaps.
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12

Who among the following is revered as the Father of Ecology in India?

  1. ((a))

    Meghnad Saha

  2. ((b))

    Ramdeo Misra

  3. ((c))

    Har Gobind Khorana

  4. ((d))

    Subrahmanyan Chandrashekhar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ramdeo Misra

The correct answer is Ramdeo Misra. 

Key Points

  • Ramdeo Misra is considered as the Father of Ecology in India for his pioneering research work in the field of ecology and environmental conservation.
  • He was the person who laid the strong foundation of Ecology in India & not only he just laid it but also, he contributed a lot to strengthen the development of Ecology further & thus aided it to flourish progressively over the upcoming decades.
  • The first MAB Research Programme in India was launched by Ramdeo Misra ji at Varanasi in 1975.
  • He published a book titled “Indian Manual of Plant Ecology” Co-authored by GS Puri which became the first text available in the country in 1950 related to the subject.

Additional Information

  • Meghnad Saha was a renowned astrophysicist and mathematician who made significant contributions to the field of astrophysics, particularly in the area of thermal ionization.
  • Har Gobind Khorana was a biochemist who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1968 for his work on the interpretation of the genetic code and its function in protein synthesis.
  • Subrahmanyan Chandrashekhar was a physicist who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1983 for his work on the structure and evolution of stars.
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13

In October 2022, which village in India was declared by Prime Minister Narender Modi as the first 24×7 solar powered village?

  1. ((a))

    Amreli 

  2. ((b))

    Modhera 

  3. ((c))

    Savar Kundla

  4. ((d))

    Babra

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Modhera 

The correct answer is Modhera.

Key Points 

  • Modhera is a small village located in the Mehsana district of Gujarat, India.
  • In October 2022, Prime Minister Narender Modi declared Modhera as the first 24x7 solar powered village in India.
  • The village has been completely powered by solar energy, which means that all its electricity needs are met through solar panels.
  • This initiative is a part of the government's efforts to promote clean and renewable energy in the country and to reduce its dependence on fossil fuels.
  • The solar-powered village has not only helped in reducing the carbon footprint but has also provided a sustainable and cost-effective solution to the electricity needs of the village.
14

Identify the example of liverworts from the following.

  1. ((a))

    Mosses

  2. ((b))

    Algae

  3. ((c))

    Marchantia

  4. ((d))

    Horsetails

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Marchantia

The correct answer is Marchantia.

Key Points

  • Marchantia is a type of liverwort with a distinctive umbrella-like structure called a gametophore.

Important Points

  • Liverworts are a group of non-vascular plants that belong to the division Marchantiophyta.
  • They are characterized by their flattened, leaf-like structures called thalli, which lack true roots, stems, and leaves.

Additional Information

  • Mosses belong to the division Bryophyta and are also non-vascular plants.
  • They have leaf-like structures called phyllids and grow in dense mats or cushions.
  • Algae are a diverse group of aquatic organisms that can be unicellular or multicellular.
  • They belong to the plant division Thallophytes.
  • They lack specialized tissues and organs.
  • Horsetails belong to the division Equisetophyta and are vascular plants.
  • They have jointed stems and small, scale-like leaves arranged in whorls.
15

Hockey India announced the 18-member Indian junior men’s team for the Sultan Johar Cup 2022. Where will this game be played?

  1. ((a))

    Malaysia

  2. ((b))

    Great Britain

  3. ((c))

    Australia

  4. ((d))

    Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Malaysia

The correct answer is Malaysia.

Key Points 

  • Hockey India announced the 18-member Indian junior men’s team for the Sultan Johar Cup 2022 going to be held in Malaysia.
  • This is the 10th edition of the tounament.

Additional Information

  • The Sultan of Johor Cup is an annual international under-21 men's field hockey tournament held in Malaysia.
  • The first edition held in 2011.
  • 5 teams have emerged victorious till now.
  • India and Great Britain are the most successful teams having won the tournament three times.
  • Australia have won the tournament twice, followed by Germany and Malaysia who have all won the tournament once.

Important Points  

  • India won the 2022 edition of the tournament bybeating Australia in the shoot out 5-4 after drawing the scores 1-1.
  • The 2023 edition of the tournament was won by Gernmany beating Australia in shoot out. India stood third in this tounament.
16

On 13 October 2022, the Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of Bulk Drug Park and dedicated the Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) to the nation at _______.

  1. ((a))

    Jalandhar

  2. ((b))

    Karnal

  3. ((c))

    Una

  4. ((d))

    Jambusar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Una

The correct answer is Una.

Key Points 

  • Una is a town in the Una district of Himachal Pradesh.
  • The Bulk Drug Park is a project initiated by the Indian government to make India self-reliant in the production of bulk drugs.
  • The Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) is a premier institute of higher education in India that offers courses in the field of Information Technology.
17

Which of the following naturally occurring acids is INCORRECTLY matched? 

  1. ((a))

    Orange – Citric acid

  2. ((b))

    Tomato – Oxalic acid

  3. ((c))

    Vinegar – Acetic acid 

  4. ((d))

    Tamarind – Methanoic acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tamarind – Methanoic acid

The correct answer is Tamarind-Methanoic acid.

Key Points

  • Tamarind contains tartaric acid and not methanoic acid.
  • Citric acid is also found in lemons, limes, and grapefruits.
  • Oxalic acid is also found in spinach, rhubarb, and cocoa.
  • Methanoic acid is also known as formic acid and is found in ants, bees, and stinging nettles.

Additional Information

AcidsFood items
Citric acidLemons, Oranges
Oxalic acidWood sorrel, Spinach, Cocoa
Lactic acidSour milk
Butyric acidRancid butter
Tartaric acidTamarind, Grapes
Acetic acidVinegar
Maleic acidApples
Carbonic acidSoda water aerated drinks
Stearic acidFats
18

Who became the first Indian player to win the gold medal in Yogasana in the 36th National Games? 

  1. ((a))

    Pooja Patel

  2. ((b))

    Shivangi Sharma

  3. ((c))

    Mridul Bora

  4. ((d))

    Astha Choudhury

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pooja Patel

The correct answer is Pooja Patel.

Key Points

  • Pooja Patel is a yoga instructor from Gujarat who won the gold medal in the women's individual all-round event at the 36th National Games held in Ahmedabad, Gujarat in 2022.
  • Shivangi Sharma is a national-level yoga champion from Haryana who has won several medals in national and international competitions.
  • Mridul Bora is a yoga instructor from Assam who has won multiple gold medals in national-level Yogasana championships.
  • Astha Choudhury is a yoga practitioner from Odisha who has represented India in international Yogasana competitions.

Additional Information

  • The 36th National Games is organised in six cities of Gujarat.
  • The event held from September 29 to October 12.
  • The mascot of the event is named 'Savaj' which means cub in Gujarati.
  • Motto of the event is  Celebrating Unity Through Sports.

​ 

Important Points

National Games in India :

  • The duration and the regulations of the National Games are entirely within the jurisdiction of the Indian Olympic Association.
  • The 1st edition of the Indian Olympic Games held at Lahore in an undivided Punjab in 1924.
  • The first three editions were all held in the city of Lahore.
  • After the eighth edition in 1938 in Calcutta, the event was christened as the National Games.
  • The city of Lucknow hosted the National Games in its first post-independence avatar.
  • The first National Games on the lines of the Olympics were held in 1985 in New Delhi.
  • The 37th edition was held in Goa from 25 october to 9th november 2023.
  • The official mascot for the 2023 National Games of India was Moga, an Indian bison.
  • The motto of the 37th National Games was "Get Set Goa".
19

As per the town planning system of the Indus Valley Civilisation, the buildings that were constructed on mud brick platforms were known as _________. 

  1. ((a))

    Foundation base

  2. ((b))

    lower towns

  3. ((c))

    Lower courtyard

  4. ((d))

    citadels

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

citadels

The correct answer is Citadels.

Key Points

  • The citadels were built on elevated platforms made of mud bricks, which provided a strong foundation for the structures and protected them from floods and other natural calamities.
  • They were usually located in the western part of the cities, and were surrounded by walls and gates for additional protection.
  • The largest citadel in the Indus Valley Civilization was located in Mohenjo-daro and covered an area of around 12 hectares.
  • They were also used as centers of trade and commerce, and many of them had marketplaces and workshops where goods were produced and sold.

​ 

Additional Information

  • Lower towns refers to the residential areas that were located outside the citadels and were not constructed on mud brick platforms.
  • Lower courtyard refers to the open spaces that were located within the residential areas and were used for various activities such as social gatherings and religious ceremonies.

 Important Points 

Indus Valley civilisation:

  • The Indus Valley Civilization (also known as the Harappan Civilization) was one of the world's oldest and most advanced civilizations, flourishing in the Indian subcontinent around 2500 BCE to 1750 BCE(most accepted period).
  • It was contemporaneous with other ancient civilizations such as Mesopotamia, Egypt, and China.
  • It is named after the Indus River, where the majority of its archaeological sites have been discovered.
  • John Marshall was the first scholar to use the term Indus Civilization.
20

Which of the following is NOT a Wetland RAMSAR site in India listed under the Ramsar Convention as on November 2022? 

  1. ((a))

    Karikili Bird Sanctuary

  2. ((b))

    Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary

  3. ((c))

    Pala Wetlands

  4. ((d))

    Sakhya Sagar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sakhya Sagar

The correct answer is Sakhya Sagar.

Key Points

  • Sakhya Sagar, on the other hand, is not a designated Ramsar site. It is a reservoir located in Madhya Pradesh.

Important Points 

  • Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
  • The convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.
  • It provides a framework for national action and international cooperation regarding the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.

 Additional Information

  • Karikili Bird Sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu and was designated as a Ramsar site in 2002. It is an important breeding ground for waterbirds and supports a diverse range of flora and fauna.
  • Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh and was designated as a Ramsar site in 2021. It is home to the critically endangered gharial, as well as other aquatic species.
  • Pala Wetlands is located in Kerala and was designated as a Ramsar site in 2002. It is an important habitat for migratory birds and supports a variety of wetland ecosystems.

Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions)

21

The area of the base of a cuboidal tank is 8400 square centimetres and the volume of petrol contained in it is 10.2 cubic metres. Find the depth of petrol in the tank (correct up to one decimal place).

  1. ((a))

    1300.4 cm

  2. ((b))

    1843.2 cm

  3. ((c))

    900.2 cm

  4. ((d))

    1214.3 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1214.3 cm

Given:

The area of the base of a cuboidal tank is 8400 square centimetre

And the volume of petrol contained in it is 10.2 cubic metres

Concept Used:

1 cubic meter = 1,000,000 cubic centimeters.

Formula Used:

V = B × H

Where, the volume (V) is given by the product of its Base area (B) and its Height (H) 

Calculation:

10.2 cubic meters = 10.2  × 1,000,000 = 10,200,000 cubic centimeters.

The Base area, B = 8400 cmand the Volume, V = 10,200,000 cm3

Substituting the given values,

H = 10,200,000/8400 = 1214.3 cm 

∴ The depth of the petrol in the tank is approximately 1214.3 cm.

22

Surendra has a property having a certain value. He gives 60% of his property to his wife, 75% of the remaining property to his daughter, and the rest to a trust. If he gives property worth ₹6,00,000 to the trust, find the worth of the share of the property he gives to his daughter.

  1. ((a))

    ₹10,00,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹15,20,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹15,00,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹18,00,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹18,00,000

Given:

Wife gets = 60% of property

Daughter gets = 75% of remaining property

Trust gets = Rest of the property

Calculation:

Let, Property value = 100 units

Wife gets = 60% of 100 = 60 units

Daughter gets = 75% of (100 - 60) = 3/4 × 40 = 30 units

Trust gets= (100 - (60 + 30)) 10 units

According to the question,

⇒ 10 units = Rs. 6,00,000

⇒ 1 unit = 6,00,000/10 = Rs. 60,000 

So, daughter gets = 60,000 × 30 = Rs. 18,00,000

∴ He gives his daughter Rs. 18,00,000 share of the property.

23

Two trains are running in opposite directions. They cross a man standing on a platform in 28 seconds and 10 seconds. respectively. They cross each other in 24 seconds. What is the ratio of their speeds?

  1. ((a))

    7 ∶ 2

  2. ((b))

    9 ∶ 2

  3. ((c))

    1 ∶ 9

  4. ((d))

    4 ∶ 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 ∶ 2

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Alligation Method using the time taken by each train to cross the man and the common time to cross each other.

Time for Train 1 (t1) = 28 s | Time for Train 2 (t2) = 10 s | Mean Time (tm) = 24 s

Ratio of speeds = (tm − t2) : (t1 − tm)

Ratio of speeds = (24 − 10) : (28 − 24) = 14 : 4 = 7 : 2

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time to cross man by Train 1 = 28 sec

Time to cross man by Train 2 = 10 sec

Time to cross each other in opposite directions = 24 sec

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = s1 + s2

Calculations:

Let the speed of the first train be s1 and the second train be s2.

⇒ Length of Train 1 (l1) = Speed × Time = s1 × 28 = 28s1

⇒ Length of Train 2 (l2) = Speed × Time = s2 × 10 = 10s2

⇒ Total Distance for crossing each other = l1 + l2 = 28s1 + 10s2

⇒ Relative Speed = s1 + s2

⇒ Time taken = (Total Distance) ÷ (Relative Speed)

⇒ 24 = (28s1 + 10s2) ÷ (s1 + s2)

⇒ 24(s1 + s2) = 28s1 + 10s2

⇒ 24s1 + 24s2 = 28s1 + 10s2

⇒ 24s2 − 10s2 = 28s1 − 24s1

⇒ 14s2 = 4s1

⇒ s1 ÷ s2 = 14 ÷ 4

⇒ s1 : s2 = 7 : 2

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 2.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concepts

When moving in the opposite direction, relative speed = s1 + s2. When moving in the same direction, relative speed = |s1 − s2|.

Crossing Objects

To cross a stationary point object (man, pole), distance = length of the train. To cross a platform or another train, distance = sum of both lengths.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

24

What is the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 15,000 at 18% p.a. for 3243 \frac{2}{4} years, interest compounded annually? (Round off your answer to the nearest integer.)

  1. ((a))

    ₹10,486

  2. ((b))

    ₹11,084

  3. ((c))

    ₹11,864

  4. ((d))

    ₹10,264

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹11,864

Given: 

Principal amount = Rs. 15000

Rate of interest = 18% p.a.

Time = 3243 \frac{2}{4} years

Formula used:

Total amount = P × (1 + R/100)N 

CI = Total amount - Principal amount

Where, P = Principal amount, R = Rate of interest (p.a.), N = Time (in years)

Concept used:

Total amount = P × (1 + R/100)3 × (1 + 2R/400) 

Calculation:

Rate of interest for 2/4 years = 18% × 2/4 = 9%

So, Total amount = 15000 × (1 + 18/100)3 × (1 + 9/100)

⇒ 15000 × (59/50)3 × 109/100

⇒ (150 × 593 × 109)/125000 = 26863.57 ≈ Rs. 26864

Now, CI = 26864 - 15000 = Rs. 11864

∴ The interest amount is Rs. 11864.

25

Solutions A and B contain acid to water in the ratio 4 ∶ 5 and 5 ∶ 7, respectively. Three litres of A is mixed with 5 litres of B. In 960 ml of this solution, how much acid (in ml) should be mixed so that the ratio of acid to water becomes 1 ∶ 1 in the resulting solution?

  1. ((a))

    144

  2. ((b))

    136

  3. ((c))

    140

  4. ((d))

    130

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

140

Given:

In solution A, Acid : Water = 4 : 5

In solution B, Acid : Water = 5 : 7

Calculation:

Amount of acid in 3 ltrs of A = 4/9 × 3 = 4/3 ltrs.

Amount of acid in 5 ltrs. of B = 5/12 × 5 = 25/12 ltrs.

Total acid in (3 + 5) = 8 ltrs. of A and B = 4/3 + 25/12 = 41/12 ltrs.

Total acid content in 960 ml of such solution

⇒ (0.96 × 41/12)/8 = 0.41 ltrs. = 410 ml

Total water content in 960 ml of such solution = 960 - 410 = 550 ml

Let, the amount of acid to be added is 'a'.

According to the question,

⇒ (410 + a)/550 = 1

⇒ 410 + a = 550

⇒ a = 550 - 410 = 140 ml

∴ 140 ml of acid should be mixed.

26

The marked price of an item is ₹1,900. The shopkeeper was offering it for a discount of 12% but on further bargaining agreed to offer a successive discount and finally he sold the item for ₹1,538.24. What was the second discount offered by him?

  1. ((a))

    15%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    12%

  4. ((d))

    8%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8%

Shortcut Trick

Marked Price (MP) = ₹1,900

SP after 1st discount = 1,900 × (88 ÷ 100) = ₹1,672

Final SP = ₹1,538.24

Second Discount = (1,672 − 1,538.24) ÷ 1,672 × 100

Second Discount = 133.76 ÷ 1,672 × 100 = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = ₹1,900, First Discount (d1) = 12%, Final Selling Price (SP) = ₹1,538.24.

Formulas: SP = MP × (100 − d1)% × (100 − d2)%

Price after 1st discount = 1,900 × (1 − 0.12) = 1,900 × 0.88 = ₹1,672

Amount of 2nd discount = 1,672 − 1,538.24 = ₹133.76

Second Discount % = (133.76 ÷ 1,672) × 100

Second Discount % = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two discounts a% and b% are given, the effective discount is calculated as: a + b − (a × b ÷ 100).

Marked Price & Selling Price

Selling Price is the final amount paid by the customer after all discounts are subtracted from the Marked Price.

27

Evaluate the following:

0.0000008140.000002564+625\sqrt[4]{0.00000081}-\sqrt[4]{0.00000256}+\sqrt{625}

  1. ((a))

    22.56

  2. ((b))

    24.99

  3. ((c))

    25.63

  4. ((d))

    21.51

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

24.99

Calculation:

0.0000008140.000002564+625\sqrt[4]{0.00000081}-\sqrt[4]{0.00000256}+\sqrt{625}

⇒ 8110000000042561000000004+625\sqrt[4]{81\over100000000}-\sqrt[4]{256\over 100000000}+\sqrt{625} 

⇒ 31004100+25{3\over100}-{4\over 100}+{25}

⇒ 0.03 - 0.04 + 25

⇒ 25 - 0.01

⇒ 24.99

Hence, the correct answer is 24.99

28

A bus has to travel from A to B. The bus covers the first one-third of the distance at 25 km/h and the next one-fourth of the distance at 30 km/h. For the rest of the journey, the bus travels at 50 km/h. The average speed of the bus (in km/h) for the entire journey is ______.

  1. ((a))

    33

  2. ((b))

    371237 \frac{1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    331333\frac{1}{3}

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

331333\frac{1}{3}

Given:

Speed to cover first one-third of the trip = 25 km/h.

Speed to cover next one-fourth of the trip = 30 km/h.

<br>

Speed to cover remaining distance = 50 km/h.

<br>

Formula used:

<br>

 Time = Distance/Speed

Calculation:

<br>

Let the total distance travelled be 'd' km.

Time to cover one-third of the journey = (d/3) / 25 = d/75 hrs.

Time to cover the next one-fourth of the journey = (d/4) / 30 = d/120 hrs.

The remaining part of the journey = d - [(d/3) + (d/4)] = 5d/12 and it is covered at a speed of 50 km/h.

⇒ So, the time taken to cover this distance = (5d/12) / 50 = d/120 hrs.

Total time = d/75 + d/120 + d/120

⇒ Total time = 9d/300

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

⇒ Average speed = d / (9d/300)

⇒Average speed = 300/9 km/hr.

⇒Average speed = 100/3km/hr =  33(1/3) km/hr

∴ The average speed of the bus for the entire journey is 33(1/3) km/hr.

29

Simplify the following.

234156÷78×(13+14)+57÷34 of 37\frac{2 \frac{3}{4}}{1 \frac{5}{6}} \div \frac{7}{8} \times\left(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{3}{4} \text { of } \frac{3}{7}

  1. ((a))

    299\frac{29}{9}

  2. ((b))

    29 \frac{2}{9}

  3. ((c))

    4980\frac{49}{80}

  4. ((d))

    5677 \frac{56}{77}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

299\frac{29}{9}

Given:

234156÷78×(13+14)+57÷34 of 37\frac{2 \frac{3}{4}}{1 \frac{5}{6}} \div \frac{7}{8} \times\left(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{3}{4} \text { of } \frac{3}{7}

Concept Used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Calculation:

234156÷78×(13+14)+57÷34 of 37\frac{2 \frac{3}{4}}{1 \frac{5}{6}} \div \frac{7}{8} \times\left(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{3}{4} \text { of } \frac{3}{7}

⇒ 234156÷78×(712)+57÷34 of 37\frac{2 \frac{3}{4}}{1 \frac{5}{6}} \div \frac{7}{8} \times\left(\frac{7}{12}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{3}{4} \text { of } \frac{3}{7}

⇒ 234156÷78×(712)+57÷34×37\frac{2 \frac{3}{4}}{1 \frac{5}{6}} \div \frac{7}{8} \times\left(\frac{7}{12}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{3}{7}

⇒ 234156÷78×(712)+57÷928\frac{2 \frac{3}{4}}{1 \frac{5}{6}} \div \frac{7}{8} \times\left(\frac{7}{12}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{9}{28}

⇒ 114116÷78×(712)+57÷928\frac{ \frac{11}{4}}{ \frac{11}{6}} \div \frac{7}{8} \times\left(\frac{7}{12}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{9}{28}

⇒ 32÷78×(712)+57÷928{ \frac{3}{2}} \div \frac{7}{8} \times\left(\frac{7}{12}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{9}{28}

⇒ 32×87×(712)+57×289{ \frac{3}{2}} \times \frac{8}{7} \times\left(\frac{7}{12}\right)+\frac{5}{7} \times \frac{28}{9}

⇒ 1+209{1} + \frac{20}{9}

⇒ 299\frac{29}{9}

30

The sum of all 4 - digit numbers which are divisible by both 3 and 5 is ______.

  1. ((a))

    3192500

  2. ((b))

    3095800

  3. ((c))

    3295800

  4. ((d))

    3298500

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3298500

Given:

First number = 3

Second number = 5

Formula Used:

In Arithmetic Progression (AP)

n = [(tn - a)/d + 1]

Sn = (n/2) [2a + (n - 1)d]

Where, n = No. of terms, tn = Last term, a = First term

d = Common difference and Sn = Sum of all numbers

Calculation:

A number is divisible by both 3 and 5 if it is divisible by their LCM

LCM (3, 5) = 15

The smallest four-digit number divisible by both = 1005

Next four-digit number divisible by both = 1020

Common difference (d) = 1020 - 1005 = 15

The largest four-digit number divisible by both = 9990

So, total number of terms n = [(9990 - 1005)/15 + 1]

⇒ n = 8985/15 + 1

⇒ n = 599 + 1 = 600

So, sum of all 600 four-digit number

⇒ Sn = (600/2)[ (2 × 1005) + (600 - 1) × 15]

⇒ Sn = 300 × [2010 + 599 × 15]

⇒ Sn = 300 × [2010 + 8985]

⇒ Sn = 300 × 10995

⇒ Sn = 3298500

∴ Sum of all 4-digit numbers divisible by both 3 and 5 is 32,98,500.

31

If Ashok and Koushika work together, then they can complete a piece of work in 20 days. However, if Ashok works alone and completes half the work and then Koushika takes over the task and completes the second half of the task, the task is completed in 45 days. How long will Ashok take to complete the task if he worked alone? Assume that Koushika is more efficient than Ashok.

  1. ((a))

    60 days

  2. ((b))

    65 days

  3. ((c))

    30 days

  4. ((d))

    25 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60 days

Given:

Time taken by Ashok and Kaushika together = 20 days

Time taken while completing task in fraction = 45 days

Efficiency of Kaushika is grater than Ashok

Formula used:

Total work =  Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

Let Kaushika and Ashok takes x and y days to complete the task alone

Kaushika's one-day work = 1/x

Ashok's one-day work = 1/y

Kaushika + Ashok's one-day work = 1/x + 1/y

⇒ 1/x + 1/y = 1/20

⇒ (x + y)/xy = 1/20     -----(1)

If Kaushika and Ashok each does half of the work alone, then the time taken

⇒ x/2 + y/2 = 45

⇒ x + y = 90     -----(2)

Put the value of x + y in equation(1)

⇒ 90/xy = 1/20

⇒ xy = 20 × 90 = 1800

So, x = 1800/y     -----(3)

In equation(2) and equation(3)

x = 30 and y = 60 satisfy both the equation

So, Time taken by Kaushika = 30 days

And time taken by Ashok = 60 days

Hence, Ashoke will take 60 days to complete the task alone.

32

A medicine - capsule is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total length of the capsule is 3 cm and the diameter of the cross - section of the cylinder is 1.4 cm. Find the approximate capacity (in cm3) of the capsule.

[Use n = 227\frac{22}{7}]

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

Given:

Total length of capsule = 3 cm

Diameter of cross-section of cylinder = 1.4 cm

Formula used:

Volume of cylinder VC = π × r2 × h 

Volume of hemisphere VH = (2/3) × π × R3

Where, r = radius of cylinder , h = height of cylinder

And R = radius of hemisphere

Calculation:

Radius of cylinder (r) = Diameter/2 

⇒ r = 1.4/2 = 0.7 cm

Height of cylinder (h) = L - 2r

⇒ h = 3 - 2 × 0.7

⇒ h = 3 - 1.4 = 1.6 cm

Volume of capsule = VC + 2 × VH

⇒ (π × r2 × h) + 2 × (2/3) × π × R3

⇒ (22/7 × 0.72 × 1.6) + 2 × (2/3 × 22/7 × 0.73)

⇒ (0.112 × 22) + 2 × (2.09 × 0.343)

⇒ 2.464 + 1.434

⇒ 3.897 cm3 ≈ 4 cm3

∴ The approximate capacity of the capsule is 4 cm3.

33

In a box, there are ₹10 notes, ₹20 notes and ₹50 in a ratio of 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 7. The total amount of notes is ₹3,360. Find the number of ₹20 notes and ₹50 notes taken together.

  1. ((a))

    84

  2. ((b))

    79

  3. ((c))

    80

  4. ((d))

    73

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

84

Given:

There are ₹10 notes, ₹20 notes and ₹50 in a ratio of 3N ∶ 5N ∶ 7N.

The total amount of notes is ₹3,360.

Calculation:

According to question,

(10 × 3N) + (20 × 5N) + (50 × 7N) = 3360

⇒ 30N + 100N + 350N = 3360

⇒ 480N = 3360

⇒ N = 3360/480

⇒ N = 7

Now,

The number of ₹20 notes = 5 × 7 = 35

The number of ₹50 notes = 7 × 7 = 49

₹20 notes and ₹50 notes taken together:

⇒ 35 + 49 = 84

∴ The number of ₹20 notes and ₹50 notes taken together is 84.

34

Find the simple interest on ₹3,660 at 5% per annum for 15 months.

  1. ((a))

    ₹400.25

  2. ((b))

    ₹216.50

  3. ((c))

    ₹228.75

  4. ((d))

    ₹302.50

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹228.75

Shortcut Trick

Interest for 12 months (1 year) = 5% of ₹3660 = ₹183

Interest for 3 months (1/4 of a year) = ₹183 ÷ 4 = ₹45.75

Total Simple Interest for 15 months = ₹183 + ₹45.75 = ₹228.75

∴ The correct answer is ₹228.75.

Alternate Method

0 Months P = ₹3660

15 Months SI = ?

Rate = 5% p.a.

T = 15/12 Years

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3,660

Rate (R) = 5% per annum

Time (T) = 15 months

<br>

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

<br>

Calculations:

⇒ T = 15 ÷ 12 years = 5/4 years

⇒ SI = (3660 × 5 × 5/4) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (3660 × 25) ÷ 400

⇒ SI = 91500 ÷ 400

⇒ SI = 915 ÷ 4

⇒ SI = 228.75

∴ The correct answer is ₹228.75.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

Amount (A) = Principal + Simple Interest = P + (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Conversion of Time

Always ensure that Time (T) is in years when Rate (R) is given per annum. For months, divide the value by 12. For days, divide the value by 365.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In Simple Interest, the interest is calculated only on the initial principal. In Compound Interest, interest is calculated on the accumulated principal and previous interests.

35

I walk at a speed of 10 km/h and cover a distance in 2 hours. If I double my speed, how early would I reach my destination?

  1. ((a))

    60 mins

  2. ((b))

    35 mins

  3. ((c))

    40 mins

  4. ((d))

    25 mins

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60 mins

Given:

Speed = 10 km/h

Time = 2 hours

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Distance = 10 × 2 = 20 km

New Speed = 10 × 2 = 20 km/h

⇒ Time Required = 20/20 = 1 hour

The difference in time to reach the destination

⇒ 2 - 1 = 1 hour = 60 minutes

∴ If I double my speed, I would reach my destination early by 60 minutes.

36

Three pipes are attached to a tank. The first one fills it completely in 5 hours, the second one fills it completely in 4 hours and the third one empties it in 20 hours. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously at 7 a.m., at what time will the tank be completely filled?

  1. ((a))

    9:30 a.m.

  2. ((b))

    11:00 a.m.

  3. ((c))

    10:00 a.m.

  4. ((d))

    10:30 a.m.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9:30 a.m.

Given:

1st pipe can fill the tank in 5 hours

2nd pipe can fill the tank in 4 hours

3rd pipe can empty the tank in 20 hours

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

Let the capacity of the tank be 20 units (LCM of 5, 4 and 20)

⇒ Efficiency of 1st pipe = 20/5 = 4 units/hr

⇒ Efficiency of 2nd pipe = 20/4 = 5 units/hr

⇒ Efficiency of 3rd pipe = 20/(-20) = (-1) unit/hr

Combined Efficiency = 4 + 5 - 1 = 8 units/hr

To fill the tank, time taken by all pipes = 20/8 = 2.5 hours

The tank will be completely filled at (7 am + 2.5 hours) = 9.30 am

∴ The tank will be completely filled at 9.30 am if all pipes are opened simultaneously at 7.00 am.

37

Five consecutive even numbers are written in descending order. If 6, 8, and 10 are added to the first, second, and third numbers, respectively, and 13 is added to each of the last two numbers, the new sum of the numbers becomes 120% of the sum of the consecutive even numbers initially given. Find the square of the second largest of these five numbers.

  1. ((a))

    2704

  2. ((b))

    2304

  3. ((c))

    1936

  4. ((d))

    2116

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2704

Given:

Five consecutive even numbers are written in descending order.

The sum of the updated numbers is 120% of the sum of the original numbers.

Concept used:

The sum of an arithmetic sequence.

Calculations:

Let the five numbers be (n + 8), (n + 6), (n + 4), (n + 2), and (n).

The sum of the new numbers

⇒ (n + 8 + 6) + (n + 6 + 8) + ( n + 4 +10) + (n + 2 +13) + (n + 13).

⇒ (n + 14) + (n +14) + (n + 14) + ( n + 15) + (n + 13) = 5n + 70

The sum of the old numbers

⇒ (n + 8) + (n + 6) + (n + 4) + (n + 2) + (n) = 5n + 20

According to the condition

⇒  5n + 70 = 120/100 × (5n + 20) 

⇒ 5(5n + 70) = 6(5n + 20)

⇒ 25n + 350 = 30n + 120

⇒ 5n = 350 - 120

⇒ n = 230/5 = 46

The square of the second largest of five numbers is (n+6)2.

⇒ (46 + 6)2 = 522 = 2704

∴ The square of the second largest of these five numbers is 2704.

38

If 15% of 55% of a number is 2475, then 51% of that number is _______.

  1. ((a))

    15000

  2. ((b))

    15300

  3. ((c))

    15100

  4. ((d))

    15200

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15300

Given:

15% of 55% of a number = 2475

Calculation:

(15/100) × (55/100) × Number = 2475

⇒ Number = 2475 / [(15/100) × (55/100)]

⇒ 30000

Now, calculate 51% of the number:

⇒ (51/100) × 30000

⇒ 15300

∴ 51% of that number is 15300.

39

If l = 65\frac{6}{5} of m and m = 58\frac{5}{8} of n, then the ratio of l ∶ n is :

  1. ((a))

    1 ∶ 2

  2. ((b))

    2 ∶ 3

  3. ((c))

    1 ∶ 3

  4. ((d))

    3 ∶ 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3 ∶ 4

Given:

l = 6/5 × m

m = 5/8 × n

Calculation:

According to the question,

I = 6/5 × m

⇒ 5I = 6m

⇒ I/m = 6/5

⇒ I : m = 6 : 5

Again,

m = 5/8 × n

⇒ 8m = 5n

⇒ m/n = 5/8

⇒ m : n = 5 : 8

Equating the ratio of I : m : n

Imn
65
58
302540

 

Ratio of I : n    

⇒ 30 : 40 = 3 : 4

∴ The ratio of l ∶ n is  3 : 4

40

If some items of clothing bought at prices ranging from ₹250 to ₹400 are sold at prices ranging from ₹350 to ₹550, then what is the maximum possible profit (in ₹) that might be made in selling 12 such items of clothing?

  1. ((a))

    3,000

  2. ((b))

    3,600

  3. ((c))

    2,400

  4. ((d))

    1,800

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3,600

Shortcut Trick

To get Maximum Profit, purchase at the lowest price and sell at the highest price.

Minimum CP = ₹ 250 | Maximum SP = ₹ 550

Max Profit per item = 550 − 250 = ₹ 300

Max Profit for 12 items = 300 × 12 = ₹ 3600

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 3600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Range of Cost Price (CP) = ₹ 250 to ₹ 400

Range of Selling Price (SP) = ₹ 350 to ₹ 550

Number of items = 12

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price

Maximum Profit = (Maximum Selling Price − Minimum Cost Price) × Total Items

Min CP: ₹250 Max CP: ₹400

Min SP: ₹350 Max SP: ₹550

Max Profit Gap = ₹550 − ₹250 = ₹300

Calculations:

⇒ Minimum possible Cost Price = ₹ 250

⇒ Maximum possible Selling Price = ₹ 550

⇒ Maximum profit on 1 item = Max SP − Min CP

⇒ Profit per item = 550 − 250 = ₹ 300

⇒ Total maximum profit for 12 items = 300 × 12

⇒ Total Maximum Profit = ₹ 3600

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 3600.

Additional Information

Minimum Possible Profit

To minimize profit, subtract the maximum possible CP from the minimum possible SP: Min Profit = (Min SP − Max CP) × Quantity. If the result is negative, it indicates a loss.

Profit Percentage

Profit % = (Total Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100. Always calculate profit percentage based on the cost price unless specified otherwise.

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP).

Logical Ability & Reasoning (20 questions)

41

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

5, 6, 10, 19, 35, 60, ?

  1. ((a))

    122

  2. ((b))

    96

  3. ((c))

    118

  4. ((d))

    106

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

96

The logic followed here is:

So, 96 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

42

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions is true based on the statements.

Statements:

Z < S < E = J, J ≥ T > G = V

Conclusions:

I. V < E

II. T > Z

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II is true

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I is true

Given statements: Z < S < E = J, J ≥ T > G = V

After combining, we get: Z < S < E = J ≥ T > G = V

Conclusions:

I. V < E → True (Z < S < E = J ≥ T > G = V it gives E > V).

II. T > Z → False (Z < S < E = J ≥ T > G = V No definite relation can be established)

So, Only conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

43

S16H is related to P22K in a certain way. In the same way, M28N is related to J34Q. To which of the following is K32P related following the same logic? 

  1. ((a))

    G42T

  2. ((b))

    D38W

  3. ((c))

    H38S

  4. ((d))

    F40U

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

H38S

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

(First Letter - 3 → Number + 6 →Last letter +3)

Now,

S16H is related to P22K.

M28N is related to J34Q.

Similarly,K32P will be:

So, K32P will be related to H38S.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

44

Nine persons – C, D, B, A, J, F, G, H and K – are sitting in a straight line facing north, but not necessarily in the same order. G sits second to the right of C. B sits fourth to the left of G. D is neither an immediate neighbour of K nor B. F sits fourth to the right of C and second to the left of K. K sits fifth to the right of A. Only three people sit between J and A. Who among the following sits third to the right of H? 

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

G

Given: Nine persons – C, D, B, A, J, F, G, H and K – are sitting in a straight line facing north, but not necessarily in the same order.

K sits fifth to the right of A.

Only three people sit between J and A. 

F sits fourth to the right of C and second to the left of K.

G sits second to the right of C.

B sits fourth to the left of G.

D is neither an immediate neighbour of K nor B.

So, G sits third to the right of H.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

45

Eight people E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of K. H is an immediate neighbour of K. There are only three people sitting between H and E. Only one person sits between L and E. M is sitting to the immediate right of the L. G is to the immediate left of F. What is the position of L with respect to H?

  1. ((a))

    Fourth to the left

  2. ((b))

    Third to the left

  3. ((c))

    Second to the right

  4. ((d))

    Fourth to the right 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Second to the right

Given: Eight people E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

F is sitting second to the left of K.

G is to the immediate left of F.

H is an immediate neighbour of K.

There are only three people sitting between H and E.

Only one person sits between L and E.

M is sitting to the immediate right of the L.

So, L sits second to the right of H.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

46

Study the given arrangement of 2-digit numbers and symbols and answer the question that follows.

(Left) 65 67 87 86 & 43 32 37 @ 27 % 29 76 71 49 $ 52 23 # (Right)

What is the sum of the 8th number from the left and the 5th number from the right end in the above series?

  1. ((a))

    103

  2. ((b))

    106

  3. ((c))

    109

  4. ((d))

    97

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

103

Given: (Left) 65 67 87 86 & 43 32 37 @ 27 % 29 76 71 49 $ 52 23 # (Right)

8th Number from left end = 27

5th Number from right end = 76

Sum of 8th Number from left and 5th from right end = 27 + 76

= 103.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

47

The following question is based on the given diagram. The triangle represents ‘teachers’, the circle represents ‘players’, and the rectangle represents ‘musicians’. 

Which numbered space in the diagram represents teachers who are also players and musicians?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

According to the given Venn Diagram:

The shaded are in the diagram represents teachers who are also players and musicians.

So, the number of teachers who are also players and musicians = 5.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

48

In the given letter-cluster pairs, the first letter-cluster is related to the second lettercluster following a certain logic. Study the given pairs carefully, and from the given options, select the pair that follows the same logic.

JHL : MKO :: PNR : SQU

  1. ((a))

    VTS : YWV

  2. ((b))

    ZXC : VUX

  3. ((c))

    WUX : YXB

  4. ((d))

    WTX : ZXA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VTS : YWV

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

For, JHL : MKO

For, PNR : SQU

Let's check each Option One by One:

Option 1) VTS : YWV

Option 2) ZXC : VUX

Option 3) WUX : YXB

Option 4) WTX : ZXA

So, Only VTS : YWV is similar to the given letter clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

49

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

5, 20, 80, 320, 1280, ?

  1. ((a))

    4890

  2. ((b))

    5120

  3. ((c))

    4760

  4. ((d))

    4430

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5120

The logic followed here is :

So, 5120 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

50

In this question, a group of letters is coded using numbers/symbols as per the table given below and the conditions which follow. The correct combination of codes following the conditions is your answer. 

#8%@6&1*!7
ALBTQIEDFU
<br>

Condition 1: If a word starts with a vowel but ends with a consonant then codes for first and last letter to be reversed.

Condition 2: If there are more than two vowels in a word, then the first vowel is to be coded as 1. the second vowel as 2 and so on.

Condition 3: If a word starts with a consonant and also ends with a vowel then vowels are to be coded after coding all the consonants.

What is the code for “BEAUTIFUL”

  1. ((a))

    %1#7@4!78

  2. ((b))

    %123@4!58

  3. ((c))

    %123@&!78

  4. ((d))

    %1#7&@!78

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

%123@4!58

Given: 

Codes for the given Alphabets#8%@6&1*!7
AlphabetsALBTQIEDFU

 

Rule No.ConditionsResults
1If a word starts with a vowel but ends with a consonantthen codes for first and last letter to be reversed.
2.If there are more than two vowels in a word,then the first vowel is to be coded as 1. the second vowel as 2 and so on.
3.If a word starts with a consonant and also ends with a vowelthen vowels are to be coded after coding all the consonants.
<br>

Given Word: 'BEAUTIFUL'

Here, Rule No. 2 Applies, If there are more than two vowels in a word, then the first vowel is to be coded as 1. the second vowel as 2 and so on.

So, the code for the word BEAUTIFUL is : '% 1 2 3 @ 4 ! 5 8'

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

51

 Q walks 100 m towards the north. Then he turns right and walks 150 m. Then he turns right and walks 170 m. Then he turns left and walks 80 m. Finally, he turns left and walks 70 m. How many metres and in which direction is he from the starting position?

  1. ((a))

    200 m towards the west 

  2. ((b))

    240 m towards the east 

  3. ((c))

    230 m towards the east

  4. ((d))

    250 m towards the west

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

230 m towards the east

Given: Q walks 100 m towards the north.

Then he turns right and walks 150 m.

Then he turns right and walks 170 m.

Then he turns left and walks 80 m.

Finally, he turns left and walks 70 m.

The distance between starting and ending point = 150m + 80m = 230m.

So, Q is in the 230m towards the East direction from starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

52

If 1st January 1997 was a Wednesday, what was the day of the week on 24th June 1997?

  1. ((a))

    Wednesday

  2. ((b))

    Tuesday

  3. ((c))

    Monday

  4. ((d))

    Sunday

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Tuesday

Given: 1st January 1997 was a Wednesday.

Now, 24th June 1997 will be on:

Number of Odd Days between 1 January 1997 and 24 June 1997, As 28 days of a month = 4 weeks 

Then, days more than or extra from these 28 days in a month will be considered.

=  2(Jan) + 0 (Feb) + 3 (March) + 2(April) + 3(May) + 24 (June) = 34 days

= 34 days = 34/7 = 4 weeks and 6 odd days

So, 24 June 1997 will be on =  Wednesday + 6 days = Tuesday.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

53

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

16 × 25 ÷ (121 − 11) = 389

  1. ((a))

    (+ and −)

  2. ((b))

    (− and ×)

  3. ((c))

    (× and ÷)

  4. ((d))

    (− and ÷)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(− and ÷)

Given Equation: 16 × 25 ÷ (121 − 11) = 389

BODMAS Table:

Let's check each option One by One:

Option 1) (+ and -)

Given: 16 × 25 ÷ (121 − 11) = 389

After interchanging the signs we get:

16 × 25 ÷ (121 + 11) = 389

16 × 25 ÷ 132 = 389

16 × 0.18 = 389

3.03 ≠ 389.

Option 2) (− and ×)

Given: 16 × 25 ÷ (121 − 11) = 389

After interchanging the signs we get:

16 - 25 ÷ (121 × 11) = 389

16 - 25 ÷ 1331 = 389

16 - 0.018 = 389

15.98 ≠ 389.

Option 3) (× and ÷)

Given: 16 × 25 ÷ (121 − 11) = 389

After interchanging the signs we get:

16 ÷ 25 × (121 − 11) = 389

16 ÷ 25 × 110 = 389

0.64 × 110 = 389

70.4  ≠ 389. 

Option 4) (− and ÷)

Given: 16 × 25 ÷ (121 − 11) = 389

After interchanging the signs we get:

16 × 25 - (121 ÷ 11) = 389

16 × 25 - 11 = 389

400 - 11 = 389

389 = 389.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

54

Four letter-cluster pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, and one is different. Select the one that is different.

  1. ((a))

    KJM - PQN

  2. ((b))

    DCF - WXU

  3. ((c))

    QPR - KJI

  4. ((d))

    GFI - TUR

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

QPR - KJI

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

Let's check each option One by One:

Option 1) KJM - PQN

Option 2) DCF - WXU

Option 3) QPR -  KJI

Option 4) GFI - TUR

So, QPR -KJI is odd among the given Options.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

55

There are six boxes, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, which are kept one above the other. R is kept immediately above P. T is kept immediately above U. Only two boxes are kept between T and S. T is not at the topmost or at the lowermost position. P is above U. Q is kept immediately above S. R is neither kept immediately above nor immediately below T. U is kept at one of the positions above S. There are only 2 boxes between R and U. Which of the following boxes is kept immediately below U?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Q

Given: There are six boxes, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, which are kept one above the other.

There are only 2 boxes between R and U.

T is kept immediately above U.

T is not at the topmost or at the lowermost position.

R is neither kept immediately above nor immediately below T.

P is above U.

R is kept immediately above P.

PositionBox
6R
5P
4T
3U
2
1

 

Only two boxes are kept between T and S.

U is kept at one of the positions above S.

Q is kept immediately above S.

PositionBox
6R
5P
4T
3U
2Q
1S
<br>

So, Q is kept immediately below U.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

56

Seven boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one above the other in a stack. G is kept at the bottommost position. A is kept immediately above G. There are 2 boxes between F and A. E is kept third from the bottom. B is kept immediately above D. How many boxes are there between F and E?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

One

Given: Seven boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one above the other in a stack.

G is kept at the bottommost position.

E is kept third from the bottom.

A is kept immediately above G.

There are 2 boxes between F and A.

PositionBox
7
6
5F
4
3E
2A
1G
<br>

B is kept immediately above D.

PositionBox
7B
6D
5F
4C
3E
2A
1G
<br>

Here, Only One Box is kept between E and F.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

57

In a certain code language, ‘greater than person’ is written as 476, ‘there is no greater’ is written as 8243, ‘no person is right’ is written as 2817, and ‘disability no greater’ is written as 548. What is the code for ‘right’ in that language?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1

Given:

‘greater than person’ is written as 476

‘there is no greater’ is written as 8243

‘no person is right’ is written as 2817

‘disability no greater’ is written as 548

Here,

'7' is the code for 'Person'

'8' is the code for 'No'

'2' is the code for 'Is'

'1' is the code for 'Right'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

58

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

IMPI_ EIMP _ GEIM_ _ NGEI_ _ INGE

  1. ((a))

    GINNMIPP

  2. ((b))

    GNNIMIPP

  3. ((c))

    NGINPIMP

  4. ((d))

    GNNIPIMP

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

NGINPIMP

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) GINNMIPP

I M P I G I E / I M P N N G E / I M M I N G E / I P P I N G E → Does not follow pattern.

Option 2) GNNIMIPP

I M P I G N E / I M P N I G E / I M M I N G E / I P P I N G E → Does not follow pattern.

Option 3) NGINPIMP

I M P I N G E / I M P I N G E / I M P I N G E/ I M P I N G E → Follows a pattern of IMPINGE.

Option 4) GNNIPIMP

I M P I G N E / I M P N I G E / I M P I N G E / I M P I N G E → Does not follow pattern. 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

We can see, there is a series of 7 letters which are repeating itself.

IMPI_ E / IMP _ GE / IM_ _ NGE / I_ _ INGE

So, 

First letter = I

Second letter = M

Third letter = P

Fourth letter = I

Fifth letter = N

Sixth letter = G

Seventh letter = E

So, Series will be:

IMPI N G E / IMP I N GE / IM P I NGE / I M P INGE

So, the missing terms are:

NGINPIMP

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

59

A, B, C, D, E and F are six members in a family. The family consists of two married couples. The family members are a lawyer, teacher, businessman, engineer, accountant and doctor. A, the lady teacher, is married to the businessman. The lawyer is married to B, who is a doctor. F, the accountant, is the son of B and the brother of E. C, the lawyer, is the daughter-in-law of A. E is the unmarried engineer. A’s son’s son is F. How is D related to F?

  1. ((a))

    Father

  2. ((b))

    Paternal grandfather

  3. ((c))

    Brother

  4. ((d))

    Daughter’s son

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Paternal grandfather

Family Chart:

Given: A, B, C, D, E and F are six members in a family.

The family consists of two married couples.

The family members are a lawyer, teacher, businessman, engineer, accountant and doctor.

A, the lady teacher, is married to the businessman.

The lawyer is married to B, who is a doctor.

F, the accountant, is the son of B and the brother of E.

C, the lawyer, is the daughter-in-law of A.

E is the unmarried engineer.

A’s son’s son is F.

So, D is Paternal Grandfather of F.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

60

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

48.09% of 1698 + 59% of 2387.98 − ? = 1225

  1. ((a))

    1040

  2. ((b))

    1000

  3. ((c))

    1060

  4. ((d))

    1076

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1000

BODMAS Table:

Displaying 6203fea433474e3b330f0951_22-7-22_Shashi Savita_D1.png

Given: 48.09% of 1698 + 59% of 2387.98 − ? = 1225

Taking Approximate Values,

⇒ 48% of 1700 + 59% of 2388 - ? = 1225

48 × 17 + 59 × 23.88 - ? = 1225

⇒ 816 + 1409 - ? = 1225

⇒ 2225 - ? = 1225

⇒ ? = 2225 - 1225

⇒ ? = 1000.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

English Language (20 questions)

61

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The Grand Central Terminal is ________ most famous station in the world.

  1. ((a))

    the

  2. ((b))

    a

  3. ((c))

    No word required

  4. ((d))

    an

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e., 'the'

Key Points

  • Here, the sentence is talking about the Grand Central Terminal, proposing it as the particular, unique station of greatest fame in the world.
  • In English grammar, we use the definite article 'the' when we talk about something specific or something that is unique or considered unique.
  • 'The' is used here because it’s referring to 'the most famous station', implying that it is the only one which is at the highest level of fame, hence it is distinctive.
  • Therefore, the word 'the' before 'most famous station' is showing that the Grand Central Terminal is the singular, outstanding station amongst all the stations in the world.

Therefore, the correct answer is- ' The Grand Central Terminal is the most famous station in the world.'

Additional Information

  • 'A' (Option 2) is an indefinite article used before words beginning with a consonant sound. Here it is inappropriate because the Grand Central Terminal is being identified as a specific entity, not merely one of many.
  • No word required (Option 3) is incorrect because the sentence is comparing the Grand Central Terminal to all other stations. So, an article is necessary for correct comparison.
  • **'An' (**Option 4) is an indefinite article used before words beginning with a vowel sound. It is incorrect in this context for the same reason as 'a'.
62

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Any inventory of Darjeeling is incomplete if a tea plantation is not included in it.

  1. ((a))

    itinerary

  2. ((b))

    index

  3. ((c))

    No substitution required 

  4. ((d))

    record

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

itinerary

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e., 'itinerary'

Key Points

  • The term 'inventory' generally refers to a detailed list of items such as goods in stock or the contents of a building or room.
  • However, the context of the sentence suggests a discussion about visiting places or key attractions in Darjeeling, which is more aligned with the term 'itinerary'.
  • An 'itinerary' is a planned route or journey. In this context, the term 'itinerary' is far more suitable because it suggests a list of places to be visited on a journey or tour.
  • Therefore, substituting 'inventory' with 'itinerary' makes the sentence more cogent and specifically aligned with prominent attractions of Darjeeling, a key one being its tea plantations.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'itinerary'

Additional Information 

  • 'Index' (Option 2) refers to an alphabetical list of names or topics usually at the end of a printed work that gives page numbers where each item can be found. It doesn't make sense in this context.
  • Choosing 'No substitution required' (Option 3) would retain 'inventory' which, as explained, seems to be slightly off-context.
  • 'Record' (Option 4) primarily refers to a piece of evidence or information about the past that is documented or preserved. Using it in place of 'inventory' doesn't perfectly match the context of touring key attractions of a place.
63

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

This story is ______ the partition of India and Pakistan.

  1. ((a))

    to

  2. ((b))

    at

  3. ((c))

    about

  4. ((d))

    for

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

about

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e., 'about'

Key Points

  • When telling what a story, book, movie, or event is focused on, we use the preposition 'about'.
  • The sentence is indicating the subject or theme of the story; hence, 'about' is the most suitable option as it suggests the primary focus, topic, or theme.
  • In the context of the sentence, the theme of the story is the historical event of the partition of India and Pakistan.
  • Therefore, the word 'about' best expresses the intended meaning, indicating that the story's content or subject matter revolves around that event.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'This story is about the partition of India and Pakistan.'

Additional Information

  • 'To' (Option 1) is generally used to indicate the direction, recipient, or a relationship between two entities. It's not appropriate in this context.
  • 'At' (Option 2) generally denotes a precise location or time and doesn't work grammatically in this context.
  • 'For' (Option 4) is often used to imply purpose or intended use. It's not appropriate in this context either.
64

Select the correct punctuation mark to fill in the blank.

Bobby _____ I didn’t know you could play the mouth organ.

  1. ((a))

    semicolon (;)

  2. ((b))

    colon (:)

  3. ((c))

    dash (-)

  4. ((d))

    comma (,)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

comma (,)

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e., 'comma (,)'

Key Points

  • In English grammar, when addressing someone directly, we usually set off their name or title with a comma.
  • This rule applies to the given sentence as 'Bobby' is being directly addressed and should therefore be marked off by a comma.
  • Thus, the comma (,) should be used after 'Bobby' to signify a slight pause and differentiate between the address (Bobby) and the rest of the sentence.
  • The use of the comma also ensures clarity in sentence structure and improves readability.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Bobby, I didn’t know you could play the mouth organ.'

Additional Information

  • A semicolon (Option 1) is used to join two related independent clauses. It's inappropriate in this context as the sentence doesn't have two independent clauses.
  • A colon (Option 2) is used to introduce a list, a quote, or an explanation. It's not appropriate in this context.
  • A dash (Option 3) can be used to add extra information or an interruption in thought, which isn't the case in this context.
65

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Once, I went for a wedding with my cousins to the neighbouring village.

B. We children enjoyed ourselves thoroughly.

C. In those days, a wedding was a great event.

D. We would eat and play endlessly, savouring the freedom because all the elders were busy.

  1. ((a))

    ADCB

  2. ((b))

    ABDC

  3. ((c))

    ADBC

  4. ((d))

    ACBD

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ACBD

The correct sequence is: ACBD.

Key Points

  • Sentence A sets the stage by introducing an event - the speaker and their cousins went to a wedding in a neighboring village. In context, this sentence works as a good introduction, setting the time and place for the upcoming narrative.
  • Sentence C next provides the importance of a wedding in those times, conveying why this event is worth mentioning in the first place. It provides the context that makes the story meaningful.
  • Sentence B describes the joy and entertainment the children had at the wedding. This sentence logically follows the context set up by sentence C, as we've established that a wedding is a significant event.
  • Sentence D further elaborates on what they did at the wedding and why. The mention of freedom because the elders were busy connects to sentence B, which is about their enjoyment.
<br>

Therefore, the correct sequence of sentences that forms a meaningful and coherent paragraph is: ACBD.

66

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

We have constructed a rough estimate of expenditure for this project.

  1. ((a))

    manufactured

  2. ((b))

    No substitution required

  3. ((c))

    prepared

  4. ((d))

    built

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

prepared

The correct answer is: prepared.

Key Points

  • The underlined phrase in the sentence is "constructed" (संरचना), which is typically used when referring to building something physically.
  • Example: They constructed a new bridge across the river.
  • The correct word is 'prepared' (तैयार) when referring to making something ready for use or consideration, especially something abstract like an estimate.
  • Example: We have prepared a detailed proposal for the client.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "We have prepared a rough estimate of expenditure for this project."

Additional Information

  • 'Manufactured' (निर्मित) typically refers to making or producing goods in large quantities in a factory.
  • 'Built' (बनाया) is similar to 'constructed' in meaning, but it is typically used for physical structures rather than abstract concepts like an estimate.
67

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Sailor

  2. ((b))

    Waitor

  3. ((c))

    Author 

  4. ((d))

    Actor

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Waitor

The incorrect word is: Waitor.

Key Points

  • The word 'Waitor' is not an English word. The correct spelling of this word is 'Waiter' (वेटर).
  • 'Waiter' refers to a person who serves customers in a restaurant or cafe.
  • Example: The waiter served the food promptly.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Waiter'.

Key Points

  • 'Sailor' (नाविक) is correctly spelt. It refers to a person who works on a ship, especially one who is not an officer.
  • 'Author' (लेखक) is correctly spelt. It refers to a person who writes books, stories, articles, etc.
  • 'Actor' (अभिनेता) is correctly spelt. It refers to a person whose profession is acting on the stage, in films, or on television.
68

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The artist was shocked ________ that somebody had scratched his painting _______ a knife.

  1. ((a))

    see, for

  2. ((b))

    to be seeing, from 

  3. ((c))

    to see, with

  4. ((d))

    seeing, by 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

to see, with

The correct answer is: to see, with.

Key Points

  • The infinitive form of a verb is the base form which is preceded by the word 'to'.
  • Example: 'to run', 'to play', 'to eat' are all examples of infinitive verbs.
  • In this question, the phrase "to see" is an infinitive verb. Using "to see" after verbs expressing feelings or emotions such as "shocked", "surprised", "happy", "sad," etc., is grammatically correct here.
  • In the phrase "shocked to see", "to see" is used as an infinitive to express the reason for the shock. The shock pertains to 'seeing' something.
  • Hence, 'to see' grammatically fits the context in the first blank.
  • The preposition "with" is commonly used to indicate the instrument or means by which some action is performed.
  • Example: The snake was killed with a stick.
  • In this question, the action was 'scratching', and the tool used was 'a knife'.
  • Using "with" in the context of this sentence provides the correct implication that the painting was scratched by means of a knife.
  • Hence, the correct preposition that must fit the blank should be 'with'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- The artist was shocked to see that somebody had scratched his painting with a knife.

69

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Our solar system is a part of the Milky Way galaxy

  1. ((a))

    cosmos

  2. ((b))

    No substitution required

  3. ((c))

    creation

  4. ((d))

    universe 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

No substitution required

The correct answer is "No substitution required"

Key Points

  • "Our solar system is a part of the Milky Way galaxy" is a scientifically accurate statement. Our solar system is indeed a part of the Milky Way galaxy. Substituting "Milky Way galaxy" with "cosmos", "creation" or "universe" would not maintain the same level of accuracy.
  • "Cosmos" and "universe" are broader terms than "Milky Way galaxy" and would therefore imply that our solar system is part of everything that exists, including space and celestial bodies, which is true but less specific.
  • "Creation" can mean many things and isn't specific to astronomical contexts, so it's not a suitable replacement here.
  • In the context of the sentence, no substitution is required because the original statement accurately represents the scope of our solar system's placement within the Milky Way galaxy.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

70

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Culture 

  2. ((b))

    Sculptur

  3. ((c))

    Murmur 

  4. ((d))

    Puncture

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sculptur

The correct answer is "Sculptur".

Key Points

  • "Culture", "Murmur", and "Puncture" are all spelled correctly, following standard English spelling.
  • The word "Sculptur" is not spelled correctly according to standard English spelling.
  • The correct spelling is "Sculpture", which refers to the artistic process of shaping or combining materials, often in the form of statues or other three-dimensional works.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

71

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Sarju sat next to her mother ________ her doll tightly in her arms.

  1. ((a))

    holding

  2. ((b))

    to hold

  3. ((c))

    held

  4. ((d))

    hold

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

holding

The correct answer is "holding".

Key Points

  • The sentence talks about an ongoing action that Sarju was doing (sitting next to her mother and holding her doll).
  • The verb form that represents an ongoing action in the present is the present participle, which in this case is "holding".
  • "To hold", "Held" and "Hold" do not correctly express the ongoing action discussed in the sentence.
  • "To hold" is an infinitive and implies an intention or future action, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • "Held" is in the past tense, whereas the sentence is in the present tense.
  • "Hold" is the base form of the verb, and it does not fit into the sentence's structure which is describing an ongoing event, not a command or suggestion.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

72

Select the sentence with correct punctuation and capitalisation.

  1. ((a))

    Well thats all I’ve got to say about Mars

  2. ((b))

    Well, that’s all I’ve got to say about Mars.

  3. ((c))

    Well, that’s all Ive got to say, about Mars. 

  4. ((d))

    “Well, that’s all I’ve got to say about mars?”

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Well, that’s all I’ve got to say about Mars.

The correct answer is “Well, that’s all I’ve got to say about Mars."

Key Points

  • 'Option 2' uses the correct format with appropriate punctuation and capitalization. It starts with a capital letter, has accurate usage of commas, and ends with a full stop.
  • 'Option 1' lacks the necessary punctuation marks such as comma after "Well" and the proper use of an apostrophe in the contraction "that's".
  • 'Option 3' incorrectly placed the comma after "say". Also, it lacks the correct usage of an apostrophe in "Ive".
  • 'Option 4' misuses the question mark in the statement. Also, proper nouns like 'Mars' should always be capitalized, and here lower-case 'mars?' is used.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

73

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

________ antique shop will be a good place to see old clocks.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    An

  3. ((c))

    The

  4. ((d))

    No word required

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

An

The correct answer is 'An'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence requires an article to precede the word 'antique shop'.
  • The rule is that 'a' precedes words that begin with a consonant sound, and 'an' precedes words starting with a vowel sound.
  • Since 'antique' begins with a vowel sound (the 'a' is pronounced as the letter), 'an' is the correct article to use, not 'a'.
  • 'An' is used when referring to any member of a group or category, not a specific one.
  • Hence, 'An' is the most suitable choice in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

  • 'Option 1', i.e. 'A', is incorrect because 'antique' starts with a vowel sound and 'a' is used before words that start with a consonant sound.
  • 'Option 3', i.e. 'The', could potentially be correct. We use 'the' when we think that the listener knows or can work out what particular person/thing we are talking about. However, in this context, there is not enough evidence to believe that we are talking about a specific antique shop known to both the speaker and the listener.
  • 'Option 4', i.e. 'No word required', is incorrect because noun phrases generally contain an article. Without an article, the sentence sounds incomplete or grammatically incorrect.
74

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word.

Absolute

  1. ((a))

    Yielding

  2. ((b))

    Limited

  3. ((c))

    Restricted

  4. ((d))

    Complete

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Complete

The correct answer is 'Complete'.

 

Key Points

  • 'Absolute' means something that is total, complete, or unrestricted in nature. (परम or सम्पूर्ण)
  • Example: She had absolute faith in her mentor's wisdom.
  • The correct word provided in the options is 'Complete'. The meaning of 'Complete' is to finish making or doing something, or something that is finished, whole, or perfect. (सम्पूर्ण or पूरा)
  • Example: She's been on a diet and exercise program, and the transformation is complete.
  • Hence, the correct synonym of 'Absolute' is 'Complete'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "Option 4".

 

Additional Information

  • 'Yielding' implies giving way under strain or being inclined to yield or comply. (किसी के सामने झुक जाना)
  • 'Limited' signifies something restricted in size, amount, or scope. (सीमित)
  • 'Restricted' means to be limited in extent, number, or scope. (प्रतिबंधित)
75

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

By and large

  1. ((a))

    At some future time

  2. ((b))

    Certainly

  3. ((c))

    On the contrary

  4. ((d))

    On the whole

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

On the whole

The correct answer is 'On the whole'.

 

Key Points

  • The given idiom is 'By and large'. The meaning of this idiom is generally or overall, considering all things.
  • Example: By and large, the project was successful in achieving its objectives.
  • The correct meaning provided in the options is 'On the whole'. This idiom is used when you are providing a summary or conclusion, and it generally suggests that everything has been considered.
  • Example: Despite some minor setbacks, the event was, on the whole, a success.
  • Hence, the correct meaning of 'By and large' is 'On the whole'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "Option 4".

 

Additional Information

  • 'At some future time' suggests something happening in the future and has no relation to the idiom in question.
  • 'Certainly' is a term used for emphasizing that something is definitely true or will definitely happen.
  • 'On the contrary' is used to introduce a statement that contradicts the one that has just been made.
76

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

My grandfather _________ for a morning walk everyday irrespective of the weather outside.

  1. ((a))

    go

  2. ((b))

    is going

  3. ((c))

    goes

  4. ((d))

    has gone

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

goes

The correct answer is 'goes'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence given is 'My grandfather _________ for a morning walk everyday irrespective of the weather outside.'
  • Here, a regular action is being talked about, which is the daily habit of the grandfather going for a walk. For such cases where a habit, a universal truth or something that happens often is being discussed, simple present tense is used.
  • The verb 'go' in its third person singular form becomes 'goes' which is the correct term to be used in this context.
  • Example: He goes to the gym every day for workout.
  • Hence, the correct phrase to fill in the blank is 'goes'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "Option 3".

 

Additional Information

  • 'Go' is the base form of the verb and it doesn't fit grammatically in the context of the sentence.
  • 'Is going' would signify that the action is happening right now, which is not the intended meaning in the context of the sentence.
  • 'Has gone' is used in present perfect tense to indicate an action that happened at an unspecified time before now. This doesn't suit the context of the sentence as well.
77

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

The whole story narrated by the girl was _______ (accurate).

  1. ((a))

    correct

  2. ((b))

    false

  3. ((c))

    strict

  4. ((d))

    just

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

false

The correct answer is 'False'.

Key Points

  • "Accurate" means "correct in all details; exact". ("सटीक").
  • For example, The accurate measurement of ingredients is crucial in baking.
  • "False" means "not according with truth or fact; incorrect". ("झूठा").
  • For example, The rumor that was spread about him was completely false.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

  • The word "Correct" means the same i.e., free from error; in accordance with the factual information. ("सही").
  • The word "Strict" means requiring or characterized by severe discipline or adherence to rules. ("कठोर").
  • The word "Just" means based on or behaving according to what is morally right and fair, or it can mean a moment ago. ("न्यायपूर्ण")
78

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. During that time she would forget all her work and listen with the greatest concentration.

B. Later, she could repeat the entire text by heart.

C. My grandmother never went to school so she could not read.

D. Every Wednesday, a magazine called Karmaveera would come, and I would read a story to her.

  1. ((a))

    ADBC

  2. ((b))

    DACB

  3. ((c))

    CBDA

  4. ((d))

    CDAB

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CDAB

The correct answer is "CDAB".

Key Points

  • "C." starts with an important piece of information about the grandmother, establishing that she never went to school and couldn't read.
  • "D." then provides context as to what happened given the grandmother's situation. This reveals the connection between the narrator (most likely a grandchild) and the grandmother via a weekly ritual of story-telling from a magazine called Karmaveera.
  • "A." elaborates on the grandmother's behavior during these story-telling sessions. It shows how engrossed she was in listening to the stories, indicating that she was learning and remembering them.
  • "B." is the logical conclusion, showing the result of this weekly engagement: the grandmother, even though she couldn't read, could repeat the entire text by heart after listening to it.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 4".

Correct Paragraph: "My grandmother never went to school so she could not read. Every Wednesday, a magazine called Karmaveera would come, and I would read a story to her. During that time she would forget all her work and listen with the greatest concentration. Later, she could repeat the entire text by heart."

79

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We took a break after we _______ for two days continuously.

  1. ((a))

    have worked

  2. ((b))

    worked

  3. ((c))

    had worked

  4. ((d))

    are working

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

had worked

The correct answer is 'had worked'.

Key Points

  • In this sentence, two past actions are mentioned - "we took a break" and "we worked for two days continuously".
  • When two actions occur in the past, the Past Perfect tense (had + past participle) is used for the action that happened first.
  • The Past Simple tense is used for the action that happened next.
  • So in this case, the sequence of actions is: first "we worked for two days continuously", and then "we took a break".
  • "Had worked" is in Past Perfect tense, indicating this action happened before another past action ("took a break").

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

80

Select the option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given proverb correctly. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Strike while the person is not ready.

  1. ((a))

    everything is cold

  2. ((b))

    everybody is resting 

  3. ((c))

    the iron is hot 

  4. ((d))

    No substitution required

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

the iron is hot 

The correct answer is 'the iron is hot'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "Strike while the iron is hot" is an idiomatic expression or proverb which means to make most of an opportunity while it is available or to act decisively and take an opportunity when it arises.
  • The phrase comes from the practice of blacksmithing.
  • The blacksmith heats the iron in the fire until it is red-hot and malleable, then strikes it with a hammer to shape it.
  • If they wait until the iron cools, it will no longer be malleable and much harder to work with.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 3".

General Studies (20 questions)

81

As per the ‘Climate Transparency Report’ of 2022, which of the following countries among the G20 countries suffered the highest loss to earnings from heat - related labour capacity? 

  1. ((a))

    India 

  2. ((b))

    Japan 

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia 

  4. ((d))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India 

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  According to the 'Climate Transparency Report' of 2022, India suffered the highest loss to earnings from heat-related labor capacity among the G20 countries. 

     The reasons for this could be attributed to several factors such as:

  • High temperatures: India experiences high temperatures, especially during the summer months, which can lead to heat stress among workers and affect their productivity.
  • Lack of infrastructure: Many workers in India do not have access to basic amenities such as air conditioning, which can exacerbate the impact of high temperatures on their health and productivity.
  • Agriculture-dependent economy: India's economy is heavily dependent on agriculture, which is a labor-intensive sector. Heat stress can significantly impact the productivity of farmers and other agricultural workers.
  • Poor working conditions: Many workers in India work in poor conditions, such as factories and construction sites, where they are exposed to high temperatures and humidity.

 Additional Information

  • The report is published annually by Climate Transparency, a global partnership of 14 climate research organisations and NGOs from the majority of G20 countries.
  • The eighth edition of the report was released in 2022.
82

As of October 2022, who is the Minister of Textiles? 

  1. ((a))

    Piyush Goyal 

  2. ((b))

    Smriti Zubin Irani 

  3. ((c))

    Arjun Munda

  4. ((d))

    Pralhad Joshi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Piyush Goyal 

The correct answer is Piyush Goyal.

 

 

Key Points

  • Piyush Goyal is the current Minister of Textiles and Commerce and Industry in the Government of India.
  • He was appointed as the Minister of Textiles in July 2021, replacing Smriti Zubin Irani.
  • Prior to this, he held the position of Minister of Railways and Coal.

Additional Information

  • Smriti Zubin Irani is the former Minister of Textiles in the Government of India.
  • She held the position from May 2017 to July 2021.
  • Currently she is the Minister of Woman and Child Development and Minister of Minority Affairs.
  • Prior to this, she was the Minister of Human Resource Development.
  • Arjun Munda is the current Minister of Tribal Affairs in the Government of India.
  • He has previously served as the Chief Minister of Jharkhand for three terms.
  • He has also been the President of the Jharkhand Olympic Association.
  • Pralhad Joshi is the current Minister of Parliamentary Affairs and Coal and Mines in the Government of India.
  • He has been a Member of Parliament from the Dharwad constituency in Karnataka since 2004.
  • Joshi is a member of the BJP and has held several positions in the party, including the President of the Karnataka unit.
<br>
83

Vide 61st amendment of Constitution of India, which of the following amendments was made?

  1. ((a))

    Attempt was made to reduce the powers of supreme Court and High Courts 

  2. ((b))

    The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 

  3. ((c))

    Fundamental duty was added

  4. ((d))

    Right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 

The correct answer is The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18.

 

Key Points

  • The 61st amendment of the Constitution of India was passed in 1989.
  • The amendment lowered the minimum voting age from 21 to 18 years.
  • This amendment was made to reflect the changing demographics of the country and to give young people a greater say in the democratic process.
  • The amendment was also seen as a way to encourage greater political participation among young people.

Additional Information

  • The addition of Fundamental Duties was made by the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India in 1976.
  • Right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights by Constitutional 44th Amendment act 1978 and a new chapter IV was added in Part XII, containing only one article 300A.
84

In October 2022, who was elected as the new chairman of Indian Bank’s Association?

  1. ((a))

    Aditya Puri 

  2. ((b))

    Atul Kumar Goel

  3. ((c))

    Aswani Bhatia 

  4. ((d))

    Vibha Padalkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Atul Kumar Goel

The correct answer is Atul Kumar Goel.

Key Points

  • Atul Kumar Goel was elected as the new chairman of Indian Bank's Association (IBA) in October 2022.
  • Prior to this, he was the Managing Director undefined CEO of UCO Bank.

Important Points

  • Indian Bank's Association (IBA) is the representative body of management of banking in India.
  • It has 249 members comprising of Public Sector Banks, Private Sector Banks, Foreign Banks having offices in India, Co-operative Banks, Regional Rural Banks and All India Financial Institutions.
  • It was formed on the September 26, 1946 with 22 members.

Additional Information

  • Aditya Puri is a renowned banker who retired as the Managing Director of HDFC Bank in 2020. He is not related to the Indian Bank's Association.
  • Aswani Bhatia is the Managing Director of State Bank of India. He is not related to the Indian Bank's Association.
  • Vibha Padalkar is the Managing Director and CEO of HDFC Life. She is not related to the Indian Bank's Association.
85

The famous king Pulakeshin II belonged to which of the following dynasties?

  1. ((a))

    Pandya dynasty 

  2. ((b))

    Pallava dynasty 

  3. ((c))

    Chalukya dynasty 

  4. ((d))

    Mauryan dynasty

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Chalukya dynasty 

The correct answer is Chalukya dynasty.

Key Points 

  • Pulakeshin II was one of the most famous kings of the Chalukya dynasty, which ruled large parts of southern and central India from the 6th to the 12th century CE.
  • He is particularly known for his military prowess and his successful campaigns against the Pallavas, another powerful dynasty that ruled parts of southern India at the time.
  • His reign is considered a golden age for the Chalukya dynasty, as he expanded its territories, patronized the arts and sciences, and established a stable and prosperous kingdom.
  • Some of the notable achievements of Pulakeshin II's reign include the construction of the impressive rock-cut temples at Badami and Aihole, which are still considered masterpieces of Indian architecture.

Additional Information

  • Pandya dynasty: The Pandyas were another ancient dynasty that ruled parts of southern India, particularly in the region of modern-day Tamil Nadu.
  • They were known for their maritime trade, literature, and architecture, but they did not have a significant presence in the Deccan region where the Chalukyas were based.
  • Pallava dynasty: The Pallavas were a powerful dynasty that ruled parts of southern India, particularly in the region of modern-day Tamil Nadu, in the 3rd to 9th century CE.
  • They were known for their patronage of the arts, particularly architecture and sculpture, and their conflict with the Chalukyas is well-documented in historical records.
  • Mauryan dynasty: The Mauryan dynasty was an ancient Indian dynasty that ruled most of the Indian subcontinent from the 3rd century BCE to the 2nd century BCE.
  • It was known for its military conquests, particularly under the reign of Emperor Ashoka, and its patronage of Buddhism.
  • However, the Mauryan dynasty had long ceased to exist by the time of Pulakeshin II, who lived in the 7th century CE.
86

In October 2022, which of the following political parties lost its three - decade - old poll symbol of the ‘bow and arrow’? 

  1. ((a))

    Bahujan Samaj Party 

  2. ((b))

    Communist Party of India 

  3. ((c))

    Shiv Sena

  4. ((d))

    National People's Party

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shiv Sena

The correct option is Shiv Sena.

 

Key Points

  • Shiv Sena, a regional political party in Maharashtra, lost its poll symbol of the 'bow and arrow' in October 2022.
  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) cancelled Shiv Sena's registration as a political party due to its failure to submit the required documents for renewal.
  • As a result, Shiv Sena was forced to contest the upcoming assembly elections in Maharashtra under a new symbol.

Important Points Shiv Sena:

  • Shiv Sena is a political party in India, primarily active in the state of Maharashtra.
  • It was founded on June 19, 1966 by Bal Thackeray.
  • The party has its roots in regional and Marathi identity politics.

Additional Information

  • Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) is a political party in India that primarily represents the interests of the Bahujan Samaj, which includes Dalits, Adivasis, and Other Backward Classes. BSP has not lost its poll symbol of the 'elephant' in recent times.
  • Communist Party of India (CPI) is a communist political party in India that was founded in 1925. CPI has not lost its poll symbol of the 'hammer and sickle' in recent times.
  • National People's Party (NPP) is a political party in India that primarily operates in the Northeastern states of the country. Its poll symbol of the 'book' in recent times.
87

According to Census of India 2011, what is the sex ratio in India? 

  1. ((a))

    944 females / 1000 males

  2. ((b))

    936 females / 1000 males 

  3. ((c))

    943 females / 1000 males

  4. ((d))

    948 females / 1000 males

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

943 females / 1000 males

The correct answer is  943 females / 1000 males.

 

Key Points

  • According to Census of India 2011, the sex ratio in India is 943 females / 1000 males.

Additional Information 

  • Sex ratio is the ratio of females to males in a population. It is an important indicator of gender balance in society.
  • A sex ratio of 943 females / 1000 males means that there are 943 females for every 1000 males in India.
  • This sex ratio is an improvement from the previous census of 2001, which reported a sex ratio of 933 females / 1000 males.
  • However, the sex ratio in India is still lower than the global average of 985 females / 1000 males.
  • The low sex ratio in India is a result of various factors such as female infanticide, selective abortion of female fetuses, and neglect of girls' health and education.
88

Who was the 49th Chief Justice of India? 

  1. ((a))

    Justice Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana

  2. ((b))

    Justice Uday Umesh Lalit 

  3. ((c))

    Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde

  4. ((d))

    Justice DY Chandrachud

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Justice Uday Umesh Lalit 

The correct answer is Justice Uday Umesh Lalit.

Key Points

  • Justice Uday Umesh Lalit was the 49th Chief Justice of India(CJI) having served from August 2022 to November 2022.

 Important Points

  • The CJI and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
  • Qualifications for being the CJI

      He/She should 

  • be a citizen of India.
  • have been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession or
  • have been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or
  • be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

  

Additional Information

  • Justice Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana was the 48th Chief Justice of India, having served from April 2021 to August 2022.
  • Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde was the 47th Chief Justice of India, having served from November 2019 to April 2021.
  • Justice DY Chandrachud is a current Chief Justice of India having assumed office on 9th November 2022.
89

In which year was the Tendulkar Committee appointed by the Government of India to take a fresh look at the poverty lines? 

  1. ((a))

    1991 

  2. ((b))

    1993

  3. ((c))

    1979 

  4. ((d))

    2005

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2005

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

  • Tendulkar Committee was appointed by the Government of India to re-examine the methodology of estimating poverty and measurement of poverty line in India.
  • The committee was headed by Suresh Tendulkar, an economist and former chairman of the Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Council.
  • The committee submitted its report in 2009, which led to a revision of the poverty line and an increase in the number of people considered poor in India.
  • The poverty line was revised from Rs. 32 per day in rural areas and Rs. 47 per day in urban areas to Rs. 33 per day in rural areas and Rs. 47 per day in urban areas.
  • The report also recommended a multidimensional approach to poverty measurement, which takes into account not only income but also access to basic amenities like education, healthcare, and sanitation.

 Additional Information

POVERTY MEASUREMENT IN INDIA:

  • Poverty can be defined as a condition in which an individual or household lacks the financial resources to afford a basic minimum standard of living.
  • India has a long history of studies on measurement of poverty. The erstwhile Planning Commission was the nodal agency in India for estimation of poverty.
  • Various expert groups constituted by the Planning Commission have estimated the number of people living in poverty in India:
  • Working Group (1962).
  • Study by VM Dandekar and N Rath (1971).
  • Task Force on “Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand” headed by Dr. Y. K. Alagh (1979).
  • Lakdawala Expert Group (1993): Headed by Professor D.T. Lakdawala.
  • Tendulkar Expert Group (2009): It was setup in 2005 and was headed by Suresh Tendulkar.
  • Rangrajan Committee (2014): It was set up in 2012 and was headed by Chakravarthi Rangarajan.
90

Ibrahim Khan Lodi's Tomb is situated near the tehsil office in _______.

  1. ((a))

    Charkhi DadrI

  2. ((b))

    Panipat

  3. ((c))

    Yamunanagar

  4. ((d))

    Kaithal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Panipat

The correct answer is Panipat.

Key Points

  • Ibrahim Khan Lodi was the last ruler of the Lodi dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, who ruled from 1517 to 1526.
  • He was defeated and killed by Babur in the Battle of Panipat in 1526, which marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
  • His Tomb is a historical monument located in Panipat, Haryana.
  • It was built in 1526-27 by his son Sikandar Lodi to commemorate his father's death.
  • The tomb is located near the tehsil office in Panipat, which is a government administrative center for the district.
  • The tomb is a fine example of Lodi architecture, with a square plan, a dome, and intricate stone carvings and decorations.

Additional Information

  • Charkhi Dadri is a city in the Bhiwani district of Haryana, located about 100 km southwest of Panipat.
  • It is known for its industrial and agricultural activities.
  • Yamunanagar is a city in the Yamunanagar district of Haryana, located about 80 km southeast of Panipat.
  • It is known for its plywood and paper industries.
  • Kaithal is a city in the Kaithal district of Haryana, located about 70 km northwest of Panipat.
  • It is known for its historical and religious significance, with several temples and gurudwaras.
91

In which year was the Micro Finance Institutions Network established as an industry association for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)? 

  1. ((a))

    2005 

  2. ((b))

    2011 

  3. ((c))

    2009 

  4. ((d))

    2014

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2009 

The correct answer is 2009.

Key Points

  • Micro Finance Institutions Network (MFIN) is an industry association for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) engaged in microfinance activities in India.
  • It was established in 2009 and is headquartered in New Delhi.
  • MFIN is a self-regulatory organization that promotes responsible lending, client protection, and transparency in microfinance institutions.
  • It also serves as a platform for industry-wide discussions, knowledge-sharing, and advocacy.

 Additional Information 

Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs):

  • According to RBI "A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property."
  • NBFC cannot accept demand deposits;
  • NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself
  • deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks.
92

Which of the following Acts was Introduced by the British Government in 1773?

  1. ((a))

    Regulating Act 

  2. ((b))

    Charter Act

  3. ((c))

    Pitt’s India Act 

  4. ((d))

    Government of India Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Regulating Act 

The correct answer is Regulating Act.

Key Points

The Regulating Act of 1773

  • It was introduced by the British government to regulate the affairs of the British East India Company in India.
  • The Act was passed in the aftermath of the Battle of Plassey and the subsequent establishment of British rule in India.
  • It aimed to address the issues of corruption, mismanagement, and abuse of power by the officials of the East India Company.
  • It provided for the appointment of a Governor-General of Bengal who would have powers over the other Presidencies and the Company's territories in India.
  • It also established a Supreme Court in Calcutta to administer justice and to check the arbitrary actions of the Company officials.

Additional Information 

  • The Charter Act of 1833 was a significant piece of legislation that abolished the East India Company's monopoly on trade with India and provided for the appointment of a Governor-General for the whole of India.
  • The Pitt's India Act of 1784 was introduced by William Pitt the Younger to regulate the affairs of the East India Company and to establish a Board of Control to oversee the Company's activities in India.
  • The Government of India Act of 1935 was a major constitutional reform that provided for the establishment of a federal system of government in India and gave a measure of autonomy to the provinces.
93

According to Census of India 2011, what is the male literacy rate in Bihar?

  1. ((a))

    66.76% 

  2. ((b))

    71.20% 

  3. ((c))

    68.54%

  4. ((d))

    75.23%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

71.20% 

The correct answer is 71.20%.

Key Points

  • According to Census of India 2011, Bihar is the third most populous state in India with a population of over 100 million people.
  • The state has a literacy rate of 61.80% according to the 2011 census.
  • The male literacy rate in Bihar has increased from 59.68 in 2001 to 71.2% in 2011, which is a significant improvement

Additional Information

  • The female literacy rate in Bihar is still very low at 51.50%, which is a major concern for the state.
  • 61.80% is the overall literacy rate in Bihar according to the 2011 census.
94

The Nubra and Hunza rivers are tributaries of which river? 

  1. ((a))

    Damodar 

  2. ((b))

    Yamuna 

  3. ((c))

    Indus 

  4. ((d))

    Chambal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Indus 

The correct answer  is Indus.

Key Points

  • The Indus River is one of the longest rivers in Asia streching for about 3200 kms, flowing through Pakistan, India, and China.
  • It is also known as the Sindhu River in India.
  • The Nubra River is a tributary of the Shyok River, which in turn is a tributary of the Indus River.
  • It flows through the Nubra Valley in the Ladakh region of India.
  • The Hunza River is a tributary of the Gilgit River, which also flows into the Indus River.
  • It originates in the Hunza Valley in northern Pakistan.
  • It originates from the Bokhar Chu glacier in the Tibetan Plateau.The glacier is located near Lake Mansarovar in the Great Himalayas
  • The Indus River is an important source of water for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation in the region, and supports a variety of flora and fauna.

Additional Information

  • The Damodar River is a tributary of the Hugli River, which flows into the Bay of Bengal. It is located in eastern India and is known for its high silt content and frequent flooding.
  • The Yamuna River is a major tributary of the Ganges River, which is the longest river in India. It flows through several states including Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana, and is considered sacred by Hindus.
  • The Chambal River is a tributary of the Yamuna River, and flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. It is known for its rugged and scenic landscape, and is home to a variety of wildlife including crocodiles and dolphins.
95

As per the Tinkathia system, the farmers of Champaran were under the obligation to cultivate three Kathas per beegha of his land with ____________.

  1. ((a))

    wheat 

  2. ((b))

    maize 

  3. ((c))

    rice 

  4. ((d))

    indigo

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

indigo

The correct answer is Indigo.

Key Points

  • The Tinkathia system was prevalent in Champaran district of Bihar during the British Raj.
  • It was a system of forced cultivation of indigo on a portion of the farmer's land in exchange for rent-free land for personal cultivation.
  • The farmers of Champaran were compelled to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land (i.e. three kathas per beegha) by the British planters who had leased the land from the local landlords.
  • Indigo was a cash crop grown for export by the British textile industry.
  • The farmers were not allowed to grow food crops on the indigo land, which caused great hardship and poverty among them.

Additional Information

  • The Tinkathia system was opposed by Mahatma Gandhi, who led a successful campaign of civil disobedience in Champaran in 1917know as Champaran Satyagrah.
  • This was the first satyagrah led by Gandhi in India and played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.
96

The Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from which of the following countries?

  1. ((a))

    Canada 

  2. ((b))

    The US 

  3. ((c))

    Australia 

  4. ((d))

    Britain

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The US 

The correct answer is The US.

Key Points

  • The Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, which guarantees civil liberties such as freedom of speech, religion, and equality before the law.
  • These Fundamental Rights were inspired by the Bill of Rights of the United States Constitution, which was adopted in 1791. The Indian Constitution borrowed heavily from the US Constitution, which is why it is often called a 'bag of borrowings.'
  • The Indian Constitution also drew inspiration from the Constitution of Ireland, which was adopted in 1937 and provided for fundamental rights and freedoms.
  • The Constitution of India also borrowed from the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1948.

Additional Information List of Borrowed Features of Indian Constitution :

Name of CountriesBorrowed Features of the Constitution
Britain1. Parliamentary government  2. Rule of Law  3. Legislative procedure  4. Single citizenship  5. Cabinet system  6. Prerogative writs  7. Parliamentary privileges  8. Bicameralism
Ireland1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Method of Election of the president 3. Members nomination to the Rajya Sabha by the President
Unites States of America1. Impeachment of the president 2. Functions of president and vicepresident 3. Removal of Supreme Court and High court judges 4. Fundamental Rights 5. Judicial review 6. Independence of judiciary 7. The preamble of the constitution
Canada1. Centrifugal form of federalism where the centre is stronger than the states. 2. Residuary powers vest with the centre 3. Centre appoints the Governors at the states 4. Advisory jurisdiction of the supreme court
Australia1. Concept of Concurrent list 2. Article 108 i.e. Joint sitting of the two houses 3. Freedom of trade and commerce
USSR (Now Russia)1. Fundamental duties 2. The ideals of justice (social, economic and political),  expressed in the Preamble.
France1. Concept of  “Republic” 2. Ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity(contained in the Preamble)
Germany1. Fundamental Rights are suspended during Emergency
South Africa1. Election of members of the Rajya Sabha 2. Amendment of the Constitution
Japan1. Concept of “procedure established by Law”
97

Where did Mahatma Gandhi join the Satyagraha against the high tax demands following the failure of peasants harvest in 1918? 

  1. ((a))

    Kheda 

  2. ((b))

    Champaran 

  3. ((c))

    Ahmedabad 

  4. ((d))

    Surat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kheda 

The correct answer is Kheda.

Key Points

  • Kheda is a district in the state of Gujarat, India. In 1918, the peasants of Kheda were facing a severe crop failure due to a famine-like situation.
  • The British colonial government demanded high taxes from them, which they were unable to pay.
  • Mahatma Gandhi, who was already leading a movement in Champaran, Bihar, decided to extend his support to the Kheda peasants and launched a Satyagraha (non-violent resistance) movement.
  • The Kheda Satyagraha achieved success when the British government, recognizing the widespread distress and the genuine grievances of the farmers, agreed to relax the tax collection and provide some relief.
  • It was also the time Gandhiji used Non-Cooperation as a weapon for the first time.

Additional Information

  • Champaran is a district in the state of Bihar, India. In 1917, the peasants of Champaran were forced to cultivate indigo by the British landlords, which resulted in their exploitation and oppression.
  • Mahatma Gandhi, who was then a young lawyer, was invited by a local leader to investigate the matter.
  • He stayed in Champaran for several months and organized a successful Satyagraha movement against the British landlords.
  • Here, for the first time in India, Gandhi used Civil Disobedience as tool for satyagraha.
  • Ahmedabad is a city in the state of Gujarat, India.
  • Mahatma Gandhi launched the struggle in Ahmedabad which involves industrial workers.
  • Hunger strike as a weapon was used for the first time by Gandhiji.
  • Surat is a city in the state of Gujarat, India. It was an important center of the Indian independence movement.
  • The INC(Indian National Congress) session of 1907 was held here under presidentship of Ras Bihari Ghose.
  • Congress broke in moderates led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale and extremists led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal. this event is know as Surat Split.
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98

Who led the bench of Supreme Court, which refused to hear a plea seeking a blanket ban on firecrackers? 

  1. ((a))

    S Abdul Nazeer 

  2. ((b))

    DY Chandrachud 

  3. ((c))

    Hemant Gupta

  4. ((d))

    UU Lalit

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

UU Lalit

The correct answer is UU Lalit.

Key Points

  • ​Uday Umesh Lalit was part of the bench along with Justices AK Sikri and SA Bobde. The bench refused to impose a complete ban on firecrackers but allowed the sale and manufacture of "green crackers" that have low emission levels.
  • The case was filed by a group of children seeking a complete ban on firecrackers due to the harmful effects of air and noise pollution on their health.
  • The Supreme Court's decision was based on a report submitted by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which stated that "green crackers" can reduce air and noise pollution by up to 30%. The report also recommended a time limit on bursting crackers during festivals.
  • The Supreme Court's decision was widely debated and criticized by environmental activists and health experts who argued that any amount of firecrackers can cause harm to the environment and public health.

​ 

Important Points

  • Uday Umesh Lalit is a judge in the Supreme Court of India.
  • He was appointed as a judge in August 2014.
  • He served as the 49th Chief justice of india from August 2022 to November 2022.

Additional Information

  • S Abdul Nazeer is a judge in the Supreme Court of India. He was appointed as a judge in February 2017.
  • DY Chandrachud is also a judge in the Supreme Court of India.
  • He was appointed as a judge in May 2016.
  • He is the current and 50th Chief Justice of India(CJI).
  • He was appointed as a CJI in November 2022.
  • Hemant Gupta is a Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court. He was appointed as a judge in the Punjab and Haryana High Court in 2002 and later transferred to the Patna High Court in 2016..
99

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to Fundamental Duties?

  1. ((a))

    Article 112

  2. ((b))

    Article 78 

  3. ((c))

    Article 23 

  4. ((d))

    Article 51A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Article 51A

The correct answer is Article 51A.

Key Points 

  • Article 51A of the Indian Constitution specifies the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India.
  • These duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • There are 11 Fundamental Duties listed in Article 51A, which are aimed at promoting a sense of discipline, patriotism, and social responsibility among citizens.
  • Some of the important Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, national flag, and national anthem, promoting harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood, protecting the natural environment, and striving towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Important Points

  • .It is important to note that while the Fundamental Rights are justiciable, i.e., citizens can approach the courts if their rights are violated, the Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by law

  

Additional Information

  • Article 112 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Annual Financial Statement, i.e., the Union Budget presented by the Finance Minister in the Parliament.
  • Article 78 of the Indian Constitution deals with the duties of the Prime Minister, including the allocation of business to Ministers, the furnishing of information to the President, and the communication between the President and the Council of Ministers.
  • Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor, and provides for the punishment of offenses related to these practices.
100

In August 2022, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the pedestrian - only Atal Bridge on Sabarmati river in which state? 

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat 

  2. ((b))

    Haryana 

  3. ((c))

    Punjab 

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat 

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Atal Bridge is named after former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
  • The bridge is 1.4 km long and has a width of 22.8 meters.
  • It connects the eastern and western parts of Ahmedabad city, making it easier for people to commute.
  • The bridge is expected to ease traffic congestion and reduce travel time for commuters.

 Additional Information Sabarmati River:

  • The Sabarmati River is one of the major west-flowing rivers in the Indian state of Gujarat and Rajasthan.
  • It originates in the Aravalli Range near Udaipur in Rajasthan and flows southwest through Gujarat before emptying into the Gulf of Khambhat, which is an inlet of the Arabian Sea.
  • Some of the major dams on this river are the Dharoi Dam and the Hathmati Dam.

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