IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper (Held On: 24 March, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 2022.

Key Points

• The National Air Sports Policy was launched in 2022.
• National Air Sports Policy is a policy framework developed by the government to promote and regulate air sports activities in the country.
• The policy aims to provide a conducive environment for the growth of air sports in India and to make it accessible to a wider audience.

Additional Information

• The new National Air Sports Policy calls for a four-tiered governance system for air sports in India, which is as follows:
• The highest regulating organization is the Air Sports Federation of India (ASFI).
• National organizations for a particular air sport or group of related activities, as applicable.
• Units of the national air sports associations at the regional (West, South, North East, etc.) or state and union territory level, where applicable.
• air sports associations at the district level, when applicable.
• 2019 is the year when the Ministry of Civil Aviation released the Draft National Air Transport Policy, which is a different policy altogether.
• 2020 is the year when the Ministry of Civil Aviation released the Drone Rules, 2020, which is also a different policy from the National Air Sports Policy.

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi scheme provides a benefit of Rs. 6,000 per annum per family to landholder farmer families with total cultivable holding up to 2 hectares.
• The benefit is payable in three equal instalments of Rs. 2,000 every four months.
• The scheme aims to provide income support to small and marginal farmers.
• The scheme is implemented by the **Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.**​

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana is a pension scheme for small and marginal farmers.
• Under this scheme, an assured pension of Rs. 3,000 per month is provided.
• Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana is a scheme for promoting irrigation and water conservation.
• Its objective is to create protective irrigation by micro-harvesting rainwater through "Jal Sanchay" and "Jal Sinchan".
• Subsidies are another way to encourage microirrigation and guarantee "Per drop-More crop".
• Pradhan Mantri Agriculture Fund is a fund for supporting agriculture and allied sectors.

The correct answer is Baking soda.

Key Points

• Sodium hydrogencarbonate is also known as baking soda.
• Baking soda is a white crystalline powder that is commonly used as a leavening agent in baking.
• It is also used for cleaning and as a natural deodorizer.

Additional Information

• Washing soda is also known as sodium carbonate.
• It is a white powder that is used for laundry and cleaning.
• Plaster of Paris is a white powder that hardens when mixed with water.
• It is commonly used for casting and molding.
• Bleaching powder is also known as calcium hypochlorite.
• It is a white powder that is used for disinfecting and bleaching.

The correct answer is CO.

Key Points

• Greenhouse gases are those gases that trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere and contribute to global warming.
• CO₂ (carbon dioxide), CH₄ (methane), and NO₂ (nitrous oxide) are all greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming.
• CO (carbon monoxide) is not considered a greenhouse gas because it does not trap heat in the atmosphere.CO is a colorless and odorless gas.
• CO is a toxic gas that is produced by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass.
• It is toxic to humans and animals because it binds to hemoglobin in the blood, preventing oxygen from being transported to the body's tissues.
• Exposure to high levels of CO can be fatal, and even low levels of exposure can cause headaches, dizziness, and nausea.

Additional Information

• CH₄ (methane) is a potent greenhouse gas that is produced by natural sources like wetlands and by human activities like livestock farming and oil and gas extraction.
• NO₂ (nitrous oxide) is a greenhouse gas that is produced by natural sources like soil and by human activities like agriculture and transportation.
• It is also a potent contributor to the depletion of the ozone layer.
• CO₂ (carbon dioxide) is the most well-known greenhouse gas and is produced by natural sources like respiration and by human activities like burning fossil fuels and deforestation.
• It is the largest contributor to global warming and climate change.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam has a direct reference in Silappatikaram, where it is mentioned as one of the dance forms performed by the courtesans in the court of the Pandya king.
• The epic also describes the various elements of Bharatanatyam, such as the mudras (hand gestures) and abhinaya (facial expressions).
• Silappatikaram is one of the five great epics of Tamil Literature, which was written in the 2nd century CE by a Jain monk named Ilango Adigal.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form that originated in the temples of Tamil Nadu and has been practiced for centuries.
• It is known for its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and expressive gestures.
• Kuchipudi is another classical dance form that originated in Andhra Pradesh and is known for its fast-paced footwork and dramatic storytelling.
• Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form of Kerala that is known for its fluid movements and graceful expressions.
• Kathak is a classical dance form of North India that is known for its complex footwork and intricate hand gestures.

The correct answer is Methanoic acid.

Key Points

• Methanoic acid is also known as formic acid and is not commonly found in fruits or vegetables.
• It is primarily used in the production of leather, textiles, and rubber.
• In animal feed, it is frequently utilized as an antimicrobial and preservative.

Additional Information

• Citric acid is found in citrus fruits such as lemons, limes, and oranges.
• It is commonly used as a flavoring agent in food and beverages.
• Oxalic acid is found in certain vegetables such as spinach, rhubarb, and beet greens.
• It can also be found in cocoa, nuts, and tea.
• High levels of oxalic acid consumption can lead to kidney stones.
• Tartaric acid is found in grapes.
• It is commonly used as a flavoring agent in wines and other food and beverage products.

The correct answer is Suwa Dance.

Key Points

• Suwa Dance is a popular folk dance of Chhattisgarh, which is also known as "Parrot Dance" because of the way dancers imitate the movements of parrots.
• This dance is performed by the tribal communities of Chhattisgarh during the festival of Hareli, which marks the beginning of the agricultural season.
• The dancers wear colorful costumes and headgear that resemble the feathers of parrots, and they move in a circular formation while flapping their arms and making chirping sounds.

Additional Information

• Kaksar Dance is another folk dance of Chhattisgarh, which is performed by the Yadava community during the festival of Diwali.
• The dancers wear colorful costumes and carry sticks, which they use to create rhythmic beats while dancing.
• Raut Nacha is a folk dance of Chhattisgarh that is performed by the Yadava and Gond communities during the festival of Kartik Poornima.
• The dancers wear elaborate costumes and headgear, and they perform acrobatic feats while dancing.
• Karma Dance is a tribal dance of Chhattisgarh, which is performed by the Oraon and Gond communities during the festival of Karma.
• The dancers wear colorful costumes and carry decorated sticks, which they use to create rhythmic beats while dancing.

The correct answer is NaHCO3.

Key Points

• The chemical formula of baking soda is NaHCO₃, which means that it is composed of sodium (Na), hydrogen (H), carbon (C), and oxygen (O).
• Baking soda is commonly used in cooking and baking as a leavening agent, which means that it helps doughs and batters rise by releasing carbon dioxide gas when it reacts with an acid.
• When it comes to cleaning and odor neutralization, this everyday essential excels.
• It can be used to remove stubborn stains, get rid of unpleasant smells, and clean hard-to-reach places like tile grout and the oven.

Additional Information

• Na₂SO₄ is the chemical formula for sodium sulfate, which is a white, crystalline compound.
• It is used in detergents, textiles, and paper production.
• Na₂CO₃ is the chemical formula for sodium carbonate.
• It is used in the production of glass, soaps, and detergents.

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

• Buland Darwaza is a monumental gateway located at the entrance of the Jama Masjid mosque in Fatehpur Sikri, a city built by the Mughal emperor Akbar in the 16th century.
• The name Buland Darwaza means "high gateway" in Persian, and it was built to commemorate Akbar's victory over the kingdom of Gujarat in 1573.
• The gateway is made of red sandstone and decorated with intricate carvings and inscriptions from the Quran.

Additional Information

• Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal emperor and ruled from 1658 to 1707.
• He is known for his conservative policies and his conflicts with the Hindu majority population.
• Jahangir was the fourth Mughal emperor and ruled from 1605 to 1627.
• He is known for his patronage of the arts and his love for his wife Nur Jahan.
• Humayun was the second Mughal emperor and ruled from 1530 to 1540 and from 1555 to 1556.
• He is known for his military campaigns and his eventual restoration to the throne by his Persian allies.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• Maharashtra won a total of 140 medals at the 36th National Games 2022.
• After placing second in the medal count with the most medals among States and UTs, Maharashtra was awarded the Indian Olympic Association's Best State trophy.
• For the fourth time in a row, the hybrid contingent of Services has been awarded the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy.
• The National Games is a multi-sport event held every two years in India, with athletes from all states and union territories participating.

Additional Information

• From September 29, 2022, to October 12, 2022, Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, and Bhavnagar in the state of Gujarat hosted the 36th edition of the National Games of India.
• During these games, the recently formed union territories of Ladakh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu participated in their first-ever National Games.
• "Celebrating unity through sports" wass the official motto for the games.
• Savaj the Asian Lion was the game's mascot.

The correct answer is Aashwasan.

Key Points

• Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis that mainly affects the lungs, but can also affect other parts of the body.
• According to the World Health Organization (WHO), India has the highest burden of TB globally, with an estimated 2.6 million cases in 2020.
• The campaign Aashwasan was launched to address the issue of TB in tribal areas of India, where the disease is more prevalent due to various factors such as poverty, malnutrition, and poor living conditions.
• The campaign aims to reach out to the tribal population and encourage them to get screened for TB, as well as provide them with access to free treatment and care.

Additional Information

• Compared to the national average of 256 cases per 100,000, the projected TB prevalence in tribal areas is 703 cases per 100,000.
• In spite of this, just 10.4% of all TB patients who were notified are from indigenous communities.
• Aashwasan is a 100-day collaborative effort to address TB across all of India's tribal districts and COVID-19 and ACF.

The correct answer is Montreal Protocol.

Key Points

• The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty signed in 1987 to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
• Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) compounds are one of the most common ODS and were widely used in refrigeration, air conditioning, and aerosol sprays.
• The treaty was successful in reducing the production and consumption of ODS, and as a result, the ozone layer is gradually recovering.

Additional Information

• The Vienna Convention is an international treaty signed in 1985 to protect the ozone layer.
• An international agreement to cut greenhouse gas emissions is known as the Kyoto Protocol.
• The six greenhouse gases covered by the Kyoto Protocol are sulfur hexafluoride, hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, methane, and carbon dioxide.
• An worldwide agreement on climate change is known as the Paris Agreement.
• The agreement, which was adopted in 2015, addresses financing, adaptation, and mitigation of climate change.

The correct answer is 2021.

Key Points

• The National Vehicle Scrappage Policy was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 15th March 2021.
• The policy aims to phase out old and polluting vehicles and encourage the adoption of newer and more environment-friendly vehicles.
• Under the policy, commercial vehicles older than 15 years and private vehicles older than 20 years will be required to undergo a fitness test. Vehicles that fail the test will be scrapped.
• The policy also offers incentives for scrapping old vehicles and purchasing new ones.
• These incentives include waivers on road tax and registration fees, discounts on purchase of new vehicles, and reduced interest rates on loans for new vehicles.

Additional Information

• Some of the key takeaways of the vehicle scrappage scheme:
• Eliminate pollution by discarding automobiles that lack proper registration and fitness.
• Boost traffic, passenger, and vehicle safety.
• Provide jobs in the automotive sector.
• formally establish the current unregulated car scrappage market.
• Boost fuel economy and save car owners' maintenance expenses.
• Boost the supply of affordable raw materials for the steel, electronics, and automobile industries.

The correct answer is father of Carnatic Music.

Key Points

• Purandara Dasa is popularly known as the father of Carnatic Music.
• Purandara Dasa was a composer and musician who lived in the 16th century in present-day Karnataka, India.
• He is believed to have composed over 4,75,000 songs in Kannada and Sanskrit, many of which are still popular today.
• Purandara Dasa is credited with creating the basic structure of Carnatic music as we know it today.
• He is said to have systematized the teaching of music by introducing a set of fundamental exercises (alankaras) and compositions (geetas).
• Purandara Dasa's contributions to Carnatic music go beyond just its technical aspects.
• He is known for incorporating devotional themes and social messages in his compositions, making them accessible to people from all walks of life.
• Purandara Dasa's legacy continues to live on in the form of the annual Purandara Dasa Aradhana, a music festival held in his honor in Bangalore.
• The festival attracts musicians and music lovers from all over the world.

Additional Information

• Father of Hindustani Music:
• ​This title is often attributed to Amir Khusro, a musician and poet who lived in the 13th century.
• Khusro is credited with fusing Persian and Indian musical traditions to create a new style of music that came to be known as Hindustani music.
• Father of Kuchipudi: 
• This title is often attributed to Tirtha Narayanayati, a 17th-century Telugu poet and scholar who is said to have codified the dance form of Kuchipudi.
• Father of theatre art:
• ​This title is often attributed to Bharata Muni, an ancient Indian sage who is believed to have written the Natyashastra, a treatise on the performing arts that covers everything from dance to music to stagecraft.

The correct answer is Sodium hydroxide.

Key Points

• A base is a substance that can accept hydrogen ions (H+) and has a pH value greater than 7.
• The strength of a base is determined by its ability to accept H+ ions.
• The stronger the base, the more readily it accepts H+ ions.
• Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base because it completely dissociates in water to form sodium ions (Na+) and hydroxide ions (OH-).
• The hydroxide ions readily accept H+ ions from the solution, making the solution more basic.

Additional Information

• Barium hydroxide (Ba(OH)₂) is also a strong base, but it is not as strong as sodium hydroxide.
• It dissociates partially in water, forming barium ions (Ba2+) and hydroxide ions (OH-).
• Ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH) is a weak base because it does not completely dissociate in water.
• It forms a small amount of ammonium ions (NH4+) and hydroxide ions (OH-).
• Aluminum hydroxide (Al(OH)₃) is also a weak base and is often used in antacids as it reacts with stomach acid to neutralize it.
• It forms a small amount of aluminum ions (Al3+) and hydroxide ions (OH-).

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• Namami Gange Programme was launched in 2014 as an Integrated Conservation Mission to clean and rejuvenate the River Ganga and its tributaries.
• The programme was approved as a Flagship Programme by the Union Government of India with a budget of Rs 20,000 crore for a period of five years.
• The main objectives of the programme include improving the water quality of River Ganga, conserving and rejuvenating its aquatic life, and providing sustainable sanitation and waste management practices.
• The programme also aims to promote eco-tourism and sustainable livelihood opportunities for the local communities living along the river.

Additional Information

• All of the drains in the holy and historic city of Ayodhya that flow into the Saryu River are being tapped as part of the Namami Gange Programme, and tainted water is being sent to a sewage treatment facility.
• CGanga is in charge of Namami Gange's research branch.
• It was founded under the sponsorship of IIT Kanpur.

The correct answer is Arctic Ocean.

Key Points

• Arctic Ocean is where an international team of researchers found that acidity levels in the western region are raising 3 to 4 times faster than any other oceans across the world as of 2022.
• The acidity level in the Arctic Ocean has increased by around 30% since the beginning of the industrial era, which is faster than any other ocean in the world.
• This increase in acidity is due to the absorption of carbon dioxide emitted by human activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation, which reacts with seawater to form carbonic acid.
• The increasing acidity level in the Arctic Ocean is a major concern for marine life as it can harm the growth and development of shell-forming creatures like corals, oysters, and clams.

Additional Information

• While the Atlantic Ocean is also affected by ocean acidification, the rate of change is not as high as the Arctic Ocean.
• The Indian Ocean has a lower rate of ocean acidification compared to the Arctic Ocean, although the exact rate of change is still being studied.
• The Pacific Ocean is also affected by ocean acidification, but the rate of change varies across different regions of the ocean.

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra is a javelin thrower from India who won the gold medal at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics.
• He won the prestigious Zurich Diamond League Final 2022 with a throw of 88.07m, which is his personal best and also the best throw of the year.

Additional Information

• Sakshi Malik is a wrestler who won a bronze medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics.
• Bajrang Punia is a wrestler who has won medals at the World Championships, Asian Games, and Commonwealth Games.
• P V Sindhu is a badminton player who won a silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics and a bronze medal at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics.
• After winning the gold medal at the World Athletics Championships, Neeraj Chopra placed second in the Zurich Diamond League 2023, trailing only Jakub Vadlejch of the Czech Republic with a best attempt of 85.71 meters.

The correct answer is uracil.

Key Points

• Adenine pairs with Uracil in RNA of humans.
• Adenine is one of the four nitrogenous bases found in RNA and DNA.
• Uracil is a nitrogenous base found in RNA, which replaces thymine found in DNA.

Additional Information

• Guanine is another nitrogenous base found in RNA and DNA, which pairs with cytosine.
• Thymine is a nitrogenous base found only in DNA, which pairs with adenine.
• As one of the nitrogenous bases that codes for the genetic information these molecules carry, cysteine plays a significant role in the synthesis of DNA and RNA.
• RNA (Ribonucleic acid) is a type of nucleic acid that carries genetic information from DNA and participates in protein synthesis.
• The molecule that contains the genetic information necessary for an organism's growth and operation is called deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA.

The correct answer is Charumathi Ramachandran.

Key Points

• The trinity of Carnatic music refers to three legendary composers who contributed significantly to the development of the genre.
• They are considered as the pillars of Carnatic music.
• Muthuswami Dikshitar, Tyagaraja, and Shyama Shastri are the three composers who are usually referred to as the trinity of Carnatic music.
• Charumathi Ramachandran is not considered as the trinity of Carnatic music.
• Singer Charumathi Ramachandran performs Carnatic music.
• She was among the first vocalists to use Hindustani forms in their carnatic repertoire.

Additional Information

• Muthuswami Dikshitar was a Tamil composer who lived during the 18th century.
• He is known for his compositions in Sanskrit and his use of complex talas.
• Tyagaraja was a Telugu composer who lived during the 18th century.
• He is known for his compositions in Telugu and his emphasis on bhakti or devotion.
• Shyama Shastri was also a Telugu composer who lived during the 18th century.
• He is known for his compositions in Telugu and his focus on raga and improvisation.

Shortcut Trick

Time to complete full work: A = 5 × 3 = 15 days, (A + B) = 6 × (3/2) = 9 days.

Total work = LCM(15, 9) = 45 units.

Efficiency: A = 45 ÷ 15 = 3 units/day, (A + B) = 45 ÷ 9 = 5 units/day.

Efficiency of B = 5 − 3 = 2 units/day.

Time taken by B alone = 45 ÷ 2 = 22.5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 22.5 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ A completes 1/3 of the work in 5 days.

⇒ Remaining work = 1 − 1/3 = 2/3.

⇒ A and B together complete the remaining 2/3 of the work in 6 days.

Calculations:

⇒ Time taken by A alone for the whole work = 5 × 3 = 15 days.

⇒ Time taken by (A + B) together for the whole work = 6 × (3/2) = 9 days.

⇒ Let the total work be the LCM of 15 and 9.

⇒ Efficiency of B = Efficiency of (A + B) − Efficiency of A

⇒ Efficiency of B = 5 − 3 = 2 units/day.

⇒ Time taken by B alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of B

⇒ Time taken by B alone = 45 ÷ 2 = 22.5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 22.5 days.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns

It operates on the same logic as Time and Work. Inlet pipes have positive efficiency (filling), and outlet pipes or leaks have negative efficiency (emptying).

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the exact ratio of the actual work completed by each person. If everyone works for the same number of days, the wages are divided in the ratio of their efficiencies.

Alternate Day Work

Find the total work done in a complete cycle of days (for example, 2 days if two people are alternating). Multiply the cycle to get as close to the total work as possible, and calculate the remaining work for the next turns manually.

Shortcut Trick

For a shopkeeper, the best offer is the one with the minimum discount percentage.

Scheme 1: 1 ÷ (2+1) × 100 = 33.33%

Scheme 2: 2 ÷ (3+2) × 100 = 40.00%

Scheme 3: 5 ÷ (3+5) × 100 = 62.50%

The lowest discount (33.33%) is in Scheme 1, making it the best for the shopkeeper.

∴ The correct answer is Scheme 1.

Alternate Method

Given:

Scheme 1: Buy 2 get 1 free (Paid = 2, Free = 1)

Scheme 2: Buy 3 get 2 free (Paid = 3, Free = 2)

Scheme 3: Buy 3 get 5 free (Paid = 3, Free = 5)

Formula Used:

Discount % = [Free Items ÷ (Paid Items + Free Items)] × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Discount % for Scheme 1 = [1 ÷ (2 + 1)] × 100 = [1 ÷ 3] × 100 = 33.33%

⇒ Discount % for Scheme 2 = [2 ÷ (3 + 2)] × 100 = [2 ÷ 5] × 100 = 40%

⇒ Discount % for Scheme 3 = [5 ÷ (3 + 5)] × 100 = [5 ÷ 8] × 100 = 62.5%

From the shopkeeper's perspective, an offer is better if he gives a lower discount to the customers.

Comparing 33.33%, 40%, and 62.5%, the minimum value is 33.33%.

∴ The correct answer is Scheme 1.

Additional Information

Discount in Buy X Get Y Free

The effective discount percentage is always calculated on the total number of items (Paid + Free). Formula: Discount % = [Y ÷ (X + Y)] × 100.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts a% and b% are given successively, the net discount is [a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100]%.

Shopkeeper vs. Customer Perspective

A customer always looks for the Maximum Discount %, whereas a shopkeeper prefers the Minimum Discount % to maximize his revenue per item sold.

Given:

Distance = 30 km

Amit's time is 2 hours more than Sameer's time.

Amit's time with double speed is 1 hour less than Sameer's time.

Concept used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let, Sameeer's speed = s km/hr

Sameer's required time = 30/s hr

According to the question,

Amit's required time = 30/s + 2 = (30 + 2s)s hr

So, Amit's speed = 30 ÷ (30 + 2s)/s = 30s/(30 + 2s) km/hr

30 ÷ (2 × 30s/(30 + 2s)) = 30/s - 1

⇒  30 ÷ 60s/(30 + 2s) = (30 - s)/s

⇒ (30 + 2s)/2s = (30 - s)/s

⇒ s × (30 + 2s) = 2s × (30 - s)

⇒ 30s + 2s² = 60s - 2s2

⇒ 4s²  = 30s

⇒ s = 7.5 km/hr

So, Amit's speed = (30 × 7.5)/(30 + 2 × 7.5) = 5 km/hr

∴ Amit's original speed is 5 km/hr.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of the two numbers = 20% : 12% = 5 : 3.

Difference in ratio units = 5 − 3 = 2 units.

Value of 2 units = 760.

Value of 1 unit = 760 ÷ 2 = 380.

Greater number (5 units) = 5 × 380 = 1900.

∴ The correct answer is 1900.

Alternate Method

Given: Difference between numbers = 760, 12% of first number = 20% of second number.

⇒ Let the greater number be x and the smaller number be y.

⇒ According to the question: 12% of x = 20% of y

⇒ (12 ÷ 100) × x = (20 ÷ 100) × y

⇒ x ÷ y = 20 ÷ 12

⇒ x ÷ y = 5 ÷ 3

⇒ Let x = 5k and y = 3k

⇒ Difference: x − y = 760

⇒ 5k − 3k = 760

⇒ 2k = 760

⇒ k = 380

⇒ Greater number (x) = 5 × 380 = 1900.

∴ The correct answer is 1900.

Additional Information

Percentage Equality Rule

If a% of A = b% of B, then the ratio of the numbers is A : B = b : a. This is an inverse relationship between the percentage and the value.

Ratio and Difference

If two quantities are in the ratio m : n, and their difference is D, then the value of 1 unit is D ÷ (m − n). The values are (m × 1 unit) and (n × 1 unit).

Percentage Change

To find a number from its percentage, multiply the total by (percentage ÷ 100). To convert a fraction to a percentage, multiply by 100.

Formula Used:

The sum of terms in an arithmetic series = ${n \over 2}(a + l)$

where, a = first term and l = last term

Calculation:

LCM of (2, 3 and 4) = 12

⇒ The list of two-digit numbers which are divisible by 2, 3, and 4 are the multiples of 12

Thus, the two-digit numbers = 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96.

Here, the total number of terms = 8

Now, the sum of the series = ${n \over 2}(a + l)$

⇒ ${8 \over 2}(12 + 96)$

⇒ 4(108) = 432

Hence, the correct answer is 432.

Additional Information

When there are so many terms that cannot be counted manually, then there is a direct formula to find the number of terms.

t_n = a + (n - 1)d

where, t_n = last term, a = first term, n = number of term, d = common difference.

Mistake Points1. The above formula is applicable when there is an AP series i.e., when the difference is the same between the terms.

2. Also, the AP should be in ascending order
3. This formula is applicable only when the first term and the last term are given.

Calculation:

At time = 1 year, the compound interest and simple interest are equal.

Let the principal be 100a

Let the rate be 10% 

Then for 1 year, CI = P[(1 + R/100)¹ - 1]

100a[(1 + 10/100) - 1]

100a[(1 + 1/10) - 1]

100a(1/10) = 10a      ......(1)

Now, for 1 year, SI = PRT/100

(100a × 10 × 1)/100 = 10a      ......(2)

From eq (1) and (2), we can say that at time = 1 year, CI and SI are equal.

Hence, the correct answer is 1 year.

Given:

a/b = 2/3 and b/c = 4/5

Calculation:

a/b = 2/3 ⇒b = 3a/2

b/c = 4/5 ⇒c = 5b/4

Now, (a + b) / (b + c) =  (a + 3a/2) / (3a/2 + 5b/4) 

⇒ (a + b) / (b + c) = (a + 3a/2) / (3a/2 + 15a/8)

⇒ (a + b) / (b + c) = (5a/2)/(27a/8)

⇒ (a + b) / (b + c) = (5a/2) × (8/27a)

⇒ (a + b) / (b + c) = 20/27

∴ (a+b)/(b+c) = 20/27.

Concept used:

Average = Sum of observations/total number of observations

Calculation:

Let's denote the five consecutive even numbers as (x+8, x+6, x+4, x+2, x), where x is the smallest number.

Sum = 5x + 20.

As 6, 8, and 10 are added to the first, second, and third numbers, respectively, and 13 is added to each of the last two numbers.

So new numbers are: (x+8+6, x+6+8, x+4+10, x+2+13, x+13).

New Sum = 5x + 70

According to the question:

⇒ (5x + 70) = 120/100 × (5x + 20)

⇒ 5x + 70 = 6x + 24

x = 46.

The numbers will be : 54, 52, 50, 48, 46.

The middle three number will be 52, 50, and 48,

Average = (52 + 50 + 48)/3 = 50

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

In any triangle, the sum of interior angles is 180°.

Total area grazed = Area of a sector with total angle 180° and radius 7 m.

Total Area = (180°/360°) × π × r² = (1/2) × (22/7) × 7 × 7

Total Area = 11 × 7 = 77 m².

∴ The correct answer is 77 m².

Alternate Method

Given:

Shape of the field = Equilateral Triangle

Side of the triangle (s) ≥ 14 m

Length of the rope (radius, r) = 7 m

Interior angle of an equilateral triangle (θ) = 60°

Formula Used:

Area of a sector = (θ/360°) × πr²

Total Area grazed by 3 horses = 3 × [(θ/360°) × πr²]

Calculations:

⇒ Total Area = 3 × [(60/360) × (22/7) × 7²]

⇒ Total Area = 3 × [(1/6) × (22/7) × 49]

⇒ Total Area = (1/2) × 22 × 7

⇒ Total Area = 11 × 7

⇒ Total Area = 77 m²

∴ The correct answer is 77 m².

Additional Information

Area of Equilateral Triangle

The area of an equilateral triangle with side 'a' is given by (√3/4) × a².

Sum of Interior Angles

For any polygon with 'n' sides, the sum of interior angles is (n − 2) × 180°.

Non-overlapping Condition

The grazed sectors will not overlap if the side of the triangle is at least twice the length of the rope (Side ≥ 2r).

Given:

Number of terms = 49

First term = 51

Last term = 99

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of observations) / (Number of observations)

Sum of n terms in AP = (n/2)[a + l]

Where, AP = Arithmetic progression,

n = number of terms, a = first term

and l = last term

Calculation:

Total number b/w 50 & 100 = 49

Therefore, 

a = 51, l = 99, n = 49

Sum = (49/2)[51 + 99]

⇒ Sum = (49/2) × 150

⇒ Sum = 3675

Average = Sum / Number of terms

⇒ Average = 3675 / 49

⇒ Average = 75

∴ The average of all natural numbers lying between 50 and 100 is 75.

Given:

Ratio of milk and water in mixture = 3 : 2 

The initial quantity of mixture = 13 L

Quantity of mixture replaced = 3 L

Concept used:

While removing some quantity of mixture from a mixture,

The ratio of things present in the mixture remains same.

Calculation:

Mixture remaining after removal of 3 L = 13 - 3 = 10 L

So, quantity of milk = 3/5 × 10 = 6 L

And, quantity of water = 2/5 × 10 = 4 L

Now, quantity of milk after adding 3 L milk = 6 + 3 = 9 L

⇒ Milk :  Water = 9 : 4

∴ Ratio of Milk and water in newly formed mixture is 9 : 4

Shortcut Trick

Total Area of metallic sheet = Total Surface Area (TSA) of the closed cylinder.

TSA = 2 × π × r × (r + h)

TSA = 2 × (22/7) × 14 × (14 + 21) = 2 × 22 × 2 × 35 = 3080 m².

Length = Area ÷ Width = 3080 ÷ 20 = 154 m.

∴ The correct answer is 154 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Base radius (r) = 14 m

Height (h) = 21 m

Width of metallic sheet = 20 m

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area of a closed cylinder = 2πr(r + h)

Area of rectangular sheet = Length × Width

Calculations:

⇒ Total Surface Area = 2 × (22/7) × 14 × (14 + 21)

⇒ TSA = 2 × 22 × 2 × 35

⇒ TSA = 44 × 70 = 3080 m²

⇒ Area of metallic sheet = TSA

⇒ Length × 20 = 3080

⇒ Length = 3080 ÷ 20

⇒ Length = 154 m

∴ The correct answer is 154 m.

Additional Information

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of Cylinder

The area of the curved surface only, excluding the top and bottom circles, is given by 2πrh.

Volume of Cylinder

The total space occupied by the cylinder is calculated as V = πr²h.

TSA of Hollow Cylinder

For a cylinder with internal radius r and external radius R, TSA = 2π(R + r)(h + R − r).

Concept Used:

Calculation:

79.989% of 599.99 + 32.99% of 400.009 - 48.062% of 149.98 = ?

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

⇒ 80% of 600 + 33% of 400 - 48% of 150

⇒ 0.8 × 600 + 0.33 × 400 - 0.48 × 150

⇒ 480 + 132 - 72

⇒ 540

∴ The correct answer is 540.

Shortcut Trick

Test the given options for stream speed (v) where Total Time = 30 / (15 + v) + 30 / (15 − v) = 4.5 hours.

If v = 5: Downstream time = 30 / (15 + 5) = 1.5 hours.

Upstream time = 30 / (15 − 5) = 3 hours.

Total time = 1.5 + 3 = 4.5 hours (which is 4 hr 30 min).

∴ The correct answer is 5 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of swimmer in still water (u) = 15 km/h

Total distance (D) = 30 km one way

Total time taken (T) = 4 hr 30 min = 4.5 hours

Let the speed of the stream be v km/h.

⇒ Downstream speed = (15 + v) km/h

⇒ Upstream speed = (15 − v) km/h

According to the question:

⇒ 30 / (15 + v) + 30 / (15 − v) = 4.5

⇒ 30 × [(15 − v + 15 + v) / (15² − v²)] = 4.5

⇒ 30 × [30 / (225 − v²)] = 4.5

⇒ 900 / (225 − v²) = 4.5

⇒ 225 − v² = 900 / 4.5

⇒ 225 − v² = 200

⇒ v² = 225 − 200 = 25

⇒ v = √25 = 5 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 5 km/h.

Additional Information

Downstream and Upstream Speed

If speed of boat is u and stream is v, then Downstream = u + v and Upstream = u − v.

Still Water Speed Formula

Speed in still water (u) = 1/2 × (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed).

Stream Speed Formula

Speed of stream (v) = 1/2 × (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed).

Average Speed for Round Trip

Average speed when distance is constant = (u² − v²) / u.

Given:

Anu can type 40 pages in 10 hours

Anu and Mohit together can type 270 pages in 54 hours

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

According to the question,

Efficiency of Anu = 40/10 = 4 pages/hour

Efficiency of Anu and Mohit = 270/54 = 5 pages/hour

⇒ Efficiency of Mohit = 5 - 4 = 1 page/hour

For 20 pages, time taken by Mohit = 20/1 = 20 hours

∴ Mohit can type 20 pages in 20 hours.

Given:

(1 + (1 - 2)^-1 + 2 - (1 - 2)^-2)^{^2}

Calculations:

(1 + (1 - 2)^-1 + 2 - (1 - 2)^-2)²

(1 - 2) is -1, so (1 - 2)^-1 is -1 and (1 - 2)^-2 is 1

⇒ (1 - 1 + 2 - 1)²

⇒ (1)² = 1

∴ The value of the given expression is 1.

Given:

15% of 420

25% of 356

Calculation:

15% of 420 = (15/100) × 420 = 63

25% of 356 = (25/100) × 356 = 89

Number to be added = 89 - 63 = 26

∴ The correct answer is 26

Given:

Ratio of income of A & B = 3 : 5

Expenditure of A is 7/12 of his income.

Expenditure of B is 8/15 of his income.

Calculation:

Let the ratio of income of A & B be 3y : 5y respectively.

According to the question,

Difference of expenditures of A & B = Rs. 14,300

14,300 = Expenditure of B - Expenditure of A

⇒ 14,300 = 5y × (8/15) - 3y × (7/12)

⇒ 14,300 = 8y / 3 - 7y / 4

⇒ 14,300 = (32y - 21y) / 12

⇒ 14,300 × 12 = 11y

⇒ 11y = 1,71,600

⇒ y = 1,71,600 / 11 = Rs. 15,600

Income of A = 3y = 3 × 15,600 = Rs. 46,800

∴ The Income of A is Rs. 46,800.

Given:

A sum of money becomes Rs. 6,05,000 in 2 years and Rs. 8,05,255 in 5 years on compound interest compounded annually. 

Formula used:

A = P (1 + r/100)t   

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ 6,05,000 = P(1 + r/100)²      -----(1)    

⇒ 8,05,255 = P(1 + r/100)5      -----(2)

Divide equation (ii) from equation (i)

⇒  8,05,255/6,05,000 = (1 + r/100)³

⇒ 1331/1000 = (1 + r/100)3 

⇒ 1 + r/100 = 11/10

⇒ r/100 = 11/10 - 1

⇒ r/100 = 1/10

⇒ r = 10%

∴ The value of r is 10%.

Given:

$\frac{2^{2k+1} - 2^k \times 2^{k+2}}{2^k \times 2^{k+3} - 2^2 \times 2^{2k}}$

Formula used:

a^m × aⁿ = a^m+n

Calculation:

$\frac{2^{2k+1} - 2^{k+k+2}}{2^{k+k+3} - 2^{2+2k}}$

⇒ $\frac{2^{2k+1} - 2^{2k+2}}{2^{2k+3} - 2^{2k+2}}$

⇒ $\frac{2^{2k} \times (2^1 - 2^2)}{2^{2k} \times (2^3 - 2^2)}$

⇒ $\frac{2 - 4}{8 - 4}$

⇒ $\frac{-2}{4}$

⇒ $-\frac{1}{2}$

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

<br>

Let's check each option One by One:

Option 1) R + Q − P

Here, R is daughter of P.

Option 2) Q − P + R

Here, P is daughter of R but gender of R is not defined.

Option 3) P + Q − R

Here, R is mother of P.

Option 4) P + R − Q

Here, R is father of P.

So, P + Q - R gives R is the Mother of P.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 91 will replace the question mark in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given:  6 students Hansraj, Varun, Nandkishor, Poonam, Pranjal, Sam and the comparison of their scores in Science test.

1) Hansraj scored equal to Varun.

2) Nandkishor scored more than Varun but less than Poonam.

Hansraj = Varun < Nandkishor < Poonam.

3) Pranjal scored more than Sam but less than Varun.

Sam < Pranjal < Hansraj = Varun < Nandkishor < Poonam

Here, Pranjal scored second lowest in Science test.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Rank of R = 23^rd

Total number of students in class = 76

Rank from the R from last = Total number of student in the class - Rank of R + 1.

= 76 - 23 + 1 

= 53 + 1

= 54.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 230 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

From Option 1) TSCACACSTOC 

A T C O S C / A A C O S T / A C C O S  T / A C O  C S T → Does not follow pattern.

From Option 2) SACCCACOCST 

A S C O A C / A C C O S T / A C C O O C / A  C S T S T → Does not follow pattern.

From Option 3) STCACCSTOOA 

A S C O T  C / A A  C O S T / C S C O T O / A C O A S T → Does not follow pattern.

From Option 4) CSTCCACSTCO

A C C O S T / A C C O S T / A C C O S T/ A C C OS T → follows a pattern of ACCOST.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

‘bike roads highways cars’ is written as ‘od lk sk jk’.

‘jeep scooter highways bus’ is written as ‘mj jk dn ho’

‘bus cycle link express’ is written as ‘gt fa mj lk’,

‘express ways without toll’ is written as ‘sk mn ho gt’

Here, 'jk' is the code for 'Highways'

'gt' is the code for 'express'

'mj' is the code for 'BUS'

So, code 'mj' is common in both the statements with the word 'BUS'. 

Therefore, 'Bus' is coded as 'mj'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

According to the Venn Diagram:

The Shaded area shows the number of boys who are cricketers and footballers = 11.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Now,

GLY : BGT

OLP : JGK 

Let's check each Option One by One.

Option 1) STL : NOG

 

Option 2) YRD : UNX

Option 3) CBP : WVL

Option 4) EIN : ACJ

So, Only STL : NOG follows the pattern of given letter cluster.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The Given Series: 275, 463, 567, 428, 394, 663, 129

Now, If 6 is added to the first digit of every number:

Series becomes: 875, 1063, 1167, 1028, 994, 1263, 729.

There are 3 Numbers in which first digit be exactly divisible by the second digit: 1028, 994, 1263.

As 10 is completely divisible by 2

9 is completely divisible by 9

And, 12 is completely divisible by 6.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

BODMAS Rule: 

Given Equation:

 9318 + 719.479 – X = 8953.625

Taking Approximate Values:

⇒9318 + 719 – X = 8953

⇒10037 - X = 8953

⇒10037 - 8953 = X

⇒1084 = X.

So, the value of X is 1084.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given: 37 43 87 & 32 54 @ % 89 65 44 $ 67 34 # 78

Now,

8th term to the right of 15th from the right end in the above series.

First, 15th term from Right End,

Now, 8th term to the right of 15th term from right end.

So, 65 is 8th term to the right of 15th from the right end in the above series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given: Eight people are living on eight different floors of the building in such a way that the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above that is numbered 2, and so on till the top floor is numbered 8.

D lives on the ground floor

F lives on the topmost floor.

Only two people live between E and D.

Only two people live between C and E.

<br>

G lives immediately above B.

A lives on one of the floors below E but above D and H.

<br>

So, From the above arrangement, there are 4 floors between C and H lives.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) ORVZ

Option 2) MQUY

Option 3) JNRV

Option 4) TXBF

So, ORVZ is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given: Rohit is looking for his brother. He started from a point and went 110 m towards the west before turning to his left.

Then he went 40 m, turned to his left and went 50 m to look for his brother at his uncle’s place.

From there, he went 120 m to his north before meeting his brother at point X.

The Shortest Distance between X and Starting Point = (√ (80)² + (60)²)m

√ 6400 + 3600m = √ 10000m

= 100m.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given Equation: 18 − 18 ÷ 3 − 72 × 12 + 4 − 6

BODMAS Rule:

 

Decoding the Given Information:

<br>

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

New Equation: 18 × 18 + 3 × 72 ÷ 12 - 4 × 6 

Calculation:

⇒18 × 18 + 3 × 72 ÷ 12 - 4 × 6

⇒18 × 18 + 3 × 6 - 4 × 6

⇒324 + 18 - 24

⇒342 - 24 =  318.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

Now, 

GJM : CFI

 LOR : HKN

Let's check each Option One by One.

Option1) QSW : NPS

Option 2) QTW : MPS

Option 3) PTX : LPU

Option 4) RUY : QSZ

So, QTW : MPS follows the pattern of given letter clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given: 

 

<br>

Given Code: 94$3&3

Here Rule No. 1, If the first and the last elements are numbers, then both the numbers are coded as the code for the last number

Rule No. 2, If the third element is a symbol, then the code for the symbol is exchanged with the code for the fifth element.

Rule No. 3, If the fourth element is an odd number, then it is to be coded as #. 

Now, in the given code '94$3&3' All rules apply.

So, The Given Code '94$3&3'  will be decoded as → E Q U # J E.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a round circle, facing the centre.

P is third to the left of S.

P is second to the right of T, who is an immediate neighbour of both R and V.

U is second to the left of T.

S is an immediate neighbour of both U and W.

W is not the neighbour of P.

Q is fourth to the right of V.

So, from the above arrangement T sits to the immediate right of V.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line facing north.

E sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

G sits fourth to left of E.

G is an immediate neighbour of both C and D.

C sits third to the right of B.

A sits second to the right of C.

From the above arrangement, B and D sit to the left of G.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The correct answer is "spots."

Key Points

• The phrase "A leopard does not change its coat" is a variant of the commonly used idiom "A leopard cannot change its spots".
• The idiom is used to express that it's impossible for one to change their character, even if they will try very hard.
• The 'spots' represent the deep-seated traits or characteristics that determine a person’s innate nature or identity.
• The 'leopard' symbolizes any individual with set traits.
• The use of 'coat' in the original phrase may cause confusion as large cats' coats can change with the seasons, whereas their spots (color and pattern) do not.
• Given the context, substituting 'coat' with 'spots' would make the idiom more recognizable and accurate.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4."

The correct answer is "No substitution required."

Key Points

• The sentence "All of a sudden, we began to feel slightly uncomfortable" is grammatically correct and logically coherent.
• In the sentence, 'slightly' is an adverb used to modify the adjective 'uncomfortable'.
• It describes to what degree the subjects felt uncomfortable.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4."

Additional Information

• Let's examine the suggested substitutions:
• 'finely' is typically used to describe doing something in a very intricate, detailed, or precise manner, which does not accordingly describe a level of discomfort.
• 'rarely' refers to something that seldom occurs, and it is not appropriate to use to modify 'uncomfortable' in the given context.
• 'thinly' usually means in a slight or sparse way.
• It can sometimes be used metaphorically to mean 'barely' or 'scarcely', but it tends to have a more physical connotation and is not commonly used to describe feelings or states of being.

The correct answer is "to check."

Key Points

• The correct sentence: "The town's people used the bank clock to check the time."
• In this sentence, "to check" is an infinitive verb phrase serving as an adverb, modifying the verb "used".
• Infinitive phrases can serve various grammatical functions, including acting as a subject, direct object, subject complement, adjective, or adverb.
• In this case, "to check" is used to express the purpose or reason why the townspeople used the bank clock.
• The preposition "to" in "to check" signals that what follows is explaining why a particular action (in this case, the townspeople using the bank clock) is being performed.
• Hence, it correctly maintains the required syntactical and semantical flow of the sentence.

Therefore, the correctly answer is "Option 1."

The correct answer is "on."

Key Points

• The sentence is talking about trains on a specific route.
• The most suitable word to fill in the blank should indicate that the trains are operating or traveling on this route.
• In this context, 'on' is the most suitable option as it's often used to refer to being in a position or state of being over a surface or within a system of transportation.
• When talking about public transportation, we say a vehicle is 'on' a route.
• So, the complete sentence should be: "The trains on this route run very fast."
• ​This sentence asserts that the trains that operate on this specific route are known for their high speed.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3."

Additional Information

• 'in': Typically, 'in' is used to show that something is enclosed or surrounded.
• 'over': 'Over' could potentially be used in the context of a train crossing a bridge or going over a certain distance, but it's less commonly used to refer to a specific route a train travels.
• 'for': 'For' could refer to a purpose or destination but doesn't correctly depict the operation of trains on a route.

The correct answer is "found, while."

Key Points

• This phrase is speaking about the various species you might find around Darjeeling, and how Darjeeling fits into these creatures' migration patterns.
• 'found, while': The usage of 'found' is correct in this context: it's passive voice, meaning that these animals were observed or noted in the vicinity of Darjeeling.
• 'While' provides the appropriate context for the second blank as it shows passage of time and overlaps of events – in other words, these species are seen in Darjeeling during their migration to and from Tibet.
• So, the complete sentence should be: "The fauna found around Darjeeling includes several species of ducks, teals, plovers and gulls that pass Darjeeling while migrating to and from Tibet."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4."

Additional Information

• 'finds, as long as beyond': This doesn't fit the sentence because 'finds' would imply that the fauna is doing the searching, which is not supported by the context here.
• Additionally, 'as long as beyond' does not properly express the timing or purpose of the migration through Darjeeling.
• 'find, when': The 'find' would be grammatically incorrect here, since 'fauna' is treated as a singular noun in this context.
• 'When' could work for the second blank, but it would be better combined with a more matched option for the first one.
• 'finding, as soon as upon': 'Finding' would again seem to suggest that the fauna themselves are doing the finding, which is not appropriate.
• Additionally, the phrase 'as soon as upon' is not idiomatic English and doesn't convey an appropriate sense of timing or purpose.

The correct answer is "Distant."

Key Points

• The word "Remote" is an adjective that typically denotes a significant distance or isolation from something else.
• 'Distant' is a suitable synonym for 'remote'.
• Both terms suggest a significant separation in terms of space or relationship.
• 'Distant' effectively captures the primary meaning of 'remote'.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4."

Additional Information

• 'Relevant': This is not an accurate meaning of 'remote'.
• The term 'relevant' generally pertains to the subject at hand or something directly related to the topic, which doesn't overlap with the concept of distance or isolation associated with 'remote'.
• 'Public': This also doesn't convey the meaning of 'remote'.
• The term 'public' usually refers to common access or visibility among the general population, which does not inherently imply any notion of distance or separation.
• 'Approachable': This term is almost the opposite of 'remote'.
• If something is described as 'approachable', it typically means it's easily accessible or reachable, either physically or emotionally.
• This concept contrasts with the notion of distance or isolation in 'remote'.

The correct answer is "comma (,)."

Key Points

• The correct punctuation mark for this sentence is the comma (,).
• In the sentence, "Yes, you can have this chocolate", the word "Yes" is an interjection, an abrupt remark usually made as a response or an expression of emotion.
• Comma (,) is used here because it signifies a small pause after the interjection, forming a more natural-sounding sentence.
• In common English usage, the comma is used after interjections or before continuing the rest of the sentence.
• This comma gives the sentence a conversational tone, resembling how we would typically pause momentarily after saying "Yes" before continuing with the rest of the response.
• The brief pause created by the comma allows the affirmation "Yes" to stand on its own for a moment, emphasizing the agreement before moving on to the additional information "you can have this chocolate".
• So the correctly punctuated sentence is: "Yes, you can have this chocolate."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1."

Additional Information

• Colon (:): Typically, colons are used to introduce a list or to connect closely related ideas.
• Using a colon in this sentence would be inappropriate and not in line with standard usage.
• Dash (-): Dashes are typically used to create a strong break in the structure of a sentence.
• They can be used in pairs like parentheses, or alone as a substitute for a comma, colon, or semicolon.
• In this specific sentence, a dash would create an unnecessarily strong interruption, making the sentence seem disjointed.
• Semicolon (;): Semicolons are typically used to connect closely related ideas or two independent clauses that are not joined by a coordinating conjunction.
• In this case, the given sentence does not fit these conditions, making the semicolon incorrect.

The correct answer is "the."

Key Points

• The sentence is referring to a specific title, 'Missile Man of India,' which is associated with Dr. Abdul Kalam.
• When we refer to one-of-a-kind objects or unique individuals/titles, the definite article is used.
• The definite article 'the' is the appropriate choice.
• It indicates that the speaker believes the listener/reader knows the identity of the noun's referent (because it is obvious, because it is common knowledge, or because it was mentioned in the same sentence or an earlier sentence).
• In this case, 'the' conveys that there is one distinct identity known as the 'Missile Man of India,' which is Dr. Abdul Kalam.
• So, the complete sentence should be: "Dr. Abdul Kalam is known as the 'Missile Man of India'."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3."

Additional Information

• 'an': The indefinite article 'an' is used before words that begin with a vowel sound.
• However, it does not correctly represent the unique title 'Missile Man of India', and hence, is not the right choice.
• 'a': The indefinite article 'a' is used when the noun it refers to represents any instance of a class.
• In contrast, the title 'Missile Man of India' is specific and unique to Dr. Abdul Kalam, so 'a' isn't the correct choice.

The correct answer is "Prank."

Key Points

• The correct substitution for the underlined segment "played a jinx" in the sentence is "prank".
• In the context of the sentence, the boys are performing an action intended to trick or joke around with the old shopkeeper.
• This is precisely what the term "prank" denotes.
• A "prank" is understood to be a practical joke or a mischievous act played on someone, primarily for amusement of the person(s) executing the prank.
• Using "prank" helps set the appropriate tone and conveys the intended sense of playfulness or mischief in the boys' actions.
• Therefore, the revised sentence becomes: "The boys played a prank on the old shopkeeper by dropping a dead mouse in a jar of candy."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4."

The correct answer is "Approche."

Key Points

• The incorrectly spelled word from the list can be identified by comparing each word to its correct spelling: 'Approche':
• The correct spelling of this word is 'Approach'.
• Thus, 'Approche' is incorrectly spelled.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1."

Additional Information

• 'Approve': This word is spelled correctly.
• 'Appear': This word is spelled correctly.
• 'Appoint': This word is spelled correctly.

The correct answer is "will remain."

Key Points

• In this sentence, we need a verb that indicates future prediction or arrangement regarding the school's state.
• 'will remain': This is simple future tense, which is used to express actions that haven't happened yet but are expected or planned to happen in the future.
• It is suitable for future predictions.
• The finished sentence reads: "The school will remain closed tomorrow."
• ​This sentence uses the correct tense to indicate a future arrangement or state.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3."

Additional Information

• 'closes': Ordinarily, 'closes' is used in simple present tense for habitual actions, not for a specific future event, hence it's not the best fit here.
• 'has remained': This is the present perfect tense, primarily used to talk about things that have happened in the past up to now.
• It's not suitable for a future prediction or arrangement.
• 'is remaining': This is the present continuous tense, generally used to talk about ongoing actions at the present moment.
• However, sometimes it can be used for future arrangements, but it's less commonly used in that way than 'will remain'.

The correct answer is "Quarral."

Key Points

• Let's look at each word to spot the incorrectly spelled one:
• 'Quarral': The correct spelling of this word is 'Quarrel'.
• Hence, 'Quarral' is spelled incorrectly.
• 'Several': This is the correct spelling for this word.
• 'Mineral': This is the correct spelling for this word.
• 'General': This is the correct spelling for this word.
• Thus, the incorrectly spelled word is: Quarral

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1."

The correct answer is “Is Sumeet on a day’s leave today?”

Key Points

• The sentence begins with a quotation mark (open quotes “) and ends with the correct punctuation, a question mark (?), and quotation mark (close quotes ”).
• This is the proper way to encase direct speech or quoted text.
• The first word "Is" is correctly capitalized, as every sentence should start with a capital letter.
• The name "Sumeet" is capitalized correctly because it's a proper noun.
• The word "day's" has the correct apostrophe placement.
• In this context, the apostrophe indicates a singular possessive, meaning the leave belongs to the day.
• The sentence ends with a question mark inside the quotation marks, indicating it is a question.
• This is the correct punctuation for inquiries.
• So the sentence maintains the right structure, punctuation, and capitalization.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "is having".

Key Points

• The question asks about what Rachit is doing right now, that is, it requires the present continuous tense which is used to talk about actions happening at the moment of speaking.
• 'is having': This is in the present continuous tense, which indicates an action currently in progress, and this fits the context perfectly.
• So, the complete sentence reads: "What is Rachit doing? He is having his bath."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3."

Additional Information

• 'had': This is the past simple tense, which doesn't fit this context as the sentence is asking about a current action.
• 'will have': This refers to future tense and, again, doesn't fit in the context of the current ongoing action.
• 'has': This is present tense, and although it might work for some verbs (like 'has breakfast'), 'bath' is not typically used this way.

The correct answer is "A tendency to steal".

Key Points

• The idiom "sticky fingers" has a figurative meaning, which is "a tendency to steal."
• Idioms are phrases that aren't meant to be understood by their literal interpretation, but rather by how the phrase is commonly understood within the language's cultural context.
• In the case of "sticky fingers", imagine that if something "sticks" to your fingers, it remains with you even if it doesn't belong to you.
• This idiomatic phrase is, thus, used to symbolise a person's inclination to steal or take things that don't belong to them.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "restricted". 

Key Points

• The word 'Accessible' means that something is easy to approach or reach, or can be easily used or entered.
• 'Restricted' suggests that access is limited or controlled, which is effectively the opposite of the term 'accessible'.
• If an area is described as restricted, it means that it is not easily or freely accessible, particularly to certain groups of people.
• The complete sentence reads: "This area is restricted for civilians."
• This indicates that civilians are not allowed free or easy access to the area.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2."

Additional Information

• 'Possible': This does not convey the opposite of accessibility. Something being possible doesn't necessarily indicate that it isn't accessible.
• 'Reachable': This means the same as 'Accessible', so it can't be an antonym.
• 'Open': Again, this is a synonym of 'Accessible' rather than an antonym.

The correct answer is "construction."

Key Points

• The underlined word in the sentence is "manufacturing."
• In the context of building a bridge, another term may fit better.
• 'Construction' specifically refers to the process of building or constructing something, especially large structures like bridges and buildings.
• It's a commonly used term in the context of infrastructure and is the most accurate and suitable replacement for the underlined word in the sentence.
• The complete sentence would then read: "The construction of the bridge started in 1932 and it was completed in 1937."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4."

Additional Information

• 'creation': The term 'creation' can refer to the act of making or producing something, but it's often used in contexts where the result is a unique or original product, work of art, or idea. Its use might not be as precise for describing the building of a bridge.
• 'development': The word 'development' often refers to the process of growing, improving, or elaborating on something over time.
• In the context of a physical structure like a bridge, it might not be the best fit.

The correct answer is "a".

Key Points

• The statement is talking about a nonspecific middle-class Tamil family.
• In such scenarios, the correct article to use depends on the context and the grammatical rules of English.
• 'A': This indefinite article is used before words that start with a consonant sound.
• It's used, as in this case, when the specific identity of the noun is not known to the reader, that is, it refers to any member of a group.
• Therefore, the correct sentence reads: "He was born into a middle-class Tamil family."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3."

Additional Information

• 'an': This indefinite article is used before words that start with a vowel sound.
• It isn't suitable here because the word 'middle' starts with a consonant sound
• 'the': This definite article is used to refer to something that has already been mentioned, is easily identified, or is unique.
• The context of this sentence doesn't call for a definite reference, making this option unsuitable.

The correct answer is "C, D, A, B".

Key Points

• To form a coherent paragraph, the sentences need to be arranged in a logical sequence that supports clear communication of an idea.
• Here's how the sentences fit together:
• C) "When I was a child, a novel called ‘Kashi Yatre’, was appearing as a serial in the Kannada weekly ‘Karmaveera’."
• This sentence serves as a good introduction, as it describes discovering a novel that will become relevant in the following sentences.
• D) "It was the story of an old lady and her ardent desire to go to Kashi or Varanasi."
• Following the introduction of the novel in sentence C, it's logical to give a brief summary of the story next.
• In this sentence we learn that the novel was about an old lady who strongly desired to go to Kashi.
• A) "Most Hindus believe that going to Kashi and worshipping Lord Vishweshvara is the ultimate punya."
• After being introduced to the old lady's desire to go to Kashi in sentence D, sentence A provides more context to further explain her desire.
• B) "This old lady also believed in this, and her struggle to go there was described in that novel."
• Finally, sentence B refers back to both the specific novel and the general belief about Kashi.
• It clarifies that the old lady from the novel shared the belief introduced in sentence A, and that her struggle to reach Kashi was a central part of the novel's plot.
• So, the correctly arranged paragraph reads:
• "When I was a child, a novel called ‘Kashi Yatre’, was appearing as a serial in the Kannada weekly ‘Karmaveera’. It was the story of an old lady and her ardent desire to go to Kashi or Varanasi. Most Hindus believe that going to Kashi and worshipping Lord Vishweshvara is the ultimate punya. This old lady also believed in this, and her struggle to go there was described in that novel."

 ​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "A, C, B, D."

Key Points

• The correct arrangement of sentences is A, C, B, D.
• A) "Storytelling is not easy." -
• This sentence works well as an opening statement as it clearly introduces the subject of the paragraph - storytelling, indicating that it is a complex task.
• C) "It requires the proper modulation of voice, in order to create an atmosphere of horror, surprise, humour or peace." -
• Following the introductory sentence, it is logical to immediately delve into what makes storytelling challenging.
• This sentence provides details on the skills needed for effective storytelling, specifically the proper modulation of voice to create certain atmospheres, thus it builds directly upon sentence A.
• B) "During my childhood, my grandfather would tell me stories lying under the dark starry nights."
• After discussing the complexities and requirements of storytelling, the paragraph now moves into a concrete example to illustrate the concept, making the shift from the abstract (the concept and skills of storytelling) to the specific (the narrator's personal experience with storytelling as a child).
• D) "During those storytelling nights, I have travelled with my grandfather to the battlefield of Haldighati in Rajasthan and cried for the dead horse, Chetak." 
• To continue the personal narrative introduced in sentence B, sentence D brings in details from one specific story that the grandfather told.
• It smoothly follows sentence B and provides an emotional insight into the impact of his grandfather's storytelling.
• So, the sequence A, C, B, D creates a logical and coherent paragraph that moves from a general concept to specific information, covering the complexity of storytelling, its requirements, and the narrator's personal experience.
• The ordered paragraph reads:
• "Storytelling is not easy. It requires the proper modulation of voice, in order to create an atmosphere of horror, surprise, humour or peace. During my childhood, my grandfather would tell me stories lying under the dark starry nights. During those storytelling nights, I have travelled with my grandfather to the battlefield of Haldighati in Rajasthan and cried for the dead horse, Chetak."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2."

The correct answer is Rathores.

Key Points

• Raja Jaichand belonged to the Rathore dynasty which was one of the prominent Rajput clans in India.
• The Rathores were known for their bravery and valour and had a rich history of ruling various regions in India.
• They made their home in the Antarvedi region, which included Kanyakubj and Varanasi Ruled, close to the Ganga River.

Additional Information

• The Chauhans were another prominent Rajput clan who ruled over Delhi and Ajmer.
• They were known for their military prowess and their most famous ruler was Prithviraj Chauhan.
• The Pramara dynasty was another Rajput dynasty that ruled over the Malwa region of India.
• Their most famous ruler was Raja Bhoj who was known for his patronage of art and culture.
• The Solankies were a Rajput dynasty that ruled over the Gujarat region of India.
• They were known for their architectural achievements and their most famous ruler was Siddharaj Jaysinh.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• As of March 2022, the number of Scheduled Small Finance Banks in India is 12.
• Scheduled Small Finance Banks are a special category of banks in India that focus on providing financial services to underserved and unserved segments of the population, such as small businesses, micro-enterprises, farmers, and low-income households.
• They are licensed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Additional Information

• The first batch of Small Finance Banks was granted licenses by the RBI in 2015, and since then, several more have been added to the list.
• These banks offer a range of products and services, including savings and deposit accounts, loans, insurance, and remittance services.
• They are also required to comply with certain regulatory norms, such as maintaining a minimum capital adequacy ratio and priority sector lending targets.
• Some of the notable Scheduled Small Finance Banks in India include AU Small Finance Bank, Equitas Small Finance Bank, Ujjivan Small Finance Bank, and ESAF Small Finance Bank.

The Correct answer is 200.

Key Points

• Rajasthan has a total of 200 Assembly Constituencies as of 2022.
• The Assembly Constituencies are part of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly, which is the unicameral legislature of the Indian state of Rajasthan.
• The Rajasthan Legislative Assembly operates under the provisions of the Constitution of India, specifically under Articles 168-212.
• These constituencies represent the diverse regions of Rajasthan, covering its urban and rural areas.
• The total number of seats in the Rajasthan Assembly has remained at 200 since the delimitation process undertaken in 2008 by the Delimitation Commission of India.
• Each constituency elects one Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) through the process of direct elections, held typically every five years.
• The Rajasthan Legislative Assembly is responsible for law-making, governance, and addressing issues related to the state as per the framework of the Indian Constitution.
• Key cities like Jaipur, Jodhpur, Udaipur, and Kota have constituencies representing them along with other regions in Rajasthan.

Additional Information

• Assembly Constituencies in India
• An Assembly Constituency is a unit of representation for the legislative assembly elections in India.
• It is defined based on the population density, administrative boundaries, and geographical factors.
• Every state has a varying number of constituencies depending on its area, population, and governance needs.
• Delimitation Process
• The Delimitation Commission of India is responsible for redefining the boundaries of constituencies.
• The process ensures fair representation by adjusting boundaries based on the latest census data.
• The last major delimitation exercise in India was carried out in 2002-2008.

The correct answer is James Wilson presented the first Union budget.

Key Points

• The incorrect statement about India's first union budget post-independence is that James Wilson presented it.
• The correct answer is RK Shanmukham Chetty presented the first Union budget.
• The only female finance minister to introduce the budget as prime minister was Indira Gandhi.
• There was a ₹24.59 crore fiscal deficit out of total revenues of ₹171.15 crore.

Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru was the prime minister of India at the time of the first budget.
• The first budget was presented on 26th November 1947.
• RK Shanmukham Chetty was the first finance minister of independent India and presented the first Union budget.
• James Wilson was a British economist who presented the first budget of India during British rule in 1860.

The correct answer is "To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India."

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties are a set of moral obligations outlined in the Indian Constitution that every citizen is expected to follow.
• There are eleven Fundamental Duties listed in the Constitution.
• "To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India" is not a fundamental duty.

Additional Information

• "To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so" is a duty that requires citizens to protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of the nation.
• "To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture" is a duty that requires citizens to respect and preserve the diverse cultural traditions of India.
• "To develop a scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform" is a duty that encourages citizens to be progressive and rational in their thinking, and to work towards the betterment of society.
• It is important for citizens to be aware of their Fundamental Duties and strive to fulfill them in order to contribute towards the growth and development of the nation.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Divar Island is a small island located in the Mandovi River in Goa, India.
• It is one of the few inhabited islands in Goa and is known for its scenic beauty and old-world charm.
• Goa is a state in western India, known for its beaches, nightlife, and Portuguese-influenced architecture.
• It is a popular tourist destination and attracts visitors from all over the world.

Additional Information

• Lakshadweep is a group of islands located off the west coast of India, known for their pristine beaches and coral reefs.
• They are a Union Territory of India and are governed directly by the central government.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group of islands located in the Bay of Bengal, closer to the east coast of India.
• They are also a Union Territory of India and are known for their natural beauty and diverse flora and fauna.
• Odisha is a state in eastern India, known for its temples, beaches, and tribal culture.
• It does not have any major islands off its coast.

The correct answer is Article 165.

Key Points

• The Advocate General is a constitutional post in India, created by the Constitution of India under Article 165.
• The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the State and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
• The Advocate General is the highest law officer in the state and is responsible for providing legal advice to the government of the state.
• The Advocate General can appear in any court of law within the state and can also participate in the proceedings of the state legislature.

Additional Information

• Article 170 deals with the composition of the Legislative Assembly of a State.
• It specifies the number of seats that should be reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Assembly.
• Article 160 deals with the appointment of the Governor of a State.
• It specifies the eligibility criteria and the process for the appointment of the Governor.
• Article 175 deals with the Oath or Affirmation by the Governor.
• It specifies the form of oath or affirmation that the Governor has to take before entering upon his/her office.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• Lakshadweep has the highest scheduled tribe population in comparison to its total population.
• The scheduled tribe population in Lakshadweep is around 94.8% of its total population.
• Mizoram has the second-highest scheduled tribe population with around 94.5% of its total population being from scheduled tribes.
• Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar have a very low scheduled tribe population in comparison to their total population.

Additional Information

• Lakshadweep is a union territory located in the Arabian Sea.
• It has a total population of around 65,000, out of which around 61,000 belong to scheduled tribes.
• The main scheduled tribes in Lakshadweep are the Maldivian, Mahls, and Koyas.
• Mizoram is a state located in Northeast India.
• It has a total population of around 1.1 million, out of which around 94.5% belong to scheduled tribes.
• The main scheduled tribes in Mizoram are the Mizo, Hmar, Lai, Mara, and Chakma.
• Delhi is a union territory and the capital city of India.
• It has a total population of around 18.9 million, out of which only around 0.3% belong to scheduled tribes.
• The main scheduled tribes in Delhi are the Gujjar and Meena.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands is a union territory located in the Bay of Bengal.
• It has a total population of around 380,000, out of which only around 8.2% belong to scheduled tribes.
• The main scheduled tribes in Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarwa, and Sentinelese.

The correct option is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• Meghalaya has the highest percentage of employed women according to the National Family Health Survey 5.
• The survey conducted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India to provide information on health, family planning, and nutrition.
• It is important to note that while Meghalaya has the highest percentage of employed women, the overall percentage is still low, highlighting the need for policies and initiatives to improve women's employment opportunities and participation in the workforce.

Additional Information

• Between NNFHS 4 and 5, the total fertility rate (TFR) at the national level decreased even further, from 2.2 to 2.0.
• In India, there are just five states where fertility is higher than the replacement level, which is 2.1.
• Bihar, Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Manipur are these states.
• 66.3% of working women and 53.4% of unemployed women use a modern method of contraception.
• In areas and societies with greater socioeconomic advancement, the usage of contraceptives rises.

The correct answer is 26.

Key Points

• Gujarat is a state located in the western part of India.
• Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament, and its members are elected directly by the people of India through a general election.
• The seventeenth Lok Sabha was constituted in May 2019 after the general election held in April 2019.
• Gujarat had 26 Lok Sabha constituencies in the seventeenth Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

• Gujarat is the home state of the current Indian Prime Minister, Narendra Modi.
• In the seventeenth Lok Sabha, the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) won all 26 Lok Sabha seats in Gujarat.
• The total number of Lok Sabha constituencies in India is 543.
• The number of Lok Sabha constituencies for each state is determined based on the population of the state.

The correct answer is Fundamental Rights.

Key Points

• Fundamental Rights are a set of rights that are essential for the development of an individual and are enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
• These rights have been borrowed from the Constitution of the USA, which also has a Bill of Rights that guarantees certain fundamental rights to its citizens.
• Articles 12 to 35 of Part III of the Indian Constitution outline the Fundamental Rights, which are applicable to all people regardless of their race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed, sex, gender, or equality of opportunity with regard to work.

Additional Information

• The Cabinet System is a form of government where the executive power is vested in a cabinet of ministers who are responsible to the legislature. 
• Derived from the British Constitution, the Indian Constitution has a Cabinet system.
• Bicameralism is a system of government where the legislature is divided into two houses or chambers.
• This system has been borrowed from the Constitution of the UK, not the USA.
• Fundamental Duties are a set of duties that are expected of every citizen of India.
• These duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.

The correct answer is 1993.

Key Points

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was set up in India in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act.
• The NHRC is an autonomous statutory body responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in the country.
• The establishment of the NHRC was a significant step towards ensuring the protection of fundamental human rights in India.
• The NHRC has the power to inquire into human rights violations, recommend remedial action, and provide relief to victims.
• The NHRC has been instrumental in addressing a wide range of human rights issues in India, including police brutality, custodial deaths, and the rights of marginalized communities.

Additional Information

• ​The United Nations ratified the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) in 1948.
• The National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs) created the Paris Principles in 1991.
• These Paris Principles were endorsed by the UN General Assembly in 1993.
• India passed the Protection of Human Rights Act in 1993.
• As a result, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established.
• The State Human Rights Commission was established by state governments with the assistance of the Protection of Human Rights Act.

The correct answer is Karakoram range.

Key Points

• The Karakoram range is a part of the greater Himalayan mountain range and is located in the northernmost region of India.
• It is situated in the Ladakh region and is home to some of the world's highest peaks, including K2, the second-highest mountain in the world.
• The range also serves as a natural boundary between India, Pakistan, and China.
• The Karakoram range is known for its glaciers, which are a significant source of freshwater for the Indus River system.

Additional Information

• Zanskar Range is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh and is a part of the Greater Himalayan mountain range.
• It is known for its rugged terrain, stunning landscapes, and ancient monasteries.
• Pir Panjal Range is a part of the Lesser Himalayan mountain range and is located in the states of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.
• ​The range is known for its scenic beauty and is a popular destination for trekking and mountaineering.
• Ladakh Range is a part of the Greater Himalayan mountain range and is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
• The range is known for its high-altitude deserts, unique culture, and ancient Buddhist monasteries.

The correct answer is Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana.

Key Points

• Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) is a scheme launched by the Government of India in 2015 to promote organic farming across the country.
• The scheme aims to promote sustainable agriculture practices by training and educating farmers on the use of organic inputs and reducing the dependence on chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
• Under PKVY, farmers are provided with financial assistance for organic inputs, certification, and marketing support for their produce.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana (PM-KISAN) is a scheme that provides direct income support to small and marginal farmers.
• It provides farmers with minimum income support of up to ₹6,000 annually.
• On February 1, 2019, Piyush Goyal announced the idea at India's 2019 Interim Union Budget.
• Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a crop insurance scheme.
• National Insurance Company began taking part in PMFBY in Rabi 2016 and has now covered eight states and two union territories over the course of the last five seasons, covering 70,27,637 farmers in Rabi 2016–17, Kharif & Rabi 2017 and Kharif & Rabi 2018.
• Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) aims to provide irrigation facilities to farmers.
• By using "Jal Sanchay" and "Jal Sinchan" to collect rainwater at the micro level, protective irrigation is being created.

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

• Fort William College was established by Lord Wellesley, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805, with the aim of improving the quality of education and training of British civil servants in India.
• The college was named after King William III of England.
• Kolkata was chosen as the location for Fort William College because it was the administrative center of British India and had a large population of British officials and traders.
• The college was initially set up to teach Persian and other Indian languages to British officials, as well as to provide them with cultural and historical knowledge of India.
• Later, the curriculum was expanded to include other subjects such as law, mathematics, and science.

Additional Information

• Mumbai, also known as Bombay, was an important port city and trading center in British India. 
• Charles leased the Islands of Bombay to the English East India Company on March 27, 1668, for a meager £10 fee, seeing the islands as a political and financial responsibility.
• Chennai, also known as Madras, was the capital of the Madras Presidency and had a reputed college of its own.
• Known as Fort St. George, the English outpost that would eventually become modern-day Chennai was founded in 1644.
• Hyderabad was a princely state in South India and was not under direct British rule.
• Hyderabad came under British administration from 1798 till 1947, when India gained its independence.

The correct answer is 9 December 1946.

Key Points

• The first session of the Indian Constitution Drafting Committee was held on December 9, 1946.
• The committee was formed to draft the Indian Constitution after India gained independence from British colonial rule.
• The committee was chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who is also known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution."
• The other members of the committee included Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel, and other prominent leaders of the Indian Independence Movement.
• The drafting of the Indian Constitution was completed on November 26, 1949, and it came into effect on January 26, 1950.

Additional Information

• The Indian Constitution is the ultimate law of the land.
• It's the world's longest written national constitution.
• Republic Day, observed on January 26, is a day commemorating India's constitution.
• The Indian constitution seeks to foster camaraderie among its residents and declares the country to be a sovereign, democratic, socialist, secular republic.

The correct answer is Sister of Humayun.

Key Points

• Gulbadan Begum was the sister of Humayun, the second Mughal emperor of India.
• She was a prominent figure in the Mughal court and was known for her literary skills.
• Gulbadan Begum wrote a memoir called Humayun Nama, which is an account of the life and reign of her brother Humayun.
• The book provides valuable insights into the political and social history of the Mughal Empire during the 16th century.
• Gulbadan Begum's Humayun Nama is considered to be one of the most important sources on Mughal history and is still studied by historians today.

Additional Information

• Humayun ruled from 1530 to 1540 and again from 1555 until his death in 1556, covering what is now Eastern Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Northern India, and Pakistan.
• 1541 saw Humayun wed Hamida Banu Begum, the daughter of Sheikh Ali Amber Jaini, who had served as Hindal's preceptor.
• Akbar was born on November 23, 1542, to Humayun's wife.
• Humayun reclaimed the Mughal throne in 1555 by defeating the Afghans.
• Six months later, in 1556, he fell from his library's stairs and perished.

The correct answer is Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.

Key Points

• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was a prominent 19th-century Muslim reformer and educationist who played a crucial role in the intellectual and social awakening of the Indian Muslim community.
• He founded several institutions for the education of Muslims, including the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College (later Aligarh Muslim University) in 1875.
• The United India Patriotic Association was founded by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan in 1888 to promote the interests of the Muslims and to foster Hindu-Muslim unity.

Additional Information

• Saifuddin Kitchlew was an Indian politician, lawyer, and independence fighter who subsequently led the peace movement.
• In 1924, he was appointed General Secretary of the All India Congress Committee after serving as leader of the Punjab Provincial Congress Committee.
• Maulana Shibli Numani was a noted Islamic scholar and historian who was a disciple of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.
• He is recognized as Urdu historiography's founder.
• Muhammad Ali was a prominent leader of the Khilafat movement and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. 
• Jauhar was an Aligarh Movement participant.
• In 1923, he was chosen to lead the Indian National Congress party as its president.

The correct answer is 1954.

Key Points

• The Agreement on Trade and Intercourse between the Tibet region of China and India is also known as the Panchsheel Agreement or the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence.
• The agreement was signed by the Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru, and the Premier of China, Zhou Enlai, on April 29, 1954.
• The Panchsheel Agreement's Five Principles are as follows:
• mutual observance of each other's sovereignty and geographical integrity.
• exchange of non-aggression.
• mutual refraining from meddling with one another's personal matters.
• equality as well as reciprocity.
• harmonious cohabitation.

Additional Information

• 1962 was the year when the Sino-Indian War took place, which resulted in a temporary suspension of diplomatic relations between India and China.
• It was a military escalation of the border dispute between India and China.
• There was fighting in Aksai Chin, west of Nepal, near India's frontier with China, and in the North-East Frontier Agency of India, east of Bhutan.

The correct answer is 324.

Key Points

• The statement mentions that the population density has increased from a certain figure to 382 per square kilometre.
• Therefore, the figure mentioned should be lesser than 382, i.e, 324.
• Population density is the number of people living per unit area of land.
• It is an important indicator of the level of development and resource utilization of a region.

Additional Information

• India is the second-most populous country in the world, with a population of over 1.3 billion people.
• Census 2011 is the 15th census conducted in India since 1872.
• It is the largest administrative and statistical exercise in the world, covering over 640,000 villages and 7,000 towns.
• The increase in population density can be attributed to factors such as urbanization, migration, and natural population growth.