IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper (Held On: 24 March, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Lungs.

Key Points

• Emphysema is a lung disease that causes shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing.
• Cadmium pollution is one of the causes of Emphysema.
• Cadmium is a toxic heavy metal that can accumulate in the lungs and cause damage to the air sacs.
• The primary organs affected by Emphysema are the lungs, as it causes damage to the air sacs and makes it difficult for the person to breathe.

Additional Information

• Emphysema cannot be cured, however treatment can help:
• control the symptoms to avoid problems and
• slow the condition's progression
• enhance a person's general health and welfare
• Oxygen therapy and assistance in stopping smoking are examples of supportive therapy.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Karanas are the poses or movements in the classical Indian dance form of Bharatanatyam.
• Bharatanatyam is a popular Indian classical dance form that originated in the state of Tamil Nadu.
• Bharatanatyam was performed by devadasis (temple dancers) as a form of worship.
• The dance form was later revived in the early 20th century by pioneers such as Rukmini Devi Arundale, who gave it a more modern and structured form.

Additional Information

• Odissi is believed to have been performed in the temples of Odisha as early as the 2nd century BCE.
• It was later revived in the mid-20th century by dancers such as Kelucharan Mohapatra.
• It is known for its graceful movements and expressions.
• Kathakali is known for its elaborate makeup and costumes, which are used to depict various characters from Hindu mythology.
• It is also known for its use of mudras (hand gestures) and facial expressions to convey emotions.
• It originated in the state of Kerala.
• Kathak is a storytelling dance form that combines elements of both Hindu and Muslim cultures.
• It is known for its intricate footwork and use of chakkars (spins).

The correct answer is 1.39 billion.

Key Points

• The population of India at the end of 2021 is 1.39 billion.
• According to the World Bank data, India is the second-most populous country in the world after China.
• The population of India has been steadily increasing over the years, with an annual growth rate of around 1.05%.
• The Indian government has been implementing various measures to control population growth, such as family planning programs, education, and awareness campaigns.

Additional Information

• India is predicted to have 1.42 billion people living there in total by 2022.
• Within 40 years, India is expected to surpass China as the top-ranked nation.
• The term "population" refers to both permanent foreign residents and all citizens who are either temporarily or permanently present in a nation.
• The World Bank is a global financial organization that helps governments in low- and middle-income nations pursue capital projects by lending money and providing grants. 
• Headquarter is in United States.
• July 1944 saw the founding of it.
• Ajay Banga is the president.​

The correct answer is Lavani.

Key Points

• Lavani, as Baithakichi is a type of folk music form that is popular in Maharashtra.
• The Lavani became known as Baithakichi when it was performed by a girl seated in front of the audience in a closed chamber for a special and select audience.
• Lavani is a folk music form that originated in the state of Maharashtra and is usually performed by women.

Additional Information

• Bihugeet is a folk music form that originated in the state of Assam.
• It is usually sung during the Bihu festival.
• Pandavani is a folk music form that originated in the state of Chhattisgarh.
• It is based on the stories of the Mahabharata.
• Bhatiali is a folk music form that originated in the state of West Bengal.
• It is usually sung by boatmen.

The correct answer is Microwaves.

Key Points

• The option with the highest wavelength among the given electromagnetic waves is microwaves.
• Microwaves have wavelengths ranging from 1 millimeter to 1 meter.
• Microwaves move in a straight line.
• Within the electromagnetic spectrum, microwaves have a frequency that is higher than that of regular radio waves and lower than that of infrared light.
• They are employed in radar, communications, radio astronomy, remote sensing, and, of course, cooking because of their heating function.

Additional Information

• Infrared waves have wavelengths ranging from 700 nanometers to 1 millimeter.
• They are commonly used in heating and communication applications.
• Ultraviolet waves have wavelengths ranging from 10 nanometers to 400 nanometers.
• They are commonly used in sterilization and detection applications.
• X-rays have wavelengths ranging from 0.01 nanometers to 10 nanometers.
• They are commonly used in medical imaging and material analysis applications.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• Gaur Maria is a folk dance form that is native to the state of Chhattisgarh in India.
• It is performed by the tribal communities of the state, especially the Gond tribe, during various occasions and festivals.
• The dance form is characterized by the use of traditional musical instruments such as dhol, mandar, and jhanj.
• The performers wear colorful costumes and adorn themselves with ornaments made of beads, feathers, and shells.

Additional Information

• Goa is known for its vibrant culture and folk dances such as Fugdi, Dekhni, and Dhalo.
• West Bengal has a rich tradition of folk dances such as Baul, Chhau, and Gambhira.
• Gujarat is known for its colorful folk dances such as Garba, Dandiya, and Bhavai.

The correct answer is Hydro ChloroFluoro Carbon.

Key Points

• HCFC-141 b is a type of hydrochlorofluorocarbon that is commonly used as a refrigerant in air conditioning and refrigeration systems.
• It is a potent greenhouse gas and is known to contribute to global warming.
• The use of HCFCs is regulated under the Montreal Protocol, an international treaty aimed at reducing the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.

Additional Information

• A carbene is a type of molecule that contains a carbon atom with only two valence electrons.
• Chemicals known as ozone depleting substances erode the ozone layer that shields the planet. Among them are:
• hydrobromofluorocarbons (HBFCs)
• hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
• methyl bromide (CH₃Br)
• bromochloromethane (CH₂BrCl)
• chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
• halon
• carbon tetrachloride (CCl₄)
• methyl chloroform (CH₃CCl₃)
• Under the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, import and production of certain substances are regulated.

The correct answer is Proline.

Key Points

• A non-essential amino acid is one that can be synthesized by the human body and does not need to be obtained through the diet.
• Proline is a non-essential amino acid as it can be synthesized by the body from the amino acid glutamate.
• Proline is involved in wound healing, antioxidative reactions, immunological responses, metabolism, and protein production and structure.
• Methionine, Threonine, and Valine are essential amino acids as they cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained through the diet.

Additional Information

• Methionine is important for the synthesis of proteins and the production of other amino acids.
• It is also a precursor for molecules such as SAM, which is involved in various cellular processes.
• Threonine is important for the synthesis of proteins, antibodies, and neurotransmitters.
• It is also involved in the metabolism of fats.
• Valine is important for the synthesis of proteins and the production of energy.
• It is also involved in the metabolism of other amino acids.

The correct answer is Ethanoic acid. 

Key Points

• Ethanoic acid is a weak acid because it only partially dissociates in water, meaning it doesn't release all of its hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in water.
• This is because ethanoic acid has a weaker bond between hydrogen and the rest of the molecule compared to stronger acids like hydrochloric acid and nitric acid.
• Perchloric acid, on the other hand, is a strong acid because it completely dissociates in water, releasing all of its hydrogen ions.
• It is one of the strongest acids known and is highly corrosive and dangerous.
• Hydrochloric acid is also a strong acid that completely dissociates in water.
• It is commonly used in industrial processes and is a component of gastric acid in the stomach.
• Nitric acid is a strong acid that is highly reactive and corrosive.
• It is used in the production of fertilizers, explosives, and dyes.

Additional Information

• An acid is a substance that donates hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in water.
• Acids have a pH lower than 7 and can be classified as either weak or strong depending on how easily they donate hydrogen ions.
• Strong acids completely dissociate in water, while weak acids only partially dissociate.
• Acids can be found in many everyday substances, such as citrus fruits (which contain citric acid), vinegar (which contains acetic acid), and carbonated drinks (which contain carbonic acid).

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Manganiyar and Langa are traditional folk musicians belonging to the state of Rajasthan, India.
• They are known for their unique style of music which is deeply rooted in the Rajasthani culture.
• The Manganiyar and Langa communities have been practicing and preserving their musical traditions for generations.
• These musicians are often invited to perform at cultural events, weddings, and other occasions.

Additional Information 

• Tamil Nadu is a state in the southern part of India.
• The state has a rich cultural heritage and is known for its classical music forms such as Carnatic music.
• Odisha is a state located in the eastern part of India.
• The state has a vibrant culture and is known for its classical dance form, Odissi.
• Assam is a state located in the northeastern part of India.
• The state has a diverse culture and is known for its traditional music forms such as Bihu and Zikir.

The correct answer is Jyothi Yarraji.

Key Points

• Jyothi Yarraji made history in the women's 100 m hurdles and became the first Indian woman to run a sub-13s time to win the gold medal at the National Games 2022.
• Jyothi Yarraji is a track and field athlete from Andhra Pradesh who specializes in the 100 m hurdles.
• She has won several medals at the national level and has represented India in international events.

Additional Information

• V Surekha is a pole vaulter from India.
• She currently owns the 4.15 m national mark, which was established in 2014 at the National Open Championships in New Delhi.
• The first female pole vaulter from India to clear 4.00 meters is Surekha.
• The National Games is a multi-sport event held every two years in India.
• It is the largest domestic sporting event in the country and features athletes from all states and union territories.
• The earliest Olympic Games in the nation, now known as the National Games, took place in North India in the cities of Delhi, Allahabad (now Prayagraj), Patiala, Madras (now Chennai), Calcutta (now Kolkata), and Bombay.

The correct answer is eurythermal.

Key Points

• Eurythermal organisms are those that can tolerate a wide range of temperatures.
• They are adapted to survive in environments with varying temperatures.
• These organisms can maintain their metabolic processes and other physiological functions within a broad temperature range.

Additional Information

• Niche refers to the role or position of an organism within its habitat or ecosystem.
• It includes the physical and biological factors that influence the survival and reproduction of the organism.
• Euryhaline organisms are those that can tolerate a wide range of salinities.
• They are adapted to survive in environments with varying levels of salt concentration in water bodies.
• Stenohaline organisms are those that can only tolerate a narrow range of salinities.
• They are adapted to survive in environments with a constant level of salt concentration in water bodies.

The correct answer is Vitamin A.

Key Points

• Xerophthalmia is a condition where the eyes become dry and inflamed due to a lack of vitamin A in the diet.
• Vitamin A is an essential nutrient that helps maintain good vision, skin, and immune system health.
• It also plays a role in the growth and development of bones and teeth.

Additional Information

• Vitamin B12 is important for the production of red blood cells and proper nerve function.
• Deficiency of this vitamin can lead to anemia, fatigue, and neurological problems.
• Vitamin D is necessary for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus, which are important for bone health.
• Deficiency of vitamin D can lead to rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.
• Vitamin C is an antioxidant that helps protect cells from damage and is important for the immune system.
• Deficiency of this vitamin can lead to scurvy, which can cause fatigue, weakness, and joint pain.

The correct answer is Goal 12.

Key Points

• The SDG India Index has been constructed by NITI Aayog to measure India's progress towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set by the United Nations.
• The SDG India Index covers 13 out of the 17 SDGs, namely - No Poverty, Zero Hunger, Good Health and Well-being, Quality Education, Gender Equality, Clean Water and Sanitation, Affordable and Clean Energy, Decent Work and Economic Growth, Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure, Reduced Inequalities, Sustainable Cities and Communities, Climate Action, and Life Below Water.
• Goal 12 of the SDGs is Responsible Consumption and Production.
• This goal is also covered by the SDG India Index and focuses on promoting sustainable consumption and production patterns.

Additional Information

• Goal 5 of the SDGs, which is Gender Equality, is the one that is left out in the SDG India Index.
• This means that the progress made by India towards achieving gender equality is not being measured by the Index.
• Goal 9 of the SDGs, which is Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure, is one of the SDGs covered by the SDG India Index.
• This goal focuses on building resilient infrastructure, promoting inclusive and sustainable industrialization, and fostering innovation.
• Goal 7 of the SDGs, which is Affordable and Clean Energy, is another SDG covered by the SDG India Index.
• This goal aims to ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for all.

The correct answer is 25%.

Key Points

• The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is a measure of the proportion of the working-age population that is either employed or seeking employment.
• As per the India Discrimination Report 2022, the LFPR of women in India is just 25% in 2021.
• The LFPR for women in India has been consistently lower than that of men, with a significant gender gap.
• The low LFPR of women in India can be attributed to several factors such as social norms, lack of education and skills, inadequate infrastructure, and discrimination in the workplace.

Additional Information

• The India Discrimination Report 2022 focuses on how different socio-religious and gender groups are able to access the labor market (absorption and pay), factor market (access to financing), and endowment market (access to hospitalization) differently.
• The analysis aims to quantify the level of identity-based discrimination by elucidating the disparities in pay, credit, and health facilities as well as in employment opportunities within the framework of human capital formation across castes, gender, and tribal and religious identities.

The correct answer is 66.

Key Points

• The NITI Aayog Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index and Dashboard is a comprehensive framework to track the progress of all Indian states and Union Territories towards achieving the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals.
• The index comprises of 16 SDGs and 54 indicators, covering social, economic, and environmental dimensions of development.
• The latest report released by NITI Aayog in June 2021 shows that the overall score of India on SDG India Index and Dashboard has improved from 60 in 2019-20 to 66 in 2020-21.
• The report also highlights that Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Himachal Pradesh are the top three states in terms of overall SDG score, while Bihar, Jharkhand, and Assam are at the bottom.
• The increase in India's overall score is attributed to improvements in indicators related to clean energy, urban development, health, and education.

Additional Information

• The National Institute for Transforming India is known as NITI Aayog.
• The highest-ranking think tank for public policy within the Indian government is NITI Aayog.
• Narendra Modi serves as its chairperson.
• It was established on January 1st, 2015.
• The National Democratic Alliance is its founder.

The correct answer is Group 2B.

Key Points

• The radiofrequency electromagnetic fields emitted by mobile phones have been classified as possibly carcinogenic to humans by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC).
• IARC classification places the radiofrequency electromagnetic fields in Group 2B of the IARC's classification system, which means that they are possibly carcinogenic to humans based on limited evidence of carcinogenicity in humans and less than sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity in experimental animals.
• Other examples of Group 2B carcinogens include gasoline, lead compounds, and chloroform.

Additional Information

• Group 4 carcinogens are substances or agents that are probably not carcinogenic to humans.
• Group 3 carcinogens are substances or agents that are not classifiable as to their carcinogenicity to humans due to inadequate evidence.
• Group 2A carcinogens are substances or agents that are probably carcinogenic to humans based on limited evidence of carcinogenicity in humans and sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity in experimental animals.
• It is important to note that the classification of radiofrequency electromagnetic fields as possibly carcinogenic to humans does not mean that they definitely cause cancer.
• More research is needed to determine the extent of the risk, if any, posed by exposure to these fields.

The correct answer is 3rd century BCE.

Key Points

• Sanchi is a small village located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh and is famous for its ancient Buddhist monuments.
• The Mauryan Emperor Ashoka is considered to be the founder of the Sanchi Stupa, which he built in the 3rd century BCE.
• Sanchi became an important center of Buddhism during the Mauryan period and continued to flourish under the Sunga, Satavahana, and Gupta dynasties.
• The Sanchi Stupa is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is considered to be one of the finest examples of Buddhist architecture in India.

Additional Information

• From roughly 268 to 232 BCE, Ashoka was the third Mauryan Emperor of Magadha in the Indian subcontinent.
• Following a bloody battle, he subjugated Kalinga.
• The main focus of the edicts, "dhamma" or righteous conduct, was thus Ashoka's lifelong mission.
• The Lion Capital of Ashoka has been adapted as the emblem of the current Republic of India.
• The Ashoka Chakra, or Ashoka's wheel, is the focal point of the Indian national flag.

The correct answer is Services team.

Key Points

• Services team won the highest number of gold medals at the 36th National Games of India.
• The Services team won a total of 159 medals, including 91 gold medals, 33 silver medals, and 35 bronze medals, making them the overall champions of the games.
• The National Games of India is a multi-sport event held every two years in India, featuring athletes from different states and union territories of the country.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu finished second in the medal tally with a total of 215 medals, including 56 gold medals.
• Haryana finished third with a total of 178 medals, including 47 gold medals.
• Karnataka finished seventh in the medal tally with a total of 78 medals, including 17 gold medals.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Khelo India Youth Games is an annual multidisciplinary sports event organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• It was launched in 2018 to promote sports at the grassroots level and identify young talent in various disciplines.
• The 5th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games is scheduled to be held in Madhya Pradesh from 21st to 30th March 2022.
• The event will feature over 20,000 athletes from across the country competing in 20 different sports.
• Madhya Pradesh has been chosen as the host state due to its excellent sports infrastructure and facilities.
• The state has recently hosted several major national and international sporting events, including the 2019 FIH Hockey Olympic Qualifiers and the 2020 National Games.

Additional Information

• Haryana has been a regular host of the Khelo India Youth Games, having hosted the first and fourth editions of the event.
• Goa has not hosted the Khelo India Youth Games before.
• However, the state has hosted several international events such as the Lusofonia Games and the AFC U-16 Championship.
• Telangana has not hosted the Khelo India Youth Games before.
• However, the state has hosted several national and international events such as the Premier Badminton League and the World Series Hockey.
• The Khelo India Youth Games is a great platform for young athletes to showcase their skills and compete against the best in the country.
• It also provides them with exposure and opportunities to develop their potential and pursue a career in sports.

Given:

 

Radius of big ladoo, R = 810 cm

Radius of small ladoo, r = 90 cm

Formula used:

The volume of a sphere = (4/3)πR³

The surface area of a sphere =  4πR²

Calculation:

Volume of big ladoo = Volume of all small ladoos together

⇒ (4/3)πR³ = n × (4/3)πr³

⇒ n = (R/r)³ (Where n is the number of small ladoos)

Total surface area of all small ladoos = n × 4πr² = (R/r)³ × 4πr²

The ratio of total surface area of all small ladoos to the surface area of big ladoo 

[(R/r)³ × 4πr²] : 4πR² = R/r = 810 : 90 = 9 : 1 

∴ The correct answer is 9 : 1

Given:

company A gives buy 4 sweaters and get 2 free

company B gives buy 2 sweaters and get 3 free

company C gives a discount of 5%.

Formula used:

Discount % = (free object/total object) × 100

Calculation:

For company A

Discount % = (2/6) × 100 = 33.33%

For company B

Discount % = (3/5) × 100 = 60%

∴ The correct answer is 'B gives the best offer for the customer'.

Given:

A and B knit a sweater in 255 hours

B and C knit it in 170 hours

A and C knit it together in 204 hours

Concept used:

Efficiency = 1-day work

Required time = Total work/Efficiency

Calculation:

Total work = LCM of (255, 170, 204) = 1020

 

Efficiency of 2(A + B +C) = 4 + 6 + 5

⇒ Efficiency of (A + B +C) = 15/2

So, Time required to knit a sweater by (A + B + C)

⇒ 1020/(15/2) = 2040/15 = 136 hours

∴ A, B and C together will take 136 hours to knit a sweater.

Given:

Case 1: 

Total amount for 2 years of investment at 20% p.a. in CI

Case 2: 

Total amount for 2 years of investment at 20% compounding half yearly

Difference between the above two cases = Rs. 482

Formula used:

Total amount at CI = P × (1 + R/100)^N

Calculation:

Let, the principal amount = P

According to the question,

P(1 + 10/100)⁴ - P(1 + 20/100)2 = 482

⇒ P(11/10)4 - P(6/5)2 = 482

⇒ P(1.1)⁴ - P(1.2)² = 482

⇒ P(1.4641 - 1.44) = 482 

⇒ P × 0.0241 = 482

⇒ P = 482/(0.0241) = Rs. 20,000

∴ The sum invested is Rs. 20,000.

Given:

The ratio of the present ages of Rani and Rohan is 3 ∶ 4.

After 3 years their ratio = 4 ∶ 5.

Calculation:

Let the present age of Rani be 3x

And the present age of Rohan be 4x

Then, ${3x + 3 \over 4x + 3} = {4\over 5}$ 

⇒ 15x + 15 = 16x + 12

⇒ x = 3

Present age of Rani = 3x = 3 × 3 = 9

Her age after 24 years = 9 + 24 = 33 years

And the present age of Rohan = 4x = 4 × 3 = 12

His age after 24 years = 12 + 24 = 36 years

The ratio of their ages after 24 years = 33: 36 

⇒ 11: 12

Hence, the correct answer is 11: 12.

Alternate Method

⇒ (4 × 4) units - (5 × 3) units = (5 × 3) - (3 × 4)  

⇒ 16 units - 15 units = 15 - 12 

⇒ 1 unit = 3

Thus, the present age of Rani ⇒ 3 × 3 = 9 years

Her age after 24 years ⇒ 9 + 24 = 33 years

And the present age of Rohan ⇒ 4 × 3 = 12 years 

His age after 24 years ⇒ 12 + 24 = 36

The ratio of their ages after 24 years ⇒ 33: 36 = 11: 12

Hence, the correct answer is 11: 12.

Given:

The number range is 70 to 100

Formula Used:

Average = $Sum \ of \ all\ the\ observations\over Total\ number\ of\ observations\$ 

Calculation:

Prime numbers that lie between 70 and 100 are 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97

The sum of all the terms = 71 + 73 + 79 + 83 + 89 + 97

⇒ The sum of all the terms = 492

Total number of terms = 6

⇒ Average = 492/6

⇒ Average = 82

Hence, the correct answer is 82.

Given:

Loss = 12%

Required SP = $\frac{4}{5}$th of (SP at 12% loss)

Formula Used:

Profit = SP - CP

Profit % = Profi/CP × 100

Calculation:

Let the required SP be 's'. 

Let the CP be 100a

Then, at a 12% loss, SP = 88a

∵ SP = $\frac{4}{5}$th of s

⇒ 88a =  $\frac{4}{5}$th of s

⇒ 22a × 5 = s

⇒ 110a = s

Now, Profit = 110a - 100a 

⇒ Profit = 10a

⇒ Profit % = 10a/100a × 100

⇒ Profit % = 10%

Thus, when sold at a $\frac{4}{5}$th of (SP at 12% loss), the profit is 10%.

Hence, the correct answer is 10%.

Given:

Total people = 2310

<br>

The numbers are divided into three parties such that half of the number in the first party, one-third of the number in the second party and one-sixth of the number in the third party, are all equal.

<br>

Concept used:

<br>

Equating the given ratio conditions and solving the equations to find the actual number of people.

Calculation:

Let the number of people be x in the first party, y in the second party and z in the third party. People in each party are grouped so that half of the people in the first party are equal to one-third of the people in the second party, which is equal to one-sixth of the people in the third party. This can be written as:

x/2 = y/3 = z/6 = k (let's assume k to be the common value)

<br>

Also, we know that the total number of people is 2310. So, we have:

x + y + z = 2310 

<br>

Now we need to find the values of x, y, and z that satisfy both equations. From the first equation, we can express x, y, and z in terms of k:

x = 2k, y = 3k, z = 6k

<br>

Substitute these values into the second equation:

2k + 3k + 6k = 2310

⇒ 11k = 2310 

<br>

k = 2310 / 11 = 210

<br>

⇒ Now, we substitute k = 210 into the expressions we found for x, y, and z:

x = 2k = 2 × 210 = 420

<br>

y = 3k = 3 × 210 = 630

<br>

z = 6k = 6 × 210 = 1260

<br>

∴ The number of people in the first, second and third parties are 420, 630 and 1260 respectively.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Alligation method between Initial sugar % and Added sugar %.

Initial solution (30% sugar) and Pure sugar added (100% sugar) to get a 65% mixture.

Ratio of Initial solution to Added sugar = (100 − 65) : (65 − 30) = 35 : 35 = 1 : 1.

Since the initial solution is 85 g (1 unit), the sugar to be added is 1 × 85 g = 85 g.

∴ The correct answer is 85 g.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial weight = 85 g, Initial Sugar % = 30%, Final Sugar % = 65%.

Concept: Since only sugar is added, the quantity of water remains constant in both the initial and final solutions.

⇒ Initial Water % = 100% − 30% = 70%

⇒ Initial Water weight = 70% of 85 g = 0.70 × 85 = 59.5 g

⇒ Final Water % = 100% − 65% = 35%

⇒ Let the New solution weight be x. Then, 35% of x = 59.5 g

⇒ x = (59.5 × 100) ÷ 35 = 170 g

⇒ Sugar to be added = New weight − Initial weight = 170 − 85 = 85 g

∴ The correct answer is 85 g.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

It is a rule that enables us to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients at the given price must be mixed to produce a mixture of a specified price.

Constant Product Rule

In mixture problems, if only one component is added or removed, the quantity of the other component (the invariant) remains the same. Total Solution₁ × % Invariant₁ = Total Solution₂ × % Invariant₂.

Percentage Concentration

Concentration of a solute in a solution is (Weight of solute ÷ Total weight of solution) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Upstream speed = 1 km ÷ 0.5 hr = 2 kmph

Downstream speed = 3 km ÷ 0.5 hr = 6 kmph

Boat speed in still water = (Downstream + Upstream) ÷ 2 = (6 + 2) ÷ 2 = 4 kmph

Time required for 8 km = Distance ÷ Still water speed = 8 ÷ 4 = 2 hr

∴ The correct answer is 2 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance against current (Upstream) = 1 km, Time = 0.5 hr

Distance with current (Downstream) = 3 km, Time = 30 min = 0.5 hr

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Still Water Speed (v) = (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ Upstream speed (U) = 1 ÷ 0.5 = 2 kmph

⇒ Downstream speed (D) = 3 ÷ 0.5 = 6 kmph

⇒ Speed of boat in still water (v) = (6 + 2) ÷ 2

⇒ v = 8 ÷ 2 = 4 kmph

⇒ Time taken to cover 8 km = 8 ÷ 4

⇒ Time = 2 hr

∴ The correct answer is 2 hr.

Additional Information

Downstream Speed

It is the speed of the boat in the same direction as the stream. D = v + u, where v is boat speed and u is stream speed.

Upstream Speed

It is the speed of the boat against the direction of the stream. U = v − u.

Speed of Stream

The speed of the current or stream can be calculated as: u = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Average Speed

If a boat travels equal distances downstream and upstream, the average speed is (D × U) ÷ v.

Given:

The numbers = 54, 120, and 96

Concept used:

LCM is the least common multiple of two or more numbers

Calculation:

Calculate the LCM of 54, 120 and 96

⇒ 54 = 2 × 3³

⇒ 120 = 2³ × 3 × 5

⇒ 96 = 2⁵ × 3

The LCM of numbers = 2⁵ × 3³ ×  5 = 32 × 27 × 5 = 4320

But this is the only 4-digit number and the smallest five-digit number is 10000

The smallest 5-digit number will be a multiple of 4320

⇒ 10000/4320 = 2.31

So, the smallest five-digit number = 4320 × 3 = 12960

∴ The smallest 5-digit number divisible by each of 54, 120, and 96 is 12960

Concept Used:

Calculation:

$\rm \left[\frac{0.36}{0.012\ of \ 0.4}\right]× 0.5\$

⇒ (0.36/0.0048) × 0.5

⇒ 75 × 0.5

⇒ 37.5 

∴ The correct option is 4.

Shortcut Trick

To minimize the number of rooms, we must maximize the number of participants per room.

Max participants per room = HCF of 216, 96, and 168.

HCF(216, 96, 168) = 24.

Minimum rooms = (216 + 96 + 168) ÷ 24 = 480 ÷ 24 = 20.

∴ The correct answer is 20 rooms.

Alternate Method

Given:

Participants in Music = 216

Participants in Physical Education = 96

Participants in Fine Arts = 168

To find the maximum capacity of each room:

⇒ Prime factorization of 216 = 2³ × 3³

⇒ Prime factorization of 96 = 2⁵ × 3

⇒ Prime factorization of 168 = 2³ × 3 × 7

⇒ HCF = 2³ × 3 = 8 × 3 = 24

Now, calculate the number of rooms for each stream:

⇒ Rooms for Music = 216 ÷ 24 = 9

⇒ Rooms for Physical Education = 96 ÷ 24 = 4

⇒ Rooms for Fine Arts = 168 ÷ 24 = 7

⇒ Total rooms = 9 + 4 + 7 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 rooms.

Additional Information

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

The HCF is the largest positive integer that divides each of the integers without a remainder. It is used to find the maximum possible size of identical groups.

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The LCM is the smallest positive integer that is divisible by all the numbers in a given set. It is used to find common time or meeting points.

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two positive integers a and b, HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b) = a × b.

Given:

SP = (3/5) × CP

Formula Used:

Loss% = [(CP - SP)/CP]/100

Calculation:

According to the question

SP = (3/5) × CP

⇒ SP/CP = 3/5

Let SP and CP be 3x and 5x respectively

Loss% = [(5x - 3x)/5x]/100

⇒ Loss% = (2x/5x) × 100

⇒ Loss% = 40%

∴ The loss percentage is 40%.

Given:

The sum of money becomes 5 times of itself in 8 years on SI

Formula Used:

1. SI = PRT/100

2. Amount = SI + P

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time(in years)

Calculation:

Let the sum be P

According to the question

⇒ Amount = 5P

⇒ SI + P = 5P

⇒ SI = 4P

Here, SI = 4P, T = 8 years

⇒ 4P = (P × R × 8)/100

⇒ R = (4 × 100)/8

⇒ R = 50%

∴ At the rate of 50% per annum, a sum of money becomes 5 times of itself in 8 years on SI.

Formula Used:

1. Volume of Cuboid = abc

2. Total Surface Area of Cuboid = 2(ab + bc + ca)

Calculation:

Volume of Cuboid = V = abc

⇒ a = V/bc

⇒ b = V/ac

⇒ c = V/ab

Total Surface Area of Cuboid = S = 2(ab + bc + ca)

Putting the above values,

S = 2 [(V/bc)b + (V/ac)c + (V/ab)a]

⇒ S = 2 (V/c + V/a + V/b)

⇒ S = 2V (1/c + 1/a + 1/b)

⇒ (1/V) = (2/S) (1/c + 1/a + 1/b)

Given:

The HCF of x and 117 is expressible in the form 2x - 117

Concept used:

We will use the option elimination method.

Calculation:

Option 1:

Factors of 65 = 13 × 5

Factors of 117 = 3 × 3 × 13

The HCF of 65 and 117 = 13

Put the x value in the equation

⇒ 2x - 117

⇒ 2 × 65 - 117 = 13

This means option 1 satisfies the equation.

Option 2:

Factors of 75 = 3 × 5 × 5

Factors of 117 = 3 × 3 × 13

The HCF of 65 and 117 = 3

Put the x value in the equation

⇒ 2x - 117

⇒ 2 × 75 - 117 = 33

This means option 2 does not satisfy the equation.

Option 3:

Factors of 62 = 2 × 31 

Factors of 117 = 3 × 3 × 13

There are no common factors in both numbers

This means option 3 does not satisfy the equation

Option 4:

Factors of 91 = 7 × 13

Factors of 117 = 3 × 3 × 13

The HCF of 65 and 117 = 13

Put the x value in the equation

⇒ 2x - 117

⇒ 2 × 91 - 117 = 65

This means option 4 does not satisfy the equation.

∴ The correct answer is 65.

Shortcut Trick

The team with the highest combined efficiency (or the lowest sum of individual days for two people) will finish first.

Team VENUS (A + D): 15 days and 8 days.

Team MERCURY (B + C): 12 days and 20 days.

Team MARS (A + C): 15 days and 20 days.

Comparing the fastest members: D (8 days) is the fastest individual, and he is in team VENUS. Since A is faster than C, A + D will definitely be faster than C + D or B + C.

∴ The correct answer is VENUS.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by A = 15 days, B = 12 days, C = 20 days, D = 8 days.

Formula: Total Work = LCM of days; Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Days.

⇒ Efficiency of Team VENUS (A + D) = 8 + 15 = 23 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Team MERCURY (B + C) = 10 + 6 = 16 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Team MARS (A + C) = 8 + 6 = 14 units/day

⇒ Time taken by VENUS = 120 ÷ 23 ≈ 5.21 days

⇒ Time taken by MERCURY = 120 ÷ 16 = 7.5 days

⇒ Time taken by MARS = 120 ÷ 14 ≈ 8.57 days

⇒ Since VENUS has the highest efficiency, it takes the least time.

∴ The correct answer is VENUS.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If efficiency increases, time taken to complete the same work decreases.

Combined Work Formula

For two people with days x and y, the time taken together is (x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the work done or the ratio of efficiencies when they work for the same duration.

Given:

Test 1: Score = 12, Total = 20, Weightage = 15%

Test 2: Score = 16, Total = 20, Weightage = 12%

Test 3: Score = 40, Total = 50, Weightage = 30%

Test 4: Score = 80, Total = 100, Weightage = 10%

Test 5: Score = 14, Total = 20, Weightage = 33%

Concept used:

Weighted Average = Sum of (Score/Total × Weightage)

Calculation:

According to the concept,

(12/20 × 15% + 16/20 × 12% + 40/50 × 30% + 80/100 × 10% + 14/20 × 33%)

⇒ (0.09 + 0.096 + 0.24 + 0.08 + 0.231) 

⇒ 0.737 or 73.7%

∴ The weighted average of the percentages she obtained in the five tests is 73.7%

Given:

Ratio of volume of three containers = 4 : 5 : 6

Ratio of petrol and kerosene in container 1 = 3 : 1

Ratio of petrol and kerosene in container 2 = 3 : 2

Ratio of petrol and kerosene in container 3 = 5 : 1

Calculation:

Let the volume of containers be 4 liters, 5 liters, and 6 liters.

For Container I,

⇒ Petrol = (3/4 × 4) = 3 liters

⇒ Kerosene = (1/4 × 4) = 1 liters

For Container II,

⇒ Petrol = (3/5 × 5) = 3 liters

⇒ Kerosene = (2/5 × 5) = 2 liters

For Container III,

⇒ Petrol = (5/6 × 6) = 5 liters

⇒ Kerosene = (1/6 × 6) = 1 liters

The required ratio for the IV container,

Total petrol : Total kerosene

⇒ (3 + 3 + 5) : (1 + 2 + 1)

⇒ 11 : 4

∴The ratio of petrol to kerosene in the fourth container is 11 : 4.

The logic followed here is:

So, 44 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given: K, R, I, H, G and F are six candidates who are selected for the programme of M.Ed of ‘XYZ’ university.

Each has to join in different months of the same year viz. January, April, June, August, September and December.

H has to join in April.

Only K has to join after I.

F has to join immediately after G.

<br>

From the above arrangement R joins in the month of January.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

According to the given Venn Diagram:

The shaded area shows the Total number of women who use both Channel and Hugo brands only, which is 70.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) RVTX

Option 2) GKIM

Option 3) MQOT

Option 4) BFDH 

So, MQOT is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Family Chart: 

<br>

Given Expression: ‘G ^ H # I @ J & K’

G is brother of Father of H. H is son of I. I is wife of J. J is father of K.

So, G is Father's Brother of K.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given Equation: [{(7 + 3) × (3 × 1)} − (1 ÷ 2)] ÷ 2

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

<br>

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

New Equation: [{(7 - 3) + (3 + 1)} ÷ (1 × 2)] × 2

Calculation:

⇒ [{(7 - 3) + (3 + 1)} ÷ (1 × 2)] × 2

<br>

⇒ [{4 + 4} ÷ (1 × 2)] × 2

 

⇒ [8 ÷ (1 × 2)] × 2

 

⇒ [8 ÷ 2)] × 2

 

⇒ 4 × 2 = 8.

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The Position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

So, 805Y will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: Seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G of a certain department, have a function to attend on a different day of a week, starting from Monday to Sunday of the same week.

B has to attend the function on Tuesday.

G has to attend the function on Sunday.

E has to attend the function immediately before A.

<br>

Only F has to attend the function between A and C.

D has to attend the function on one of the days before B, A or C. 

<br>

From The Above arrangement, A attends the function on Thursday.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given:

Arun walks 5 m south from his office

turns left and walks 3 m

again turns left and walks 13 m

then turns left and walks 3 m to reach the grocery shop

The distance between Office to Grocery Shop = 13 - 5 = 8KM.

So, Arun is 8km far in North direction from his office.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Word: ADMIT

After arranging in Alphabetical order

 

After arranging in alphabetical order

Letter second from the left: D

Letter second from the right: M

Now,

There are 8 letters between D and M

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is: Vowels in words are increased by 2 and consonants are decreased by 1.

'ACTIVE' is coded as 'CBSKUG'

'MEMBER' is coded as 'LGLAGQ'

Similarly, 'LEAGUE'

So, LEAGUE will be coded as KGCFWG.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is: Each Vowel of the word is increased by 1 and each consonant of the given word is decreased by 1.

For, EXAM : FWBL

For, ROOM : QPPL

Similarly, TEST

So, TEST will be SFRS.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: (Left) 3 * @ 5 % 3 + = 3 3 % 8 7 & 5 $ 7 5 & # * 8 2 @ 5(Right)

Now, 

Symbols, which are immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number.

So, Needed pattern is: Number - Symbol - Number.

There are 5 Symbols which are preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given: Seven teachers A, B, C, D, E, Y and Z are sitting in a straight row, facing north.

Only C sits to the right of E.

Only A sits between E and D.

A is to the immediate left of E.

 

Only B sits between Z and Y.

Z does not sit at any extreme ends of the row.

 

So, Y sits to the immediate left of B.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Confusion PointsOnly C is sitting right of E---> which means C is sitting at the extreme right end and E is sitting second from the right end. as given that only C is sitting at the right of E, nobody else. 

In DAECZBY---> ZBY is also sitting to the right of E, which doesn't satisfy the conditions given in the question.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is: Except Middle letter, All letters of given are coded as their opposite letter in reverse order, while middle letter remains same.

'GLASS' is coded as 'T0AHH'

 

'METAL' is coded as 'NVTZO'

 

PAPER:

So, 'PAPER' will be coded as 'KZPVI'

Hence the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Equation: 4 × 12 ÷ 9 + 7 – 10 = 0

BODMAS Table:

Let's check each option One by One:

Option 1) 4,7

Given: 4 × 12 ÷ 9 + 7 – 10 = 0

After interchanging the numbers, we get:

⇒ 7 × 12 ÷ 9 + 4 – 10 = 0

⇒ 7 × 1.3 + 4 – 10 = 0

⇒ 9.1 + 4 – 10 = 0

⇒ 13.1 - 10 = 0

⇒ 3.1 ≠ 0

Option 2) 9, 10

Given: 4 × 12 ÷ 9 + 7 – 10 = 0

After interchanging the numbers, we get:

⇒ 4 × 12 ÷ 10 + 7 – 9 = 0

⇒ 4 × 1.2 + 7 – 9 = 0

⇒ 4.8 + 7 - 9 = 0

⇒ 11.8 - 9 = 0

⇒ 2.8 ≠ 0.

Option 3) 9, 12

Given: 4 × 12 ÷ 9 + 7 – 10 = 0

After interchanging the numbers, we get:

⇒ 4 × 9 ÷ 12 + 7 – 10 = 0

⇒ 4 × 0.75 + 7 – 10 = 0

⇒ 3 + 7 - 10 = 0

⇒ 10 - 10 = 0

⇒ 0 = 0.

Option 4) 9, 4

Given: 4 × 12 ÷ 9 + 7 – 10 = 0

After interchanging the numbers, we get:

⇒ 9 × 12 ÷ 4 + 7 – 10 = 0

⇒ 9 × 3 + 7 – 10 = 0

⇒ 27 + 7 - 10 = 0

⇒ 34 - 10 = 0

⇒ 24 ≠ 0.

So, by interchanging 9, 12 the equation becomes correct.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 105 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given: Six lions N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight row, facing north.

Only Q sits to the left of R.

O sits at an extreme end of the row.

N sits second to the left of O.

S sits second to the right of P.

So, S sits to the immediate right of N.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given Statement: ¥ < ∞ = µ ≤ © > Ω = ᴓ > β

Now,

Conclusions:

I. Ω > µ → False ( ¥ < ∞ = µ ≤ © > Ω = ᴓ > β, Gives  µ ≤ © > Ω, No Definite relation possible)

II. ∞ < ᴓ → False (¥ < ∞ = µ ≤ © > Ω = ᴓ > β, Gives ∞ = µ ≤ © > Ω = ᴓ , No Definite relation possible)

Thus, Neither Conclusion I Nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

For, EV – GT – LO

For, PK – RI – WD

Now, Check Options One by One:

Option 1) QJ – SH – WE

Option 2) OL – QJ – VE

Option 3) BX – EV – JQ

Option 4) BD – DF – IK

Only, OL - QJ - VE Follows the pattern of given triad.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The correct answer is "losing."

Key Points

• In English grammar, after verbs of perception (feel, find, hear, notice, observe, perceive, see, and watch), infinitives (to be lost, to lose) or simple forms (lose, lost) are not used.
• Instead, gerunds (-ing form of a verb, like losing) are used to refer to an ongoing process or action that follows the main verb.
• In this context, the verb 'has begun' indicates that the action of the watch losing time started in the past and continues into the present, with the possibility of continuing into the future.
• So, in this case, we need to use a gerund to match the continuous tense and refer to the ongoing process of the watch losing time.
• So the complete sentence is: My watch has begun losing a few minutes every day.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Complete". 

Key Points

• The idiom "out and out" is used in English to express something or someone being completely or thoroughly a particular kind, quality, or condition, with no possibility of doubt or dispute.
• This idiom is used to emphasize the definitive and extreme nature of a person or thing.
• When you describe something as an "out and out success", for example, you mean that it is entirely successful without any qualms.
• So, based on these interpretations, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "Her mother scolded her for watching YouTube all the time."

Key Points

Let's break down the sentence:

• This sentence can be divided into three parts:
• a) The subject - "Her mother"
• b) The action (verb) - "scolded her"
• c) The reason for the action - "for watching YouTube all the time"
• To join these three parts correctly to form a clear, structured sentence without any interruption, no extra punctuation marks are required.
• That's why it doesn't need any additional commas or other punctuation marks.
• Now let's look at the capitalisation:
• "Her" and "YouTube" are correctly capitalised in this sentence.
• The pronoun "Her" is capitalised because it is the first word of the sentence, and the first word in any English sentence should always be capitalised.
• "YouTube" is capitalised because it's a proper noun.
• Proper nouns refer to specific people, places, or things.
• They always need to begin with a capital letter.
• As "YouTube" is the name of a specific online video sharing platform, it should be capitalised.
• Therefore, the sentence "Her mother scolded her for watching YouTube all the time." is grammatically correct, and it adheres to punctuation and capitalisation rules.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "Towal". 

Key Points

• The correct spelling for the word trying to be represented here is "Towel."
• "Sandal" is correct.
• A sandal is a type of open shoe.
• "Equal" is also correct.
• Equal indicates having the same quantity, measure, or value as another.
• "Loyal" is correctly spelled too.
• Being loyal means showing strong fidelity and commitment to a person, country, group, etc.
• However, "Towal" is not a recognized word in the English language.
• It seems to be a misspelling of the word "Towel," which is a piece of cloth or paper used for drying or wiping.
• So, the word "Towal" is misspelled.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Apostrofe."

Key Points

• Options 1), 2), and 3) are all correctly spelled.
• "Apathy" is correct. It refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern.
• "Apology" is also correct and denotes a regretful acknowledgement of an offence or failure.
• "Apiary" too is correctly spelled and refers to a place where bees are kept, often in beehives.
• However, option 4) "Apostrofe" is a misspelling.
• The correct spelling of the word is "Apostrophe".
• An apostrophe is a punctuation mark used in English writing to show possession (for example, "Emma's book") or omitted letters (for example, "can't" for "cannot").
• So, the correct answer is "Option 4."

The correct answer is "heavily."

Key Points

• The most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word "strongly" in the given sentence "It rained strongly during the weekend." is heavily.
• In English, the word 'strongly' is not typically used to describe rainfall.
• The term 'heavily' is the more appropriate adverb to depict a large amount or great intensity of rain.
• So, if we update the sentence with the correct word, it would be: "It rained heavily during the weekend."
• This sentence conveys the right message: that there was a lot of rain over the weekend.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• Option 2, 'greatly', is not incorrect, but 'heavily' is a more common choice of word to describe intense rain.
• ‘Greatly’ usually talks about extent or degree in a more general sense, and is not specific to describing incidence of weather.
• Option 4, 'thickly', while not completely incorrect, is less commonly used.
• It is often associated with other types of precipitation, such as snow.

The correct answer is "Expect."

Key Points

• The word "anticipate" comes from the Latin word "anticipatus," which means "to take before, to foresee."
• In English, "anticipate" commonly means to look forward to something, to expect it to happen, or to prepare for it before it happens.
• In conclusion, the best match for the word "anticipate" is the choice "Expect."
• This reflects the aspect of looking forward to or preparing for something potentially happening in the future.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• Doubt suggests uncertainty or a lack of conviction, which isn't what "anticipate" implies.
• Hesitate means to pause before doing something, often because of nervousness, fear, or uncertainty, which also doesn't align with "anticipate."
• Question means to ask for information or for greater clarity about something.

The correct answer is "are looking". 

Key Points

• The phrase "These days" indicates a present ongoing action.
• It refers to actions that are happening currently and are likely to continue for some time.
• Option 2 "are looking" is in the present continuous tense, which is used to describe actions that are currently ongoing.
• Therefore, it fits best with "these days."
• So the complete sentence is: These days, we are looking for a new house.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2". 

Additional Information

• "will look" is in the future tense and doesn't align with "these days," which indicates something currently happening.
• "look" is in the present simple tense, which usually represents a general truth or a habitual action, not a currently ongoing action.
• "had looked" is in the past perfect tense, and it indicates an action that was completed before another action or time in the past, which is not in line with "these days".

The correct answer is "unknowingly."

Key Points

• The word "deliberately" means consciously and intentionally; on purpose.
• So, to find an antonym, we need a word that means the opposite - that is, something done unintentionally or without awareness.
• The word "unknowingly" fits this description perfectly as it means without awareness or intention.
• So the complete sentence is: He unknowingly broke the rules of the Ashram.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

• "Possibly" is not an antonym of "deliberately."
• It implies uncertainty, but it doesn't imply a lack of awareness or intent.
• "Intentionally" is actually a synonym for "deliberately", not an antonym, as they both mean doing something on purpose or with clear intent.
• "Freely" does not fit as an antonym either, as it denotes doing something willingly or without hindrance but doesn't convey a lack of intention or awareness.

The correct answer is "ACBD."

Key Points

Let's elaborate this arrangement that makes the most sense:

• A. My grandfather was a retired school teacher and an avid reader.
• (This sentence introduces the character – the grandfather – and gives us an understanding of his background.
• It naturally serves as a good opening sentence.)
• C. He knew a vast number of Sanskrit texts by heart.
• (This sentence adds on to the description of the grandfather from the first sentence.
• It continues the background information, explaining his knowledge of Sanskrit texts, which links smoothly with the fact that he was an avid reader.)
• B. Every night, under the dark sky with the twinkling stars, he would tell me many stories.
• (Now, the background information has been established, this sentence moves from the general picture to a specific, daily activity.
• Note that this sentence introduces that the grandfather tells a variety of stories without specifying the context.)
• D. These were stories from the history of India, the epics and whatever interesting things he had read that day in the papers and magazines.
• (Lastly, this sentence provides the specific content of 'many stories' mentioned in B.)
• The other options don't follow as logically.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "exclamation mark (!)."

Key Points

• In this sentence, "Oh" is an interjection, a word or phrase that expresses strong emotion or surprise.
• Interjections are often followed by an exclamation mark (!) in English grammar to indicate the emphasis or strong emotion.
• So, the most fitting punctuation mark to express surprise or strong emotions after an interjection like "Oh" is the exclamation mark.
• Therefore, the sentence should read "Oh! I didn’t realise that."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1."

Additional Information

• Full stop (.) is typically used to indicate the end of a sentence, not after interjections for emphasis.
• Semicolons (;) are used to link closely related ideas or separate items in a complex list. They are not generally used with interjections.
• Colons (:) are typically used to introduce a list, a quote, or a further explanation, so it would not fit after an interjection.

The correct answer is "declared."

Key Points

• In the context of countries entering into conflict with each other, the most conventionally appropriate verb to use is 'declared'.
• When a country initiates a war, it is said to 'declare war' on another country.
• So the sentence should read: "In February this year, Russia declared war on Ukraine."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

• 'charged' is often used in context of accusations or financial cost, not initiating wars.
• 'assigned' might be used when tasks or roles are given to someone, but it isn't appropriate in the context of initiating wars.

The correct answer is "Jack."

Key Points

• The traditional form of this phrase is "Jack of all trades, master of none," where 'Jack' refers to a generic man, much like 'John Doe.'
• This idiom is used to describe a person who can do many different types of work but perhaps is not particularly adept at any of them.
• So the correct version of the idiom should be: "A jack of all trades is a master of none."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1."

Additional Information

• 'Knave,' although technically meaning a man or a male servant in old use, is not typically used in this idiom.
• 'Knight' is historically a title given to a man by a monarch or church official for service to the sovereign or the Church, especially in a military capacity. This doesn't fit in the idiom.

The correct answer is "the". 

Key Points

• Definite article 'the' implies we are talking about a specific artist that is already known to the reader or listener.
• The use of 'the' tells us that this is not just any artist, but an artist that has presumably been discussed or is understood in the context.
• If there is no prior mention or understanding, 'an' would be used to represent a non-specific artist.
• So the complete sentence reads: Soon after the visitor left, the artist came to his studio.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4."

The correct answer is "by."

Additional Information

• In English, when we say something or someone is "bound by" something, we mean that they are restricted or confined by it.
• It's a fixed phrase and we usually preserve the preposition "by" in this case for it to make sense.
• Therefore, "bound by time" means that our actions and activities are limited or constrained by time.
• So, the correct filling is: In today’s world, we are always bound by time.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1."

The correct answer is "will return". 

Key Points

• Given the context, we can see that this is a future action: returning the book by Saturday.
• Therefore, we need to use the future simple tense, which is constructed with "will + base verb."
• So the correct filling is: I will return your book by Saturday.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• 'am returning' is present continuous tense.
• It doesn't fit because the sentence is talking about a future action, not a current one.
• 'have returned' is present perfect tense.
• It's used to talk about events which happened at an unknown time in the past, or are still having an effect now.
• It's not suitable to talk about a future action.
• 'return' is present simple tense, usually used for habitual actions or general truths, not future plans.

The correct answer is 'feeling; some'.

 

Key Points

• The word "feeling" appropriately follows "was" since it describes Davis's state. (महसूस कर रहा था)
• The phrase "catch some sleep" is a common expression meaning to get some rest. (कुछ नींद लेना)
• The other options: "felt; much," "feels; many," and "feel; any" do not fit the context or are grammatically incorrect.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: When Davis reached his aunt’s place, he was feeling tired and weak. His aunt told him to catch some sleep.

Additional Information

• Felt; much (महसूस किया; बहुत): Although "felt" is past tense, "much sleep" is not a correct phrase in this context.
• Feels; many (महसूस करता है; कई): "Feels" is present tense and "many sleep" is grammatically incorrect.
• Feel; any (महसूस करें; कोई भी): "Feel" is incorrect tense and "any sleep" is less common and awkward in this context.

The correct answer is 'winding'.

Key Points

• The term 'winding' is a common way to describe a road with a series of bends and curves.
• It implies that the road does not proceed directly or simply, but meanders or curves back and forth.
• So the sentence should read: "Then the doctor took the driver's seat and they moved off along the white, winding road."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• 'Crooked' technically could work, but it has negative connotations and is often used to describe something as being deformed, distorted, or corrupt, rather than merely curved or winding.
• 'Twisting' could also work, but 'winding' more naturally conjures up the idea of a winding country road, for example.

The correct answer is "a."

Key Points

• In English grammar, before a singular countable noun when it is mentioned for the first time and represents no particular individual or group, we use the indefinite article 'a' or 'an'.
• The term 'a great scientist' follows this principle, as it doesn't represent a particular scientist, but rather a general description of being 'a (any) great scientist'.
• So the complete sentence is: Dr. Abdul Kalam, the former President of India, was also a great scientist.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4."

Additional Information

• Option 2 'the' is the definite article and is not suitable as there is no specific scientist the sentence is referring to.
• Option 3 'an' is used before words that start with a vowel sound, but 'great' starts with a consonant, therefore 'a' is the correct choice.

The correct answer is "CDAB."

Key Points

• C. Triveni was a very popular writer in the Kannada language.
• (This sentence provides a good introduction, allowing the readers to understand who Triveni is.)
• D. She was a wonderful writer.
• (This sentence builds upon the introduction, explaining the quality of Triveni's writing.)
• A. Her style was easy to read and very convincing.
• (This sentence provides additional information about Triveni's writing style, thus logically following after Sentence D.)
• B. Her stories usually dealt with complex psychological problems in the lives of ordinary people and were always very interesting.
• (This sentence completes the description of Triveni's work, making it the perfect summary.)
• The other options don't follow as logically. When constructing a paragraph, it's crucial to start with the broadest information, which in this case is introducing the writer (Triveni) and then gradually move to the specifics.
• Hence, the correct arrangement is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Dibang Valley.

Key Points

• Dibang Valley district of Arunachal Pradesh is the least populated district of India as per Census 2011.
• The total population of Dibang Valley district as per the 2011 Census is 7,948.
• The district is located in the northeastern part of Arunachal Pradesh and is known for its scenic beauty and rich biodiversity.
• The district has a low population density of only 1 person per square kilometer, making it one of the most sparsely populated districts in India.

Additional Information

• Changlang district is located in the southeastern part of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It has a total population of 1,48,226 as per the 2011 Census.
• Anjaw district is located in the northeastern part of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It has a total population of 21,089 as per the 2011 Census.
• Itanagar is the capital city of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is located in the Papum Pare district, which has a total population of 1,76,385 as per the 2011 Census.

The correct answer is 42.

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution was passed during the Emergency period in 1976 by the Indira Gandhi-led Congress government.
• It is also known as the "Mini Constitution" because it brought significant changes to the Constitution of India.
• Some of the key changes introduced by the 42nd Amendment include the insertion of Fundamental Duties, the extension of the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, the curtailment of the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and the declaration of India as a "Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic".
• The 42nd Amendment was also criticized for being a tool to centralize power in the hands of the ruling party and for undermining the principles of federalism and judicial independence.

Additional Information

• The 61st Amendment of the Indian Constitution was passed in 1989.
• It lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
• The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution was passed in 1978.
• It made changes to the Constitution to undo some of the provisions introduced by the 42nd Amendment.
• The 52nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution was passed in 1985.
• It made changes related to the anti-defection law and the powers of the Election Commission.

The correct answer is Rihand Thermal Power Station.

Key Points

• Rihand Thermal Power Station is located in Uttar Pradesh and is operated by NTPC Limited.
• It has a total installed capacity of 3000 MW and is one of the largest thermal power plants in India.
• The power plant has five units, each with a capacity of 500 MW.
• Rihand Thermal Power Station primarily uses coal as a fuel source to generate electricity.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh is a state in Northern India and is the most populous state in the country.
• Thermal power stations generate electricity by burning fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and natural gas.
• Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant is located in Madhya Pradesh and is one of the largest integrated power plants in the world.
• Talcher Super Thermal Power Station is located in Odisha and has a capacity of 3000 MW.
• Tiroda Thermal Power Plant is located in Maharashtra and is a coal-based thermal power plant.

The correct answer is Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is one of the most important fundamental rights provided to every citizen of India.
• It guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to every individual, which means that no person shall be deprived of his/her life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• This article also includes the right to live with dignity, which encompasses various aspects such as the right to privacy, freedom from torture, and inhuman treatment.
• The Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 in a broad manner, expanding its scope to include several other rights such as the right to clean environment, right to education, and right to healthcare.

Additional Information

• Right to Vote is covered under Article 326 of the Constitution, which provides for the right to vote to every citizen of India who is above the age of 18 years.
• Child Labour is prohibited under Article 24 of the Constitution, which prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any hazardous occupation.
• Widow Marriage is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, but it is allowed under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and the Special Marriage Act, 1954.

The correct answer is Hunza.

Key Points

• A right bank tributary is a river or stream that flows into a larger river from the right side when looking downstream.
• The Indus river flows through Pakistan and is one of the longest rivers in Asia.
• It originates in the Tibetan plateau and flows through the Himalayas before entering Pakistan.
• Hunza is a river in Pakistan that flows into the Indus river from the right bank.
• It is known for its scenic beauty and is a popular tourist destination.

Additional Information

• The Indus River's first significant tributary is the Zanskar River. 
• It rises northeast of the Great Himalayan Range and empties into the Zanskar region, draining both the Himalayas and the Zanskar Range.
• Beas is a river in northern India that flows into the Sutlej river, which is a tributary of the Indus.
• It is 470 kilometers long overall.
• Jhelum is a river in northern India and eastern Pakistan.
• It flows into the Indus river from the left bank and is not a right bank tributary.

The correct answer is Chapter II.

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution is divided into 25 parts, and Chapter II falls under Part V, which deals with the Union Government.
• Chapter II consists of Articles 79 to 122, which lay down the provisions for the composition, powers, and procedures of the Parliament of India.
• The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), and the Lok Sabha (House of the People), as per Article 79.
• Some of the important provisions mentioned in Chapter II include the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament, the procedure for passing bills, the powers and privileges of members, and the role of the Speaker and the Chairman in conducting the proceedings.

Additional Information

• Chapter I deals with the Union and its territory.
• Chapter III deals with the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.
• Chapter IV deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy, which lay down the guidelines for the governance of the country.
• There is no Chapter in the Indian Constitution that is solely dedicated to the Constitution of the Executive branch of the government.
• However, the provisions related to the Executive are scattered across various parts and chapters of the Constitution.

The correct answer is indirect tax.

Key Points

• Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax.
• GST is a consumption-based tax that is levied on the supply of goods and services.
• It is not directly imposed on income, property, or wealth.
• The tax is collected by businesses on behalf of the government and is ultimately borne by the end consumer.
• This makes it an indirect tax.
• GST is designed to be a comprehensive tax that replaces multiple indirect taxes such as excise duty, service tax, and value-added tax (VAT).
• This simplifies the tax system and reduces the cascading effect of multiple taxes.
• The GST system has a mechanism for input tax credit, which allows businesses to claim credit for the GST paid on purchases.
• This ensures that the tax is levied only on the value added at each stage of the supply chain.

Additional Information

• Wealth tax is a direct tax that is levied on the net wealth of an individual or entity.
• Capital gains tax is also a direct tax that is levied on the profits earned from the sale of assets such as property, stocks, or bonds.
• Direct taxes are taxes that are imposed directly on income, property, or wealth.
• They are paid by the person or entity that is subject to the tax.
• Indirect taxes are taxes that are imposed on goods and services.
• They are collected by businesses and ultimately borne by the end consumer.

The correct answer is 1037.

Key Points

• The sex ratio of Puducherry as per the 2011 Census is 1037.
• Sex ratio is a demographic indicator that represents the number of females per 1000 males in a population.
• Puducherry is a Union Territory located in the southern part of India with an area of 479 sq. km. and a population of 9,50,289 as per the 2011 Census.

Additional Information

• Sex ratio is an important demographic indicator that reflects the social, economic, and cultural status of a region or country.
• A higher sex ratio indicates a better gender balance in the population, whereas a lower sex ratio indicates a skewed gender distribution.
• Puducherry has a higher sex ratio compared to the national average of India, which was 943 as per the 2011 Census.

The correct answer is English.

Key Points

• The proceedings of the Supreme Court are conducted in English.
• English is the official language of the Supreme Court of India.
• The Constitution of India specifies that all proceedings of the Supreme Court shall be in English.
• The use of English in the Supreme Court helps to ensure consistency and clarity in legal language and facilitates communication between judges, lawyers, and litigants from different parts of the country.

Additional Information

• Regional Language of States:
• While the Constitution of India recognizes the importance of regional languages and provides for their use in various contexts, it does not permit the use of regional languages in the Supreme Court.
• This is because the Supreme Court is a national institution that deals with issues of national importance, and the use of a common language helps to promote unity and coherence in the legal system.
• Hindi:
• Although Hindi is one of the official languages of India, it is not used in the proceedings of the Supreme Court.
• This is because Hindi is not widely spoken or understood by all sections of the population, particularly in the southern and northeastern parts of the country.
• Moreover, the legal language in India has been traditionally influenced by English common law, and the use of Hindi would require the development of a new legal vocabulary and terminology.

The correct answer is Polaj.

Key Points

• The term used to describe the land which had been continuously cultivated in the Zabti system during the Mughal Empire is "Polaj".
• The Zabti system was a land revenue system introduced by Akbar in the 16th century, which aimed to ensure a regular flow of revenue to the state and prevent exploitation of peasants by officials.
• "Banjar" refers to the uncultivated or fallow land.
• "Parauti" refers to the land which was cultivated but left uncultivated for a year or more.
• "Chachar" refers to the land which was cultivated but produced no crop due to natural calamities.

Additional Information

• The Zabti system was based on an assessment of the yield of the land and fixed rates of revenue were charged accordingly.
• The system was efficient in ensuring a regular flow of revenue to the state, but it also led to the exploitation of peasants who were forced to pay fixed rates even if their crops failed due to natural calamities.
• The Zabti system was later replaced by the Ryotwari system in British India, which gave individual cultivators the right to own and cultivate land and pay revenue directly to the state.

The correct answer is 91.80%.

Key Points

• As per the 2011 Census, in Lakshadweep 91.8% of the population is literate.
• The literacy rate of Lakshadweep has increased from 86.7% in the 2001 Census to 91.8% in the 2011 Census.
• Lakshadweep has the highest literacy rate among all the Union Territories of India.
• The literacy rate of Lakshadweep is higher than the national average literacy rate of India, which is 73.0%.

Additional Information

• 94.0 % is the literacy rate of Kerala as per the 2011 Census, which is the highest among all Indian states.
• 91.3% is the literacy rate of Mizoram as per the 2011 Census, which is the second-highest among all Indian states.
• 65.4% is the literacy rate of Bihar as per the 2011 Census, which is one of the lowest among all Indian states.
• The percentage of a population that is literate is known as the literacy rate.
• It is a crucial indicator of the state of a nation's education system and the capacity of its people to engage with the outside world and obtain information.

The correct answer is 2/3.

Key Points

• Vidhan Sabha can ask the President to create or dissolve the Vidhan Parishad if it has a majority of 2/3 members in the house.
• This provision is mentioned in Article 169 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Vidhan Sabha can pass a resolution requesting the President to create or dissolve the Vidhan Parishad, and if the President approves the request, then the necessary steps are taken to implement it.
• Vidhan Sabha is the lower house of the state legislature in India, and it is responsible for making laws and policies at the state level.
• Vidhan Parishad is the upper house of the state legislature, which is also known as the Legislative Council.
• It acts as a check on the Vidhan Sabha and plays a crucial role in the legislative process.

Additional Information

• The Vidhan Parishad is not present in all the states of India.
• It is only present in a few states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
• The creation or dissolution of the Vidhan Parishad is a political decision, and it is often influenced by the ruling party's agenda and the opposition's demands.
• The Vidhan Parishad's members are not directly elected by the people, unlike the Vidhan Sabha.
• Instead, they are elected by different constituencies like local bodies, teachers, graduates, and others.

The correct answer is Gurjara-Pratihara.

Key Points

• The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty was able to maintain its hold over Kannauj till the end in the Tripartite Struggle.
• The dynasty was able to do so by forming alliances with other regional powers and using their military might to defeat their rivals.
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas were also able to maintain their hold over Kannauj due to their efficient administration and patronage of the arts and culture.
• The dynasty's decline was ultimately caused by internal conflicts and external invasions by the Ghaznavids and the Gahadavalas.

Additional Information

• The Pala dynasty was based in Bengal and Bihar.
• It was known for its patronage of Buddhism and the arts.
• The Rashtrakuta dynasty was based in the Deccan.
• It was known for its military exploits and architectural achievements.
• The Chola dynasty was based in South India.
• It was known for its maritime trade and temple architecture.

The correct answer is 1936.

Key Points

• The All India Kisan Sabha was founded in 1936 in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
• It was a peasant organization that aimed to fight for the rights of farmers and peasants against the exploitation by landlords and moneylenders.
• The organization played a significant role in the Indian independence movement and was associated with the Communist Party of India.

Additional Information

• The Sabha was led by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
• NG Ranga served as this association's secretary.
• The All India Kisan Sabha sought to institutionalize credit, decrease land tax, and abolish the Zamindari system.

The correct answer is 6.8%.

Key Points

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) revised India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth projection for 2022-23 to 6.8% from the earlier projection of 7.4% in October 2022.
• The revision was made due to the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic and the subsequent lockdowns on India's economy.
• The IMF also stated that India's economy is expected to recover in the coming years, with growth projections of 6.9% in 2023-24 and 7.4% in 2024-25.

Additional Information

• With its main office in Washington, D.C., the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a prominent United Nations financial agency and a global financial institution supported by 190 member nations.
• It is recognized as the international lender of last resort for national governments and as one of the main forces behind stable currency rates.
• It claims to be "working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world."
• Bulgarian economist Kristalina Georgieva serves as the IMF's managing director (MD) and chairwoman at the moment.

The correct answer is Output.

Key Points

• Production Function is a mathematical model that shows the relationship between inputs (factors of production) and output in the production process.
• Factors of Production are the resources that are used in the production process to produce goods and services.
• The factors of production are classified into four categories - land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship.
• Output is the final product that is produced after the production process is completed.
• It is not a factor of production but the result of the production process.

Additional Information

• Capital is one of the important factors of production that includes all the man-made resources used in the production process, such as machinery, tools, buildings, etc.
• Land is another important factor of production that refers to all the natural resources that are used in the production process, such as land, water, air, minerals, etc.
• Labour is also an important factor of production that refers to the human resources that are involved in the production process, such as workers, managers, supervisors, etc.

The correct answer is Duties and Powers of the CAG.

Key Points

• Article 149 deals with the duties and powers of the CAG.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments.
• The CAG has the power to audit all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of each State.
• The CAG also audits the accounts of bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of each State.

Additional Information

• CAG appointment, oath and conditions of service:
• This is covered under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 148 deals with the appointment and term of office of the CAG.
• The oath and conditions of service of the CAG are mentioned in the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.
• The form of accounts of the Union and of the States:
• This is covered under Article 150 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 150 deals with the form in which accounts of the Union and State governments shall be kept.
• Audit Reports:
• This is covered under Article 151 of the Indian Constitution.
• The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
• The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State.

The correct answer is Speaker.

Key Points

• The Speaker is the head of the Vidhan Sabha, which is the legislative assembly of a state in India.
• As the head, the Speaker is responsible for maintaining order and decorum during the proceedings of the house.
• The Speaker also decides who gets to speak and for how long, and has the power to adjourn the house in case of any disruption or disturbance.
• The Speaker is elected by the members of the Vidhan Sabha and holds the position until the end of their term or until they resign or are removed by a vote of no confidence.
• The Deputy Speaker, on the other hand, assists the Speaker in their duties and presides over the house in the absence of the Speaker.

Additional Information

• The Chief Minister is the head of the executive branch of the state government and is responsible for implementing the policies and decisions of the government.
• They are appointed by the Governor and are usually the leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Vidhan Sabha.
• The Chief Minister is accountable to the Vidhan Sabha and can be removed from office by a vote of no confidence.
• The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the Vidhan Sabha and assists the Speaker in their duties.
• They preside over the house in the absence of the Speaker and help maintain order and decorum during the proceedings.
• The Governor is the head of the state and represents the President of India.
• They are appointed by the President and hold office for a term of five years.
• The Governor's role is largely ceremonial, but they do have some powers related to the functioning of the state government, such as appointing the Chief Minister and other ministers, and giving assent to bills passed by the Vidhan Sabha.

The correct answer is FICCI.

Key Points

• FICCI stands for Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry.
• It was established in 1927 by the Indian Business Community.
• FICCI is a non-government, not-for-profit organisation that focuses on promoting and protecting the interests of Indian businesses and industries.
• Its president is Subhrakant Panda.

Additional Information

• Allahabad Bank was established in 1865 in Allahabad and is one of the oldest banks in India. 
• ​It is a nationalised bank in India and was one of the 14 banks that were nationalised in 1969.
• It has its headquarters in Kolkata, India.
• CIBS stands for Central Institute of Business Studies.
• It is a business school in Kolkata, India.
• It offers various management courses such as MBA, PGDM, and Executive MBA.
• Punjab National Bank (PNB) is a public sector bank in India.
• It was established in 1894 and is one of the largest banks in India.
• It is a public sector bank in India and has its headquarters in New Delhi, India.
• It has a wide network of branches and ATMs across the country.
• It offers various banking and financial services such as personal banking, corporate banking, and international banking.

The correct answer is 1942.

Key Points

• In the year 1942, Jayaprakash Narayan escaped from Hazaribagh Prison and joined the Quit India Movement.
• Jayaprakash Narayan was a freedom fighter and political leader who played a significant role in India's struggle for independence.
• He is renowned for spearheading the opposition movement against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in the middle of the 1970s and advocating for a "total revolution" to remove her.
• In 1999, Narayan received the highest civilian honor in India, the Bharat Ratna, posthumously for his social contribution.
• Among his other honors is the 1965 Magsaysay Award for Public Service.

Additional Information

• The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India.
• The campaign adopted the catchphrases "Bharat Chodo" or "Quit India."
• Gandhi urged the populace to "do or die."
• It was intended to be a nonviolent, nonviolent movement in keeping with Congress doctrine, pushing the British to give India independence.
• On August 8, 1942, in Bombay, the Congress Working Committee passed the Quit India Resolution.
• The very following day, in response to Gandhi's request, the British administration arrested every significant Congress leader.
• An arrest was made of Gandhi, Nehru, Patel, and others.
• As a result, younger activists like Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia took up leadership of the campaign.