IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper (Held On: 23 March, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is NAMASTE.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has announced a new scheme named NAMASTE.
• NAMASTE stands for National Action Plan for the Safety of Sanitation Workers.
• It aims to provide a comprehensive framework for the safety and welfare of sanitation workers in the country.
• The scheme will focus on improving the working conditions of sanitation workers, providing them with adequate protective gear, and ensuring their access to healthcare facilities.
• NAMASTE will also promote the use of technology to reduce the manual handling of waste and improve the efficiency of waste management.
• The scheme will be implemented in collaboration with various stakeholders, including state governments, local bodies, NGOs, and sanitation workers' associations.

Additional Information

• NIRVIK is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to provide credit insurance to exporters.
• It aims to enhance the accessibility of credit and reduce the cost of credit for exporters.
• KAWACH is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• Its aim is to provide health insurance coverage to frontline health workers who are fighting against COVID-19.
• PM-DevINE is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• Its aim is to promote the use of innovative technologies in the construction sector.

The correct answer is glycogen.

Key Points

• Carbohydrates are the primary source of energy for the body, and they are stored in the form of glycogen.
• Glycogen is a complex carbohydrate that is made up of many glucose molecules linked together in a highly branched structure.
• Glycogen is the main storage form of glucose in the body, and it is broken down into glucose when the body needs energy.
• Most glycogen in humans is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles.

Additional Information

• Amylopectin is a highly branched polysaccharide that is found in plants, particularly in starchy foods like potatoes, corn, and rice.
• It is a type of complex carbohydrate that is broken down into glucose for energy.
• Amylose is also a polysaccharide found in plants, but it is a linear chain of glucose molecules rather than a branched structure like amylopectin.
• It is also broken down into glucose for energy.
• Collagen is a fibrous protein that provides strength and elasticity to tissues in the body.
• It is the most abundant protein in the body and is found in skin, bones, tendons, ligaments, and cartilage.
• It is not a carbohydrate and is not used for energy.

The correct answer is Vitamin D.

Key Points

• Vitamin D is also known as the "sunshine vitamin" because it is synthesized in the skin when it is exposed to UV rays from sunlight.
• Specifically, UVB rays are responsible for the conversion of a precursor molecule called 7-dehydrocholesterol into vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) in the skin.
• Vitamin B, also known as the vitamin B complex, refers to a group of water-soluble vitamins that are involved in many metabolic processes in the body.
• These vitamins cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from food sources or supplements.
• Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is important for vision, immune function, and skin health.
• It can be obtained from animal sources such as liver, eggs, and dairy products, as well as some plant sources like carrots and sweet potatoes.
• Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water-soluble vitamin that is important for collagen synthesis, antioxidant protection, and immune function.
• It is found in many fruits and vegetables, especially citrus fruits, strawberries, kiwi, and broccoli.

Additional Information

• Vitamin D is important for bone health, as it helps the body absorb calcium and phosphorus from the diet.
• It also has roles in immune function, muscle function, and cell growth and differentiation.
• Vitamin D deficiency is common worldwide, especially in areas with limited sunlight exposure, darker skin pigmentation, or high levels of air pollution.
• Low levels of vitamin D have been linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis, rickets, autoimmune diseases, and some cancers.
• Vitamin D can also be obtained from dietary sources such as fatty fish, egg yolks, and fortified foods and supplements.
• However, it is difficult to obtain enough vitamin D from food alone, especially in the winter months or for people with limited sun exposure.
• Therefore, some experts recommend taking a vitamin D supplement to maintain optimal levels.

The correct answer is Plasma.

Key Points

• Plasma is considered as the fourth state of matter, after solid, liquid, and gas.
• In plasma, the electrons are not attached to individual atoms but rather move freely in a cloud-like structure.
• Plasma is often found in high-energy environments, such as lightning, stars, and flames.
• Plasma can conduct electricity and respond to magnetic fields, which makes it useful in many applications such as plasma cutting, welding, and TVs.

Additional Information

• Liquid is a state of matter where the atoms or molecules are close together but can still move around and slide past each other.
• Examples include water, oil, and blood.
• Gas is a state of matter where the atoms or molecules are spread out and move freely.
• Examples include air, helium, and carbon dioxide.
• Solid is a state of matter where the atoms or molecules are tightly packed together and cannot move past each other.
• Examples include ice, wood, and metal.

The correct answer is Asthma.

Key Points

• Air pollution is a major cause of respiratory diseases like asthma, bronchitis, and emphysema.
• Poor air quality can cause inflammation of the airways, leading to breathing difficulties and other respiratory problems.
• Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airways, making it difficult to breathe.
• In addition to breathing difficulties, asthma can induce coughing and wheezing.
• Rescue inhalers, which relieve symptoms, and controller inhalers, which prevent symptoms, are typically used to manage asthma.

Additional Information

• Bronchitis is an inflammation of the lining of the bronchial tubes, causing coughing and difficulty breathing.
• Emphysema is a long-term lung disease that causes shortness of breath and damage to the air sacs in the lungs.
• Typhoid is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through contaminated food or water, and is not related to poor air quality.
• It is important to note that poor air quality can also have negative impacts on cardiovascular health and can increase the risk of stroke and heart disease.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Nati folk dance is a traditional dance form of Himachal Pradesh.
• It is performed by both men and women in groups during festivals and weddings.
• The dance involves graceful movements and is accompanied by traditional music instruments like dhol, nagara, and shehnai.
• The dance form is said to have originated in the Kullu valley of Himachal Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Madhya Pradesh is known for its folk dances like Tertali, and Matki dance.
• Odisha is known for its classical dance forms like Odissi and folk dances like Dalkhai and Sambalpuri.
• Karnataka is known for folk dances like Yakshagana and Dollu Kunitha.

The correct answer is south.

Key Points

• Carnatic music is a form of Indian classical music that originated in the southern part of India, particularly in the states of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala.
• It is one of the oldest and most complex systems of music in the world, with a rich history and tradition that dates back more than 2000 years.
• The music is mainly associated with South India, as it has been nurtured and developed in this region over centuries.
• Unlike Western music, which is based on the concept of harmony, Carnatic music is based on melody and rhythm, with a focus on improvisation and intricate patterns of notes and rhythms.

Additional Information

• Western music:
• This refers to the music of Europe and the Americas, which is based on the principles of harmony and tonality.
• Western classical music has its roots in the medieval and Renaissance periods and has evolved over the centuries to include various styles and genres, such as Baroque, Classical, Romantic, and Contemporary.
• Eastern music:
• This refers to the music of Asia, including India, China, Japan, and other countries in the region.
• Eastern music is diverse and includes various styles and genres, such as Indian classical music, Chinese traditional music, and Japanese folk music.
• North India:
• This region of India is known for its rich cultural heritage and has been the birthplace of many forms of classical music, including Hindustani music, which is a style of Indian classical music that originated in the northern part of India.
• South India:
• This region of India is known for its unique culture and traditions, including Carnatic music, which is a form of Indian classical music that originated in the southern part of India.

The correct answer is Naya Savera.

Key Points

• Naya Savera is a scheme launched by the Government of India to empower the students belonging to minority communities and prepare them for competitive examinations.
• The scheme aims to provide free coaching to students from minority communities for competitive exams such as UPSC, SSC, and banking exams.
• The scheme also provides financial assistance to students for admission and tuition fees, and for purchasing study material and equipment.
• The objective of the scheme is to increase the representation of minority communities in government jobs and other competitive exams.

Additional Information

• Nai Manzil is another scheme launched by the Government of India for the education and skill development of minority youth.
• With the help of the Scheme, minority youths who do not possess a formal school leaving certificate—that is, those who are dropouts or who received their education in community education centers like Madarsas—will be able to access formal education and skills, which will enable them to pursue better jobs and livelihoods in the organized sector.
• Seekho aur Kamao is a skill development scheme for minorities.
• The program's objectives are to increase young people's employability by offering them training in a variety of fields.
• Youth taught by approved training partners under the Seekho Kamao Yojana receive a monthly stipend of Rs. 10,000.
• Nai Udaan is a scheme for the development of minority women entrepreneurs.
• The candidates will receive benefits in the form of Direct Benefit Transfer.

The correct answer is "aluminium".

Key Points

• Acid rain dissolves aluminium from soil and releases it into water bodies, making it harmful for plants and animals.
• It also damages the roots and leaves of plants, affecting their growth and productivity.
• Acid rain is formed when sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NO_x) are released into the atmosphere due to human activities like burning of fossil fuels and industrial processes.
• These gases react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form acidic compounds like sulfuric acid and nitric acid.
• Calcium is an essential nutrient for plant growth and is not harmful to plants or animals.
• Oxygen is a gas that is required for respiration and is not affected by acid rain.
• Lead is a toxic heavy metal that may be present in soil and can be harmful to plants and animals if ingested.

Additional Information

• Aluminium is a metal that is commonly found in soil and rocks.
• It is not harmful in small amounts, but excessive amounts can be toxic to plants and animals.
• Acid rain has many other environmental impacts like damaging buildings, monuments, and statues made of stone or metal.
• It also affects soil quality and reduces the availability of nutrients for plants.
• Hence, it is important to reduce the emissions of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides to minimize the impact of acid rain on the environment.

The correct answer is Namdroling.

Key Points

• Namdroling Monastery is a major center of the Nyingma school of Tibetan Buddhism in India.
• It is situated in Bylakuppe, Karnataka.
• It was established in 1963 by Pema Norbu Rinpoche, also known as Penor Rinpoche, and is home to over 5,000 monks and nuns.
• Namdroling Monastery is also known as the Golden Temple due to its ornate and gilded decor.
• It features intricate murals, statues, and other artwork that depict various aspects of Buddhist teachings and mythology.

Additional Information

• Rumtek Monastery, located in Sikkim, is another important center of Tibetan Buddhism in India.
• It is the seat of the Karmapa, the head of the Karma Kagyu school, and houses many ancient artifacts and relics.
• Tharpa Choling Monastery is a small Buddhist monastery located in the village of Kalimpong in West Bengal.
• It was founded in the 1920s by the Tibetan lama Kalu Rinpoche and is known for its beautiful gardens and peaceful atmosphere.
• Palpung Monastery is located in the Kangra Valley of Himachal Pradesh.
• It is the seat of the Tai Situpa, one of the highest-ranking lamas in the Karma Kagyu school, and is renowned for its traditional Tibetan architecture and stunning mountain views.

The correct answer is 1000.

Key Points

• 1000 Khelo India centres will be set up across the country by 2024.
• The Khelo India movement is an initiative by the Government of India to promote sports and fitness among the youth of the country.
• It was launched in 2018 with a budget of Rs. 1756 crore for the period of 2017-18 to 2019-20.
• The Khelo India centres are an integral part of this movement, which aims to identify and nurture young talent in various sports and provide them with the necessary infrastructure, training, and support to excel at the national and international level.
• These centres will be set up in every district of the country and will be equipped with state-of-the-art facilities for training, coaching, and competition.
• The focus will be on developing grassroots-level sports infrastructure and providing access to sports for all.

Additional Information

• The fifth iteration of the Khelo India Youth Games took place in 2023.
• The Khelo India Youth Games 2023 began on January 30 and run through February 11 2023.
• The Khelo India Youth Games 2023 Event was held in Madhya Pradesh this year.
• With 56 gold, 55 silver, and 50 bronze medals from the Khelo India Youth Games 2023, Maharashtra emerged victorious.
• With forty-one gold, thirty-two silver, and fifty-five bronze medals, the reigning champions Haryana finished second.

The correct answer is sulphur dioxide.

Key Points

• Acid rain is a result of the combination of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NO_x) with moisture in the atmosphere.
• Sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) are released into the atmosphere due to human activities like burning of fossil fuels and industrial processes.
• These gases react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form acidic compounds like sulfuric acid and nitric acid

Additional Information

• Lead oxide (PbO) is a toxic substance and is not a significant contributor to acid rain.
• Lead oxide nanoparticles are categorized as hazardous and poisonous to the environment and human health.
• Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO) are greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming and climate change but not to acid rain.
• Greenhouse gases reradiate heat in all directions, including back toward the Earth's surface, after absorbing it from the planet's surface.
• When carbon dioxide (CO₂) and other air pollutants build up in the atmosphere, they absorb solar radiation and sunlight that have bounced off the surface of the earth. This process leads to global warming.

The correct answer is 180.

Key Points

• The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) ranks countries on 32 performance indicators across 11 issue categories covering environmental health and ecosystem vitality.
• The EPI is prepared biennially by Yale University and Columbia University in collaboration with the World Economic Forum.
• In the 2022 EPI, India's overall rank is 180 out of 180 countries, with a score of 27.6 out of 100.
• India's rank has dropped from 155 in 2018 to 180 in 2022, indicating a decline in environmental performance.
• India's low ranking is attributed to poor performance in categories such as air quality, water and sanitation, and climate change.

Additional Information

• 155 is the rank of India in the 2018 EPI, where India scored 30.57 out of 100.
• 160 is the rank of India in the 2020 EPI, where India scored 27.6 out of 100.
• 170 is the rank of India in the 2016 EPI, where India scored 50.3 out of 100.

The correct answer is turmeric.

Key Points

• "Turmeric" is a natural indicator that changes its color based on the pH of the substance being tested.
• Turmeric contains a compound called curcumin, which gives it a yellow color.
• Turmeric contains a chemical called curcumin, which remains yellow in an acidic or neutral solution, but turns red in a base. When you add turmeric into a basic solution (soap water, baking soda), it changes to a deep red colour.
• Turmeric has been used as a natural indicator for centuries in traditional Indian medicine and cooking.
• Turmeric has many health benefits such as reducing inflammation, improving brain function, and lowering the risk of heart disease.

Additional Information

• Sodium is a chemical element that is often used as a reagent in chemistry experiments.
• Sodium is a highly reactive metal that is used in the production of various chemicals and alloys.
• Indigo is a blue dye that is obtained from plants.
• Indigo has been used for centuries to dye textiles.
• Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda, cream of tartar, and cornstarch.
• It is used to leaven baked goods such as cakes and bread.

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• Kathak originated in North India and was originally performed in temples and royal courts.
• It combines elements of music, dance, and storytelling, and is known for its intricate footwork, graceful hand gestures, and facial expressions.
• The Lucknow Gharana is one of the major schools of Kathak, known for its emphasis on delicate movements and subtle expressions.
• Some of the famous Kathak dancers include Birju Maharaj, Sitara Devi, and Shovana Narayan.

Additional Information

• Kathakali:
• This dance form belongs to the state of Kerala.
• It is known for its elaborate make-up, costumes, and facial expressions.
• Mohiniyattam:
• This dance form also belongs to the state of Kerala.
• It is known for its graceful and fluid movements, and the use of white and gold costumes.
• Kuchipudi:
• This dance form belongs to the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• It is known for its intricate footwork, expressive gestures, and vibrant costumes.

The correct answer is 56.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog released SDGs Urban Index 2021-22, which ranked 56 urban areas in India based on their performance in achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• The SDGs Urban Index assesses the performance of cities in India across 17 SDGs, including no poverty, zero hunger, good health and well-being, quality education, gender equality, clean water and sanitation, affordable and clean energy, decent work and economic growth, industry, innovation and infrastructure, reduced inequalities, sustainable cities and communities, responsible consumption and production, climate action, life below water, life on land, peace, justice and strong institutions, and partnerships for the goals.
• The index is aimed at promoting competition among cities to improve their performance in achieving SDGs, and to enable data-driven decision-making and policy-making at the city level.
• The top-ranked city in the SDGs Urban Index 2021-22 was Chandigarh, followed by Shimla, Bhubaneswar, and Pune.
• The bottom-ranked city was Guwahati.

Additional Information

• The National Institution for Transforming India, or NITI Aayog, is an Indian government policy think tank that offers advice on various government initiatives and programs.
• Chairperson of NITI Aayog is Narendra Modi.
• It was established on January 1, 2015.
• It was founded by National Democratic Alliance.

The correct answer is Lucknow.

Key Points

• Lucknow gharana is NOT associated with 'Khayal' music.
• Lucknow gharana is known for its contribution to the development of 'Thumri', a semi-classical form of music.
• Its style is characterized by a slow and romantic rendition of the notes with emphasis on the lyrics.

Additional Information

• 'Khayal' is a form of Hindustani classical music which originated in the Mughal era and is characterized by a free-flowing structure with improvisation and creativity.
• Gwalior gharana is one of the oldest and most prominent gharanas associated with 'Khayal' music.
• Its style is known for its precision and clarity in rendering the notes.
• Patiala gharana is another important gharana associated with 'Khayal' music.
• Its style is known for its emotive and expressive rendition of the notes.
• Kirana gharana is also associated with 'Khayal' music and is known for its melodious and soulful rendition of the notes.

The correct answer is Roger Binny.

Key Points

• Roger Binny is a former Indian cricketer who played for the Indian cricket team from 1979 to 1987.
• He was a right-arm medium-fast bowler and a lower-order batsman.
• He was elected as the 36th president of the BCCI in 2022.

Additional Information

• Sourav Ganguly is a former Indian cricketer and captain of the Indian cricket team.
• He served as the president of the BCCI from 2019 to 2020.
• Sunil Gavaskar is a former Indian cricketer and one of the greatest opening batsmen in the history of cricket.
• He has also served as the interim president of the BCCI in the past.
• Ravi Shastri is a former Indian cricketer and the current head coach of the Indian cricket team.
• He has not been elected as the president of the BCCI.
• The national organization in charge of overseeing cricket in India is the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• Its main office is located in Churchgate, Mumbai, near the cricket centre.
• The richest cricket governing organization globally is the BCCI.
• The BCCI was founded in the latter month of 1928.

The correct answer is three.

Key Points 

• Complex carbohydrates are made up of many sugar molecules bonded together in a more complex chemical structure.
• The exact number of sugar molecules in a complex carbohydrate can vary, but it is always more than two.
• Complex carbohydrates are also known as polysaccharides and are important sources of energy for the body.
• Examples of complex carbohydrates include starches, glycogen, and cellulose.

Additional Information

• Two sugars bond together in a more complex chemical structure describes a disaccharide, which is a simpler form of carbohydrate than a polysaccharide.
• Disaccharides are simple sugars that dissolve in water, much like monosaccharides do.
• Lactose, maltose, and sucrose are three typical examples.

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra became the first Indian to win a Diamond League title in 2022.
• Fourteen of the greatest invitational athletics meetings make up the Diamond League, an annual series of top track and field athletic tournaments.
• Neeraj Chopra is an Indian track and field athlete who competes in the javelin throw event.
• He won the gold medal at the 2018 Asian Games and the 2021 Tokyo Olympics.

Additional Information

• Hima Das is an Indian sprinter .
• She won gold medals in the 400m event at the 2018 World U20 Championships and the 2018 Asian Games.
• Vinesh Phogat is an Indian wrestler who won gold medals at the 2014 and 2018 Commonwealth Games and the 2018 Asian Games.
• She also won a bronze medal at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics.
• Meerabai Chanu is an Indian weightlifter.
• She won silver medals at the 2014 and 2018 Commonwealth Games and the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.

Given:

Time taken by X = 2 × Time taken by Y

Time taken by X = 3 × Time taken by Z

Time to complete work together = 2 days

Concept used:

Efficiency to do a work is inversely proportional to time taken for the same.

Total work = Time × Efficiency

Calculation:

According to the question,

Time ratio, X : Y : Z = 6 : 3 : 2

So, Efficiency ratio = 1/6 : 1/3 : 1/2

Multiply each term by 6

⇒ Efficiency ratio = 6/6 : 6/3 : 6/2 = 1 : 2 : 3

Combined efficiency = 6 units

So, total work = 6 units × 2 = 12 units

Efficiency 'of Y = 2 units

So, time taken by Y alone to do the work = 12/2 = 6 days

∴ Y will finish the work alone in 6 days.

Given: 

The ratio of Salaries of A, B and C in 2018 = 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 5

Increment in salary of A = 10%

Increment in salary of B = 15%

Increment in salary of C = 20%

Formula used:

Salary after increment = old salary × [(100 + increased percent)/100]

Calculation:

Let the salary of A, B and C is 2x, 3x and 5x respectively.

In 2019,

New salary of A after increment = 2x × (110/100) = 220x/100

New salary of B after increment = 3x × (115/100) = 345x/100

New salary of C after increment = 5x × (120/100) = 600x/100

Now, Ratio of the salaries of A, B and C = 220x ∶ 345x ∶ 600x

Now, in 2020, only A got an increment 

⇒ (220x/100) × (120/100) = 264x/100

So, the ratio of their salaries in 2020

⇒ A : B : C = 264x/100 : 345x/100 : 600x/100

⇒ A : B : C = 264 : 345 : 600

⇒ A : B : C = 88 ∶ 115 ∶ 200

∴ The new ratio of salaries of A, B and C is 88 ∶ 115 ∶ 200 respectively.

Shortcut Trick 

Given:

Family with 4 grandparents, 4 parents, 8 cousins

Average age of grandparents = 74 years

Average age of parents = 58 years

Average age of cousins = 22 years 

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observations/Total no. of observation

Calculation:

Total age of grandparents = 74 × 4 = 296 years

Total age of parents = 58 × 4 = 232 years

Total age of cousins = 22 × 8 = 176 years

So, Total age of the family = 296 + 232 + 176 = 704 years

Total members of the family = 4 + 4 + 8 = 16

Now, Average age of the members = 704/16 = 44 years

∴ Average age of the members of the family is 44 years.

Given:

SI = 4/9 × Principal

Rate of interest = Time (in years)

Formula used:

SI = (P × R × T)/100

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate of interest, T = Time (in years)

Calculation:

Let, Principal amount = P, and Rate of interest = R

According to the question,

⇒ 4/9 × P = (P × R × R)/100

⇒ 4/9 = R²/100

⇒ R2 = 4/9 × 100

⇒ R = 2/3 × 10 = 20/3

So, T = 20/3 years = $6 \frac{2}{3}$ years

⇒ 6 years (2/3 × 12) months = 6 years 8 months

∴ The investment time is 6 years 8 months.

Given:

CP of an article = ₹2,100

Discount, D = 20% on MP

Profit = 90%

Concept used:

SP = (100 + Profit%) of CP

SP = (100 - D%) of MP

Calculation:

SP = 190% × 2100 = ₹3990

According to the question,

80/100 × MP = 3990

⇒ MP = 3990 × 100/80 = ₹4987.5

∴ The marked price is ₹4987.5.

Given:

Raj invested  ₹14,000

Rate of interest = 10% p.a.

Time = 1 year 

with compound interest, Compounded half-yearly

Concept Used:

When the compound interest compounded half-yearly, 

Time = twice of the given time

and Rate of interest = half of the given rate

CI = P[(1 + r/100)ⁿ - 1]

where P = principal amount, r = rate of interest, and n = time

Calculation:

When compounded half-yearly,

⇒ Time = 2 × 1 = 2 years

⇒ Rate = 10/2 = 5%

⇒ CI = 14000[(1 + 5/100)² - 1]

⇒ CI = 14000[(1 + 1/20)2 - 1]

⇒ CI = 14000[(21/20)² - 1]

⇒ CI = 14000[(441/400) - 1]

⇒ CI = 14000(41/400)

⇒ CI = 140 × 41/4 = 35 × 41

⇒ CI = ₹1435

Amount received = Principal + CI

⇒ Amount = 14000 + 1435

⇒ Amount = ₹15,435

Hence, the correct answer is ₹15,435.

Given:

The internal radius (r) of a hollow cylindrical pipe = 14 m

External radius (R) = 21 m

Height (h) = 14 m

Formula Used:

Total Surface area of the hollow cylinder = 2πRh + 2πrh + 2π(R² - r²)

Calculation:

Total Surface Area = 2πRh + 2πrh + 2π(R2 - r2)

⇒ 2π ×  [h(R + r) + (R2 - r2)]

⇒ (44/7)[2 × 14(21 + 14) + (441 - 196)]

⇒ (44/7)[(14 × 35) + 245]

⇒ (44/7)[490 + 245]

⇒ 44 × 735/7

⇒ 44× 105

⇒ 4620

Hence, the correct answer is 4620 m2.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Cost Price (CP) be x.

Successive multipliers: 1.12 (Manufacturer) × 1.10 (Wholesaler) × 1.15 (Retailer).

x × (112 ÷ 100) × (110 ÷ 100) × (115 ÷ 100) = 56,672

x × (28 ÷ 25) × (11 ÷ 10) × (23 ÷ 20) = 56,672

x × (7084 ÷ 5000) = 56,672

x = (56,672 × 5000) ÷ 7084 = 8 × 5000 = 40,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹40,000.

Alternate Method

Given: Retail Price = ₹56,672, Manufacturer Gain = 12%, Wholesaler Gain = 10%, Retailer Gain = 15%.

Formulas: SP = CP × (100 + Gain%) ÷ 100

⇒ Let CP = x

⇒ Price after Manufacturer = x × 1.12

⇒ Price after Wholesaler = (x × 1.12) × 1.10

⇒ Price after Retailer = (x × 1.12 × 1.10) × 1.15 = 56,672

⇒ x × 1.4168 = 56,672

⇒ x = 56,672 ÷ 1.4168 = 40,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹40,000.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When multiple profit percentages are applied one after another, the final price is calculated using the product of their multipliers: Final = Initial × (1 + r₁) × (1 + r₂) × (1 + r₃).

Chain Rule in Profit and Loss

The Selling Price (SP) for one person in the chain becomes the Cost Price (CP) for the next person.

$​\sqrt{\sqrt[4]{100000000}}-\sqrt[3]{9261}$

⇒ ${\sqrt{100}}-{21}$

⇒ 10 - 21

⇒ -11

Given:

a/b = 7/11

b/c = 12/17

Concept used:

If ratio a : b₁ and b₂ : c has b₁ = b₂ = b

Then, the ratio can be written as a : b : c

Calculation:

We have b common in both fractions

Equating b by multiplying a/b with 12 and b/c with 11

a/b = (7/11) × 12 = 84/132

b/c = (12/17) × 11 = 132/187

So, a : b : c = 84 : 132 : 187

Now, a + b = 84 + 132 = 216 units

And, b + c = 132 + 187 = 319 units

⇒ (a + b)/(b + c) = 216/319

Hence, the value of (a + b)/(b + c) is 216/319.

Given:

Length of train A (L_A) = Length of train B (L_B) = 600 m

Speed of train A (u_A) = Speed of train B (u_B) = 108 km/h

Time to cross the train with acceleration 1 m/sec² = 50 sec

Formula used:

S = ut + (1/2)at² 

Where, S = distance, u = speed of train

t = time and a = acceleration

Distance =  Speed × Time

Calculation:

u_a = u_B = 108 km/h = 108 × 5/18 m/s 

ua = uB = 30 m/sec

Let, the distance traveled by B is SB

⇒ S_B = (30 × 50) + (1/2) × 1 × 50²

⇒ SB = 1500 + 1250

⇒ SB = 2750 m

Let, the distance traveled by A is S_A

⇒ S_A = u_A × t

⇒ SA = 30 × 50 = 1500

Original distance between the trains = S_B - SA 

⇒ SB - SA = 2750 - 1500 = 1250

∴ The original distance between trains A and B is 1250 m.

Shortcut Trick

Simplify the given number: √45 = √(9 × 5) = 3√5.

To convert 3√5 into a rational number, the irrational part (√5) must be eliminated.

The simplest way to do this is to multiply it by √5, which gives 3√5 × √5 = 15 (a rational number).

Since √5 ≈ 2.236, it is greater than 1 and is the smallest available option.

∴ The correct answer is √5.

Alternate Method

Given:

The number = √45

Calculation:

Simplifying the given number:

⇒ √45 = √(9 × 5)

⇒ √45 = 3√5

To make 3√5 a rational number, we need to multiply it by an irrational number containing √5 so that the square root is eliminated.

Let us check the given options by multiplying them with 3√5:

⇒ Option 1: 3√5 × 4√5 = 12 × 5 = 60 (Rational)

⇒ Option 2: 3√5 × √5 = 3 × 5 = 15 (Rational)

⇒ Option 3: 3√5 × √45 = 3√5 × 3√5 = 9 × 5 = 45 (Rational)

⇒ Option 4: 3√5 × 2√5 = 6 × 5 = 30 (Rational)

All options result in a rational number. However, the question asks for the smallest multiplier that is greater than 1.

Comparing the values of the given options:

⇒ √5 ≈ 2.236 (which is > 1)

⇒ 2√5 ≈ 4.472

⇒ 3√5 ≈ 6.708

⇒ 4√5 ≈ 8.944

The smallest number among these which is greater than 1 is √5.

∴ The correct answer is √5.

Additional Information

Rational Number

Any number that can be expressed as a fraction p/q, where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0. Example: 15, −4, 2/3.

Irrational Number

Numbers that cannot be written as a simple fraction p/q. Their decimal expansions are non-terminating and non-repeating. Example: √5, √7, π.

Rationalising Factor

The smallest factor which, when multiplied by an irrational number, produces a rational number. For an irrational term like a√b, the simplest rationalising factor is √b.

Given:

Spend 25% of salary on rent.

Spend 20% of salary on transport.

40% of the remaining salary on groceries.

After all spending, he has ₹16,500.

Calculation:

According to question,

⇒ 100% - 25% - 20% = 55%

⇒ 60% × 55% = 33% 

33% of salary equals ₹16,500, Therefore

⇒ Salary = 16,500/0.33 = ₹50,000

∴ Salary is ₹50,000.

Given:

Sonu and Monu can build a wall in 6 days

Monu and Mohan can build the wall in 12 days

Concept Used:

Payment is distributed according to the work done

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

 

Work done by Sonu and Monu in 5 days

⇒ 5 × 2 = 10 units

So, Remaining work = 12 - 10 = 2 units

Remaining work is completed by Mohan in 10 days

⇒ Efficiency of Mohan = 2/10 = 0.2 units/day

Now,

Efficiency of Monu + Mohan = 1

So, Efficiency of Monu = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8

Efficiency of Sonu + Monu = 2

So, Efficiency of Sonu = 2 - 0.8 = 1.2

Thus, Work done by Sonu in 5 days = 5 × 1.2 = 6 units

Share of Sonu in payment = 3600 × (6/12) = ₹1800

∴ The share of Sonu in the payment is ₹1800.

Shortcut Trick

The rise in water level (h) is equal to the total volume of 10 spherical balls divided by the base area of the cylinder.

Rise in level (h) = [n × (4/3) × r³] ÷ R²

h = [10 × (4/3) × (1.5)³] ÷ (15)²

h = [10 × 4.5] ÷ 225 = 45 ÷ 225 = 0.2 m

Converting to cm: 0.2 × 100 = 20 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 20 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of cylindrical vessel (R) = 15 m

Radius of each spherical ball (r) = 1.5 m

Number of spherical balls (n) = 10

Formula used:

Volume of Cylinder = π × R² × h

Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × r³

 

 

Calculations:

Let the rise in water level be h meters.

The volume of the raised water column is equal to the total volume of 10 balls.

⇒ π × R² × h = 10 × (4/3) × π × r³

⇒ R² × h = 10 × (4/3) × r³

⇒ 15 × 15 × h = 10 × (4/3) × 1.5 × 1.5 × 1.5

⇒ 225 × h = 10 × (4/3) × 3.375

⇒ 225 × h = 10 × 4.5

⇒ 225 × h = 45

⇒ h = 45 ÷ 225

⇒ h = 1 ÷ 5 = 0.2 m

⇒ Rise in cm = 0.2 × 100 = 20 cm

∴ The correct answer is 20 cm.

Additional Information

Archimedes Principle for Immersion

When an object is fully submerged in a fluid, the volume of fluid displaced is exactly equal to the volume of the object.

Volume of Sphere

The volume of a sphere with radius r is given by the formula V = (4/3) × π × r³.

Volume of Cylinder

The volume of a cylinder with base radius R and height h is V = π × R² × h.

Unit Conversion

To convert meters (m) to centimeters (cm), multiply the value by 100 since 1 m = 100 cm.

Formula used:

(a +b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculation:

$\sqrt{4-\sqrt{7}+\sqrt{19+2 \sqrt{84}}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{4-\sqrt{7}+\sqrt{12+7+2 \sqrt{84}}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{4-\sqrt{7}+\sqrt{(\sqrt12)^2+(\sqrt7)^2+2 \sqrt{12} \sqrt{7}}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{4-\sqrt{7}+\sqrt{(\sqrt12+\sqrt7)^2}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{4-\sqrt{7}+\sqrt12+\sqrt7}$

⇒ $\sqrt{4+\sqrt12}$

⇒ $\sqrt{1+3+\sqrt12}$

⇒ $\sqrt{1+3+2\sqrt3}$

⇒ $\sqrt{(1)^2+(\sqrt3)^2+2\times1\times\sqrt3}$

⇒ $\sqrt{(1+\sqrt3)^2}$ = $1+\sqrt{3}$

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Prime numbers between 40 and 80.

Formula used:

Average = The sum of values ÷ The count of values

Calculations:

The primes between 40 and 80 are: 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, and 79.

The sum of these primes =  41 + 43 + 47 + 53 + 59 + 61 + 67 + 71 + 73 + 79 = 594

The count of these primes = 10.

The average = 594/10 = 59.4.

 ∴ The average of the prime numbers between 40 and 80 is 59.4.

Given:

Total amount = Rs. 370

Second part = 1/4 of the third part

The ratio of the first and third parts = 3 : 5

Concept used:

Solving linear equations established using the given conditions and ratio principles.

Calculation:

Let's denote the three parts as A, B, and C.

We know that A + B + C = 370

B = 1/4 × C and A/C = 3/5.

Substituting B in terms of C and A in terms of C in the main equation:

⇒ (3/5) × C + (1/4) × C + C = 370

⇒ 37 × C/20 = 370

⇒ C = (370 × 20)/37 = 200

⇒ Ratio of the third part

⇒ 200/370 = 20/37

∴ The ratio of the third part to the total amount of money is 20 : 37.

Given:

3% of Number = 4% of 12 + 6% of 80

Calculation:

Let the value of the number be x.

3% of Number = 4% of 12 + 6% of 80

⇒ 3% × x = 4% × 12 + 6% × 80

⇒ $3\over100$ × x = $4\over100$ × 12 + $6\over100$ × 80

⇒ 3x = 48 + 480 = 528

⇒ x = $528\over3$ = 176

∴ The number is 176.

Given:

Speed of car A = 6 km/h

Speed of car B = 4 km/h

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Concept used:

The Relative speed in the same direction is = Greater speed - Smaller speed   

To convert a speed given in km/h into a speed in m/s, multiply with 5/18.

Calculation:

The Relative speed in the same direction

⇒ (6 - 4) km/h = 2 km/h.

Change in m/sec, 

⇒ 2 × (5/18) = 5/9 m/sec.

Distance between the cars after 10 minutes.

Change 10 minutes into sec,

⇒ 10 × 60 sec = 600 sec.

Distance = 5/9 × 600 = 333.3 m

∴ The distance between the cars is 333.3 m

Given statements:

All hyenas are pandas

Some deer are buffaloes

Some hyenas are scorpions

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusions:

(I) Some pandas are deer → False (There is no definite relation given between Pandas and Deer, so it can be possible only).

(II) Some hyenas are buffaloes → False (There is no definite relation given between hyenas and buffaloes, so it can be possible only).

(III) Some pandas are scorpions → True (The part of Pandas which is Hyenas are also Scorpions so, Some Pandas are Scorpions).

So, Only Conclusion III, Follows.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Statement: U ≤ R = W < V > X ≥ Z > Y

Now,

Conclusions:

I. Y < X → True ( X ≥ Z > Y, gives  X > Y).

II. V > U → True (U ≤ R = W < V, gives U < V).

Here, Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given: (Left) 7 + * 7 # & 8 6 5 % 4 $ 6 # @ 4 7 ! 2 5 (Right)

Now,

Symbols (from left to right) in the above series which are immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by an even number.

So, Needed pattern is: Symbol → Symbol → Even Number.

Here,

There are 2 pairs having the symbol immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by an even number.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

So, 'F18U' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given: J, K, L, M, N and O live on six different floors of the same building.

The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

M lives on floor number 2.

N lives on the topmost floor.

O lives on the floor immediately above K.

K and M are immediate neighbours. 

<br>

J lives on an odd numbered floor, exactly above O. 

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So, from the given arrangement L lives on the 1^st floor.

Hence the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Family Chart:

Given: B, D, F, H, G, O, T and W are eight family members.

B is the brother of G.

T is the son of W.

O is the son of G.

H is D’s wife. G and W are sisters.

F is the son of B.

D is the father of B.

So, H is mother's mother of O.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Number: '56249324861'

Now arranging digits in ascending order from left to right.

 

The new number formed is : 12234456689

2nd Digit from left = 2

2nd Digit from right = 8

Sum of digits = 2^nd from left + 2^nd from right in new number.

2 + 8 = 10.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are:

Given Word: TABLE

Now,

Each vowel in the word TABLE is changed to the letter following it in the English alphabetical order

And each consonant is changed to the letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order.

 

Arranging all letter in Alphabetical order: A B F K S

Now, the letter third from the right is: F.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 3032 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are :

The logic followed here is:

For, S - V - A

For, H - K - P

Now check Options one by one.

Option 1) E - H - M

Option 2) W - Y - C

Option 3) N - Q - W

Option 4) K - N - R

Only E - H - M follows the pattern of given letter clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given: Eight classmates P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order.

W sits exactly between S and Q.

U sits to the immediate left of S.

R sits exactly between T and Q.

V sits exactly between T and P. 

V sits to the immediate right of T.

Here, P sits to the immediate left of U.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given:  Z, Y, X, W, T, S, R and Q are eight colleagues, sitting around a circular table at equal distance to each other facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order.

S is an immediate neighbour of both Z and W.

R sits to the immediate right of Z.

Q sits to the immediate left of W.

Y sits second to the left of W.

X is an immediate neighbour of both Y and T.

 

Here, R sits second to the right of S.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

Now, 

ENT : FQV

FET : GHV

Similarly For, TEN : UHP

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

According to the given statement: Rogerio, in search of an internet café, walked 30 m due North.

He turned right and walked 18 m.

He again turned right and walked 30 m.

Finally, he turned left and walked 22 m to reach the internet café.

Distance between Starting point and Final Point : 18m + 22m = 40m.

So, the Internet cafe is 40m in the East Direction from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is  'Option 4'.

Given: 

 

 

Given Code: '# 3 2 < &'

Here, Rule no.1 is applied in the given code.

If the first element is a symbol and the third a number, the codes for these two are to be interchanged.

So, the code for '# 3 2 < &' is " M F A W Y.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) FJIL

Option 2) MQPS

Option 3) YCBF

Option 4) PTSV

Here, YCBF is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: Seven boxes V, U, T, S, R, Q and P are kept one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order.

S is at the lowermost position.

Only V is kept above R.

Only three boxes are kept between U and S.

<br>

Q is kept immediately above T, which is kept above P.

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Here, Four boxes are kept between V and P.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 64 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given equation: 22 * 16 * 12 * 3 * 3 * 2 * 4

BODMAS Rule:

 Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1)  ̶ , +, ÷, =, ×, + 

Given: 22 * 16 * 12 * 3 * 3 * 2 * 4

After replacing * signs we get;

⇒ 22 - 16 + 12 ÷ 3 = 3 × 2 + 4

⇒ 22  - 16 + 4 = 3 × 2 + 4

⇒ 22 - 16 + 4 = 6 + 4

⇒ 26 - 16 = 10

⇒ 10 = 10.

Hence, Option 1, satisfies the equation.

Option 2) + , ̶ , ÷, ×, =, + 

Given: 22 * 16 * 12 * 3 * 3 * 2 * 4

After replacing * signs we get;

⇒ 22 + 16 - 12 ÷ 3 × 3 = 2 + 4

⇒ 22 + 16 - 4 × 3 = 6

⇒ 22 + 16 - 12 = 6

⇒ 38 - 12 = 6

⇒ 26 ≠  6.

Option 3)  ̶ , +, ÷, ×, =, +

Given: 22 * 16 * 12 * 3 * 3 * 2 * 4

After replacing * signs we get;

⇒ 22 - 16 + 12 ÷ 3 × 3 = 2 + 4

⇒ 22 - 16 + 4 × 3 = 2 + 4

⇒ 22 - 16 + 12 = 6

⇒ 34 - 16 = 6 

⇒ 18 ≠ 6.

Option 4)  ̶ , +, ×, =, ÷, +

Given: 22 * 16 * 12 * 3 * 3 * 2 * 4

After replacing * signs we get;

⇒ 22 - 16 + 12 × 3 = 3 ÷ 2 + 4

⇒ 22 - 16 + 12 × 3 = 1.5 + 4

⇒ 22 - 16 + 36 = 1.5 + 4

⇒ 58 - 16 = 5.5

⇒ 42 ≠ 5.5.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is: Each letter of a word is coded as its positional value in reverse Alphabetical order + 1.

For, 'CIVILIAN' is coded as '251961916192714'

For, 'COLONIAL' is coded as '2513161314192716'

Similarly, 'COMPLAIN' will be coded as:

 

'COMPLAIN' is coded as '2513151316271914'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The correct answer is "somnambulist". 

Key Points

• The underlined group of words in the sentence - "a person who walks in sleep" - refers to a specific behavior.
• Somnambulist: This term comes from the Latin "somnus" (meaning sleep) and "ambulare" (meaning to walk).
• A somnambulist is a person who walks while asleep.
• This term fits the underlined group of words perfectly.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2". 

Additional Information

• Regressionist: This term is not commonly used in English and doesn't have a standard definition.
• It certainly doesn't refer to a person who walks in their sleep. Therefore, this choice can be eliminated.
• Arsonist: An arsonist is a person who intentionally sets fire to properties, most often for malicious or illegal purposes.
• There's nothing in the original phrase about setting fires, so this can't be the right choice.
• Narcissist: A narcissist is a person who has excessive self-love or self-centeredness.
• While the original phrase does indicate some level of self-absorption, it doesn’t suggest excessive self-love or self-centeredness associated with narcissism.

The correct answer is "B, D, A, C". 

Key Points

• Let's analyze the sentences one by one to understand their plausible connections and the likely chronological order:
• Sentence A: "The fog was so bad that he could not see a lamp post looming in front of us."
• This sentence indicates a problem arising due to bad weather conditions.
• Sentence B: "After a nervous glance at her watch she nearly yelled, “Jaldi, jaldi.”"
• This sentence shows urgency from a character indicating they want to move quickly. "Jaldi, jaldi" is a Hindi term that means "Quickly, quickly."
• Sentence C: "He swerved to avoid it, hit the side of the pavement and the van came to a halt."
• This sentence describes an accident, clearly indicating that they were trying to avoid an obstacle, likely the lamp post mentioned in sentence A.
• Sentence D: "So he put his foot down on the accelerator."
• This sentence seems to be a response to sentence B, indicating compliance with the request for speed.
• Based on these examinations and providing a logical and chronological sequence of events, the right order appears to be B, D, A, C:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "through". 

Key Points

• The context of the sentence involves a physical altercation in which individuals are actively engaging with police officers.
• The phrase 'to push through' is typically used to describe the act of forcefully making one's way past obstacles or through a crowd.
• In this context, it suggests a struggle to move forward or to continue despite resistance.
• 'Push through' effectively conveys the sense of continuation and effort despite the physical confrontation that is taking place, aligning with the narrative of the sentence.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

• 'Off' generally signifies a movement away from or the action of removing something.
• 'On' typically indicates continuity or progression but lacks the connotation of struggle against resistance that 'through' provides.
• 'By' is often used to denote proximity, a method of achieving something, or a time constraint but it doesn't fit the context of physical confrontation depicted.

The correct answer is "docile" (विनम्र) . 

Key Points

• An outspoken person usually expresses their thoughts or feelings openly or readily without reservation, often speaking bluntly or for a prolonged period.
• "Docile," on the other hand, refers to someone who is submissive, compliant, or easily managed.
• This does suggest the opposite of being outspoken, making it the appropriate choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4". 

Additional Information

• "Loud" (ऊँचा स्वर) is associated with sound. It does not convey the opposite of being outspoken.
• "Disrespectful" (अनुचित) refers to an impropriety or violation of socially acceptable behavior.
• It does not necessarily mean the opposite of being outspoken.
• "Rowdy" (उपद्रवी) refers to creating disorder or acting loudly, typically in a disruptive manner.
• It does not accurately reflect the opposite of the term outspoken.

The correct answer is "continuously".

Key Points

• The sentence in question is "After she had sneezed continously for five minutes, Aunt Razia took pity on her and offered to take us to the quiz.
• continously  in the sentence is incorrect.  The correct is "Continuously".
• So, all the options provided, that is, options 1, 3, and 4, are incorrect spellings of words in the original sentence.
• The second option, "continuously", is spelled correctly.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

• Some words in it are incorrectly spelled and should be corrected.
• Here are the correct spellings of the underlined words:
• "sneized" should actually be spelled "sneezed".
• "minites" is not correctly spelled.
• The correct spelling is "minutes".
• "ofered" is spelled incorrectly.
• The correct spelling is "offered".

Confusion Points

• We have find out the incorrect spelling among the underlined words.
• Then we have to find out the correct option that is the correct spelling of that incorrect underlined word.

The correct answer is "You can lead a horse to water, but you cannot make him drink it." 

Key Points

• Each of the provided options is a well-known proverb with a specific meaning.
• Let's analyze them:
• "You should make hay while the sun shines."
• ​This proverb implies that you should take advantage of favourable conditions while they last, which doesn't exactly match the context of not being able to force someone to do something.
• "You can lead a horse to water, but you cannot make him drink it."
• ​This proverb implies that you can provide opportunities to someone, but you can't force them to take it.
• This aligns perfectly with the context implied within the brackets.
• "You should strike the iron when it is hot."
• ​This proverb encourages taking immediate advantage when the conditions are favorable, rather than delaying.
• It doesn't capture the specified meaning within the brackets.
• "The grass is greener on the other side."
• ​This proverb symbolizes the human tendency to always think others have it better.
• It doesn't fit the context presented within the brackets.
• Based on the analysis above, "You can lead a horse to water, but you cannot make him drink it" accurately captures the desired meaning as specified within the brackets: "One can make it easy for someone to do something, but not force them to do it."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "bewildering". 

Key Points

• The word in brackets is "baffling," which means confusing or puzzling.
• We need to find a synonym for "baffling" to fill in the blank in the sentence: "This strange, ugly, __________ city was also awesomely beautiful."
• "Bewildering," means causing someone to become perplexed or confused.
• This aligns well with the meaning of "baffling."
• Based on the definitions of each word, "bewildering" is the most suitable synonym for "baffling" in the given context; the other options portray the opposite meaning or a slightly different aspect.
• So, the completed sentence would read: "This strange, ugly, bewildering city was also awesomely beautiful."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4". 

Additional Information

• "Logical" suggests something that makes sense or follows a clear, rational line of thought.
• This is contrary to the meaning of "baffling," so it can't be the correct choice.
• "Coherent" implies clear, logical, and consistent.
• Just like "logical," it's the opposite of what "baffling" means.
• "Dilapidated" refers to a state of disrepair or neglect.
• While a dilapidated city could definitely be strange and possibly baffling or confusing to navigate, it's not a perfect synonym for "baffling".

The correct answer is "The". 

Key Points

• "The" is a definite article we use in English when we're referring to something or someone specific.
• We use "the" when the listener or reader already knows what we are referring to.
• In the sentence — "The younger man was very trendily dressed in a black, high-necked pullover and a leather jacket" — the usage of "The" before "younger man" implies that among a group of people that we already know of, or are implied within the context, we are specifically referring to the one who is younger.
• So, the use of "The" indicates a specific "younger man" in a known or understood context.
• The observers are already expected to know which younger man the sentence is referring to, making "The" the appropriate choice.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

• "A": This article is used when the noun it refers to represents any instance of a group or category.
• It can be used with singular, countable nouns.
• It would be appropriate here if the context suggests that the man's identity isn't essential or specific.
• "An": This article is used similarly to "a", but it is used in front of words that begin with a vowel sound.
• "Younger" begins with a consonant sound, so "an" would not be appropriate here.

The correct answer is "remember". 

Key Points

• The verb "remember" is in its base form.
• The base form of a verb is used in various forms in English, one of which is to issue commands or give direct instructions, known as the imperative form.
• Looking at the sentence "“Okay, but ______ (remember) to always call Jahan, Janaki,” I turned to the others," it's clear that the speaker is giving an instruction to the listener explicitly telling them what to do.
• In this context, the instruction is about always referring to a person named Jahan as Janaki.
• Therefore, the verb "remember" correctly fills the blank in the sentence, expressing the speaker's imperative instruction: "Okay, but remember to always call Jahan, Janaki," I turned to the others.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "plump". 

Key Points

• "Plump": This adjective describes someone who is slightly fat, but in a pleasant way.
• "plump" is the most appropriate adjective to describe a man in the given context, and also the one which best fits grammatically and contextually in the sentence.
• So the sentence should read: "Then he pointed to a plump man in a dhoti who was standing at the river edge."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4". 

Additional Information

• "Plum": This word is primarily a noun referring to a type of fruit.
• As an adjective, it's often used in British English to mean "very good or desirable," but it makes little sense when used to describe a person directly.
• "Leather": This adjective usually describes objects made from the material leather.
• It is not used to describe a person's physical characteristics.
• "Filled": This term describes something containing or packed with something else.
• It's not typically used to describe a person, and therefore doesn't fit well in this context.

The correct answer is "Retrievers". 

Key Points

• The underlined word in the sentence provided is "retreevers," which appears to be a misspelling of the word "retrievers."
• "Retrievers" is correct spelling. It refers to a type of dog breed that is known to be good at returning objects to their owners, hence the name "retrievers."
• So, the correct sentence with the right spelling of the word should be: "He was followed by Nawab and Badshah, her two golden retrievers, who were all over us in a second."

The correct answer is "shrine". 

Key Points

• The underlined word in the sentence is "sanctum," which usually refers to a sacred or holy place.
• "Shrine" is used to describe a place regarded as holy because of its associations with a divinity or a sacred person or relic.
• Given the context and the activities mentioned this would be an appropriate substitution.
• So, the sentence with the substituted word would read: "How can I have the key to the shrine when all I do is fill pots of Ganga water and grind the sandalwood?"

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1". 

Additional Information

• "Museum": While a museum is a place of purposeful collection, it wouldn't typically be the place where one fills pots of Ganga water and grinds sandalwood.
• These activities don't align well with the functions and activities performed at a museum.
• "Treasury": Although a treasury is an important and protected place, it isn't typically associated with religious or sacred activities like those described here.
• So this option doesn't fit the context well.
• "Bank": This term usually refers to a financial establishment and wouldn't be associated with the activities described in the sentence.

The correct answer is "The early bird catches the worm."

Key Points

• "The early bird catches the worm." This proverb implies that the one who takes action early or before others has the best opportunity for success.
• So, based on the meanings of these proverbs, "The early bird catches the worm" exactly aligns with the intended meaning in the bracket: "The person who moves first will get an advantage over others."
• Consequently, using this proverb, the sentence would read: "I advised Rita to apply for the job soon after the opening was announced. The early bird catches the worm."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1". 

Additional Information

• "To kill two birds with one stone" means to achieve two goals with one action.
• It doesn't quite convey the meaning of acting quickly to gain advantage.
• "A rolling stone gathers no moss."
• This proverb suggests that one who is always moving and changing doesn't accumulate unnecessary baggage.
• It doesn't directly convey the idea of getting an advantage by acting first.
• "A bird in hand is worth two in the bush."
• This proverb suggests that it's better to be content with what you have than to risk losing it by trying to get more.
• It doesn't fit the given context of the advantage of acting quickly.

The correct answer is ".". 

Key Points

• In the sentence, “Yes, I did hear something but, sorry, girls______”, the speaker is confirming that they indeed heard something (a full statement) and is issuing a brief and somewhat informal apology by saying "sorry, girls".
• The dialogue doesn't continue immediately in the same sentence, articulate a strong exclamation or excitement, or pose a question nor is conveying a list, all of which could potentially call for the other punctuation options you listed (exclamation mark, comma or question mark respectively).
• In the structure of this sentence, the speaker completes their statement after the word "girls".
• There's no indication that the speaker's statement should continue beyond this point within this sentence.
• Therefore, we can conclude that this is the end of a complete thought or statement.
• Hence, a period or full stop (".") is the most suitable punctuation to indicate the end of this complete thought or statement.
• So, the sentence is filled as: "“Yes, I did hear something but, sorry, girls.”

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• "!" - Incorrect.
• An exclamation mark denotes strong emotions, excitement, or intensity, but given the context, it doesn't seem to fit as the person speaking seems to be apologizing or expressing regret or disappointment.
• "," - Incorrect.
• A comma is used to separate parts of a sentence, not to end one. In this case, a comma leaves the sentence hanging and requires a further completion which isn't provided.
• "?" - Incorrect.
• A question mark is used to indicate a question or a request for information. As the sentence does not incorporate a question structure, this punctuation mark is not suitable.

The correct answer is "the". 

Key Points

• "The" is known as the definite article in English and is used when we're referring to something specific.
• In this sentence, the phrase "the physics lab" refers to a specific, known physics lab.
• In the sentence "Just then, Miss Dutta came out of _________ physics lab looking grim and went marching off towards Sister Rose’s office.", the blank represents a place from where Miss Dutta is coming out.
• The definite article "the" is used when we talk about something specific or something that is unique and known to the speaker and listener, or when there is only one of something.
• In this situation, the physics lab is presumably a specific location in the context where the listeners and speakers are already aware of its existence and what it represents.
• They all know which physics lab is being referred to.
• Therefore, the sentence reads: "Just then, Miss Dutta came out of the physics lab looking grim and went marching off towards Sister Rose’s office."
• By using "the", we make it clear that the location Miss Dutta came out of was a specific, known physics lab.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "glare, wagging". 

Key Points

• Let's explore each option to understand the correct answer:
• "Glare, wagging" - Correct.
• This choice fits well with the context of the sentence.
• Aunt Razia is expressing a stern warning or reprimand to the listeners.
• Typically when someone glares, it suggests a stern or intense look, combined with wagging a finger, which is a common action when admonishing or sternly warning someone (as in the sentence).
• "Cry, turning" - Incorrect.
• The verb 'to cry' would typically suggest sadness or distress.
• The verb 'to turn' lacks an object here and it's unclear what Aunt Razia would be turning.
• Given the context, it's unlikely Aunt Razia is in distress and these words don't suitably describe her actions or emotions in giving a warning.
• "Smile, looking" - Incorrect.
• The verb 'to smile' and 'to look' don't properly convey the stern warning that Aunt Razia is delivering.
• Smiling and looking do not align well with the stern tone of the warning she gave to not go anywhere without her.
• "Laugh, twisting" - Incorrect.
• Laughing and twisting a finger do not usually associate with the act of rebuking or providing sharp advice.
• The verb 'to laugh' implicates happiness or amusement, and 'to twist' doesn't suitably describe an action that would accompany a stern warning.
• So, in conclusion, sentence filled with Option 1 is correct. 
• "Aunt Razia turned to glare at us, wagging a finger. “You four do not go anywhere without me, you hear? I’ll be back in ten minutes.”

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "- ". 

Key Points

• Let's examine why using a hyphen is correct in this context:
• ";" - Incorrect.
• The semicolon is used to connect two closely related independent clauses in a sentence.
• There aren't two independent clauses here.
• "." - Incorrect.
• A period or full stop is used at the end of a sentence.
• Here, it is incorrect since this is in the middle of a sentence.
• "-" - Correct.
• The hyphen is used here to create a compound term. In this case, "T-shirt" is a compound term, and a hyphen is used to join "T" and "shirt" together, making the term one conceptual unit.
• "," - Incorrect.
• A comma is used to separate clauses, phrases, or items in a list.
• Here it isn't suitable as there are no separate items or phrases that need to be distinguised.
• So, considering the above points, the correct punctuation fills the blank as follows: "She was wearing a saggy, faded, green T-shirt."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "imitative". 

Key Points

• In this context, 'imitative' makes sense as it means copying someone or something, much like a mock salute would be a playful imitation of a formal salute.
• Therefore the sentence would become:
• "Yes, Ma'am!" Karthik gave an imitative salute, then as the two walked away, he smiled at Jahan.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1". 

Additional Information

• "Sincere" - Incorrect.
• This word suggests honesty and genuineness; a sincere salute would be given with genuine respect and seriousness, which changes the tone of the original sentence.
• The term "mock" implies a playful or not completely serious salute, and "sincere" would essentially be the opposite of "mock" in this context.
• "Comic" - Incorrect.
• This might seem like a possible choice because a mock salute could be comic or humorous.
• However, it would not necessarily be so: a mock salute could also be sarcastic, or light-hearted without being funny.
• The term "comic salute" would indicate that the salute was definitely meant to be funny, which we don't know from the original sentence.
• "Genuine" - Incorrect.
• This term, like "sincere", implies an actual, sincere salute with no element of playfulness or sarcasm.
• The term "mock", however, suggests that the salute was done in jest or playfully, so "genuine" would not be a suitable replacement.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Sentence A, which sets the scene of being at the ghat steps and introduces the context.
• Next, the sequence of events regarding Mishra’s missing couple unfolds logically:
• Sentence D: Police arrive at Shashadhar Mishra’s house but no one answers.
• Sentence C: Another police team goes to Robin’s house and finds it locked.
• Sentence E: Neighbours report they have not seen the couple for two days.
• Sentence B: Finally, a servant is found who opens the door to an empty house.
• The paragraph ends with Sentence F, noting that Mishra is missing but the idol is still in the crate.

Therefore, the correct sequence is: A – D – C – E – B – F.

 

Coherent Paragraph after Rearrangement:

"Moving away from the noise and the crowds, we settled on the ghat steps outside and heard the whole story. When the police arrived at Shashadhar Mishra’s house and knocked at the door, no one answered. Another police team then rushed off to Robin’s house and found it locked. The neighbours said that they had not seen the couple for the last two days. Finally, a servant was found who opened the door to an empty house. Mishra was nowhere to be seen but the idol was still in the crate in the store room."

The correct answer is "pointed". 

Key Points

• Looking at the context of the sentence, we can see that it is describing an event that happened in the past.
• The events are presumably complete (the man did the action of pointing), and we also know from the use of 'then' (which refers to a point in time in the past) that this is not an ongoing action.
• Therefore, we need to use a past tense form of the verb.
• Option 3 is "pointed." This is the simple past tense of the verb "point."
• Simple past tense is usually used to describe actions that took place and were completed at a definite time in the past.
• In this context, the man isn't currently pointing nor is the action about to happen.
• From the words given, we understand the action has already been completed.
• Hence, the correct form to use is "pointed" – he completed the action of pointing at a specific moment in the past.
• The sentence then becomes: "Then he pointed to a plump man in a dhoti who was standing at the river edge filling a couple of large copper pots with Ganga water."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Lord Irwin.

Key Points

• Lord Irwin was replaced by Lord Willingdon as viceroy in India just before the second round table conference.
• Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931.
• He is known for his efforts to improve relations between the British government and Indian nationalists, including the famous Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931.

Additional Information

• Lord Willingdon was an administrator and politician of Liberal British descent.
• From 1931 till 1936, he held the positions of Governor-General and Viceroy of India.
• Lord Wavell was the Viceroy of India from 1943 to 1947, during the later stages of the Indian independence movement.
• Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India from 1916 to 1921.
• He was responsible for introducing the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919.
• Lord Reading was the Viceroy of India from 1921 to 1926.
• He was responsible for negotiating the Anglo-Irish Treaty of 1921.

The correct answer is Sachchidananda Sinha.

Key Points

• Sachchidananda Sinha was the temporary Chairman of the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held on 9 December 1946.
• He served as the first President of the Constituent Assembly of India.
• He was a prominent lawyer and educationist from Bihar who also served as the Vice-Chancellor of Patna University.

Additional Information

• Krishnaswamy Ayyar was a member of the Constituent Assembly and also served as the Chairman of the Sub-Committee on Fundamental Rights. 
• He served as the Advocate-General of Madras Presidency.
• Gopalaswami Ayyangar was an Indian civil servant who served as the Minister of States in the Indian Cabinet from 1947 to 1952. 
• He also served as the Prime Minister of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Madhava Rao was an Indian politician and served as the Chief Minister of Hyderabad State from 1946 to 1950.
• He was a member of the Drafting Committee

The correct answer is March 2023.

Key Points

• Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) was launched as a part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan in May 2020 to provide relief to the MSME sector during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The scheme was initially valid till October 2020 and was later extended till June 2021.
• As per the Union Budget 2022-23, the ECLGS scheme will be further extended till March 31, 2023.
• The extension of the scheme will provide further support to the MSME sector and help in reviving the economy.
• The ECLGS scheme provides collateral-free loans to MSMEs with a turnover of up to Rs. 250 crore and has a 100% guarantee cover provided by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC).

Additional Information

• Union Government Company is National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited.
• It is categorized as a "company limited by shares" and is a private firm.
• The authorized capital of the company is Rs 1000.0 lakhs, and its paid-up capital is 100% of that amount, or Rs 1000.0 lakhs.
• The primary business activity of National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited is currently finance.

The correct answer is Qamar-ud-din Siddiqi.

Key Points

• Qamar-ud-din Siddiqi was a nobleman and statesman of Mughal India who served as the Viceroy of the Deccan from 1713 to 1724 and again from 1724 until his death in 1748.
• He was appointed as the Viceroy of the Deccan by the Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah after the death of his predecessor, Nizam-ul-Mulk.
• Qamar-ud-din Siddiqi was also known as Asaf Jah, which means "the one who collects the treasure".
• During his tenure as the Viceroy of the Deccan, Qamar-ud-din Siddiqi consolidated his power and established the Asaf Jahi dynasty, which ruled the Hyderabad State for over two centuries.

Additional Information

• Saadat Khan Burhan-ul-Mulk was a nobleman and statesman.
• He served as the Nawab of Awadh from 1722 to 1739.
• Farrukhsiyar was the Mughal emperor.
• He ruled from 1713 to 1719.
• Murshid Quli Khan was a nobleman and statesman.
• He served as the Nawab of Bengal from 1717 to 1727.

The correct answer is 74.04%.

Key Points

• The literacy rate of India as per census 2011 is 74.04%.
• Literacy rate is the percentage of the population that can read and write with understanding.
• It is an important indicator of a country's development and progress.
• The literacy rate of India has been steadily increasing over the years, with a significant jump from 64.84% in 2001 to 74.04% in 2011, as per census data.
• However, there are still significant regional and gender disparities in literacy rates.

Additional Information

• In 2023, the literacy rate in India was 77.7%, a 5% rise from the previous census (2011).
• Kerala has the highest literacy rate in the nation, at 93.91%, and it has increased by up to 3% since the 2001 census.
• With an average literacy rate of about 61.80%, Bihar has the lowest literacy percentage in all of India.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• The three broad belts in which minerals are generally concentrated in India are the North-Eastern Plateau region, the South-Western Plateau region, and the North-Western region.
• The North-Eastern Plateau region includes the states of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Odisha and is rich in coal, iron ore, manganese, bauxite, and mica.
• The South-Western Plateau region includes the states of Karnataka, Goa, and Andhra Pradesh and is rich in iron ore, manganese, and chromium.
• The North-Western region includes the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat and is rich in minerals like gypsum, salt, and soda ash.

Additional Information

• India is a mineral-rich country and has a diverse range of minerals, including coal, iron ore, bauxite, manganese, copper, lead, zinc, and gold.
• The mineral resources in India are unevenly distributed, with some states having abundant mineral reserves while others have very limited resources.
• The mineral industry in India plays a significant role in the country's economy, contributing to about 2.6% of the GDP and providing direct and indirect employment to millions of people.
• The Indian government has taken several initiatives to promote the mineral industry, including the National Mineral Policy, 2019, which aims to attract private investment, improve mineral exploration, and promote sustainable mining practices.

The correct answer is 1976.

Key Points

• In 1976, Fundamental Duties were added into the Indian Constitution.
• Fundamental Duties are a set of moral obligations that are expected of every citizen of India towards the nation and society.
• These duties were added to the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• There are 11 Fundamental Duties that are enshrined in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution.
• These duties include respecting the Constitution, promoting harmony, safeguarding public property, and striving towards excellence in all spheres of life.
• The inclusion of Fundamental Duties was seen as a necessary step towards creating a responsible and accountable citizenry in India.

Additional Information

• 1956 was the year when the States Reorganisation Act was passed.
• It reorganized the boundaries of Indian states based on linguistic lines.
• 1966 was the year when the Tashkent Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan.
• It was done in an effort to resolve the conflict that had arisen after the 1965 Indo-Pak war.
• 1986 was the year when the Consumer Protection Act was passed.
• It aimed to protect the rights of consumers in India.

The correct answer is The mainland extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E. 

Key Points

• India is located in South Asia and is the seventh-largest country in the world by area.
• The mainland extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E.
• This means that India lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere.
• The latitudinal extent of India is about 29 degrees, which means that it covers a vast area from the tropics to the temperate zone.
• The longitudinal extent of India is about 29 degrees, which means that the time difference between the eastern and western parts of India is about two hours.

Additional Information

• The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India, dividing it into almost two equal halves.
• Latitude is the angular distance of a place north or south of the earth's equator, measured in degrees, minutes, and seconds.
• The equator is considered as 0 latitude, and the poles are considered as 90 latitude.

The correct answer is 1971.

Key Points

• Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act was introduced in 1971.
• Lokayukta is an anti-corruption ombudsman organization in India.
• The Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act was introduced to investigate allegations of corruption against public servants and to ensure accountability and transparency in government functioning.
• The Lokayukta is appointed by the Governor of the state on the recommendation of a selection committee consisting of the Chief Minister, Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, Leader of the Opposition, and a High Court Judge.

Additional Information

• A person who has served as Chief Justice of a High Court or Judge of the Supreme Court is eligible to be appointed as the Lokayukta.
• The majority of states have set a five-year term of office or 65 years of age as the lokayukta's retirement age.
• Lokayuktas must be Indian citizens and be at least 45 years old.
• He must not have a court-framed case containing moral turpitude against him.
• He cannot have worked for the government for the previous two years.

The correct answer is introducing the Goods and Services Tax.

Key Points

• The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, deals with introducing the Goods and Services Tax.
• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a comprehensive indirect tax that was introduced in India on 1st July 2017, replacing multiple indirect taxes like excise duty, service tax, and value-added tax (VAT).
• The GST is a destination-based tax, which means that it is levied at the point of consumption and not at the point of production.
• The introduction of GST aimed to simplify the tax structure, reduce tax evasion, and increase revenue collection for the government.
• The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, was passed by the Parliament to amend the Constitution of India to enable the implementation of GST.

Additional Information

• 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs):
• In January 2019, the Indian government passed a bill to provide 10% reservation in jobs and educational institutions to people from economically weaker sections (EWSs) who are not covered under any existing reservation schemes for SCs, STs, and OBCs.
• The reservation is applicable to people with an annual family income of less than Rs 8 lakh and who do not own more than 5 acres of agricultural land.
• The move was criticized by some as being a political gimmick and not addressing the root causes of poverty and inequality in the country.
• Constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes:
• In August 2018, the Parliament passed a bill to grant constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), which is responsible for examining requests for inclusion or exclusion of communities in the list of backward classes.
• The move was aimed at giving the NCBC more powers and autonomy in its functioning and ensuring that its recommendations are binding on the government.
• The NCBC was earlier a statutory body, which means that its recommendations were not binding on the government.
• Extending the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies:
• There has been no recent amendment to the Constitution to extend the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
• The reservation for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies is currently provided for by the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, and the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, respectively.
• However, there have been debates and demands for increasing the reservation for SCs and STs in the Parliament and State Assemblies.

The correct answer is 52.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) is one of the two major political parties in India, founded in 1885.
• The Indian National Congress has 52 MPs in the 17th Lok Sabha.
• Allan Octavian Hume, a British civil officer, founded the Indian National Congress (INC) to provide a forum for Indians to air their complaints against the British Raj.
• The first president of the INC was the Bengali lawyer Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.
• At the inaugural Congress session held in Bombay in 1885, Bonnerjee was elected.

Additional Information

• The lower house of India's bicameral parliament is called the Lok Sabha.
• There are now 543 seats in the house, which are filled by electing up to 543 members.
• There are 131 seats (24.03%) set aside for members of Scheduled Tribes (47) and Scheduled Castes (84) in total.
• Ten percent of the House's members make up the quorum.

The correct answer is Hugli.

Key Points

• Hugli has population growth rate less than 10 per cent, as per census 2011.
• The population growth rate of Hugli district was 9.47% as per the census conducted in 2011.
• Jaipur district had a population growth rate of 23.66% as per the same census.
• Nashik district had a population growth rate of 22.31% as per the census conducted in 2011.
• Surat district had a population growth rate of 42.45% as per the same census.

Additional Information

• Population growth rate is the rate at which the population of a region or country grows over a period of time.
• Jaipur is a district in the state of Rajasthan, located in the northwestern part of India.
• Nashik is a district in the state of Maharashtra, located in the western part of India.
• It is known for its vineyards, temples, and scenic beauty.
• Hugli, also known as Hooghly, is a district in the state of West Bengal, located in the eastern part of India.
• Surat is a district in the state of Gujarat, located in the western part of India.
• It is known for its diamond and textile industries, as well as its historical landmarks.

The correct answer is Kannauj.

Key Points

• Palas, Prathiharas, and Rashtrakutas were three prominent dynasties in medieval India.
• These dynasties were involved in a series of wars to gain control over Kannauj, which was a strategically important city located in present-day Uttar Pradesh.
• Kannauj was considered the cultural and political capital of northern India during that time.
• The Palas, Prathiharas, and Rashtrakutas fought several battles over the control of Kannauj between the 8th and 10th centuries CE.
• The battle for Kannauj was significant because it marked a shift in power from the north-western region to the Gangetic plains.

Additional Information

• Magadh was an ancient kingdom located in present-day Bihar.
• It was a powerful kingdom during the time of Buddha and Mahavira.
• Pataliputra was the capital city of Magadh and one of the most important cities in ancient India.
• It was located on the banks of the river Ganges.
• Gwalior is a historic city located in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
• It was an important center of power during the medieval period and was ruled by various dynasties such as the Tomars, Mughals, and Scindias.
• Kannauj was a strategically important city during the medieval period.
• It was located on the banks of the river Ganges and was considered the cultural and political capital of northern India.

The correct answer is Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Key Points

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a social reformer, writer, and philosopher who was instrumental in the Indian Renaissance movement.
• He founded the Brahmo Samaj, which aimed to reform Hindu society and promote monotheism.
• Roy was also a strong advocate for women's rights and worked towards the abolition of sati (the practice of widows immolating themselves on their husband's funeral pyre).
• He was also a proponent of education and played a key role in establishing the Hindu College in Calcutta, which later became the prestigious Presidency University.

Additional Information

• Swami Ramakrishna Paramahansa was a 19th-century mystic and spiritual leader who is known for his teachings on Advaita Vedanta.
• He was a major influence on Swami Vivekananda, who later founded the Ramakrishna Mission in his honor.
• Atmaram Pandurang was a 19th-century social reformer who worked towards the upliftment of the lower castes in Maharashtra.
• He was a strong advocate for education and worked to establish schools for the lower castes.
• Swami Vivekananda was a disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa and played a key role in popularizing Hinduism in the West.
• He founded the Ramakrishna Mission, which is dedicated to the service of humanity and the promotion of spiritual values.

The correct answer is Justice Md. Hidayatullah.

Key Points

• Justice Md. Hidayatullah was appointed as the Advocate General of Maharashtra at the age of 32, making him the youngest Advocate General in India's history.
• He was later appointed as the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court at the age of 44, becoming the youngest Chief Justice of a High Court in India.
• In 1962, he was appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India at the age of 49.
• Justice Hidayatullah went on to become the Vice President of India and later served as the Acting President of India in 1969

Additional Information

• Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar became the youngest Chief Justice of a High Court in India at the age of 44.
• Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan was the first Chief Justice of India and was appointed to the position at the age of 52.
• Justice Sudhi Ranjan Das was a former Chief Justice of India but was not the youngest Judge of the Supreme Court of India.

The correct answer is profit.

Key Points

• Profit is the amount of money that a business earns after deducting all the expenses from its revenue.
• It is an indicator of the financial health of a business and is essential for its growth and sustainability.
• A positive profit indicates that the business is generating more revenue than it is spending.
• A negative profit, also known as a loss, indicates the opposite.

Additional Information

• Loss refers to a situation where a business spends more money than it earns, leading to a negative profit.
• Interest is the cost of borrowing money.
• Most of the time, interest to borrowers is expressed as an annual percentage of the loan amount.
• The interest rate on the loan is this %.
• Capital refers to the total amount of money invested in a business.
• Cash on hand, accounts receivable, close cash, equity, and capital assets are typical kinds of capital.
• Large, long-term assets that aren't meant to be sold as part of your everyday operations are known as capital assets.

The correct answer is To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

Key Points

• To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform is NOT a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution.
• The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution and provide for individual freedoms that guarantee basic human rights to all citizens.
• To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform is a part of the Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) and not a Fundamental Right.
• The other options are all Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:
• To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes (Article 26)
• To move freely throughout the territory of India (Article 19)
• To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India (Article 19)

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties are a set of moral obligations that are enforceable by law, but the Constitution does not provide for any punishment for their violation.
• There are 11 fundamental duties listed under Article 51A.
• Article 26:
• This Fundamental Right guarantees the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
• It also provides for the right to manage these institutions without interference from the state.
• Article 19:
• This Fundamental Right guarantees six freedoms to all citizens, including the freedom of speech and expression, the right to assemble peacefully, and the right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Article 19(1)(e):
• This guarantees the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• It also provides for the right to practice any profession, occupation, trade, or business.

The correct answer is 1526 AD.

Key Points

• Babar defeated and killed Ibrahim Lodi in 1526 AD.
• This battle is known as the Battle of Panipat.
• Babar was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India.
• Ibrahim Lodi was the last Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Babar's victory at the Battle of Panipat marked the beginning of Mughal rule in India.

Additional Information

• On November 5, 1556, the soldiers of Samrat Hem Chandra Vikramaditya, the Hindu king who ruled North India from Delhi, and the army of Akbar engaged in combat in the Second Battle of Panipat. 
• For Akbar's generals, Bairam Khan and Khan Zaman I, it was an overwhelming triumph.
• After demolishing multiple Maratha flanks, Ahmad Shah Durrani's armies emerged victorious in the third battle of Panipat. 
• It took place on 14 January 1761.

The correct answer is 9.2%.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2022-23 has predicted India's economic growth rate to be 9.2%, which is a significant increase from the previous year's growth rate of 4.2%.
• This growth rate is expected to be driven by the government's focus on infrastructure development, healthcare, and agriculture sectors, along with increased private investment and consumption.
• The projected growth rate is also in line with the International Monetary Fund's (IMF) prediction of India's GDP growth rate to be 9.5% for the year 2021-22.
• The government's efforts to boost the economy through various schemes like Atmanirbhar Bharat, Make in India, and Digital India are also expected to contribute to the growth rate.
• However, there are certain challenges that need to be addressed, such as rising inflation, unemployment, and the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on the economy.

Additional Information

• An rise in a nation's economy over time is referred to as economic growth.
• The gross domestic product (GDP), or the entire amount of goods and services produced within an economy, is commonly used to gauge the size of that economy.
• Both "nominal" and "real" measures of economic growth are available.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest record of population density with just 17 per square kilometre, as per census 2011.
• Mizoram, on the other hand, has a population density of 52 per square kilometre, which is higher than Arunachal Pradesh.
• Goa has a population density of 394 per square kilometre, which is significantly higher than both Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Sikkim has a population density of 86 per square kilometre, which is also higher than Arunachal Pradesh.

Additional Information

• The number of people per unit of area, sometimes expressed as "per square kilometer" or "per square mile," is known as population density.
• This figure may include or exclude features like glaciers or areas surrounded by water.
• The number of people divided by the area's size yields the population density.
• A 2011 census found that there are 382 persons per square kilometer in India.​