IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper (Held On: 23 March, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• ​A public institution of national significance is the All India Institute of Medical Sciences in Bilaspur.
• The hospital and medical school are located in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh, India.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the institute's foundation stone on October 4, 2017.
• The first day of ope ration was October 5, 2022.

Additional Information

• A collection of independent, state-run, public medical institutes in higher education is known as the All India Institutes of Medical Sciences (AIIMS).
• The Government of India's Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is in charge of it.
• An Act of Parliament has designated these institutions as Institutes of National Importance.
• The first institute, AIIMS New Delhi, was founded in 1956 and was directed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
• Twenty institutes are functioning as of January 2023, and four more are anticipated to open by 2025.

The correct answer is PV Sindhu.

Key Points

• PV Sindhu is a top Indian badminton player who has won numerous accolades in her career, including an Olympic silver medal and multiple World Championship medals.
• At the Commonwealth Games 2022 held in Birmingham, England, Sindhu won the gold medal in the women's singles category by defeating Singapore's Yeo Jia Min in the final match.
• Sindhu defeated Michelle Li by 21-15, 21-13.
• This became Sindhu's maiden gold medal from the Commonwealth Games in the singles category.

Additional Information

• Saina Nehwal is another top Indian badminton player.
• She has competed in three Olympics as an Indian representative, taking home a bronze medal in her second trip to London in 2012.
• Gayatri Gopichand is a young Indian badminton player who has been making a mark in the junior circuit. 
• She won a silver in the women's singles and a gold in the women's team competition at the 2019 South Asian Games for her country.
• Sayali Gokhale is a retired Indian badminton player.
• In both the women's singles and team competitions, she won the gold medal at the 2010 South Asian Games in Dhaka.

The correct answer is 2022.

Key Points

• The International Finance Facility for Education (IFFEd) was launched in September 2022 at the Transforming Education Summit by the United Nations.
• IFFEd is a new global financing mechanism that aims to leverage funding for education in low and middle-income countries.
• The facility will use innovative financing instruments, such as bonds and guarantees, to mobilize funds from public and private sources to support education.
• The IFFEd has set a goal to raise $10 billion in funding over the next ten years to support education in developing countries.

Additional Information

• IFFEd closes a significant gap in the global finance architecture for education and supports already-existing grant instruments like Education Cannot Wait (ECW) and the Global Partnership for Education (GPE).
• IFFEd multiplies donor contributions seven times in the current resource-constrained climate, meaning that it gives $7 for every$1 in traditional aid.
• In partnership with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the African Development Bank (AfDB), IFFEd will first concentrate on the Asia-Africa region before going global.

The correct answer is Kirana Gharana.

Key Points

• Pandit Bhimsen Joshi became the most popular artist of Kirana Gharana.
• He was one of the best vocalists in the Hindustani classical style from Karnataka, India.
• He is well-known for both his popular interpretations of religious music and the khayal style of singing.
• He received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 1998.
• In 2009, he was bestowed with India's highest civilian accolade, the Bharat Ratna.
• Kirana Gharana is one of the oldest Gharanas of Indian classical music, which originated in the town of Kirana near Delhi.
• The Kirana Gharana is famous for its melodious style and is known for its emphasis on the 'gayaki ang' or the vocal style of singing.

Additional Information

• Gwalior Gharana is known for its Dhrupad style of singing.
• This style is characterized by a slow and rhythmic rendition of the composition.
• Mewati Gharana is known for its unique blend of classical and folk music.
• It is famous for its 'bol-banav' or the art of improvising lyrics on the spot.
• Patiala Gharana is known for its powerful and energetic style of singing.
• It is famous for its use of 'tans' or fast-paced improvisations.

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

• Australia defeated India in the women's cricket final of the Commonwealth Games 2022 to win the gold medal.
• Australia won the match by a score of nine runs.
• With 179 runs, Australian batswoman Beth Mooney led all scorers in the competition.
• Renuka Singh of India took the most wickets with 11 in the tournament.
• Australia has a strong women's cricket team and has won multiple international tournaments in the past.
• They are currently ranked as the number one team in the ICC Women's T20I rankings.

Additional Information

• England is another top team in women's cricket and has won multiple World Cups and Ashes series.
• They finished in third place in the Commonwealth Games 2022.
• Bangladesh and Pakistan are not known for their women's cricket teams and did not participate in the Commonwealth Games 2022 women's cricket tournament.
• Commonwealth Games is a multi-sport event where athletes from various countries compete in different sports.
• The 2022 edition was held in Birmingham, England and featured 19 sports including athletics, swimming, gymnastics, and squash, among others.

The correct answer is Producers.

Key Points

• Producers are the base of the food chain and support all other trophic levels.
• They are the organisms that can make their own food through the process of photosynthesis or chemosynthesis.
• Therefore, they have the highest number of individuals in the pyramid of numbers.
• Producers are also known as autotrophs, which means "self-feeders."

Additional Information

• Primary consumers are the herbivores that eat producers.
• They have fewer individuals than producers because they need to consume a larger quantity of producers to meet their energy requirements.
• Secondary consumers are the carnivores that eat herbivores.
• They have even fewer individuals than primary consumers because they need to consume a larger quantity of primary consumers to meet their energy requirements.
• Tertiary consumers are the top predators that eat other carnivores.
• They have the fewest individuals in the pyramid of numbers because they need to consume a larger quantity of secondary consumers to meet their energy requirements.

The correct answer is Helium.

Key Points

• He does not belong to the 2nd period as it has only 1 energy level, which is the first period.
• Helium has atomic number two and the symbol He.
• It is the first gas in the periodic table's noble gas category and is colorless, odorless, tasteless, non-toxic, and inert.
• Among all the elements, it has the lowest boiling point and, at standard pressures, no melting point.

Additional Information

• The 2nd period of the periodic table consists of elements with 2 energy levels, which are Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F, and Ne.
• Beryllium (Be) is a chemical element with the symbol Be and atomic number 4.
• Be belongs to the 2nd period as it has 2 energy levels.
• It is a relatively rare element in the universe, usually occurring as a product of the spallation of larger atomic nuclei that have collided with cosmic rays.
• Lithium (Li) is a chemical element with the symbol Li and atomic number 3.
• Li belongs to the 2nd period as it has 2 energy levels.
• It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal and the lightest solid element.
• Boron (B) is a chemical element with the symbol B and atomic number 5.
• B belongs to the 2nd period as it has 2 energy levels.
• It is a metalloid and the only non-metal of the group 13 elements on the periodic table.

The correct answer is Leather belt : Wool.

Key Points

• Biodegradable materials are those that can be broken down naturally by microorganisms into simpler substances that can be reused in nature.
• Wood, wool, cotton, animal excrement, and any other organic substance that may be broken down by microorganisms into simple organic molecules such as methane and carbon dioxide are examples of biodegradable materials.
• They're frequently called "bio-waste."
• Leather belt is a biodegradable material made of animal skin, which can be decomposed naturally by microorganisms in the soil.
• Wool is a natural fiber obtained from sheep, which is a biodegradable material and can be decomposed naturally.

Additional Information

• Since non-biodegradable materials do not readily react with or disintegrate in soil, they are not easily influenced by natural processes.
• Among the objects that are frequently utilized in daily life are plastic items, bottles, cans, aluminum scraps, glasses, supermarket bags, Styrofoam (polystyrene), and metal scraps.
• Silver foil is a non-biodegradable material made of metal.
• It does not decompose naturally and remains in the environment for a long time, causing pollution.
• Iron nails are also non-biodegradable materials made of metal, which do not decompose naturally and cause environmental pollution.

The correct answer is 193.

Key Points

• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by all 193 United Nations member states in September 2015.
• "Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development" was the title of the 2030 Development Agenda that was accepted by the 193 member UN General Assembly.
• The 92 paragraphs in this agenda, the 17 Sustainable Development Goals, together with the 169 targets and 232 indicators that go along with them, are listed in paragraph 59.
• The SDGs are a set of 17 goals with 169 targets that aim to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure prosperity for all.

Additional Information

• The SDGs were established by the UNGA in 2015 as a component of the Post-2015 Development Agenda.
• The goal of this agenda was to create a new framework for global development in place of the Millennium Development Goals, which were finished that year.
• These objectives were publicly stated and approved in a resolution passed by the UNGA that became known as the 2030 Agenda, or simply Agenda 2030.
• A UNGA decision adopted on July 6, 2017, gave the SDGs more concrete deadlines and progress indicators, making them more implementable.
• While some goals have no deadline, the majority are expected to be completed by 2030.

The correct answer is Solution IV.

Key Points

• A strong alkaline solution has a pH value greater than 7, which means that it is basic in nature.
• Solution III has a pH value of 7, which means it is neutral, not acidic or basic.
• Solution II has a pH value of 5, which means it is slightly acidic, not alkaline.
• Solution IV has a pH value of 9, which means it is slightly basic, but not strong alkaline.
• Solution I has a pH value of 3, which means it is strongly acidic, not alkaline.

Additional Information

• The universal indicator is a pH indicator used to measure the pH of a solution.
• "Potential of hydrogen" is what pH has historically meant.
• It is a scale for indicating how basic or acidic an aqueous solution is.
• Lower pH values are associated with acidic solutions (those containing more hydrogen (H+) ions) than with basic or alkaline solutions.
• The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral, below 7 being acidic and above 7 being basic.

The correct answer is "stethoscope."

Key Points

• A stethoscope is a medical instrument that doctors use to listen to sounds produced by various organs in the human body, such as the heart, lungs, and intestines.
• It consists of two earpieces connected by flexible tubing to a chestpiece that is placed on the patient's skin.
• When the doctor places the chestpiece on the patient's body, the sound waves produced by the organs are transmitted through the tubing to the earpieces, allowing the doctor to hear the sounds.

Additional Information

• A proctoscope is a medical instrument used to examine the rectum and anus.
• Proctoscopes are hollow metal tubes that are short, rigid, and straight.
• Usually, a small light bulb is attached at the end of the tube.
• An otoscope is a medical instrument used to examine the ear.
• An ear examination can identify the source of symptoms including hearing loss, fullness in the ear, or earaches.
• An ophthalmoscope is a medical instrument used to examine the eye.
• The provider can see the back of the eyeball thanks to its light and several tiny optics.

The correct answer is Jodhpur.

Key Points

• The Rajasthan Government launched 512 new Indira Rasoi in September 2022 from Jodhpur city.
• Indira Rasoi is a scheme launched by the Rajasthan Government to provide affordable and nutritious food to the needy people of the state.
• Under this scheme, the government provides breakfast for Rs. 5 and lunch/dinner for Rs. 8 to the poor and needy people of the state.
• The scheme aims to provide food to the needy people during the COVID-19 pandemic and to eradicate hunger and malnutrition from the state.

Additional Information

• ​On August 20, 2020, 213 Urban Body Area contained 358 Indira Rasoi at the time of debut.
• However, the number of Indira Rasoi in Rajasthan has increased from 358 to 1000 as per the 2022–2023 Budget Announcement.
• Under the Indira Rasoi Yojana, the Rajasthani government aims to feed 2.30 lakh people daily and 9.25 crore people annually at a reasonable cost with nutritious meals.
• Each food plate that is given to residents of Indira Rasoi will have 250 grams of chapati and achar, 100 grams of vegetables, and 100 grams of Dal.

The correct answer is They can’t move from one place to another.

Key Points

• The incorrect statement about the subkingdom Protozoa is "They can't move from one place to another."
• Protozoa are a diverse group of unicellular eukaryotic organisms that belong to the subkingdom Protozoa.
• They are found in a variety of habitats, including freshwater, marine environments, and soil.
• Protozoa are capable of movement, and many species are motile.
• They use different mechanisms for locomotion, such as cilia, flagella, and pseudopodia.

Additional Information

• They are mostly aquatic organisms:
• This statement is true.
• Most protozoa are found in aquatic environments, such as freshwater and marine habitats.
• However, some species can also be found in soil, sediments, and even in the bodies of other organisms.
• They are unicellular organisms:
• This statement is true.
• Protozoa are composed of a single cell and do not have complex body structures like multicellular organisms.
• Mode of nutrition is holozoic:
• This statement is true for many protozoa.
• Holozoic nutrition involves ingesting whole or partially digested food particles.
• However, some protozoa are saprophytic, meaning they feed on dead organic matter, while others are parasitic and obtain their nutrition from a host organism.

The correct answer is 11 September 1961.

Key Points

• Sangeet Natak Akademi is the national academy of music, dance, and drama in India.
• The Memorandum of Association is a legal document that defines the constitution and objectives of an organization.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi adopted its Memorandum of Association on September 11, 1961.

Additional Information

• Sangeet Natak Akademi was established in 1952 by the Government of India.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and has regional centers in different parts of the country.
• The academy promotes and preserves the traditional arts of India and also encourages new and innovative forms of expression.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi also confers awards and fellowships to outstanding artists and scholars in the field of music, dance, and drama.

The correct answer is Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Rules.

Key Points

• The Maradu Municipality in Ernakulam, Kerala had given permission for the construction of five apartment complexes in violation of the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Rules.
• These rules were introduced in 1991 to regulate development activities along the coast and protect the coastal environment from degradation.
• The CRZ rules prohibit construction within 200 meters of the high tide line and also restrict certain activities such as mining, reclamation and bunding.
• The Supreme Court's order for the demolition of the apartments came in response to a petition filed by residents of the area, who had raised concerns about the environmental impact of the constructions.
• The demolition was carried out in January 2020 and was a significant step towards enforcing environmental regulations in the country.

Additional Information

• National Green Tribunal Act:
• The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized court that deals with environmental disputes and violations.
• NGT can order the closure of industries or impose penalties for violating environmental laws.
• It is modeled after Article 21 Protection of life and personal liberty in the Indian Constitution, which guarantees inhabitants of India the right to a healthy environment.
• The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act:
• This is a law that deals with the prevention and control of water pollution in India.
• The act was enacted in 1974.
• The Hazardous Waste Management Regulations:
• These regulations deal with the management, handling and disposal of hazardous waste.

The correct answer is Ladakh.

Key Points

• Thiksey Monastery is one of the largest and most famous Buddhist monasteries in Ladakh, located around 19 km east of Leh.
• It is situated on top of a hill and offers a stunning panoramic view of the surrounding valleys and mountains.
• The monastery is a 12-storied complex with several prayer halls, stupas, and Buddha statues, and is home to around 80 monks.
• The annual Thiksey Gustor festival, celebrated in the lunar month of the Tibetan calendar, is a major attraction for tourists and devotees alike.

Additional Information

• Pondicherry is a Union Territory in South India known for its French colonial architecture and serene beaches.
• It does not have any significant Buddhist heritage sites.
• Himachal Pradesh is a state in Northern India known for its scenic beauty and rich cultural heritage.
• It has several ancient Buddhist monasteries, including the famous Tabo Monastery and the Dhankar Monastery.
• Kerala is a state in South India known for its backwaters, beaches, and Ayurvedic treatments.
• It does not have any significant Buddhist heritage sites.

The correct answer is Table tennis.

Key Points

• Sathiyan Gnanasekaran won a bronze medal in the Commonwealth Games 2022 in table tennis.
• He defeated Paul Drinkhall of England in the men's singles bronze medal match.
• Sathiyan is a professional table tennis player from India who has won multiple national and international titles.
• The Commonwealth Games is a multi-sport event held every four years, featuring athletes from countries that are part of the Commonwealth of Nations.

Additional Information

• Two teams of eleven players each play the bat-and-ball game of cricket.
• The field on which it is played has a 22-yard (20-meter) pitch in the middle, and there are wickets at each end, each with two bails balanced on three stumps.
• Chess is an abstract strategy game with no elements of chance or concealed knowledge.
• The game is played on an 8x8 chessboard with 64 squares arranged.
• Racquets are used in the racquet sport of badminton to strike shuttlecocks over nets. 
• When the shuttlecock is struck with the racquet and lands inside the opposite team's half of the court, points are scored.

The correct answer is Khanjari.

Key Points

• A folk instrument is a musical instrument that is typically associated with a particular culture or region and is played by ordinary people rather than professional musicians.
• Khanjari is an example of a folk instrument.
• It is a small, handheld percussion instrument that is commonly used in traditional music in Iran and other parts of the Middle East.

Additional Information

• Giddha is a traditional folk dance form of Punjab, India.
• It is usually accompanied by dhol, a large barrel-shaped drum, and tumbi, a small stringed instrument.
• Munari is a type of drum that is used in the music of the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India.
• It is played with sticks and is often used in religious and cultural ceremonies.
• Loor is a type of flute that is used in the music of the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, India.
• It is made from bamboo and is played by blowing air into it.

The correct answer is Vitamin B12.

Key Points

• Vitamin B12 plays a crucial role in the production of red blood cells, which carry oxygen throughout the body.
• Without enough Vitamin B12, the body is unable to produce enough healthy red blood cells, leading to a condition called megaloblastic anaemia.
• Symptoms of megaloblastic anaemia include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and pale skin.
• Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause neurological symptoms such as tingling or numbness in the hands and feet, difficulty walking, and memory problems.

Additional Information

• Vitamin E: Deficiency of Vitamin E can cause muscle weakness, vision problems, and impaired immune function.
• Vitamin D: Deficiency of Vitamin D can lead to weakened bones, muscle weakness, and increased risk of fractures.
• Vitamin B3: Deficiency of Vitamin B3 can cause a condition called pellagra, which is characterized by symptoms such as skin rashes, diarrhea, and mental confusion.

The correct answer is Dhimsa.

Key Points

• Dhimsa is a popular folk dance performed by the tribes of Araku Valley in Visakhapatnam District.
• Dhimsa is a ritual dance performed during various occasions like weddings, festivals, and other celebrations.
• The dance is performed by both men and women in a circular formation, with the dancers holding each other's hands and moving in a synchronized manner.
• The dance is accompanied by the beats of various musical instruments like dhol, madal, and cymbals.

Additional Information

• Chakri is a folk dance form popular in Rajasthan and Gujarat, which involves spinning in circles while holding dandiya sticks.
• The Kanjar tribe of Rajasthan is known for its Chakri folk dance.
• Kajari is a folk dance form popular in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, which is performed during the Kajari festival.
• It is especially well-liked in the areas of Shahabad, Munger, and Bhojpur.
• Wancho is a tribal dance form performed by the Wancho tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.
• ​It is done for fun and relaxation.

Given: 

The average age of the husband and wife was 25 years when they got married 4 years ago.

The average age of the husband, wife, and their child is 20 years now.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of Values/Number of Values

Concept used:

Average age is the total age divided by the number of individuals.

Calculation:

Total age of husband and wife 4 years ago

⇒ 2 × 25 = 50 years.

Total age of husband and wife now

⇒ 50 + 2 × 4 = 58 years.

Total age of husband, wife, and child now

⇒ 3 × 20 = 60 years.

The child's age now

⇒ 60 - 58 = 2 years.

∴The child is 2 years old.

Given:

Reena reaches 20 minutes late if she walks at the speed of 3 km/h

She reaches 30 minutes early if she walks at the speed of 4 km/h

Concept Used:

If the distance is the same, the ratio of speed and time required are opposite

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Ratio of speed = 3 : 4

⇒ Ratio of time = 4 : 3

Let the time required be 4x and 3x

According to the question

⇒ 4x - 3x = (20 + 30) mins

⇒ x = 50 mins

So, when Reena walks at a speed of 3 km/h

She reaches party in 4x = 4 × 50 = 200 mins

⇒ 200/60 = 10/3 hours

Distance = (10/3) × 3 = 10 km

∴ The distance between the house and party venue is 10 km.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Ratio of Boys : Girls = 16/2 : 15/3 = 8 : 5.

New Ratio of Boys : Girls = 1/2 : 1/3 = 3 : 2.

Using Cross-Multiplication Method: (8 × 2 − 5 × 3) units = (3 × 3 − 2 × 1).

(16 − 15) units = 9 − 2 ⇒ 1 unit = 7.

Original number of girls = 5 units = 5 × 7 = 35.

∴ The correct answer is 35.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Ratio = (16/2) : (15/3) = 8 : 5

New Ratio = (1/2) : (1/3) = 3 : 2

New Boys = Initial + 1; New Girls = Initial + 3

⇒ Let the original number of boys be 8x and girls be 5x.

⇒ According to the problem: (8x + 1) / (5x + 3) = 3 / 2

⇒ 2 × (8x + 1) = 3 × (5x + 3)

⇒ 16x + 2 = 15x + 9

⇒ 16x − 15x = 9 − 2

⇒ x = 7

⇒ Number of girls originally = 5x = 5 × 7 = 35.

∴ The correct answer is 35.

Additional Information

Simplifying Complex Ratios

To simplify a ratio like (a/b) : (c/d), multiply both terms by the LCM of denominators or use the cross-multiplication: (a × d) : (b × c).

Cross-Multiplication Method in Ratios

Used when a fixed quantity is added or subtracted from terms. If (ax+m)/(bx+n) = c/d, then x = (dn − cm) / (ad − bc).

Ratio and Proportion

If a : b = c : d, then Product of Extremes (a × d) is always equal to Product of Means (b × c).

Given:

Initial SP = 80% of CP

If New SP = Initial SP + 2000, Profit = 20%

Concept used:

At loss, SP = (100 - Loss%) × CP

At profit, SP = (100 + Profit%) × CP 

Calculation:

Let, CP of the microwave = Rs. a 

Initial SP = Rs. 0.8a

New SP = Rs. 1.2a

According to the question,

0.8a + 2000 = 1.2a

⇒ 1.2a - 0.8a = 2000

⇒ 0.4a = 2000

⇒ a = 2000/0.4 = 5000

∴ The cost price of the microwave is Rs. 5000.

Given:

Efficiency of Anu = 4 × Efficiency of Binni

They finish a work in 12 hours together.

Concept used:

Total work = Efficiency of the workers × Time taken by them

Calculation:

Let, the efficiency of Binny be m.

So, the efficiency of Anu = 4m

Effective efficiency of them = m + 4m = 5m

Total work = 12 × 5m = 60m

Now, the time taken by Anu to finish the work = 60m/4m = 15 hours

∴ In 15 hours Anu will finish the work alone.

Calculation:

⇒ $\frac{1 \frac{1}{4} \div 1 \frac{5}{10}}{-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{2}{3}+\frac{4}{5}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{3}{4}}$

⇒ $\frac{\frac{5}{4}\div \frac{15}{10}}{-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{2}{3}+\frac{4}{5}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{3}{4}}$

⇒ $\frac{\frac{5}{4}\div \frac{15}{10}}{\frac{-30-40+48-20+12+45}{60}}$

⇒ $\frac{\frac{5}{4}\times \frac{10}{15}}{\frac{-90+105}{60}}$ = $\frac{\frac{5}{6}}{\frac{15}{60}}$

 

⇒ $\frac{\frac{5}{6}}{\frac{1}{4}}$ = $\frac{20}{6}$

⇒ $\frac{10}{3}$

Hence, the correct answer is $\frac{10}{3}$.

Given:

The inner circumference of a racetrack is 220 m.

Outer circumference is 352 m

Formula Used:

The area of the ring = π(R² - r²)

Where R is the outer radius and r is the inner radius

Calculation:

The circumference of the outer track = 352 m

⇒ 2πR= 352

⇒ 2 × 22/7 × R = 352

⇒ R = 352 × 7/44

⇒ R = 8 × 7

⇒ R = 56 m

Also, the circumference of the inner radius = 220 m

⇒ 2πr = 220

⇒ 2 × 22/7 × r = 220

⇒ r = 110 × 7/22

⇒ r = 5 × 7 

⇒ r = 35 m

Now, the area of the track = π(R² - r²)

⇒ 22/7(56² - 35²)

⇒ 22/7(56 + 35)(56 - 35)

⇒ 22/7(91)(21)

⇒ 22 × 91 × 3 = 6006 m²

Hence, the correct answer is 6006 m².

Given:

Fifty solid metallic cubes and each cube has an edge length of 2 m

<br>

Ten solid cuboids and each cuboid has dimensions of 5 m × 4 m × 3 m

<br>

Concept used:

The volume of a cube is given by edge length³

<br>

The volume of a cuboid is given by length × width × height

<br>

On melting and recasting shapes, the volume before and after remains the same

<br>

Calculation:

Total volume of fifty cubes = 50 × (2 m)³ = 50 * 8 m³ = 400 m³

Total volume of ten cuboids = 10 × (5 m × 4 m × 3 m) = 10 * 60 m³ = 600 m³

Volume of big cube = Total volume of fifty cubes + Total volume of ten cuboids = 400 m³ + 600 m³ = 1000 m³

Edge length of big cube = cube root of (Volume of big cube) = cube root of (1000 m³) = 10 m

∴ The length of each side of the large cube that's formed is 10 m.

Shortcut Trick

Average annual interest = 3,000 ÷ 2 = ₹1,500.

Overall annual rate = (1,500 ÷ 30,000) × 100 = 5%.

By Alligation, ratio of investment in Scheme X to Scheme Y = (5 − 2) : (10 − 5) = 3 : 5.

Sum invested in Scheme X = (3 ÷ 8) × 30,000 = ₹11,250.

∴ The correct answer is ₹11,250.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Investment = ₹30,000, Scheme X Rate = 10% p.a., Scheme Y Rate = 2% p.a., Total Simple Interest = ₹3,000, Time = 2 years.

Formula Used: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Let the amount invested in Scheme X be P_X and in Scheme Y be P_Y.

⇒ P_X + P_Y = 30,000

⇒ Total Interest = SI_X + SI_Y = 3,000

⇒ (P_X × 10 × 2) ÷ 100 + ((30,000 − P_X) × 2 × 2) ÷ 100 = 3,000

⇒ 20P_X + 4(30,000 − P_X) = 3,000 × 100

⇒ 20P_X + 120,000 − 4P_X = 300,000

⇒ 16P_X = 300,000 − 120,000

⇒ 16P_X = 180,000

⇒ P_X = 180,000 ÷ 16 = ₹11,250

∴ The correct answer is ₹11,250.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Formula

SI is calculated on the original principal throughout the duration. Formula: SI = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100.

Alligation in Interest

When a sum is split into two parts at different rates R₁ and R₂, and the average rate is R_avg, the ratio of the parts is (R_avg − R₂) : (R₁ − R_avg).

Difference between SI and CI

For 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest is P(R/100)².

Shortcut Trick

Using the net deviation method for replacement:

Net change in total weight = Number of persons × Increase in average

Net increase = 8 × 2.5 = 20 kg

Weight of new person = Weight of replaced person + Net increase

Weight of new person = 50 + 20 = 70 kg

∴ The correct answer is 70 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of people = 8

Weight of the replaced person = 50 kg

Increase in average weight = 5/2 kg = 2.5 kg

Formula Used:

Weight of new person = Weight of replaced person + (Total members × Increase in average)

Calculations:

⇒ Total increase in weight for all 8 people = 8 × 2.5 = 20 kg

⇒ The 20 kg total increase is entirely contributed by the incoming new person.

⇒ Weight of new person = Weight of replaced person + Total increase

⇒ Weight of new person = 50 kg + 20 kg

⇒ Weight of new person = 70 kg

∴ The correct answer is 70 kg.

Additional Information

Replacement in Average

When an item is replaced by a new item causing the average to increase, the value of the new item is calculated as: New Value = Old Value + (Total number of items × Increase in Average).

Weighted Average

The combined average of two mixed groups is given by the formula: A_w = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Net Deviation Method

The exact average of a dataset can be found rapidly by assuming an average value, adding all the individual net deviations, and dividing that sum by the total number of items.

Given:

Marked price = Rs. 2000

Discount = 20 %

VAT = 15 %

Formula used:

SP after discount (SP₁) = MP - (MP × D%)

SP after VAT = SP₁ + (SP1 × VAT%)

Where, MP = Marked price and SP = Selling price

Calculation:

Selling price after discount = 2000 - (2000 × 20/100)

⇒ SP₁ = 2000 - 400

⇒ SP₁ = 1600

Now, SP after adding VAT

SP after VAT = 1600 + (1600 × 15/100)

⇒ SP after VAT = 1600 + 24000/100

⇒ SP after VAT = 1600 + 240 = 1840

∴ He sells the item at Rs. 1840

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Time downstream to Time upstream for specific distances: T_d = 0.6 × T_u.

60 ÷ (u + 4) = 0.6 × [75 ÷ (u − 4)] ⇒ 60 ÷ (u + 4) = 45 ÷ (u − 4).

By cross-multiplying: 4(u − 4) = 3(u + 4) ⇒ 4u − 16 = 3u + 12 ⇒ u = 28 km/h.

Total time = (39.2 ÷ 28) + (51.2 ÷ (28 + 4)) = 1.4 + 1.6 = 3 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 3 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance downstream (D₁) = 60 km, Distance upstream (D₂) = 75 km.

Stream speed (v) = 4 km/h, Still water speed = u km/h.

New distances: Still water = 39.2 km, Downstream = 51.2 km.

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed | Downstream speed = u + v | Upstream speed = u − v

Calculations:

⇒ Time downstream = 60 ÷ (u + 4)

⇒ Time upstream = 75 ÷ (u − 4)

⇒ According to question: 60 ÷ (u + 4) = 0.6 × [75 ÷ (u − 4)]

⇒ 60 ÷ (u + 4) = 45 ÷ (u − 4)

⇒ 60u − 240 = 45u + 180

⇒ 15u = 420 ⇒ u = 28 km/h

⇒ Time in still water = 39.2 ÷ 28 = 1.4 hr

⇒ Time downstream = 51.2 ÷ (28 + 4) = 51.2 ÷ 32 = 1.6 hr

⇒ Total time = 1.4 + 1.6 = 3 hr

∴ The correct answer is 3 hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Water

When moving Downstream, the boat speed is added to the stream speed (u + v). When moving Upstream, the stream speed is subtracted from the boat speed (u − v).

Speed of Boat and Stream

Speed of boat in still water (u) = (Downstream + Upstream) ÷ 2. Speed of stream (v) = (Downstream − Upstream) ÷ 2.

Average Speed for Round Trip

If a boat travels the same distance upstream and downstream, the Average Speed = (Speed_up × Speed_down) ÷ Speed_still.

Given:

Tap A can fill the tank in 10 hours.

Tap B can fill the tank in 18 hours.

Tap C can fill the tank in 6 hours.

B and C run alternatively for one hour each, starting with B, and A runs continuously.

Concept Used:

Time = Total Work/Efficiency

Calculation:

Efficiency of A = 1/10

Efficiency of B = 1/18

Efficiency of C = 1/6

According to given condition,

Efficiency for 1st hour = 1/10 + 1/18 = 28/180 

Efficiency for 2nd hour = 1/10 + 1/6 = 16/60 = 48/180

Now, Work done in 4 hours:

⇒ 2 × (28/180 + 48/180)

⇒ 2 × (76/180) 

⇒ 152/180

Remaining work = 1 - 152/180 = 28/180

28/180 will done in next 1 hour by A & B together.

So, Total time required to fill the tank:

⇒ 4 + 1 = 5 hours

∴ The tank will be full in 5 hours.

Given:

The ratio of money with Kishore(K) to Pradeep(P) is 5 : 11

The ratio of money with Pradeep(P) to Sandeep(S) is 6 : 14

Kishore(K) has Rs. 570.

Shortcut Trick

Here, 

⇒ 30 Units = 570

⇒ 1 Unit = 19

⇒ 154 Units = 154 × 19 = 2926

∴ Sandeep has Rs. 2926.

Alternate Method

Calculation:

According to question,

⇒ K/P = 5/11

⇒ P = 11K/5     -----(1)

⇒ P/S = 6/14

⇒ P = 6S/14

⇒ P = 3S/7     -----(2)

From equation (1) & (2), we know that

⇒ 11K/5 = 3S/7

⇒ K/S = 15/77     -----(3)

Putting K = 15 in equation (1), we get

⇒ P = 33     -----(4)

We get the ratio of,

K : P : S = 15 : 33 : 77

Here, 

⇒ 15 Units = 570

⇒ 1 Unit = 38

Sandeep has, 

⇒ 77 Units = 77 × 38 = 2926

∴ Sandeep has Rs. 2926.

Shortcut Trick

Rate for 8-monthly compounding = 15% × (8/12) = 10% per period.

Number of periods in 2 years (24 months) = 24 ÷ 8 = 3 cycles.

Using ratio method for 3 cycles at 10%: Principal : Amount = 10³ : 11³ = 1000 : 1331.

1331 units = ₹18,634 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹14 ⇒ Principal = 1000 × 14 = ₹14,000.

Simple Interest = 14,000 × 5% × 2 = ₹1,400.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1,400.

Alternate Method

Given: Maturity Amount (A) = ₹18,634, Time (T) = 2 years, Rate (R) = 15% p.a.

Formula Used: A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ and SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ Effective Rate per period (r) = 15% × (8/12) = 10%

⇒ Number of compounding periods (n) = (2 × 12) ÷ 8 = 3

⇒ 18634 = P(1 + 10/100)³

⇒ 18634 = P(11/10)³

⇒ 18634 = P × (1331 ÷ 1000)

⇒ P = (18634 × 1000) ÷ 1331 = 14 × 1000 = ₹14,000

⇒ Simple Interest (SI) = (14000 × 5 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 140 × 10 = ₹1,400

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1,400.

Additional Information

Compounding Period Adjustment

When interest is compounded n-monthly, the periodic rate = (Annual Rate ÷ 12) × n, and the number of periods = (Total months ÷ n).

Effective Rate for 3 Cycles

For a 10% rate over 3 cycles, the cumulative effective CI rate is 33.1% (derived from 10+10+10/100 = 21, then 21+10+210/100 = 33.1%).

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

Simple Interest is calculated only on the principal, while Compound Interest is calculated on the principal plus any accumulated interest from previous periods.

Shortcut Trick

LCM of 20 and 25 is 100.

The three-digit numbers divisible by 100 form an Arithmetic Progression: 100, 200, ..., 900 (Total 9 terms).

For an Arithmetic Progression, Sum = Average × Number of terms.

⇒ Average = (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2 = (100 + 900) ÷ 2 = 500

⇒ Sum = 500 × 9 = 4500

∴ The correct answer is 4500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Divisors = 20 and 25

Range = All three-digit numbers (100 to 999)

Formula Used:

Sum of an Arithmetic Progression (AP) = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

Where n is the number of terms, a is the first term, and l is the last term.

Calculations:

⇒ A number is divisible by both 20 and 25 if it is divisible by their Least Common Multiple (LCM).

⇒ LCM of 20 and 25 = 100

⇒ The three-digit numbers divisible by 100 are: 100, 200, 300, 400, 500, 600, 700, 800, 900

⇒ This forms an Arithmetic Progression where:

⇒ First term (a) = 100

⇒ Last term (l) = 900

⇒ Common difference (d) = 100

⇒ Number of terms (n) = [(900 − 100) ÷ 100] + 1 = 9

⇒ Sum of the series = (9 ÷ 2) × (100 + 900)

⇒ Sum = (9 ÷ 2) × 1000

⇒ Sum = 9 × 500

⇒ Sum = 4500

∴ The correct answer is 4500.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The smallest positive integer that is uniformly divisible by two or more numbers. If a number is divisible by multiple numbers, it must be divisible by their LCM.

Arithmetic Progression (AP)

A sequence of numbers in which the difference between consecutive terms is constant. The sum of n terms can be written as S = (n ÷ 2) × [2a + (n − 1)d] or S = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l).

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n positive integers can be directly calculated using the formula: S = n(n + 1) ÷ 2.

Given:

156 is 20% more than A, i.e., A = 156 / 1.20

Calculation:

A = 156/1.20

⇒ 130

Percentage decrease

⇒ [(156-130) / 156] × 100%

⇒ 16.67%

∴ A is 16.67% less than 156.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio method: x ∝ y² / ³√z ⇒ x₁/x₂ = (y₁/y₂)² × (³√z₂ / ³√z₁)

2/3 = (4/y)² × (³√27 / ³√8)

2/3 = (16/y²) × (3/2)

2/3 = 24/y² ⇒ 2y² = 72 ⇒ y² = 36

y = ±6

∴ The correct answer is 6, -6.

Alternate Method

Given: x varies directly as y² and inversely as ³√z.

Formula Used: x = k × (y² / z^1/3), where k is the proportionality constant.

⇒ Step 1: Find k using initial values x = 2, y = 4, z = 8

⇒ 2 = k × (4² / ³√8)

⇒ 2 = k × (16 / 2) ⇒ 2 = 8k ⇒ k = 2/8 = 1/4

⇒ Step 2: Use k = 1/4 to find y when x = 3 and z = 27

⇒ 3 = (1/4) × (y² / ³√27)

⇒ 3 = (1/4) × (y² / 3)

⇒ 3 = y² / 12

⇒ y² = 36

⇒ y = √36 = ±6

∴ The correct answer is 6, -6.

Additional Information

Direct Variation

If a variable A is directly proportional to B, then A = kB. As B increases, A increases in the same ratio.

Inverse Variation

If a variable A is inversely proportional to B, then A = k/B. As B increases, A decreases proportionally.

Joint Variation

When a variable depends on two or more other variables, it is expressed as x = k × (A × B / C), combining direct and inverse relations.

Shortcut Trick

Using Successive Percentage Formula: Net % = a + b + (a × b)/100

First two changes: +10% and −10% → 10 − 10 − (10 × 10)/100 = −1%

Combined result with third change (+20%): −1 + 20 − (1 × 20)/100

⇒ 19 − 0.2 = 18.8%

Positive sign indicates an increase.

∴ The correct answer is 18.8% increase.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial increase = 10%, Decrease = 10%, Final increase = 20%.

Formula: Final Value = Initial Value × (1 + r₁/100) × (1 + r₂/100) × (1 + r₃/100)

⇒ Let the initial number be 100.

⇒ After 10% increase = 100 × (110/100) = 110.

⇒ After 10% decrease = 110 × (90/100) = 99.

⇒ After 20% increase = 99 × (120/100) = 118.8.

⇒ Net Change = 118.8 − 100 = 18.8%.

∴ The correct answer is 18.8% increase.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is changed by x% and then y%, the effective change is (x + y + xy/100)%. Use positive for increase and negative for decrease.

Ratio Method

Convert percentages to fractions (10% = 1/10, 20% = 1/5). Multiply the ratios of (Initial : Final) values to find the overall net change.

Base Value Selection

In percentage problems, assuming the base as 100 usually simplifies multi-step calculations significantly.

Given:

The given number is 1135.

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The numbers by which the sum should be divisible are 3, 4, 5, & 6.

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Concept used:

The least number to be added should make the number a multiple of the Least Common Multiple (LCM).

Calculation:

⇒ The LCM of 3, 4, 5, & 6 is 60.

⇒ The remainder when 1135 is divided by 60 is 55.

⇒ The required number is 60 - 55 = 5

∴ 5 should be added to 1135 to make it exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5, and 6.

Given: Mohit walks 120 m towards south.

Then turning to his right he walks 120 m.

Then turning to his left, he walks 90 m.

Again, he turns to his left and walks 120 m.

The distance between the Starting Point and the End Point = 210m.

Thus, He is 210m far from his initial position.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Equation: 29 + 93 ÷ 81 × 9 - 18

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the Given Information:

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

New Equation: 29 - 93 + 81 ÷ 9 × 18

Calculation:

⇒ 29 - 93 + 81 ÷ 9 × 18

⇒ 29 - 93 + 9 × 18

⇒ 29 - 93 + 162 

⇒ 191 - 93 = 98.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are:

For, ‘JSEV’ is written as ‘MUHX’

For, ‘AFRQ’ is written as ‘DHUS’

Similarly, for 'ZTHN'

So, 'ZTHN' will be written as 'CVKP'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Rank of Karishma from the left end = 16^th

Rank of Karishma from the right end = 18^th

Total number of student in the row = Rank of Karishma from the left end + Rank of Karishma from the right end - 1.

= 16 + 18 - 1 

= 34 - 1

= 33.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The second word is the primary fuel for the first word.

Here,

Airplane : Aviation Kerosene → Aviation Kerosene is the primary fuel for Airplane.

Similarly,

Car : Petroleum → Petroleum is the primary fuel for Car.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 6 K 5 % L T 8 B 4 G 9 # E Q 7 G 5 $ 9 % U P 3 T 8 & W H 6 R

Now,

Numbers which are not Followed by a symbol.

Here,

There are Six numbers which are not followed by a symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Jacket, Coat, and Blazer are all structured pieces of outerwear often featuring linings and formal designs,

Whereas,

A Sweater is typically a knitted or crocheted garment designed specifically for warmth.

So, the odd word is "Sweater".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: T 8 & W 8 # Q 6 R & P T & 6 Q 9 $D 8 @ 7 H$ 9 %

Now,

Letters in the following string each of which is preceded by a symbol and followed by a number.

So, needed pattern is: Symbol - Letter - Number.

Here,

There are 'Four' letters which are preceded by a symbol and followed by a number.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘WAZZES’ is written as ‘ZYCXHQ'.

For, ‘PRFJKO’ is written as ‘SPIHNM’.

Similarly, for 'BOMBYX'

So, 'BOMBYX' will be coded as 'EMPZBV'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 121 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

'Polio' is a disease that primarily affects the 'Legs',

Similarly,

'Cataract' is a disease that primarily affects the 'Eyes'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

BODMAS Rule:

According to the given question:

Now check all the options one by one:

Option 1) 48 ÷ 16 + 8 − 3 × 8 = 19

Interchanging signs as per given and using BODMAS Rule.

48 - 16 × 8 ÷ 3 + 8 = 19

48 - 16 × 2.6 + 8 = 19

48 - 41.6 + 8 = 19

56 - 41.6 = 19

14.4 ≠ 19.

Hence Option 1, is not correct.

Option 2) 48 × 16 - 8 + 3 ÷ 8 = 19

Interchanging signs as per given and using BODMAS Rule.

48 + 16 ÷ 8 × 3 - 8 = 19

48 + 2 × 3 - 8 = 19

48 + 6 - 8 = 19

54 - 8 = 19

46 ≠ 19.

Hence, Option 2, is not correct.

Option 3) 48 + 16 × 8 ÷ 3 − 8 = 19

Interchanging signs as per given and using BODMAS Rule.

48 × 16 + 8 - 3 ÷ 8 = 19

48 × 16 + 8 - 0.375 = 19

768 + 8 - 0.375 = 19 

776 - 0.375 = 19

775.625 ≠ 19

Hence, Option 3, is not correct.

Option 4) 48 − 16 ÷ 8 × 3 + 8 = 19

Interchanging signs as per given and using BODMAS Rule.

48 ÷ 16 - 8 + 3 × 8 = 19

3 - 8 + 3 × 8 = 19

3 - 8 + 24 = 19

27 - 8 = 19

19 = 19.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 100 is the missing number.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The Position and Positional values of English Alphabets are :

The logic followed here is:

So, Q will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: K, L, M, N, O, P, S are seven friends siting in a row facing north.

The one who sits fourth to the left of S, sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.

N is an immediate neighbour of both P and S.

Case I:

Case II:

K sits fourth to the right of M (This statement cancels the possibility of Case I, so considering Case II).

L sits to the immediate right of K.

And, O sits at the remaining place (Extreme left end).

Case II:

Here, N sits fourth from the right end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Statements:

1. All circles are squares.

2. Some squares are coloured.

3. Some circles are triangles.

The least possible Venn Diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Square are Triangles - True (Because, All circle are square and some circle and triangle thus, so those part of circle which is triangle is also Square).

II. Some Circle are Coloured - False (Because, no definite relation given between Circle and Coloured, so it can be possible only).

III. Some Square are Circle - True (Because, All Circle are Square it also gives Some Square are Circle).

So, Both conclusions I and III follows.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given Statement: P ≤ T < K = Y ≥ S ≥ E < L

Now,

Conclusions:

1. K > E → False (K = Y ≥ S ≥ E, this gives K ≥ E).

2. E = K → False (K = Y ≥ S ≥ E, this gives K ≥ E).

Here, both the conclusions are false but it forms the complementary pair for Either Or.

So, Either conclusion 1 or 2 is true.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Additional Information Conditions of Either-or case:

1. The elements should be the same in both the statements.
2. Both the conclusions should be false individually.
3. One conclusion should be positive and one conclusion should be negative (Complementary pair)

The two complementary pairs are:

1. All + Some not

2. No + Some

Note: Some + Some not is not considered under Either - or case.

Given: A total of 102 students are lined up in a straight row.

Priya’s rank is 25th from the top.

Kusum’s rank is 20th from the bottom.

So, the students standing between Priya and Kusum = Total students - (Position of Priya + Position of Kusum)

= 102 - (25 + 20)

= 102 - 45

= 57.

So, there are '57' students standing between Priya and Kusum.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Family Chart:

Given: Sahil is father of Akshita and Raj is son of Roohi.

Aman is brother of Sahil.

Akshita is sister of Raj.

So, Roohi is Wife of Aman's Brother.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: Eight friends (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H) sit around a circular table, all of them facing the centre.

Only three people sit between G and D.

D sits second to the right of F.

C is a neighbour of D.

H sits second to the right of C.

Case I:

Case II:

A sits third to the left of B and neighbour of H.

E and A are not immediate neighbours of each other.

Case I:

E and A are not immediate neighbours of each other, (This statement cancels the possibility of Case I, so considering Case II).

Now considering the Case II:

Here, F sits between B and E.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The correct answer is "yelling".

Key Points

• The word in the brackets is "whispering."
• In this case, "whispering" refers to speaking in a very low or hushed voice.
• Its antonyms would typically include words that mean to speak loudly or, in general, produce a lot of sound.
• "yelling" means shouting or speaking in a high, loud voice, which is the opposite of "whispering."
• In this context and with the choices provided, the most accurate antonym for "whispering" is "yelling."
• So the sentence should be:
• "The constables came running out, waving their big sticks, with the museum guards following close behind, yelling away."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1". 

Additional Information

• "beating" doesn't relate to a volume or method of speaking—it describes a physical action. So, it isn't an antonym of "whispering."
• "crying" often refers to expressing distress or pain, and though it may sometimes imply a louder volume than whispering, it's not necessarily its direct opposite.
• "murmuring" means speaking softly or indistinctly, which is similar to whispering, not the opposite.

The correct answer is "beat around the bush".

Key Points

• The given idiom you're looking for is one that means to talk evasively or avoid giving a straight answer, i.e., to 'avoid talking' directly about something.
• Considering the options, we have:
• "beat out the bush" - This is not a recognized idiom in the English language.
• "beat in the bush" - This is not a recognized idiom in the English language.
• "beat behind the bush" - This is also not recognized as a standard idiom in English.
• "beat around the bush" - This is the correct idiom.
• The expression "beat around the bush" is used when someone is talking around the point, avoiding speaking directly or explicitly about the matter at hand.
• So, according to the given context and the options provided, the sentence should be:
• "When asked why he had lied, the student beat around the bush, narrating the events of the day."
• This means the student avoided talking directly about why he had lied, and instead just discussed the events of the day, perhaps in an attempt to distract from or avoid the question.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "stared". 

Key Points

• To fill in the blank, we need to identify the correct tense of the verb "stare."
• The tense of the verb in the sentence can provide us key clues.
• Notice that the verbs used in this sentence ("got up" and "wandered out") are both in the simple past tense.
• Looking at the options:
• "staring" is in the present participle form, which is commonly used in present, past, and future continuous tenses.
• "stared" is in the simple past tense, often used to describe an action that was completed at a certain point in the past.
• "was stared" is in the passive voice form of past progressive tense. It would be used if the action was done to the subject, not performed by the subject.
• "had stared" is past perfect, which refers to an action in the past that occurred before another past action.
• Given the context and the tense form of the other verbs in the sentence, the most appropriate form of the verb "stare" to fill in the blank is "stared," which is consistent with the simple past tense.
• Hence, the sentence should read: "I got up and wandered out to the balcony and stared at the river."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "snatched, sleuthing". 

Key Points

• The passage gives the context of transaction or interaction involving money, and there are hints of discomfort, like the man leaving quickly before an argument could occur.
• "snatched" refers to quickly or abruptly taking something away, which fits the given interaction: the man taking money speedily.
• "Sleuthing" refers to carrying out a search or investigation in the manner of a detective, and in this context it could metaphorically imply that the cost of investigating or proving something is becoming expensive.
• Therefore, based on the context and the given options, the most appropriate completed sentence should be: 
• “As I handed over the fifty rupee notes, the man snatched the note from my hand with a grin and cycled off quickly before we could argue: this sleuthing was getting expensive.”

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4". 

Additional Information

• Looking at the other options:
• "liberated" means freed, which does not accurately reflect the action of taking money in this context. "Negotiating" refers to mutually discussing and agreeing on something, which also does not seem to fit the context as the man left quickly.
• "deliberated" means thought carefully or considered for a long time, and does not seem likely in this fast-paced, potentially negative interaction. "Sabotaging" refers to deliberately destroying, damaging, or obstructing something, but there's no indication of such harmful effects from the context provided.
• "mutilated" refers to inflicting severe damage, destruction or change, typically in a violent or harsh way. This also doesn't fit the context of taking money. "Holidaying" could refer to being on a holiday or vacation, but the context doesn't seem to indicate this specifically.

The correct answer is "Glorious". 

Key Points

• The word "heinous" refers to an act that is wicked or shockingly evil.
• "Glorious" is associated with high praise, deserving honor, or splendid.
• This term reflects the positive morality and so can be considered the opposite of "heinous," which refers to an evil act.
• Therefore, the most appropriate antonym of "heinous" from the given options is "glorious" as it carries the opposite positive morality compared to the negative meaning of "heinous."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• "Revolting" means highly distasteful, which carries a negative connotation, similar (rather than opposite) to "heinous."
• "Ritualistic" means characterized by or adhering to ritual, which is neutral and not directly related to the morality implied by "heinous."
• "Harmless" indicates the absence of harm or danger, which refers to the potential impact of actions but not their moral content.

The correct answer is "why are they".

Key Points

• To determine which segment contains a grammatical error, let's analyze each one:
• "First, tell me" - This segment is grammatically correct.
• It is common to use this phrase to ask someone to explain something first before discussing anything else.
• "every other day" - This is also grammatically correct.
• It is a common phrase used to denote a recurring event that takes place every second day.
• "late to work" - This segment is grammatically correct.
• It describes the condition of being tardy to one's job.
• "why are they" - This is where the error lies.
• When a question is embedded within a larger sentence, it is generally supposed to be structured in statement syntax, not question syntax.
• So instead of "why are they," it should be "why they are."
• The corrected sentence would then read: "First, tell me why they are late to work every other day."
• Therefore, segment 4 "why are they" contains the grammatical error.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "slowly". 

Key Points

• In this sentence, we need an adverb to modify the verb "driving" and describe "how" the driving should be done to accommodate the speaker's motion sickness.
• "Slowly" is an adverb that modifies the verb to suggest that the action should be done at a slow pace.
• It implies that the speaker wants the driving to be done at a speed that isn't fast.
• Given the context and the rules of English grammar, "slowly" is the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank.
• Thus, the sentence should read: "Would you mind driving slowly as I have motion sickness?"

​Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4". 

Additional Information 

• Let's consider the options:
• "Slowing" is the present participle form of the verb "slow" and isn't an adverb, so it's not the correct option.
• "Slowingly" is not a recognized word in standard English, so it also can't be the correct option.
• "Slowest" is the superlative form of "slow," used to compare more than two things.
• It doesn't fit in this context because we're not comparing the speeds at which multiple people or things are driving.

The correct answer is "in the year of 1945, / United Nations Organisation/ came into being as / the successor of the League of Nations".

Key Points

• Let's break down the sentence formed by option 4: "In the year of 1945, United Nations Organisation came into being as the successor of the League of Nations."
• This sentence is composed of a few key elements:
• "In the year of 1945," - This is a prepositional phrase that establishes the time when the event being described took place. It provides a temporal context to the main action in the sentence.
• "United Nations Organisation" - This is the subject of the sentence, the entity that performed the main action (coming into being).
• "came into being as" - This is the predicate or verb phrase of the sentence.
• "Came into being" indicates the start or creation of something.
• Followed by "as," it sets up a comparison or explanation of the subject's role or nature at the time of its inception.
• "the successor of the League of Nations" - This phrase clarifies the capacity in which the United Nations Organisation was created.
• It's an appositive phrase giving additional information about the subject, expressing that it was formed to take over the purpose or role previously fulfilled by the League of Nations.
• The phrase order in "In the year of 1945, United Nations Organisation came into being as the successor of the League of Nations" is logical and clear, starting with a time marker, then identifying the subject, followed by a description of the action and role the subject undertook.
• Each phrase sequentially adds more detail, creating a complete and contextual picture.

Thus, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "uninterested". 

Key Points

• The word "complacent" in the sentence refers to showing smug or uncritical satisfaction with oneself or one's achievements.
• It describes a state of self-contentment that can become a barrier to improvement or progress.
• "Uninterested" means showing a lack of interest.
• While it could suggest a lack of motivation or stimulation—the circumstances that often attend complacency.
• From the above explanation it is clear that the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

• Now let's explore the other alternatives:
• "Involved" means being engaged or having a role in something.
• It doesn't carry the implication of self-satisfaction that "complacent" does, so it doesn't work as a substitute in this context.
• "Stubborn" is characterized by obstinacy or tenacity, an unwillingness to change one's mind or course of action.
• It doesn't capture the meaning of "complacent," which is more about self-satisfaction and less a deliberate resistance to change.
• "Passionate" means showing or caused by strong feelings or a strong belief.
• This is generally the opposite of "complacent," as passion usually motivates action and improvement rather than encouraging satisfaction with the status quo.

The correct answer is ",".

Key Points

• The sentence given is "By the time we got inside ________ the two men had vanished."
• There is an obvious requirement for a pause or some kind of break in the sentence.
• After considering each option:
• "," (comma): A comma does provide a pause in a sentence and is often used to separate distinct but related thoughts or ideas.
• So, based on the sentence and the available options, the most appropriate answer is the comma.
• It adequately signifies a pause between the two related clauses and keeps the sentence's continuity, making the sentence: "By the time we got inside, the two men had vanished."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1". 

Additional Information

• """ (quotation mark): The quotation mark is used to denote spoken words, quotations, or to indicate a phrase or word that has a special meaning. It doesn't fit in this context.
• "." (period): A period denotes the end of a sentence. In this context, though, we're not at the end of the sentence—there's additional related information to come.
• "?" (question mark): A question mark is used to denote a question, and this sentence is clearly not a question.

The correct answer is "Liaison".

Key Points

• Let's examine all the options: 
• "Gaurded" is not correctly spelled. The right spelling is "Guarded."
• "Decieving" is also not correctly spelled. In this case, the correct spelling is "Deceiving" following the 'i' before 'e' except after 'c' rule.
• "Embarras" is not correct. The right spelling is "Embarrass."
• "Liaison" is the correct spelling of a word that describes a communication or cooperation which facilitates a close working relationship between people or organizations.
• Therefore, out of the given options, the correctly spelled word is "Liaison."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "leened". 

Key Points

• The sentence is: "We were now in the city, going slower in the traffic when Jahan suddenly leened forward and asked the driver to stop."
• The objective is to identify the word that is incorrectly spelled.
• "traffic" - This word is spelled correctly.
• "suddenly" - This word is also spelled correctly.
• "leened" - This word is spelled incorrectly. The correct spelling should be "leaned."
• "forward" - This word is spelled correctly.
• Therefore, the word "leened" is the one that has been spelled incorrectly in the given sentence.
• The correct sentence should be: "We were now in the city, going slower in the traffic when Jahan suddenly leaned forward and asked the driver to stop."

The correct answer is The Baha’i Temple is known for its lotus-shaped structure and quiet ambience.

Key Points

• “Baha’i” is the correct spelling of the faith and the temple name, using an apostrophe to reflect proper transliteration.
• “its” is the correct possessive pronoun, whereas “it’s” means it is or it has.
• “lotus-shaped” is a compound adjective and must be hyphenated when it comes before the noun.
• The sentence ends with a full stop, making it grammatically complete.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect due to the use of “it’s” instead of “its” and missing hyphenation.
• Option 2 is grammatically correct but misses the correct spelling “Baha’i”.
• Option 4 has incorrect apostrophe placement and misuse of “it’s”.
• Punctuation-based MCQs often test apostrophes, hyphenation, and proper nouns together.

The correct answer is "beside".

Key Points

• We're looking for a preposition that correctly indicates that the name-plate is positioned with respect to his front door.
• Let's examine each of the options:
• "Ahead" refers to being in front or at the front.
• If something is ahead of you, it's in front of you, usually implying movement or journey.
• It's not usually used to describe the static location of an object in relation to another.
• "Beyond" indicates something further away or 'on the other side of' an area of reference.
• In this context, it would suggest the name-plate is beyond the reach of the front door, which isn't usual for a name-plate.
• "Through" refers to moving in one side and out of the other side of an opening, hole, or passage.
• It doesn't provide a sense of the name-plate's positioning in relation to the front door.
• "Beside" means at the side of or next to.
• It's used to indicate the relative position of one object to another.
• According to the context of this sentence, and considering the common position of a name-plate by a door, "beside" is the most suitable preposition to use.
• Thus, the sentence should read: "The big name-plate beside his front door was in Hindi and English."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "an authorisation". 

Key Points

• The underlined phrase in the sentence is "a warrant," that in this context typically means an official document issued by a legal or government official authorizing law enforcement to make an arrest, search premises, or carry out some other action related to the administration of justice.
• "An authorization" can be a suitable substitute as it also indicates an official permission or power granted to perform an action.
• In legal terms, a warrant can be described as an "authorization."
• Hence, out of the provided options, "an authorization" is the most suitable substitute for "a warrant" in this sentence context, as it provides the same notion of an official permission being granted.
• The revised sentence would be: "It is their evidence that allowed me to get an authorization to search his house and we found stores full of stolen antiques."
• Now let's review the other options provided:
• "A need" doesn't adequately replace "a warrant" because it refers to a desire or a requirement for something, rather than an official piece of documentation allowing an action to be performed.
• "An injunction" is a judicial order that restrains a person from performing a particular act, which differs from "a warrant," a legal document that permits a specific action.
• "A denial" refers to the refusal of something, which is the opposite of granting permission, so it doesn't work as a substitute in this context.

The correct answer is "the". 

Key Points

• The blank in this sentence requires an article that can correctly modify the noun 'place.'
• The noun is used here in a specific and universally understood context.
• "The" is a definite article, used before a noun when it refers to something specific that is known to both the speaker and the listener.
• In this case, the usage of 'place' is a set phrase ('all over the place') referring to an idea that is universally understood.
• So, the most appropriate article to fill in this blank is 'the.'
• Therefore, the sentence should read: "I have been looking for this file all over the place and you had it hidden away in your cupboard all the time!"

Thus, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• Let's consider other options:
• "An" is an indefinite article used before words that start with a vowel sound, and it doesn't fit in the context here.
• "A" is also an indefinite article, used before words that begin with a consonant sound, but it doesn't work here because we are talking about a specific 'place' that is universally understood, not just any place.
• No article is not appropriate here because 'place' generally requires an article in this construction.

The correct answer is "No article needed". 

Key Points

• The blank in the sentence needs an article that can correctly modify the noun 'Class Twelve.'
• The context here is referring to a specific class level, not any unspecified one.
• No article is suitable here because 'Class Twelve' is a proper noun.
• Proper nouns like names, titles such as doctor or professor, and similar unique identifiers generally don't require an article.
• Therefore, the sentence should be: "Did you know Dutta flunked half of Class Twelve during the practice board tests?" This means there isn't a need to use any article in this case.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• Let's look at other options:
• "The" is a definite article used before a noun when it refers to something specific that is known to both the speaker and the listener, but here 'Class Twelve' is a proper noun and doesn't need 'the' before it.
• "A" is an indefinite article used before singular nouns that are unspecified or not known to the listener.
• It doesn't fit here because 'Class Twelve' is specific.
• "An" is an indefinite article used before singular nouns that begin with vowel sounds.
• It is not appropriate here because 'Class Twelve' is a specific class level.

The correct answer is "fall on deaf ears".

Key Points

• We need to choose an idiom that fits the context of the sentence:
• "Mona’s appeal always seems to ________ of the authority so she finally left the job."
• "Fall on deaf ears" - This idiom is used when suggestions, pleas, or advice are ignored by the people they were intended for.
• In the context of the sentence, this idiom makes sense, suggesting Mona's appeals to the authority were ignored.
• So, based on the context of the sentence and the typical usage of these idioms, the most appropriate idiom for the sentence is "fall on deaf ears."
• The sentence should read: "Mona’s appeal always seems to fall on deaf ears of the authority so she finally left the job."

Additional Information

• Let's review other idioms:
• "Cut corners" - This idiom means to do something in the easiest, quickest, or cheapest way, often damaging the quality of the work.
• This doesn't fit the context here, as it's not mentioning any action taken for efficiency or simplicity at the expense of quality.
• "Boil the ocean" - This idiom is used to describe a task that is considered excessively ambitious or impossible to achieve.
• In this context, it doesn't make sense as we don't have any indication of an overly ambitious task.
• "Cool the heals" - There seems to be a typographical error here as the correct idiom is "cool one's heels," which means to wait or be kept waiting.
• This doesn't fit the context, as the situation doesn't convey waiting.

The correct answer is "DBAC".

Key Points

• Let's examine the sentences and formulate logical connections between them:
• A) "As there were very few people around, we had to hang pretty far back so that Robin would not spot us." - This sentence indicates the characters are in a place with few people and are trying not to be seen by Robin.
• B) "After the noise and bustle of the main road it was suddenly very quiet." - This sentence suggests a change in location, from a busy main road to a quiet area.
• C) "Then the lane took a curve to the right and when we turned in, he had vanished." - This sentence implies that they are following someone (probably Robin as mentioned earlier) who disappears after taking a right turn.
• D) "The sun had vanished behind clouds and the lane was rather dark." - This sentence sets the scene, detailing the lighting and weather conditions in the lane.
• By examining the scenarios and the context, a logical order can be that the characters may first observe their environment (D), then notice the change in the location's noise level when moving from the main road to a lane (B), try to not be spotted due to the scarcity of people around (A), and finally make a turn where the person they were following disappeared (C).
• So, the correct order should be DBAC.
• Therefore, the correct sequence is: "The sun had vanished behind clouds and the lane was rather dark. After the noise and bustle of the main road it was suddenly very quiet. As there were very few people around, we had to hang pretty far back so that Robin would not spot us. Then the lane took a curve to the right and when we turned in, he had vanished."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "fugitives."

Key Points

• The underlined group of words in this sentence, "people who ran away from justice," represents individuals who are trying to evade legal consequences.
• They are escaping the enforcement of laws, often by leaving the jurisdiction or going into hiding.
• Let's evaluate the options available:
• "Hermits" are individuals who have chosen to live in seclusion from society, usually for religious reasons.
• It does not necessarily involve escaping from the law.
• "Vagabonds" are people who wander without a home or regular work, moving from place to place.
• Although they might not have a set location, being a vagabond doesn't automatically imply evasion of legal consequences.
• "Castaways" are people who are left stranded, usually in a remote location.
• This term is generally used for victims of shipwreck or similar accidents, and not specifically for law evaders.
• "Fugitives" refers to people fleeing from law enforcement agencies due to being suspected or convicted of a crime.
• This term is the most appropriate to substitute for "people who ran away from justice," as it directly implies avoiding legal or justice enforcement.
• Based on the context, the term "fugitives" is the most appropriate one-word substitute for the underlined phrase.
• Therefore, the complete sentence should read: "Numerous laws were passed during his term for recovering slaves who had turned into fugitives."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is 2006.

Key Points

• India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL) is a government-owned financial institution that provides long-term funding to infrastructure projects in India.
• IIFCL was set up in 2006.
• IIFCL was set up under the Companies Act, 1956.
• The main objective of IIFCL is to provide long-term financial assistance to viable infrastructure projects through the Scheme for Financing Viable Infrastructure Projects.
• IIFCL also provides credit enhancement facilities to infrastructure projects, which helps in lowering the cost of borrowing and making the projects more attractive to investors.
• The government has recently announced plans to merge IIFCL with two other state-owned infrastructure financing companies to create a larger entity that can provide more funding to infrastructure projects in the country.​

Additional Information

• ​Since September 2013, IIFCL has been registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an NBFC-ND-IFC, adhering to the relevant prudential guidelines set forth by the RBI.
• Loans of Rs 8,800 crore were recently authorized by IIFCL for the development of the nation's airports and civil aviation infrastructure.

The correct answer is November 2022.

Key Points

• DY Chandrachud took oath as the 50th Chief Justice of India in November 2022.
• He is a judge of the Supreme Court of India and was appointed as the Chief Justice on 10th November 2022.
• He succeeded Justice NV Ramana as the Chief Justice of India.
• He was born on 11th November 1959 in Mumbai, India.
• He is the son of YV Chandrachud, who was also a Chief Justice of India.
• Before his appointment as the Chief Justice, DY Chandrachud served as a judge of the Supreme Court of India since 2016.

Additional Information

• The Indian Constitution gives the president the authority to name the next chief justice, who will hold office until they turn 65 or are removed through the constitutional process of impeachment, in accordance with the wishes of the outgoing chief justice and after consulting with the judicial cabal of 21 Supreme Court judges.
• As the chief justice of the Supreme Court, he or she is in charge of assigning cases and appointing constitutional benches that hear significant legal cases.
• Article 145 of the Indian Constitution and the Supreme Court Rules of Procedure from 1966 mandate that the Chief Justice assigns all cases to the other justices, who are obligated to bring the case back to them whenever necessary.

The correct answer is Bhubaneswar.

Key Points

• The Udaygiri caves are a group of artificial caves located near the city of Bhubaneswar in Odisha state.
• These caves were originally built in the 2nd century BCE and were later expanded and decorated by various rulers over the centuries.
• The caves are known for their intricate carvings, especially those depicting Hindu deities and scenes from mythology.
• The Udaygiri caves are a popular tourist destination and are often visited along with the nearby Khandagiri caves, which are also a group of ancient rock-cut caves.

Additional Information

• Cuttack is a city located about 25 km north of Bhubaneswar.
• Because of its 1,000-year history and well-known silver filigree creations, Cuttack is sometimes referred to as the Silver City and the Millennium City.
• Angul is a district located in central Odisha.
• In addition, Angul is well-known for the Satkosia Gorge, hills, rivers (Mahanadi, Brhamani), and stunning natural forests.
• Puri is a coastal city located about 60 km south of Bhubaneswar.
• It is known for its famous Jagannath Temple, beaches, and festivals like the Rath Yatra.

The correct answer is 45%.

Key Points

• Almost 45% of the population was living below the poverty line in the first year of the National Sample Survey in India.
• The NSS is a large-scale survey conducted by the government of India to collect socioeconomic data from households across the country.
• The poverty line is defined as the minimum level of income or consumption required to meet basic needs such as food, shelter, and clothing.
• Poverty in India has been a persistent issue, and various measures have been taken by the government to alleviate it, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and the National Food Security Act (NFSA).

Additional Information

 

• Since 1972, National Sample Survey has been a component of the **Ministry of Statistics (**MOS) and Program Implementation of the Government of India (GOI), under the direction of the National Sample Survey Organisation.
• An essential component of India's economic growth is the survey.
• These surveys are carried out at the state and local levels to gather information about people's financial situation, habits, and product use.
• Around 1950–1951, the first national sample survey was carried out, recording information on land use, daily salaries for skilled and unskilled laborers, etc.
• Data on land or property ownership, farming, weekly and monthly product use, etc. were gathered at the household level.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, Odisha has the lowest literacy rate among the given options.
• The literacy rate of Odisha was recorded at 72.9%, which is lower than the national average of 74.04%.
• Odisha has been making efforts to improve its literacy rate through various schemes and initiatives such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan and the Mid-Day Meal Scheme.
• Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland have relatively higher literacy rates compared to Odisha.

Additional Information

• Meghalaya has a literacy rate of 74.4%, Mizoram has 91.3%, and Nagaland has 79.55%.
• Mizoram is also one of the most literate states in India and has achieved 100% literacy in some of its districts.
• Nagaland has shown significant improvement in its literacy rate in recent years.
• In 2001, its literacy rate was 61.92%, which increased to 79.55% in 2011.
• The percentage of people in a specific age group that are literate is known as the literacy rate.
• In 2023, the literacy rate in India was 77.7%, a 5% rise from the previous census (2011).

The correct answer is Pitts India Act, 1784.

Key Points

• The Board of Control was a British government department created in 1784 to oversee the administration and policies of the East India Company.
• The Pitts India Act, named after British Prime Minister William Pitt the Younger, established the Board of Control and gave it significant powers over the Company's affairs in India.
• The British Parliament passed Pitt's India Act 1784, also known as the East India Company Act 1784, to address the shortcomings of the Regulating Act 1773.
• It led to the British East India Company and the British Crown having joint or dual rule over India, with the Crown holding final say.

Additional Information

• The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first major British law related to the governance of India.
• It established a governor-general and a supreme court in Calcutta.
• The Charter Act of 1813 renewed the Company's charter for another 20 years.
• It allowed Christian missionaries to enter India.
• The Government of India Act of 1858 transferred the powers of the East India Company to the British Crown.
• It established a Secretary of State for India.

The correct answer is Sutlej.

Key Points

• As per the treaty of Amritsar 1809, the boundary of Maharaja Ranjit Singh's Empire would be Sutlej.
• The treaty of Amritsar was signed between the British East India Company and Maharaja Ranjit Singh in 1809.
• The treaty defined the boundary between the British territories and the Sikh Empire.
• The treaty also allowed the British to maintain their military stations at Ludhiana, Ferozepur, and Phillaur, which were located on the British side of the Sutlej river.
• The treaty of Amritsar was a significant event in the history of India as it marked the beginning of the British-Sikh relationship, which lasted until the annexation of Punjab by the British in 1849.

Additional Information

• Early in the 19th century, the Sikh Empire governed the northwest Indian subcontinent, and Ranjit Singh was its first Maharaja.
• He was able to escape smallpox as a baby, although he lost his left eye's sight.
• At the age of 21, he was crowned the "Maharaja of Punjab".
• Kharak Singh, Ranjit Singh's son, succeeded him.

The correct answer is Balasahebanchi Shiv Sena.

Key Points

• The election commission of India allotted the 'two swords and shield' poll symbol to Balasahebanchi Shiv Sena in October 2022.
• Balasahebanchi Shiv Sena is a faction of the Shiv Sena party, formed by Narayan Rane, who was a former Shiv Sena leader.
• The 'two swords and shield' symbol is unique and represents the party's ideology and principles.

Additional Information

• North East India Development Party:
• This is a regional political party in India, primarily based in the state of Assam.
• It was formed in 2012 with the aim of promoting the development of the Northeast region of India.
• The party's symbol is a plough.
• Shiv Sena:
• ​This is a regional political party in the state of Maharashtra, India.
• It was founded in 1966 by Bal Thackeray and is currently led by his son, Uddhav Thackeray.
• The party's symbol is a bow and arrow.
• Kuki National Assembly:
• ​This is a political party based in the state of Manipur, India.
• It primarily represents the Kuki tribe in the state.
• The party's symbol is a torch.

The correct answer is Arjun Munda.

Key Points

• The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021, was introduced in Rajya Sabha by Arjun Munda, the Minister for Tribal Affairs.
• Arjun Munda is a senior politician from Jharkhand and a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• The bill seeks to amend the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, to modify the list of Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the states of Assam, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Tripura.
• The amendment aims to include certain communities as STs and remove some communities from the list of STs based on the recommendations of the respective state governments and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST).
• The bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on February 9, 2021, and passed by the Upper House on February 10, 2021.

Additional Information

• Dharmendra Pradhan is the Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas and Minister for Steel in the Union Cabinet.
• Ashwini Vaishnaw is the Minister for Railways, Communications, and Electronics and Information Technology in the Union Cabinet.
• Pralhad Joshi is the Minister for Coal, Mines, and Parliamentary Affairs in the Union Cabinet.

The correct answer is Tughlaq dynasty.

Key Points

• The Tughlaq dynasty ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1320 to 1413 AD.
• Sultan Abu Bakr Shah was the third ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty and he ruled from 1390 to 1394 AD.
• During his reign, he faced several challenges such as rebellions, famine, and economic crisis.
• He was succeeded by his nephew, Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah, who ruled from 1394 to 1412 AD.

Additional Information

• There was no such dynasty as Ghori dynasty in India.
• However, Muhammad Ghori was a ruler from the Ghurid dynasty who invaded and conquered parts of northwestern India.
• Slave dynasty ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1206 to 1290 AD. 
• Some of the notable rulers of this dynasty were Qutubuddin Aibak, Iltutmish, and Balban.
• Lodi dynasty ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1451 to 1526 AD.
• The most famous ruler of this dynasty was Sikandar Lodi who built the city of Agra and shifted the capital from Delhi to Agra.

The correct answer is revenue receipts.

Key Points

• Revenue receipts are the receipts that are earned by a business through its normal operations.
• These receipts are not associated with any liability or reduction in assets.
• For instance, sales revenue, rent received, commission earned, etc. are all examples of revenue receipts.
• Revenue receipts are recorded in the income statement of a business, which shows the revenue earned and expenses incurred during a particular period.
• Since revenue receipts do not create any liability or reduce any asset, they do not affect the financial position of a business.
• However, they do affect the profitability of the business, as they contribute to the net income earned by the business.
• Revenue receipts are also important for tax purposes, as they are considered taxable income for a business.

Additional Information

• Returns receipts:
• These are the receipts that a business receives when it accepts returns from customers.
• Returns receipts are not considered revenue receipts, as they are associated with a reduction in assets (i.e. inventory).
• Capital receipts:
• These are the receipts that a business receives from sources other than its normal operations, such as the sale of assets, loans received, or equity investments.
• Capital receipts are recorded in the balance sheet of a business, and they affect the financial position of the business.
• Principal receipts:
• These are the receipts that a business receives as repayment of loans or other debt obligations.
• Principal receipts are not considered revenue receipts, as they are associated with a reduction in liabilities.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Pulicat Lake is the second-largest brackish water lagoon in India.
• It is located in the Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh and also extends to Tamil Nadu.
• Pulicat Lake is a significant breeding ground for various species of birds, including migratory birds like flamingos, pelicans, and storks.
• The lake is also a source of livelihood for the local fishermen who depend on it for their daily catch.

Additional Information

• During October to December, the lagoon is one of three significant wetlands that draws rain clouds from the northeast monsoon.
• The areas that make up the lagoon include Venadu Reserve Forest (AP), Pernadu Reserve Forest (AP), Marshy/Wetland Land Region (AP), and Pulicat Lake (Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu).
• The Sriharikota Link Road split the lagoon in half, creating a boundary between the water body and the marshland.
• Included in the lagoon is the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary.
• The Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located on the barrier island of Sriharikota, which divides the lagoon from the Bay of Bengal.

The correct answer is Articles 29 and 30.

Key Points

• Cultural and educational rights are fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
• Article 29 deals with the protection of the interests of minorities by providing them with the right to conserve their language, script, and culture.
• Article 30 gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Additional Information

• Articles 22 and 23 deal with protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
• Articles 24 and 25 deal with the rights of children to education and the freedom of religion.
• Articles 26 and 27 deal with the freedom to manage religious affairs and the freedom to practice and propagate religion.

The correct answer is Articles from 5 to 11.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India has provisions for citizenship under Part II, Articles 5 to 11.
• Article 5 talks about citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
• It states that any person who was born in India or either of whose parents were born in India or who has been ordinarily resident in India for not less than five years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution shall be a citizen of India.

Additional Information

• Article 12 defines who is considered a person for the purposes of the Constitution and Article 13 provides for the laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights to be void.
• Articles from 7 to 14 talk about the right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, and right to constitutional remedies.
• Articles from 12 to 35 talk about fundamental rights, specifically the right to equality, right to freedom, and right against exploitation.

The correct answer is Veerasalingam Pantulu.

Key Points

• Veerasalingam Pantulu formed the association in favor of widow remarriage in Madras Presidency.
• He was a social reformer and writer who advocated for women's rights and worked towards abolishing several social evils prevalent at that time.
• He founded the "Widow Remarriage Association" in 1891, which aimed to promote widow remarriage and provide support to widows.
• His efforts towards social reforms and women's rights were commendable and had a significant impact on society.

Additional Information

• Widow remarriage was a taboo in Indian society during the 19th century.
• The practice was prevalent in some parts of India, but it was not widely accepted.
• Social reformers and activists worked towards abolishing this practice and promoting widow remarriage.
• The movement gained momentum during the 19th century, and several associations were formed to support the cause.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a social reformer who worked towards the abolition of Sati and advocated for women's rights.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was another social reformer who worked for the upliftment of women and supported widow remarriage.
• Swami Dayanand Saraswati was a religious leader and founder of Arya Samaj.

The correct answer is Cuttack.

Key Points

• The location of the Orissa High Court is Cuttack, which is a city in the eastern Indian state of Odisha.
• The Orissa High Court is one of the oldest High Courts in India, established on 26th July 1948.
• The High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Odisha.

Additional Information

• Cuttack is also known as the judicial capital of Odisha, as it houses several other important legal institutions like the Odisha State Legal Services Authority, the Odisha Judicial Academy, and the National Law University, Odisha.
• Bhubaneswar is the capital city of Odisha and has several other important government institutions, including the Odisha Secretariat, the State Assembly, and the Raj Bhavan (Governor's House).
• Berhampur and Rourkela are other important cities in Odisha, but they do not have any High Court or significant legal institutions.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• Sikkim shares its borders with only 1 Indian states - West Bengal.
• Sikkim is the least populous state in India and is located in the northeastern part of the country.
• Sikkim has borders with Tibet as well.
• The highest peak in India and the third highest peak worldwide, Kangchenjunga, is located in Sikkim.
• Gangtok is the capital and largest city in Sikkim.

Additional Information

• Odisha shares its borders with 4 states- Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
• Odisha is the 9th largest state in India by area and is located in the eastern part of the country.
• Tamil Nadu shares its borders with 4 states - Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, and Puducherry.
• Tamil Nadu is the 10th largest state in India by area and is located in the southern part of the country.
• Kerala shares its borders with 2 states - Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
• Kerala is the 22nd largest state in India by area and is located in the southwestern part of the country.

The correct answer is To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

Key Points

• To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India is NOT a Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution.
• The Fundamental Duties are a set of moral obligations listed in the Indian Constitution under Article 51A.
• They were added to the Constitution in 1976 through the 42nd Amendment.
• The 11 Fundamental Duties are aimed at promoting a sense of discipline and commitment towards the nation among citizens.

Additional Information

• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• This duty emphasizes the importance of national defense and encourages citizens to serve the country when required.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• This duty highlights the need to respect and preserve India's diverse cultural heritage.
• To develop a scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• This duty promotes scientific thinking, human values, and the importance of questioning and improving existing systems.

The correct answer is 35%.

Key Points

• Gross Direct Tax collections refer to the total amount of tax collected by the government before any deductions or exemptions.
• The Financial Year (FY) 2022-23 is the period from April 1, 2022, to March 31, 2023.
• The growth rate of 35% indicates that the Gross Direct Tax collections in FY 2022-23 were 35% higher than the collections in the previous year (FY 2021-22).
• This growth rate is a positive sign for the economy as it indicates an increase in the tax base and higher compliance by taxpayers.
• A higher tax collection also helps the government to finance its various developmental and welfare schemes.

Additional Information

• A 12-month period during which revenue is earned is the simplest definition of the Financial Year.
• Revenue earned during the current Fiscal Year (FY) 2022–2023 will be evaluated starting on April 1, 2022, and ending on March 31, 2023.
• The computation of income statements is the main objective of the fiscal year.

The correct answer is AAP.

Key Points

• Raghav Chadha is a Rajya Sabha member from the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
• AAP is a political party primarily active in the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
• It was founded in 2012 by a group of social activists and anti-corruption crusaders, led by Arvind Kejriwal.
• AAP emphasizes on issues such as decentralization of power, anti-corruption, and people's participation in governance.
• It has implemented several innovative policies in Delhi, including free electricity and water supply, Mohalla Clinics providing primary healthcare, and doorstep delivery of government services.

Additional Information

• The Indian National Congress (INC) is one of the oldest political parties in India, founded in 1885.
• It was the leading force in India's freedom struggle and has been in power at the national level for several decades.
• The All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) is a regional political party primarily active in the state of West Bengal.
• It was founded in 1998 by Mamata Banerjee and has been in power in the state since 2011.
• The All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) is a regional political party primarily active in the state of Tamil Nadu.
• It was founded in 1972 by M. G. Ramachandran and has been in power in the state several times.