IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper (Held On: 30 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• India topped the medal tally at the World Para Athletics Grand Prix 2025 held in New Delhi, showcasing stellar performances by its para-athletes.
• The event witnessed the participation of athletes from across the globe, with India leading in total medals, including several golds.
• Indian para-athletes such as Devendra Jhajharia and Mariyappan Thangavelu significantly contributed to the country's success in the championship.
• The Grand Prix served as a platform for para-athletes to qualify for major international events, including the Paralympics.
• India’s top position reflects the growing emphasis on promoting para-sports and providing better facilities for athletes with disabilities.

Additional Information

• Italy
• Italy has a strong presence in international para-athletics, producing notable athletes such as Martina Caironi and Oney Tapia.
• The country focuses heavily on inclusive sports programs and has achieved significant success in European and global para-athletic events.
• France
• France is renowned for its commitment to para-sports and has hosted several international para-athletic competitions.
• French athletes like Mandy François-Elie have brought laurels to the country in major international para-athletics championships.
• South Africa
• South Africa has a rich history in para-athletics, with athletes such as Ntando Mahlangu excelling on the global stage.
• The country invests heavily in empowering athletes with disabilities and has a strong presence in the Paralympic Games.
• World Para Athletics Grand Prix
• The World Para Athletics Grand Prix is a prestigious international event for para-athletes, organized annually by the World Para Athletics organization.
• The Grand Prix serves as a key event for athletes to gain qualification points and prepare for upcoming Paralympic Games.
• It promotes inclusivity in sports and ensures global recognition for athletes with disabilities.

The correct answer is were exempt from binding limits due to low per-capita emissions.

Key Points

• The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, primarily aimed to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions by binding developed nations to specific targets under the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities” (CBDR).
• Developing countries, including India and China, were exempt from binding emission reduction targets due to their historically low GHG emissions and lower per-capita emissions.
• This exemption was based on the recognition that developed countries had contributed more to global warming through their historical industrialization.
• The Protocol focused on developed countries, listed in Annex I, to take the lead in combating climate change.
• Developing countries were encouraged to voluntarily adopt mitigation measures and participate in mechanisms like the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) to promote sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Kyoto Protocol
• The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• It was adopted in 1997 and came into force in 2005, with the goal of reducing global GHG emissions and combating climate change.
• The Protocol established legally binding targets for developed countries while recognizing the developmental needs of developing nations.
• The first commitment period was from 2008 to 2012, and the second commitment period (Doha Amendment) extended from 2013 to 2020.

The correct answer is Thailand.

Key Points

• Maitree is a bilateral military exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Royal Thai Army.
• The exercise focuses on counter-terrorism operations in jungle terrain, enhancing the interoperability and operational coordination between the two armies.
• Maitree is held annually and alternates between India and Thailand as host countries.
• The exercise plays a crucial role in strengthening defense relations and mutual trust between India and Thailand.
• Maitree 2025 is expected to build upon the shared experiences and improve the effectiveness of joint operations against global security challenges.

Additional Information

• Myanmar:
• India conducts the bilateral military exercise IMBEX with Myanmar.
• This exercise focuses on UN peacekeeping operations and training.
• Myanmar is a key neighbor of India, and both countries share strategic interests in security and economic cooperation.
• Sri Lanka:
• India and Sri Lanka conduct the bilateral military exercise Mitra Shakti.
• Mitra Shakti aims to enhance counter-terrorism cooperation and mutual understanding between the armies.
• It strengthens regional stability and security in South Asia.
• Indonesia:
• India and Indonesia conduct the bilateral military exercise Garuda Shakti.
• Garuda Shakti focuses on counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations.
• The exercise promotes defense collaboration and strengthens the strategic partnership between the two nations.

The correct answer is USA, Japan, Australia.

Key Points

• The Malabar Exercise is a quadilateral maritime exercise involving India, the USA, Japan, and Australia.
• Initially a bilateral exercise between India and the USA in 1992, it expanded to include Japan in 2015 and Australia in 2020.
• Malabar 2025 will be an advanced naval drill aimed at enhancing interoperability and maritime cooperation among the participating nations.
• The exercise focuses on a wide range of naval operations, including anti-submarine warfare, air defense, and joint tactical maneuvers.
• This initiative aims to ensure a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region, countering common security challenges and promoting stability.

Additional Information

• Russia, Vietnam, Sri Lanka
• Russia and Vietnam have bilateral defense ties with India, focusing on areas like joint military exercises and defense technology cooperation.
• Sri Lanka, being in India's neighborhood, is a key maritime partner.
• Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines
• These Southeast Asian nations are key players in the Indo-Pacific region and have individual maritime collaborations with India.
• They are part of regional groupings like ASEAN.
• UK, France, Canada
• The UK and France are significant maritime powers and have been part of joint naval exercises with India, such as the Varuna and Konkan exercises.
• Canada's involvement in the Indo-Pacific region remains limited compared to other powers.

The correct answer is 6.3% to 6.8%.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2024-25 has projected India’s real GDP growth rate for the fiscal year 2025-26 to be in the range of 6.3% to 6.8%.
• This projection is based on assumptions of a stable global economic environment and the absence of significant domestic disruptions.
• The survey highlights that India continues to be one of the fastest-growing major economies in the world, driven by robust domestic consumption and investments.
• Key contributors to this growth rate include sectors such as manufacturing, services, and agriculture, along with steady progress in infrastructure development.
• The projection aligns with the government’s focus on achieving sustainable economic growth through structural reforms and digital transformation.

Additional Information

• Nominal GDP
• Definition: Value of goods/services at current market prices.
• Includes: Both increased production and price hikes (inflation).
• Usefulness: Shows raw economic output in today's dollars; good for short-term analysis or contract comparisons.
• Real GDP
• Definition: Value of goods/services adjusted for inflation, using constant base-year prices.
• Includes: Only changes in actual production volume.
• Usefulness: Best indicator of genuine economic growth, allowing for meaningful year-over-year comparisons.

The correct answer is Societies Registration Act, 1860.

Key Points

• The Societies Registration Act, 1860, is an important legislation enacted by the British Government to regulate societies and associations in India, aimed at promoting charitable activities, literature, science, and fine arts.
• The Act provides the legal framework for the registration, governance, and functioning of societies, ensuring transparency and accountability in their operations.
• It allows seven or more people associated for a charitable purpose to register their society by submitting a memorandum of association along with rules and regulations to the Registrar of Societies.
• Uttar Pradesh has announced plans to modernize the regulation of NGOs by replacing the Societies Registration Act, 1860, to ensure better oversight and adapt to contemporary requirements.
• The modernization effort is aimed at making the regulation process more transparent, efficient, and aligned with the current socio-economic environment, addressing issues such as misuse of funds and lack of accountability.

Additional Information

• Indian Trusts Act, 1882
• The Indian Trusts Act, 1882, governs private trusts and trustees in India.
• The Act defines the duties, rights, and liabilities of trustees and beneficiaries.
• It applies to private trusts and does not cover public trusts, which are governed by separate legislations in India.
• Public trusts engaged in charitable activities often operate under different state-specific laws or the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
• Cooperative Societies Act, 1912
• The Cooperative Societies Act, 1912, provides a framework for the formation, registration, and functioning of cooperative societies in India.
• Cooperative societies are member-driven organizations aimed at promoting collective economic and social welfare.
• This Act was later supplemented by state-level cooperative laws and the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.
• It is not directly related to the regulation of NGOs, which primarily fall under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
• Charitable Trusts Act, 1950
• The Charitable Trusts Act, 1950, primarily deals with charitable trusts and their administration.
• It provides guidelines for the functioning of trusts created for charitable purposes, including education, relief of poverty, and advancement of religion.
• This Act is distinct from the Societies Registration Act, 1860, which governs the registration and regulation of societies.
• The Charitable Trusts Act primarily governs trusts, while societies and associations are regulated under the Societies Registration Act.

The correct answer is Anandkumar Velkumar.

Key Points

• Anandkumar Velkumar became the first Indian skater to win a gold medal at the Speed Skating World Championships.
• This historic achievement occurred in September 2025 at the Speed Skating World Championships held in China.
• Anandkumar's victory brought immense pride to India, as it marked the nation's debut gold medal in this prestigious global event.
• He competed in the senior men's category and showcased exceptional skill and determination to secure the top podium position.
• His achievement is expected to inspire the younger generation of Indian skaters and boost the popularity of speed skating in the country.

Additional Information

• Karthika Jagadeeshwaran
• Karthika Jagadeeshwaran is a prominent figure in Indian skating, particularly in the artistic skating discipline.
• She has represented India in various international artistic skating championships, earning accolades for her graceful performances.
• However, she is not associated with speed skating events or the 2025 World Championships in China.
• Anup Kumar Yama
• Anup Kumar Yama is a celebrated Indian skater known for his expertise in artistic roller skating.
• He has won multiple medals in the Asian Games and other international competitions in artistic skating.
• While his achievements are remarkable, he has not competed in speed skating events, making him unrelated to the 2025 World Championships.
• Abrysha Srivastava
• Abrysha Srivastava is an emerging talent in the Indian skating community, gaining recognition for her performances in national-level skating competitions.
• She primarily focuses on junior-level events and is yet to participate in senior-level international competitions like the Speed Skating World Championships.

The correct answer is Eka-Aluminium.

Key Points

• Dmitri Mendeleev, the Russian chemist, left gaps in his periodic table to accommodate elements that had not yet been discovered.
• He predicted the properties of these unknown elements based on the periodic trends and similarities with neighboring elements.
• The term "Eka-Aluminium" was used for the element he predicted to be located beneath aluminium in the periodic table.
• Eka-Aluminium was later discovered and named Gallium, which matched Mendeleev's predictions remarkably well in terms of its atomic mass, density, and chemical properties.
• This successful prediction validated Mendeleev's periodic law and his arrangement of elements in the periodic table.

Additional Information

• Mendeleev's Periodic Table
• Mendeleev arranged elements in the periodic table based on their atomic mass and chemical properties.
• He left gaps in the table for elements that were undiscovered at the time, predicting their properties with remarkable accuracy.
• Other elements he predicted included Eka-Boron (Scandium) and Eka-Silicon (Germanium).
• The success of his predictions demonstrated the validity of periodic trends and laid the foundation for the modern periodic table.

The correct answer is National Sports Governance Act, 2025.

Key Points

• The National Sports Governance Act, 2025 was introduced to reform and regulate the functioning of sports bodies in India.
• This legislation provides a statutory framework for governance, ethics, and dispute resolution in sports organizations across the country.
• The Act emphasizes transparency, accountability, and adherence to ethical practices in the administration of sports bodies.
• It aims to promote fair play, inclusivity, and the development of sports at all levels while curbing corruption and malpractices.
• The Act also ensures better representation of athletes and other stakeholders in decision-making processes within sports organizations.

Additional Information

• Indian Sports Reform Act, 2025
• Though the name suggests reforms in Indian sports, this option is incorrect as no legislation with this title exists.
• It may refer to generic reforms or proposals for restructuring sports organizations but lacks the statutory framework provided by the National Sports Governance Act.
• Sports Regulation Act, 2025
• This option is also incorrect as there is no law passed under this name.
• While regulatory measures are essential, the National Sports Governance Act is the key legislation addressing governance, ethics, and dispute resolution in sports bodies.
• Sports Code Act, 2025
• The name might imply regulations or guidelines for sports administration, but it is not a recognized legislation in India.
• The National Sports Governance Act provides a comprehensive statutory framework, which is broader and more impactful than a sports code.

The correct answer is Namita Gokhale.

Key Points

• Namita Gokhale is a renowned Indian author, known for her contribution to contemporary Indian literature.
• She is the co-founder and co-director of the Jaipur Literature Festival, one of the largest literary festivals in the world.
• Never Never Land, which won the Best Author Fiction at the AutHer Awards 2025, is among her significant works.
• Namita Gokhale’s writing often explores themes of modernity, tradition, and cultural identity in Indian society.
• She has received multiple accolades for her literary contributions, including awards for her novels that blend the traditional and modern aspects of storytelling.

Additional Information

• Alpa Shah
• Alpa Shah is an anthropologist and author whose works often focus on tribal communities and social inequalities.
• She is known for her book, "Nightmarch: Among India’s Revolutionary Guerrillas", which explores the lives of the Naxalite insurgents in India.
• While an important author, she is not connected to the AutHer Awards or the novel "Never Never Land."
• Divsargun Kaur
• Divsargun Kaur is an emerging writer in the Indian literary scene, focusing on poetry and short stories.
• She has not authored any book titled "Never Never Land" or received the Best Author Fiction award at the AutHer Awards.
• Andaleeb Wajid
• Andaleeb Wajid is a prolific Indian author known for her romance and young adult fiction.
• Her notable works include "The Crunch Factor" and the "Mehr Series", but she is not associated with the novel "Never Never Land."
• AutHer Awards
• The AutHer Awards is an initiative by The Times of India to recognize the best women authors in India.
• The awards celebrate fiction, non-fiction, debut works, and children’s literature written by women.
• It aims to promote women’s writing and encourage diverse voices in literature.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog, the premier policy think-tank of the Government of India, published the report titled 'Chemical Industry: Powering India's Participation in Global Value Chains' in July 2025.
• The report provides an extensive analysis of India's chemical sector, which is a significant contributor to the country's manufacturing and export sectors.
• It outlines strategies to enhance India's global competitiveness and participation in global value chains (GVCs) in the chemical industry.
• The report emphasizes the need for policy reforms, infrastructure development, and innovation to boost growth in the chemical sector.
• It highlights the role of the chemical industry in achieving India's $5 trillion economy goal by focusing on sustainable and green chemistry practices.

Additional Information

• Centre for Policy Research (CPR):
• The Centre for Policy Research is a leading public policy think tank based in New Delhi, India.
• It focuses on high-quality research in the areas of governance, urbanization, environment, and international relations.
• While CPR conducts research on diverse policy issues, it has not published a specific report on India's chemical sector in 2025.
• IIT Delhi:
• Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi is a premier engineering and research institution in India.
• Although IIT Delhi contributes significantly to research and innovation in various fields, it is not responsible for preparing economic or policy reports like the one on the chemical industry.
• The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI):
• TERI is a leading research institute that focuses on energy, environment, and sustainable development.
• Its contributions are significant in areas like renewable energy, climate change, and resource efficiency.
• However, TERI has not published the 2025 report on India's chemical industry.

The correct answer is NSIL, ISRO, IN-SPACe and HAL.

Key Points

• On 10 September 2025, a technology transfer agreement was signed for the transfer of the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) technology.
• The agreement was signed among NSIL (NewSpace India Limited), ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation), IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center), and HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited).
• This agreement facilitates the private sector's involvement in manufacturing and launching SSLV, thus promoting self-reliance in the space sector under the "Aatmanirbhar Bharat" initiative.
• SSLV is a cost-effective and efficient launch vehicle designed to cater to the growing demand for launching small satellites, particularly for commercial purposes.
• Through this agreement, HAL and private players will now be able to manufacture SSLVs under ISRO’s technology, enhancing India’s capability to compete in the global satellite launch market.

Additional Information

• SSLV:
• The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is designed to carry payloads of up to 500 kg into low Earth orbit (LEO).
• It is tailored for cost-effective and on-demand launches, targeting the rapidly growing small satellite market.
• SSLV’s modular and simplified design ensures quicker turnaround time and ease of manufacturing.
• The development and commercialization of SSLV are significant steps toward enhancing India’s presence in the global space industry.

The correct answer is Sacred groves protected by communities.

Key Points

• Sacred groves are small patches of forests or natural vegetation that are protected by local communities due to their religious and cultural significance.
• They have traditionally played a crucial role in conserving biodiversity as they provide refuge to many rare and endemic plant and animal species.
• India has a rich tradition of sacred groves, particularly in states like Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Kerala, Rajasthan, and Meghalaya, where these areas are often associated with local deities or ancestral spirits.
• These groves are self-sustaining ecosystems that contribute to maintaining ecological balance, reducing soil erosion, and conserving water resources.
• They are a prime example of community-based conservation practices that integrate environmental protection with the cultural and spiritual values of the local population.

Additional Information

• Drip irrigation in agricultural fields:
• Drip irrigation is a modern agricultural technique that delivers water directly to the root zone of plants through a network of pipes, emitters, and tubing.
• It is designed to minimize water wastage by reducing evaporation and runoff, making it highly efficient for regions with water scarcity.
• While it is a sustainable agricultural practice, it focuses on water conservation rather than biodiversity or ecological preservation.
• Rainwater harvesting in rural areas:
• Rainwater harvesting involves collecting and storing rainwater for future use, typically in underground tanks, rooftops, or reservoirs.
• This practice is widely adopted to address water shortages, improve groundwater recharge, and ensure water availability during dry seasons.
• Although rainwater harvesting contributes to water conservation and sustainable development, it does not directly address biodiversity conservation.
• Terrace farming on hill slopes:
• Terrace farming is a traditional agricultural practice used in hilly areas to prevent soil erosion and make efficient use of limited arable land.
• It involves carving out step-like terraces on slopes to reduce water runoff and increase water retention in the soil.
• While terrace farming aids in sustainable land management, its direct contribution to biodiversity conservation is limited compared to sacred groves.

The correct answer is Mission Shakti 5.0.

Key Points

• Mission Shakti 5.0 was launched by the Uttar Pradesh government in 2025 to enhance women's safety and security, especially during the Navratri festival.
• The initiative involves the deployment of female police personnel at public places to make women feel safer and ensure a secure environment.
• Anti-Romeo squads, an existing Uttar Pradesh police initiative aimed at preventing harassment of women, were further strengthened under Mission Shakti 5.0.
• The program also focuses on public outreach and awareness campaigns to educate society about women's rights and security measures.
• Mission Shakti 5.0 is part of a broader government effort to address gender-based violence and empower women through targeted interventions.

Additional Information

• Shakti Vahini
• Shakti Vahini is a non-governmental organization (NGO) in India working to combat human trafficking and violence against women and children.
• It collaborates with law enforcement agencies and other stakeholders to rescue victims, provide rehabilitation, and conduct awareness campaigns.
• It is not a government initiative but has significantly contributed to addressing gender-based crimes in India.
• Nari Suraksha Abhiyan
• This term generally refers to campaigns aimed at ensuring women's safety and security, often organized by local governments, NGOs, or community groups.
• Such initiatives focus on addressing issues like domestic violence, harassment, and gender inequality through awareness and legal aid.
• No specific government program under this name has been identified in the context of Uttar Pradesh's 2025 initiative.
• Pink Auto Yatra
• Pink Auto initiatives are programs launched in various states of India to promote women-driven auto-rickshaws, ensuring safer public transport for women.
• These initiatives aim to empower women by providing them with livelihood opportunities and creating a safer commuting option for female passengers.
• While relevant to women's safety, this program is unrelated to Mission Shakti 5.0.

The correct answer is Enacting mythological and folklore stories.

Key Points

• Chhau dance is a traditional Indian dance form that combines elements of martial arts, tribal rituals, and folk traditions to depict mythological and folklore stories.
• It is performed mainly in the states of Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, where it is recognized as a significant cultural art form.
• The primary themes revolve around ancient epics like the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas, as well as local legends and folklore.
• Chhau dance performances are characterized by their elaborate masks (in some styles like Purulia Chhau), vibrant costumes, and rhythmic movements, which help narrate the stories effectively.
• In 2010, UNESCO inscribed Chhau dance on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, acknowledging its cultural and artistic significance.

Additional Information

• Odisha
• Chhau (Mayurbhanj Style): Focuses on natural movements, no masks.
• Ghumura: Energetic folk dance with Ghumura drum, used for entertainment & rituals.
• Painka: A martial dance depicting warrior skills.
• Gotipua: Boys dressed as girls perform devotional dances, precursor to Odissi.
• Savari: Tribal dance form.
• Jharkhand
• Chhau (Seraikella Style): Uses masks, incorporating martial & folk elements.
• Jhumar: Harvest dance, with Mardani (men) & Janani (women) forms.
• Domkach: Performed during weddings by families.
• Paiki: A vibrant martial dance.
• Fagua: Celebratory dance for Holi.
• West Bengal
• Chhau (Purulia Style): Features elaborate masks & themes from epics.
• Gambhira: A folk dance with satirical themes, often masks.
• Kathi: Stick dance, energetic and rhythmic.
• Dhali: A martial dance with swords and shields.

The correct answer is String instruments.

Key Points

• Tata Vadya refers specifically to string instruments in the context of Indian classical music.
• String instruments under Tata Vadya produce sound by vibrating strings, which are plucked, bowed, or struck. Examples include the sitar, sarod, veena, tanpura, and violin.
• These instruments play a crucial role in Indian classical music, providing melody and harmony, and often act as accompaniment to vocals.
• Indian string instruments are categorized into two types: plucked string instruments (e.g., sitar, veena) and bowed string instruments (e.g., sarangi, violin).
• The term "Tata Vadya" is derived from the Sanskrit word "Tata," meaning "stretched," referring to the stretched strings used to produce sound.

Additional Information

• Solid instruments:
• Solid instruments are generally referred to as idiophones, which produce sound by the vibration of the entire body of the instrument.
• Examples include manjira, ghungroo, and kartal. These instruments are commonly used in folk music and devotional settings.
• They are not classified under Tata Vadya as they do not involve strings for sound production.
• Percussion instruments:
• Percussion instruments, known as "Avanaddha Vadya" in Indian music, produce sound by striking a membrane stretched over a hollow vessel.
• Examples include tabla, mridangam, dhol, and pakhawaj.
• These are rhythm instruments and play a significant role in accompanying melodic instruments in Indian classical music.
• Wind instruments:
• Wind instruments, called "Sushir Vadya," produce sound by the vibration of air blown into or across the instrument.
• Examples include the flute (bansuri), shehnai, and nadaswaram.
• These instruments are used for melody and are integral to Indian classical and folk music.

The correct answer is Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande.

Key Points

• Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande was a pioneer in the field of Hindustani classical music and is considered one of the most influential musicologists of India.
• He authored the Kramik Pustak Malika, a six-part book that systematized the study of Hindustani classical music through notation, compositions, and raga classification.
• The Kramik Pustak Malika is considered a revolutionary work as it standardized ragas and documented their grammar, making Indian classical music accessible for structured study.
• He classified Indian ragas into the Thaat system, which consists of 10 basic scales, simplifying the categorization of ragas.
• Bhatkhande also established institutions like the Marris College of Music (now Bhatkhande Music Institute in Lucknow) to promote education and research in Indian classical music.

Additional Information

• Sourindra Mohun Tagore
• Sourindra Mohun Tagore was a musicologist from Bengal who worked to promote Indian music, especially during the 19th century.
• He authored works such as "Universal History of Music" and contributed to the promotion of Indian music on an international platform.
• However, he did not systematize Hindustani classical music or create a work similar to the Kramik Pustak Malika.
• Hindustani Classical Music
• Hindustani classical music has a rich tradition and is one of the two primary forms of Indian classical music, the other being Carnatic music.
• The system is based on ragas (melodic frameworks) and talas (rhythmic cycles).
• Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande’s contributions to this field have been instrumental in its modern-day pedagogy, making it easier to teach and learn.

The correct answer is Pinarayi Vijayan.

Key Points

• Pinarayi Vijayan has been serving as the Chief Minister of Kerala since May 25, 2016.
• He is a senior leader of the Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M)) and has played a crucial role in Kerala's politics.
• Pinarayi Vijayan became the first Chief Minister in Kerala to be re-elected consecutively after completing a full term, following his party's victory in the 2021 Kerala Legislative Assembly elections.
• Under his leadership, Kerala has implemented several notable initiatives, such as the Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board (KIIFB) and the LIFE Mission housing scheme for the homeless.
• He is known for his administrative acumen and for steering Kerala through crises like the COVID-19 pandemic with globally recognized efforts.

Additional Information

• Roshy Augustine
• Roshy Augustine is a politician from the Kerala Congress (M) party.
• He currently serves as the Minister for Water Resources in the Government of Kerala.
• He represents the Idukki constituency in the Kerala Legislative Assembly.
• K Krishnankutty
• K Krishnankutty is a leader of the Janata Dal (Secular) party in Kerala.
• He serves as the Minister for Electricity in the Kerala Government.
• He represents the Chittur constituency in the Kerala Legislative Assembly.
• K Rajan
• K Rajan is a member of the Communist Party of India (CPI).
• He is the Minister for Revenue and Housing in the Kerala Government.
• He represents the Ollur constituency in the Kerala Legislative Assembly.

The correct answer is Forces between neighbouring particles in the medium.

Key Points

• Material waves, also known as mechanical waves, require a medium to propagate through.
• The medium should consist of particles that can interact with each other through forces, such as elastic forces, to transfer energy.
• Examples of such waves include sound waves, water waves, and seismic waves, which rely on forces between neighboring particles to transmit energy.
• The absence of these forces would prevent the propagation of mechanical waves as energy cannot transfer from one particle to another.
• Forces between particles in the medium ensure the continuous transfer of vibrational energy, forming the basis of mechanical wave motion.

Additional Information

• Material Waves
• Material waves include longitudinal waves (e.g., sound waves) and transverse waves (e.g., water waves).
• The transfer of energy in these waves depends on the medium's properties such as density, elasticity, and inter-particle forces.
• They are distinguished from electromagnetic waves, which do not require a medium to propagate.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• CP Radhakrishnan served as the Governor of Maharashtra before becoming Vice President.
• Maharashtra is the second-most populous state in India and a key administrative unit.
• The Governor of Maharashtra is appointed under Article 155 of the Constitution.

Additional Information

• Kerala:
• Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India.
• It follows a unicameral legislature system.
• The state is governed under the Westminster model of parliamentary democracy.
• Arunachal Pradesh:
• It is the largest state in Northeast India by area.
• The state was granted full statehood in 1987.
• Governed under special administrative focus due to international borders.
• Tamil Nadu:
• One of the oldest continuously inhabited regions in India.
• Known for the Dravidian political movement.
• Has a unicameral legislature with the Governor as constitutional head.

Given:

First discount = 10%

Second discount = 15%

Formula Used:

Equivalent discount = First discount + Second discount - (First discount × Second discount / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Equivalent discount = 10 + 15 - (10 × 15 / 100)

⇒ Equivalent discount = 25 - (150 / 100)

⇒ Equivalent discount = 25 - 1.5

⇒ Equivalent discount = 23.5%

∴ The correct answer is 23.5%.

Given:

Length of Train 1 = 190 metres

Length of Train 2 = 250 metres

Speed of Train 1 = 54 km/hr

Speed of Train 2 = 45 km/hr

Formula Used:

1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s

Total relative speed (opposite directions) = Speed of Train 1 + Speed of Train 2

Time = Total length / Relative speed

Calculation:

⇒ Speed of Train 1 in m/s = 54 × (5/18) = 15 m/s

⇒ Speed of Train 2 in m/s = 45 × (5/18) = 12.5 m/s

⇒ Relative speed = 15 + 12.5 = 27.5 m/s

⇒ Total length = 190 + 250 = 440 metres

⇒ Time = Total length / Relative speed = 440 / 27.5

⇒ Time = 16 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 16 seconds.

Given:

Pipes P and Q together fill the reservoir in 12 hours.

Pipes Q and R together fill the reservoir in 16 hours.

Pipe P fills the reservoir three times as fast as pipe R.

Formula Used:

Work done = 1 / Time taken.

Total work = LCM of given times.

Individual rates = Total work / Time taken by each.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM(12, 16) = 48 units.

⇒ Rate of P and Q together = 48 / 12 = 4 units/hour.

⇒ Rate of Q and R together = 48 / 16 = 3 units/hour.

Let rate of R = x units/hour. Then rate of P = 3x units/hour.

Rate of Q = Total rate of P and Q - Rate of P = 4 - 3x units/hour.

Rate of Q = Total rate of Q and R - Rate of R = 3 - x units/hour.

Equating both expressions for Q:

⇒ 4 - 3x = 3 - x.

⇒ 4 - 3 = 3x - x.

⇒ 1 = 2x.

⇒ x = 0.5 units/hour.

⇒ Rate of R = 0.5 units/hour, Rate of P = 3 × 0.5 = 1.5 units/hour, Rate of Q = 4 - 3x = 4 - 1.5 = 2.5 units/hour.

Combined rate of P, Q, and R = 1.5 + 2.5 + 0.5 = 4.5 units/hour.

Time taken by all three pipes to fill the reservoir = Total work / Combined rate.

⇒ Time = 48 / 4.5 = 10.67 hours = 10 hours 40 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 10 hours 40 minutes.

Given:

Radius and height ratio = 8:15

Volume of cone = 8038.4 cm³

Cost of polishing = ₹25 per 100 cm²

π = 3.14

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1/3) × π × r² × h

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = π × r × l

l = √(r² + h²)

Calculation:

Let radius = 8x and height = 15x.

Volume = (1/3) × π × r² × h

⇒ 8038.4 = (1/3) × 3.14 × (8x)² × (15x)

⇒ 8038.4 = (1/3) × 3.14 × 64x² × 15x

⇒ 8038.4 = (1/3) × 3.14 × 960x³

⇒ 8038.4 = 1004.8x³

⇒ x³ = 8038.4 / 1004.8

⇒ x³ = 8

⇒ x = 2

Radius (r) = 8x = 8 × 2 = 16 cm

Height (h) = 15x = 15 × 2 = 30 cm

l = √(r² + h²)

⇒ l = √(16² + 30²)

⇒ l = √(256 + 900)

⇒ l = √1156

⇒ l = 34 cm

CSA = π × r × l

⇒ CSA = 3.14 × 16 × 34

⇒ CSA = 1708.48 cm²

Cost of polishing = (CSA × 25) / 100

⇒ Cost = (1708.48 × 25) / 100

⇒ Cost = 427.12

∴ The correct answer is ₹427.04.

Given:

Number of articles bought = 250

Profit on 60% articles = 40%

Loss on one-fifth of articles = 25%

Loss on remaining articles = cost price of 5 articles

Formula Used:

Total cost price = number of articles × cost price per article

Profit/Loss % = (Total profit or loss / Total cost price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Articles sold at 40% profit = 60% of 250 = (60/100) × 250 = 150

⇒ Profit on these articles = 40% of their cost price = 0.4 × 150 × cost price

⇒ Articles sold at 25% loss = one-fifth of 250 = (1/5) × 250 = 50

⇒ Loss on these articles = 25% of their cost price = 0.25 × 50 × cost price

⇒ Remaining articles = 250 - 150 - 50 = 50

⇒ Loss on these articles = cost price of 5 articles = 5 × cost price

⇒ Total cost price = 250 × cost price

⇒ Total profit/loss = (Profit from 150 articles) - (Loss from 50 articles) - (Loss from remaining 50 articles)

⇒ Total profit/loss = (0.4 × 150 × cost price) - (0.25 × 50 × cost price) - (5 × cost price)

⇒ Total profit/loss = (60 × cost price) - (12.5 × cost price) - (5 × cost price)

⇒ Total profit/loss = 42.5 × cost price

⇒ Profit/Loss % = (42.5 × cost price / 250 × cost price) × 100

⇒ Profit/Loss % = (42.5 / 250) × 100

⇒ Profit/Loss % = 17%

∴ The correct answer is Gain, 17%.

Given:

Customer price = ₹189

Retailer profit = 44%

Wholesaler profit = 25%

Manufacturer profit = 40%

Formula Used:

Cost Price = Selling Price / (1 + Profit%)

Profit% in decimal = Profit% / 100

Calculation:

⇒ Manufacturer's cost price = Retailer's cost price / (1 + 40/100)

⇒ Retailer's cost price = Customer's price / (1 + 44/100)

⇒ Wholesaler's cost price = Retailer's cost price / (1 + 25/100)

Step 1: Calculate Retailer’s cost price:

⇒ Retailer's cost price = ₹189 / 1.44 = ₹131.25

Step 2: Calculate Wholesaler’s cost price:

⇒ Wholesaler's cost price = ₹131.25 / 1.25 = ₹105

Step 3: Calculate Manufacturer’s cost price:

⇒ Manufacturer's cost price = ₹105 / 1.40 = ₹75

∴ The correct answer is 75.

Given:

Effective speed against stream = 30.4 km/hr

Effective speed along stream = 41.6 km/hr

Formula Used:

Speed of the stream = (Effective speed along stream - Effective speed against stream) / 2

Calculation:

⇒ Speed of the stream = (41.6 - 30.4) / 2

⇒ Speed of the stream = 11.2 / 2

⇒ Speed of the stream = 5.6 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 5.6 km/hr.

Given:

Praveen invests ₹88,000 more than Hemant.

Praveen invests for 5 months.

Hemant invests for 6 months.

Total profit = ₹7,632.

Praveen's share exceeds Hemant's by ₹1,908.

Formula Used:

Profit ratio = Investment × Time.

Total profit = Praveen's share + Hemant's share.

Calculation:

Let Hemant's investment = ₹x.

⇒ Praveen's investment = ₹(x + 88,000).

Praveen's profit : Hemant's profit = (x + 88,000) × 5 : x × 6.

⇒ Profit ratio = 5(x + 88,000) : 6x.

Praveen's share exceeds Hemant's by ₹1,908.

⇒ [5(x + 88,000) / {5(x + 88,000) + 6x}] × 7,632 - [6x / {5(x + 88,000) + 6x}] × 7,632 = 1,908.

⇒ [5(x + 88,000) - 6x] × 7,632 / {5(x + 88,000) + 6x} = 1,908.

⇒ [5x + 4,40,000 - 6x] × 7,632 / {5x + 4,40,000 + 6x} = 1,908.

⇒ [-x + 4,40,000] × 7,632 / (11x + 4,40,000) = 1,908.

⇒ (-x + 4,40,000) × 7,632 = 1,908 × (11x + 4,40,000).

⇒ -7,632x + 33,55,68,000 = 21,988x + 8,39,52,000.

⇒ 33,55,68,000 - 8,39,52,000 = 7,632x + 21,988x.

⇒ 25,16,16,000 = 29,620x.

⇒ x = 25,16,16,000 / 29,620.

⇒ x = ₹85,000.

Praveen's investment = x + 88,000.

⇒ Praveen's investment = ₹85,000 + ₹88,000.

⇒ Praveen's investment = ₹1,76,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,76,000.

Given:

Radius of the solid sphere = 21 cm

Radius of each small sphere = 3 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = (4/3) × π × r³

Number of small spheres = Volume of solid sphere / Volume of one small sphere

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of solid sphere = (4/3) × π × (21)³

⇒ Volume of solid sphere = (4/3) × π × 9261

⇒ Volume of solid sphere = 12348 × π

⇒ Volume of one small sphere = (4/3) × π × (3)³

⇒ Volume of one small sphere = (4/3) × π × 27

⇒ Volume of one small sphere = 36 × π

⇒ Number of small spheres = Volume of solid sphere / Volume of one small sphere

⇒ Number of small spheres = (12348 × π) / (36 × π)

⇒ Number of small spheres = 343

∴ The correct answer is 343.

Given:

Monthly income = ₹90,000

Monthly expenditure = ₹50,000

Income increased by 20%

Expenditure increased by 10%

Formula Used:

Savings = Income - Expenditure

Percentage increase = [(New savings - Old savings) / Old savings] × 100

Calculation:

Old savings = ₹90,000 - ₹50,000

⇒ Old savings = ₹40,000

New income = ₹90,000 + (20% of ₹90,000)

⇒ New income = ₹90,000 + ₹18,000

⇒ New income = ₹1,08,000

New expenditure = ₹50,000 + (10% of ₹50,000)

⇒ New expenditure = ₹50,000 + ₹5,000

⇒ New expenditure = ₹55,000

New savings = New income - New expenditure

⇒ New savings = ₹1,08,000 - ₹55,000

⇒ New savings = ₹53,000

Percentage increase in savings = [(₹53,000 - ₹40,000) / ₹40,000] × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = (₹13,000 / ₹40,000) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 32.5%

∴ The correct answer is 32.5%.

Given:

Cost of wheat type 1 = ₹70 per kg

Cost of wheat type 2 = ₹125 per kg

Cost of the mixture = ₹108 per kg

Formula Used:

Rule of alligation: Ratio = (C₂ - C_m) : (C_m - C₁)

Calculation:

⇒ C₁ = ₹70, C₂ = ₹125, C_m = ₹108

⇒ Ratio = (125 - 108) : (108 - 70)

⇒ Ratio = 17 : 38

∴ The correct answer is 1) 17 : 38.

Given:

Volume of cube = 1000 m³

Formula Used:

Volume of cube = side³

Lateral surface area of cube = 4 × side²

Calculation:

⇒ side³ = 1000

⇒ side = 1000^1/3

⇒ side = 10 m

⇒ Lateral surface area = 4 × side²

⇒ Lateral surface area = 4 × 10²

⇒ Lateral surface area = 4 × 100

⇒ Lateral surface area = 400 m²

∴ The correct answer is 400.

Given:

Cost of first variety of rice = ₹249 per kg

Cost of second variety of rice = ₹103 per kg

Cost of mixture of rice = ₹193 per kg

Formula Used:

Rule of alligation: Ratio = (Cost of higher price - Cost of mixture) : (Cost of mixture - Cost of lower price)

Calculation:

⇒ Cost of higher price - Cost of mixture = 249 - 193 = 56

⇒ Cost of mixture - Cost of lower price = 193 - 103 = 90

⇒ Ratio = 56 : 90

⇒ Simplified ratio = 28 : 45

∴ The correct answer is 45 : 28.

Given:

Present population = 3360

40% of initial population left the town.

30% of the remaining population left the town.

Formula Used:

Remaining population after 40% leave = Initial population × (1 - 40/100)

Remaining population after 30% leave = Remaining population × (1 - 30/100)

Initial population to present population ratio = Initial population / Present population

Calculation:

Let the initial population = x

⇒ Remaining population after 40% leave = x × (1 - 40/100) = x × 60/100 = 3x/5

⇒ Remaining population after 30% leave = (3x/5) × (1 - 30/100) = (3x/5) × 70/100 = 21x/50

⇒ Present population = 21x/50

⇒ 21x/50 = 3360

⇒ x = (3360 × 50) / 21

⇒ x = 8000

Initial population = 8000

Present population = 3360

⇒ Ratio of initial population to present population = 8000 / 3360

⇒ Ratio = 50 : 21

∴ The correct answer is 50 : 21.

Given:

Pipe A fills the tank in 9 hours.

Pipe B empties the tank in 90 hours.

Formula Used:

Work done by Pipe A per hour = 1 / time taken by Pipe A.

Work done by Pipe B per hour = -1 / time taken by Pipe B.

Total work done per hour = Work done by Pipe A + Work done by Pipe B.

Time taken to fill half the tank = Total work / Total work done per hour.

Calculation:

⇒ Work done by Pipe A per hour = 1 / 9.

⇒ Work done by Pipe B per hour = -1 / 90.

⇒ Total work done per hour = 1 / 9 - 1 / 90.

⇒ Total work done per hour = (10 - 1) / 90.

⇒ Total work done per hour = 9 / 90 = 1 / 10.

⇒ Time taken to fill half the tank = (1/2) / (1/10).

⇒ Time taken = 1/2 × 10/1.

⇒ Time taken = 5 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Given:

(-18) × (-6) + 22 ÷ 11

Formula Used:

a × b + c ÷ d

Calculation:

⇒ (-18) × (-6) + 22 ÷ 11

⇒ 108 + 2

⇒ 110

∴ The correct answer is 110.

Given:

Ratio of sum to difference = 4 : 3

Product of numbers = 112

Formula Used:

If two numbers are x and y, sum = x + y, difference = x - y

Ratio of sum to difference = (x + y) / (x - y)

Product of numbers = x × y

Calculation:

⇒ (x + y) / (x - y) = 4 / 3

⇒ 3(x + y) = 4(x - y)

⇒ 3x + 3y = 4x - 4y

⇒ x = 7y

Given x × y = 112

⇒ 7y × y = 112

⇒ 7y² = 112

⇒ y² = 112 / 7

⇒ y² = 16

⇒ y = 4 (positive number)

⇒ x = 7 × 4

⇒ x = 28

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Given:

Number 1 = 158

Number 2 = 4740

HCF = 158

Formula Used:

LCM × HCF = Product of the two numbers

LCM = (Product of the two numbers) / HCF

Calculation:

⇒ Product of the two numbers = 158 × 4740

⇒ Product = 748920

⇒ LCM = 748920 / 158

⇒ LCM = 4740

∴ The correct answer is 4740.

Given:

Length of rectangle = 300 m

Breadth of rectangle = 105 m

π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Radius of inscribed circle = Minimum of (Length, Breadth) / 2

Circumference of circle = 2 × π × Radius

Calculation:

⇒ Radius = 105 / 2 = 52.5 m

⇒ Circumference = 2 × (22/7) × 52.5

⇒ Circumference = (2 × 22 × 52.5) / 7

⇒ Circumference = 2310 / 7

⇒ Circumference = 330 m

∴ The correct answer is 330.

Given:

Marked price = ₹550

Selling price = ₹275

Two successive discounts: first discount = d% of marked price, second discount = ₹(first discount amount)

Formula Used:

First discount amount = (d/100) × Marked price

Selling price = Marked price - First discount amount - Second discount amount

Second discount amount = First discount amount

Calculation:

⇒ First discount amount = (d/100) × 550 = 550d/100 = 5.5d

⇒ Second discount amount = 5.5d

⇒ Selling price = Marked price - First discount amount - Second discount amount

⇒ 275 = 550 - 5.5d - 5.5d

⇒ 275 = 550 - 11d

⇒ 11d = 550 - 275

⇒ 11d = 275

⇒ d = 275 / 11

⇒ d = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

 

Based on the expression 'C + V X R - N - M':

1. C + V: C is the daughter of V.
   
2. V X R: V is the wife of R (so R is the father of C).
   
3. R - N: R is the brother of N.
   
4. N - M: N is the brother of M.
   Since R is the brother of M and C is the daughter of R, C is the niece of M.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I): Some vegetables are fruits- False (As their is no direct relation between vegetables and fruits may be it is possible but not definite.Hence, it is false)

(II): Some lemons are fruits- True (All fruits are lemons.Some fruits are lemons and some lemons are fruits. Hence, it is True)

Only conclusion (II) follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some trees are fishes.- True (Some trees are cows.All cows are fishes.Some trees are fishes is True)

(II) All fishes are cows.- False (All cows are fishes. All fishes are cows is may be possible but not definite. Hence, it is false)

Only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

• Vishal starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards west.
• He then takes a left turn, drives 1 km, turns left and drives 8 km.
• He then takes a left turn and drives 5 km.
• He takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P

 

The Final Diagram, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

• Six people, M, N, O, P, X and Y, are sitting in a row facing north.
• Exactly four people sit between Y and O.
• P sits second to the right of O.
• N sits to the immediate right of X

The Final Arrangment is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

'GREAT' is coded as '42571', 'FRESH' is coded as '37648' and 'FLASH' is coded as '68953'

'F L  A S H' -  '6 8 9 5 3'

Code for L is 9.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

• No one has exam before Q.
• Only three people have exams between Q and V.
• Only one person has an exam between V and P.
• U has an exam on Wednesday.
• T has an exam on one of the days after S but on one of the days before R

The Final Arrangement is, 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given Series:  (Left) RLZT@$ODU%WN#*KXV£YA & QPS (Right)

Required Conditions:  Letter, Letter, Another Symbol

 (Left)    RLZT@$O**DU%WN#KXV£YA &* QPS    (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row, facing north.

• Only two people sit to the left of Q.
• Only three people sit between Q and S.
• Only one person sits between S and V.
• U sits to the immediate left of P.
• T is not an immediate neighbour of S

 

The Final Arrangement is, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here, 

'we are here' -  'yt bg ji' 

'you know we' -  'kl bg gb'

The Code for we is bg.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

• U has an exam on Wednesday.
• Exactly 4 people have exams between P and V, neither of whom has an exam on Monday.
• Q has an exam immediately before R and S has an exam immediately after R.
• T has an exam immediately before P

The Final Arrangement is, 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The Logic follows here, 

Logic:  (First Number)² + 4 = Second Number

Similarly,

11,125

11² + 4 = 125

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic follows here,

Required Conditions: Vowel , consonants , Vowel

(Left) CCQOISJSMXHUVQRHDPCHY (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given : 6 9 21 39 81 ?

• 9 = (6 × 2) - 3
• 21 = (9 × 2) + 3
• 39 = (21 × 2) - 3
• 81 = (39 × 2) + 3
• (81 × 2) - 3 = ?
• 162 - 3 = ?
• 159
• Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given : 21 B 4 D 72 A 8 C 7 = ?

'A' stands for '÷', 'B' stands for 'x', 'C' stands for '+' and 'D' stands for '-'

21 x 4 - 72 ÷ 8 + 7 = ?

21 x 4 - 9 + 7 = ?

84 + 7 - 9  = ?

91 - 9  = ?

= 82.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The correct answer is 'worst'.

 

Key Points

• The word "worst" is the superlative form of "bad" and is used to indicate the most severe degree of something.
• The sentence describes an extreme situation (the most severe snowstorm in the last ten years), so the superlative form "worst" is appropriate.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically or contextually incorrect in this case.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "This is the worst snowstorm that I have seen in the last ten years."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "good" is incorrect because the context requires a negative connotation, not a positive one.
• Option 3: "better" is incorrect as it is a comparative form and does not fit the superlative requirement of the sentence.
• Option 4: "easier" is incorrect because it does not relate to the severity of a snowstorm.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Ambitous'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Ambitious'.
• The word 'Ambitious' is an adjective which means 'having a strong desire for success or achievement'. (महत्त्वाकांक्षी)
• For Example -
• She is an ambitious student who wants to become a doctor.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Ambitous'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other correct words - 

• Fragrance - a pleasant, sweet smell (सुगंध)
• Vitality - the state of being strong and active; energy (जीवन शक्ति)
• Enigma - a person or thing that is mysterious or difficult to understand (पहेली)

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence lists three cities, so commas are used to separate them correctly.
• The correct punctuation involves placing a comma between the listed items: "Delhi, Mumbai, and Kolkata."
• This is known as the serial or Oxford comma, used before the conjunction "and" in a list of three or more items.
• The punctuation in Option 3 ensures clarity and readability of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "I visited Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata last summer."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "I visited, Delhi Mumbai and Kolkata last summer." – Incorrect because the comma after "visited" is unnecessary and disrupts the sentence flow.
• Option 2: "I visited: Delhi Mumbai and Kolkata, last summer." – Incorrect because the colon is not appropriate for listing items in this context.
• Option 4: "I visited- Delhi Mumbai and Kolkata, last summer." – Incorrect because the dash is not suitable punctuation for this sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Craving).

Key Points

• The word "hankering" means a strong desire or longing for something. (प्रबल इच्छा या लालसा)
• Example: After a long day, I had a hankering for a hot cup of coffee.
• The word "craving" is a synonym of hankering and also means a strong desire for something. (लालसा)
• Example: She had a sudden craving for chocolate cake in the middle of the night.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of "hankering" is "craving."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Craving).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Complacency (संतोष): A feeling of uncritical satisfaction with oneself or one's achievements.
• Example: His complacency about his grades led him to stop studying, which resulted in poor performance.
• Aversion (घृणा): A strong dislike or disinclination toward something.
• Example: She has an aversion to spicy food and avoids it at all costs.
• Ambivalence (उभयभाव): The state of having mixed feelings or contradictory ideas about something or someone.
• Example: His ambivalence about accepting the job offer was evident in his hesitation.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The idiom "Be a killjoy" refers to someone who spoils the fun or dampens others' enthusiasm. (मज़ा खराब करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: Stop being such a killjoy and let us enjoy the party!
• The correct meaning of this idiom is "someone who spoils the fun or dampens others' enthusiasm." (मज़ा खराब करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: Jane was being a killjoy by constantly complaining during the picnic.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: A difficult problem or a person who is hard to understand or deal with (समस्या या व्यक्ति जिसे समझना या संभालना कठिन हो):
• Example: The new puzzle was such a difficult nut to crack that it took hours to solve.
• Option 3: A positive aspect or hope in an otherwise bad situation (किसी बुरी स्थिति में सकारात्मक पहलू):
• Example: The silver lining of the failure was the lessons we learned from it.
• Option 4: Something that is contrary to someone's natural feelings, beliefs, or habits (किसी की प्राकृतिक भावनाओं, विश्वासों, या आदतों के विपरीत कुछ):
• Example: Eating spicy food goes against her natural taste preferences.

The correct answer is 'with'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "with" is used to indicate consistency or agreement in this context.
• The detective found the alibi inconsistent, meaning it did not align "with" the evidence.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this sentence because they do not convey the required meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The detective remained suspicious of the suspect's alibi, as it was inconsistent with the evidence."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "of" is incorrect because "inconsistent of" is not a valid phrase in English.
• Option 3: "to" is incorrect because "inconsistent to" is not the correct preposition in this context.
• Option 4: "in" is incorrect because it does not convey the required meaning here.

The correct answer is: Assay.

Key Points

• The word "Assay" means to examine or analyze something in order to determine its quality, nature, or components. (जांच या विश्लेषण करना)
• Example: The scientist assayed the metal sample to determine its purity.
• The word "Assert" means to confidently state or declare something as a fact. (दावा करना)
• Example: She asserted her innocence during the investigation.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitute for “To examine or analyze something to determine its quality, nature, or components” is 'Assay'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Assay.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Assert (दावा करना): To confidently state or declare something as a fact.
• Example: The lawyer asserted that his client was innocent.
• Assist (सहायता करना): To help or support someone in achieving something.
• Example: The nurse assisted the doctor during the surgery.
• Argue (विवाद करना): To express disagreement or debate on a topic.
• Example: They argued about the best way to solve the problem.

The correct answer is 'the'.

 

Key Points

• The article "the" is used when we refer to something specific or definite.
• In this case, "handler" refers to a specific handler responsible for Raveena's luggage, so "the" is the appropriate article.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect or do not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Raveena's plane landed on time, and she collected her luggage from the handler quickly."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "an" is incorrect because "an" is used before words starting with a vowel sound, which is not applicable here.
• Option 2: "No article required" is incorrect because the sentence refers to a specific handler.
• Option 4: "a" is incorrect because "a" is used for non-specific or indefinite references, which does not apply in this context.

The correct answer is: Guffaw.

Key Points

• The word "Guffaw" refers to a loud and boisterous laugh, often unrestrained or hearty. (जोर से हंसना)
• Example: The comedian's joke caused the entire audience to erupt into a guffaw.
• "Snicker" refers to a quiet or suppressed laugh, often expressing amusement or mockery. (दबी हुई हंसी)
• Example: The students snickered when the teacher mispronounced a word.
• "Giggle" means to laugh lightly or nervously, often in a high-pitched tone. (दबी हुई और हल्की हं���ी)
• Example: The children began to giggle as the clown performed a funny trick.
• "Chuckle" refers to a quiet or gentle laugh, often expressing mild amusement. (हल्की हंसी)
• Example: He chuckled at the irony of the situation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Guffaw.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Snicker (दबी हुई हंसी): A quiet, suppressed laugh often indicating amusement or ridicule.
• Example: They couldn't help but snicker at the teacher's unintentional joke.
• Giggle (हल्की और दबी हुई हंसी): A light, high-pitched laugh, often out of nervousness or amusement.
• Example: The little girl started to giggle when she saw the magician's trick.
• Chuckle (हल्की हंसी): A soft, suppressed laugh showing mild amusement.
• Example: The father chuckled at his son's clever response.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes Helsinki, a city in Finland, and its connection to national happiness and nature access.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces Helsinki and its role as a starting or ending point for many trips:
• "Helsinki, where many trips begin or end, offers a glimpse into Finland's national contentment."
• Sentence A follows as it provides details about the city's geography and beauty:
• "This coastal city is built on a scenic mix of islands, reclaimed land and natural beauty."
• Sentence D is next as it highlights activities visitors can enjoy in Helsinki:
• "Visitors can easily rent a bike and explore forest trails or seaside routes across the city."
• Sentence C concludes the paragraph by connecting the joy derived from these activities to Finland’s happiness rankings:
• "The joy from this freedom and nature access aligns with the UN's happiness measures like longevity, liberty and well-being."
• The correct sequence is BADC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Helsinki, where many trips begin or end, offers a glimpse into Finland's national contentment. This coastal city is built on a scenic mix of islands, reclaimed land and natural beauty. Visitors can easily rent a bike and explore forest trails or seaside routes across the city. The joy from this freedom and nature access aligns with the UN's happiness measures like longevity, liberty and well-being."

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "The quality of something can be judged after you have tried it."

Key Points

• The proverb "The proof of the pudding is in the eating" means that the value or quality of something can only be judged by putting it into action or experiencing it. (किसी चीज़ की गुणवत्ता को उसके इस्तेमाल के बाद ही समझा जा सकता है।)
• Example: You may think this new recipe is great, but the proof of the pudding is in the eating—let’s taste it first!
• Explanation of the Correct Answer: The phrase emphasizes that the effectiveness or success of something is determined only after actually using or testing it. (सही उत्तर यह समझाता है कि किसी चीज़ की उपयोगिता या सफलता को केवल प्रयोग करके ही परखा जा सकता है।)
• Example: You can’t be sure the software works until you actually use it. The proof of the pudding is in the eating.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Time feels longer when you're waiting for something to happen. (जब आप किसी चीज़ का इंतजार कर रहे होते हैं तो समय लंबा लगता है।)
• Example: Waiting for a train can make 10 minutes feel like an hour!
• Option 3: Don't assume success before it actually happens. (सफलता के होने से पहले उसे मान लेना ठीक नहीं।)
• Example: Don’t count your chickens before they hatch.
• Option 4: The most noticeable or loudest problems get attention. (जो समस्या सबसे अधिक ध्यान आकर्षित करती है, उसे प्राथमिकता मिलती है।)
• Example: The squeaky wheel gets the grease.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with the idea of imagining yourself as a fly, as introduced in sentence 1.
• Sentence C comes first because it describes the fly's activity of zipping around the sky looking for a place to rest:
• "You are just zipping around the sky, looking for a place to rest."
• Sentence A follows as it introduces the sight of a pink leaf that catches the fly's attention:
• "And then you see a nice pink leaf."
• Sentence D comes next as it shares the fly's thought process upon seeing the leaf:
• "That looks like a nice place to land."
• Sentence B concludes the sequence by describing the fly's internal monologue in its "fly head":
• "You think to yourself in your fly head."
• The correct sequence is CADB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Imagine that you are a fly. You are just zipping around the sky, looking for a place to rest. And then you see a nice pink leaf. That looks like a nice place to land. You think to yourself in your fly head. As you rest your feet on the leaf, you notice something strange."

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Gourmund'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Gourmand'.
• The word 'Gourmand' is a noun which means 'a person who enjoys eating and often eats too much'. (भोजन का शौकीन)
• For Example -
• He was a true gourmand, savoring every dish with delight.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Gourmund'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Reprimand - a formal expression of disapproval (फटकार)
• Forewarned - to inform someone of a danger or possible problem in advance (पहले से चेतावनी देना)
• Apprehend - to arrest someone for a crime or to understand something (गिरफ्तार करना / समझना)

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "downsize" means to reduce the size, amount, or scope of something. It is often used in a business context to refer to reducing the number of employees or the scale of operations to cut costs. (छोटा करना)
• Example: The company decided to downsize its workforce to remain competitive in the market.
• "Amplify" refers to increasing the size, volume, or intensity of something, which is the opposite of reducing or downsizing. (बढ़ाना)
• Example: The speaker used a microphone to amplify his voice during the presentation.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'downsize' is 'amplify.'

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Reduce (कम करना): To make something smaller in size, amount, or degree.
• Example: The company aims to reduce its carbon footprint by 50% by 2030.
• Enhance (बढ़ाना): To improve the quality, amount, or strength of something.
• Example: The new software update will enhance the performance of the system.
• Overlap (ओवरलैप करना): To cover part of the same area of interest, responsibility, or time.
• Example: The two events overlap, making it difficult to attend both.

The correct answer is 'spent our holiday in France; it was very crowded.'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1 is correctly punctuated, as the semicolon separates two closely related independent clauses ("spent our holiday in France" and "it was very crowded").
• Option 2 lacks punctuation, making the sentence unclear.
• Option 3 incorrectly uses commas, which do not appropriately separate the ideas.
• Option 4 uses a colon, which is less appropriate in this context than a semicolon.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "Rahim, Rajam, and I spent our holiday in France; it was very crowded."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "spent our holiday in France it was very crowded" is incorrect because it lacks punctuation between the two independent clauses.
• Option 3: "spent our holiday, in France, it was very crowded" is incorrect due to unnecessary commas disrupting the sentence flow.
• Option 4: "spent our holiday in France: it was very crowded" is incorrect because a colon is not the best choice for separating these clauses.

The correct answer is ''for'.'

 

Key Points

• The correct phrase is "take for granted," which means to not appreciate something because it is normal or familiar.
• None of the other options ("so," "to," "as") are grammatically or idiomatically correct in this context.
• 'For' is the preposition that completes the idiom accurately.

Therefore, the correct answer is ''Option 2'.'

 

Usage in the Passage: Imagine a world without books, newspapers, magazines and all the other printed material we take for granted today.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. had.

Key Points

• The word “had” is the past tense of “have,” meaning to possess or own something. (है/थे/थी/था - होना)
• Example: She had a red bicycle when she was a child.
• In the passage, the sentence is: "People (2) ........... none of these things before Johann Gutenberg of Strasbourg invented the printing press." The correct verb here is “had” to indicate possession in the past.
• Hence, “People had none of these things...” is grammatically correct and meaningful. (लोगों के पास ये चीजें नहीं थीं...)

Therefore, the correct answer is: had.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• from (से): Used to indicate the point in space or time at which a journey, motion, or action starts.
• Example: He came from Delhi. (वह दिल्ली से आया।)
• Not suitable for this blank, as it does not convey possession.
• in (में): Used to indicate location or position within something.
• Example: The keys are in my bag. (चाबियाँ मेरे बैग में हैं।)
• Not suitable here, as “in” does not fit the context of possession.
• at (पर): Used to indicate a specific place or time.
• Example: She is at the door. (वह दरवाजे पर है।)
• Not suitable for indicating possession in this context.

The correct answer is ''till'.'

 

Key Points

• The sentence is: "People (2) ........... none of these things (3) .............Johann Gutenberg of Strasbourg invented the printing press."
• The correct conjunction here should indicate the time up to the invention of the printing press.
• 'Till' means 'up to the time of,' which fits the context perfectly.
• Other options do not fit grammatically or contextually ("during," "while," "have").

Therefore, the correct answer is ''Option 2'.'

 

Usage in the Passage: People ... none of these things till Johann Gutenberg of Strasbourg invented the printing press.

The correct answer is ''was'.'

 

Key Points

• The complete sentence is: "The Gutenberg Press (4) ........... the first printing press of Europe."
• The verb "was" correctly links the subject "The Gutenberg Press" to the complement "the first printing press of Europe."
• Other options ("had," "for," "to") do not fit grammatically or contextually in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is ''Option 3'.'

 

Usage in the Passage: The Gutenberg Press was the first printing press of Europe.

The correct answer is ''by'.'

 

Key Points

• The complete sentence is: "It was invented (5) ............... Johannes Gutenberg."
• The correct preposition to indicate the inventor or creator of something in the passive voice is "by."
• Other options ("if," "before," "after") do not fit grammatically or contextually in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is ''Option 2'.'

 

Usage in the Passage: It was invented by Johannes Gutenberg.

The correct answer is 8 Union Territories, 3 with Legislative Assemblies.

Key Points

• As of 2025, India has 8 Union Territories, following the reorganization of Jammu & Kashmir in October 2019.
• Three Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies: Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir.
• Union Territories are administrative divisions directly governed by the Central Government under the President of India.
• Delhi and Puducherry were granted Legislative Assemblies under special provisions of the Constitution to facilitate limited self-governance.
• Jammu & Kashmir was reorganized as a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly after the abrogation of Article 370 in 2019.

Additional Information

• Union Territories in India
• Union Territories are administrative divisions governed directly by the Central Government.
• Under Article 239 of the Constitution, the President of India administers Union Territories through appointed administrators.
• While most Union Territories are governed directly by the Central Government, Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir have been granted Legislative Assemblies, allowing limited self-governance.
• The reorganization of Jammu & Kashmir in 2019 was a landmark event, creating two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir (with a Legislative Assembly) and Ladakh (without a Legislative Assembly).

The correct answer is 130th.

Key Points

• India's rank in the Human Development Index (HDI) as per the 2025 United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) report is 130th.
• The HDI is a composite index that measures average achievement in three critical areas of human development: health (life expectancy), education (mean and expected years of schooling), and income (gross national income per capita).
• India's HDI score highlights improvements in education, healthcare, and income levels, but also underlines persistent challenges such as inequality, regional disparities, and gender gaps.
• The HDI ranking is crucial to assess the socio-economic progress of nations and to identify areas requiring policy intervention for sustainable and inclusive development.
• India's performance in 2025 reflects continued efforts in addressing poverty, boosting literacy, and improving healthcare infrastructure, but more efforts are needed to enhance overall human development outcomes.

Additional Information

• Human Development Index (HDI)
• The HDI, introduced by the UNDP in 1990, measures a country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions.
• The index is categorized into four tiers: Very High, High, Medium, and Low human development.
• Indicators include life expectancy, mean years of schooling, expected years of schooling, and gross national income (GNI) per capita.
• HDI complements indices like the Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI) and the Gender Development Index (GDI) to provide a broader understanding of development.
• India’s 130th rank emphasizes the need for sustainable growth policies to improve quality of life and reduce inequality.

The correct answer is Only i and ii.

Key Points

• Unit Banking: It refers to a banking system where operations are conducted through a single branch or office. This model is typically used in rural or remote areas to meet localized financial needs.
• Chain Banking: In this system, multiple banks are controlled by a single person or group, without any formal consolidation. The controlling entity has significant influence over the operations of the banks.
• The above two definitions (Unit Banking and Chain Banking) are correct as per the context of the Indian banking system and align with established banking concepts.
• Branch Banking Statement (iii) is incorrect: Branch banking involves a system where banks operate through multiple branches across different locations, contrary to the statement that it operates through only one office.
• The correct answer is Option 4 (Only i and ii) as these statements accurately reflect the definitions of Unit and Chain Banking.

Additional Information

• Unit Banking:
• It is a simple and localized banking system where a single branch caters to the needs of a specific area.
• It is prevalent in countries like the United States and is useful for providing personalized services.
• However, it has limitations in terms of diversification and is vulnerable during economic downturns.
• Chain Banking:
• Unlike mergers, chain banking involves control of multiple banks by a single entity or group without formal consolidation.
• This model is criticized for its lack of transparency and potential for monopolistic practices.
• Branch Banking:
• Branch banking is the most dominant system in India, where banks operate through multiple branches across various regions.
• It offers benefits like service diversification, better risk management, and enhanced customer convenience.
• Examples include the State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, and private banks like HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank.
• Banking System in India:
• The Indian banking system relies predominantly on branch banking due to its ability to serve a large and diverse population.
• Unit and Chain Banking are not commonly practiced in India but are significant in theoretical and historical contexts.

The correct answer is Bihar and Jharkhand.

Key Points

• The Chero chiefdoms emerged in the area corresponding to present-day Bihar and Jharkhand during the twelfth century.
• The Cheros were a prominent tribal group known for their resistance against external invasions, including the Mughal Empire in later periods.
• They played a significant role in shaping the socio-political landscape of eastern India during medieval times.
• The region inhabited by the Cheros is historically significant for its tribal culture, resistance movements, and contributions to regional history.
• The Cheros, along with other tribal groups, were known for their unique governance systems and cultural practices during this period.

Additional Information

• Tribal Chiefdoms in Medieval India
• The Cheros and other tribal groups contributed significantly to the regional development and historical legacy of India.
• These tribal societies often resisted external invasions and maintained distinct governance systems and cultural identities.
• Tribal chiefdoms like the Cheros were integral to the socio-political and cultural fabric of medieval India.

The correct answer is Repo Rate.

Key Points

• The Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks to manage liquidity needs.
• It is a tool under Monetary Policy, which is managed by the RBI, and not part of Fiscal Policy.
• Monetary Policy tools like Repo Rate help regulate inflation and control the money supply in the economy.
• Changes in the Repo Rate directly impact borrowing costs, influencing consumer spending and investment activity.
• Unlike Fiscal Policy, which deals with government revenue and expenditure, the Repo Rate focuses on stabilizing the economy through monetary measures.

Additional Information

• Government Receipts
• Government Receipts include revenues collected through taxes such as income tax, GST, and non-tax revenues like dividends from public enterprises.
• They are categorized into Revenue Receipts (e.g., taxes, interest income) and Capital Receipts (e.g., loans, disinvestment).
• These funds are used to meet public expenditure and manage fiscal deficits, forming a key component of Fiscal Policy.
• Government Expenditure
• Government Expenditure refers to the spending by the government on various sectors like health, education, infrastructure, defense, and subsidies.
• It is divided into Revenue Expenditure (e.g., salaries, pensions) and Capital Expenditure (e.g., infrastructure development).
• Fiscal Policy utilizes government expenditure to stimulate economic growth, reduce unemployment, and meet development goals.
• Public Debt
• Public Debt refers to the borrowing undertaken by the government to finance its fiscal deficit.
• It is classified into Internal Debt (borrowings from domestic sources) and External Debt (borrowings from foreign entities).
• Managing public debt is a crucial aspect of Fiscal Policy, ensuring sustainable economic growth without excessive debt burden.
• Fiscal Policy
• Fiscal Policy is the use of government revenue and expenditure to influence the economy.
• Its objectives include achieving economic growth, price stability, employment generation, and equitable distribution of income.
• It does not involve tools like Repo Rate, which fall under Monetary Policy.

The correct answer is Qutb-ud-din Aibak.

Key Points

• Qutb-ud-din Aibak founded the Delhi Sultanate in 1206 AD.
• He was a former slave and general of Muhammad Ghori.
• He established the Mamluk (Slave) Dynasty, the first dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.

Additional Information

• Alauddin Khalji:
• Belonged to the Khalji Dynasty.
• Known for market control reforms and price regulations.
• Expanded the Sultanate deep into South India.
• Iltutmish:
• Consolidated the Delhi Sultanate after Aibak’s death.
• Introduced the Iqta system in an organized manner.
• Completed the Qutub Minar construction.
• Balban:
• Followed a policy of strong centralized monarchy.
• Introduced Persian court traditions like Sijda and Paibos.
• Focused on suppressing internal revolts and nobles.

The correct answer is Thar Desert.

Key Points

• The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, lies in the northwestern part of India, primarily in Rajasthan, and extends to parts of Gujarat, Punjab, and Haryana.
• It has an arid climate characterized by extremely hot daytime temperatures during summer, often exceeding 50°C, while nights are comparatively cooler.
• Rainfall is scarce in the region, ranging between 100 to 150 mm annually, making it one of the driest areas in India.
• The Thar Desert is dominated by sand dunes shaped by strong winds and sparse vegetation, including thorny bushes and drought-resistant plants adapted to the harsh climate.
• It is home to unique biodiversity, such as desert foxes, camels, reptiles, and birds like the Great Indian Bustard.

Additional Information

• Northern Plains:
• The Northern Plains are located in the northern part of India and are formed by the deposition of sediments brought by rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and Brahmaputra.
• They experience a humid subtropical climate with hot summers, cold winters, and monsoon rains between June and September.
• The region is highly fertile and supports dense populations due to its agricultural productivity.
• Major crops cultivated in this region include wheat, rice, sugarcane, and pulses.
• Eastern India:
• Eastern India comprises states like West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand, and the northeastern states.
• This region experiences a tropical monsoon climate with high rainfall, particularly in areas like Meghalaya, which is one of the wettest places on Earth.
• It is characterized by diverse flora and fauna, including mangrove forests in Sundarbans and tea plantations in Assam.
• The Brahmaputra River plays a significant role in agriculture and transportation in this region.
• Central Deccan Plateau:
• The Deccan Plateau spans southern India, including states like Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
• It has a semi-arid to tropical wet and dry climate depending on the location.
• The plateau is rich in black soil and is known for cotton cultivation, as well as crops like millet and pulses.
• It is surrounded by the Eastern and Western Ghats and is home to rivers like Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011 data on overall sex ratio (females per 1000 males):
• Gujarat recorded a decline in its sex ratio, falling from 920 in the 2001 Census to 918 in the 2011 Census.
• The other two major states that showed a decline were Jammu and Kashmir and Bihar.

Additional Information

• Punjab:
• Punjab's sex ratio improved from 876 in 2001 to 895 in 2011.
• Haryana:
• Haryana's sex ratio also improved from 861 in 2001 to 879 in 2011.
• Kerala:
• Kerala, which consistently has the highest sex ratio, also saw an increase from 1058 in 2001 to 1084 in 2011.

Important Points

• Census 2011 findings: 
• Total Population: 1.21 billion (approx.)
• Decadal Growth (2001-2011): 17.7%
• Population Density: 382 persons per sq km
• Sex Ratio: 940 females per 1000 males
• Child Sex Ratio (0-6 yrs): 914 females per 1000 males
• Literacy Rate: 74.04% (Males: 82.14%, Females: 65.46%)

The correct answer is CAG can take a government job after retirement.

Key Points

• As per Article 148(4) of the Constitution of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is prohibited from taking up any government job after retirement.
• This provision ensures the independence and impartiality of the CAG during their tenure, preventing any post-retirement incentives from influencing their decisions.
• The CAG’s role is critical in auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments, ensuring financial accountability and transparency.
• The prohibition of government employment after retirement is a safeguard to maintain the credibility and fairness of the CAG’s position.
• The CAG serves for a term of six years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, as per constitutional provisions.

Additional Information

• CAG's administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India:
• According to Article 148(6) of the Constitution, the administrative expenses of the CAG, including salaries, allowances, and pensions, are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• This mechanism ensures financial independence for the CAG, protecting them from executive interference.
• CAG is appointed by the President of India:
• The appointment of the CAG is made by the President under Article 148(1) of the Constitution.
• This process ensures that the CAG’s position is selected at the highest level, reflecting its importance in governance and accountability.
• CAG is removed like a Supreme Court judge:
• The removal process of the CAG is similar to that of a Supreme Court judge as per Article 148(3).
• It requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament and is only allowed on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity.
• This ensures the security of tenure and independence of the CAG from undue political influence.
• Comptroller and Auditor General of India:
• The CAG is an independent authority responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments.
• It plays a vital role in maintaining financial discipline, ensuring transparency in the government’s financial operations.
• The office of the CAG is considered a cornerstone of India’s democratic accountability framework.

The correct answer is Watershed.

Key Points

• A watershed is a geographical area that channels rainfall and streams into a common outlet, such as a river, lake, or ocean.
• The boundary line separating one drainage basin from another is termed a "watershed boundary" or "drainage divide."
• Watersheds play a vital role in hydrological systems by managing water flow and maintaining ecosystems within their boundaries.
• They can vary greatly in size, ranging from small areas draining into a stream to large regions draining into major rivers or oceans.
• Watersheds are essential in water conservation, flood control, agriculture, and ecosystem sustainability.

Additional Information

• Catchment Area:
• The catchment area refers to the land area from which water is collected and drained into a specific water body, such as a river, lake, or reservoir.
• It is often used interchangeably with "watershed," but the term "catchment area" is more commonly associated with water resource management and planning.
• The concept of the catchment area is critical for designing dams, reservoirs, and irrigation systems.
• River Basin:
• A river basin is a larger geographical area drained by a main river and its tributaries.
• River basins include multiple watersheds and are used for large-scale water resource management.
• Famous examples include the Amazon Basin, Ganga Basin, and Nile Basin.
• River basins are important for managing transboundary water resources and addressing regional water-related challenges.
• Tributary Divide:
• A tributary divide refers to the boundary line separating two tributaries of the same river.
• It is a smaller division compared to watersheds or river basins.
• This term is less frequently used in hydrological studies and is more specific to local geographical contexts.
• Understanding tributary divides is useful for localized water management and land-use planning.

The correct answer is Extensive government control over industry entry and production.

Key Points

• The License Raj period in India (1947–1991) was characterized by strict government control over industrial entry, production, and capacity expansion.
• A complex licensing system was introduced, requiring businesses to obtain permits for almost every aspect of their operations, including starting new industries, expanding production, and importing/exporting goods.
• The policy aimed to ensure state control over the economy and promote self-reliance, aligning with the socialist economic principles adopted by India after independence.
• During this time, private enterprises faced numerous bureaucratic hurdles, such as delays in approvals and excessive paperwork, which led to inefficiencies and corruption.
• The License Raj system was dismantled in 1991 during India's economic liberalization reforms, which promoted privatization, deregulation, and foreign investment.

Additional Information

• Key Pillars of Economic Reforms:
• Liberalisation: Abolished industrial licensing for most sectors, removed restrictions on expansion, and eased technology imports.
• Privatisation: Reduced the government's dominant role in industries, shifting focus to key public sectors like defense, and encouraged private participation.
• Globalization: Lowered import tariffs, promoted exports, allowed automatic approval for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in many areas, and encouraged international capital flow.

The correct answer is Samudragupta.

Key Points

• Samudragupta is called the “Napoleon of India” due to his extensive military campaigns.
• His conquests are detailed in the Allahabad Pillar Inscription composed by Harisena.
• He followed a policy of digvijaya (conquest in all directions).

Additional Information

• Chandragupta I:
• Founder of the Gupta imperial power.
• Assumed the title Maharajadhiraja.
• His reign marked the beginning of the Gupta Era (320 AD).
• Chandragupta II:
• Known by the title Vikramaditya.
• Defeated the Shaka Kshatrapas of Western India.
• Period associated with cultural and economic prosperity.
• Skandagupta:
• Known for repelling Hun invasions.
• Last powerful ruler of the Gupta dynasty.
• His reign marked the beginning of Gupta decline.

The correct answer is Sandy soils and shallow black soils.

Key Points

• Bajra (Pearl Millet) is a drought-resistant crop that thrives in regions with low and erratic rainfall, high temperatures, and dry conditions.
• Sandy soils and shallow black soils are ideal for bajra cultivation due to their ability to retain moisture and ensure adequate drainage, which is essential for the crop's growth.
• These soil types are predominantly found in arid and semi-arid regions of India, such as Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and parts of Haryana, where bajra is extensively cultivated.
• Bajra requires soils that allow proper root penetration, as it has a deep root system capable of extracting nutrients and water from lower soil layers.
• The crop is highly adaptable to poor and infertile soils, making sandy and shallow black soils an optimal choice for cultivation.

Additional Information

• Laterite soils of coastal Karnataka
• Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminum but are generally poor in fertility due to heavy leaching caused by high rainfall.
• These soils are better suited for crops like cashew, coffee, and tea but are not suitable for bajra cultivation, which requires well-drained soils with moderate fertility.
• Heavy clay and peaty soils
• Heavy clay soils retain excessive water, making them unsuitable for bajra, which prefers well-drained soils.
• Peaty soils, rich in organic matter and found in waterlogged areas, do not support bajra cultivation as the crop thrives in dry, arid conditions.
• Saline soils of the Rann of Kachchh
• Saline soils have high salt content, which hinders the growth of most crops, including bajra.
• These soils are more suited for salt-tolerant crops like barley and certain grasses, rather than bajra.
• Overview of Bajra Cultivation
• Bajra is predominantly grown in Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana.
• It is a staple food crop in many parts of India and is valued for its high nutritional content, including protein, fiber, and essential minerals.
• The crop's ability to withstand harsh climatic conditions makes it an essential cereal for regions with poor agricultural infrastructure.

The correct answer is Anti-defection Law.

Key Points

• The 10th Schedule deals with the Anti-defection Law.
• It was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
• It aims to prevent political defections by legislators for personal gain.

Additional Information

• Representation of States in Rajya Sabha:
• Covered under Articles 80 and 81 of the Constitution.
• Members are elected by elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.
• Allocation is based on population.
• Distribution of Revenues:
• Dealt with in Articles 268 to 281.
• Includes Finance Commission recommendations.
• Concerns sharing of tax and non-tax revenues between Centre and States.
• Emergency Provisions:
• Provided under Articles 352 to 360.
• Includes National, State, and Financial Emergency.
• Can alter Centre–State relations during emergencies.

The correct answer is Sixth Schedule.

Key Points

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in the northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• It establishes Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) to facilitate self-governance and protect the rights, culture, and traditions of the tribal communities.
• The District and Regional Councils under the Sixth Schedule are empowered to legislate on specific subjects such as land management, agriculture, forest conservation, village administration, and social customs.
• These councils have the authority to manage resources, levy taxes, regulate trade, and oversee development activities within their jurisdiction.
• Introduced to ensure the preservation of tribal autonomy, the Sixth Schedule safeguards the distinct identities and traditions of tribal populations while promoting their socio-economic development.

Additional Information

• Fifth Schedule
• The Fifth Schedule pertains to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• It mandates the establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council in states with Scheduled Areas to advise on matters related to tribal welfare and development.
• The President of India is empowered to declare, modify, or revoke Scheduled Areas through notifications.
• It aims to protect the tribal communities' rights over land, forests, and resources in these regions.
• Fourth Schedule
• The Fourth Schedule deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to various states and Union Territories.
• This allocation is based on the population of each state and is revised periodically to reflect demographic changes.
• It ensures proportional representation of states and Union Territories in the Upper House of Parliament.
• Third Schedule
• The Third Schedule contains the forms of oaths and affirmations to be taken by individuals assuming constitutional offices.
• It includes oaths for the President, Vice President, Ministers, Members of Parliament, Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and other constitutional positions.
• These oaths emphasize allegiance to the Constitution and the commitment to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.

The correct answer is attempting to create a common political platform representing the entire nation.

Key Points

• INC aimed to unite people across regions, religions, and communities under a single political forum.
• It marked the transition from local/regional associations to a national movement.
• The party provided a platform to voice political demands to the British government collectively.

Additional Information

• Foundation:
• The INC was founded on December 28, 1885, in Bombay (now Mumbai) by a retired British civil servant, Allan Octavian Hume, and a group of educated Indian leaders.
• The first session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee and attended by 72 delegates.
• Initial Objectives:
• The early INC aimed to provide a platform for civic and political dialogue between educated Indians and the British Raj, focusing on moderate constitutional and administrative reforms within the British Empire.
• Freedom Struggle:
• Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi from the 1920s, the Congress transformed into a mass movement, adopting policies of non-violent non-cooperation and civil disobedience.
• It was the principal leader of the Indian independence movement, notably through the Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, and Quit India movements.
• Purna Swaraj:
• At the Lahore session in 1929, the INC, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, declared "Purna Swaraj" (complete independence) as its ultimate goal.

The correct answer is He propagated spiritual nationalism through the Ramakrishna Mission.

Key Points

• Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to combine spiritual and social service.
• He emphasized spiritual nationalism, linking India’s revival with moral and cultural strength.
• Promoted education, health care, and upliftment of the poor as part of spiritual reform.

Additional Information

• Swami Vivekananda & Ramakrishna Mission:
• Founder & Inspiration: Founded by Swami Vivekananda (Narendranath Datta) after his spiritual awakening under Sri Ramakrishna; it's named after his master.
• Core Philosophy (Practical Vedanta): Applying spiritual ideals (oneness of God, harmony of religions) to daily life, emphasizing self-realization and service.
• Motto: "Atmano Mokshartham Jagaddhitaya Cha" (For one's own liberation and for the good of the world).
• Key Activities: Running schools, hospitals, rural development centers, and massive relief work (famine, flood, cyclone).
• So cial Reform: Fought untouchability, superstition, and promoted education, women's empowerment, and humanism.

The correct answer is Bahadur Shah II.

Key Points

• Bahadur Shah II, also known as Bahadur Shah Zafar, was the last Mughal emperor and was proclaimed the symbolic leader of the 1857 revolt.
• His leadership symbolized a unifying force for Indian soldiers and civilians during the rebellion against British rule.
• The 1857 revolt began on May 10, 1857, in Meerut, and Bahadur Shah II was declared the leader when the rebels reached Delhi.
• Though largely ceremonial, his leadership made Delhi the epicenter of the revolt and rallied rebel forces around him.
• After the revolt failed, Bahadur Shah II was captured by the British, tried, and exiled to Rangoon, Myanmar, where he died in 1862.

Additional Information

• Nana Sahib:
• Nana Sahib was one of the key leaders of the 1857 revolt, leading the rebellion in Kanpur.
• He was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II and aimed to restore the Maratha empire against British rule.
• His forces initially succeeded but were eventually defeated, and his whereabouts after the revolt remain unknown.
• Rani Lakshmibai:
• Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi was an iconic figure in the 1857 revolt, known for her bravery and leadership.
• She opposed the British policy of annexation under the Doctrine of Lapse and fought valiantly to protect her kingdom.
• She died in battle on June 18, 1858, becoming a symbol of resistance and patriotism in Indian history.
• Tantia Tope:
• Tantia Tope was a close associate of Nana Sahib and a prominent leader in the 1857 revolt.
• He was known for his guerrilla warfare tactics against British forces in Central India.
• Despite his strategic brilliance, he was eventually captured and executed by the British in April 1859.
• Overview of the 1857 Revolt:
• The 1857 revolt, also called the First War of Indian Independence, was triggered by widespread discontent against British policies such as economic exploitation, cultural interference, and military grievances.
• It began as a mutiny by Indian soldiers (sepoys) but grew into a larger rebellion involving civilian leaders, landlords, and peasants.
• Major battles occurred in Delhi, Kanpur, Lucknow, Jhansi, and Central India, but the revolt ultimately failed due to lack of coordination and resources.
• Despite its failure, the revolt laid the foundation for organized nationalist movements in India.

The correct answer is To respect the Constitution, National Flag, and National Anthem.

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
• One of these duties includes respecting the Constitution, the National Flag, and the National Anthem, promoting unity and national integrity among citizens.
• This duty serves as a moral obligation for every Indian citizen to uphold the honor and dignity of national symbols.
• Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution to encourage civic responsibility and strengthen the democratic framework of India.
• While these duties are not legally enforceable, they play a crucial role in instilling a sense of patriotism and responsibility in citizens.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties
• Fundamental Duties were inspired by the Constitution of the USSR and introduced in India through the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
• Article 51A outlines 11 Fundamental Duties aimed at fostering civic sense, patriotism, and national integrity among citizens.
• These duties complement Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy, ensuring a balanced approach to governance.
• While non-enforceable, Fundamental Duties act as guiding principles for citizens to contribute to the nation's development and well-being.

The correct answer is To accept deposits and provide loans.

Key Points

• Commercial banks are financial institutions whose primary function is to accept deposits from individuals, businesses, and organizations.
• They provide loans and credit facilities to meet the financial needs of individuals, businesses, and governments for purposes such as personal consumption, business expansion, and infrastructural development.
• By channeling savings into productive investments, commercial banks play a critical role in promoting economic growth and development.
• They also provide interest on certain types of deposits, incentivizing individuals and businesses to save money securely.
• Examples of commercial banks include public sector banks like State Bank of India (SBI), private sector banks like HDFC Bank, and multinational banks like Citibank.

Additional Information

• Functions of Commercial Banks
• Commercial banks aim to generate profit while offering essential banking services to the public.
• In addition to accepting deposits and providing loans, they perform secondary functions such as payment processing, foreign exchange services, and wealth management.
• These banks are integral to the financial system, ensuring efficient utilization of resources and fostering overall economic stability.