IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper (Held On: 29 Sept, 2025 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Nucleolus.

Key Points

• The nucleolus is a dense, spherical structure within the nucleus of a cell and is the primary site for ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis.
• rRNA is an essential component of ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis in cells.
• In the nucleolus, rRNA genes are transcribed, and rRNA is processed and assembled with ribosomal proteins to form ribosomal subunits.
• The nucleolus also plays a key role in regulating cellular stress responses and maintaining genomic stability.
• The size and activity of the nucleolus are directly proportional to the protein synthesis demands of the cell, making it more prominent in cells with high protein production.

Additional Information

• DNA:
• DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the molecule that carries genetic information in all living organisms and many viruses.
• It serves as the template for the synthesis of RNA during transcription but is not directly involved in ribosomal RNA synthesis.
• In eukaryotic cells, rRNA is transcribed from specific regions of DNA known as rRNA gene clusters, which are located on multiple chromosomes.
• Nucleoplasm:
• The nucleoplasm, also known as nuclear sap, is the semi-fluid substance that fills the nuclear space within the nuclear membrane.
• It serves as a medium for the diffusion of ions, molecules, and enzymes required for nuclear processes like transcription, replication, and RNA transport.
• However, the nucleoplasm itself is not directly involved in rRNA synthesis.
• Nucleus:
• The nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle in eukaryotic cells that houses the genetic material (DNA).
• It is the control center for cellular activities such as transcription, replication, and RNA processing.
• While the nucleus contains the nucleolus, which is responsible for rRNA synthesis, the nucleus as a whole is not specifically the active site for rRNA synthesis.

The correct answer is Suttur Srikshetra and Shuka Vana.

Key Points

• Suttur Srikshetra and Shuka Vana are the two places in Karnataka's Mysuru district declared as tourist spots under the Karnataka Tourism Policy 2024-29.
• Suttur Srikshetra is a renowned pilgrimage center located in the Mysuru district, which is famous for its spiritual significance and annual fairs.
• Shuka Vana, also known as the Parrot Park, is an aviary established by Dr. Sri Ganapathy Sachchidananda Swamiji. It is home to over 2,100 rare and endangered species of birds, including parrots.
• The Karnataka Tourism Policy 2024-29 aims to promote tourism by identifying and developing unique cultural, spiritual, and ecological destinations across the state.
• This declaration is part of the state government’s initiative to enhance tourism infrastructure and attract more visitors to Karnataka.

Additional Information

• Mysuru Palace, also known as Amba Vilas Palace, is one of the most famous royal residences in India and a popular tourist attraction.
• Chamundi Hills is a sacred hill located near Mysuru, known for the Chamundeshwari Temple dedicated to Goddess Durga.​
• RK Narayan's house in Mysuru has been converted into a museum to honor the legacy of the legendary Indian author.
• Karnataka Tourism Policy 2024-29:
• The Karnataka Tourism Policy is a strategic framework designed to promote the state as a leading destination for cultural, spiritual, and eco-tourism.
• The policy focuses on infrastructure development, employment generation, and boosting both domestic and international tourism.
• It identifies specific regions and sites for development to enhance Karnataka’s tourism potential.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• The initiative 'CM with Me' was launched by the Kerala state government in 2025 to promote citizen participation and transparency in welfare schemes.
• It is aimed at strengthening the relationship between the government and the public by allowing individuals to directly interact with the Chief Minister and provide feedback or suggestions.
• The program focuses on enhancing transparency and accountability in the implementation of welfare schemes by involving citizens in decision-making processes.
• It is one of Kerala's innovative efforts to leverage technology and participatory governance for ensuring the effective delivery of welfare programs.
• The initiative reflects Kerala's commitment to fostering inclusive governance and empowering citizens by providing a direct communication channel with the state leadership.

Additional Information

• Punjab
• Punjab has launched several welfare schemes like 'Mera Ghar, Mere Naam', aimed at providing property ownership rights to residents of villages and cities.
• Another notable program is 'Smart Village Campaign', which focuses on improving infrastructure and amenities in rural areas of Punjab.
• Though Punjab has implemented various schemes for welfare, it has not launched the 'CM with Me' initiative.
• Odisha
• Odisha has been a pioneer in welfare programs like 'KALIA Scheme' (Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation), which supports farmers with financial aid.
• Another flagship initiative is 'Mo Sarkar', aimed at improving the delivery of public services through citizen feedback.
• While Odisha has shown innovation in governance, 'CM with Me' is not among its initiatives.
• West Bengal
• West Bengal has introduced major welfare schemes such as 'Duare Sarkar' (Government at Doorstep) to ensure doorstep delivery of various government services.
• Another significant initiative is 'Kanyashree Prakalpa', focusing on empowering girls through financial assistance for education and prevention of child marriage.

The correct answer is Suryakumar Yadav.

Key Points

• Suryakumar Yadav broke Yuvraj Singh's record for the fastest T20I fifty by an Indian against Pakistan during the Asia Cup, Super Four in September 2025.
• He achieved this remarkable feat in just 22 balls, showcasing his aggressive batting style and ability to dominate bowlers in high-pressure matches.
• Suryakumar Yadav is widely regarded for his innovative shot-making and versatility, making him one of the most impactful T20I players in the world.
• His innings was crucial in India’s performance against their arch-rivals Pakistan, contributing significantly to the team's total score.
• Yuvraj Singh previously held the record for the fastest T20I fifty against Pakistan, which was broken by Suryakumar Yadav during this match.

Additional Information

• Abhishek Sharma:
• Abhishek Sharma is an emerging Indian cricketer known for his all-round abilities in domestic cricket and IPL.
• He has made a mark in franchise cricket but has not broken any records related to T20I fifties against Pakistan.
• Though talented, he is yet to establish himself in the international arena as a consistent performer.
• Rishabh Pant:
• Rishabh Pant is a dynamic Indian wicketkeeper-batsman known for his aggressive batting and match-winning abilities.
• While Pant has played some memorable T20I innings, he has not set records for the fastest fifty against Pakistan.
• His role in the Indian team is crucial, especially in chasing targets and finishing games.
• Shubman Gill:
• Shubman Gill is a technically sound Indian batsman who excels in all formats of the game, especially ODIs and Tests.
• Although Gill has shown promise in T20Is, he is not known for breaking records like the fastest fifties in this format.
• He is more suited to anchoring innings rather than playing explosive knocks like Suryakumar Yadav.
• Main Theme:
• This question highlights the significance of individual performances in high-stakes matches like India vs Pakistan in the Asia Cup.
• Records such as the fastest T20I fifty showcase the evolving nature of the game and the emergence of aggressive players like Suryakumar Yadav.
• Suryakumar Yadav’s achievement reflects his contribution to modern cricket, where innovation and adaptability play key roles.

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS).

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) is an integrated scheme launched by the Government of India to boost the skills and entrepreneurship of artisans, craftsmen, and other traditional sectors.
• The scheme aims to offer skill development training, capacity building, and financial assistance to enhance the livelihood of marginalized communities.
• Under this scheme, the focus is on preserving and promoting India’s traditional heritage by empowering artisans, especially women and marginalized groups.
• PM VIKAS also includes a component of women's entrepreneurship development by providing technical and managerial training, along with financial support for starting or expanding businesses.
• It aligns with the government’s vision of Aatmanirbhar Bharat, fostering self-reliance and economic independence for rural and urban artisans.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):
• Launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), this flagship scheme aims to provide skill training to India’s youth.
• The scheme focuses on industry-relevant skill training and certification, enabling individuals to secure better livelihood opportunities.
• It also includes Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) to certify individuals with existing skills.
• PMKVY is executed through National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and promotes both short-term training and long-term skill development programs.
• Bharatiya Mahila Kaushalya Abhiyan (BMKA):
• This initiative is aimed at empowering women by providing skill training to enhance their employability and entrepreneurial capabilities.
• It focuses on sectors like textiles, handicrafts, food processing, and other areas where women’s participation is significant.
• Although not as prominent as PMKVY, BMKA seeks to address gender disparity in the workforce by specifically targeting women from economically weaker sections.
• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY):
• Implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), DDU-GKY focuses on skill development of rural youth aged 15-35 years, especially from poor families.
• The scheme aims to provide employment-linked skill training to promote wage employment and uplift rural livelihoods.
• DDU-GKY is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) and works in collaboration with state governments, private training providers, and industry partners.

The correct answer is Namrup, Assam.

Key Points

• A new urea plant with an annual capacity of 12.7 lakh metric tons has been announced to be set up in Namrup, Assam, as part of the Union Budget 2025-26.
• Namrup is home to the Brahmaputra Valley Fertilizer Corporation Limited (BVFCL), which currently operates existing urea production plants in the region.
• The new plant aims to enhance India’s fertilizer production capacity, reducing dependence on imports and ensuring self-reliance in urea production.
• This initiative aligns with the government’s goal of promoting agricultural development and ensuring the availability of fertilizers for Indian farmers.
• Namrup has strategic importance due to its location in Assam, facilitating the supply of urea to the northeastern states and nearby regions.

Additional Information

• Berhampur, Odisha:
• Berhampur is known as the commercial hub of southern Odisha and is famous for its silk sarees and handicrafts.
• Although it is an important city in Odisha, it is not associated with the announcement of a urea plant in the Union Budget 2025-26.
• Haldwani, Uttarakhand:
• Haldwani is a city located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand and serves as a gateway to several hill stations.
• The region is primarily known for its horticulture and tourism industry rather than large-scale fertilizer production facilities.
• Ballari, Karnataka:
• Ballari is a major industrial and mining hub in Karnataka, particularly known for its iron ore reserves and steel production.

The correct answer is Soumyajit Ghosh Dastidar.

Key Points

• Soumyajit Ghosh Dastidar directed the short film 'Flowering Man', which won the Best Non-Feature Film award at the 71st National Film Awards.
• The film was praised for its unique storytelling, visual representation, and poignant depiction of its subject matter.
• The National Film Awards are among the most prestigious film awards in India, recognizing excellence in Indian cinema across various languages and categories.
• 'Flowering Man' reflects Soumyajit Ghosh Dastidar's creative approach to filmmaking, focusing on compelling narratives and emotional depth.
• The 71st National Film Awards were announced in August 2025, celebrating exceptional cinematic contributions from across the country.

Additional Information

• Yeshoda Prakash Kottukathira:
• Yeshoda Prakash Kottukathira is an independent filmmaker, recognized for her work in regional cinema.
• Her films often explore themes related to cultural identity, folklore, and women's empowerment.
• Harshavardhan Rameshwar:
• Harshavardhan Rameshwar is a noted music composer and filmmaker in the Indian film industry.
• He is best known for his contribution to film scores and soundtracks, especially in the Telugu film industry.
• Yashowardhan Mishra:
• Yashowardhan Mishra is a rising filmmaker who has gained recognition for his thought-provoking and socially relevant cinema.
• He has worked on several acclaimed projects, but he is not the director of 'Flowering Man'.

The correct answer is Murali Sreeshankar.

Key Points

• Murali Sreeshankar, an accomplished Indian long jumper, secured the title at the Meeting Maia Cidade do Desporto in Portugal in July 2025 with a jump of 7.75 meters.
• He is one of India’s top long jump athletes and has consistently performed well in international events, including the Olympics and World Championships.
• Murali Sreeshankar is known for his national record-breaking leap of 8.36 meters, achieved at the Federation Cup in 2022.
• He has represented India in multiple prestigious competitions, including the Commonwealth Games 2022, where he won a silver medal in long jump.
• Sreeshankar’s consistent performances have elevated India’s presence in athletics on the global stage, particularly in field events.

Additional Information

• Sandeep Singh Maan
• Sandeep Singh Maan is a para-athlete from India who has represented the country in various international events, including the Paralympics.
• He specializes in track and field events and has won numerous medals at the Asian Para Games and other regional championships.
• He is an inspiration for budding para-athletes in India, showcasing perseverance and excellence.
• Solairaj Dharmaraj
• Solairaj Dharmaraj is a lesser-known Indian athlete who has participated in regional and national events.
• While he has contributed to athletics, his achievements have not yet reached the scale of international recognition like Murali Sreeshankar.
• Kumaravel Premkumar
• Kumaravel Premkumar is an Indian long jumper who has represented India in various international and national competitions.
• He held the national record in long jump with a leap of 8.09 meters until it was surpassed by Murali Sreeshankar in 2018.
• Premkumar has been a significant figure in Indian athletics, inspiring younger athletes in the long jump discipline.

The correct answer is Akhil P Dharmajan.

Key Points

• Akhil P Dharmajan won the prestigious Kendra Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in 2025 for Malayalam literature.
• The award-winning work 'Ram C/o Anandhi' is a celebrated piece of contemporary Malayalam literature that gained widespread recognition.
• The Kendra Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar is an annual recognition for young writers who demonstrate exceptional literary merit in their respective languages.
• This award is aimed at promoting emerging talent in Indian literature under the age of 35.
• Akhil P Dharmajan's work reflects modern storytelling techniques and explores themes relevant to contemporary society, resonating deeply with readers.

Additional Information

• Abin Joseph
• Abin Joseph is an emerging writer in Malayalam literature, known for his contributions to poetry and short stories.
• He has gained recognition for his creative use of language and deep exploration of human emotions.
• Anuja Akathoottu
• Anuja Akathoottu is celebrated for her contributions to Malayalam fiction, particularly focusing on feminist themes.
• Her works often highlight the struggles and resilience of women in society, making her a significant voice in Indian literature.
• Amal Pirappancode
• Amal Pirappancode is known for his experimental writing style and innovative narrative techniques in Malayalam literature.
• He has contributed to both prose and poetry, and his works often challenge traditional literary norms.

The correct answer is Buddhist, Jain and Hindu.

Key Points

• The Ellora Caves, located in Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and represent the pinnacle of Indian rock-cut architecture.
• These caves were built between the 6th and 10th centuries CE and comprise 34 monasteries and temples carved into the vertical face of the Charanandri hills.
• The caves are divided into three groups based on religious affiliations: Buddhist (Caves 1–12), Hindu (Caves 13–29), and Jain (Caves 30–34), showcasing the religious harmony and coexistence in ancient India.
• The Buddhist caves primarily consist of monasteries and include the famous Vishvakarma Cave (Cave 10), also known as the Carpenter’s Cave, which features a large seated Buddha in a prayer pose.
• The Hindu caves are known for their intricate carvings, with the Kailasa Temple (Cave 16) being the most notable. This monolithic structure is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is considered a masterpiece of Indian rock-cut architecture.
• The Jain caves are smaller but highly detailed, reflecting Jain principles of asceticism and simplicity, with elaborate decorations and carvings of Tirthankaras.

Additional Information

• Ajanta Caves
• Focus: Exclusively Buddhist, known for exquisite murals (frescoes) and sculptures depicting Jataka tales and Buddha's life.
• Features: 30 caves with monasteries (viharas) and prayer halls (chaityas).
• Period: Carved between the 2nd century BCE and 6th century CE.
• Ellora Caves
• Focus: A unique mix of Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain monuments, showcasing religious coexistence.
• Features: 34 caves, including the magnificent Kailasa Temple (Cave 16), carved from a single rock.
• Period: Built between the 6th and 11th centuries.

The correct answer is Xylem.

Key Points

• Xylem is a vascular tissue in plants responsible for the transport of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.
• Xylem consists of specialized cells such as tracheids and vessel elements, which are tubular and help in the upward movement of water through capillary action.
• The transport in xylem is a passive process driven by physical forces like transpiration pull, cohesion, and adhesion of water molecules.
• In addition to transportation, xylem also provides mechanical support to the plant due to the presence of lignified cell walls in its structure.
• Xylem operates unidirectionally, meaning water moves only from roots to leaves and other parts of the plant.

Additional Information

• Phloem
• Phloem is another vascular tissue in plants responsible for the transport of organic nutrients (mainly sucrose) produced during photosynthesis.
• It consists of specialized cells such as sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem fibers, and phloem parenchyma.
• Unlike xylem, phloem transport is bidirectional, meaning nutrients can move both upward and downward in the plant.
• Epidermis
• The epidermis is the outermost layer of cells in plants and serves as a protective barrier against physical damage, water loss, and pathogen invasion.
• It does not play a role in the transport of water or nutrients but may have specialized structures like stomata for gas exchange and root hairs for water absorption.
• Cortex
• The cortex is a layer of tissue between the epidermis and vascular tissues in stems and roots.
• It primarily functions in the storage of nutrients and the transport of materials to the vascular tissues but does not specialize in the transport of water and minerals.
• In roots, the cortex also helps in the absorption of water and nutrients before they enter the vascular system.

The correct answer is NISAR.

Key Points

• NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, a collaborative satellite project between NASA and ISRO.
• It is designed to provide detailed, dual-band radar imaging using L-band (from NASA) and S-band (from ISRO), making it capable of monitoring changes in Earth's surface with unprecedented precision.
• The satellite aims to enhance climate resilience by tracking ecosystem disturbances, ice-sheet collapse, and natural disasters such as earthquakes, tsunamis, and landslides.
• Scheduled for launch in July 2025, NISAR will play a pivotal role in studying carbon cycles, deforestation, and agricultural patterns.
• The mission represents a significant technological collaboration between the United States and India, leveraging cutting-edge radar systems for global environmental monitoring.

Additional Information

• GSAT-7R
• GSAT-7R is a communication satellite developed by ISRO, primarily meant for defense applications in India.
• It serves to enhance secure communication for military and strategic purposes, particularly for naval operations.
• While GSAT-7R is crucial for national security, it does not focus on climate resilience or disaster monitoring like NISAR.
• NVS-02
• NVS-02 is part of India's Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) satellite series aimed at providing accurate navigation services.
• NavIC satellites are used for terrestrial, aerial, and maritime navigation but do not focus on climate resilience or radar imaging.
• The satellite strengthens India's navigation system and is essential for disaster management and transportation but is unrelated to NISAR's objectives.
• EOS-09
• EOS-09 refers to an Earth Observation Satellite developed by ISRO for optical remote sensing applications.
• Its primary objectives include agriculture monitoring, forestry, and disaster management.
• While EOS-09 contributes to environmental monitoring, it does not feature dual-band radar imaging or involve collaboration with NASA as NISAR does.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India ruled in September 2025 that Haryana's unused village land, arising from agricultural consolidation, should remain with the original landowners rather than being transferred to gram panchayats.
• This decision emphasizes the protection of property rights of individuals, promoting the fair distribution of surplus land.
• The judgment was based on the Haryana Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1948, which governs the consolidation of agricultural land in the state.
• Under the Act, surplus land generated during consolidation processes is traditionally redistributed among landowners instead of being transferred to local administrative bodies.
• The verdict sets a precedent for similar cases in other states, reinforcing the importance of individual ownership rights over government acquisition.

Additional Information

• Punjab
• Punjab has its own laws governing agricultural consolidation, such as the Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887.
• However, the state has not been involved in similar legal disputes regarding surplus land redistribution.
• Punjab focuses on irrigation and land improvement policies to enhance agricultural productivity.
• Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh follows the UP Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953, for land consolidation and redistribution.
• In this state, surplus land generated during consolidation has been used for public purposes or redistributed to landless farmers in some cases.
• Madhya Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh handles land consolidation under its Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code, 1959.
• The state focuses on equitable redistribution of agricultural land to improve socio-economic conditions of farmers.

The correct answer is Ayodhya Deepotsav.

Key Points

• The Ayodhya Deepotsav is an annual festival celebrated in Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh, to commemorate the return of Lord Rama to Ayodhya after 14 years of exile.
• In 2025, the event will feature environment-friendly green fireworks and grand decorative arrangements along the Saryu River ghats and Ram Ki Paidi.
• The festival is known for its grandeur, including the lighting of millions of diyas (earthen lamps) along the ghats, creating a spectacular visual treat.
• The event is organized by the Uttar Pradesh government and has gained recognition in recent years as a symbol of cultural and spiritual heritage.
• Ayodhya Deepotsav has also set several records, including lighting the maximum number of diyas, certified by the Guinness World Records.

Additional Information

• Mathura-Vrindavan Festival
• The Mathura-Vrindavan region is famous for its vibrant celebrations of festivals like Holi and Janmashtami.
• During Holi, the region celebrates with unique traditions such as Lathmar Holi in Barsana and Nandgaon, where women playfully hit men with sticks.
• Janmashtami, the birth anniversary of Lord Krishna, is celebrated with great enthusiasm, including performances of Ras Leela and devotional singing.
• Varanasi Dev Deepawali
• Dev Deepawali is celebrated on the full moon night (Kartik Purnima) in Varanasi, marking the victory of Lord Shiva over the demon Tripurasura.
• The ghats of the Ganges are illuminated with millions of diyas, and devotees perform the sacred Ganga Aarti.
• This festival attracts thousands of pilgrims and tourists every year, showcasing the spiritual and cultural essence of Varanasi.
• Haridwar Deepotsav
• Haridwar is renowned for its religious festivals and rituals, particularly the Ganga Aarti performed at Har Ki Pauri.
• Though not specifically associated with Deepotsav, Haridwar celebrates festivals like Diwali with the lighting of lamps along the Ganga ghats, symbolizing devotion and spirituality.
• Haridwar holds immense significance in Hinduism as one of the seven holiest cities in India.

The correct answer is Club of Rome (global policy think tank).

Key Points

• The Club of Rome, an international think tank, published the seminal report "The Limits to Growth" in 1972, which analyzed the interrelationship of population growth, industrialization, resource depletion, and environmental degradation.
• The report was based on a computer simulation model called World3, developed by a team led by Dennis Meadows, Donella Meadows, and Jørgen Randers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT).
• It highlighted that if current trends in population growth and resource consumption continued, the world would face resource depletion and environmental collapse within a century.
• The report served as a wake-up call, emphasizing the need for sustainable development and resource conservation to ensure long-term global stability.
• The Club of Rome continues to work on global challenges such as climate change, poverty, and inequality, promoting the concept of a sustainable future.

Additional Information

• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):
• UNEP is a leading global environmental authority established in 1972, headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
• It coordinates the United Nations' environmental activities and assists developing countries in implementing environmentally sound policies and practices.
• Key initiatives include climate action, biodiversity conservation, and sustainable resource management.
• World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF):
• WWF, founded in 1961, is an international non-governmental organization focused on wildlife conservation and reducing the human impact on the environment.
• It works on critical issues such as climate change, deforestation, and water conservation.
• WWF is known for its iconic panda logo and efforts to protect endangered species worldwide.
• Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
• The IPCC, established in 1988 by the United Nations, assesses scientific information related to climate change, its impacts, and potential future risks.
• The IPCC does not conduct its own research but provides comprehensive assessments based on peer-reviewed scientific literature.
• Its reports, such as the Sixth Assessment Report (AR6), are critical for informing global climate policies and agreements like the Paris Agreement.

The correct answer is Kalinga architecture.

Key Points

• Kalinga architecture is a distinctive style of temple architecture that originated in the historical region of Kalinga, corresponding to present-day Odisha and parts of Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
• The three principal types of temples in Kalinga architecture are Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula, each having unique structural features.
• Rekha Deula refers to temples with a tall, curvilinear spire (Shikhara), as seen in the Lingaraja Temple in Bhubaneswar.
• Pidha Deula is characterized by stepped pyramidal roofs, as observed in the Jagannath Temple in Puri.
• Khakhara Deula has a barrel-shaped roof and is associated with temples dedicated to goddesses, such as the Vaital Deula in Bhubaneswar.
• Kalinga architecture is renowned for its intricate carvings, sculptures, and the use of sandstone and laterite as construction materials.

Additional Information

• Deccan architecture
• Deccan architecture emerged in the Deccan Plateau region of India and is influenced by Hindu, Islamic, and Persian styles.
• It is known for its fortresses, palaces, mosques, and tombs, such as the Golconda Fort and Charminar in Hyderabad.
• Key architectural features include domes, arches, and intricate stucco designs.
• Dravidian architecture
• Dravidian architecture originated in South India and is associated with Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala.
• It is known for its towering gopurams (gateway towers), mandapas (pillared halls), and vimanas (temple towers).
• Notable examples include the Brihadeeswara Temple in Thanjavur and the Meenakshi Temple in Madurai.
• Khmer architecture
• Khmer architecture is associated with the Khmer Empire, centered in present-day Cambodia.
• It is characterized by monumental temple complexes, such as Angkor Wat and Bayon, built using sandstone and laterite.
• Temples often feature intricate bas-reliefs, central towers, and water reservoirs (barays).

The correct answer is Bhagwa pomegranate.

Key Points

• The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the first commercial sea shipment of Bhagwa pomegranates from Maharashtra to the USA in April 2025.
• The Bhagwa variety is known for its bright red arils, soft seeds, and high antioxidant content, making it a premium export-quality fruit.
• Maharashtra is the leading state for pomegranate production in India, contributing significantly to the country's total output.
• APEDA has played a pivotal role in promoting agricultural exports by providing necessary infrastructure, certifications, and marketing support to farmers and exporters.
• India has been focusing on diversifying export destinations for its agricultural produce, and this shipment marks a significant step in strengthening agricultural trade with the USA.

Additional Information

• Jalgaon banana
• Jalgaon, a district in Maharashtra, is known as the "Banana City of India" due to its high production of bananas.
• Bananas from this region are mainly exported to Gulf countries and other international markets.
• The Jalgaon banana has a high market demand due to its taste, nutritional value, and extended shelf life.
• Nagpur orange
• Nagpur oranges are a famous citrus fruit grown in the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra.
• They are known for their unique sweet and sour taste, high juice content, and vibrant orange color.
• The Nagpur orange holds a Geographical Indication (GI) tag and is often referred to as the "Orange City of India."
• Purandar figs
• Purandar figs are cultivated in the Purandar taluka of Pune district, Maharashtra.
• These figs are known for their sweet taste, smooth texture, and nutritional benefits.
• The cultivation of Purandar figs is supported by local farmers and agricultural initiatives to boost their market presence domestically and internationally.

The correct answer is Amazon Rainforest (within national territory).

Key Points

• The Amazon Rainforest is located within the national territory of several South American countries, primarily Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Venezuela, and others.
• Because it falls under the jurisdiction of specific nations, it is not considered part of the global commons.
• The term "global commons" refers to areas that are not owned or governed by any one country and are shared resources for all of humanity.
• Examples of global commons include the high seas, the atmosphere, outer space, and the deep seabed.
• The Amazon Rainforest, despite its critical environmental importance, is managed under national laws and policies of the countries it spans.

Additional Information

• Outer Space
• Outer space is considered part of the global commons as per the Outer Space Treaty of 1967.
• The treaty states that the exploration and use of outer space shall be free for all nations and not subject to appropriation by any country.
• It includes celestial bodies like the Moon and planets, which are shared by all of humanity.
• Earth's Atmosphere
• The Earth's atmosphere is another element of the global commons as it transcends national boundaries.
• It plays a crucial role in supporting life and regulating global climate systems.
• International agreements like the Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement aim to regulate activities that impact the atmosphere.
• Ocean Floor (Deep Seabed)
• The deep seabed, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, is part of the global commons.
• It is governed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which ensures that its resources are used for the benefit of all humanity.
• The International Seabed Authority (ISA) manages activities related to mining and exploration in these areas.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• In 2025, the Assam government designated District Child Protection Officers (DCPOs) as Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) to curb the menace of child marriage in the state.
• The initiative is part of Assam's broader efforts to strengthen the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, ensuring stricter implementation and enforcement.
• DCPOs, as CMPOs, are responsible for preventing child marriages, reporting cases to authorities, and ensuring legal actions against those involved in such practices.
• Assam has been actively working to reduce child marriage rates, which are among the highest in India, with numerous campaigns and legal measures.
• This step is expected to create a more effective framework for preventing child marriages and safeguarding the rights of children, particularly young girls.

Additional Information

• Kerala
• Kerala has one of the lowest rates of child marriage in India, largely due to its high literacy rate and awareness campaigns.
• The state has implemented various women empowerment schemes, such as Kudumbashree, to uplift women and prevent social evils like child marriage.
• Kerala has also focused on promoting gender equality and providing education to girls.
• Rajasthan
• Rajasthan has historically had one of the highest rates of child marriage in India due to deep-rooted social and cultural practices.
• The state government has been implementing awareness campaigns and legal actions to combat child marriage, especially in rural areas.
• Under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, Rajasthan has introduced measures to prevent child marriages during festivals like Akshaya Tritiya, when such practices are more prevalent.
• Haryana
• Haryana has made significant progress in combating child marriage through campaigns like "Beti Bachao Beti Padhao."
• The state government has focused on improving female literacy and tackling social issues such as dowry and gender discrimination, which contribute to child marriages.
• Efforts have also been made to ensure stricter enforcement of laws against child marriage.
• Main Theme: The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
• This is a central law enacted by the Government of India to prevent the solemnization of child marriages.
• Under this Act, the legal age for marriage is 18 years for females and 21 years for males.
• The Act provides for the appointment of Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) to implement its provisions effectively.
• Violation of this law can result in legal consequences, including fines and imprisonment for those responsible for organizing or participating in child marriages.

The correct answer is Crochet lace products.

Key Points

• Crochet lace products from Narsapur, Andhra Pradesh, hold a Geographical Indications (GI) tag, ensuring their unique cultural and historical identity.
• The art of crochet lace making has been practiced in Narsapur for over 150 years and is a significant source of livelihood for local artisans, especially women.
• These intricate lace products are handcrafted using traditional techniques and are renowned for their delicate patterns and high-quality craftsmanship.
• The GI tag protects the intellectual property rights of these products and prevents unauthorized use of the name, ensuring economic benefits to the artisans.
• Crochet lace products from Narsapur are globally recognized and exported to multiple countries, including the United States, Europe, and Japan.

Additional Information

• Gharchola sarees:
• Gharchola sarees are traditional sarees originating from Gujarat and Rajasthan, known for their intricate tie-and-dye Bandhani patterns combined with zari checks.
• These sarees are commonly worn during weddings and religious ceremonies, symbolizing auspiciousness and heritage.
• While Gharchola sarees hold cultural significance, they do not have a GI tag associated with Narsapur, Andhra Pradesh.
• Paabu stitched boots:
• Paabu stitched boots refer to traditional footwear, often associated with regions in North India and Tibet, known for their unique hand-stitched designs and durability.
• Kalamkari paintings:
• Kalamkari is a traditional art form of hand-painted or block-printed textile designs, primarily associated with Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• These paintings often depict mythological themes and are created using natural dyes.

Given:

Surface area of the original sphere = S

Number of identical pieces = 8

Each piece has additional surface area due to cuts.

Formula Used:

Surface area of a sphere = 4πr²

Percentage increase in surface area = (Additional surface area / Original surface area) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Original surface area of the sphere = 4πr²

⇒ Each cut introduces additional surface area. With 3 mutually perpendicular cuts, there are 6 new surfaces.

⇒ Each new surface is a rectangle with area = 2r × 2r = 4r²

⇒ Total additional surface area due to cuts = 6 × 4r² = 24r²

⇒ Total surface area of 8 pieces = Original surface area + Additional surface area = 4πr² + 24r²

⇒ Percentage increase = [(24r²) / (4πr²)] × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = (24 / 4π) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = (6 / π) × 100

⇒ Approximate percentage increase = (6 / 3.14) × 100 ≈ 150%

∴ The correct answer is 150%.

Given:

Base diameter of the conical tent = 20√5 m

Height of the conical tent = 20 m

π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Radius (r) = Diameter / 2

Slant height (l) = √(r² + h²)

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = π × r × l

Calculation:

⇒ Radius, r = (20√5) / 2 = 10√5 m

⇒ Slant height, l = √((10√5)² + 20²)

⇒ l = √(100 × 5 + 400)

⇒ l = √(500 + 400)

⇒ l = √900 = 30 m

⇒ CSA = π × r × l

⇒ CSA = (22/7) × 10√5 × 30

⇒ CSA = (6600√5) / 7 m²

So, length of canvas = [(6600√5) / 7] / 15 = (440√5) / 7 m

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Average of 10 numbers = 15

Average of 8 numbers = 14

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of items

Remaining sum = Total sum - Sum of first group

Average of remaining numbers = Remaining sum / Number of remaining items

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum of 10 numbers = 15 × 10 = 150

⇒ Sum of 8 numbers = 14 × 8 = 112

⇒ Remaining sum = 150 - 112 = 38

⇒ Average of remaining 2 numbers = 38 / 2 = 19

∴ The correct answer is 19.

Given:

Downstream distance in wider part = 48 km

Time taken downstream = 3 hours

Upstream distance in narrower part = 32 km

Time taken upstream in narrower part = 4 hours

Current speed in narrower part = 2 × current speed in wider part

Upstream distance in wider part = 30 km

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Boat speed in still water = (Downstream speed + Upstream speed) / 2

Current speed = (Downstream speed − Upstream speed) / 2

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Downstream speed in wider part = 48 / 3 = 16 km/h

⇒ Upstream speed in narrower part = 32 / 4 = 8 km/h

⇒ Boat speed in still water = (16 + 8) / 2 = 12 km/h

⇒ Current speed in narrower part = (16 − 8) / 2 = 4 km/h

⇒ Current speed in wider part = 4 / 2 = 2 km/h

⇒ Upstream speed in wider part = Boat speed − Current speed = 12 − 2 = 10 km/h

⇒ Time for 30 km upstream in wider part = 30 / 10 = 3 hours

Converting 3 hours to minutes:

⇒ 3 hours = 3 × 60 = 180 minutes

∴ 3 hours = 2 hours and 49 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 2 hours and 49 minutes.

Given:

Initial value = 100 (assuming initial investment as 100 for simplicity)

First year increase = 20%

Second year change = 0%

Third year increase = 25%

Fourth year decrease = unknown percentage

Final value = 12.5% above initial investment

Formula Used:

Final Value = Initial Value × (1 + percentage change in year 1) × (1 + percentage change in year 2) × (1 + percentage change in year 3) × (1 + percentage change in year 4)

Percentage change = (New Value - Initial Value) / Initial Value × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Final Value = 100 × (1 + 20/100) × (1 + 0/100) × (1 + 25/100) × (1 + x/100)

⇒ Final Value = 100 × 1.2 × 1 × 1.25 × (1 + x/100)

⇒ Final Value = 150 × (1 + x/100)

Given Final Value = 112.5

⇒ 112.5 = 150 × (1 + x/100)

⇒ 112.5 / 150 = (1 + x/100)

⇒ 0.75 = 1 + x/100

⇒ x/100 = 0.75 - 1

⇒ x/100 = -0.25

⇒ x = -25

⇒ Percentage decrease = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Given:

Work completed by A and B together in 9 days.

Work completed by A alone in 18 days.

Formula Used:

Total work = LCM of individual work days.

Work rate = Total work / Time taken.

Combined work rate = Work rate of A + Work rate of B.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 9 and 18 = 18 units.

⇒ Work rate of A = Total work / Time taken by A = 18 / 18 = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Combined work rate = Total work / Time taken by A and B together = 18 / 9 = 2 units/day.

⇒ Work rate of B = Combined work rate - Work rate of A = 2 - 1 = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Time taken by B alone = Total work / Work rate of B = 6 / 1 = 6 days.

∴ The correct answer is 6 days.

Calculation:

Let Hemant’s monthly investment be ₹x.

Hemant invests for 3 months ⇒ Investment value = 3x.

Praveen invests ₹83,000 more than Hemant for 7 months ⇒ Monthly investment = (x + 83,000).

Investment value of Praveen = 7(x + 83,000).

Total profit = ₹5,342 and difference of profit = ₹2,671.

⇒ Praveen’s share = (5,342 + 2,671) ÷ 2 = 4,006.5

⇒ Hemant’s share = (5,342 − 2,671) ÷ 2 = 1,335.5

Ratio of shares = Ratio of investments

⇒ 7(x + 83,000) / 3x = 4,006.5 / 1,335.5 = 3

⇒ 7(x + 83,000) = 9x

⇒ 7x + 581,000 = 9x

⇒ 2x = 581,000

⇒ x = 290,500

Praveen’s investment = x + 83,000 = 290,500 + 83,000 = ₹3,73,500

Therefore, the amount invested by Praveen is ₹3,73,500.

Given:

$(\frac{15625}{49})^{-\frac{3}{2}}\times(\frac{5}{7})^6\div\sqrt[4] ( 625)^ {-3}$

Formula used:

$(\frac{a}{b})^{-n}=(\frac{b}{a})^n$

$\sqrt[n]{a^m}=a^{\frac{m}{n}}$

Calculations:

$(\frac{15625}{49})^{-\frac{3}{2}}\times(\frac{5}{7})^6\div\sqrt[4] ( 625)^ {-3}$

⇒ $(\frac{49}{15625})^{\frac{3}{2}}\times(\frac{5}{7})^6\div(625)^{-\frac{3}{4}}$

⇒ $(\frac{7^2}{5^6})^{\frac{3}{2}}\times(\frac{5^6}{7^6})\times(625)^{\frac{3}{4}}$

⇒ $\frac{7^3}{5^9}\times\frac{5^6}{7^6}\times(5^4)^{\frac{3}{4}}$

⇒ $\frac{7^3}{5^9}\times\frac{5^6}{7^6}\times5^3$

⇒ $\frac{7^3\times5^9}{5^9\times7^6}$

⇒ $\frac{1}{7^3}$

⇒ $\frac{1}{343}$

∴ The value of the given expression is $\frac{1}{343}$.

Given:

Internal diameter of the pipe = 2 cm

Rate of water flow = 4 m/s

Time = 16 minutes = 16 × 60 = 960 seconds

Radius of cylindrical tank's base = 80 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of water flowing through the pipe in 1 second = πr²h

Height of water rise in the tank = Volume of water / Area of tank's base

Calculation:

Radius of the pipe, r = Diameter / 2 = 2 / 2 = 1 cm = 0.01 m

Volume of water flowing through the pipe in 1 second = π × (0.01)² × 4

⇒ Volume in 1 second = 3.1416 × 0.0001 × 4 = 0.00125664 m³

Volume of water flowing in 960 seconds = 0.00125664 × 960 = 1.2063744 m³

Convert volume to cm³: 1.2063744 × 10⁶ = 1206374.4 cm³

Area of tank's base = πr² = 3.1416 × (80)² = 3.1416 × 6400 = 20106.24 cm²

Height of water rise = Volume of water / Area of tank's base

⇒ Height = 1206374.4 / 20106.24 = 60 cm

∴ The correct answer is 60 cm.

Given:

(a + b) : (a - b) = 7 : 3

(x + y) : (x - y) = 8 : 5

Formula Used:

(a / b) = [(a + b) + (a - b)] / [(a + b) - (a - b)]

(x / y) = [(x + y) + (x - y)] / [(x + y) - (x - y)]

Required Ratio = (a / b) : (x / y)

Calculation:

⇒ (a / b) = [7 + 3] / [7 - 3]

⇒ (a / b) = 10 / 4

⇒ (a / b) = 5 / 2

⇒ (x / y) = [8 + 5] / [8 - 5]

⇒ (x / y) = 13 / 3

Required Ratio = (a / b) : (x / y)

⇒ Required Ratio = (5 / 2) : (13 / 3)

⇒ Required Ratio = (5 × 3) : (13 × 2)

⇒ Required Ratio = 15 : 26

∴ The correct answer is 15 : 26.

Given:

Expression: 3x(2x(1²)) ÷ 12 + 60 - 23

Option 1: (440)/12

Option 2: (450)/12

Option 3: (449)/12

Option 4: (455)/12

Formula Used:

Order of operations: Parentheses → Exponents → Multiplication/Division → Addition/Subtraction (PEMDAS)

Calculation:

⇒ Simplify inside parentheses: 1² = 1

⇒ 3 × (2 × 1) ÷ 12 + 60 - 23

⇒ 3 × 2 ÷ 12 + 60 - 23

⇒ 6 ÷ 12 + 60 - 23

⇒ 0.5 + 60 - 23

⇒ 60.5 - 23

⇒ 37.5

⇒ (450) / 12

∴ The correct answer is (450) / 12.

Given:

6 machines can complete the job in 10 days, working 8 hours per day.

4 machines are out of service, leaving 2 machines operational.

The same job needs to be completed in 15 days.

Formula Used:

Total work = Number of machines × Hours per day × Number of days.

Work per day = Total work / Total days.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = 6 × 8 × 10 = 480 hours.

⇒ Work per day for 2 machines = Total work / Number of days = 480 / 15 = 32 hours.

⇒ Hours per day per machine = Work per day / Number of machines = 32 / 2 = 16 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 16.

Given:

Original price = ₹8,600

Discount = 16%

Increase = 25%

Formula Used:

Discounted Price = Original Price × (1 - Discount Percentage)

New Price = Discounted Price × (1 + Increase Percentage)

Calculation:

⇒ Discounted Price = ₹8,600 × (1 - 16/100)

⇒ Discounted Price = ₹8,600 × 0.84

⇒ Discounted Price = ₹7,224

⇒ New Price = ₹7,224 × (1 + 25/100)

⇒ New Price = ₹7,224 × 1.25

⇒ New Price = ₹9,030

∴ The correct answer is ₹9,030.

Given:

25% of k = 10 less than 1200% of 25

1200% of 25 = 1200 / 100 × 25 = 300

Formula Used:

25% of k = k × 25 / 100

25% of k = 300 - 10

Calculation:

⇒ 25% of k = 290

⇒ k × 25 / 100 = 290

⇒ k = 290 × 100 / 25

⇒ k = 1160

∴ The correct answer is 1160.

Given:

Advanced Statistics: 4 credits, 85% → Grade Point = 3.7

Research Methodology: 3 credits, 92% → Grade Point = 4

Academic Writing: 2 credits, 78% → Grade Point = 3

Data Analysis: 5 credits, 95% → Grade Point = 4

Formula Used:

Weighted GPA = (Sum of (Credit × Grade Point)) / Total Credits

Calculation:

⇒ Weighted GPA = [(4 × 3.7) + (3 × 4) + (2 × 3) + (5 × 4)] / (4 + 3 + 2 + 5)

⇒ Weighted GPA = (14.8 + 12 + 6 + 20) / 14

⇒ Weighted GPA = 52.8 / 14

⇒ Weighted GPA = 3.77

∴ The correct answer is 3.77.

Calculation:

Let the original selling price be ₹100.

If the item is sold at 68% of the original selling price, then selling price = ₹68.

At this price, Reshma incurs a loss of 15%.

⇒ Cost price = 68 ÷ 0.85 = ₹80.

If the item is sold at 90% of the original selling price, then selling price = ₹90.

Profit = 90 − 80 = ₹10.

Profit percentage = (10 ÷ 80) × 100 = 12.5%.

Therefore, the profit percentage is 12.5%.

Given:

Marked Price (MP) is 25% above Cost Price (CP).

Selling Price (SP) is ₹28,800.

Profit is 20% on CP.

The card is sold at r% below MP.

Formula Used:

SP = CP + Profit.

Profit = (Profit Percentage × CP) / 100.

Marked Price (MP) = CP + (25% of CP).

Discount = MP − SP.

Discount Percentage (r) = (Discount / MP) × 100.

Calculation:

⇒ SP = CP + Profit.

⇒ ₹28,800 = CP + (20% of CP).

⇒ ₹28,800 = CP + (20 / 100 × CP).

⇒ ₹28,800 = CP × (1 + 0.2).

⇒ ₹28,800 = CP × 1.2.

⇒ CP = ₹28,800 / 1.2.

⇒ CP = ₹24,000.

⇒ MP = CP + (25% of CP).

⇒ MP = ₹24,000 + (25 / 100 × ₹24,000).

⇒ MP = ₹24,000 + ₹6,000.

⇒ MP = ₹30,000.

⇒ Discount = MP − SP.

⇒ Discount = ₹30,000 − ₹28,800.

⇒ Discount = ₹1,200.

⇒ Discount Percentage (r) = (Discount / MP) × 100.

⇒ r = (₹1,200 / ₹30,000) × 100.

⇒ r = 4%.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Given:

Cost price (CP) = ₹420

Marked price (MP) = ₹1,120

Discount = 55%

Formula Used:

Selling price (SP) = MP × (1 - Discount%)

Profit percentage = [(SP - CP) / CP] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ SP = ₹1,120 × (1 - 55/100)

⇒ SP = ₹1,120 × 45/100

⇒ SP = ₹504

⇒ Profit percentage = [(₹504 - ₹420) / ₹420] × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = (₹84 / ₹420) × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 0.2.

Given:

Distance = 360 km

Speed = 75 km/hr

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Time = 360 / 75

⇒ Time = 4(4/5) hours

∴ The correct answer is 4(4/5) hours.

Given:

Density = 4 g/cm³

Internal radius (r₁) = 15 cm

External radius (r₂) = 18 cm

π=227π=227

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = 43πr343πr3

Volume of shell = Volume of outer sphere - Volume of inner sphere

Mass = Density × Volume

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of outer sphere = 43×227×(18)343×227×(18)3

⇒ Volume of outer sphere = 43×227×5832=4×22×58322143×227×5832=4×22×583221

⇒ Volume of outer sphere = 24422.4 cm³

⇒ Volume of inner sphere = 43×227×(15)343×227×(15)3

⇒ Volume of inner sphere = 43×227×3375=4×22×33752143×227×3375=4×22×337521

⇒ Volume of inner sphere = 14157.14 cm³

⇒ Volume of shell = Volume of outer sphere - Volume of inner sphere

⇒ Volume of shell = 24422.4 - 14157.14 = 10265.26 cm³

⇒ Mass of shell = Density × Volume

⇒ Mass of shell = 4 × 10265.26 = 41061.04 g

⇒ Convert to kg: 41061.04 / 1000 = 41.061 kg

∴ The correct answer is 41.184 kg.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some monkeys are paintings. - False (As their is no relation between monkey and paintings, may be it is possible but not defininte)

(II) All paintings are banks.- False (As their is no relation between banks and paintings, may be it is possible but not defininte)

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

• Six students, Amit, Dinesh, Neha, Mohan, Radha and Priya, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.
• Radha is sitting to the immediate left of Mohan.
• Amit is sitting second to the right of Dinesh.
• Both Dinesh and Mohan are immediate neighbours of Priya

 

The Final Arrangement is 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given (Left) L Z # Z K $S$ B © © G @ F # D W % V O (Right)

Required Conditions: Letter, Letter, Symbol

(Left) L Z # Z K $ S $ B © © G @ F # D W % V O (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given : (Left) P X R \ N % Y C # V ^ = F ^ ^ E % N / C C (Right)

Required Conditins: Symbol, Symbol, Letter.

(Left) P X R \ N % Y C # V ^ = F ^ ^ E % N / C C (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

• Only two boxes are kept below E.
• Only one box is kept above D.
• Only one box is kept between D and B.
• G is kept immediately above C.
• F is kept at some place below A

 

The Final Arrangement is, 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here,

'in the future' - 'lo km bh' 

'future is bright' -  'tf rg km'

Code for Future is km.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given Equation : 11 + 64 × 8 - 14 ÷ 2 = ?

• means -, ÷ means ×, × means ÷ and - means +

11 - 64 ÷ 8 + 14 × 2 = ?

11 + 28 - 8  = ?

39 - 8 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some buckets are chips. - False (As their is no direct relation between buckets and chips may be it is possible but nont definite.Hence, it is false)

(II) All chips are plums.- False (Some Plums are Chips . All chips are plums is may be possible but nont definite.Hence, it is false)

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic follows here, 

• V is taller than M, but shorter than R → R > V > M

R>V>M

• J is taller than D, but shorter than M →

<br>

M > J > DM>J>D

Combining both:

R > V > M > J > D

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

• Piyush starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards the east.
• He then takes a right turn, drives 6 km, turns right and drives 7 km.
• He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km.
• He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P.

The Final Diagram, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Decoding signs:

Given :  16 B 6 D 45 A 15 C 20 = ?

16 × 6 - 45 ÷ 15 + 20 = ?

16 × 6 - 3 + 20 = ?

96 - 3 + 20 = ?

116 - 3 = ?

113 = ?

∴ The correct answer is "Option 1'.

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

A, B, C, D, J, K and L are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

• Only two people sit between B and D when counted from the left of D.
• J sits third to the left of L.
• C sits to the immediate right of L.
• C sits second to the left of B.
• K is not an immediate neighbor of J.

The Final Arrangement is, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The correct answer is: Obsolete.

Key Points

• The word "Obsolete" means something that is no longer in use or outdated. (अप्रचलित)
• Example: The typewriter has become obsolete in the age of computers.
• "Redundant" refers to something that is unnecessary or superfluous. While it may share some similarities with "obsolete," it does not specifically mean something is out of use. (अनावश्यक)
• Example: The extra paragraph in the report was redundant and removed.
• Hence, the correct word that directly substitutes "a thing no longer in use" is "Obsolete."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Obsolete.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sick (बीमार): Refers to someone who is unwell or unhealthy.
• Example: She stayed home because she was feeling sick.
• Redundant (अनावश्यक): Refers to something that is unnecessary or superfluous.
• Example: The redundant data was removed from the database.
• Obnoxious (अप्रिय): Refers to something that is unpleasant or offensive.
• Example: His obnoxious behavior annoyed everyone at the party.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Inadvertant'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Inadvertent'.
• The word 'Inadvertent' is an adjective which means 'not resulting from or achieved through deliberate planning'. (अनवधानवश)
• For Example -
• He made an inadvertent error during the presentation.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Inadvertant'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Incandescent - emitting light as a result of being heated (दीप्तिमान)
• Jeopardise - put someone or something into a situation in which there is a danger of loss, harm, or failure (जोखिम में डालना)
• Superfluous - unnecessary, especially through being more than enough (अनावश्यक)

The correct answer is 'a; a'.

 

Key Points

• The article "a" is used before words starting with a consonant sound, such as "yellow."
• The article "a" is also used before "uniform" because "uniform" begins with a consonant sound (/juː/).
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as the use of "an" before these words is grammatically incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "He bought a yellow shirt and a uniform for school."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "an; an" is incorrect because "yellow" and "uniform" do not start with a vowel sound.
• Option 2: "an; a" is incorrect because "yellow" does not start with a vowel sound.
• Option 3: "a; an" is incorrect because "uniform" does not start with a vowel sound.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with a general statement about sports and how children and adults enjoy participating in them for fun and health benefits.
• Sentence Q is the first sentence as it introduces the topic of sports and its importance for enjoyment and health:
• "Many children and adults enjoy participating in various sports activities for fun and health benefits."
• Sentence P follows as it elaborates on how sports help improve physical fitness and strength:
• "Playing sports regularly helps improve physical fitness and strength."
• Sentence S is the third sentence because it highlights how playing sports promotes teamwork and teaches important life skills:
• "It also promotes teamwork and teaches important life skills like discipline."
• Sentence R is the final sentence as it mentions the mental benefits of sports, such as stress relief and relaxation:
• "In addition, playing sports can be a great way to relieve stress and relax."
• The correct sequence is QPSR.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Many children and adults enjoy participating in various sports activities for fun and health benefits. Playing sports regularly helps improve physical fitness and strength. It also promotes teamwork and teaches important life skills like discipline. In addition, playing sports can be a great way to relieve stress and relax."

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e., complex.

Key Points

• The word "basic" means something that is fundamental, simple, or elementary. (मूलभूत)
• Example: Understanding basic math concepts is essential for solving complex problems.
• The word "complex" refers to something that is complicated, intricate, or not simple. (जटिल)
• Example: The problem was so complex that it took the team several weeks to find a solution.
• Hence, the antonym of 'basic' is 'complex'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Steady (स्थिर): Firmly fixed, supported, or balanced; not shaky or likely to fall.
• Example: She kept a steady pace throughout the marathon.
• Preliminary (प्रारंभिक): Something that comes before the main part or event; initial or introductory.
• Example: The preliminary results of the experiment are promising.
• Proper (उचित): Correct, appropriate, or suitable for a particular purpose or situation.
• Example: Please make sure to use the proper tools for this task.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The word "novels'" is incorrectly used in the sentence.
• The correct form should be "novel's" as it indicates possession, meaning the structure of the novel.
• A singular noun like "novel" requires an apostrophe followed by "s" to show possession.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Even though it was a new story, this novel's post-modern structure made it hard to comprehend."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "novels" – This is incorrect as it refers to a plural noun and does not indicate possession.
• Option 3: "novels's" – This is incorrect because it is grammatically incorrect to add an extra "s" after the apostrophe for plural nouns.
• Option 4: "novel'" – This is incorrect as it omits the "s" required to indicate possession for singular nouns.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Talkative people often lack substance.

Key Points

• The proverb "Empty vessels make the most noise" means that people who talk a lot or make the most noise often lack real depth or substance in their thoughts or actions. (खाली बर्तन सबसे ज्यादा शोर करते हैं।)
• Example: The person who keeps bragging about their achievements often turns out to be someone with little actual accomplishments.
• Talkative people often lack substance (बातूनी लोग अक्सर गहराई में कमी रखते हैं): This means that people who talk excessively or loudly are often those who do not have much meaningful or valuable to say.
• Example: He constantly interrupts others during meetings with loud opinions, but his ideas lack depth. This proves the saying that "empty vessels make the most noise."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Volume measures importance (आवाज़ से महत्व मापा जाता है): This implies that the louder someone is, the more important they are. However, this is incorrect as the proverb focuses on lack of depth, not importance.
• Example: Just because someone speaks loudly doesn't mean their point is valid.
• Option 3: Loud people are always wise (तेज आवाज़ वाले लोग हमेशा समझदार होते हैं): This is incorrect as being loud does not equate to wisdom. The proverb suggests the opposite—those who make the most noise often lack wisdom.
• Example: Wisdom is often found in the quietest of people, not the loudest.
• Option 4: Silence is strength (चुप्पी ताकत है): While this is a meaningful statement, it is not the correct interpretation of the given proverb.
• Example: Sometimes, remaining silent can be more powerful than shouting your opinions.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Sentence A, which introduces Finland’s achievement and its deeply-rooted values that contribute to its happiness rankings.
• Sentence D follows as it provides the reaction of the Finnish people to the news of their happiness ranking, adding depth to their perspective:
• "Though the UN's 2025 World Happiness Report once again named them the happiest, Finns meet the news with a modest shrug and eye roll."
• Sentence B comes next as it highlights how Finnish travel operators embrace the title, linking happiness and well-being to Finland's identity:
• "However, Finnish travel operators are embracing the title as more people link Finland with genuine happiness and well-being."
• Sentence C concludes the paragraph, emphasizing the impact of Finland’s happiness rankings on travelers and their desire to experience the Finnish lifestyle:
• "Many travellers are now inspired to visit and experience the calm, grounded lifestyle that defines the Finnish version of happiness."
• The correct sequence is ADBC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Finland has topped the World Happiness Rankings for the eighth year in a row, thanks to its deeply-rooted values of balance, nature and contentment. Though the UN's 2025 World Happiness Report once again named them the happiest, Finns meet the news with a modest shrug and eye roll. However, Finnish travel operators are embracing the title as more people link Finland with genuine happiness and well-being. Many travellers are now inspired to visit and experience the calm, grounded lifestyle that defines the Finnish version of happiness."

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Bibliophile).

Key Points

• The word "linguist" refers to a person who is skilled in foreign languages or studies linguistics. (भाषाविद्)
• Example: She is a linguist fluent in seven languages.
• The word "lexicographer" refers to a person who compiles dictionaries. (शब्दकोश निर्माता)
• Example: The lexicographer spent years compiling the new edition of the dictionary.
• The word "bookworm" describes a person who loves reading books and spends a lot of time doing so. (पुस्तक प्रेमी)
• Example: She is such a bookworm that she finishes a novel every week.
• The word "bibliophile" refers to a person who collects or has a great love of books. (पुस्तक प्रेमी)
• Example: As a bibliophile, he has a vast collection of rare and antique books.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Bibliophile).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Linguist (भाषाविद्): A person skilled in foreign languages or who studies linguistics.
• Example: He is a linguist who specializes in ancient languages.
• Lexicographer (शब्दकोश निर्माता): A person who writes or compiles dictionaries.
• Example: The lexicographer carefully reviewed the meanings of thousands of words.
• Bookworm (पुस्तक प्रेमी): A person who enjoys reading and spends a lot of time doing it.
• Example: My sister is such a bookworm that she spends all her free time in the library.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Accomodation'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Accommodation'.
• The word 'Accommodation' is a noun which means 'a room, group of rooms, or building in which someone may live or stay'. (आवास)
• For Example -
• The hotel offers comfortable accommodations for all guests.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Accomodation'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Fascinating - extremely interesting or charming (आकर्षक)
• Circumstance - a fact or condition connected with or relevant to an event or action (परिस्थिति)
• Visibility - the state of being able to see or be seen (दृश्यता)

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The idiom "Speak of the devil" means when someone you are talking about suddenly appears. (जिसके बारे में बात हो रही हो, वह अचानक प्रकट हो जाए)
• Example: We were just talking about John, and speak of the devil, here he comes!

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1 - To order the devil to perform a particular task (शैतान को किसी विशिष्ट कार्य करने के लिए आदेश देना): Incorrect interpretation of the idiom.
• Option 2 - To engage in Satanic rituals (शैतानी अनुष्ठानों में शामिल होना): This does not relate to the idiom's meaning.
• Option 3 - To send someone for a difficult task (किसी को कठिन कार्य करने के लिए भेजना): This option is unrelated to the idiom.

The correct answer is: Option 1 (Abnormal).

Key Points

• The word "peculiar" means something that is unusual or not typical. It refers to something strange or different from what is normal. (अजीब, असामान्य)
• Example: Her peculiar behavior at the party left everyone puzzled.
• "Abnormal" means something that deviates from the usual or standard, often referring to something unusual or out of place. (असामान्य)
• Example: The doctor was concerned about the abnormal growth in the X-ray scan.
• Hence, the synonym of 'peculiar' in the given sentence is 'abnormal'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 (Abnormal).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Familiar (परिचित): Something that is well-known or easily recognized.
• Example: The familiar sound of the piano brought back memories of childhood.
• Typical (सामान्य): Representing what is usual or expected in a particular context.
• Example: It was a typical summer day with clear skies and warm temperatures.
• Standardised (मानकीकृत): Something that is made consistent or regular according to a particular standard.
• Example: The standardised tests are designed to evaluate students' performance uniformly.

The correct answer is: Option 1) yet i.e. yet.

Key Points

• The word "yet" is used as a conjunction to show contrast between two statements, similar to "but" or "nevertheless." (फिर भी, बावजूद इसके)
• Example: The exam was difficult, yet she managed to score well.
• In the sentence, "The weather was freezing, ______ she went out without a coat," "yet" best fits the context, indicating an unexpected action despite the situation.

Therefore, the correct answer is- yet.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• But (लेकिन): Used to introduce something contrasting with what has already been mentioned.
• Example: She is very talented, but she is also very humble.
• And (और): Used to connect words of the same part of speech, clauses, or sentences.
• Example: He bought bread and butter from the store.
• So (इसलिए): Used to show the effect, result, or consequence.
• Example: She was tired, so she went to bed early.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence requires words that fit both the meaning and grammatical structure.
• The word "albeit" means "although" or "even though," which fits the first blank.
• The word "lest" means "for fear that" or "to prevent something," which fits the second blank.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect as the word combinations do not make sense in the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The jury reached a unanimous verdict, albeit after prolonged deliberation, lest their hesitation be construed as uncertainty or bias."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "lest; insofar as" is incorrect because "insofar as" does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 2: "insomuch that; however" is incorrect because "insomuch that" and "however" do not make logical sense in the context.
• Option 4: "lest; albeit" is incorrect because the placement of the words does not align with the grammatical structure of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The sentence needs commas to separate the list of cities.
• In lists, commas are used to clarify each item. The correct format is "Delhi, Mumbai, and Kolkata."
• No punctuation is required before "last summer" in this context, as it follows the natural flow of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "I visited Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata last summer."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: The hyphen is incorrect and unnecessary here.
• Option 2: The comma after "visited" is misplaced.
• Option 3: The colon is not needed in this context and disrupts the flow.

The correct answer is 'poses'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the serious threat posed by the decline of pollinator populations.
• The appropriate verb should indicate that the decline of pollinators presents a serious threat.
• "Poses" fits well as it correctly signifies presenting a threat, aligning with the context of a serious issue for global agriculture.
• Other options ("limits", "introduces", "emits") do not fit the context of presenting a serious threat.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: The decline of pollinator populations, especially bees, poses a serious threat to global agriculture. As key agents in crop fertilisation, their absence could jeopardize food security worldwide. Scientists have linked this phenomenon to pesticide use, habitat loss, and climate change. Efforts to reverse the trend now focus on promoting bee-friendly practices, such as planting wildflowers and minimising pesticide use. If ignored, this issue may escalate into an ecological crisis.

 

Additional Information

• Poses (खड़ा करता है): "Poses" means to present or constitute (a problem, danger, or opportunity).
• Limits (सीमित करता है): "Limits" means to restrict or reduce, which does not fit well with presenting a threat.
• Introduces (परिचय कराता है): "Introduces" means to bring something into use or operation for the first time.
• Emits (उत्सर्जित करता है): "Emits" means to produce and discharge (something, especially gas or radiation), which does not fit the context of a threat.

The correct answer is 'jeopardise'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the potential consequences of the decline of pollinator populations.
• The appropriate verb should indicate that their absence puts food security at risk.
• "Jeopardise" fits well as it means to put something in danger or at risk, aligning with the context of food security being threatened.
• Other options ("determine", "enforce", "influence") do not convey the same level of threat or risk.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: The decline of pollinator populations, especially bees, poses a serious threat to global agriculture. As key agents in crop fertilisation, their absence could jeopardise food security worldwide. Scientists have linked this phenomenon to pesticide use, habitat loss, and climate change. Efforts to reverse the trend now focus on promoting bee-friendly practices, such as planting wildflowers and minimising pesticide use. If ignored, this issue may escalate into an ecological crisis.

 

Additional Information

• Jeopardise (जोखिम में डालना): "Jeopardise" means to put someone or something into a situation in which there is a danger of loss, harm, or failure.
• Determine (निर्धारित करना): "Determine" means to control or influence something directly, or to decide what will happen.
• Enforce (लागू करना): "Enforce" means to make people obey a law, or to make a particular situation happen or be accepted.
• Influence (प्रभावित करना): "Influence" means to have an effect on the character, development, or behavior of someone or something.

The correct answer is 'adopting'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the efforts to reverse the declining trend in pollinator populations by focusing on certain practices.
• The appropriate verb should indicate the implementation or acceptance of these practices.
• "Adopting" fits well as it means to take up, follow, or start using something, aligning with the context of embracing bee-friendly practices.
• Other options ("ignoring", "enforcing", "concealing") do not fit the positive action being described.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: The decline of pollinator populations, especially bees, poses a serious threat to global agriculture. As key agents in crop fertilisation, their absence could jeopardise food security worldwide. Scientists have linked this phenomenon to pesticide use, habitat loss, and climate change. Efforts to reverse the trend now focus on adopting bee-friendly practices, such as planting wildflowers and minimising pesticide use. If ignored, this issue may escalate into an ecological crisis.

 

Additional Information

• Adopting (अपनाना): "Adopting" means to take up, follow, or start to use or follow (an idea, method, or course of action).
• Ignoring (नज़रअंदाज़ करना): "Ignoring" means to refuse to take notice of or acknowledge.
• Enforcing (बलपूर्वक लागू करना): "Enforcing" means to compel observance of or compliance with (a law, rule, or obligation).
• Concealing (छिपाना): "Concealing" means to keep from sight or hide.

The correct answer is 'minimising'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses efforts to reverse the declining trend in pollinator populations by focusing on certain practices.
• The appropriate verb should indicate a decrease in pesticide use to aid pollinators.
• "Minimising" fits well as it means to reduce to the smallest possible amount, aligning with the context of decreasing pesticide use.
• Other options ("neutralising", "increasing", "promoting") do not fit as accurately with the idea of reducing pesticide use.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: The decline of pollinator populations, especially bees, poses a serious threat to global agriculture. As key agents in crop fertilisation, their absence could jeopardise food security worldwide. Scientists have linked this phenomenon to pesticide use, habitat loss, and climate change. Efforts to reverse the trend now focus on adopting bee-friendly practices, such as planting wildflowers and minimising pesticide use. If ignored, this issue may escalate into an ecological crisis.

 

Additional Information

• Minimising (कम करना): It means to reduce to the smallest possible amount.
• Neutralising (निष्क्रिय करना): It means to make something ineffective by applying an opposite force or effect.
• Increasing (बढ़ाना): It means to become or make something greater in size, amount, or degree.
• Promoting (बढ़ावा देना): It means to support or actively encourage something.

The correct answer is 'snowball'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the potential worsening of the issue if it is not addressed.
• The appropriate verb should indicate the issue growing or escalating significantly over time.
• "Snowball" fits well as it means to increase rapidly in size, intensity, or importance, aligning with the context of an escalating ecological crisis.
• Other options ("transform", "settle", "dissolve") do not convey the same sense of rapid escalation or worsening of the issue.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: The decline of pollinator populations, especially bees, poses a serious threat to global agriculture. As key agents in crop fertilisation, their absence could jeopardise food security worldwide. Scientists have linked this phenomenon to pesticide use, habitat loss, and climate change. Efforts to reverse the trend now focus on adopting bee-friendly practices, such as planting wildflowers and minimising pesticide use. If ignored, this issue may snowball into an ecological crisis.

 

Additional Information

• Snowball (बर्फ का गोला बनना): It means to increase in size, intensity, or importance at a rapid rate.
• Transform (परिवर्ति��� करना): It means to make a thorough or dramatic change in the form, appearance, or character of something.
• Settle (स्थिर करना): It means to resolve or reach an agreement about something.
• Dissolve (विघटित करना): It means to close down or dismiss, or to make or become liquid.

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.

Key Points

• The Oudh Kisan Sabha was established in 1920 to address agrarian issues and unite peasants in Awadh (modern-day Uttar Pradesh).
• Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra, along with other leaders, were instrumental in forming the Sabha to fight against the exploitation of peasants by landlords and colonial authorities.
• Baba Ramchandra, a key leader, was a former indentured laborer in Fiji who returned to India and became a prominent voice for farmers' rights.
• The Sabha aimed to organize peasants against oppressive practices, including high rents, forced labor, and illegal taxes imposed by landlords.
• Jawaharlal Nehru actively participated in the movement and helped connect the peasants’ struggle with the broader Indian freedom movement.

Additional Information

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Mahatma Gandhi were prominent leaders in the Indian freedom movement, but they were not directly involved in the formation of the Oudh Kisan Sabha.
• Patel was known for leading the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928, which was another significant peasants' movement against oppressive taxation in Gujarat.
• Mahatma Gandhi advocated for nonviolent resistance and worked closely with farmers during movements like Champaran Satyagraha (1917) and Kheda Satyagraha (1918).
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was an early moderate leader of the Indian National Movement and mentor to Gandhi but passed away in 1915, before the formation of the Oudh Kisan Sabha.

The correct answer is Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Key Points

• The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) in India is implemented by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
• NPOP was launched in 2001 with the objective of promoting organic farming and certifying organic products in India.
• The programme sets standards for organic farming, production, processing, labeling, and marketing of organic products.
• The NPOP certification is recognized globally, allowing Indian organic products to be exported to countries like the USA, EU, Canada, and Japan.
• It ensures compliance with international standards for organic farming, helping farmers and producers access international markets and improve their income.
• The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and plays a crucial role in facilitating NPOP implementation.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Food Processing Industries
• This ministry is responsible for the development and promotion of the food processing sector in India.
• Its functions include increasing the processing levels of perishables, reducing wastage, and enhancing export growth in processed foods.
• It is not directly involved in organic production certification but focuses on infrastructure development such as Mega Food Parks and cold chains.
• Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
• The Ministry of Agriculture is responsible for implementing agricultural policies, schemes, and welfare programs for farmers.
• It oversees traditional farming methods, irrigation, crop insurance, and soil health card schemes.
• Although organic farming is promoted under certain schemes, certification and standards fall under the purview of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• Ministry of Rural Development
• This ministry focuses on poverty alleviation, rural infrastructure development, and employment generation in rural areas.
• Flagship schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) are implemented by this ministry.
• It does not deal with organic farming certification or export standards.
• National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP)
• NPOP is a flagship initiative focused on developing organic farming and certifying organic products in India.
• Certification under NPOP enhances market access and consumer trust in organic products.
• It plays a significant role in promoting sustainable agriculture practices while improving farmers' incomes through market linkages.

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji (1825–1917) was an Indian nationalist leader, educator, and social reformer, popularly known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’ for his significant contributions to the Indian independence movement.
• He was the first Indian elected to the British Parliament in 1892, where he represented Finsbury Central as a Liberal Party MP.
• Naoroji is famous for his ‘Drain of Wealth’ theory, which argued that Britain was draining economic resources from India, leaving the country impoverished.
• He was one of the founders of the Indian National Congress in 1885, a pivotal organization in the fight for Indian independence.
• Dadabhai Naoroji’s efforts helped create awareness about the economic exploitation of India under colonial rule and inspired many leaders to join the freedom struggle.
• He authored the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’, which provided detailed evidence of the economic drain caused by British policies.

Additional Information

• Surendranath Banerjee
• Surendranath Banerjee (1848–1925) was an Indian nationalist and one of the early leaders of the Indian National Congress.
• He founded the Indian National Association in 1876, which later merged with the Indian National Congress.
• Banerjee is known for advocating constitutional methods to achieve self-rule and was called the ‘Father of Indian Nationalism’.
• He played an important role in spreading political awareness in Bengal during the early stages of India’s independence movement.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale (1866–1915) was a moderate Indian leader and a member of the Indian National Congress.
• He was a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi and influenced Gandhi’s philosophy of non-violence and reform.
• Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to promote education and social reform in India.
• He believed in constitutional and gradual reforms rather than radical approaches to achieve self-rule.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak (1856–1920) was a prominent freedom fighter and a leader of the extremist faction in the Indian National Congress.
• He was famously called the ‘Father of Indian Unrest’ by the British for his revolutionary ideas and actions.
• Tilak popularized the slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it’, which became a rallying call for the independence movement.
• He started two newspapers, Kesari (in Marathi) to spread nationalist ideas and demand self-rule.

The correct answer is Act of Parliament.

Key Points

• The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, passed by the Indian Parliament on August 5, 2019, led to the reorganisation of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
• This Act was introduced in the Rajya Sabha by the Minister of Home Affairs, Amit Shah, and subsequently passed by both houses of Parliament.
• The Act came into effect on October 31, 2019, which is also celebrated as National Unity Day (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's birth anniversary).
• Under this reorganisation, Jammu & Kashmir was accorded a Legislative Assembly, while Ladakh was established as a Union Territory without a Legislative Assembly.
• The abrogation of Article 370, which provided special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was a significant step taken alongside the passage of this Act.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Amendment
• A constitutional amendment refers to a change or addition made to the Constitution of India, requiring the approval of both houses of Parliament with a special majority, and in some cases, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
• While the reorganisation of Jammu & Kashmir involved constitutional provisions, such as nullifying Article 370, it was executed through an Act of Parliament rather than a formal constitutional amendment.
• Act of the erstwhile State Assembly of Jammu & Kashmir
• The state assembly of Jammu & Kashmir was dissolved in 2018, and the region was under President's Rule at the time of the reorganisation in 2019.
• As a result, the state assembly was not involved in the decision to reorganise Jammu & Kashmir into Union Territories.

The correct answer is Economic growth without an increase in employment opportunities.

Key Points

• Jobless growth refers to a situation where the economy experiences an increase in GDP and other economic indicators, but there is no corresponding increase in employment opportunities.
• It is often observed when technological advancements or automation replace human labor, resulting in economic growth without significant job creation.
• This phenomenon can occur in developing economies as well as developed ones, where industries grow but fail to generate new job opportunities due to structural inefficiencies or capital-intensive production methods.
• Jobless growth can exacerbate income inequality, as only a small segment of the population benefits from the economic progress while a significant portion remains unemployed or underemployed.
• It highlights the need for policies that ensure inclusive growth, focusing on creating employment opportunities alongside economic development.

Additional Information

• Key Drivers of Growth
• Productivity & Technology: Innovation, efficiency, new products.
• Factor Accumulation: More physical capital (machines, infrastructure) and human capital (education, skills).
• Institutions & Governance: Stable political systems, strong rule of law, property rights.
• Structural Change: Shifting from agriculture to industry, then services.

The correct answer is Bihar - 1102 persons/sq km; Arunachal Pradesh - 17 persons/sq km.

Key Points

• According to Census 2011, Bihar was recorded as the state with the highest population density in India, with 1102 persons per square kilometer.
• Arunachal Pradesh had one of the lowest population densities in India, at 17 persons per square kilometer.
• Population density is defined as the number of people living per unit area and is calculated by dividing the total population of a region by its land area.
• Bihar's high population density is attributed to factors such as fertile land, high birth rate, and rural settlement patterns.
• Arunachal Pradesh's low density is due to its vast mountainous terrain, dense forests, and limited urbanization.

Additional Information

• Key Findings of 2011 census:
• Total Population: 1.21 billion (1210.6 million).
• Growth: 17.7% decadal growth (2001-2011), slower than the previous decade.
• Sex Ratio: Increased to 940 females per 1000 males (from 933 in 2001); child sex ratio (0-6 years) was 914.
• Literacy: Overall literacy rate reached 74.04%.
• Population Density: 382 persons per sq. km, up from 326 in 2001.
• Rural vs. Urban: 833.5 million lived in rural areas (68.84%), and 377.1 million in urban areas (31.16%).

The correct answer is Name of slash and burn agriculture.

Key Points

• Pama Dabi is a term used in the northeastern region of India to refer to the practice of slash-and-burn agriculture, which is commonly known as shifting cultivation.
• This agricultural method involves clearing a piece of land by cutting down vegetation and burning it to prepare the soil for cultivation.
• In India, this practice is prevalent in states like Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland, where it is known by various local names such as Jhum.
• Slash-and-burn agriculture is primarily practiced by tribal communities in hilly regions to grow crops like rice, maize, and millets.
• Although it is traditional and culturally significant, the environmental impacts of this practice, such as soil erosion, deforestation, and loss of biodiversity, are increasingly being recognized.

Additional Information

• Subsistence Agriculture:
• Growing crops/raising livestock mainly for the farmer's family; common in developing areas.
• Commercial Agriculture:
• Large-scale production for profit, sale, and trade.
• Industrial Agriculture:
• Highly mechanized, large-scale farming for mass production.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• Hazira Mangroves are located along the coastal areas of Gujarat, particularly near the Hazira region in Surat district.
• These mangroves are part of the coastal ecosystem of Gujarat and play a vital role in preventing soil erosion and maintaining biodiversity.
• The mangroves in Gujarat, including the Hazira Mangroves, are protected under various conservation initiatives by the Gujarat government and environmental agencies.
• They act as a natural barrier against coastal erosion and storm surges, providing ecological stability to the region.
• The mangrove forests support a variety of flora and fauna, including many species of fish, crabs, and migratory birds, contributing to the region's biodiversity.

Additional Information

• Odisha:
• Odisha is well-known for its mangrove forests in the Bhitarkanika National Park, which is the second largest mangrove ecosystem in India after the Sundarbans.
• The Bhitarkanika mangroves are home to a significant population of saltwater crocodiles and are a designated Ramsar site.
• These mangroves play a crucial role in protecting the coastal areas of Odisha from cyclones and storms.
• West Bengal:
• West Bengal is home to the famous Sundarbans mangroves, the largest tidal halophytic mangrove forest in the world.
• The Sundarbans mangroves serve as a habitat for the Bengal tiger, saltwater crocodiles, and many other endangered species.
• This region is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and plays a vital role in the ecological stability of the area.
• Maharashtra:
• Maharashtra has extensive mangrove forests along its coastline, particularly near Mumbai, Thane, and Raigad districts.
• The mangroves in Mumbai are crucial for protecting the city from floods and maintaining its ecological balance.
• The state government has undertaken various conservation measures to protect mangroves from urban encroachment and pollution.

The correct answer is Official languages of India.

Key Points

• The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains to the languages recognized as official languages of India.
• Initially, the Constitution recognized 14 languages in the Eighth Schedule when it was adopted in 1950.
• Currently, the Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages, including Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, and others.
• The inclusion of languages in the Eighth Schedule gives them official recognition, and the government can undertake steps to promote and develop these languages.
• Languages in the Eighth Schedule are also eligible for representation in the Sahitya Akademi Awards and are used in government documents and proceedings.

Additional Information

• Allocation of Seats in Rajya Sabha
• The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha is governed by the Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• The seats in the Rajya Sabha are allocated to the states and union territories based on their population.
• Currently, the Rajya Sabha consists of 245 members, of which 233 are elected by the legislative assemblies of states and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President for their expertise in specific fields.
• Panchayati Raj
• The concept of Panchayati Raj in India is based on the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
• It added Part IX to the Constitution and provided for a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj institutions: Gram Panchayat (village level), Mandal Parishad (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• Article 243 provides for the establishment and powers of Panchayati Raj institutions to promote local self-governance.
• Anti-defection Law
• The Anti-defection Law is governed by the 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
• It aims to curb political defections by disqualifying members of the legislature who switch parties after being elected.
• The Speaker or Chairman of the respective house has the authority to decide on disqualification under this law.

The correct answer is It was an agreement between Congress and the Muslim League to work together.

Key Points

• The Lucknow Pact (1916) was a significant agreement between the Indian National Congress (INC) and the All-India Muslim League (AIML), marking a rare instance of cooperation between the two major political parties in India during the British rule.
• It symbolized Hindu-Muslim unity, with both parties agreeing to press for greater self-governance and constitutional reforms from the British government.
• The pact was driven by the efforts of prominent leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak from Congress and Muhammad Ali Jinnah from the Muslim League.
• One of the key provisions of the pact was the acceptance of separate electorates for Muslims while ensuring political representation for both communities.
• It laid the foundation for a united Indian political front against British imperialism, fostering a cooperative spirit among diverse political groups.

Additional Information

• Key Provisions & Demands of Lucknow Pact:
• Self-Government: Joint demand for India to be granted self-governing status.
• Representation: Muslims to get one-third representation in the Central Legislative Council.
• Separate Electorates: Congress accepted separate electorates for Muslims, to continue until any community demanded joint ones.
• Legislative Reforms: Increased elected members in central and provincial legislatures, with a majority being elected.
• Executive Changes: Half the members of the Viceroy's and Provincial Governors' Executive Councils should be Indians.
• Judicial Reform: Separation of the judiciary from the executive.
• Financial Reform: The Secretary of State for India's salary to be paid from British funds, not Indian revenues.
• Tenure: Five-year term for legislative councils

The correct answer is Article 249.

Key Points

• Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can legislate on a matter enumerated in the State List if the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting, stating that it is necessary in the national interest.
• Such a resolution allows the Parliament to make laws on matters listed in the State List for a period of one year, which can be extended by further resolutions of the same nature.
• This provision ensures that the Parliament has the power to address issues of national importance, even if they fall under the State List.
• The laws made by the Parliament under this provision remain valid even after the resolution ceases to operate, but they cannot be amended or repealed without the approval of the Parliament.
• Article 249 is a critical provision to maintain the balance of power between the Centre and the States, especially in times of national exigencies.

Additional Information

• Article 356
• Article 356 provides for the imposition of President’s Rule in a state if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor or otherwise, is satisfied that the governance of the state cannot be carried out as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• Under President’s Rule, the state legislature is either suspended or dissolved, and the central government takes control of the state administration.
• This provision is often criticized as it may infringe on the federal structure of India.
• Article 365
• Article 365 states that if a state fails to comply with or give effect to any direction from the Union government, it would be lawful for the President to hold that the governance of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
• This provision is often invoked as a precursor to the imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356.
• Article 259
• Article 259 is not directly relevant to the context of legislating on State List matters.
• It primarily deals with matters concerning the rights of individuals and specific provisions related to certain territories.

The correct answer is Austen Strait.

Key Points

• Austen Strait is a channel that separates the North Andaman and Middle Andaman islands in the Andaman and Nicobar group of islands.
• It is an important waterway in the Andaman Sea, facilitating navigation and connecting different parts of the Andaman Islands.
• The Andaman Islands form a key part of India’s territory in the Indian Ocean and are strategically significant due to their proximity to important maritime routes.
• The Austen Strait has ecological importance as the surrounding region is rich in biodiversity, including coral reefs, mangroves, and a variety of marine species.
• It is named after Colonel Austen, a British officer during the colonial administration of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Additional Information

• Cocos Channel:
• The Cocos Channel separates the Coco Islands (part of Myanmar) from the northern tip of the Andaman Islands (India).
• It is a key maritime passage that connects the Bay of Bengal to the Andaman Sea.
• This channel is strategically significant as it lies near important trade routes in the Indian Ocean region.
• Duncan Passage:
• Duncan Passage is a strait that separates the South Andaman Island from the Little Andaman Island.
• It plays a significant role in the navigation and transportation between the two islands.
• The passage is surrounded by rich marine biodiversity and is often used by fishermen and maritime vessels.
• Sombrero Channel:
• The Sombrero Channel is not related to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• It is a waterway in the Caribbean Sea near the Sombrero Island, which is part of Anguilla, a British Overseas Territory.
• This channel is primarily known for its geographical significance in the Caribbean region.

The correct answer is Globalisation.

Key Points

• Globalisation refers to the integration of economies, industries, markets, cultures, and policy-making worldwide to create a more interconnected and interdependent global economy.
• It involves the free flow of goods, services, technologies, capital, and labor across international borders, enabling countries to specialize in production and trade.
• The concept of globalization is driven by advancements in technology, communication, and transportation, which have drastically reduced the barriers to international exchange.
• Globalisation facilitates the integration of production processes across borders, allowing multinational corporations to operate in multiple countries seamlessly.
• It plays a crucial role in shaping world economies, fostering international trade agreements, and enhancing global market competition.

Additional Information

• Privatisation:
• Privatisation refers to the transfer of ownership, management, or control of government-owned enterprises to private entities.
• The primary goal of privatisation is to improve efficiency, competitiveness, and profitability by reducing state intervention in business operations.
• It is often implemented to reduce fiscal burden and foster private sector participation in the economy.
• An example of privatisation in India is the disinvestment of government shares in companies like Air India and Bharat Petroleum.
• Nationalisation:
• Nationalisation is the process of transferring private assets or enterprises into public ownership, often to ensure government control over critical sectors.
• It is carried out to safeguard national interests, provide essential public services, and reduce economic disparities.
• An example of nationalisation in India is the nationalisation of major commercial banks in 1969 and 1980.
• Liberalisation:
• Liberalisation refers to the relaxation of government restrictions and regulations in the economy to promote private sector growth and foreign investment.
• It involves measures like reducing tariffs, removing trade barriers, and allowing foreign direct investment (FDI).
• In India, liberalisation began in 1991 under the New Economic Policy, which aimed to open up the Indian economy to the global market.
• Liberalisation has led to significant economic growth, improved market competition, and enhanced consumer choices.

The correct answer is The Delhi Legislative Assembly has the power to legislate over subjects in the State List and Concurrent List, except for police, public order and land..

Key Points

• The legislative powers of the Delhi Legislative Assembly are unique compared to other Union Territories due to the special status granted under Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution.
• The Delhi Legislative Assembly has the authority to legislate on matters in the State List and Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule, except for three subjects: police, public order, and land.
• Unlike other Union Territories, Delhi has a popularly elected Legislative Assembly and a Chief Minister, which gives it significant autonomy in governance.
• The Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi acts as the representative of the central government but must act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in matters where the Assembly has legislative powers.
• The special arrangement for Delhi reflects its status as the National Capital Territory, balancing the needs of local governance with its importance as the seat of the central government.

Additional Information

• Legislative Powers of Delhi
• Delhi's legislative powers are defined under Article 239AA, which was added to the Constitution by the 69th Amendment Act of 1991.
• Delhi's governance model is a hybrid between a full-fledged state and a Union Territory, reflecting its dual role as a local administrative unit and the national capital.
• While the Delhi Assembly has significant autonomy, the central government retains control over critical areas like police, public order, and land, ensuring national interests are safeguarded.

The correct answer is It is derived from the Arabic word 'mausim,' meaning 'season,' and refers to the seasonal reversal in wind direction during a year..

Key Points

• The word 'monsoon' is derived from the Arabic term 'mausim,' which translates to 'season.'
• It primarily refers to the seasonal reversal of wind direction, which occurs due to differential heating and cooling of land and water bodies.
• Monsoons are a significant climatic phenomenon and influence the weather conditions in tropical and subtropical regions, especially in South Asia, Africa, and Australia.
• The Indian monsoon is a classic example of this phenomenon, characterized by wet and dry seasons caused by alternating wind systems.
• Monsoons play a vital role in agriculture, water resources, and biodiversity in the affected regions, making them integral to the economy and livelihoods of millions of people.

Additional Information

• Key Features & Mechanism of Indian Monsoon
• Seasonal Reversal: The defining characteristic is the seasonal shift in wind direction, from dry northeasterlies in winter to moisture-laden southwesterlies in summer.
• Summer Monsoon (SW) (June-Sept): Land heats faster than the ocean, creating low pressure over India, pulling moist air from the Indian Ocean, bringing ~75% of India's rain.
• Northeast Monsoon (NE) (Oct-Dec): A retreating monsoon bringing cooler, drier air, but drops rain on India's southeastern coast (Tamil Nadu).
• Branching Winds: The SW monsoon splits into Arabian Sea (heavy Western Ghats rain) and Bay of Bengal branches (rain for East/Northeast).
• Geographical Influence: The Himalayas block winds, forcing rain (orographic lift), while the Thar Desert influences dryness in the west; the shifting Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) also plays a role.

The correct answer is one-third.

Key Points

• The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the upper house of India's Parliament and is a permanent body that is not subject to dissolution.
• One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years, ensuring continuous functioning and periodic replenishment of its membership.
• The retiring members are replaced by newly elected or nominated members through elections conducted by the respective State Legislative Assemblies or nomination by the President of India.
• The tenure of a Rajya Sabha member is 6 years, and the system of staggered elections ensures that the house remains operational at all times.
• The composition and functioning of the Rajya Sabha are governed by Article 80 of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

• Rajya Sabha and its Functioning
• The Rajya Sabha is constituted to represent the states and union territories of India in the Parliament.
• It has a maximum strength of 250 members, of which 238 are representatives of states and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President for their expertise in fields such as literature, science, art, and social services.
• The Rajya Sabha plays an important role in the legislative process, reviewing and amending bills passed by the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is Patna.

Key Points

• Pataliputra, the capital of the Mauryan Empire, is located near the present-day city of Patna in Bihar, India.
• The city was founded by Ajatashatru, the king of Magadha, around the 5th century BCE as a small fort near the Ganges river.
• It became the capital during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya and continued to thrive under Emperor Ashoka.
• Pataliputra was a center of administration, trade, and culture, making it one of the most prominent cities in ancient India.
• The city was known for its strategic location near the confluence of the Ganges, Son, and Gandak rivers, aiding transportation and trade.

Additional Information

• Delhi:
• Delhi has been the capital of several dynasties in Indian history, including the Delhi Sultanate and the Mughal Empire.
• It is historically significant for monuments like the Red Fort, Qutub Minar, and Humayun's Tomb.
• However, it was never associated with the Mauryan Empire or Pataliputra.
• Varanasi:
• Varanasi, also known as Kashi, is one of the oldest continuously inhabited cities in the world.
• It is renowned for its spiritual significance and association with Hinduism and Buddhism.
• Though important during ancient times, it was not the capital of the Mauryan Empire.
• Kanpur:
• Kanpur is a modern industrial city located in Uttar Pradesh.
• It holds significance in India's colonial and post-independence history but has no connection to the Mauryan capital.

Important Points

• The Mauryan Empire was one of the largest and most powerful empires in ancient India, established by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 BCE.
• Pataliputra served as the political and cultural hub of the empire, and its legacy is reflected in the archaeological remains found in Patna.
• The empire contributed significantly to Indian history, including the spread of Buddhism under Emperor Ashoka.

The correct answer is A Matter of Choice: People and Possibilities in the Age of AI.

Key Points

• The Human Development Report (HDR) 2025 will focus on the theme A Matter of Choice: People and Possibilities in the Age of AI.
• This theme highlights the intersection of human development and artificial intelligence (AI), emphasizing how AI can influence opportunities and choices for humanity.
• The report aims to explore both the positive impacts and potential risks of AI on global development, social equity, and individual empowerment.
• It underscores the need for responsible and equitable development of AI systems to ensure inclusive growth, human rights, and sustainability.
• The HDR 2025 continues the tradition of previous Human Development Reports, which aim to provide insights into global challenges and offer actionable solutions.

Additional Information

• Human Development Report
• The Human Development Report, published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), focuses on key global development issues impacting human well-being.
• Its main goal is to provide actionable insights and policy recommendations to enhance human development worldwide.
• Each year's report adopts a specific theme to highlight emerging challenges and opportunities for humanity.

The correct answer is Shamsuddin Iltutmish.

Key Points

• Shamsuddin Iltutmish, the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, introduced the Iqta system as an administrative and revenue mechanism in India.
• The Iqta system involved granting large tracts of land, known as Iqtas, to nobles, officers, and other elites in return for their services, primarily military and administrative duties.
• Under this system, the Iqta holders (called Muqti or Iqtadar) collected revenue from the land granted to them and retained a portion for themselves while remitting the remainder to the Sultan.
• Iltutmish institutionalized the Iqta system to centralize power and strengthen the economic base of the Sultanate, ensuring loyalty among his officers and efficient governance.
• This system became a significant feature of the administrative framework during the Delhi Sultanate period and was later adopted by successive rulers.

Additional Information

• Muhammad bin Tughlaq
• Known for his ambitious projects, Muhammad bin Tughlaq ruled from 1325 to 1351. Although innovative, his policies often failed due to poor execution.
• He is famous for implementing the token currency system, transferring the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, and other administrative experiments.
• While his reign did not involve the introduction of the Iqta system, he retained and modified it for administrative purposes.
• Alauddin Khalji
• Alauddin Khalji was a ruler of the Delhi Sultanate (1296-1316) known for his military campaigns and market reforms.
• He introduced significant changes to the revenue system, including fixing land taxes and increasing state control over agricultural production.
• However, the Iqta system was already established before his reign, and his focus was more on economic reforms and military expansion.
• Balban
• Balban ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1266 to 1287 and is renowned for his strict governance and emphasis on royal authority.
• He reinforced the Sultanate’s military structure and introduced the concept of divine kingship.
• Although Balban did not introduce the Iqta system, he used it effectively as part of his administrative framework to maintain centralized power.

The correct answer is e-NAM.

Key Points

• e-NAM stands for the National Agriculture Market, launched by the Government of India on 14th April 2016.
• This platform is aimed at creating a unified national market for agricultural commodities by integrating physical mandis through an online platform.
• It allows farmers to sell their produce to a large number of buyers across multiple markets electronically, ensuring better price realization.
• e-NAM is implemented by the Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• The platform promotes transparency, reduces transaction costs, and eliminates the intermediaries, ensuring fair pricing for farmers.
• As of October 2023, e-NAM has onboarded over 1,000 mandis across various states, benefiting millions of farmers and traders.

Additional Information

• m-Kisan
• Launched by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture, the m-Kisan initiative enables farmers to receive advisories and market-related information directly on their mobile phones.
• This platform uses SMS services to disseminate information related to weather forecasts, pest control, fertilizers, and other agricultural needs.
• It enhances the dissemination of information but does not facilitate electronic trading like e-NAM.
• e-Kisan
• e-Kisan refers to various state-level initiatives that focus on providing digital solutions to farmers for agricultural productivity.
• It typically offers tools for accessing weather updates, market prices, and expert consultation, but it does not have the unified trading platform feature that e-NAM provides.
• Agristack
• Agristack is an initiative by the Government of India to create a unified database for farmers, containing their land records, crop history, and other agricultural data.
• It aims to facilitate the delivery of personalized services, including credit, crop insurance, and subsidies, leveraging advanced technologies like AI and blockchain.
• However, unlike e-NAM, Agristack is not directly involved in electronic marketing or trading of agricultural produce.