IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper (Held On: 29 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Acid.

Key Points

• The fluffiness of cakes and idlis is due to the release of carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas during a chemical reaction involving baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) and an acid.
• When baking soda reacts with an acid (e.g., lemon juice, vinegar, or lactic acid in curd), CO₂ gas is produced, which gets trapped in the batter, forming air pockets.
• These air pockets expand upon heating, causing the batter to rise and resulting in a fluffy texture in cakes and idlis.
• Common acidic ingredients used in baking include buttermilk, yogurt, vinegar, lemon juice, or cream of tartar.
• This reaction is a part of leavening, a process that makes baked goods light and porous by introducing gases like CO₂ into the batter or dough.

Additional Information

• Salt
• Salt (sodium chloride) is used in baking primarily to enhance the flavor of the final product.
• It also strengthens the gluten structure in bread dough and regulates yeast fermentation, but it does not contribute to the production of carbon dioxide gas.
• Sugar
• Sugar is used in baking to add sweetness, create a tender texture, and contribute to browning during baking.
• While sugar can interact with yeast in bread-making to produce CO₂, it does not react with baking soda to release the gas required for fluffiness in cakes and idlis.
• Oil
• Oil is used in baking to improve the texture and moisture of the final product.
• It does not contribute to the leavening process or the production of carbon dioxide gas.

The correct answer is 33.

Key Points

• As of March 2025, India has 33 officially declared Elephant Reserves (ERs) spread across various states.
• The 33rd Elephant Reserve was notified in Agasthiyamalai, Tamil Nadu, in August 2022, covering an area of approximately 1,197 sq km.
• India is home to nearly 60% of the global Asian elephant population, making the conservation of these reserves vital for biodiversity.
• The Elephant Reserves in India are declared under Project Elephant, a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1992 to protect elephants, their habitat, and corridors.
• These reserves aim to mitigate human-elephant conflict and ensure the long-term survival of the species through ecological and habitat conservation.

Additional Information

• Project Elephant
• Launched in 1992 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Project Elephant aims to protect elephants, their habitat, and migration corridors.
• The initiative focuses on mitigating human-elephant conflict, ensuring the welfare of captive elephants, and promoting research and education about the species.
• Elephant corridors are identified and conserved to facilitate safe movement of elephants between habitats.

The correct answer is 38th.

Key Points

• The 38th edition of the National Games of India is scheduled to be held across various venues in Uttarakhand during January-February 2025.
• The National Games are a multi-disciplinary national-level sporting event organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) in coordination with state governments.
• Uttarakhand was selected as the host state for the 38th National Games due to its infrastructure and commitment to promoting sports.
• The games are expected to feature over 30 sports disciplines with participation from athletes across the country.
• The hosting of the games aims to boost Uttarakhand’s economy, promote tourism, and enhance sports infrastructure in the state.

Additional Information

• National Games of India:
• The National Games of India are a prestigious sporting event held every few years, aimed at promoting sports and identifying talent across the country.
• The first edition was held in Lahore in 1924, and the games have evolved significantly over the decades.
• They serve as a platform for athletes to showcase their skills and prepare for international competitions like the Olympics and Commonwealth Games.
• The games also contribute to the development of sports infrastructure and encourage state governments to invest in sports.

The correct answer is Dhar.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the 'Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan' from Dhar, Madhya Pradesh.
• The initiative focuses on ensuring women's health and well-being, which is closely linked to the health of the entire family.
• The campaign aims to promote awareness regarding health issues in women, ensuring their access to healthcare facilities.
• This initiative aligns with broader government programs aimed at improving maternal health and reducing malnutrition in women and children.
• The program emphasizes community engagement and the active participation of local healthcare institutions.

Additional Information

• Bhopal:
• Bhopal is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh and is known for its historical significance and cultural heritage.
• The city is often associated with government initiatives in education, urban development, and environmental conservation.
• It is also a center for healthcare programs and public awareness campaigns in Madhya Pradesh.
• Indore:
• Indore is the largest city in Madhya Pradesh and recognized as the cleanest city in India for several consecutive years under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.
• The city is a hub for various government programs related to urban development and sanitation.
• Indore has been a venue for several national-level initiatives but was not the location for launching this campaign.
• Gwalior:
• Gwalior is renowned for its historical monuments and rich cultural heritage.
• It has hosted several government-led initiatives focusing on tourism, education, and healthcare.

The correct answer is father's gamete.

Key Points

• In humans, the sex of a child is determined by the type of sex chromosome contributed by the father’s sperm cell during fertilization.
• Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, including one pair of sex chromosomes. Females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY).
• All egg cells (ova) produced by the mother carry an X chromosome, as females have only X chromosomes.
• The sperm cells produced by males can carry either an X chromosome or a Y chromosome. If a sperm carrying an X chromosome fertilizes the egg, the child will be female (XX). If a sperm carrying a Y chromosome fertilizes the egg, the child will be male (XY).
• Thus, the father’s gamete (sperm) determines the sex of the child, as it contributes either the X or Y chromosome.

Additional Information

• Mother's gamete:
• The mother’s gamete (egg) always carries an X chromosome, as females have two X chromosomes (XX).
• While the mother’s gamete contributes half of the genetic material, it does not determine the child’s sex since it always provides an X chromosome.
• Blood group:
• The blood group of parents is determined by the ABO and Rh factor systems and is inherited independently of the sex chromosomes.
• Blood group does not play a role in determining the sex of a child.
• Environmental factors:
• Environmental factors such as temperature, diet, and lifestyle can influence certain biological processes but do not affect the determination of a child’s sex in humans.
• In some reptiles, environmental factors like temperature can influence sex determination.

The correct answer is Small Modular Reactors.

Key Points

• Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) are advanced nuclear reactors with a capacity of up to 300 megawatts per unit, which is about one-third of the capacity of traditional nuclear power reactors.
• The Union Budget 2025-26 highlighted the Nuclear Energy Mission to promote research and development of SMRs as part of India’s clean energy transition strategy.
• SMRs are cost-effective, modular, and scalable, allowing for easier deployment in remote and smaller regions with lower electricity demand compared to traditional nuclear reactors.
• These reactors are designed with enhanced safety features and can operate flexibly to complement renewable energy sources like wind and solar power.
• The Indian government is focusing on SMRs to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070, reduce dependence on fossil fuels, and ensure energy security.

Additional Information

• Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs):
• FBRs use fast neutrons to sustain the fission process and are capable of producing more fissile material than they consume.
• India has been actively pursuing FBR technology with the construction of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.
• These reactors are essential for utilizing thorium reserves and achieving a sustainable nuclear fuel cycle.
• However, FBRs are not the focus of the 2025-26 Nuclear Energy Mission as they are part of India’s long-term nuclear program under its three-stage nuclear power strategy.
• Fusion Energy Reactors:
• Fusion energy reactors aim to replicate the process that powers the sun by fusing hydrogen isotopes to release vast amounts of energy.
• Fusion is considered the “holy grail” of clean energy due to its virtually limitless fuel supply and minimal radioactive waste.
• Currently, fusion energy is in the experimental phase, with international projects like ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) leading the charge.
• India is a member of the ITER project, but commercial fusion energy reactors are not yet a feasible option for immediate implementation.
• Thorium-based Reactors:
• Thorium-based reactors use thorium as a fuel, which is abundant in India, to generate nuclear energy.
• India has been investing in thorium-based reactor technology as part of its three-stage nuclear power program.
• The Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR) is a notable project in this field.
• Although thorium reactors hold great promise for India’s energy future, they are not the focus of the 2025-26 Nuclear Energy Mission.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Madhya Pradesh emerged as the champion at the first-ever Khelo India Water Sports Festival held at Dal Lake, Srinagar, in August 2025.
• The event featured numerous water sports competitions, including kayaking, canoeing, rowing, and dragon boat racing, attracting participants from across the nation.
• Madhya Pradesh's athletes showcased exceptional talent and secured the highest number of medals, earning them the championship title.
• The festival was organized under the Khelo India initiative to promote water sports and encourage youth participation in sports.
• Dal Lake in Srinagar was chosen as the venue to highlight the natural beauty of Kashmir and promote tourism alongside sports development.

Additional Information

• Kerala
• Kerala is renowned for its expertise in water sports and hosts the Nehru Trophy Boat Race, one of India's most famous boat races.
• The state has a strong presence in sports like rowing and kayaking, with many athletes representing India at international levels.
• Despite its prominence, Kerala did not secure the championship at the Khelo India Water Sports Festival in 2025.
• Odisha
• Odisha is emerging as a sports hub in India, especially after hosting the Hockey Men's World Cup twice.
• The state has invested heavily in sports infrastructure, such as the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar.
• While Odisha has made strides in sports development, it did not secure the top spot in the water sports festival.
• Chhattisgarh
• Chhattisgarh is gradually building its presence in the sporting arena by promoting regional sports and organizing local competitions.
• Though the state has potential, it is yet to establish a strong foothold in national-level water sports.

The correct answer is Mohan Charan Majhi.

Key Points

• As of August 2025, the Chief Minister of Odisha is Mohan Charan Majhi, who took office in June 2024 after the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) won the state elections, ending Naveen Patnaik's long tenure.
• He addressed the state on Independence Day in August 2025, focusing on development and welfare.
• Majhi has been actively involved in raising issues concerning the development of Odisha and the rights of its people.

Additional Information

• Sarat Pattanayak
• Sarat Pattanayak is a senior Congress leader from Odisha.
• He has served as a Member of Parliament (MP) from Balangir constituency in Odisha.
• Pattanayak has been associated with the Indian National Congress and has played a significant role in the party's activities in the state.
• Naveen Patnaik
• Naveen Patnaik served as the Chief Minister of Odisha for an uninterrupted 24 years, from March 5, 2000, to June 12, 2024.
• He is the founder and current president of the Biju Janata Dal (BJD) political party, established in December 1997 after a split from the Janata Dal.
• He has authored three books, including A Second Paradise: Indian Courtly Life 1590–1947.
• Baijayant Panda
• Baijayant “Jay” Panda is a politician and senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• He was previously associated with the Biju Janata Dal (BJD) and served as a Member of Parliament from Odisha.
• Panda is known for his contributions to policy discussions, particularly on economic and governance-related issues.

The correct answer is Pralay.

Key Points

• Pralay is a surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India.
• The missile is capable of carrying conventional warheads and has a range of 150-500 km, depending on the payload.
• It is powered by a solid-fuel rocket motor and incorporates advanced technologies for greater accuracy and reliability.
• In July 2025, DRDO successfully conducted two flight tests of Pralay, demonstrating its readiness for induction into the armed forces.
• The missile is designed for quick deployment in high-intensity conflict zones and enhances India’s deterrence capabilities against adversaries.

Additional Information

• BrahMos-ER
• The BrahMos Extended Range (ER) is an upgraded version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile.
• It has a range of over 400 km, compared to the standard version's range of 290 km.
• It can be launched from land, sea, air, or submarine platforms and is jointly developed by India and Russia.
• The missile is known for its speed, precision, and versatility, making it a strategic asset for the Indian armed forces.
• Rudram-I
• Rudram-I is an air-launched anti-radiation missile (ARM) developed by DRDO for the Indian Air Force.
• It is designed to target enemy radar systems and other electronic warfare assets.
• The missile has a range of 100-200 km and can be launched from a variety of fighter aircraft, including the Sukhoi Su-30MKI.
• Rudram-I enhances the IAF's capability to suppress enemy air defense systems during combat operations.
• Varunastra
• Varunastra is a heavyweight torpedo developed by DRDO for the Indian Navy.
• It is an advanced underwater weapon designed to target submarines and surface ships.
• The torpedo is powered by an electric propulsion system and is capable of reaching speeds of up to 40 knots.
• Varunastra is equipped with advanced guidance systems and sensors, making it a reliable asset for anti-submarine warfare.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• The 'Anbu Karangal' scheme was launched in the state of Tamil Nadu to provide monthly financial assistance to parentless children.
• The initiative aims to prevent school dropouts by providing financial support to children until they reach the age of 18.
• The scheme is a part of Tamil Nadu's broader welfare initiatives designed to ensure education and support for underprivileged children.
• The monthly assistance provided under the scheme helps children meet their basic education and living expenses, ensuring they do not have to discontinue their studies due to financial constraints.
• Tamil Nadu has been known for implementing progressive welfare schemes aimed at improving education and social equity across the state.

Additional Information

• Telangana
• Telangana has launched several welfare schemes such as the 'Kalyana Lakshmi' and 'Rythu Bandhu Scheme.'
• 'Kalyana Lakshmi' provides financial assistance for the marriage of girls from economically weaker sections.
• 'Rythu Bandhu' is an innovative investment support scheme for farmers to support agricultural operations.
• Kerala
• Kerala is known for its high literacy rate and progressive social welfare schemes.
• Notable schemes include the 'Subhiksha Keralam' initiative, which promotes agricultural self-sufficiency, and the 'Karunya Arogya Suraksha Padhathi,' a health insurance scheme.
• The state government also focuses on education and healthcare to enhance the quality of life for its citizens.
• Andhra Pradesh
• Andhra Pradesh has introduced schemes such as 'Amma Vodi,' which provides financial assistance to mothers for their children's education.
• The 'YSR Rythu Bharosa' scheme supports farmers with financial aid to enhance agricultural productivity.
• Additionally, the 'YSR Arogya Sri' scheme ensures free medical care for low-income families in the state.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• The Tamil Nadu government announced a subsidy programme in March 2025 to support gig workers in purchasing electric scooters.
• This initiative aimed to promote the adoption of environmentally friendly transportation and reduce carbon emissions.
• Gig workers, such as delivery personnel and ride-hailing drivers, were the primary beneficiaries of this scheme.
• The subsidy provided by the Tamil Nadu government significantly reduced the upfront cost of electric scooters, making them more affordable for gig workers.
• The programme aligned with Tamil Nadu’s focus on boosting the electric vehicle (EV) sector and strengthening its position as a leader in EV manufacturing and adoption.

Additional Information

• Karnataka
• Karnataka has been a leader in electric vehicle adoption and manufacturing, with Bengaluru being a hub for EV startups.
• The state has implemented initiatives like the Karnataka Electric Vehicle & Energy Storage Policy, focusing on EV infrastructure development.
• Although Karnataka is proactive in EV promotion, no specific subsidy programme for gig workers purchasing electric scooters was announced as of March 2025.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra launched the EV Policy 2021, which included subsidies for EV buyers, manufacturers, and charging infrastructure development.
• The state aimed to achieve a 10% EV penetration in new vehicle registrations by 2025.
• While Maharashtra provides incentives for EVs, no targeted scheme for gig workers to purchase electric scooters was introduced in March 2025.
• Gujarat
• Gujarat announced the Gujarat Electric Vehicle Policy 2021 to encourage EV adoption by providing financial subsidies to buyers and promoting EV manufacturing.
• Under this policy, Gujarat aimed to make electric vehicles more affordable and accessible for the general population.

The correct answer is Agra gharana.

Key Points

• Vilayat Hussain Khan was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist associated with the Agra gharana, one of the prominent styles of Hindustani classical music.
• The Agra gharana is known for its emphasis on intricate ragas, bol-baant (syllable improvisation), and the use of Dhrupad and Khayal traditions.
• Vilayat Hussain Khan was famously known as "Pran Piya", a title he adopted as his pen name for his musical compositions.
• He significantly contributed to the preservation and propagation of the Agra gharana's musical style through his extensive teaching and compositions.
• He was known for his mastery of both Khayal and Thumri forms, showcasing an extraordinary command over laya (tempo) and taan patterns (rapid melodic sequences).

Additional Information

• Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana
• The Jaipur-Atrauli gharana is a prominent school of Hindustani classical music, known for its sophisticated and intricate approach to raga development.
• It was founded by Alladiya Khan, a legendary musician of the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
• This gharana focuses on rare and complex ragas, with an emphasis on slow tempo and detailed exploration of musical nuances.
• Rampur-Sahaswan Gharana
• This gharana originated in Rampur, Uttar Pradesh, and was established by Ustad Inayat Hussain Khan.
• It emphasizes clarity of notes and a melodious style of singing, with smooth transitions between notes.
• Singers from this gharana are known for their intricate taans and bol-taans, along with a strong emphasis on maintaining the purity of ragas.
• Gwalior Gharana
• The Gwalior gharana is the oldest Hindustani classical vocal gharana, tracing its roots back to the Mughal era.
• Known for its straightforward and balanced approach, the Gwalior gharana emphasizes the development of ragas through Khayal singing.
• It is characterized by a focus on melody, clarity of pronunciation, and the use of both vilambit (slow) and drut (fast) tempos.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The Maharashtra government announced the establishment of 'NaMo Gardens' in 394 municipal councils and nagar panchayats to celebrate Prime Minister Narendra Modi's 75th birthday in September 2025.
• This initiative aims to commemorate PM Modi’s contribution to national development and foster greenery and environmental sustainability.
• Each municipal council and nagar panchayat will be provided with guidelines for developing gardens with a standard design and layout.
• The gardens will serve as recreational spaces for the public while promoting environmental awareness and urban beautification.
• Maharashtra has been proactive in implementing various innovative projects to align with national policies, particularly those emphasizing sustainability and environmental conservation.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh is known for implementing large-scale welfare schemes such as the PM Awas Yojana and the One District One Product (ODOP) initiative.
• The state government has also introduced projects like the Namami Gange program for cleaning and rejuvenating the Ganga River.
• While Uttar Pradesh has undertaken various environmental initiatives, no specific project like 'NaMo Gardens' has been announced to mark PM Modi’s birthday.
• Rajasthan
• Rajasthan has focused heavily on water conservation projects such as the Jal Jeevan Mission and the Mukhya Mantri Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan.
• The state is also known for promoting eco-tourism and sustainability in its desert regions.
• However, there has been no announcement of 'NaMo Gardens' or similar initiatives to mark PM Modi’s birthday.
• Telangana
• Telangana is a leader in urban forestry and afforestation programs, with notable initiatives like the Haritha Haram program aimed at increasing green cover.
• While the state government has shown commitment to environmental conservation, it has not announced plans for 'NaMo Gardens' to celebrate PM Modi’s birthday.

Important Points

• NaMo Gardens
• 'NaMo Gardens' is an innovative initiative by the Maharashtra government to honor Prime Minister Narendra Modi's leadership and contribution to India’s progress.
• The project not only serves as a tribute but also promotes environmental awareness and urban sustainability.
• It aligns with broader national goals of environmental conservation and beautification of urban spaces.

The correct answer is Malla Mahal, Almora.

Key Points

• Malla Mahal is located in the historic city of Almora in the state of Uttarakhand, India, which served as the seat of the Chand dynasty.
• The Chand dynasty ruled over the Kumaon region from the 11th to the 18th century, leaving a significant cultural and architectural legacy.
• The Malla Mahal is a key part of the Chand dynasty's architectural heritage, showcasing their distinctive style and craftsmanship.
• In 2025, the government has planned to transform the Malla Mahal into a heritage museum to preserve and promote the cultural history of the region.
• The museum aims to display artifacts, historical records, and other cultural relics from the Chand dynasty, making it a significant attraction for tourists and historians.

Additional Information

• RK Narayan's house, Mysuru
• RK Narayan, one of India's most celebrated authors, is known for his contributions to Indian English literature.
• His house in Mysuru has been converted into a museum showcasing his life, literary works, and awards.
• The museum celebrates his famous works like "Malgudi Days" and provides insights into his life as a writer.
• Thirumalai Nayakkar Mahal, Madurai
• It is a 17th-century palace built by King Thirumalai Nayak of the Nayak dynasty in Madurai, Tamil Nadu.
• The palace is renowned for its grand architecture, including massive pillars and intricate stucco work on its domes and arches.
• It is one of the most popular tourist attractions in Madurai and is preserved as a historical monument.
• Jagannath Dham, Digha
• Jagannath Dham refers to temples dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of Lord Vishnu, widely revered in Hinduism.
• The Jagannath temple in Digha, West Bengal, is a prominent pilgrimage site and attracts devotees from across the region.
• The temple is also a significant cultural landmark, hosting various religious festivals, including the famous Rath Yatra.

The correct answer is Carbon monoxide (CO).

Key Points

• Carbon monoxide (CO) has a significantly higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen—approximately 200-250 times stronger.
• When inhaled, CO binds with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin, which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, leading to oxygen deprivation in tissues.
• Exposure to CO can cause symptoms like dizziness, headaches, confusion, and even death in severe cases, as it disrupts cellular respiration.
• CO is a colourless, odourless, and tasteless gas, making it extremely dangerous because its presence is hard to detect without specialized equipment.
• The primary sources of CO include incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, such as in vehicle emissions, faulty heaters, and gas stoves.

Additional Information

• Carbon dioxide (CO2):
• Unlike CO, carbon dioxide does not bind to haemoglobin with high affinity and is not toxic in normal concentrations.
• CO2 is a natural byproduct of respiration and is exhaled by humans and animals.
• In high concentrations, CO2 can displace oxygen in the air, causing asphyxiation, but it is not as harmful as CO in smaller quantities.
• Methane (CH4):
• Methane is a colourless, odourless gas and a significant component of natural gas.
• It is not directly harmful to haemoglobin but is a potent greenhouse gas contributing to global warming.
• In confined spaces, methane can displace oxygen, leading to suffocation.
• Nitrogen dioxide (NO2):
• Nitrogen dioxide is a toxic gas that irritates the respiratory system but does not affect haemoglobin like CO does.
• It is a major air pollutant produced from vehicle emissions and industrial activities.
• Prolonged exposure to NO2 can lead to respiratory diseases such as asthma and bronchitis.

The correct answer is GE Aerospace.

Key Points

• GE Aerospace, previously known as GE Aviation, is a leading American aircraft engine manufacturer.
• In March 2025, GE Aerospace delivered the first batch of 99 F404-IN20 engines to Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mk-1A programme.
• The F404-IN20 engines are known for their reliability, performance, and advanced features, making them ideal for lightweight fighter aircraft like Tejas Mk-1A.
• The collaboration between GE Aerospace and HAL strengthens India’s defense manufacturing capabilities under the "Make in India" initiative.
• GE Aerospace has been a long-time partner of India’s defense industry, previously supplying engines for earlier versions of the Tejas aircraft.

Additional Information

• Northrop Grumman
• Northrop Grumman is an American aerospace and defense technology company specializing in autonomous systems, cyber solutions, and space technology.
• The company is renowned for its advanced defense systems like the B-2 Spirit stealth bomber and Global Hawk UAVs.
• RTX Corporation
• RTX Corporation (formerly Raytheon Technologies) is a major American defense contractor and industrial corporation specializing in aerospace and defense products.
• Although RTX Corporation produces advanced engines and technologies, it is not involved in the F404-IN20 engine supply for HAL or the Tejas Mk-1A programme.
• The company is well-known for its Pratt & Whitney engines and missile systems like the Patriot air defense system.
• Lockheed Martin
• Lockheed Martin is a global leader in aerospace, defense, and security, known for its advanced fighter jets like the F-35 Lightning II.
• Lockheed Martin has proposed to manufacture the F-21 fighter jet specifically for India as part of its defense collaboration.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Chikankari embroidery is a traditional and intricate hand embroidery style that originated in the state of Uttar Pradesh, particularly in the city of Lucknow.
• The art form has been practiced for over 200 years and is renowned for its delicate and subtle designs, usually done on light fabrics such as cotton, muslin, silk, and chiffon.
• Chikankari involves a variety of stitches such as shadow work, flat stitches, and raised stitches, often depicting floral motifs and geometric patterns.
• This embroidery style was introduced during the Mughal era, with Nur Jahan, the wife of Emperor Jahangir, playing a significant role in popularizing it.
• Chikankari is highly valued for its aesthetic appeal and is widely used in traditional Indian garments like sarees, kurtas, and dupattas.

Additional Information

• West Bengal:
• West Bengal is known for its Kantha embroidery, a traditional hand embroidery technique used to create intricate patterns on sarees, dhotis, and quilts.
• Kantha embroidery involves running stitches and is characterized by motifs inspired by nature, folklore, and mythology.
• This embroidery style is primarily practiced by women in rural areas of Bengal.
• Rajasthan:
• Rajasthan is famous for various embroidery styles, including mirror work, Gota Patti, and Zardozi.
• Gota Patti involves applique work using gold or silver ribbons, while Zardozi uses metallic threads to create elaborate patterns.
• These embroidery styles are often used to embellish traditional Rajasthani attire such as lehengas and dupattas.
• Gujarat:
• Gujarat is renowned for its mirror embroidery, also known as Abhla Bharat, which incorporates small mirrors into intricate designs.
• Another popular embroidery style is Rabari embroidery, practiced by the Rabari community, featuring bold patterns and vibrant colors.
• These embroidery techniques are widely used in traditional garments, accessories, and home decor items.

The correct answer is Nitin Kushalappa.

Key Points

• Nitin Kushalappa is the author of the book 'Dakshin: South Indian Myths and Fables Retold' that won the Sahitya Akademi’s Bal Sahitya Puraskar, 2025.
• The book presents a unique retelling of myths and fables from South India, showcasing their cultural richness and diversity.
• The Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar is awarded for outstanding literary works for children in India.
• 'Dakshin' focuses on stories that reflect the traditions, values, and folklore of South Indian culture, making it a valuable contribution to Indian children's literature.
• Nitin Kushalappa is acclaimed for his ability to engage young readers through storytelling that combines history, mythology, and imagination.

Additional Information

• Nandini Sengupta:
• Nandini Sengupta is a noted author of historical fiction and children's books.
• Her works, such as 'The Story of India’s Partition', focus on Indian history, particularly significant events and personalities.
• She is known for weaving historical narratives into engaging formats for young readers.
• Om Goswami:
• Om Goswami is celebrated for his contributions to children's literature, especially in Hindi.
• He has written extensively on topics that include Indian culture, folklore, and moral stories.
• His works are recognized for their simplicity and ability to connect with young audiences.
• Subhadra Sen Gupta:
• Subhadra Sen Gupta was an eminent author known for her works on Indian history and culture, particularly for children.
• Her books, such as 'The Constitution of India for Children' and 'A Children's History of India', are widely appreciated.
• She was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar in 2014 for her contributions to children's literature.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The 'Marusinchana' scheme was launched by the Government of Karnataka to improve academic performance among school students.
• The scheme targets students from classes VI to X who are lagging behind academically.
• It utilizes remedial education modules to help students improve their performance in core subjects.
• The initial implementation started in select districts and is being expanded to more districts over time.
• The objective is to reduce dropout rates and ensure that all students meet the required learning outcomes.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu has implemented several educational schemes like the 'Illam Thedi Kalvi' (Education at Doorstep) program.
• This initiative focuses on bridging learning gaps created during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• It involves volunteers teaching children in their neighborhoods to ensure continuity in education.
• Gujarat
• Gujarat has launched the 'Mission School of Excellence' aimed at improving school infrastructure and quality of education.
• The mission focuses on promoting digital learning and enhancing the academic performance of students.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra runs the 'Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Shikshan Hami Yojana,' which aims to provide free education to economically weaker sections.
• Additionally, the state has implemented programs like 'E-Balbharti' to enhance digital education for school students.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Sattriya is one of the eight recognized classical dance forms of India and was introduced by the Vaishnavite saint and reformer Sankardev in the 15th century in Assam.
• It was originally performed in sattras (Vaishnavite monasteries) as a part of religious rituals and storytelling to propagate the teachings of Lord Krishna.
• The dance is deeply rooted in Bhakti movement and is an important medium to narrate mythological and religious stories through intricate footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions.
• UNESCO recognized Sattriya as an Indian classical dance form in the year 2000, bringing it into the global spotlight.
• Traditionally, Sattriya was performed only by male monks in monasteries, but it has now evolved into a vibrant stage art performed by both men and women.

Additional Information

• Manipur:
• Manipur is famous for its classical dance form called Manipuri, which is a graceful and spiritual dance that revolves around the themes of Radha and Krishna.
• The Manipuri dance is characterized by soft movements, serene expressions, and elegant costumes, depicting the devotional aspects of Vaishnavism.
• It is performed as part of religious and cultural rituals and festivals in Manipur.
• West Bengal:
• West Bengal is renowned for its folk dances such as Chhau and Baul, but it does not have a classical dance form associated with it.
• Chhau dance is a semi-classical martial art dance form performed in Purulia, West Bengal, and it combines storytelling with vigorous movements and masked performances.
• The Baul tradition is a unique folk culture of Bengal, expressing spiritual themes through music and dance.
• Odisha:
• Odisha is home to the classical dance form Odissi, which is considered one of the oldest surviving classical dance forms in India.
• Odissi is known for its fluid body movements, intricate footwork, and graceful expressions, often depicting stories from Hindu mythology, especially Lord Jagannath and Lord Krishna.
• This dance form has a significant connection to temple rituals and sculptures in Odisha.

Given:

Profit = ₹97

Mark-up percentage = 20%

Discount percentage = 10%

Formula Used:

List Price = Cost Price + Mark-up

Selling Price = List Price - Discount

Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

Calculation:

Let Cost Price = ₹x

Mark-up = 20% of Cost Price = 0.2 × ₹x = ₹0.2x

∴ List Price = Cost Price + Mark-up = ₹x + ₹0.2x = ₹1.2x

Discount = 10% of List Price = 0.1 × ₹1.2x = ₹0.12x

∴ Selling Price = List Price - Discount = ₹1.2x - ₹0.12x = ₹1.08x

Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

∴ ₹97 = ₹1.08x - ₹x

⇒ ₹97 = ₹0.08x

⇒ x = ₹97 / ₹0.08 = ₹1212.5

List Price = ₹1.2x = ₹1.2 × ₹1212.5 = ₹1455

∴ The correct answer is ₹1455.

Given:

Radius of cylinder = 5 cm

Height of cylinder = 38 cm

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area of Cylinder = 2π × radius × height

Calculation:

⇒ Curved Surface Area = 2π × 5 × 38

⇒ Curved Surface Area = 380π cm²

∴ The correct answer is 380π cm².

Given:

Speed ratio of trains = 3 : 2

Combined length of trains = 500 metres

Increase in speeds = 5 km/hr

Time reduction = 2 seconds

Formula Used:

Relative speed = (Speed of train 1 + Speed of train 2)

Time = Distance / Relative speed

Calculation:

Let the original speeds of the two trains be 3x km/hr and 2x km/hr.

⇒ Combined relative speed = (3x + 2x) = 5x km/hr

Convert speed to m/s: 1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s

⇒ Relative speed = 5x × (5/18) = (25x/18) m/s

Time taken to cross each other = Distance / Relative speed

⇒ Time = 500 / (25x/18) = (500 × 18) / 25x = 360 / x seconds

After increasing the speeds by 5 km/hr:

⇒ New speeds = (3x + 5) km/hr and (2x + 5) km/hr

⇒ Combined relative speed = (3x + 5 + 2x + 5) = (5x + 10) km/hr

Convert speed to m/s: 1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s

⇒ Relative speed = (5x + 10) × (5/18) = (25x + 50)/18 m/s

New time taken to cross each other = Distance / Relative speed

⇒ Time = 500 / [(25x + 50)/18] = (500 × 18) / (25x + 50) = 9000 / (25x + 50) seconds

Time reduction = 2 seconds

⇒ Original time - New time = 2

⇒ 360 / x - 9000 / (25x + 50) = 2

Multiply through by x × (25x + 50):

⇒ 360 × (25x + 50) - 9000x = 2x × (25x + 50)

⇒ 9000x + 18000 - 9000x = 50x + 100x²

⇒ 18000 = 50x + 100x²

⇒ 100x² + 50x - 18000 = 0

Divide through by 50:

⇒ 2x² + x - 360 = 0

Factorize:

⇒ 2x² + 31x - 360 = (2x - 24)(x + 15)

⇒ x = 12 (discard negative value x = -15)

Original speeds = 3x = 3 × 12 = 36 km/hr and 2x = 2 × 12 = 24 km/hr.

Convert to m/s for verification:

Speed 1 = 36 × (5/18) = 10 m/s

Speed 2 = 24 × (5/18) = 6.67 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 36 km/hr and 24 km/hr.

Given:

Profit by manufacturer = 25%

Profit by wholesaler = 20%

Profit by retailer = 10%

Customer price = ₹330

Formula Used:

Cost Price = Selling Price / (1 + Profit%)

Calculation:

⇒ Retailer's cost price = ₹330 / (1 + 10/100)

⇒ Retailer's cost price = ₹330 / 1.10

⇒ Retailer's cost price = ₹300

⇒ Wholesaler's cost price = ₹300 / (1 + 20/100)

⇒ Wholesaler's cost price = ₹300 / 1.20

⇒ Wholesaler's cost price = ₹250

⇒ Manufacturer's cost price = ₹250 / (1 + 25/100)

⇒ Manufacturer's cost price = ₹250 / 1.25

⇒ Manufacturer's cost price = ₹200

∴ The correct answer is 200.

Given:

Marked price = ₹20,000

First discount = 15%

Second discount (online voucher) = 4%

Formula Used:

Discounted price = Marked price × (1 - Discount/100)

Final price = Reduced price × (1 - Additional discount/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Reduced price after 15% discount = ₹20,000 × (1 - 15/100)

⇒ Reduced price after 15% discount = ₹20,000 × 0.85

⇒ Reduced price after 15% discount = ₹17,000

⇒ Final price after an additional 4% discount = ₹17,000 × (1 - 4/100)

⇒ Final price after an additional 4% discount = ₹17,000 × 0.96

⇒ Final price = ₹16,320

∴ The correct answer is ₹16,320.

Given:

Average of 10 numbers = 15

Average of 8 numbers = 17

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Remaining Sum = Total Sum - Sum of 8 numbers

Average = Sum / Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Total Sum of 10 numbers = 15 × 10 = 150

⇒ Sum of 8 numbers = 17 × 8 = 136

⇒ Sum of remaining 2 numbers = 150 - 136 = 14

⇒ Average of remaining 2 numbers = 14 / 2 = 7

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Given:

51 - [25 - {21 - (12 - 9 + 6)}].

Formula Used:

Evaluate expressions inside parentheses first, then brackets, and finally braces.

Follow the order of operations: Parentheses → Exponents → Multiplication/Division → Addition/Subtraction (PEMDAS).

Calculation:

⇒ 51 - [25 - {21 - (12 - 9 + 6)}]

⇒ 51 - [25 - {21 - (3 + 6)}]

⇒ 51 - [25 - {21 - 9}]

⇒ 51 - [25 - 12]

⇒ 51 - 13

⇒ 38

∴ The correct answer is 38.

Given:

44 men can complete the work in 28 days.

Time required to complete the same work = 44 days.

Formula Used:

Total work = Number of men × Number of days.

Number of men required = Total work / Number of days.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = 44 × 28

⇒ Total work = 1232

⇒ Number of men required = 1232 / 44

⇒ Number of men required = 28

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Given:

Radius of base : Height = 8 : 15

Total surface area of the cylinder = 2πr(h + r)

Total surface area of the cone = πr(l + r), where l = slant height = √(r² + h²)

Formula Used:

Total surface area of cylinder = 2πr(h + r)

Total surface area of cone = πr(l + r)

l = √(r² + h²)

Ratio of total surface area = (Total surface area of cylinder) / (Total surface area of cone)

Calculation:

Let the radius of the base = 8x and the height = 15x.

⇒ Slant height, l = √((8x)² + (15x)²) = √(64x² + 225x²) = √289x² = 17x

⇒ Total surface area of cylinder = 2π(8x)(15x + 8x) = 2π(8x)(23x) = 368πx²

⇒ Total surface area of cone = π(8x)(17x + 8x) = π(8x)(25x) = 200πx²

⇒ Ratio of total surface area = (368πx²) / (200πx²) = 368 / 200 = 46 : 25

∴ The correct answer is 46 : 25.

Given:

Monthly savings = ₹4,989

Percentage of income spent = 70%

Formula Used:

Total income = Monthly savings ÷ (1 - Percentage spent / 100)

Monthly expense = Total income × (Percentage spent / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Total income = ₹4,989 ÷ (1 - 70 / 100)

⇒ Total income = ₹4,989 ÷ 0.30

⇒ Total income = ₹16,630

⇒ Monthly expense = ₹16,630 × (70 / 100)

⇒ Monthly expense = ₹16,630 × 0.70

⇒ Monthly expense = ₹11,641

∴ The correct answer is ₹11,641.

Given:

Base diameter of the cone = 138 cm

Height of the cone = 260 cm

π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Radius of the cone (r) = Diameter / 2

Slant height (l) = √(r² + h²)

Total Surface Area = π × r × (r + l)

Calculation:

⇒ Radius (r) = 138 / 2 = 69 cm

⇒ Slant height (l) = √(69² + 260²)

⇒ l = √(4761 + 67600)

⇒ l = √72361

⇒ l = 269 cm

⇒ Total Surface Area = π × r × (r + l)

⇒ Total Surface Area = (22/7) × 69 × (69 + 269)

⇒ Total Surface Area = (22/7) × 69 × 338

⇒ Total Surface Area = (22 × 69 × 338) / 7

⇒ Total Surface Area = 511404 / 7

⇒ Total Surface Area = 73129.14 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 73,297.71.

Given:

Volume of cone = 1,232 cm³

Height = 24 cm

π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1/3) × π × r² × h

Calculation:

⇒ 1,232 = (1/3) × (22/7) × r² × 24

⇒ 1,232 = (22 × 24 × r²) / (3 × 7)

⇒ 1,232 = (528 × r²) / 21

⇒ r² = (1,232 × 21) / 528

⇒ r² = 49

⇒ r = √49

⇒ r = 7 cm

∴ The correct answer is 7 cm.

Given:

Raman works 6 hours/day and completes the work in 15 days.

Mohan works 8 hours/day and completes the same work in 10 days.

They work together for 10 hours/day.

Formula Used:

Work done = Rate × Time

Rate of work = Total work / Total time

LCM method for total work calculation.

Combined rate = Sum of individual rates.

Time = Total work / Combined rate.

Calculation:

⇒ Raman's total work = 6 × 15 = 90 units

⇒ Raman's rate = 90 / (6 × 15) = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Mohan's total work = 8 × 10 = 80 units

⇒ Mohan's rate = 80 / (8 × 10) = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Total work (LCM of 90 and 80) = 720 units

⇒ Raman's rate of work = 720 / 90 = 8 units/hour

⇒ Mohan's rate of work = 720 / 80 = 9 units/hour

⇒ Combined rate = 8 + 9 = 17 units/hour

⇒ Total time = Total work / Combined rate

⇒ Total time = 720 / 17 hours

⇒ Total time = (720 / 17) / 10 days (since they work 10 hours/day)

⇒ Total time = 720 / (17 × 10) days

⇒ Total time = 72 / 17 days

⇒ Total time = 4(4/17) days

∴ The correct answer is 4(4/17) days.

Given:

The ratio of the numbers = 5 : 3 : 2

The LCM of the numbers = 3870

Formula Used:

LCM = (HCF × Product of unique factors of the numbers)

The numbers in the ratio are given as 5x, 3x, and 2x.

Calculation:

⇒ Product of the numbers = 5x × 3x × 2x = 30x³

⇒ LCM = HCF × (30x³ / HCF)

⇒ 3870 = HCF × (30x³ / HCF)

⇒ 3870 = 30x³

⇒ x³ = 3870 / 30

⇒ x³ = 129

⇒ x = ∛129

Given that x is an integer and the HCF is a factor of the smallest number, the HCF is 129.

∴ The correct answer is 129.

Given:

Income to expenditure ratio = 13 : 9

Expenditure = ₹13,500

Formula Used:

Total income = (Income ratio / Expenditure ratio) × Expenditure

Savings = Total income - Expenditure

Calculation:

⇒ Total income = (13 / 9) × ₹13,500

⇒ Total income = ₹19,500

⇒ Savings = ₹19,500 - ₹13,500

⇒ Savings = ₹6,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹6,000.

Given:

Speed from city A to B = 40 km/hr

Speed from city B to A = 60 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average speed = (2 × Speed₁ × Speed₂) / (Speed₁ + Speed₂)

Calculation:

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 40 × 60) / (40 + 60)

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 2400) / 100

⇒ Average speed = 4800 / 100

⇒ Average speed = 48 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 48 km/hr.

Given:

Cost price (CP) = ₹700

Marked price (MP) = ₹1,120

Discount = 35%

Formula Used:

Selling price (SP) = MP × (1 - Discount%)

Profit% = [(SP - CP) / CP] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ SP = ₹1,120 × (1 - 35/100)

⇒ SP = ₹1,120 × (65/100)

⇒ SP = ₹728

⇒ Profit% = [(₹728 - ₹700) / ₹700] × 100

⇒ Profit% = [₹28 / ₹700] × 100

⇒ Profit% = 4%

∴ The correct answer is 4%.

Given:

Total profit = ₹4,635

Difference in profit share = ₹1,545

Praveen invests ₹16,000 more than Hemant.

Praveen invests for 2 months.

Hemant invests for 3 months.

Formula Used:

Profit share ratio = (Investment × Time)

Total profit = Sum of individual profit shares

Calculation:

Let Hemant's investment = ₹x.

Praveen's investment = ₹x + ₹16,000.

Profit share ratio:

⇒ Hemant's ratio = x × 3 = 3x

⇒ Praveen's ratio = (x + 16,000) × 2 = 2x + 32,000

Total ratio = 3x + 2x + 32,000 = 5x + 32,000

Profit share of Hemant:

⇒ (3x / (5x + 32,000)) × 4,635

Profit share of Praveen:

⇒ (2x + 32,000 / (5x + 32,000)) × 4,635

Difference in profit share:

⇒ (2x + 32,000 / (5x + 32,000)) × 4,635 - (3x / (5x + 32,000)) × 4,635 = ₹1,545

Simplify:

⇒ [(2x + 32,000) - 3x] × 4,635 / (5x + 32,000) = ₹1,545

⇒ (32,000 - x) × 4,635 = ₹1,545 × (5x + 32,000)

Expand:

⇒ 148,320,000 - 4,635x = 7,725x + 49,440,000

Combine like terms:

⇒ 148,320,000 - 49,440,000 = 7,725x + 4,635x

⇒ 98,880,000 = 12,360x

Solve for x:

⇒ x = 98,880,000 / 12,360

⇒ x = ₹8,000

Praveen's investment:

⇒ x + ₹16,000 = ₹8,000 + ₹16,000

⇒ ₹24,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹24,000.

Given:

Total matches = 10

Average goals in 10 matches = 8

Average goals in first 5 matches = 12

Average goals in last 3 matches = 6

Formula Used:

Total goals = Average × Number of matches

Remaining goals = Total goals - (Goals in first 5 matches + Goals in last 3 matches)

Average goals in remaining matches = Remaining goals / Number of remaining matches

Calculation:

⇒ Total goals = 8 × 10 = 80

⇒ Goals in first 5 matches = 12 × 5 = 60

⇒ Goals in last 3 matches = 6 × 3 = 18

⇒ Remaining goals = 80 - (60 + 18) = 80 - 78 = 2

⇒ Number of remaining matches = 10 - (5 + 3) = 2

⇒ Average goals in remaining matches = 2 / 2 = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1 goal.

Given:

a : c = 35 : 36

c : e = 20 : 21

Formula Used:

Combine ratios using the common term.

a : c : e = (a : c) × (c : e)

Calculation:

⇒ a : c = 35 : 36

⇒ c : e = 20 : 21

⇒ Multiply ratios by the LCM of the middle term (c):

⇒ a : c : e = (35 × 20) : (36 × 20) : (36 × 21)

⇒ a : c : e = 700 : 720 : 756

⇒ Simplify by dividing by the GCD of 700, 720, and 756:

⇒ GCD = 4

⇒ a : c : e = (700 ÷ 4) : (720 ÷ 4) : (756 ÷ 4)

⇒ a : c : e = 175 : 180 : 189

∴ The correct answer is 175 : 180 : 189.

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

• U has an exam on Friday.
• Only 2 people have exams between U and R.
• V has an exam immediately before Q and T has an exam immediately after S.
• Only 2 people have exams between P and Q

The Final Arrangement is, 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic follows here, 

• 6 \times 2 + 4 = 16

6 × 2 + 4 = 16

<br>

• 16 \times 2 - 4 = 28

16 × 2 − 4 = 28

<br>

• 28 \times 2 + 4 = 60

28 × 2 + 4 = 60

• 60 × 2 − 4 = 116
• 116 × 2 + 4 = 236

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

• Virat starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the north.
• He then takes a right turn, drives 6 km, turns right and drives 13 km.
• He then takes a right turn and drives 8 km.
• He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P

 

The Final Diagram, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here, 

(बायें) 5 8 3 1 7 0 4 6 2 9 5 3 8 1 7 4 0 2 6 9 3 5 1 8 7 (दायें)

Squares of the fourth number from the left - 1²

Third number from the right- 1

Difference between the squares of the fourth number from the left and the third number from the right = 1 - 1 = 0

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.

• Only two people sit to the left of A.
• Only three people sit between A and F.
• D sits second to the right of A.
• Only two people sit between D and G.
• C sits at some place to the right of B but at some place to the left of E

The Final Arrangement is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option B"

The logic follows here,

'M O N K' -  '8 2 3 1' 

'M O A N'-  '3 5 2 8'.

The Code for A is 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some bats are ruffles.- False (As their is no direct relation between bats and ruffles  may be it is possible but not definite. Hence, it is false)

(II) Some ears are ruffles.- True (All ruffles are ears.Some ruffles are ears. Some ears are ruffles is True)

Only conclusion (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

'DEAL' is coded as '7298' and 'APEL' is coded as '2678'

'D E A L' - '7 2 9 8'

'A P E L' - '2 6 7 8'

Code for P is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The Logic follows here, 

Third number = (First number × Second number) / 2

• 18 × 28 = 504
  

504 ÷ 2 = 252

• 16 × 30 = 480
  

480 ÷ 2 = 240

​ Similarly,

(24, 12, 144)

• 24 x 12 = 288
• 288 ÷ 2 = 144.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option "

Given: A, B, C, D, J, K, and L are sitting around a circular table facing the center.

• K is sitting to the immediate right of B.
• Counting from the left of K, only three people sit between K and A

Only three people sit between B and L.

C is sitting to the immediate right of D.

The Final Arrangement is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

• Q has an exam on Thursday and U has an exam on Saturday.
• T has an exam immediately before S.
• P has an exam on one of the days after V.
• R has an exam immediately after S

The Final Arrangement is, 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option r"

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

 

Conclusions:

(I) No sparrow is a peacock.- False (As their is no direct relation between sparrow and peacock,may be it is possible but not definite Hence, it is False).

(II) Some peacocks are crows.- False (As their is no direct relation between crows and peacock,may be it is possible but not definite Hence, it is False).

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given Series :  (Left) @ ^ & E V T # F F M L Z K L F D B B A E H (Right)

Required Conditions :  Letter, Symbol, Letter

(Left) @ ^ & E V T # F F M L Z K L F D B B A E H (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given :  23 B 4 D 63 A 3 C 14 = ?

'A' stands for '÷', 'B' stands for 'x', 'C' stands for '+' and 'D' stands for '-'

23 x 4 - 63 ÷ 3 + 14 = ?

92 - 21 + 14 = ?

92 + 14 - 21  = ?

106 - 21  = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The correct answer is: Ephemeral.

Key Points

• The word "Ephemeral" refers to something that lasts for a very short duration; fleeting or temporary in nature. (क्षणभंगुर)
• Example: The joy of winning the competition was ephemeral, as the team quickly turned their focus toward the next challenge.
• The beauty of the sunset in the sentence is described as breathtaking but lasting for a very short time, which matches the meaning of "Ephemeral" (क्षणभंगुर).
• Example: The ephemeral charm of cherry blossoms makes them even more special during spring.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Ephemeral.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Recalcitrant (अवज्ञाकारी): Refers to someone or something stubbornly resistant to authority or control.
• Example: The recalcitrant student refused to follow the teacher’s instructions.
• Lugubrious (शोकाकुल): Refers to something that is mournful, gloomy, or excessively sad.
• Example: His lugubrious tone made everyone at the party feel uncomfortable.
• Pernicious (हानिकारक): Refers to something that is harmful, especially in a subtle or gradual way.
• Example: The pernicious effects of pollution on the environment are becoming increasingly evident.

The correct answer is 'The'.

 

Key Points

• The definite article "The" is used when referring to a specific noun that is already known or has been previously mentioned.
• In this case, the sentence refers to a specific letter that the speaker received yesterday, making "The" the appropriate article.
• Option 1 (No article required) is incorrect as the sentence requires an article to specify the noun.
• Option 2 ("An") is incorrect because "An" is used before words beginning with a vowel sound, which doesn’t apply here.
• Option 4 ("A") is incorrect because "A" is used for non-specific nouns, but this sentence refers to a specific letter.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The letter that we received yesterday was sent by my grandad."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: No article is required only when the noun is used in a general sense, which is not the case here.
• Option 2: The article "An" is used before words starting with a vowel sound, and "letter" does not begin with a vowel sound.
• Option 4: The article "A" is used for non-specific nouns, but the sentence refers to a specific letter.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph introduces Finland's culinary scene and highlights key achievements and elements of Finnish gastronomy.
• Sentence C is the first sentence because it sets the context by introducing Finland's recognition as a European Region of Gastronomy:
• "In 2024, the Saimaa Lakeland region was honoured as a European Region of Gastronomy."
• Sentence D follows as it elaborates on Finland's unique tradition of foraging and its connection to nature:
• "Thanks to 'Everyman's Right,' everyone in Finland can freely roam and forage in nature's bounty."
• Sentence B is the third sentence because it discusses Helsinki's seasonal menus and how natural ingredients are celebrated:
• "Across Helsinki, many restaurants highlight mushrooms, berries, fish and game in their seasonal menus."
• Sentence A is the fourth sentence as it concludes the paragraph by showcasing a notable achievement in Finnish gastronomy:
• "Finland is home to Tapio, the world's northernmost Michelin star restaurant, located in Ruka-Kuusamo."
• The correct sequence is CDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"In 2024, the Saimaa Lakeland region was honoured as a European Region of Gastronomy. Thanks to 'Everyman's Right,' everyone in Finland can freely roam and forage in nature's bounty. Across Helsinki, many restaurants highlight mushrooms, berries, fish and game in their seasonal menus. Finland is home to Tapio, the world's northernmost Michelin star restaurant, located in Ruka-Kuusamo."

The correct answer is 'on'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "on" is used to indicate a position in relation to a surface or a specific side, such as "on the right side."
• In this context, the phrase "on the right side" is grammatically correct and appropriate to describe the location of the house relative to the park.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because they do not fit the standard usage in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "His house is on the right side of the park."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "in" is incorrect because "in" is used to indicate an enclosed position, which is not applicable here.
• Option 2: "within" is incorrect because "within" implies being inside a boundary, which does not fit the sentence.
• Option 3: "at" is incorrect because "at" is typically used for specific points or locations rather than describing a side.

The correct answer is: Reticent.

Key Points

• The word "Reticent" refers to a person who is not willing to speak much, reserved, or silent in nature. (मितभाषी)
• Example: She was reticent about her personal life and didn’t share much with others.
• Explanation: Toyaj speaks less in the forum, which indicates that he is reserved or reticent. (मितभाषी)
• Example: Being reticent by nature, he preferred listening to others rather than speaking himself.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Reticent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Unintelligible (अस्पष्ट): Something that is impossible to understand.
• Example: The handwriting was so unintelligible that no one could read it.
• Garrulous (बातूनी): Someone who talks a lot, especially about unimportant things.
• Example: The garrulous man kept talking about trivial matters during the meeting.
• Banal (सामान्य, नीरस): Something that is boring, lacking originality, or very commonplace.
• Example: The speech was so banal that the audience lost interest halfway through.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence contains incorrect punctuation usage with the semicolon and the conjunctive adverb "however."
• When using "however" to join two independent clauses, it should be preceded by a semicolon and followed by a comma.
• In the original sentence, the incorrect punctuation is: "10 AM, however;" which is grammatically wrong.
• Option 2 correctly rectifies the error by using: "10 AM; however, we will discuss..." ensuring proper punctuation and clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The meeting will be held tomorrow at 10 AM; however, we will discuss the new project details next week."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "10 AM, however we..." – This option is incorrect as it omits the comma after "however."
• Option 3: "10 AM: however we..." – This option is incorrect because a colon is not appropriate before "however."
• Option 4: "10 AM, however, we..." – This option is incorrect because a comma after "10 AM" does not effectively separate the two independent clauses.

The correct answer is: General.

Key Points

• The word "specific" means clearly defined or identified; it refers to something precise and detailed in nature. (विशिष्ट)
• Example: The instructions given by the teacher were very specific, leaving no room for confusion.
• "General" refers to something that is broad, not specific, and applies to a whole group or category rather than a particular instance. (सामान्य)
• Example: She provided a general overview of the topic without going into specific details.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'specific' is 'general'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: General.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Minimal (न्यूनतम): Refers to the smallest amount or degree possible.
• Example: His efforts to complete the project were minimal, leading to unsatisfactory results.
• Extreme (अत्यधिक): Refers to something that is far beyond the norm or average.
• Example: The extreme weather conditions made it difficult to travel.
• Precise (सटीक): Refers to something that is exact and accurate.
• Example: She made precise measurements to ensure the dress fit perfectly.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The correctly spelt word is 'scepter'.

• Scepter refers to an ornamented staff carried by rulers on ceremonial occasions as a symbol of sovereignty.
• For Example -
• The king held the scepter firmly as he addressed his subjects.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'scepter'.

Additional Information

Let's understand why the other options are incorrect:

• Septer - This is a misspelling and does not exist.
• Sceptre - This is the British English spelling of the word.
• Sceptier - This is a misspelling and does not exist.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence "The house at the far end of the village is hers." is complete and grammatically correct without requiring any additional punctuation.
• Adding any punctuation mark after "hers" would disrupt the clarity and grammatical correctness of the sentence.
• The sentence ends naturally with a period (full stop), and no further punctuation is required at the blank.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The house at the far end of the village is hers."

 

Additional Information

• No punctuation required is the correct option because the sentence is already complete and correctly punctuated.
• Apostrophe ('), Colon (:), and Semi-colon (;) are not appropriate in this context as they would either alter the meaning or make the sentence grammatically incorrect.
• The sentence flows naturally and ends with a period, making it clear and concise.

The correct answer is 'about participating'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence, "He is excited to participating in the upcoming competition," contains a grammatical error.
• The phrase "to participating" is incorrect because "to" is followed by the base form of the verb, not its participle form.
• The correct substitution is "about participating," which properly conveys the excitement and fits grammatically.
• Options 1, 3, 4, and 5 do not rectify the grammatical error effectively.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "He is excited about participating in the upcoming competition."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "about the upcoming competition" changes the meaning of the sentence and does not address the grammatical error.
• Option 3: "for participate" is grammatically incorrect because "for" does not pair with the base form of the verb.
• Option 4: "to the upcoming competition" does not rectify the error and changes the meaning of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'Definitely'.

 

Key Points

• The word "Definitely" is spelled correctly and is used to indicate certainty or without doubt.
• The highlighted word "deffinittely" contains multiple spelling errors, such as repeated letters and incorrect placement of vowels.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 contain incorrect spellings of the word "Definitely."
• Option 3 provides the accurate and correct spelling of the word "Definitely."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Afghanistan has definitely been the weaker side in the first half of the game."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Definttely" is incorrect due to an extra "t" and missing letters.
• Option 2: "Definitaly" is incorrect due to the incorrect placement of the vowel "a" instead of "e."
• Option 4: "Defenetly" is incorrect because of the incorrect arrangement of vowels.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The proverb "There's no such thing as a free lunch" means that it is not possible to get something valuable or desired without having to pay for it in some way. (कोई भी चीज़ मुफ्त में नहीं मिलती है।)
• Example: When someone offers you a "free" service, remember that there's no such thing as a free lunch; they may expect something in return.
• Explanation of the Proverb: This phrase highlights the concept that everything comes at a cost, whether visible or hidden. Even if something appears free, there might be some indirect cost or expectation behind it. (हर चीज़ की एक कीमत होती है, चाहे वह प्रत्यक्ष हो या अप्रत्यक्ष।)
• Example: The free trial of a streaming service may lead you to eventually pay for a subscription.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Complaints and persistence are always rewarded. (शिकायतें और दृढ़ता हमेशा पुरस्कृत होती हैं।)
• Example: A persistent student eventually succeeded in gaining admission to his dream college.
• Option 3: There is danger in indecision. (अनिर्णय में खतरा होता है।)
• Example: Failing to make a timely decision cost the company a lucrative business deal.
• Option 4: One should expect collective benefit during general improvement. (सामान्य सुधार के दौरान सामूहिक लाभ की उम्मीद करनी चाहिए।)
• Example: When the economy improves, it benefits businesses and individuals alike.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The sentences in the paragraph need to be arranged to form a coherent story about Tang Ao.
• Sentence B is the first as it introduces the setting where Tang Ao arrives:
• "He came upon the Land of Women."
• Sentence D follows as it describes what happens when Tang Ao arrives:
• "The women immediately captured him not on guard against ladies."
• Sentence C comes next as it explains the women’s action and Tang Ao’s response:
• "When they asked Tang Ao to come along, he followed."
• Sentence A is the last as it reveals Tang Ao’s attitude and reaction:
• "If he had male companions, he would have winked over his shoulder."
• The correct sequence is BDCA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Once upon a time, a man, named Tang Ao, crossed an ocean. He came upon the Land of Women. The women immediately captured him not on guard against ladies. When they asked Tang Ao to come along, he followed. If he had male companions, he would have winked over his shoulder. What kind of person does Tang Ao seem to be?"

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The proverb "A hungry belly has no ears" means that a person who is starving or extremely hungry is unlikely to pay attention to advice or reasoning. (भूखा व्यक्ति सलाह या तर्क पर ध्यान नहीं देता।)
• Example: When someone is starving, they prioritize finding food over listening to any advice or logic.
• The correct meaning of the proverb is explained by Option 4: A starving person ignores advice or reasoning. (भूखा व्यक्ति सलाह या तर्क को नजरअंदाज करता है।)
• Example: During the famine, people were desperate for food and didn’t care about suggestions to wait for the government’s aid.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A hungry person listens more than usual. (भूखा व्यक्ति सामान्य से अधिक सुनता है।)
• Example: This is incorrect because hunger causes distraction rather than attentiveness.
• Option 2: A well-fed person ignores all opinions freely. (संतुष्ट व्यक्ति सभी विचारों को आसानी से अनदेखा करता है।)
• Example: This doesn’t relate to the given proverb, as it speaks about hunger, not being well-fed.
• Option 3: A starving person listens to advice carefully. (भूखा व्यक्ति सलाह को ध्यान से सुनता है।)
• Example: This is incorrect as a starving person is more focused on fulfilling their hunger than listening.

The correct answer is: Wild.

Key Points

• The word "untamed" means something that is not domesticated or controlled, often wild and free in behavior or nature. (अवशिष्ट या अनियंत्रित)
• Example: The untamed wilderness stretched for miles, untouched by human hands.
• "Wild" refers to something that exists in a natural state, not controlled or domesticated by humans. (जंगली)
• Example: The wild animals roamed freely in the forest.
• As "untamed" and "wild" share the same meaning, the synonym of "untamed" is "wild".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Wild.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Delicious (स्वादिष्ट): Refers to something that has a very pleasant taste or smell.
• Example: The cake she baked was absolutely delicious.
• Obedient (आज्ञाकारी): Refers to someone who complies or follows rules and commands.
• Example: The obedient dog followed every command of its owner.
• Nervous (नर्वस): Refers to someone who is worried, anxious, or timid.
• Example: She felt nervous before stepping onto the stage for her speech.

Question: Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The harsh and untamed horse galloped away, and the startled and confused rider fell off.

The correct answer is: Wild.

The correct answer is 'safeguard'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses approaches and strategies in sustainable architecture.
• The appropriate verb should indicate something that protects or preserves environmental integrity.
• "Safeguard" fits well as it denotes protecting or preserving something, which aligns with the context of sustainable architecture.
• Other options ("overlook", "mitigate", "exploit") do not fit the context of describing the need to protect environmental integrity through sustainable design.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: The concept of sustainable architecture refers to design approaches that safeguard environmental integrity. These structures often incorporate renewable energy, low impact materials, and design principles that reduce energy consumption. Beyond the functional, sustainable architecture embraces aesthetics that promote harmony with nature. The movement is gaining momentum as climate change and urban sprawl increase pressure on cities to evolve. Its long-term success will depend on public awareness and policy alignment.

 

Additional Information

• Overlook (नजरअंदाज करना): "Overlook" means to ignore or fail to notice, which does not fit the context of protecting the environment.
• Mitigate (कम करना): "Mitigate" means to make less severe or serious, which partly fits but does not fully align with the idea of actively protecting or preserving.
• Exploit (शोषण करना): "Exploit" means to use selfishly for one's own ends, which is contrary to the concept of sustainable architecture.

The correct answer is 'minimise'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses strategies in sustainable architecture.
• The appropriate verb should indicate something that reduces or lessens energy consumption.
• "Minimise" fits well as it denotes reducing or lessening energy consumption, aligning with sustainable design principles.
• Other options ("trigger", "amplify", "escalate") do not fit the context of describing the goal to decrease energy usage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: The concept of sustainable architecture refers to design approaches that safeguard environmental integrity. These structures often incorporate renewable energy, low impact materials, and design principles that minimise energy consumption. Beyond the functional, sustainable architecture embraces aesthetics that promote harmony with nature. The movement is gaining momentum as climate change and urban sprawl increase pressure on cities to evolve. Its long-term success will depend on public awareness and policy alignment.

 

Additional Information

• Trigger (ट्रिगर करना): "Trigger" means to cause or initiate, which does not fit the goal of reducing energy consumption.
• Amplify (बढ़ाना): "Amplify" means to increase or enlarge, which is contrary to the objective of reducing energy use.
• Escalate (तेज करना): "Escalate" means to increase or intensify, which does not align with the context of minimizing energy consumption.

The correct answer is 'echo'.

 

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes sustainable architecture principles.
• The appropriate verb should indicate something that reinforces or supports harmony with nature.
• "Echo" fits well as it denotes reflecting or reinforcing a value, which aligns with the context of promoting harmony with nature.
• Other options ("imitate", "defy", "provoke") do not fit the context of reflecting or reinforcing sustainable values.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: The concept of sustainable architecture refers to design approaches that safeguard environmental integrity. These structures often incorporate renewable energy, low impact materials, and design principles that minimise energy consumption. Beyond the functional, sustainable architecture embraces aesthetics that echo harmony with nature. The movement is gaining momentum as climate change and urban sprawl increase pressure on cities to evolve. Its long-term success will depend on public awareness and policy alignment.

 

Additional Information

• Imitate (नकल करना): "Imitate" means to mimic or copy, which doesn't fully capture the idea of reinforcing a value.
• Defy (अनदेखी करना): "Defy" means to challenge or resist, which does not fit the context.
• Provoke (उकसाना): "Provoke" means to incite or trigger, which doesn't align with the idea of promoting harmony.

The correct answer is 'exert'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the growing impact of climate change and urban sprawl.
• The appropriate verb should indicate applying or putting pressure on cities.
• "Exert" fits well as it denotes applying or putting pressure on something, aligning with how climate change and urban sprawl affect cities.
• Other options ("moderate", "lessen", "dilute") do not fit the context of increasing pressure.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: The concept of sustainable architecture refers to design approaches that safeguard environmental integrity. These structures often incorporate renewable energy, low impact materials, and design principles that minimise energy consumption. Beyond the functional, sustainable architecture embraces aesthetics that echo harmony with nature. The movement is gaining momentum as climate change and urban sprawl exert pressure on cities to evolve. Its long-term success will depend on public awareness and policy alignment.

 

Additional Information

• Exert (दबाव डालना): "Exert" means to apply or bring to bear (a force, influence, or quality).
• Moderate (मध्यम करना): "Moderate" means to lessen the intensity of, which does not reflect increasing pressure.
• Lessen (कम करना): "Lessen" means to make less or reduce, which is contrary to the idea of increasing pressure.
• Dilute (कमज़ोर करना): "Dilute" means to make weaker or less concentrated, which does not fit the context.

The correct answer is 'depend on'.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes factors critical to the success of sustainable architecture.
• The appropriate phrase should indicate reliance on certain elements for long-term success.
• "Depend on" fits well as it correctly signifies reliance on public awareness and policy alignment.
• Other options ("discourage", "eliminate", "abandon") do not fit the context of focusing on necessary dependencies for success.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: The concept of sustainable architecture refers to design approaches that safeguard environmental integrity. These structures often incorporate renewable energy, low impact materials, and design principles that minimise energy consumption. Beyond the functional, sustainable architecture embraces aesthetics that echo harmony with nature. The movement is gaining momentum as climate change and urban sprawl exert pressure on cities to evolve. Its long-term success will depend on public awareness and policy alignment.

 

Additional Information

• Depend on (निर्भर करना): "Depend on" means to be determined, influenced, or contingent on someone or something.
• Discourage (हतोत्साहित करना): "Discourage" means to cause (someone) to lose confidence or enthusiasm, which does not fit the context.
• Eliminate (समाप्त करना): "Eliminate" means to completely remove or get rid of (something), which is not contextually appropriate.
• Abandon (त्यागना): "Abandon" means to give up completely, which does not fit the context.

The correct answer is Kashmiri Stag.

Key Points

• Project Hangul was launched to conserve the Kashmiri Stag, also known as the Hangul, which is a critically endangered deer species.
• The Hangul is primarily found in the Dachigam National Park and surrounding areas in the Kashmir Valley.
• It is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir and is a subspecies of the Red Deer, scientifically named Cervus hanglu hanglu.
• Due to habitat destruction, poaching, and human encroachment, the population of Hangul has drastically declined; conservation efforts aim to protect the remaining population.
• The species is listed as Critically Endangered on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

Additional Information

• Bengal Tiger
• The Bengal Tiger (Panthera tigris tigris) is the national animal of India and is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
• It is primarily conserved under Project Tiger, launched in 1973 to protect tiger populations and their habitats.
• The Bengal Tiger is found in various parts of India, including the Sundarbans, Ranthambore, and Bandhavgarh National Parks.
• Snow Leopard
• The Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) is a solitary and elusive big cat species found in the high-altitude regions of the Himalayas and Central Asia.
• It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and is being conserved under the Project Snow Leopard, initiated in 2009 by the Government of India.
• The project aims to protect the snow leopard and its habitat across the Himalayan ranges.
• Wild Ass
• The Wild Ass, also known as the Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur), is found primarily in the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
• It is listed as Near Threatened on the IUCN Red List.
• Conservation efforts include the establishment of the Wild Ass Sanctuary in Gujarat, which is the largest wildlife sanctuary in India.

The correct answer is II and IV only.

Key Points

• The Self-Respect Movement (option II) was started by E.V. Ramasamy "Periyar" in Tamil Nadu during the 1920s to promote equality and eradicate caste-based discrimination.
• The Vaikom Satyagraha (option IV) was a significant movement in Kerala during 1924-25, aimed at fighting for the rights of lower-caste individuals to use roads surrounding the Vaikom temple.
• Both these movements focused on challenging the caste hierarchy and promoting social justice, making them examples of caste-based movements in India.
• Other options, such as the Young Bengal Movement and Theosophical Movement, were not caste-based movements and focused on different social and cultural reforms.

Additional Information

• Young Bengal Movement (option I):
• This movement was initiated by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio in the early 19th century in Bengal.
• It primarily focused on promoting rational thinking, questioning orthodox Hindu customs, and advocating Western education.
• It was not linked to caste-based issues but was a reformist intellectual movement.
• Self-Respect Movement (option II):
• Founded by E.V. Ramasamy "Periyar" in Tamil Nadu in 1925, it aimed to eliminate caste discrimination and promote self-respect among the oppressed communities.
• The movement opposed Brahmanical dominance and promoted rationalism, equality, and women's rights.
• Theosophical Movement (option III):
• This movement was founded by Helena Blavatsky and Henry Steel Olcott in 1875 and later gained traction in India under Annie Besant's leadership.
• It focused on spiritual enlightenment, promoting universal brotherhood, and reviving ancient Indian traditions.
• While it sought to bridge the gap between different cultures, it was not a caste-based movement.
• Vaikom Satyagraha (option IV):
• Organized in Kerala (1924-25), it was led by leaders like T.K. Madhavan and K. Kelappan under the guidance of Mahatma Gandhi.
• The movement aimed to allow the lower castes to access public roads around the Vaikom temple, challenging untouchability and caste-based discrimination.

The correct answer is To simplify the tax structure.

Key Points

• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced by the Government of India with the primary objective of streamlining and simplifying the tax structure.
• It replaced multiple indirect taxes such as VAT, excise duty, service tax, etc., and consolidated them into a single unified tax regime.
• GST aims to eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, where tax is levied on tax at various stages of the supply chain.
• It is a destination-based tax, meaning the tax is collected at the point of consumption rather than production.
• GST promotes ease of doing business by reducing compliance burdens and creating a unified market across India.
• It has been implemented under a dual system with both Central GST (CGST) and State GST (SGST), ensuring revenue sharing between the central and state governments.

Additional Information

• Goods and Services Tax (GST)
• GST was implemented on 1st July 2017 as one of India’s most significant tax reforms.
• It is governed by the GST Council, which comprises representatives from both the central and state governments.
• The GST system is categorized into different tax slabs such as: 5% and 18%, along with a 0% slab for essential items and a 40% rate for luxury and sin goods.
• It has helped in reducing tax evasion and increasing overall compliance in the country.

The correct answer is conducting Panchayat and Municipal elections.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, mandated the establishment of the State Election Commission (SEC) for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
• Article 243K of the Constitution empowers the State Election Commission to supervise, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.
• The SEC is a constitutional body created by the state governments, and its responsibilities include conducting elections to rural and urban local bodies.
• The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the respective state, and the tenure and conditions of service are determined by the state legislature.
• This provision ensures that elections at the grassroots level are conducted in a free, fair, and impartial manner, promoting decentralization and democracy.

Additional Information

• Conducting Lok Sabha elections
• The Election Commission of India (ECI), a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, is responsible for conducting Lok Sabha elections.
• The ECI supervises and administers elections for the President, Vice-President, Parliament, and State Legislatures.
• It is an independent body to ensure free and fair elections across the country.
• Conducting Presidential elections
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is also responsible for conducting the Presidential elections in India.
• The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories with Legislatures.
• Presidential elections are conducted through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• Conducting State Assembly elections
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) also supervises and conducts elections to the State Legislative Assemblies.
• It ensures compliance with the Model Code of Conduct, which is a set of guidelines meant to regulate political parties and candidates during elections.
• Panchayat and Municipal elections
• The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments introduced Panchayati Raj and Urban Local Bodies, respectively, mandating elections at the grassroots level.
• These amendments aimed to promote decentralization and local self-governance by empowering local bodies to function as effective institutions of local governance.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and is responsible for regulating and supervising formal sources of loans and credit in the country.
• RBI ensures the smooth functioning of the financial system by monitoring banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), and other financial institutions.
• The RBI uses tools such as monetary policy, including the cash reserve ratio (CRR), statutory liquidity ratio (SLR), and repo rates, to control the flow of credit in the economy.
• The RBI also ensures that banks and other formal lending institutions comply with the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and other regulatory frameworks.
• It plays a critical role in maintaining financial stability, controlling inflation, and ensuring the transparency of credit disbursement in the economy.

Additional Information

• State Cooperative Banks
• State Cooperative Banks operate within a state and cater to the needs of cooperative societies, farmers, and rural areas.
• They provide financial assistance primarily to support agriculture and rural development.
• Although they are supervised by the RBI in terms of licensing and banking regulations, their primary focus is on cooperative banking, not the overall supervision of formal credit systems.
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
• SEBI is the regulatory body for the securities and capital markets in India.
• It was established in 1988 and given statutory powers in 1992 under the SEBI Act, 1992.
• SEBI regulates stock exchanges, mutual funds, and other entities in the securities market to protect investors and ensure market transparency.
• It does not supervise the functioning of formal sources of loans or credit institutions.
• International Monetary Fund (IMF)
• The IMF is an international organization headquartered in Washington, D.C., with 190 member countries.
• Its primary focus is on maintaining global financial stability, promoting international trade, and fostering economic growth.
• The IMF provides financial assistance and policy advice to its member countries but does not supervise the functioning of loans or credit systems within any specific country.

The correct answer is Kannauj.

Key Points

• The Tripartite Struggle was a prolonged conflict among the Gurjara-Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas, and Palas during the 8th and 9th centuries CE.
• The primary objective of this struggle was the control over Kannauj, which was a strategically and economically important city in northern India during this period.
• Kannauj held immense significance as it was located on major trade routes, symbolized political power, and had historical prestige since the time of Harsha.
• The struggle resulted in the weakening of all three dynasties, paving the way for regional powers and the eventual rise of new empires in India.

Additional Information

• The Tripartite Struggle highlights the political and military rivalry among major Indian dynasties during the early medieval period.
• The Pratiharas sought to establish dominance in northern India, while the Rashtrakutas aimed to expand their territory further north. The Palas, based in Bengal, also aimed for territorial expansion and influence over Kannauj.
• Kannauj's control was crucial due to its strategic location on trade routes and its historical prestige.
• This period marked the transition from ancient to medieval India, with regional powers vying for dominance and shaping the political landscape of the subcontinent.

The correct answer is Continentality or the distance from the Sea.

Key Points

• Mumbai experiences lower temperatures and higher rainfall compared to Nagpur due to its proximity to the Arabian Sea, which moderates its climate and increases humidity.
• This phenomenon is referred to as Continentality, where areas closer to the sea have maritime climates characterized by less temperature variation and higher rainfall.
• In contrast, Nagpur, being located in the interior of the Indian subcontinent, experiences a continental climate with higher temperature variations and lower rainfall.
• The sea acts as a temperature buffer for coastal regions like Mumbai, as water heats and cools more slowly than land, resulting in moderate weather conditions.
• During the monsoon season (June to September), the moisture-laden winds from the sea bring heavy rainfall to coastal regions, while interior regions like Nagpur receive comparatively less rainfall.

Additional Information

• Latitude (Parallels): Horizontal lines running East-West, measuring distance from the Equator (0°), with North (N) and South (S) designations.
• Longitude (Meridians): Vertical lines running Pole-to-Pole, measuring distance from the Prime Meridian (0°) in Greenwich, England, with East (E) and West (W) designations.
• Altitude (Vertical Position): Height measured vertically from a reference point, typically the mean sea level (MSL).

The correct answer is Total income of a country divided by its population.

Key Points

• Per capita income (PCI) is a measure of the average income earned per person in a given area (city, region, country) in a specified year.
• It is calculated by dividing the total income of a country by its total population.
• Formula: Per Capita Income = Total National Income ÷ Total Population.
• It is used as an economic indicator to gauge the standard of living and economic well-being of a country's citizens.
• PCI helps in comparing the economic performance of different countries or regions.

Additional Information

• GDP (Gross Domestic Product): Total value of all final goods/services produced within a country's borders in a period, regardless of who owns the factors of production (e.g., Japanese car made in India counts).
• GNP (Gross National Product): Total income earned by a country's nationals, wherever they are. GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
• NDP (Net Domestic Product): GDP minus depreciation (consumption of fixed capital), showing the actual net output available for use or consumption.
• NNP (Net National Product): GNP minus depreciation, representing the nation's net income after accounting for capital consumption and foreign earnings; often considered the closest to "National Income" (NI).

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The Quit India Movement of 1942, also known as the August Kranti, marked the beginning of the final phase of India’s struggle for independence.
• It was a nationwide mass movement demanding complete independence from British rule and forcing Britain to seriously reconsider its position in India.
• The movement was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942, with the slogan "Do or Die."
• Though suppressed brutally by the British, it galvanized Indians across all sections of society, making it clear that colonial rule could no longer continue.
• The movement played a crucial role in forcing Britain to acknowledge the inevitability of its withdrawal from India, eventually leading to independence in 1947.

Additional Information

• Major Leaders & Roles:
• Mahatma Gandhi: Launched the movement on August 8, 1942, with the powerful "Do or Die" call, inspiring mass civil disobedience.
• Jawaharlal Nehru: Mobilized students and workers, boosting morale through writings from prison.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Coordinated underground Congress activities and provided relief to arrested families.
• Jayaprakash Narayan (JP): Led peasant uprisings, particularly in Bihar, and helped establish a parallel government in Ballia.
• Ram Manohar Lohia: Orchestrated student protests in UP, printing underground literature like "How to Establish an Independent Government".
• Aruna Asaf Ali: Presided over the AICC session and operated secret Congress radio broadcasts from Bombay.
• Usha Mehta: Ran the clandestine Indian National Congress Radio in Nashik, broadcasting news and directives.
• Achyut Patwardhan: Led factory strikes and protests in Bombay.

The correct answer is Organisation of village panchayats.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) enshrined in the Indian Constitution are non-justiciable guidelines for the State to ensure socio-economic justice.
• The Organisation of village panchayats is mentioned under Article 40 of the Indian Constitution, which directs the State to take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with powers and authority to function as units of self-government.
• This provision is inspired by Gandhian principles, which emphasize decentralization of power and the empowerment of villages as the basic units of governance.
• Gandhiji believed in the concept of "Gram Swaraj" (village self-rule) and considered village panchayats as a means to achieve self-sufficiency and participatory democracy at the grassroots level.
• The establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions was later formalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which gave constitutional status to panchayats.

Additional Information

• Uniform Civil Code (Option 1):
• The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned under Article 44 of the Constitution as a Directive Principle.
• It aims to replace personal laws based on religious scriptures and customs with a common set of laws governing all citizens, irrespective of religion.
• This principle is inspired by the liberal and secular ideals of ensuring equality and justice in personal laws.
• Promotion of international peace (Option 2):
• This is mentioned under Article 51 of the Constitution as a Directive Principle.
• It directs the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and encourage the settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
• This principle is inspired by India's commitment to global peace and cooperation.
• Equal pay for equal work (Option 3):
• This is mentioned under Article 39(d) of the Constitution as a Directive Principle.
• It mandates the State to ensure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
• This principle is inspired by socialist ideals of equality and non-discrimination in labor practices.

The correct answer is Mawsynram.

Key Points

• Mawsynram, located in the East Khasi Hills of Meghalaya, India, is officially recognized as the place with the highest average annual rainfall in the world.
• It receives approximately 11,871 millimeters (467.4 inches) of rainfall annually, making it the wettest location globally.
• The extremely high rainfall in Mawsynram is attributed to its proximity to the Bay of Bengal and its unique geographical position in the Khasi Hills, which traps moisture-laden monsoon winds.
• The rainfall is most intense during the monsoon season, typically spanning from June to September, due to the Indian Ocean monsoon winds.
• The region's vegetation and lifestyle are significantly influenced by the heavy rains, with locals often using grass and bamboo structures to mitigate water leakage in homes.

Additional Information

• Rainfall and Indian Monsoon System:
• India's rainfall patterns are heavily influenced by the monsoon system, with the southwest monsoon being the primary contributor to precipitation in most regions.
• Locations like Mawsynram and Cherrapunji receive extraordinary rainfall due to the interaction of moist monsoon winds with topographical barriers such as hills and mountains.
• Other regions, such as Shillong, Kohima, and Darjeeling, experience moderate to high rainfall due to their proximity to the monsoon pathways.
• Differential Heating: The fundamental cause is the Asian landmass heating faster than the ocean in summer.
• Jet Streams: The northward shift of the subtropical jet stream over the Tibetan Plateau is critical for the monsoon's onset.
• Regional Diversity: Rainfall varies greatly, with some areas receiving abundant rain while others experience breaks or droughts, impacting water security and agriculture.

The correct answer is 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, came into force on 24th April 1993 and is considered a landmark step towards decentralization of power in India.
• This amendment provided a constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj System and institutionalized democracy at the grassroots level.
• It added a new part, Part IX, and a new schedule, 11th Schedule, to the Indian Constitution, listing 29 functional items for Panchayats.
• The Act mandates a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in all states, covering the village, intermediate (block), and district levels, except for states with populations below 20 lakhs where intermediate-level Panchayats may not be constituted.
• It introduced provisions for direct elections to all seats in Panchayats and reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women (not less than one-third of the total seats).
• The State Election Commission (SEC) was established to conduct elections for Panchayats, and the State Finance Commission was constituted to review the financial position of Panchayats and make recommendations.

Additional Information

• 74th Amendment Act, 1992
• This amendment introduced the urban local governance system and provided constitutional status to municipalities.
• It added a new part, Part IXA, to the Indian Constitution and introduced the 12th Schedule, which contains 18 functional items of municipalities.
• It categorized municipalities into three types: Nagar Panchayats (for areas in transition from rural to urban), Municipal Councils (for smaller urban areas), and Municipal Corporations (for larger urban areas).
• The Act also provided for the establishment of Ward Committees for areas with a population of three lakhs or more.
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
• Known as the “Mini Constitution”, this amendment brought significant changes to the Constitution.
• It added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” to the Preamble and emphasized the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• It transferred subjects like education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, and weights and measures from the State List to the Concurrent List.
• It also curtailed the power of judicial review by the Supreme Court and High Courts.
• 86th Amendment Act, 2002
• This amendment introduced the Right to Education as a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Constitution.
• It made education free and compulsory for children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
• It also added a new fundamental duty under Article 51A, which directs parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children in the specified age group.

The correct answer is Parantaka I.

Key Points

• Parantaka I was a prominent ruler of the Chola dynasty who reigned from 907 to 955 CE.
• He earned the title "Maduraikondavan," meaning "the conqueror of Madurai," after defeating the Pandya king Maravarman Rajasimha II and capturing Madurai.
• His victory over the Pandya rulers marked the expansion of the Chola Empire into the southern Tamil region.
• Parantaka I is also known for his contributions to the development of temple architecture and the promotion of Tamil culture.
• He laid the foundation for the later expansion and glory of the Chola Empire under Rajaraja I and Rajendra Chola I.

Additional Information

• Vijayalaya
• Vijayalaya Chola was the founder of the Chola dynasty in the medieval period.
• He established the Chola rule by capturing Tanjore (Thanjavur) in the mid-9th century CE.
• Vijayalaya built the temple of Nishumbhasudini (Durga) at Tanjore, marking the beginning of Chola architectural achievements.
• Rajaraja I
• Rajaraja I was one of the greatest rulers of the Chola dynasty, reigning from 985 to 1014 CE.
• He is known for his military conquests, administrative reforms, and the construction of the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• He expanded the Chola Empire into Sri Lanka, the Maldives, and parts of Southeast Asia.
• Rajendra Chola
• Rajendra Chola I, the son and successor of Rajaraja I, ruled from 1014 to 1044 CE.
• He is celebrated for his naval expeditions and the conquest of regions in Southeast Asia, including Srivijaya (modern-day Indonesia).
• Rajendra Chola established the new capital Gangaikonda Cholapuram and built the Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple.

The correct answer is Himadri - Zaskar - Ladakh - Karakoram.

Key Points

• The Himalayan ranges are arranged in a south-to-north sequence, starting with the Himadri range (Greater Himalayas), followed by Zaskar, Ladakh, and finally, the Karakoram range.
• The Himadri range lies furthest south and is the highest range, consisting of prominent peaks such as Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga.
• The Zaskar range is located to the north of Himadri and acts as a barrier between Ladakh and the rest of the Himalayas.
• The Ladakh range lies further north and is characterized by rugged terrains and arid landscapes.
• The Karakoram range is the northernmost range, bordering India, Pakistan, and China, and includes the second-highest peak in the world, K2.

Additional Information

• Himadri Range (Greater Himalayas):
• The Himadri range, also known as the Greater Himalayas, is the southernmost and tallest Himalayan range.
• It includes the world's highest peaks such as Mount Everest (8,848 m) and Kanchenjunga (8,586 m).
• This range acts as a climatic barrier, preventing cold winds from Central Asia from entering India.
• Zaskar Range:
• The Zaskar range lies to the north of the Himadri range.
• It primarily separates the Ladakh region from the rest of the Himalayan ranges.
• Key rivers, such as the Zanskar River, flow through this region, forming spectacular gorges.
• Ladakh Range:
• The Ladakh range is located further north of the Zaskar range and is known for its arid desert-like terrain.
• This region experiences extreme climatic conditions and has sparse vegetation.
• It is home to important valleys like Leh and Nubra.
• Karakoram Range:
• The Karakoram range is the northernmost range in the Indian subcontinent.
• It includes the second-highest peak in the world, K2 (8,611 m).
• The Siachen Glacier, the world's highest battlefield, is located in this range.
• This range is geographically significant as it forms a natural boundary between India, Pakistan, and China.

The correct answer is Absence of double coincidence of wants.

Key Points

• The barter system requires a double coincidence of wants, meaning that both parties must want exactly what the other is offering at the same time and in the same quantity.
• Due to the absence of double coincidence of wants, it becomes extremely difficult to facilitate trade smoothly in a barter system.
• This limitation makes the barter system inefficient and time-consuming, hindering the growth of trade and commerce.
• The barter system is impractical for large-scale economies because individuals often find it challenging to locate someone with matching needs.
• Money emerged as a medium of exchange to solve the problem of double coincidence of wants, making transactions more efficient and convenient.

Additional Information

• Barter System
• Exchange: Direct trading of goods and services (e.g., a farmer trades grain for a tailor's clothes).
• Medium of Exchange: None; goods are exchanged for other goods.
• Double Coincidence of Wants: Essential – both parties must want what the other has to offer.
• Store of Value: Difficult; perishable goods (like food) lose value over time.
• Measure of Value: Hard to establish; requires bartering how much of good A equals good B.
• Portability/Transferability: Cumbersome; moving large or perishable goods is difficult.
• Money System
• Exchange: Goods and services are sold for money, which is then used to buy other things.
• Medium of Exchange: Money (coins, notes, digital) acts as a universally accepted intermediary.
• Double Coincidence of Wants: Not required; you sell for money and buy later.
• Store of Value: Easy; money retains value and can be saved.
• Measure of Value: Simple; all goods have a price in a common unit (e.g., dollars, rupees).
• Portability/Transferability: Easy; money is lightweight and easily transferred.

The correct answer is Public Accounts Committee (PAC).

Key Points

• The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the most important financial committees in the Indian Parliament.
• The PAC primarily examines the appropriation of funds granted by Parliament and ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament's decisions.
• It scrutinizes the audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India to ensure financial accountability and transparency.
• The committee is constituted annually and consists of 22 members—15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.
• The PAC ensures that funds allocated to various government departments are used effectively and for the intended purposes.

Additional Information

• Business Advisory Committee
• The Business Advisory Committee is responsible for organizing the legislative business of the Parliament.
• It allocates time for discussions on bills, resolutions, and other parliamentary matters.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha heads this committee.
• Committee on Petitions
• This committee examines petitions presented to Parliament regarding grievances or requests from citizens.
• The Committee on Petitions can recommend measures to resolve the issues highlighted in the petitions.
• It acts as a bridge between citizens and the government to address public concerns.
• Estimates Committee
• The Estimates Committee examines budget estimates and suggests economies in public expenditure.
• It ensures that funds are allocated in the most efficient manner to achieve desired outcomes.
• Unlike the PAC, it does not focus on audit reports but on the planning and allocation of funds.

The correct answer is Tilt of the Peninsular block towards the southeast.

Key Points

• The eastward flow of most Peninsular rivers in India is due to the natural tilt of the Peninsular block towards the southeast, which directs the flow of water from west to east.
• The Peninsular plateau is a geologically stable region, and its tilt is attributed to tectonic movements over geological time scales.
• Rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri originate in the Western Ghats and flow eastwards due to this tilt, ultimately emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• This eastward slope is further reinforced by the low elevation of the Eastern Coastal Plains as compared to the Western Ghats, facilitating the rivers to flow eastward.
• The major deltas of India, such as the Godavari and Krishna deltas, are formed in the eastern coastal regions due to the eastward-flowing rivers depositing sediments in the Bay of Bengal.

Additional Information

• Key Features of Peninsular rivers:
• Age & Stage: Geologically older, in a mature stage, having eroded their beds significantly over time.
• Water Source: Primarily rain-fed (monsoon dependent), making them seasonal (non-perennial) with reduced flow in dry seasons.
• Flow Direction: Most flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal (e.g., Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna, Cauvery) due to the gentle slope, but Narmada and Tapi flow westward into the Arabian Sea.
• Course & Valley: Shorter, shallower courses with broad, graded, U-shaped valleys and fixed paths, lacking extensive meanders seen in Himalayan rivers.
• Rock Type: Flow over hard, ancient rocks (granite, gneiss) that are resistant to erosion, resulting in low water velocity and carrying capacity.
• Drainage Patterns: Exhibit dendritic, radial, and trellis patterns, often with waterfalls (like Jog Falls) due to rocky terrain.
• Mouths: Form large deltas (eastern rivers) or estuaries (western rivers like Narmada, Tapi).

The correct answer is Planning Commission.

Key Points

• The Planning Commission was a non-constitutional and non-statutory body in India established in 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
• It was tasked with formulating India’s Five-Year Plans for economic development and coordinating state and central government efforts in developmental activities.
• In 2015, the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), which functions as a policy think tank for the Government of India.
• NITI Aayog focuses on fostering cooperative federalism and promoting sustainable and inclusive development across India.
• The shift from the Planning Commission to NITI Aayog marked a shift from centralized planning to a more decentralized and participative approach to governance.

Additional Information

• Election Commission:
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an independent constitutional authority established under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
• It is responsible for administering free and fair elections in India at the national, state, and local levels.
• The ECI conducts elections for the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
• National Development Council (NDC):
• The NDC was a non-constitutional and non-statutory advisory body established in 1952 to strengthen and mobilize efforts for national development.
• It served as a platform for central and state governments to discuss and approve Five-Year Plans and policies.
• The NDC lost significance after the formation of NITI Aayog, which took over many of its functions.
• Finance Commission:
• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
• It is constituted every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the central and state governments.
• The Finance Commission also suggests measures to improve the financial stability of states.

The correct answer is Iron and steel.

Key Points

• The Chota Nagpur Plateau is India's richest mineral belt, with the highest concentration of iron ore reserves, which forms the backbone of the iron and steel industry.
• Major iron ore mines in the region include those in Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh, where the mineral is extracted and used for steel production.
• Important iron and steel plants such as Tata Steel (Jamshedpur), Bokaro Steel Plant, and Rourkela Steel Plant are located in proximity to this plateau.
• The availability of high-grade iron ore, coal, and other raw materials in this region makes it an ideal location for the iron and steel industry.
• The area is globally recognized for its contribution to India's industrial development, particularly in the manufacturing of steel products.

Additional Information

• Coal and Quartz:
• Coal is another significant mineral found in the Chota Nagpur Plateau, particularly in regions like Dhanbad and Jharia. These areas form part of India's largest coal belt.
• Quartz, a silicate mineral, is widely used in glassmaking and electronics but does not dominate the mineral industries of this plateau.
• Garnet and Clay:
• Garnet is a valuable gemstone and industrial mineral used in abrasives but is not heavily concentrated in this region.
• Clay is primarily used in ceramics and construction materials but does not form the core of mineral industries in the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
• Gold and Marble:
• Gold deposits are found in limited quantities in other parts of India, such as Karnataka's Kolar Gold Fields, and not in the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
• Marble, primarily used in construction and sculpture, is mined in Rajasthan and does not contribute significantly to this plateau's industries.

The correct answer is 1918.

Key Points

• The Kheda Satyagraha was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1918 in the Kheda district of Gujarat.
• The movement was initiated to address the plight of farmers who were unable to pay taxes due to a famine and crop failure.
• The British government insisted on tax collection despite the hardship, which led to Gandhi’s involvement in leading the farmers’ protest.
• Under Gandhi’s leadership, the farmers refused to pay taxes until their demand for tax suspension was met.
• The movement successfully resulted in the British authorities conceding to some of the farmers’ demands and suspending the tax collection for that year.
• The Kheda Satyagraha was a significant milestone in India’s freedom struggle and marked one of Gandhi’s earliest experiments with nonviolent civil disobedience in India.

Additional Information

• Champaran Satyagraha (1917): Gandhi's first major satyagraha in India, protesting indigo planters' oppressive conditions for farmers in Bihar.
• Kheda Satyagraha & Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918): In Kheda, he supported farmers demanding tax relief; in Ahmedabad, he championed textile workers for better wages, both using nonviolent pressure.
• Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919): A nationwide strike against the repressive Rowlatt Act, highlighting mass mobilization.
• Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22): A call to boycott British institutions, titles, and goods, marking a major step towards mass national struggle.
• Civil Disobedience Movement (Dandi March/Salt Satyagraha) (1930): A 240-mile march to the sea to protest the British salt tax, symbolized defiance of unjust laws.