IB Security Assistant (Executive) Official Paper (Held On: 29 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The 'Yashoda Yojana' was launched by the Government of Odisha in the Koraput district in 2025.
• This scheme is aimed at providing care and protection to children who are parentless, single-parented, or neglected.
• It ensures children are linked to educational benefits, providing access to proper schooling and development opportunities.
• The initiative emphasizes the welfare of underprivileged and vulnerable children, focusing on their holistic development and security.
• The program aligns with Odisha's commitment to improving child welfare and promoting social security measures within the state.

Additional Information

• Andhra Pradesh
• Andhra Pradesh is known for welfare schemes such as 'Amma Vodi,' which provides financial assistance to mothers for their children's education.
• The state also implements 'YSR Kanti Velugu,' a comprehensive eye care program aimed at treating eye-related issues for its citizens.
• However, no scheme similar to 'Yashoda Yojana' has been launched in Andhra Pradesh in 2025.
• Jharkhand
• Jharkhand focuses on tribal and rural welfare programs, such as the 'Birsa Harit Gram Yojana,' which promotes sustainable livelihoods and afforestation.
• 'Phoolo Jhano Ashirwad Abhiyan' is another initiative aimed at empowering women engaged in manual labor.
• Jharkhand has not introduced a child welfare program like the 'Yashoda Yojana' in 2025.
• Chhattisgarh
• Chhattisgarh has launched schemes like 'Godhan Nyay Yojana,' which encourages animal husbandry and organic farming.
• It also runs 'Mukhyamantri Suposhan Abhiyan,' aimed at eradicating malnutrition among children and women.
• While the state has initiated various welfare programs, it has not implemented a scheme similar to 'Yashoda Yojana' in 2025.

The correct answer is Dhar.

Key Points

• In September 2025, the foundation stone of India’s first Pradhan Mantri Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) Park was laid in Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh.
• The PM MITRA Park in Dhar is envisioned to provide world-class industrial infrastructure for the textile sector, encompassing spinning, weaving, dyeing, printing, and garment manufacturing.
• This initiative is expected to generate significant employment opportunities in the region and contribute to the socio-economic development of the area.
• The project aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ vision, aiming to reduce reliance on imports and boost domestic textile production and exports.
• The PM MITRA scheme is supported under the Union Budget 2021-22 and aims to establish seven textile parks across India over five years, with an outlay of Rs. 4,445 crore.

Additional Information

• About PM MITRA Scheme:
• The PM MITRA scheme was announced with the aim of creating ‘5F Vision’: Farm to Fiber to Factory to Fashion to Foreign.
• The scheme promotes integrated and sustainable textile parks with advanced infrastructure, plug-and-play facilities, and R&D centers.
• These parks will enhance India’s competitiveness in the global textile market and attract large-scale private investments.
• Significance of the Textile Sector in India:
• The textile industry contributes 14% to India’s total industrial production and 11% to its export earnings.
• It is the second-largest employer in India after agriculture, providing direct employment to over 45 million people.
• India is one of the world’s largest producers of textiles and garments, excelling in areas such as cotton, jute, and silk.

The correct answer is Purnea.

Key Points

• The National Makhana Board was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Purnea, Bihar, in September 2025.
• The announcement for the establishment of this Board was first made in the Union Budget 2025-26 to promote makhana cultivation and trade.
• Purnea is widely recognized as the hub of makhana production in India, contributing significantly to the nation’s overall output.
• The Board aims to address challenges faced by makhana farmers and enhance the productivity, quality, and market access for makhana.
• India is one of the largest producers of makhana globally, with Bihar accounting for nearly 90% of the total production.

Additional Information

• Dhanbad
• Dhanbad, located in Jharkhand, is known as the “Coal Capital of India” due to its rich coal deposits and significant contributions to the coal industry.
• It is home to the prestigious Indian School of Mines (ISM), which is now part of the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT).
• While Dhanbad is crucial for its mining industry, it does not have a significant role in makhana production.
• Bharuch
• Bharuch is a city in Gujarat, famous for its chemical and petrochemical industries.
• It is also known for its historical importance and rich cultural heritage but does not play a role in makhana cultivation.
• Kanpur
• Kanpur is a major industrial city in Uttar Pradesh, known for its leather and textile industries.
• It has no direct connection to makhana production or agriculture but is historically significant as an important center during India’s independence movement.
• About Makhana
• Makhana, also known as fox nuts, are seeds derived from the Euryale Fox plant, which thrives in water bodies like ponds.
• It is a nutritious food item rich in protein, fiber, and antioxidants and is widely used in snacks, sweets, and traditional cuisines.
• The establishment of the National Makhana Board is expected to boost the production, research, and export of this significant agro-product.

The correct answer is Latur (Maharashtra).

Key Points

• Latur (Maharashtra) is categorized under Seismic Zone III, which is considered a moderate-risk zone for earthquakes.
• India is divided into four seismic zones: II, III, IV, and V, with Zone V being the most prone to earthquakes and Zone II being the least.
• Regions in Seismic Zone V include areas like Kashmir Valley (Jammu & Kashmir), Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh), and Kachchh (Gujarat), which are classified as 'Very High Damage Risk Zones.'
• The 1993 Latur earthquake was a significant seismic event with a magnitude of 6.2, but the region's geological stability limits its classification to moderate risk.
• Seismic Zone III reflects reduced tectonic activity compared to Zone V, which comprises areas near active tectonic plate boundaries or fault lines.

Additional Information

• Kashmir Valley (Jammu & Kashmir):
• This region lies in Seismic Zone V, classified as a 'Very High Damage Risk Zone' due to its proximity to active tectonic plate boundaries in the Himalayan region.
• The area is prone to frequent earthquakes caused by the collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates.
• Major earthquakes in this region include the 2005 Kashmir earthquake, which caused widespread destruction.
• Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh):
• Himachal Pradesh, including Dharamshala, is also part of Seismic Zone V, making it highly susceptible to earthquakes.
• The Himalayan region experiences high seismic activity due to ongoing tectonic movements and fault lines.
• Strict building codes are enforced in this area to mitigate earthquake damage.
• Kachchh (Gujarat):
• Kachchh is another region within Seismic Zone V due to its location near geological fault lines, including the Kachchh Rift Basin.
• It has witnessed devastating earthquakes, such as the 2001 Gujarat earthquake, which caused significant loss of life and property.
• The region's vulnerability to earthquakes necessitates stringent disaster preparedness measures.
• Seismic Zones in India:
• India's seismic zones range from Zone II (least prone) to Zone V (most prone) based on earthquake risk.
• Factors influencing seismic activity include tectonic plate movements, fault lines, and geological features.
• Regions in Zone V face the highest risk due to their proximity to active tectonic zones, while Zone III reflects moderate risk.

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• Located in Mudumal village, Narayanpet district of Telangana.
• Represents a unique megalithic menhir tradition dating back over 3,500 years.
• Added to India’s Tentative List of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2025.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu
• Known for megalithic burial sites like cairn circles and dolmens.
• UNESCO-listed heritage includes Great Living Chola Temples.
• Kerala
• Kerala is known for its Edakkal Caves, which feature ancient rock art dating back thousands of years.
• The state also has megalithic sites, such as dolmens and stone alignments, but the Mudumal Menhirs are not located here.
• Kerala’s megaliths are typically associated with burial practices and provide insights into the region's prehistoric culture.
• Karnataka
• Karnataka is home to important megalithic sites, including the Hirebenkal Megalithic Tombs, which are protected as a UNESCO World Heritage tentative site.
• Rich in megalithic sites, especially stone circles and burial monuments.
• Home to UNESCO sites like Hampi and Pattadakal.

The correct answer is fly at Mach 8 and hit targets 1500 km away.

Key Points

• The ET-LDHCM missile, developed under DRDO's secretive Project Vishnu, can fly at a hypersonic speed of Mach 8, which is eight times the speed of sound.
• This advanced missile system boasts a range of 1,500 kilometers, making it suitable for long-range precision strikes.
• The missile incorporates cutting-edge navigation and guidance systems, ensuring precision targeting of high-value assets and enhancing its strategic deterrence.
• ET-LDHCM represents India's advancement in hypersonic missile technology, aligning with global defense trends to improve military capabilities.
• Hypersonic missiles provide a tactical edge in modern warfare due to their speed, maneuverability, and ability to evade traditional missile defense systems.

Additional Information

• Hypersonic Missile Technology:
• Hypersonic missile technology is a key focus for defense advancements due to its ability to travel at speeds greater than Mach 5.
• These missiles are highly maneuverable, capable of evading detection and interception by traditional missile defense systems.
• India’s development of hypersonic systems under programs like Project Vishnu highlights its commitment to staying competitive in global military capabilities.
• Types of Hypersonic Missiles
• Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGVs):
• Boosted by a rocket to high altitude and then released.
• Glides back to Earth at hypersonic speeds, capable of changing direction mid-flight.
• Evades defenses due to unpredictable trajectories.
• Hypersonic Cruise Missiles (HCMs):
• Use air-breathing scramjet engines for sustained flight.
• Fly at lower altitudes than HGVs, using the atmosphere to compress air for combustion.

The correct answer is Pre-disaster: rehabilitation and recovery of victims.

Key Points

• Disaster management consists of three major phases: Pre-disaster, During disaster, and Post-disaster.
• The phase of rehabilitation and recovery is part of the Post-disaster phase, not the Pre-disaster phase.
• Rehabilitation and recovery activities include rebuilding damaged infrastructure, restoring livelihoods, and providing long-term mental health and social support to victims.
• The Pre-disaster phase is centered on preparedness measures such as vulnerability assessment, public awareness campaigns, and capacity-building activities to mitigate potential disaster risks.
• Therefore, the association of rehabilitation and recovery with the Pre-disaster phase is a mismatch, making Option 2 the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Option 1: During disaster - evacuation of people, setting up shelters and relief camps
• The During disaster phase focuses on immediate response to a disaster to minimize its impact.
• Activities include evacuation of affected individuals, provision of medical aid, setting up temporary shelters, and organizing relief camps.
• Emergency services, rescue operations, and ensuring safety are the main priorities during this phase.
• Option 3: Post-disaster - capacity-building for future resilience and strengthening coping mechanisms
• The Post-disaster phase involves long-term recovery, rehabilitation, and reconstruction efforts.
• Capacity-building activities include training communities to handle future disasters, improving infrastructure, and enhancing coping mechanisms for resilience.
• This phase ensures that communities are better prepared to face similar disasters in the future.
• Option 4: Pre-disaster - preparing vulnerability zoning maps and spreading public awareness
• The Pre-disaster phase focuses on disaster risk reduction and preparedness.
• Activities include creating vulnerability zoning maps to identify high-risk areas, conducting public awareness campaigns, and designing evacuation plans.
• The objective is to reduce disaster risks and ensure communities are equipped to handle emergencies.

The correct answer is P Sivakami.

Key Points

• P Sivakami is an acclaimed Indian author, activist, and former IAS officer, renowned for her contributions to Dalit literature.
• She is celebrated for her groundbreaking novels such as "The Grip of Change" and "Author’s Notes", which explore caste and gender oppression in Indian society.
• Her literary works have been pivotal in addressing issues of caste discrimination, gender inequality, and the intersectionality of oppression.
• Sivakami is widely regarded as a pioneer of Dalit feminism, using her writings to highlight the unique challenges faced by Dalit women.
• The Verchol Dalit Literary Award is a prestigious recognition in Dalit literature, honoring authors for their remarkable contributions, and P Sivakami was awarded this honor in 2025.

Additional Information

• Yogesh Maitreya:
• He is a contemporary Dalit poet, writer, and publisher, known for his contributions to modern Dalit literature.
• Maitreya’s works often explore the socio-political struggles of Dalits in contemporary India.
• He is the founder of Panther’s Paw Publication, which focuses on publishing Dalit literature and amplifying marginalized voices.
• Yashica Dutt:
• She is the author of "Coming Out as Dalit", a memoir that details her personal journey of embracing her Dalit identity.
• Dutt’s work sheds light on the lived experiences of Dalits and the pervasive caste-based discrimination in Indian society.
• She has been an advocate for caste equity and social justice through her writings and speeches.
• Toral Jatin Gajarawala:
• She is an academic and scholar specializing in South Asian literature and caste studies.
• Her work often examines the intersection of caste, literature, and social justice.
• Gajarawala’s research and writings contribute significantly to the global understanding of Dalit literature and caste dynamics.
• Dalit Literature:
• Dalit literature emerged as a powerful literary movement, giving voice to the experiences and struggles of marginalized communities in India.
• It highlights themes such as caste oppression, social inequality, and the pursuit of justice.
• The movement has produced renowned authors like Baburao Bagul, Namdeo Dhasal, and Sharankumar Limbale.

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam.

Key Points

• Kamalini Dutt was an eminent figure in the realm of Indian classical dance and was celebrated for her significant contributions to Bharatnatyam.
• Bharatnatyam is a traditional dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu and is considered one of the oldest and most revered classical dance forms in India.
• Kamalini Dutt dedicated her life to the promotion, teaching, and preservation of Bharatnatyam, ensuring its recognition both nationally and internationally.
• She was instrumental in showcasing Bharatnatyam on global platforms, enhancing its reputation as a symbol of India's rich cultural heritage.
• Through her efforts, she inspired the younger generation to take up Bharatnatyam as both an art form and a medium for spiritual expression.

Additional Information

• Shadow Puppetry
• Shadow puppetry is a traditional form of storytelling using flat, articulated figures that cast shadows on a screen or surface.
• In India, this art form is known as "Tholu Bommalata" in Andhra Pradesh and "Togalu Gombeyaata" in Karnataka.
• The puppets are often made from leather and are illuminated by a light source to project their shadows.
• It is a popular folk art form that combines music, narration, and intricate designs to convey stories from epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• Baul Music
• Baul music is a unique folk tradition from Bengal that combines spiritual and philosophical themes with simple, soulful melodies.
• It is performed by the Bauls, a mystic community of wandering minstrels known for their distinctive lifestyle and attire.
• The songs often emphasize themes of universal love, self-realization, and oneness with the divine.
• Baul music was recognized by UNESCO as a part of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2008.
• Traditional Sculpture
• Traditional Indian sculpture is a significant part of India's cultural heritage and is often associated with religious and spiritual themes.
• Examples include temple carvings, stone idols, bronze statues, and terracotta figurines found across India.
• The sculptures typically depict deities, mythical creatures, and scenes from epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• Famous examples include the sculptures at Khajuraho, Ellora, and Mahabalipuram.

The correct answer is Real-money online games and esports.

Key Points

• The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, primarily regulates real-money online games and esports to ensure fair practices and transparency.
• The Act seeks to curb illegal activities, such as gambling, underage gaming, and match-fixing, in the online gaming ecosystem.
• It mandates a licensing system for platforms offering real-money games to ensure compliance with rules and consumer protection standards.
• Real-money games typically involve financial transactions, necessitating regulation to prevent issues like fraud, addiction, and exploitation.
• Esports, a significant part of the Act, is included to promote fair competition and address concerns like cheating and unethical practices in tournaments.

Additional Information

• Fantasy Sports Only
• Fantasy sports involve creating virtual teams based on real-life players, with outcomes determined by real-world game performances.
• While popular, fantasy sports are not the sole focus of the Act, as they do not always involve real-money transactions.
• Examples include Dream11, MPL Fantasy, and MyTeam11.
• Offline Card Games
• Offline card games like bridge, poker, and rummy are traditional games played physically.
• These games are not covered under the Act, which exclusively regulates online gaming platforms.
• Offline card games do not pose the same risks as online real-money games, such as fraud or addiction.
• Free-to-Play Mobile Games Only
• Free-to-play games like Candy Crush, Subway Surfers, and Among Us do not involve real-money transactions.
• These games are primarily meant for entertainment and are not subject to the regulatory framework of the Act.
• Although popular, these games do not pose the financial risks associated with real-money gaming.

The correct answer is Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi.

Key Points

• At the 64th National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships held in August 2025, Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi broke the men’s 400 m national record.
• Vishal achieved a remarkable timing of 44.60 seconds, surpassing the previous record of 44.96 seconds set by Muhammed Anas Yahiya in 2019.
• The championship was held in Kolkata, West Bengal, showcasing top athletes from across India.
• This achievement highlights India’s growing prowess in athletics and Vishal’s potential as a strong contender for international events like the Asian Games and Olympics.
• Vishal’s record-breaking performance is a testament to his talent and dedication, positioning him as a rising star in Indian athletics.

Additional Information

• Animesh Kujur
• Animesh Kujur is an emerging sprinter in Indian athletics but has not set any national records in the 400 m event.
• He is known for competing at various domestic-level athletics competitions and represents the younger generation of sprinters in India.
• Rajesh Ramesh
• Rajesh Ramesh is a prominent name in Indian athletics, particularly in relay races such as the 4x400 m relay.
• While he has contributed to India’s medal tally in international competitions, he has not broken the men’s 400 m national record.
• Muhammed Anas Yahiya
• Muhammed Anas Yahiya previously held the national record for the men’s 400 m event with a timing of 44.96 seconds, set in 2019.
• He is one of India’s most accomplished sprinters and has represented India in prestigious competitions like the Olympics and World Championships.
• His contribution to Indian athletics includes multiple medals in relay events and individual sprints.
• Men’s 400 m Sprint
• The 400 m sprint is a single-lap race around the track, demanding a mix of speed, endurance, and strategy.
• The event is one of the most challenging in athletics due to its requirement for both anaerobic and aerobic capacity.
• The current world record in men’s 400 m is held by Wayde van Niekerk of South Africa, with a timing of 43.03 seconds, set in the 2016 Olympics.

The correct answer is Nongkrem.

Key Points

• Nongkrem Dance Festival is one of the most famous religious and cultural festivals celebrated by the Khasi tribe of Meghalaya.
• The festival is held annually in Smit village, located near Shillong, the capital of Meghalaya.
• It is a religious ceremony performed to seek blessings for a good harvest, peace, and prosperity for the entire community.
• During the festival, unmarried Khasi girls dressed in traditional attire perform dances, while men equipped with swords symbolize strength and protection.
• Rituals during the festival include offerings to the deity U-Lei Shillong and animal sacrifices by the Khasi priests.

Additional Information

• Kang Chingba:
• This is a traditional festival of Manipur and is celebrated by the Meitei community.
• Kang Chingba marks the procession of Lord Jagannath's chariot and resembles the famous Rath Yatra of Puri, Odisha.
• It holds religious significance and is observed during the month of June-July.
• Moatsu Mong:
• Moatsu Mong is a festival celebrated by the Ao tribe of Nagaland.
• The festival signifies the end of the sowing season and the beginning of a new cycle of cultivation.
• It includes community feasts, songs, dances, and rituals to mark the occasion.
• Saga Dawa:
• Saga Dawa is a Buddhist festival celebrated predominantly in Sikkim and other Himalayan regions.
• It commemorates the birth, enlightenment, and death of Lord Buddha.
• The festival is observed with prayer processions, rituals, and the offering of butter lamps in monasteries.
• Meghalaya:
• Meghalaya is a northeastern state of India known for its vibrant tribal culture and scenic beauty.
• It is home to three major tribes – Khasi, Jaintia, and Garo.
• The state hosts other renowned festivals such as:
• Shad Suk Mynsiem – A thanksgiving festival celebrated by the Khasi tribe.
• Wangala Festival – Celebrated by the Garo tribe to honor the Sun God and mark the harvest season.
• Behdienkhlam – Celebrated by the Jaintia tribe to drive away evil spirits and seek prosperity.

The correct answer is Allowed non-Muslims to create waqf.

Key Points

• The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 introduced a significant reform by allowing non-Muslims to create waqf properties, provided the intention aligned with public welfare.
• This amendment aimed to promote inclusivity and broaden the scope of individuals contributing to the creation of waqf assets for philanthropic purposes.
• Waqf properties created under this provision must comply with the existing regulations of the Waqf Act, ensuring their use for charitable and religious purposes.
• Previously, only Muslims were permitted to create waqf properties, but this amendment marked a progressive step towards religious harmony and collective welfare.
• The inclusion of non-Muslims in waqf creation is expected to increase the overall corpus of waqf properties, allowing their enhanced utilization for societal benefits such as education, healthcare, and poverty alleviation.

Additional Information

• Waqf:
• Waqf refers to a permanent dedication of movable or immovable property for religious, educational, or charitable purposes as recognized under Islamic law.
• Traditionally, it has been an instrument to support causes such as building mosques, schools, and hospitals or assisting the underprivileged.
• Waqf Board:
• A waqf board is a statutory body established under the Waqf Act to oversee and manage waqf properties in India.
• It ensures that waqf properties are used appropriately and for the intended charitable or religious purposes.
• Key Features of the Waqf Act:
• The Waqf Act, 1995, governs the administration of waqf properties in India.
• It provides for the establishment of Central and State Waqf Boards to manage waqf assets effectively.
• It also includes provisions for resolving disputes related to waqf properties through waqf tribunals.
• Impact of the Amendment:
• The amendment is expected to foster greater collaboration among communities for social welfare initiatives.
• It also ensures that waqf properties continue to play a pivotal role in addressing societal challenges, such as poverty and lack of access to basic amenities.

The correct answer is 5.1%.

Key Points

• The overall unemployment rate for people aged 15 and above in India in August 2025 was reported as 5.1%, according to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS).
• The unemployment rate is an important economic indicator representing the percentage of individuals in the labor force actively seeking employment but unable to find work.
• This figure indicates a slight improvement compared to previous years, signaling better employment conditions in certain sectors of the economy.
• The PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and is considered the most comprehensive source of employment data in India.
• The survey provides insights into employment trends across rural and urban sectors, aiding policymakers in designing targeted employment strategies.

Additional Information

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
• Launched in 2017, the PLFS is aimed at generating estimates on key labor market indicators such as unemployment rate, worker population ratio, and labor force participation rate.
• The survey covers both urban and rural areas and provides quarterly updates for urban regions along with annual reports for the entire country.
• It serves as a critical tool for assessing employment and unemployment trends in India.
• Unemployment Rate:
• Defined as the percentage of people in the labor force who are actively looking for jobs but unable to find employment.
• A high unemployment rate indicates economic distress, while a lower rate signals better job opportunities and economic growth.
• The unemployment rate is an essential parameter used by policymakers to gauge the economic health of a country.
• Employment Trends in India:
• India's unemployment rate fluctuates due to global economic conditions, domestic policy changes, and disruptions like pandemics.
• Key employment-contributing sectors include agriculture, manufacturing, services, and information technology.
• Government initiatives such as Skill India, Start-Up India, and Make in India aim to boost employment opportunities and entrepreneurship in the country.
• Youth Unemployment:
• Youth unemployment, particularly among individuals aged 15–29, remains a significant challenge in India.
• The youth unemployment rate is generally higher than the overall unemployment rate, highlighting the need for targeted interventions.
• Government schemes like Skill India and other vocational training programs aim to address this issue by promoting skill development and employability.

The correct answer is Seafood.

Key Points

• Seafood is one of the richest natural sources of iodine, an essential mineral required for the proper functioning of the thyroid gland.
• Iodine is found abundantly in fish such as cod, tuna, shrimp, and shellfish, as well as seaweed like kelp and nori.
• Consuming iodine-rich seafood helps in the synthesis of thyroid hormones such as thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate metabolism, growth, and development.
• Regular consumption of seafood can prevent iodine deficiency disorders such as goiter, hypothyroidism, and related developmental issues.
• Seafood provides iodine in bioavailable forms, which makes it easier for the human body to absorb compared to other dietary sources.

Additional Information

• Wheat:
• Wheat is primarily a source of carbohydrates, dietary fiber, and some B vitamins such as folate and niacin.
• It does not naturally contain significant amounts of iodine. However, fortified wheat products may occasionally have added iodine.
• Wheat is not considered a reliable source of iodine for dietary needs.
• Refined Sugar:
• Refined sugar primarily provides empty calories and lacks essential nutrients, including iodine.
• Excessive consumption of refined sugar can lead to health problems such as obesity, type 2 diabetes, and dental issues.
• It is not associated with any iodine benefits or contributions to the daily iodine requirement.
• Puffed Rice:
• Puffed rice is a light and airy grain product made by heating rice grains under pressure.
• It is primarily a source of carbohydrates and may contain trace amounts of minerals, but it is not a significant source of iodine.
• Fortification can sometimes add nutrients like iron, but it is not typically enriched with iodine.

The correct answer is Navdeep Singh.

Key Points

• Navdeep Singh won the gold medal for India at the Paris Paralympic Games 2024 in his respective category.
• He is recognized as an accomplished para-athlete, known for his exceptional performance in various international competitions.
• His victory at the Paris Paralympics 2024 was a significant achievement, showcasing India’s growing prominence in the global para-sports arena.
• Navdeep Singh’s success was a result of his hard work, rigorous training, and unwavering dedication.
• His win contributed to India’s medal tally and inspired the Indian sports community, promoting inclusivity and the potential of para-athletes.

Additional Information

• Nishad Kumar:
• Nishad Kumar is a prominent Indian para high jumper who won a silver medal in the men’s T47 high jump at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games.
• He also holds the Asian record in his category, showcasing India’s strength in para-athletics.
• Mona Agarwal:
• Mona Agarwal is not currently known for any notable achievements in the field of para-sports or the Paralympic Games.
• Preethi Pal:
• Preethi Pal is not associated with any major accomplishments in the Paralympic Games or international para-sports events.
• Paris Paralympic Games 2024:
• The Paris Paralympic Games 2024 will take place from August 28 to September 8, featuring athletes with disabilities competing in various sports disciplines.
• India has been consistently improving its performance at the Paralympics, with increasing support for para-athletes through government schemes, financial assistance, and training initiatives.
• The event serves as a platform to showcase the exceptional capabilities of para-athletes and promote inclusivity in sports worldwide.

The correct answer is ₹10 lakh.

Key Points

• In September 2025, the Supreme Court of India directed a father to pay ₹10 lakh towards the marriage expenses of his daughter.
• The judgment was delivered as part of a divorce case, emphasizing the father's financial responsibility for his daughter's welfare post-divorce.
• The court stressed the importance of protecting the rights and interests of children involved in matrimonial disputes, ensuring they do not face undue hardship due to parental separation.
• This judgment reinforces the judiciary’s commitment to securing financial and emotional stability for children affected by divorce.
• Under Indian law, fathers are traditionally seen as bearing responsibility for their daughter’s marriage expenses, which the court upheld in this case.

Additional Information

• Legal Framework and Matrimonial Cases in India:
• The Indian judiciary frequently intervenes in divorce cases to ensure children’s rights are protected and their welfare is prioritized.
• Under Hindu law, fathers traditionally bear the financial responsibility for their daughters' marriage. This principle is often upheld in matrimonial disputes.
• Courts in India aim to minimize the impact of divorce on children by ensuring financial stability and emotional well-being.

The correct answer is Warli.

Key Points

• The Tarpa dance is a traditional group dance performed by the Warli tribal community, primarily located in the Thane and Palghar districts of Maharashtra.
• This dance is performed during festivals, community gatherings, and special celebrations, serving as a symbol of unity, joy, and social bonding.
• The dance is accompanied by the Tarpa, a wind instrument made from bamboo or gourd, and the dancers move in a circular chain, synchronizing their steps with the rhythm.
• Participants hold hands and perform coordinated movements, showcasing the community's harmony and cultural richness.
• The Tarpa dance reflects the Warli community’s close connection with nature and their vibrant traditional practices.

Additional Information

• Warli Tribe and Culture:
• The Warli tribe is one of the oldest tribal communities in India, predominantly residing in Maharashtra and parts of Gujarat.
• They are known for their Warli art, a unique style of painting that uses simple geometric shapes such as circles, triangles, and lines to depict daily life, rituals, and nature.
• Warli paintings are traditionally created using white rice paste on a red mud background and are often showcased during festivals and weddings.
• Other Tribal Dances in Maharashtra:
• Gond Tribe: The Gond community performs the Karma dance during festivals and weddings to celebrate social gatherings and agricultural harvests.
• Bhil Tribe: The Bhil tribe is known for their energetic and colorful Ghoomar dance, which is performed on special occasions like weddings and festivals.
• Santhal Tribe: Although primarily found in eastern India, the Santhal tribe performs the Santhal dance, a vibrant and rhythmic group dance during community celebrations.
• Significance of Tribal Dances:
• Tribal dances are important expressions of culture, reflecting the traditions, beliefs, and lifestyles of indigenous communities.
• They often carry religious, social, or agricultural significance and serve as a medium to transmit oral traditions across generations.
• Such dances highlight the importance of community bonding and the preservation of cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• On 12 March 2024, the Telangana government launched T-Safe, India's first ride monitoring service aimed at ensuring the safety of women passengers.
• The initiative is a collaborative effort between the Telangana government and Telangana Police, integrating technology-driven solutions to enhance women’s safety.
• T-Safe includes features like real-time vehicle tracking, driver monitoring, and emergency response mechanisms for addressing safety concerns during rides.
• The Telangana Police oversee the operations of T-Safe, ensuring women passengers feel secure and their journeys are monitored effectively.
• This initiative reinforces Telangana’s position as a leader in adopting innovative public safety measures, especially for women.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu is known for its proactive measures for women’s safety, including the Amma Patrol initiative launched to ensure the safety of women and children in public spaces.
• The state also has effective measures like women’s helpline numbers and exclusive women-friendly police stations.
• Tripura
• Tripura has been focusing on improving women’s safety through various awareness campaigns and initiatives.
• The state has taken steps to strengthen law enforcement and provide quicker responses to crimes against women.
• Andhra Pradesh
• Andhra Pradesh has implemented the Disha Act, which includes provisions for fast-tracking cases of crimes against women.
• The state has also launched the Disha app, a mobile application to help women in distress, providing immediate assistance and emergency services.

The correct answer is magnet.

Key Points

• A compass needle behaves as a tiny magnet that aligns itself with the Earth’s magnetic field.
• The needle is magnetized, possessing a north and south pole, which allows it to interact with the Earth’s magnetic field.
• The north pole of the needle points toward the magnetic north pole (geographically the South Magnetic Pole).
• The compass needle pivots freely, making it a reliable tool for navigation and determining directions.
• It utilizes the principle of magnetism, where opposite poles attract, to indicate the cardinal directions.

Additional Information

• Resistor:
• A resistor is an electronic component that opposes the flow of electric current in a circuit.
• It is used to control voltage and current in electrical circuits.
• Unlike a compass needle, a resistor does not interact with magnetic fields and is unrelated to magnetism.
• Conductor:
• A conductor is a material that allows the free flow of electric current through it due to the presence of free electrons.
• Examples include metals like copper, aluminum, and silver.
• A compass needle, being a magnet, is not related to the properties of electrical conductors.
• Insulator:
• An insulator is a material that resists the flow of electric current.
• Examples include rubber, plastic, and glass.
• Insulators are used to protect and separate electrical conductors but have no role in the functioning of a compass needle.

Given:

Distance of race = 600 metres

Head start for B = 50 metres

Time head start for B = 5 seconds

Speed of A = 6 m/s

Speed of B = 5 m/s

Formula Used:

Time taken = Distance ÷ Speed

Relative distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

⇒ Distance remaining for A = 600 metres

⇒ Distance remaining for B = 600 - 50 = 550 metres

⇒ Time taken by A to complete 600 metres = 600 ÷ 6 = 100 seconds

⇒ Distance covered by B in 100 seconds = 5 × 100 = 500 metres

⇒ Remaining distance for B = 550 - 500 = 50 metres

⇒ Time required by B to cover 50 metres = 50 ÷ 5 = 10 seconds

⇒ Time difference = 100 - 10 = 90 seconds

⇒ Relative distance between A and B when A finishes = 6 × 90 = 25 metres

∴ The correct answer is A wins by 25 metres.

Given:

A and B complete the work in 6 days.

A alone can complete the work in 7 days.

Formula Used:

Work completed per day = 1 ÷ Total days.

Total work = Work rate × Total days.

B's work rate per day = Total work - A's work rate per day.

B's time to complete 1/3 of the work = (1/3 × Total work) ÷ B's work rate per day.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = 1 (assuming full work is 1 unit).

⇒ A's work rate per day = 1 ÷ 7.

⇒ Combined work rate of A and B per day = 1 ÷ 6.

⇒ B's work rate per day = (1 ÷ 6) - (1 ÷ 7).

⇒ B's work rate per day = (7 - 6) ÷ (6 × 7).

⇒ B's work rate per day = 1 ÷ 42.

⇒ Total work for 1/3 = 1 ÷ 3.

⇒ B's time for 1/3 work = (1 ÷ 3) ÷ (1 ÷ 42).

⇒ B's time for 1/3 work = 42 ÷ 3.

⇒ B's time for 1/3 work = 14 days.

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Given:

Average marks including all students = 46

Marks of 4 students = 15, 13, 9, 11

Average marks excluding these 4 students = 54

Formula Used:

Sum of marks = Average × Total number of students

New total students = Total students - 4

Calculation:

Let total number of students = N

⇒ Sum of marks including all students = 46 × N

⇒ Marks of remaining students = 46 × N - (15 + 13 + 9 + 11)

⇒ New total students = N - 4

⇒ New average = Marks of remaining students ÷ New total students

⇒ 54 = [46 × N - (15 + 13 + 9 + 11)] ÷ (N - 4)

⇒ 54(N - 4) = 46 × N - 48

⇒ 54N - 216 = 46N - 48

⇒ 54N - 46N = 216 - 48

⇒ 8N = 168

⇒ N = 168 ÷ 8

⇒ N = 21

∴ The correct answer is 21.

Given:

Radius of solid metal sphere = 10 cm

Outer radius of hollow spherical shell = 3 cm

Inner radius of hollow spherical shell = 2 cm

Percentage of metal wasted = 15%

Formula Used:

Volume of solid sphere = (4/3) × π × radius³

Volume of hollow spherical shell = (4/3) × π × (outer radius³ − inner radius³)

Effective metal available = (1 − percentage wasted/100) × original metal volume

Number of shells = Effective metal volume ÷ Volume of one hollow shell

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of solid sphere = (4/3) × π × 10³ = (4000/3)π cm³

⇒ Volume of hollow shell = (4/3) × π × (3³ − 2³) = (4/3) × π × (27 − 8) = (76/3)π cm³

⇒ Effective metal volume = (1 − 15/100) × (4000/3)π = (85/100) × (4000/3)π = (3400/3)π cm³

⇒ Number of shells = Effective metal volume ÷ Volume of one hollow shell

⇒ Number of shells = ((3400/3)π) ÷ ((76/3)π) = 3400 ÷ 76 = 44.74

∴ The correct answer is 44.

Given:

Marked price = ₹1,320

Selling price = ₹462

First discount = d% of marked price

Second discount = First discount amount

Formula Used:

Discount amount = (Discount percentage × Marked price) ÷ 100

Selling price = Marked price − Total discount

Calculation:

First discount amount = (d × 1,320) ÷ 100

Second discount amount = First discount amount = (d × 1,320) ÷ 100

Total discount = First discount amount + Second discount amount

Total discount = (d × 1,320) ÷ 100 + (d × 1,320) ÷ 100

Total discount = 2 × (d × 1,320) ÷ 100

Selling price = Marked price − Total discount

⇒ 462 = 1,320 − [2 × (d × 1,320) ÷ 100]

⇒ 462 = 1,320 − (2d × 1,320) ÷ 100

⇒ 462 = 1,320 − (2,640d ÷ 100)

⇒ 462 = 1,320 − 26.4d

⇒ 26.4d = 1,320 − 462

⇒ 26.4d = 858

⇒ d = 858 ÷ 26.4

⇒ d = 32.5

∴ The correct answer is 32.5.

Given:

Previous month enrollments:

Alpha = 9000

Beta = 11000

Gamma = 7000

Fee per enrollment:

Alpha = ₹50

Beta = ₹65

Gamma = ₹80

Changes in current month:

Alpha increased by 25%

Beta decreased by 10%

Gamma increased by 30%

Discount on Gamma = 7%

Formula used:

Total earnings = Number of enrollments × Fee per enrollment

Percentage increase = (Increase ÷ Previous earnings) × 100

Calculations:

Previous Month Earnings:

⇒ Alpha = 9000 × 50 = 450000

⇒ Beta = 11000 × 65 = 715000

⇒ Gamma = 7000 × 80 = 560000

⇒ Total previous earnings = 450000 + 715000 + 560000 = 1725000

Current Month Enrollments:

⇒ Alpha = 9000 + 25% of 9000 = 9000 × 1.25 = 11250

⇒ Beta = 11000 − 10% of 11000 = 11000 × 0.90 = 9900

⇒ Gamma = 7000 + 30% of 7000 = 7000 × 1.30 = 9100

Current Month Earnings:

⇒ Alpha = 11250 × 50 = 562500

⇒ Beta = 9900 × 65 = 643500

⇒ Gamma discounted fee = 80 − 7% of 80

⇒ = 80 × 0.93 = 74.4

⇒ Gamma = 9100 × 74.4 = 677040

⇒ Total current earnings = 562500 + 643500 + 677040 = 1883040

Percentage Increase:

⇒ Increase = 1883040 − 1725000 = 158040

⇒ Percentage increase = (158040 ÷ 1725000) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase ≈ 9.16%

∴ The company’s total earnings increased by approximately 9.16%.

Given:

Speed for the first part = 80 km/hr

Time for the first part = 2 hours

Speed for the second part = 60 km/hr

Time for the second part = 1.5 hours

Time for the third part = 1 hour

Average speed for the journey = 66 km/hr

Formula Used:

Total distance = Speed × Time

Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

Calculation:

⇒ Distance for the first part = 80 × 2 = 160 km

⇒ Distance for the second part = 60 × 1.5 = 90 km

⇒ Total time = 2 + 1.5 + 1 = 4.5 hours

⇒ Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

⇒ Total distance = Average speed × Total time = 66 × 4.5 = 297 km

⇒ Distance for the third part = Total distance - Distance for the first part - Distance for the second part

⇒ Distance for the third part = 297 - 160 - 90 = 47 km

⇒ Speed for the third part = Distance ÷ Time

⇒ Speed for the third part = 47 ÷ 1 = 47 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 47 km/hr.

Given:

Marked price of the laptop = ₹70,000

Festive discount = 12%

Loyalty discount = 5%

Weekend offer discount = 3%

Formula Used:

Price after discount = Original price × (1 - Discount percentage/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Price after festive discount = ₹70,000 × (1 - 12/100)

⇒ Price after festive discount = ₹70,000 × 0.88

⇒ Price after festive discount = ₹61,600

⇒ Price after loyalty discount = ₹61,600 × (1 - 5/100)

⇒ Price after loyalty discount = ₹61,600 × 0.95

⇒ Price after loyalty discount = ₹58,520

⇒ Price after weekend offer discount = ₹58,520 × (1 - 3/100)

⇒ Price after weekend offer discount = ₹58,520 × 0.97

⇒ Price after weekend offer discount = ₹56,764.4

∴ The correct answer is ₹56,764.4.

Given:

Suresh's investment = ₹12,000

Time of Suresh's investment = 9 months

Kamal's investment = ₹9,000

Time of Kamal's investment = 12 months

Total profit = ₹8,400

Formula Used:

Profit share ratio = (Investment × Time)

Individual profit = (Individual share ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ Suresh's share ratio = 12,000 × 9 = 108,000

⇒ Kamal's share ratio = 9,000 × 12 = 108,000

⇒ Total share ratio = 108,000 + 108,000 = 216,000

⇒ Kamal's profit = (108,000 ÷ 216,000) × 8,400

⇒ Kamal's profit = 0.5 × 8,400

⇒ Kamal's profit = ₹4,200

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,200.

Given:

Initial radius (r₁) = 14 cm

Final radius (r₂) = 21 cm

Formula used:

Surface area of sphere = 4 × π × r²

Calculations:

⇒ Ratio of surface areas

⇒ 4 × π × 14² : 4 × π × 21²

⇒ 14² : 21²

⇒ 196 : 441

⇒ Divide by 49

⇒ 4 : 9

∴ The ratio of surface areas of the balloon is 4 : 9.

Given:

38% of initial population left the town

50% of the remaining population left the town

Present population = 4450

Formula used:

Remaining population = Initial population × (remaining percentage/100)

Calculation:

⇒ After 38% left, remaining = 100 − 38 = 62%

⇒ After 50% of remaining left, remaining = 50% of 62%

⇒ Remaining percentage = 62 × 50/100 = 31%

⇒ 31% of initial population = 4450

⇒ Initial population = 4450 × 100 ÷ 31

⇒ Initial population = 14354.84 (not needed for ratio)

⇒ Ratio of initial population to present population = 100 : 31

∴ The ratio of initial population to present population is 100 : 31.

Given:

$\sqrt{3+\sqrt{26+\sqrt{93+\sqrt{47+\sqrt4}}}}$

Calculation:

$\sqrt{3+\sqrt{26+\sqrt{93+\sqrt{47+\sqrt4}}}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{3+\sqrt{26+\sqrt{93+\sqrt{47+2}}}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{3+\sqrt{26+\sqrt{93+\sqrt{49}}}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{3+\sqrt{26+\sqrt{93+7}}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{3+\sqrt{26+\sqrt{100}}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{3+\sqrt{26+10}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{3+\sqrt{36}}$

⇒ $\sqrt{3+6}$

⇒ $\sqrt{9}$

⇒ 3

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Given:

Original price = ₹8,700

Discount = 10%

Increase = 10%

Formula Used:

Discounted price = Original price × (1 - Discount/100)

New price = Discounted price × (1 + Increase/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Discounted price = 8,700 × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ Discounted price = 8,700 × 0.9

⇒ Discounted price = ₹7,830

⇒ New price = 7,830 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ New price = 7,830 × 1.1

⇒ New price = ₹8,613

∴ The correct answer is ₹8,613.

Given:

Cost of first variety = ₹297 per kg

Cost of second variety = ₹167 per kg

Mean price of mixture = ₹256 per kg

Formula used:

Ratio = (Higher price − Mean price) : (Mean price − Lower price)

Calculation:

⇒ Difference between ₹297 and ₹256 = 297 − 256 = 41

⇒ Difference between ₹256 and ₹167 = 256 − 167 = 89

⇒ Required ratio = 89 : 41

∴ The grocer must mix the two varieties of rice in the ratio 89 : 41.

Given:

Difference of two numbers = 2639

Quotient = 2

Remainder = 130

Formula used:

Greater number = (Smaller number × Quotient) + Remainder

Difference = Greater − Smaller

Calculations:

Let smaller number = x

⇒ Greater number = 2x + 130

⇒ (2x + 130) − x = 2639

⇒ x + 130 = 2639

⇒ x = 2509

⇒ Smaller number = 2509

⇒ Greater number = 2 × 2509 + 130 = 5148

Now find HCF of 5148 and 4745

⇒ 5148 − 4745 = 403

⇒ 4745 ÷ 403, remainder = 312

⇒ 403 ÷ 312, remainder = 91

⇒ 312 ÷ 91, remainder = 39

⇒ 91 ÷ 39, remainder = 13

⇒ 39 ÷ 13 = 0

∴ The HCF of the greater number and 4745 is 13.

Given:

Profit = 38%

Formula used:

Profit% = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Loss% = (Loss ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

Assume Cost Price = 100

⇒ Selling Price = 100 + 38 = 138

After interchanging:

⇒ New Cost Price = 138

⇒ New Selling Price = 100

⇒ Loss = 138 − 100 = 38

⇒ Loss% = (38 ÷ 138) × 100

⇒ Loss% = 27.536%

⇒ Loss% ≈ 27.54%

∴ The required loss percentage is 27.54%.

Given:

Volume of the cube = 15,625 m³

Formula Used:

Volume of a cube = a³ (where a is the side length)

Lateral surface area of a cube = 4 × a²

Calculation:

⇒ a³ = 15,625

⇒ a = ∛15,625 = 25 m

⇒ Lateral surface area = 4 × a²

⇒ Lateral surface area = 4 × 25²

⇒ Lateral surface area = 4 × 625

⇒ Lateral surface area = 2,500 m²

∴ The correct answer is 2,500 m².

Given:

Circumference of base = 132 cm

Height (h) = 70 cm

π = 22/7

Formula used:

Circumference = 2 × π × r

Volume of cylinder = π × r² × h

Calculations:

2 × (22/7) × r = 132

⇒ (44/7) × r = 132

⇒ r = (132 × 7) ÷ 44

⇒ r = 21 cm

Volume = (22/7) × 21² × 70

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 441 × 70

⇒ Volume = 22 × 63 × 70

⇒ Volume = 97020 cm³

∴ The volume of the cylinder is 97020 cm³.

Given:

A can finish work in 12 days

B can finish work in 16 days

C can finish work in 18 days

They work on alternate days starting with A

Every 5^th day, only C works

Formula used:

Work = LCM of days

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

LCM of 12, 16 and 18

12 = 2² × 3

16 = 2⁴

18 = 2 × 3²

⇒ LCM = 2⁴ × 3² = 144 units

⇒ A’s 1 day work = 144 ÷ 12 = 12 units

⇒ B’s 1 day work = 144 ÷ 16 = 9 units

⇒ C’s 1 day work = 144 ÷ 18 = 8 units

Work done in 5 days:

Day 1 (A) = 12

Day 2 (B) = 9

Day 3 (A) = 12

Day 4 (B) = 9

Day 5 (C) = 8

⇒ Total in 5 days = 50 units

⇒ Work in 10 days = 100 units

⇒ Remaining work = 144 − 100 = 44 units

Day 11 (A) = 12 → remaining 32

Day 12 (B) = 9 → remaining 23

Day 13 (A) = 12 → remaining 11

Day 14 (B) = 9 → remaining 2

On Day 15 C completed 2 unit of work with efficiency of 8. Total time taken by C = 2/8 = 1/4 days

∴ The total time taken to complete the task is $14\frac{1}{4}$ days.

Given:

Karan invests ₹74,000 more than Arjun

Karan’s time = 6 months

Arjun’s time = 7 months

Total profit = ₹4698

Difference in profit shares = ₹1566

Formula used:

Profit ∝ Investment × Time

Ratio of shares = (Investment × Time)

Calculations:

Difference ÷ Total profit = 1566 ÷ 4698 = 1 ÷ 3

⇒ Let Karan : Arjun = a : b

⇒ (a − b) ÷ (a + b) = 1 ÷ 3

⇒ 3a − 3b = a + b

⇒ 2a = 4b

⇒ a : b = 2 : 1

Let Arjun’s investment = x

⇒ Karan’s investment = x + 74000

⇒ (x + 74000) × 6 : x × 7 = 2 : 1

⇒ 6(x + 74000) = 14x

⇒ 6x + 444000 = 14x

⇒ 8x = 444000

⇒ x = 55500

⇒ Karan’s investment = 55500 + 74000 = ₹129500

∴ The amount invested by Karan is ₹129500.

Among five people of different ages, P is older than R.

L is younger than M.

R is older than Y.

M is younger than Y.

Final order will be:

L < M < Y < R < P

L is the youngest. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The final Digaram,

• Ravi starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards the south.
• He then takes a right turn, drives 4 km, turns right and drives 10 km.
• He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km.
• He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Seven boxes, C, D, E, M, N, O and U, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

• Only one box is kept above O.
• Only U is kept between O and D.
• Only N is kept below E.
• M is kept at one of the positions above C

The Final Arrangement is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given: 

(Left) R L Z T @ $ O D U %W N # * K X V £ Y A & Q P S (Right)

Required Conditions : Symbol - Letter - Letter

(Left) R L Z T @ $ O D U % W N # *** K X** V £ Y A & Q P S (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some books are pens - False (As their is no direct relation between books and pens, may be it is possible but not definite.Hence, it is false.)

(II) No books are pens.  - False (As their is no direct relation between books and pens, may be it is possible but not definite.Hence, it is false.)

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic follows here,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given : 'CLAIM' is coded as '76231', 'LAYER' is coded as '53974' and 'CREAM' is coded as '25463'

The logic follows here, 

Code for Y is 9.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given : U, ?, I, E, A.

Logic: Reverse order of vowels

U, O, I, E, A

So, the missing vowel is O

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given : ‘LOVE’ is coded as ‘2795’ and ‘VOTE’ is coded as ‘7258’

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The Logic follows here,

The differences are increasing by 3 on every step.12, 15, 18, 21,24.

• 64 - 52 = 12
• 79 - 64 = 15
• 97 - 79 = 18
• 118 - 97 = 21
• So, the next difference will be:
• 21 + 3 = 24
• 118 + 24 = 142
• 52 64 79 97 118 142

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given: (Left) E A # / @ Q # M D N C $ O G ^ # # Y F Q W (Right)

Required Conditions : Symbol -  Letters -  Symbol

(Left)  E A # / @ Q # M D N C $ O G ^ # # Y F Q W  (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given :  A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

• C sits third to the left of A.
• G sits second to the left of D.
• Only A sits between E and G.
• B is not an immediate neighbour of C

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given Number: 6482357

Arrange in descending order: 8765432

Fifth from left = 4, fourth from right = 5

Sum = 4 + 5 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Six people, A, B, C, S, T and U, are sitting in a row facing north.

• Only two people sit to the right of A.
• Only two people sit between C and A.
• Only two people sit between S and B.
• S sits to the immediate right of C.
• U sits to the immediate right of B

The Final Arrangement is, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some cranes are balls.- True (Some cranes are sticks.All sticks are balls. Some cranes are balls is True)

(II) All balls are sticks. - False (All sticks are balls.All balls are sticks is may be possible but not definite Hence, it is false.)

Only conclusion (I) follows. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given 64 + 18 × 6 ÷ 5 − 3 = ? 

• means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +

64 - 18 ÷ 6 + 5 × 3 = ? 

64 + 15 - 3 = ?

64 + 15 - 3 = ?

79 - 3 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "Even the most patient person will resist if pushed too far".

Key Points

• The proverb "Even a worm will turn" means that even the humblest or most passive person will retaliate or resist when mistreated excessively. (यह कहावत बताती है कि सबसे शांत और विनम्र व्यक्ति भी ज़्यादा परेशान किए जाने पर प्रतिक्रिया करेगा।)
• Example: After years of being treated unfairly at work, he finally stood up to his boss. Truly, even a worm will turn.
• This proverb emphasizes the concept that patience has limits and even the meek can fight back when pushed beyond their tolerance. (धैर्य की सीमाएं होती हैं और विनम्र व्यक्ति भी ज़्यादा परेशान किए जाने पर प्रतिक्रिया कर सकता है।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "Even the happiest person will cry if treated too kindly" (यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि यह कहावत के वास्तविक अर्थ से मेल नहीं खाता।)
• Example: This statement is unrelated to the meaning of the proverb.
• Option 2: "Even the strongest person will agree if praised too much" (यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि यह कहावत का सही अर्थ नहीं दर्शाता।)
• Example: Excessive praise may influence someone but does not relate to the proverb.
• Option 4: "Even the laziest person will work if rewarded with sweet gifts" (यह विकल्प गलत है क्योंकि यह कहावत के वास्तविक संदर्भ से मेल नहीं खाता।)
• Example: Rewards may motivate someone to work, but this idea does not align with the proverb.

The correct answer is 'effect'.

Key Points

• The verb "effect" means to bring about or cause something to happen, which fits the context of the sentence.
• The sentence suggests that the government deployed additional troops to ensure a swift and secure response, so the correct word should convey the idea of bringing about or achieving this result.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are semantically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "The government deployed additional troops along the border to effect a swift and secure response to potential threats."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "reflect" is incorrect because "reflect" means to show or mirror something, which does not fit the intended meaning.
• Option 2: "perfect" is incorrect because "perfect" does not align with the meaning of bringing about a response.
• Option 3: "affect" is incorrect because "affect" means to influence or make an impact, which is not appropriate in this context.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Bleak).

Key Points

• The word "dismal" means showing or causing sadness, gloom, or misery; something that is depressing or bleak. (उदास / निराशाजनक)
• Example: The weather was dismal, with dark clouds and heavy rain all day.
• The word "bleak" refers to something that is cold, cheerless, or hopeless in appearance or feeling. It is often used to describe situations, emotions, or environments that are gloomy or devoid of comfort. (सूना / निराशाजनक)
• Example: After losing his job, his future seemed bleak and uncertain.
• Hence, the synonym for "dismal" is "bleak."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Bleak).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cordial (सौहार्दपूर्ण): Warm and friendly in behavior or attitude.
• Example: The host gave us a cordial welcome at the party.
• Bright (उज्ज्वल): Full of light or cheerful in mood or expression.
• Example: Her bright smile lit up the entire room.
• Livid (क्रोधित): Extremely angry or furious.
• Example: She was livid when she discovered the mistake in her report.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'antidiluvain'.

• The correct spelling is 'antediluvian'.
• The word 'antediluvian' is an adjective meaning 'extremely old-fashioned or outdated'. (प्राचीन)
• For Example -
• Her views on technology are positively antediluvian.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'antediluvian'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other options - 

• Antedulevian - This is not a correct word.
• Antideluvian - This is a misspelling of 'antediluvian'.
• Antideluvean - This is not a correct word.

The correct answer is: Scurry.

Key Points

• The word "Scurry" means to move hurriedly with short quick steps. (जल्दी और छोटे कदमों से दौड़ना)
• Example: The children scurried to their seats as the teacher entered the classroom.
• "Scurry" refers to a quick and hurried movement, often indicating urgency or excitement. (जल्दी या उत्साह में तेज गति से चलना)
• Example: The mouse scurried across the kitchen floor when it heard footsteps.
• Hence, the correct one-word substitute for "to move hurriedly with short quick steps" is "Scurry".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Scurry.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Loiter (आवारा घूमना): To stand or wait around idly or without apparent purpose.
• Example: The students were told not to loiter in the school corridors during class hours.
• Squid (स्क्विड (एक समुद्री जीव)): A marine animal with a long body and tentacles, not related to movement.
• Example: The fisherman caught a large squid in the deep sea.
• Crawl (रेंगना): To move forward slowly, typically on hands and knees.
• Example: The baby crawled across the floor to reach its toy.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (prohibit).

Key Points

• The word "allow" means to give permission for something to happen or to let someone do something. (अनुमति देना)
• Example: The teacher allowed the students to leave early after completing their assignments.
• "Prohibit" refers to the act of forbidding or preventing something by law, rule, or authority. It is the opposite of "allow." (निषेध करना)
• Example: The school strictly prohibits the use of mobile phones during class hours.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'allow' is 'prohibit'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (prohibit).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Admit (स्वीकार करना): To acknowledge or confess something to be true.
• Example: She admitted her mistake and apologized to her colleague.
• Allocate (आवंटित करना): To distribute or assign resources or tasks for a specific purpose.
• Example: The manager allocated funds for the new project.
• Approach (निकट आना): To move closer to someone or something or to deal with a situation.
• Example: He approached the problem with caution and careful planning.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by introducing the lack of recognition of Jefferson's philosophical contributions, building the foundation for the argument.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces the central idea:
• "Scholars in general have not taken seriously Thomas Jefferson (1743–1826) as a philosopher, perhaps because he never wrote a formal philosophical treatise."
• Sentence D follows as it elaborates on Jefferson’s prolific writing and its philosophical essence:
• "Yet Jefferson was a prodigious writer, and his writings were suffuse with philosophical content."
• Sentence A is the third sentence as it details the rich philosophical legacy Jefferson left behind:
• "Well-acquainted with the philosophical literature of his day and of antiquity, he left behind a rich philosophical legacy in his declarations, presidential messages and addresses, public papers, numerous bills, letters to philosophically minded correspondents (Adams especially), and his only book, Notes on the State of Virginia."
• Sentence C is the fourth as it concludes by highlighting his refined political philosophy and systemic approach to education:
• "Scrutiny of those writings reveals a refined political philosophy as well as a systemic approach to a philosophy of education in partnership with it."
• The correct sequence is BDAC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Scholars in general have not taken seriously Thomas Jefferson (1743–1826) as a philosopher, perhaps because he never wrote a formal philosophical treatise. Yet Jefferson was a prodigious writer, and his writings were suffuse with philosophical content. Well-acquainted with the philosophical literature of his day and of antiquity, he left behind a rich philosophical legacy in his declarations, presidential messages and addresses, public papers, numerous bills, letters to philosophically minded correspondents (Adams especially), and his only book, Notes on the State of Virginia. Scrutiny of those writings reveals a refined political philosophy as well as a systemic approach to a philosophy of education in partnership with it."

The correct answer is 'xenophobia'.

Key Points

• The term "xenophobia" refers to a fear or hatred of foreigners or strangers.
• The sentence discusses the intolerance of hatred towards foreigners, making "xenophobia" the most appropriate term to replace the underlined segment.
• Option 1: "misanthropy" is incorrect as it refers to a dislike or hatred of humankind in general, not specifically foreigners.
• Option 2: "testimony" is incorrect as it refers to a formal written or spoken statement, often in a legal context.
• Option 3: "chauvinism" is incorrect as it refers to exaggerated or aggressive patriotism, not hatred towards foreigners.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "The society should not tolerate xenophobia."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "misanthropy" is incorrect as it does not specifically address hatred towards foreigners.
• Option 2: "testimony" is irrelevant in this context as it relates to formal statements.
• Option 3: "chauvinism" is irrelevant here as it pertains to excessive patriotism.

The correct answer is 'an'.

Key Points

• The article "an" is used before words that begin with a vowel sound (a, e, i, o, u).
• In the given sentence, the word "assistant" begins with a vowel sound, so the article "an" is appropriate.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "She was hired as an assistant to the CEO, managing his daily schedule and correspondence."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "the" is incorrect because it refers to something specific, which is not the case here.
• Option 3: "a" is incorrect because it is not used before vowel sounds.
• Option 4: "No article required" is incorrect because an article is necessary to complete the sentence meaningfully.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph is about reducing carbon footprints and emphasizes practical and impactful ways to achieve this.
• Sentence R is the first sentence because it introduces the central theme of the paragraph:
• "Many people around the world are now focused on reducing their carbon footprints."
• Sentence P follows because it provides one specific way to reduce carbon footprints:
• "One way to do this is by using public transportation instead of private cars."
• Sentence S is the third sentence because it elaborates on the benefits of this shift:
• "This shift not only helps the environment but also contributes to reducing traffic congestion."
• Sentence Q is the fourth because it suggests another impactful way to reduce pollution:
• "Additionally, adopting renewable energy sources can significantly cut down on pollution."
• The correct sequence is RPSQ.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Many people around the world are now focused on reducing their carbon footprints. One way to do this is by using public transportation instead of private cars. This shift not only helps the environment but also contributes to reducing traffic congestion. Additionally, adopting renewable energy sources can significantly cut down on pollution."

The correct answer is 'Hurry up, boys!'.

Key Points

• The sentence in direct speech requires correct punctuation to separate the address (boys) from the command.
• The correct usage is "Hurry up, boys!" where a comma is placed before the address "boys" and an exclamation mark is used to indicate urgency.
• Option 2, Option 3, and Option 4 are incorrect as they either lack proper punctuation or capitalization.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "The coach said, ‘Hurry up, boys! Don’t waste time.’"

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Hurry up boys." is incorrect because it lacks a comma before the address "boys" and does not include the exclamation mark.
• Option 3: "Hurry up boys" is incorrect as it lacks both punctuation and an exclamation mark, making it grammatically incomplete.
• Option 4: "Hurry up, boys." is incorrect because it uses a period instead of an exclamation mark, which fails to convey urgency.

The correct answer is option 3. Detailed Solution will be available soon.

The correct answer is 'on'.

Key Points

• The preposition "on" is typically used to indicate a specific topic or subject of agreement.
• The sentence refers to the committee reaching a consensus specifically on the proposed amendments.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are not appropriate in this context as they do not align with the correct usage of prepositions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "The committee reached a consensus on the proposed amendments after several discussions."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "in" is incorrect because "in" is not used to indicate agreement on a specific topic.
• Option 3: "by" is incorrect because it suggests the means of achieving something, not the subject of agreement.
• Option 4: "at" is incorrect because it is typically used to indicate location or time, not agreement on a subject.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The proverb "Give someone an inch and they'll take a mile" means that if you offer someone a small concession or allowance, they may take advantage of the situation and demand or take much more than what was initially offered. (किसी को थोड़ी छूट देने पर वे उसका बहुत अधिक फायदा उठा सकते हैं।)
• Example: If you let him borrow your car for a day, he might end up using it for a whole week. Give him an inch, and he'll take a mile.
• In this context, the correct meaning aligns with Option 2, which states: "Offering a minor allowance or advantage can cause someone to try and take a lot more." (एक छोटी सी रियायत या लाभ देने से कोई व्यक्ति बहुत अधिक लाभ लेने की कोशिश कर सकता है।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Achieving big goals is often about consistently making small, steady improvements. (बड़े लक्ष्यों को प्राप्त करना आमतौर पर छोटे, स्थिर सुधारों के माध्यम से होता है।)
• Example: To become a better writer, you need to practice daily and improve step by step.
• Option 3: Small acts of kindness often lead to a person feeling more grateful and satisfied. (छोटी-छोटी दयालुता की क्रियाएं अक्सर किसी व्यक्ति को अधिक आभारी और संतुष्ट महसूस कराती हैं।)
• Example: Helping someone with their groceries can make their day better.
• Option 4: Being a little helpful can inspire someone to achieve great things on their own. (थोड़ी मदद किसी को अपने दम पर बड़ी चीजें हासिल करने के लिए प्रेरित कर सकती है।)
• Example: A teacher's encouragement can motivate a student to excel in their studies.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'embaras'.

• The correct spelling would be 'embarrass'.
• The word 'embarrass' is a verb which means 'to cause someone to feel awkward, self-conscious, or ashamed'. (शर्मिंदा करना)
• For Example -
• He was embarrassed by his mistake in front of the audience.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'embarrass'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of similar words - 

• Humiliate - To make someone feel ashamed or foolish by injuring their dignity. (अपमानित करना)
• Mortify - To cause someone to feel deeply ashamed or embarrassed. (आत्मग्लानि करना)

The correct answer is option 3. Detailed Solution will be available soon.

The correct answer is option 3. Detailed Solution will be available soon.

The correct answer is option 3. Detailed Solution will be available soon.

The correct answer is option 4. Detailed Solution will be available soon.

The correct answer is option 3. Detailed Solution will be available soon.

The correct answer is Samaharta.

Key Points

• Samaharta was the chief collector of revenue in the Mauryan administration, as described in the Arthashastra, an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economy, and administration written by Chanakya (Kautilya).
• The Samaharta was responsible for collecting taxes, which included land revenue, trade taxes, and other forms of income from the empire.
• The revenue collected by the Samaharta played a crucial role in the functioning of the state and funding various administrative, military, and welfare activities.
• The Mauryan Empire had a highly organized and centralized system of governance, and the position of Samaharta was vital for ensuring the financial stability of the empire.
• In addition to tax collection, the Samaharta was tasked with overseeing revenue policies and ensuring compliance across the empire.

Additional Information

• Amatya:
• Amatyas were high-ranking officials in the Mauryan administrative system, functioning as ministers and advisors to the king.
• They were responsible for aiding the king in decision-making and managing various departments of governance.
• The Amatyas held positions of trust and were often tasked with implementing policies and ensuring the smooth administration of the empire.
• Sannidhata:
• The Sannidhata was the treasurer in the Mauryan administration and was responsible for managing the state treasury.
• He ensured the safekeeping of state funds, including revenues collected by the Samaharta.
• Additionally, the Sannidhata oversaw transactions related to the expenditure and allocation of financial resources for state projects and military campaigns.
• Dhamma Mahamatta:
• The Dhamma Mahamatta were officers appointed by Emperor Ashoka to promote his policy of Dhamma (virtue and ethical conduct).
• They focused on propagating Buddhist values, moral teachings, and welfare policies throughout the empire.
• Their duties included fostering harmony among different religious groups and ensuring the welfare of the people.

The correct answer is 2003.

Key Points

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in 2003 by the Parliament of India to ensure fiscal discipline and promote transparency in India’s fiscal management system.
• The FRBM Act aimed to reduce India’s fiscal deficit to sustainable levels and set targets for eliminating revenue deficit.
• The Act mandated the government to ensure intergenerational equity in fiscal management by curbing excessive borrowing.
• It required the presentation of annual reports on fiscal policy strategy, medium-term fiscal policy statements, and macro-economic frameworks to Parliament.
• The FRBM Act was amended in 2018 to introduce a fiscal deficit target of 3% of GDP and allow a deviation of up to 0.5% in cases of exceptional circumstances.

Additional Information

• FRBM Act : Key Provisions & Targets (as amended)
• Fiscal Deficit Target: Aim to keep it below 3% of GDP, though this has been adjusted.
• Debt Target: General Government Debt target set at 60% of GDP (40% Centre, 20% States).
• Transparency Documents: Requires Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, etc..
• RBI Role: Restricted RBI from direct borrowing/monetizing deficits (no printing money for borrowing).

The correct answer is Calcutta (now Kolkata).

Key Points

• Calcutta (now Kolkata) was the capital of British India from 1772 to 1911.
• The British shifted the capital to Delhi in 1911 due to its central location, better connectivity to other parts of India, and as a strategic move to address growing unrest in Bengal.
• During its tenure as the capital, Calcutta was the hub of British administrative, political, and economic activities in India.
• The decision to make Calcutta the initial capital stemmed from its importance as a trading hub and its proximity to ports for European trade.
• The partition of Bengal in 1905, which was later annulled in 1911, also contributed to the decision to shift the capital to Delhi.

Additional Information

• Poona (now Pune)
• Pune was not the capital of British India but was an important center of administration during the Maratha Empire.
• It served as the seat of the Peshwas (prime ministers) of the Maratha Empire in the 18th century.
• Later, under British rule, Pune became an important military and educational center.
• Lahore
• Lahore was the capital of the Punjab Province during British rule but never served as the capital of British India.
• It is historically significant as a cultural and political center in the Indian subcontinent.
• Post-independence, Lahore became a major city in Pakistan.
• Bombay (now Mumbai)
• Bombay was an important port city and commercial hub during British rule.
• It served as the headquarters of the Bombay Presidency but was not the capital of British India.
• Today, it is the financial capital of India.

The correct answer is Santhanam Committee.

Key Points

• The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in India based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee, which was set up in 1962.
• The Santhanam Committee was formed to look into the prevention of corruption in public administration and suggest reforms.
• It recommended the formation of an independent body to oversee vigilance and anti-corruption measures in government departments, leading to the creation of the CVC in 1964.
• The CVC was established by a government resolution and later gained statutory status through the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
• The primary purpose of the CVC is to monitor and ensure transparency in governance and to investigate corruption cases in central government institutions.

Additional Information

• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee:
• Set up in 1957 to study and suggest measures for community development and the National Extension Service.
• Recommended the formation of panchayati raj institutions at district, block, and village levels as part of decentralized governance.
• Its recommendations led to the establishment of the panchayati raj system in India in 1959.
• Punchhi Commission:
• Established in 2007 to review the Centre-State relations in India.
• Recommended measures for improving governance, inter-state coordination, and resolving disputes between the Centre and States.
• Focused on federalism, national integration, and balanced division of powers between the Centre and States.
• Sarkaria Commission:
• Set up in 1983 to examine and recommend reforms in Centre-State relations.
• Focused on legislative, administrative, and financial relations between the Centre and States.
• Recommended cooperative federalism and measures to strengthen the relationship between various levels of government.

The correct answer is Article 74.

Key Points

• Article 74 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Council of Ministers, with the Prime Minister as the head, to aid and advise the President in the exercise of their functions.
• The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the President is binding, as clarified by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• While the President is the constitutional head of the state, the real executive authority lies with the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
• The Prime Minister acts as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers and communicates all decisions of the council to the President.
• This provision ensures the operation of a parliamentary form of government in India where the executive is collectively responsible to the legislature.

Additional Information

• Article 78
• This Article deals with the duties of the Prime Minister in relation to the President.
• It mandates that the Prime Minister must communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
• The Prime Minister must also provide such information as the President may require regarding the Union's administrative matters.
• Article 76
• Article 76 provides for the office of the Attorney General of India, the highest law officer of the country.
• The Attorney General is appointed by the President and has the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings, but without voting rights.
• The Attorney General advises the Government of India on legal matters and performs other legal duties assigned by the President.
• Article 72
• Article 72 empowers the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
• This power extends to cases where the punishment is by a court-martial, for offenses under Union law, or where the sentence is a death sentence.
• This provision highlights the President's clemency powers and the scope of judicial mercy available in the Indian legal system.

The correct answer is Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956.

Key Points

• The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 was a landmark document that laid the foundation for India’s industrial development after independence.
• It emphasized a mixed economy approach, where both the public and private sectors would play crucial roles in industrial growth.
• The resolution classified industries into three categories: exclusively owned by the state, industries where the state would take the initiative, and industries open to the private sector.
• It focused on the establishment of large-scale industries in key sectors such as iron and steel, heavy machinery, and chemicals, which were considered essential for the economic self-reliance of India.
• This resolution formed the basis for the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), which aimed at rapid industrialization and focused on socialist principles of centralized planning.
• The Second Five-Year Plan was influenced by the Mahalanobis model, which prioritized the growth of heavy industries to achieve long-term economic objectives.

Additional Information

• Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948:
• This was India’s first industrial policy resolution after independence and laid down the broad framework for industrial development.
• It categorized industries into public and private sectors and reserved key industries like defense, railways, and atomic energy exclusively for the government.
• It encouraged private sector participation but emphasized government control over industries critical to national security and economic stability.
• The resolution was more of a transitional policy and lacked the detailed framework required for long-term industrial planning.
• Industrial Policy Resolution of 1952:
• This resolution focused on strengthening India’s public sector as a tool for achieving economic independence and social welfare.
• It emphasized the need to develop infrastructure and basic industries like power, transport, and steel.
• It helped prepare the groundwork for industrial policies in the subsequent years but was not as comprehensive as the 1956 resolution.

The correct answer is Adds greenhouse gases, trapping more heat.

Key Points

• Burning fossil fuels releases significant amounts of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), and nitrous oxide (N₂), which trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere.
• Greenhouse gases enhance the natural greenhouse effect, leading to global warming and changes in weather patterns.
• Scientific studies indicate that human activities, primarily the combustion of fossil fuels, are the leading contributors to climate change.
• The increase in atmospheric CO₂ levels correlates with rising global temperatures, melting glaciers, and more frequent extreme weather events.
• According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), reducing greenhouse gas emissions is essential to mitigate climate change effects.

Additional Information

• Global Climate Change
• Global climate change refers to long-term alterations in temperature, precipitation patterns, and other atmospheric conditions due to natural and human-induced factors.
• Human activities, particularly fossil fuel combustion, are recognized as the primary drivers of recent climate change.
• Efforts to address climate change focus on reducing greenhouse gas emissions, transitioning to renewable energy, and implementing sustainable practices globally.

The correct answer is They highlighted how British rule drained India's wealth.

Key Points

• Early Indian nationalists, like Dadabhai Naoroji, R.C. Dutt, and others, critically analyzed British economic policies, focusing on the concept of the economic drain theory.
• The economic drain theory argued that the British systematically exploited India's resources, transferring wealth to Britain at India's expense, leaving the Indian economy impoverished.
• Dadabhai Naoroji's book, "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India," was a key work that elaborated on how colonial policies drained India's wealth.
• Nationalists highlighted exploitative practices such as heavy taxation, unfair trade practices, and the use of Indian revenues to pay for British administrative and military expenses in India and elsewhere.
• This critique of colonialism laid the foundation for a growing sense of economic nationalism, eventually contributing to demands for self-rule and economic independence.

Additional Information

• Economic Critique:
• The economic critique of colonialism focused on India's declining industries, deindustrialization, and increasing poverty under British rule.
• Nationalists emphasized that British policies prioritized the interests of British manufacturers and traders at the expense of Indian producers and workers.
• This critique became a powerful tool to mobilize public opinion against British rule and advocate for economic policies that benefited Indians.

The correct answer is Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited.

Key Points

• The Maharatna status is conferred upon select Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India by the Government of India to grant them greater financial and operational autonomy.
• Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) is NOT a Maharatna company; it is a Miniratna Category-I CPSE.
• Maharatna companies are those CPSEs which have a track record of excellent financial performance, global operations, and significant contribution to the economy.
• BSNL is primarily involved in providing telecom services and is categorized as a Miniratna due to its lack of consistent profitability and global reach compared to Maharatna companies.
• Some of the notable Maharatna companies include Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).

Additional Information

• Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL):
• Indian Oil Corporation Limited is a Maharatna company and the largest commercial oil company in India.
• It operates in the fields of refining, pipeline transportation, and marketing of petroleum products, as well as exploration and production of crude oil, natural gas, and petrochemicals.
• IOCL plays a crucial role in ensuring the energy security of India.
• Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL):
• BHEL is a Maharatna company and one of India’s largest engineering and manufacturing enterprises in the energy and infrastructure sectors.
• It is involved in the design, engineering, manufacturing, construction, testing, commissioning, and servicing of a wide range of products and services for the core sectors of the economy, including power, transmission, industry, and transportation.
• Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL):
• Hindustan Aeronautics Limited is another Maharatna company that operates in the aerospace and defense industry.
• It is engaged in the design, development, manufacturing, and maintenance of aircraft, helicopters, avionics, and aerospace systems for both military and civil applications.

The correct answer is Tundra mosses and lichens dominate.

Key Points

• Montane forests are found in high-altitude regions, typically between 1,800 to 4,000 meters, and their vegetation varies with elevation.
• Above 3,600 meters in India, the vegetation transitions to alpine meadows and tundra-like conditions where mosses, lichens, and small shrubs dominate due to harsh climatic conditions.
• At these altitudes, tree growth becomes limited as temperatures drop and the soil quality deteriorates, making tundra mosses and lichens the primary vegetation.
• Lichens are symbiotic organisms formed by fungi and algae, thriving in extreme conditions and playing an essential role in stabilizing soil and providing nutrients.
• These tundra-like zones are important for ecological balance and support unique flora and fauna adapted to cold, high-altitude environments.

Additional Information

• Tropical creepers cover slopes:
• Tropical creepers are commonly found in tropical rainforests or regions with warm and moist climates, not in montane forests above 3,600 meters.
• These plants thrive in low-altitude areas and contribute to the dense undergrowth of tropical forests.
• Examples include species like lianas and vines, which are absent in high-altitude tundra vegetation.
• Deciduous trees thrive in clusters:
• Deciduous trees shed their leaves annually and are typically found in regions with moderate climates, such as subtropical and temperate zones.
• In India, deciduous forests are found at lower altitudes, typically below 2,000 meters, and are characterized by species like sal and teak.
• Above 3,600 meters, deciduous trees cannot survive due to extreme cold and poor soil conditions.
• Dense teak and sal grow tall:
• Teak and sal are tropical hardwood trees found in lowland tropical and subtropical forests, especially in regions like Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and the Western Ghats.
• These species are not suited to high-altitude montane forest conditions, where colder temperatures and tundra-like conditions prevail.
• They require warm climates and fertile soils, which are absent at altitudes above 3,600 meters.

The correct answer is 86th Amendment Act, 2002.

Key Points

• The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, added the 11th Fundamental Duty to the Indian Constitution under Article 51A (k).
• The newly added duty states that it is the responsibility of every citizen "who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years."
• This amendment is associated with the inclusion of Right to Education as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A.
• The 86th Constitutional Amendment also emphasized the importance of education by introducing the Right to Free and Compulsory Education for children in the specified age group.
• This amendment was a landmark step in ensuring access to quality education and strengthening the social fabric of the nation.

Additional Information

• 44th Amendment Act, 1978:
• This amendment repealed the controversial provisions of the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• It restored the original scope of Article 19(1)(f) related to the right to property, making it a legal right instead of a Fundamental Right.
• The Act also introduced safeguards against the misuse of emergency powers under Article 352.
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976:
• Known as the "Mini-Constitution," this amendment brought significant changes to the Constitution, including the addition of Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
• It added 10 Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens to promote a sense of national discipline and commitment.
• The 42nd Amendment also strengthened the central government and curtailed judicial review powers.
• 101st Amendment Act, 2016:
• This amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST), a revolutionary step in India's indirect tax regime.
• It aimed to create a unified and simplified taxation system by subsuming multiple indirect taxes levied by the central and state governments.
• Articles 246A, 269A, and 279A were added to the Constitution to facilitate the implementation of GST.

The correct answer is Babur.

Key Points

• Babur, originally named Zahir-ud-din Muhammad, was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India.
• He was a descendant of Tamerlane (Timur) on his father's side and Genghis Khan on his mother's side.
• Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat (1526), marking the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
• He introduced advanced military strategies, including the use of field artillery, which played a significant role in his victories.
• Babur authored his memoir, the Baburnama, which provides insights into his life, reign, and the socio-political conditions of the time.

Additional Information

• Akbar:
• Akbar was the third Mughal emperor and is widely regarded as one of the greatest rulers in Indian history.
• He reigned from 1556 to 1605 and expanded the Mughal Empire significantly.
• Known for his policy of religious tolerance, he introduced the Din-i-Ilahi, a syncretic religion aimed at promoting harmony among different faiths.
• He centralized administration and introduced effective tax collection systems like the land revenue system (Zabt).
• Shah Jahan:
• Shah Jahan was the fifth Mughal emperor, ruling from 1628 to 1658.
• He is renowned for his architectural contributions, especially the construction of the Taj Mahal in memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal.
• His reign is often referred to as the Golden Age of Mughal architecture.
• However, his reign saw heavy expenditure on wars and monuments, which strained the empire's finances.
• Humayun:
• Humayun was Babur's son and the second Mughal emperor, ruling intermittently between 1530 and 1556.
• He faced significant challenges, including defeats by Sher Shah Suri, which led to his temporary exile.
• He regained the throne in 1555 with the help of the Persian Empire but passed away shortly thereafter.
• Humayun's tomb in Delhi is a precursor to Mughal architectural styles seen in later monuments like the Taj Mahal.

The correct answer is Minicoy.

Key Points

• Minicoy, also known as Maliku in the local language, is the southernmost inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago.
• The island is located approximately 200 kilometers south of the main Lakshadweep group of islands and is geographically closer to the Maldives.
• Minicoy is the second-largest island in the Lakshadweep group and is known for its unique culture, heavily influenced by the Maldives, including the Mahl language spoken by the locals.
• The island is famous for its picturesque beaches, lighthouse, and vibrant marine biodiversity, making it a significant tourist destination in the region.
• Minicoy plays a crucial role in the tuna fishing industry, and its lagoon is a hotspot for fishing and other marine activities.

Additional Information

• Agatti
• Agatti is a small but significant island in the Lakshadweep group, known for its pristine beaches and coral reefs.
• It is home to the only airport in Lakshadweep, connecting the islands to the mainland.
• The island is a center for tourism, with activities like scuba diving and snorkeling being popular attractions.
• Andrott
• Andrott is the largest island in the Lakshadweep archipelago in terms of area.
• The island is historically significant due to its association with Saint Ubaidullah, who is believed to have introduced Islam to the region.
• It has a rich ecosystem with coconut plantations, lagoons, and an abundance of marine life.
• Kavaratti
• Kavaratti serves as the administrative capital of Lakshadweep.
• It is known for its beautiful lagoons, mosques, and marine aquarium, which showcases the diversity of marine life in the region.
• The island is a hub for government activities and infrastructure development in Lakshadweep.

The correct answer is Article 14.

Key Points

• Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality, ensuring equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• This Article aims to eliminate discrimination and promotes equal treatment of individuals regardless of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• The concept of equality under Article 14 includes two aspects: equality before the law (negative concept) and equal protection of the laws (positive concept).
• Equality before the law means no individual is above the law, while equal protection of the laws ensures that individuals in similar circumstances are treated equally.
• It forms a part of the Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Indian Constitution and is enforceable by the courts.

Additional Information

• Article 12
• Defines the term "State" for the purpose of Fundamental Rights enforcement.
• Includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each State, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
• It ensures that Fundamental Rights are binding on the State and its instrumentalities.
• Article 21
• Guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty.
• States that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• It has been interpreted expansively by the judiciary to include rights such as the right to privacy, right to clean environment, right to health, and right to livelihood.
• Article 19
• Provides six fundamental freedoms to Indian citizens, including:
• Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
• These freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the State in the interest of sovereignty, integrity, security of India, public order, decency, or morality.

The correct answer is Powerloom textile industry.

Key Points

• The Sircilla tragedy refers to the severe economic distress faced by powerloom workers in the town of Sircilla, Telangana.
• Sircilla is known as the “Manchester of Telangana” due to its prominence in the powerloom textile industry.
• The workers in the powerloom sector of Sircilla faced issues such as low wages, irregular work, and lack of proper support systems, leading to financial hardships.
• Multiple incidents of suicides were reported from the region due to the economic instability affecting the lives of powerloom workers.
• Efforts by the government and local authorities to improve the conditions of the workers include loan waivers, subsidies, and welfare schemes.

Additional Information

• Jute manufacturing industry:
• The jute industry primarily deals with the production of jute-based products such as gunny bags, ropes, and mats.
• It is concentrated in states like West Bengal, Bihar, and Assam, with Kolkata being a hub for jute production.
• The industry is heavily dependent on agriculture, as jute is a natural fiber obtained from the jute plant.
• Handloom weaving industry:
• The handloom industry is a significant sector in India, employing millions of artisans and weavers.
• It is primarily associated with traditional and handmade textiles such as sarees, shawls, and carpets.
• The handloom sector is known for promoting traditional craftsmanship and regional identities, including Banarasi sarees, Kanchipuram silk, and Pashmina shawls.
• Small-scale garment industry:
• This sector focuses on the production of ready-made garments and apparel on a smaller scale.
• It plays a crucial role in the economy by generating employment and catering to local and niche markets.
• Unlike the powerloom or handloom industries, this sector is generally less dependent on traditional methods and focuses on modern production techniques.

The correct answer is 100 days.

Key Points

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) ensures 100 days of wage employment to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
• MGNREGA, launched in 2005, aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing guaranteed wage employment.
• The Act covers all districts in India except those with urbanized areas and is implemented through Gram Panchayats without involvement from contractors.
• Under MGNREGA, workers are entitled to minimum wages notified by the state government, ensuring fair pay for their labor.
• It also promotes rural development through activities such as water conservation, afforestation, rural infrastructure, and land development projects.

Additional Information

• MGNREGA:
• MGNREGA is considered one of the largest social welfare programs in the world, providing employment opportunities to millions of rural households.
• Key Points:
• Legal Guarantee: Guarantees 100 days of wage employment per financial year for rural households.
• Demand-Driven: Work is provided based on demand from households, not allocated.
• Unskilled Manual Labor: Focuses on manual work like water harvesting, flood control, and rural infrastructure.
• Timely Payment: Wages must be paid within 15 days; if not, unemployment allowance is due.
• Location: Work provided within 5 km of residence; extra pay for longer travel.
• Gender Equality: Ensures equal wages for men and women; at least one-third beneficiaries must be women.

The correct answer is Agriculture.

Key Points

• Agriculture is the primary economic activity in rural India, employing the largest proportion of the rural population.
• Approximately 70% of India's rural households depend primarily on agriculture for their livelihood, making it the backbone of rural economies.
• Agriculture not only provides food and raw materials but also contributes significantly to the country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• India is one of the world's largest producers of food grains, fruits, vegetables, and other agricultural products, with rural settlements heavily reliant on farming activities.
• Rural agriculture in India includes various activities such as crop cultivation, animal husbandry, poultry farming, and fisheries, which are vital for sustaining the rural economy.

Additional Information

• Services:
• The service sector is a major contributor to India's overall economy but does not dominate rural areas as it does urban settlements.
• In rural areas, services are limited to basic necessities such as healthcare, education, and small-scale banking, which are secondary to agriculture.
• Key service-oriented activities in rural India include transport, retail trade, and public services, but they employ fewer people compared to agriculture.
• Manufacturing:
• Manufacturing activities in rural areas are relatively limited and are often small-scale industries such as handicrafts, textile weaving, and food processing.
• While manufacturing plays a supportive role in boosting rural incomes, it does not surpass agriculture in terms of employment or economic contribution.
• Rural industrialization programs, like setting up agro-based industries, aim to complement agricultural activities but remain secondary.
• Trade:
• Trade in rural areas primarily involves the buying and selling of agricultural produce, seeds, fertilizers, and other farming essentials.
• Although trade facilitates the distribution of goods and services, it depends heavily on the agricultural output of rural regions.
• Trade activities are typically localized and do not serve as the primary economic activity in rural settlements.

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. It states that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens of India, ensuring universal applicability within the country's jurisdiction.
• The scope of Article 21 has been vastly expanded by judicial interpretation to include various rights such as the right to privacy, the right to live with dignity, the right to a clean environment, and the right to health.
• In landmark cases such as Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the "procedure established by law" must be "just, fair, and reasonable."
• Article 21 is one of the most important fundamental rights, forming the bedrock of human rights protection in India, and it cannot be suspended even during an emergency under Article 359.

Additional Information

• Article 19
• Article 19 guarantees six fundamental freedoms to Indian citizens, such as freedom of speech and expression, freedom to assemble peacefully, and freedom to form associations or unions.
• These rights are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state in the interest of sovereignty, security, public order, or morality.
• It is a cornerstone of democratic rights in India, ensuring the free expression and association of individuals.
• Article 32
• Article 32 is referred to as the "heart and soul of the Constitution" by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as it provides the right to constitutional remedies.
• It empowers citizens to directly approach the Supreme Court to enforce their fundamental rights through writs such as habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari.
• This article is a critical safeguard for the protection of fundamental rights and ensures that justice is accessible to all.
• Article 14
• Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth and ensures equality in the application of laws.
• This article is essential for promoting social justice and fairness in governance.

The correct answer is Partition of Bengal.

Key Points

• The Partition of Bengal, announced by Lord Curzon in 1905, divided Bengal into East Bengal and Assam (Muslim-majority regions) and West Bengal (Hindu-majority regions).
• This partition led to widespread anger among Indians, as it was perceived as an attempt to divide Hindus and Muslims and weaken the growing nationalist movement.
• The Swadeshi Movement and Boycott of British goods were initiated as direct responses to the partition, marking the first large-scale use of these political tools in the Indian independence struggle.
• Key leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Aurobindo Ghosh strongly advocated Swadeshi and Boycott as a means to resist British policies.
• Mass protests, picketing of foreign goods, promotion of indigenous industries, and the revival of cultural nationalism became significant features of the movement.

Additional Information

• Surat Split (1907):
• The Surat Split occurred during the Indian National Congress session in 1907, where differences between the Moderates (Gopal Krishna Gokhale) and Extremists (Bal Gangadhar Tilak) factions led to a division within the Congress.
• The split weakened the nationalist movement temporarily but did not involve the use of Swadeshi or Boycott as political tools.
• Rowlatt Act Protests (1919):
• The Rowlatt Act allowed the British government to detain Indians without trial, leading to widespread protests and discontent.
• While significant protests occurred, including Mahatma Gandhi's call for Satyagraha, Swadeshi and Boycott were not central to this movement.
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919):
• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre was a brutal act where General Dyer ordered the killing of hundreds of peaceful protestors in Amritsar.
• This incident further fueled the nationalist movement but was not directly linked to the initiation of Swadeshi and Boycott as political strategies.

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

• The Great Indian Plains are primarily formed by the three major rivers: Ganga, Indus, and Brahmaputra, along with their tributaries.
• The Narmada River, however, flows through the central part of India and primarily forms the Narmada Valley and Rift Zone, not the plains.
• The Narmada flows westward and is one of the few peninsular rivers that drains into the Arabian Sea, originating from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
• The Great Indian Plains are characterized by fertile alluvial soil deposited by the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra rivers, supporting extensive agriculture and habitation.
• Rivers like Narmada and others flowing through peninsular India form valleys and plateaus rather than contributing to the alluvial plains.

Additional Information

• Ganga River
• The Ganga is one of the primary rivers responsible for forming the Great Indian Plains.
• Originating from the Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand, it flows eastward and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Ganga basin is vast, covering multiple states, and provides fertile alluvial soil, making it one of the most agriculturally productive regions in India.
• Indus River
• The Indus originates in Tibet and flows through India and Pakistan, forming a significant part of the northwestern plains.
• It is known for its contribution to the Indus Valley Civilization and its large basin that supports agriculture and irrigation.
• Major tributaries include Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej.
• Brahmaputra River
• The Brahmaputra originates in Tibet (as the Yarlung Tsangpo) and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh, flowing through Assam before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
• It contributes to the eastern part of the Great Indian Plains, particularly in Assam.
• The river is known for its vast basin and annual flooding, which enriches the soil but also poses challenges to habitation.