Official Paper

IB ACIO Grade-II (Executive) Official Paper (Held On: 16 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

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Current Affairs (20 questions)

1

What is the main function of the U-WIN portal launched nationwide in 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Medical insurance registration

  2. ((b))

    Digitisation of vaccine records

  3. ((c))

    Family health record storage

  4. ((d))

    Online hospital appointment system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Medical insurance registration

2

Who among the following took charge as the Secretary of DARE and Director General of Indian Council of Agricultural Research in April 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. V Narayanan

  2. ((b))

    Dr. Shivkumar Kalyanaraman

  3. ((c))

    Dr. Mayank Sharma

  4. ((d))

    Dr. Mangi Lal Jat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dr. V Narayanan

3

In January 2025, which ministry introduced the new passport renewal process for transgender citizens post-surgery abroad?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of External Affairs

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Home Affairs

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of External Affairs

4

In March 2025, a Parliamentary Panel urged the Government to establish inquiry and prosecution wings for the Lokpal within how many months, emphasising the need for qualified recruits and stating that the delay is affecting Lokpal's efficiency in tackling corruption, leading to procedural drawbacks?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Six

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

5

In April 2025, Union Minister for Health, launched the National Zero Measles-Rubella (MR) Elimination Campaign to achieve the goal of eliminating Measles and Rubella by

  1. ((a))

    2035

  2. ((b))

    2026

  3. ((c))

    2030

  4. ((d))

    2028

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2035

6

In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (2) of which Article of the Constitution of India has the President appointed Justice Sanjiv Khanna as the Chief Justice of India with effect from 11 November 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Article 110

  2. ((b))

    Article 100

  3. ((c))

    Article 142

  4. ((d))

    Article 124

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 110

7

Senior Carnatic vocalist K Omanakutty Amma, who was honoured with the Padma Shri in 2025, hails from which state/UT?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Telangana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

8

Which type of engine is the Indian Space Research Organisation working on for its future launch vehicles in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Hybrid-Solid Engine

  2. ((b))

    Semicryogenic Engine

  3. ((c))

    Hydrogen-Peroxide Engine

  4. ((d))

    Electric Propulsion Engine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hybrid-Solid Engine

9

The Al Action Summit held in February 2025 was co-chaired by the leaders of which two countries?

  1. ((a))

    Canada and Australia

  2. ((b))

    France and India

  3. ((c))

    United States and United Kingdom

  4. ((d))

    Germany and Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Canada and Australia

10

In January 2025, which state declared 32.78 hectare area of the natural inland mangrove site in Guneri village as its first Biodiversity Heritage Site?

  1. ((a))

    Haryana

  2. ((b))

    Jammu and Kashmir

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haryana

11

Under the Union Budget 2025-26, a new Makhana Board is to be established in which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar

12

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) hosted India's first Nano Electronics Roadshow on 27 March 2025 at which of the following institutes?

  1. ((a))

    IIT Madras

  2. ((b))

    IISc Bengaluru

  3. ((c))

    IIT Guwahati

  4. ((d))

    IIT Kharagpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IIT Madras

13

As per the Economic Survey 2024-25, what was the retail headline inflation during April-December 2024?

  1. ((a))

    6.3%

  2. ((b))

    4.2%

  3. ((c))

    5.1%

  4. ((d))

    4.9%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6.3%

14

Who has been appointed as the new Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in December 2024, India?

  1. ((a))

    Justice (Dr.) Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi

  2. ((b))

    Priyank Kanoongo

  3. ((c))

    Justice V Ramasubramanian

  4. ((d))

    Bharat Lal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Justice (Dr.) Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi

15

As per the Economic Survey 2024-25, what is India's global rank for exports in 'Telecommunications, Computer, and Information Services'?

  1. ((a))

    Fourth

  2. ((b))

    Second

  3. ((c))

    Third

  4. ((d))

    First

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fourth

16

When did the sea phase of Tiger Triumph 2025 take place?

  1. ((a))

    15-19 April

  2. ((b))

    1-7 April

  3. ((c))

    8-12 April

  4. ((d))

    25-29 March

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15-19 April

17

In which month did the Union Government introduce the Draft National Sports Governance Bill, 2024 for public consultation?

  1. ((a))

    April

  2. ((b))

    May

  3. ((c))

    October

  4. ((d))

    January

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

April

18

Which department organised the 4th LG Horse Polo Cup-2024 Tournament?

  1. ((a))

    Department of Tourism, UT Ladakh

  2. ((b))

    Ladakh Polo Association

  3. ((c))

    Department of Youth Services and Sports, UT Ladakh

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Culture, Government of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Department of Tourism, UT Ladakh

19

Who was honoured with the Best Actress award at the 97th Academy Awards in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Fernanda Torres

  2. ((b))

    Cynthia Erivo

  3. ((c))

    Mikey Madison

  4. ((d))

    Demi moore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fernanda Torres

20

What is the allocation for the Khelo India scheme in the Union Budget for the financial year 2025-26?

  1. ((a))

    430 Crore

  2. ((b))

    1000 Crore

  3. ((c))

    240 Crore

  4. ((d))

    100 Crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

430 Crore

General Studies (20 questions)

21

The famous Kailasa temple at Ellora was built by which dynasty?

  1. ((a))

    Chalukyas

  2. ((b))

    Rashtrakutas

  3. ((c))

    Pallavas

  4. ((d))

    Hoysalas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chalukyas

22

The President of India's authority is explained in which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    The Constitution of India

  2. ((b))

    The Indian Penal Code

  3. ((c))

    The Civil Procedure Code

  4. ((d))

    The Representation of the People Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Constitution of India

23

What is the primary challenge faced by nations in conserving their biological wealth?

  1. ((a))

    Conflict between development and conservation

  2. ((b))

    Lack of scientific knowledge

  3. ((c))

    Insufficient funding

  4. ((d))

    Limited public awareness

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Conflict between development and conservation

24

Which of the given statements are correct regarding Swaraj Party and Non Cooperation Movement?

<br>
  1. Swaraj Party was formed by CR Das and Motilal Nehru.
  2. CR Das was the president and Motilal Nehru was one of the secretaries of Swaraj Party.
  3. CR Das opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement and left Congress.
  4. In the Calcutta session, Congress approved the Non-Cooperation Movement.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1, 3 and 4

  2. ((b))

    Only 2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Only 1, 2 and 4

  4. ((d))

    Only 1 and 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only 1, 3 and 4

25

What is the southern part of the eastern coastal plain called?

  1. ((a))

    Kannada Coast

  2. ((b))

    Malabar Coast

  3. ((c))

    Coromandel Coast

  4. ((d))

    Konkan Coast

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kannada Coast

26

Which Gupta ruler is credited with founding Nalanda University?

  1. ((a))

    Kumaragupta II

  2. ((b))

    Kumaragupta I

  3. ((c))

    Sri Gupta

  4. ((d))

    Skandagupta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kumaragupta II

27

What is the primary goal of zero-based budgeting (ZBB)?

  1. ((a))

    To increase tax revenue

  2. ((b))

    To justify all expenditures from scratch

  3. ((c))

    To link revenue with exports

  4. ((d))

    To track only past expenses

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To increase tax revenue

28

According to the World Bank, what was the percentage of extreme poverty in India in 2019?

  1. ((a))

    10.2%

  2. ((b))

    20.2%

  3. ((c))

    5.2%

  4. ((d))

    15.2%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10.2%

29

Which of the following subjects have NO mention in State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Police

  2. ((b))

    Burials and burial ground

  3. ((c))

    Railways

  4. ((d))

    Relief of the disabled and unemployable

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Police

30

Which UNESCO World Heritage site in India features cave temples carved out of rock with intricate Buddhist, Hindu and Jain artwork?

  1. ((a))

    Badami Caves

  2. ((b))

    Ellora Caves

  3. ((c))

    Udayagiri Caves

  4. ((d))

    Elephanta Caves

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Badami Caves

31

Which committees tried to create criteria to determine which languages to include in the Eighth Schedule?

  1. ((a))

    Mandal and Shah Committees

  2. ((b))

    Verma and Krishnan Committees

  3. ((c))

    Pahwa and Sitakant Mohapatra Committees

  4. ((d))

    Sen and Patel Committees

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mandal and Shah Committees

32

What is the key principle underlying the functioning of the Union Executive that ensures the real executive power is exercised by the elected government?

  1. ((a))

    Federalism

  2. ((b))

    Presidentialism

  3. ((c))

    Judicial supremacy

  4. ((d))

    Parliamentary democracy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Federalism

33

According to 'Indian Minerals Yearbook 2021', which of the following statements regarding Bauxite resources and production in India during 2020-21 are correct?

  1. Odisha, contributing about 76% to national output, is the largest producer of bauxite, with key mining districts such as Lohardagga and Amarkantak.
  2. Bauxite is primarily associated with laterite rocks and is generally found in regions with tertiary formations.
  3. Maharashtra, with over 10% share in national production, is the second-largest producer of bauxite, ahead of Chhattisgarh and Gujarat.
  4. Bauxite is used not only in the production of aluminium and its alloys but also in refractories, paints and chemical industries.
  1. ((a))

    1 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    1, 2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    2, 3 and 4 only

  4. ((d))

    2 and 4 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 3 only

34

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the West Coastal Plain?

  1. It gradually widens from Kachchh to Kanyakumari.
  2. The Gujarat plain is formed by rivers like Narmada, Tapi, Mahi, and Sabarmati.
  3. The average width of the West Coastal Plain is lesser than that of the East Coastal Plain.
  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    1 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    2 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 and 2 only

35

How many major banks were nationalised by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1969?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14

36

What is the primary aim of the Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS)?

  1. ((a))

    To control long-term inflows via forex trade

  2. ((b))

    To manage fiscal deficit with bond sales

  3. ((c))

    To curb inflation using CRR operations

  4. ((d))

    To absorb excess liquidity through securities

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To control long-term inflows via forex trade

37

Arrange the following Mughal Rulers in chronological order of their reign.

  1. Akbar Shah II
  2. Bahadur Shah II
  3. Shah Alam II
  4. Muhammad Shah Rangila
  1. ((a))

    2, 3, 4, 1

  2. ((b))

    2, 1, 3, 4

  3. ((c))

    1, 2, 3, 4

  4. ((d))

    4, 3, 1, 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2, 3, 4, 1

38

Which statements on C Rajagopalachari, Member of the Constituent Assembly, is correct?

  1. ((a))

    He was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha after independence

  2. ((b))

    He was the first and last Indian Governor General of India after independence

  3. ((c))

    He was the Governor of Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    He was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Body of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha after independence

39

The Wood Fossils Park located, which provides evidence of the Thar Desert's marine past, is located in:

  1. ((a))

    Aakal, near Jaisalmer

  2. ((b))

    Jodhpur, Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Bikaner, Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aakal, near Jaisalmer

40

As per the National Sample Survey, what was identified as a pronounced deprivation in well-being in India?

  1. ((a))

    Poverty

  2. ((b))

    Economic growth

  3. ((c))

    High literacy rates

  4. ((d))

    Unemployment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Poverty

Numerical Aptitude (20 questions)

41

What is the cube root of (5 √5 × 11√11) - (17√17) - (3√5 × √11 × √17) [√5 ×√11 - √17]?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42

If 3.6 : 1.2 :: 1.2 : y, then the value of y is:

  1. ((a))

    0.40

  2. ((b))

    0.80

  3. ((c))

    0.90

  4. ((d))

    0.60

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.40

43

In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 336 metres in 112 seconds in the first lap. He covers the second lap of the same length in 56 seconds. What is the average speed (in m/s) of the athlete?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

44

A trader gives 15% discount on the marked price of an article and gives 2 articles free for buying 16 articles and gains 36% in the entire transaction. Assuming a customer pays for 16 articles, the marked price of an article is what percentage more than its cost price?

  1. ((a))

    75%

  2. ((b))

    70%

  3. ((c))

    73%

  4. ((d))

    80%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75%

45

If a(x + y) × a(x - y) = a50, where a ≠ 1, and b(2y + x) × by−3x3{\frac{y-3x}{3}} = (b7)4, where b ≠ 1, for what value of c.  c3 = x32\frac{3}{2} + y3 + 73 + 1?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    19

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

46

Kiran starts business with ₹41,000 and after 7 months, Zarina joins with Kiran as her partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 8 : 5. What is Zarina's contribution in the capital?

  1. ((a))

    ₹61,500

  2. ((b))

    ₹59,535

  3. ((c))

    ₹61,880

  4. ((d))

    ₹60,670

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹61,500

47

A man has invested ₹54,500 at a rate of 8% per annum simple interest for 2 years. Find the amount (in ₹) that he will receive after 2 years.

  1. ((a))

    64,220

  2. ((b))

    9,720

  3. ((c))

    8,720

  4. ((d))

    63,220

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

64,220

48

Mr. X spends 25% income on house rent, 16% on food and medicines, three-fifth of house rent on education of children, 12% on future investment, 12% on travelling and entertainment, three-fourth of food and medicines on long term savings and remaining for miscellaneous expenditure. If the difference between education of children and travelling and entertainment is ₹4,260, then what is the miscellaneous expenditure?

  1. ((a))

    ₹11,360

  2. ((b))

    ₹8,950

  3. ((c))

    ₹10,850

  4. ((d))

    ₹12,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹11,360

49

I bought two trousers for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 13% and the second at a gain of 12%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of the first trouser.

  1. ((a))

    596

  2. ((b))

    576

  3. ((c))

    600

  4. ((d))

    560

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

596

50

A and B begin a job. On the 8th day, both of them stop, and another team, D and E, complete the rest of the work in 4 days. D and E work at the same rate as A and B together. In how many days can A and B complete 80% of the job?

  1. ((a))

    12 days

  2. ((b))

    10 days

  3. ((c))

    9.6 days

  4. ((d))

    11.6 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 days

51

Three types of oils are mixed: 100 litres of A, 85 litres of B and 65 litres of C. If the cost of the oils A, B and C per one litre are in the ratio 14 : 13 : 11 and the cost of one litre of mixed oil is ₹64.40, then what is the total cost of 3 tins of 10 litres each of three oils?

  1. ((a))

    ₹1,750

  2. ((b))

    ₹1,900

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,845

  4. ((d))

    ₹2,100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹1,750

52

8 times the present age of Anjali is 14 years more than 2 times the present age of Kamal, and 8 times the present age of Kamal is 8 years less than 8 times the present age of Anjali. The sum of the present ages (in years) of Anjali and Kamal is:

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

53

Runner A can run 100 metres in 10 seconds, while Runner B runs the same distance in 12 seconds. In a 300-metre race, A gives B a head start of 20 metres and delays his own start by 3 seconds. If both runners maintain constant speeds, how much time will B take to cover the total distances covered by A and B from the moment B starts running until the moment A finishes the race?

  1. ((a))

    2 minutes 19 seconds

  2. ((b))

    1 minute 19 seconds

  3. ((c))

    1 minute 9 seconds

  4. ((d))

    2 minutes 9 seconds

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 minutes 19 seconds

54

Three friends, A, B and C, are trying to estimate the average weight of a wooden table.

In A's opinion, the weight of the table is greater than 90 kg but less than 97 kg. B's estimate is different. He thinks that the table's weight is greater than 85 kg but less than 95 kg. In C's view, the table cannot weigh more than 93 kg. If all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average weight (in kg) of the different probable weights of the wooden table?

  1. ((a))

    93

  2. ((b))

    90

  3. ((c))

    92

  4. ((d))

    91

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

93

55

A sum of ₹10,00,000 is invested in a bank at 19% interest per annum compounded annually. On maturity, the amount payable becomes ₹16,85,159. Find the time period of the investment.

  1. ((a))

    2.5 years

  2. ((b))

    1 year

  3. ((c))

    3 years

  4. ((d))

    3.5 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.5 years

56

The cost of 3 pens and 9 pencils is ₹180 and the cost of 3 pens and 7 pencils is ₹150. The cost of 8 pens and 4 pencils is:

  1. ((a))

    ₹180

  2. ((b))

    ₹178

  3. ((c))

    ₹179

  4. ((d))

    ₹175

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹180

57

8 men can dig a well 29 feet deep in 14 days. How many men can dig a well 58 feet deep in 2 days?

  1. ((a))

    110

  2. ((b))

    109

  3. ((c))

    112

  4. ((d))

    115

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

110

58

The product of two numbers is 19845 and their H.C.F is 63. Find their L.C.M.

  1. ((a))

    315

  2. ((b))

    323

  3. ((c))

    310

  4. ((d))

    311

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

315

59

Manjit gets a 5% increase in his sale amount in the first year and a 25% increase in the second year, and with that his present sale is ₹1,59,600. What was his sale (in ₹) two years ago?

  1. ((a))

    1,52,000

  2. ((b))

    1,01,600

  3. ((c))

    1,21,600

  4. ((d))

    1,27,680

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1,52,000

60

A toy is marked at ₹295 with an initial discount of 20%. What further percentage discount should be given so that the final selling price becomes ₹118?

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    48%

  3. ((c))

    52%

  4. ((d))

    55%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50%

Reasoning/Logical Aptitude (20 questions)

61

Mr. Lakhhan starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards the north. He then takes a right turn, drives 7 km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a left turn, drives 18 km, turns right and drives 17 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 30 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 16 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)

  1. ((a))

    5 km to the north

  2. ((b))

    5 km to the west

  3. ((c))

    5 km to the east

  4. ((d))

    7 km to the south

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 km to the north

62

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

63

Seven people, C, D, E, F, L, M and N, are sitting in a row, facing north.

Only three people sit to the left of L. Only D sits to the right of M. Only three people sit between M and E. C sits at some place to the left of F but at some place to the right of N. How many people sit between N and F?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

64

A question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the most appropriate answer.

Five friends D, F, G, H, and R are of different ages. Who among them is the third eldest?

(I) Only F and D are younger than R. G is older than H.

(II) Only D is younger than F. G is older than R.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question

  2. ((b))

    Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

  3. ((c))

    Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

  4. ((d))

    Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question

65

In a certain code language, 'RAKE' is coded as '8476' and 'READ' is coded as '1647'.

What is the code for 'D' in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

66

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. ((a))

    LD-LE

  2. ((b))

    HZ-EA

  3. ((c))

    ZR-WS

  4. ((d))

    JB-GC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LD-LE

67

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

<br>

547 466 385 304 223 ?

  1. ((a))

    142

  2. ((b))

    161

  3. ((c))

    154

  4. ((d))

    183

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

142

68

In a certain code language, 'HUGE' is coded as '6437' and 'GUTE' is coded as '7693'.

How is 'T' coded in that language?

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

69

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '−' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

<br>

42 ÷ 19 + 5 − 40 × 2 = ?

  1. ((a))

    802

  2. ((b))

    813

  3. ((c))

    825

  4. ((d))

    790

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

802

70

In this question, two statements I and II have been given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and select the correct option.

<br>

Statements:

I. The number of tourists visiting the hill station increased significantly this year.

II. Several new hotels and resorts have been built in the hill station.

  1. ((a))

    Both Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

  2. ((b))

    Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its possible effect.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its possible effect.

  4. ((d))

    Both Statements I and II are effects of a common cause.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

71

A question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the most appropriate answer.

E, Q, R, V, X, and Z live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on, till the topmost floor is numbered 6. Who among them lives on the floor numbered 2?

(I) X lives on the topmost floor. Q lives immediately below X.

(II) Only E lives below V. Exactly two people live between Q and V.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question

  2. ((b))

    Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

  3. ((c))

    Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

  4. ((d))

    Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question

72

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. ((a))

    GK-QH

  2. ((b))

    CG-MD

  3. ((c))

    KO-UL

  4. ((d))

    MQ-WO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GK-QH

73

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3

and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 9, 196)

(2, 8, 100)

  1. ((a))

    (7, 3, 212)

  2. ((b))

    (6, 3, 121)

  3. ((c))

    (5, 4, 81)

  4. ((d))

    (9, 5, 231)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(7, 3, 212)

74

In a certain code language,

A + B means 'A is the son of B',

A @ B means 'A is the sister of B',

A # B means 'A is the wife of B',

A ÷ B means 'A is the father of B'.

<br>

Based on the above, how is M related to E if 'M @ A # N + D ÷ E'?

  1. ((a))

    Wife's mother

  2. ((b))

    Wife's sister

  3. ((c))

    Brother's wife's sister

  4. ((d))

    Brother's wife's mother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wife's mother

75

Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

<br>

(X)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

76

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the

statements.

<br>

Statements:

All oils are fuels.

All fuels are greases.

No grease is a petrol.

<br>

Conclusions:

(I) No oil is a petrol.

(II) Some greases are oils.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion (II) follows.

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion (I) follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

77

Seven boxes, I, J, K, L, B, C and D, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in

the same order.

Only L is kept above B. Only two boxes are kept between B and I. Only K is kept below

J. C is kept immediately below B.

How many boxes are kept between D and K?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

78

In a certain code language,

A + B means 'A is the son of B',

A - B means 'A is the brother of B',

A @ B means 'A is the wife of B' and

A % B means 'A is the father of B'.

<br>

How is W related to U if 'W @ E - R % H + U'?

  1. ((a))

    Brother's wife

  2. ((b))

    Husband's brother's daughter

  3. ((c))

    Brother's daughter

  4. ((d))

    Husband's brother's wife

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brother's wife

79

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

<br>

53 57 65 77 93 ?

  1. ((a))

    107

  2. ((b))

    124

  3. ((c))

    118

  4. ((d))

    113

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

107

80

Six friends, R, S, T, G, H and I, live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2 and so on, till the topmost floor, which is numbered 6. Only two people live below I. Only two people live between T and R. Only two people live between S and I. R lives below I but above G. How many people live below H?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    None

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three

English (20 questions)

81

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

<br>

Despite her busy schedule, she ________ to complete all the household chores and ________ for the cleaning service to come in the following week.

  1. ((a))

    managed; arrange

  2. ((b))

    ensured; insure

  3. ((c))

    insured; ensure

  4. ((d))

    arranged; manage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

managed; arrange

82

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

<br>

Despite its simple appearance, this grammar book is arguably ________ resource I've encountered for mastering syntactic nuance.

  1. ((a))

    more effective

  2. ((b))

    the most effective

  3. ((c))

    the more effective

  4. ((d))

    most effective

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

more effective

83

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

When the cat's away, the mice will play

  1. ((a))

    You can't achieve something important without some sacrifices.

  2. ((b))

    Too many people trying to manage something can ruin it.

  3. ((c))

    There is something positive in every negative situation.

  4. ((d))

    People will naturally take advantage of the absence of someone in authority to do as
    they like.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

You can't achieve something important without some sacrifices.

84

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

<br>

I really don't know why she came; ________ I would have told you.

  1. ((a))

    in contrast

  2. ((b))

    otherwise

  3. ((c))

    finally

  4. ((d))

    instead

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

in contrast

85

Select the most appropriate option that rectifies the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

<br>

Adolf Hitler adeptly orchestrated contrived public-security emergencies through incendiary rhetoric and coercive strautagems to dismantle constitutional safeguards, subjugate the Weimar Republic's federated states, and consolidate his totalitarian dominion.

  1. ((a))

    stratagems

  2. ((b))

    incindiary

  3. ((c))

    contrieved

  4. ((d))

    coersive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

stratagems

86

Select the most appropriate one-word substitute for the underlined segment in the given sentence:

<br>

Gandhiji believed that truth and morality must be the guiding force for making decisions in both, personal and political life.

  1. ((a))

    panacea

  2. ((b))

    touchstone

  3. ((c))

    quagmire

  4. ((d))

    harbinger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

panacea

87

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

<br>

Actions speak louder than words.

  1. ((a))

    What you do is more important than what you say.

  2. ((b))

    Speaking is easier than acting.

  3. ((c))

    Words are more important than actions.

  4. ((d))

    Whatever you do, always try to do it silently.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

What you do is more important than what you say.

88

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. If no article is required, select the option with 'No article required'.

<br>

My uncle is ________ SDO in ________ forest department.

  1. ((a))

    No article required; no article required

  2. ((b))

    a; no article required

  3. ((c))

    an; the

  4. ((d))

    a; the

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No article required; no article required

89

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Conjuror

  2. ((b))

    Paraphernalia

  3. ((c))

    Profligate

  4. ((d))

    Indispensible

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Conjuror

90

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

He was known for his meticulous attention to detail.

  1. ((a))

    Slovenly

  2. ((b))

    Flexible

  3. ((c))

    Serious

  4. ((d))

    Careful

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Slovenly

91

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined phrase in the following sentence.

<br>

In a ground breaking experiment, Markus Heinrichs and his colleagues at the University of Freiburg, Germany, asked volunteers to participate in an activity where they could invest money with an identity whose name is not known or public person who was not guaranteed to be honest.

  1. ((a))

    anonymous

  2. ((b))

    eponymous

  3. ((c))

    identified

  4. ((d))

    observant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

anonymous

92

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

<br>

She has always wanted to be ________ university professor.

  1. ((a))

    an

  2. ((b))

    the

  3. ((c))

    No article required

  4. ((d))

    a

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

an

93

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

<br>

A. Allied forces in the West had made significant progress, advancing through southern Italy and capturing Rome.

B. Germany's military position by mid-1944 had become strategically untenable on multiple fronts.

C. Concurrently, the Allies had completed preparations for a large-scale liberation of northern Europe, amassing troops and matériel.

D. On the Eastern Front, the Red Army stood ready to drive German forces back through Poland.

E. Encircled from both east and west, the Nazi war effort appeared increasingly doomed.

  1. ((a))

    B-D-A-E-C

  2. ((b))

    D-B-A-C - E

  3. ((c))

    B-A-C-D-E

  4. ((d))

    B-D-C-A-E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B-D-A-E-C

94

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.

<br>

Small, unnoticed expenses and lifestyle creep can add up and put a significant strain on your financial goals.

  1. ((a))

    drag

  2. ((b))

    rush

  3. ((c))

    encroach

  4. ((d))

    delay

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

drag

95

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Gandhi was firmly convinced that the doctrine of non-violence represented not passive submission, but the loftiest manifestation of moral courage.

B. Furthermore, he regarded it as a transcendent principle, one that transcended cultural boundaries and could be embraced by individuals of all nations and creeds.

C. To Gandhi, the renunciation of violence was not indicative of frailty, but rather a profound reservoir of inner fortitude and self-discipline.

D. As a natural corollary of this belief, he meticulously integrated the ethos of non- violence into both the realms of political activism and his personal conduct.

  1. ((a))

    BDCA

  2. ((b))

    CDBA

  3. ((c))

    CBDA

  4. ((d))

    ABDC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BDCA

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

<br>

Alleviation of rural poverty has been one of the primary objectives of planned development in India. Ever since the inception of planning, the policies and the programmes have been designed and redesigned with this aim. The problem of rural poverty was brought into a sharper focus during the Sixth Plan. The Seventh Plan too emphasised growth with social justice. It was realised that a sustainable strategy of poverty alleviation has to be based on increasing the productive employment opportunities in the process of growth itself. However, to the extent the process of growth bypasses some sections of population, it is necessary to formulate specific poverty alleviation programmes for generation of a certain minimum level of income for the rural poor. Rural development implies both the economic betterment of people as well as greater social transformation. Increased participation of people in the rural development process, decentralisation of planning, better enforcement of land reforms and greater access to credit and inputs go a long way in prospects for economic development improvements in health, education, drinking water, energy supply, sanitation and housing coupled with attitudinal changes also facilitate their social development.

<br>

Rural poverty is inextricably linked with low rural productivity and unemployment, including underemployment. Hence, it is imperative to improve productivity and increase employment in rural areas. Moreover, more employment needs to be generated at higher levels of productivity in order to generate higher output. Employment at miserably low levels of productivity and incomes is already a problem of far greater magnitude than an unemployment as such.

96

If a government focuses solely on increasing rural employment without improving productivity, what flaw would it most likely encounter, based on the passage's reasoning?

  1. ((a))

    It would lead to overproduction in agriculture.

  2. ((b))

    It would generate low-income, inefficient jobs that fail to raise living standards.

  3. ((c))

    It would raise inflation rates in urban markets.

  4. ((d))

    It would attract too many foreign investors.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It would lead to overproduction in agriculture.

97

Select the meaning of the word inextricably from the given options.

  1. ((a))

    In a loosely connected manner

  2. ((b))

    In a harmful way

  3. ((c))

    In a convincing fashion

  4. ((d))

    In a way that is unable to be separated In a way that is unable to be separated In a way that is unable to be separated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In a loosely connected manner

98

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Strategies for rural poverty alleviation

  2. ((b))

    Population explosion

  3. ((c))

    Problems of industrial growth

  4. ((d))

    Urban poverty

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Strategies for rural poverty alleviation

99

What can be inferred as essential for rural development besides income generation?

  1. ((a))

    Promoting tourism

  2. ((b))

    Urban migration

  3. ((c))

    Attitudinal changes and access to services

  4. ((d))

    Building more industries

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Promoting tourism

100

Which of the following best summarises the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Rural areas are backward due to lack of cities nearby.

  2. ((b))

    Cities are overpopulated because people leave rural areas.

  3. ((c))

    Rural poverty is mainly a result of unemployment, and tackling it requires both economic and social reform.

  4. ((d))

    Rural life cannot be improved due to insufficient policies.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rural areas are backward due to lack of cities nearby.

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