Official Paper

FCI AG III Memory Based Question Paper (Held on: 7th January 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

English Language (25 questions)

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

It is almost a fortnight now that I am domiciled in a medieval villa in the country, a mile or two from Florence. I cannot speak the language; I am too old not to learn how, also too busy when I am busy, and too indolent when I am not; wherefore some will imagine that I am having a dull time of it. But it is not so. The "help" are all natives; they talk Italian to me, and I answer in English; I do not understand them, they do not understand me, consequently no harm is done, and everybody is satisfied. In order to be just and fair, I throw in an Italian word when I have one, and this has a good influence. I get the word out of the morning paper. I have to use it while it is fresh, for I find that Italian words do not keep in this climate. They fade toward night, and the next morning they are gone. But it does not matter; I get a new one out of the paper before breakfast and thrill the domestics with it while it lasts. I have no dictionary, and I do not want one; I can select words by sound, or by orthographic aspect. Many of them have a French or German or English look, and these are the ones I enslave for the day's service. That is, as a rule. Not always. If I find a learnable phrase that has an imposing look and warbles musically along I do not care to know the meaning of it; I pay it out to the first applicant, knowing that if I pronounce it carefully he will understand it, and that's enough.

Yesterday's word was Avanti. It sounds Shakespearian, and probably means Avaunt and quit my sight. Today I have a whole phrase: Sono dispiacentissimo. I do not know what it means, but it seems to fit in everywhere and give satisfaction. Although as a rule my words and phrases are good ____ one day and train only, I have several that stay by me all the time, for some unknown reason, and these come very handy when I get into a long conversation and need things to fire up with in monotonous stretches. One of the best ones is dov' `e il gatto. It nearly always produces a pleasant surprise, therefore I save it up for places where I want to express applause or admiration. The fourth word has a French sound, and I think the phrase means "that takes the cake."

During my first week in the deep and dreamy stillness of this woodsy and flowery place I was without news of the outside world, and was well content without it. It has been four weeks since I had seen a newspaper, and this lack seemed to give life a new charm and grace and saturate it with a feeling verging upon actual delight. Then came a change that was to be expected: the appetite for news began to rise again, after this invigorating rest. I had to feed it, but I was not willing to let it make me its helpless slave again; I determined to put it on a diet, and a strict and limited one. So I examined an Italian paper, with the idea of feeding it on that, and on that exclusively. On that exclusively, and without the help of a dictionary. In this way, I should surely be well protected against overloading and indigestion.

1

Choose the Synonym of the word 'indolent'.

  1. ((a))

    Idle

  2. ((b))

    Diligent

  3. ((c))

    Energetic

  4. ((d))

    Industrious

  5. ((e))

    Dynamic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Idle

The correct answer is 'Idle'.

Key Points

  • The word 'indolent' means wanting to avoid activity or exertion; lazy.
  • Example: The indolent attitude of the aspirant is the sole reason for his failure.
  • Let's look at the meanings of the given options:
  • Idle- to spend time doing nothing.
  • Example: The man sat idle in his office as he had no work.
  • Diligent*-* having or showing care and conscientiousness in one's work or duties*.*
  • Example: The employee work diligently and won the best employee of the year award.
  • Energetic- showing or involving great activity or vitality.
  • Example: The children were energetic on the day of the field trip.
  • Industrious- diligent and hard-working. 
  • Example: The entire group of the company's factory workers were industrious and never missed a deadline.
  • Dynamic- a force that stimulates change or progress within a system or process.
  • Example: The dynamics of their family changed after their eldest got a government job.

Hence the only possible answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'indolent' are "lazy, inactive, slow"
  • The antonyms of the word 'indolent' are  "active, energetic, busy"
2

Choose the Antonym of the word 'delight'.

  1. ((a))

    Contentment

  2. ((b))

    Glee

  3. ((c))

    Ecstasy

  4. ((d))

    Dismay

  5. ((e))

    Enchantment

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dismay

The correct answer is 'Dismay'.

Key Points

  • The word 'delight' means please (someone) greatly. 
  • Example: The child was a cause of delight for his family.
  • Let's look at the meanings of the given options:
  • Contentment- a state of happiness and satisfaction.
  • Example: The man had contentment in his life regarding his family life.
  • Glee*-* great delight, especially from one's own good fortune or another's misfortune*.*
  • Example: The friends danced with glee when they got into their dream university.
  • Ecstasy- an overwhelming feeling of great happiness or joyful excitement.
  • Example: The man felt a great deal of ecstasy in the meditation camp and was relieved of his depression.
  • Dismay- concern and distress caused by something unexpected.
  • Example: The residents watched in dismay as their building burned because of fire.
  • Enchantment- a feeling of great pleasure; delight.
  • Example: The book caused him a great deal of enchantment.

Hence the only possible answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'delight' are "joy, pleasure, gladness"
  • The antonyms of the word 'delight' are  "sorrow, dislike, hate"
3

Which of the following is/are correct according to the given passage?

 

A. The "help" are all natives; they talk Italian to me, and I answer in English. 

B. It nearly always produces a disturbing surprise, therefore I save it up for places where I want to express applause or admiration. 

C.  I examined an Italian paper, with the idea of feeding it on that, and on that exclusively.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Both A and B

  5. ((e))

    Both A and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both A and C

The correct answer is 'Both A and C'.

 

Key Points

  • The third sentence of the first paragraph says, 'The "help" are all natives; they talk Italian to me, and I answer in English.', so Sentence A is correct.
  • The second last sentence of the second paragraph says, 'It nearly always produces a pleasant surprise, therefore I save it up for places where I want to express applause or admiration.', so Sentence B is incorrect.
  • The third last sentence of the last paragraph says, 'I examined an Italian paper, with the idea of feeding it on that, and on that exclusively.', so Sentence C is also correct.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

4

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage:

Although as a rule my words and phrases are good ____ one day and train only.

  1. ((a))

    to

  2. ((b))

    for

  3. ((c))

    in

  4. ((d))

    on

  5. ((e))

    across

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

for

The correct answer is 'for'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence is talking about Narrator using the Italian words and phrases he reads in the newspaper.
  • Let us explore the given options:
  • The preposition 'to' means we can use 'to' as a preposition to indicate a destination or direction, We also use to with verbs such as give, hand, send, and write, to indicate the person or thing that receives or experiences the object of the verb.
  • The preposition 'for' means used for saying who or what is intended to receive something or get the benefit of it.
  • The preposition 'in' means something inside or enclosed by something else.
  • The preposition 'on' indicates that something is already in the position.
  • The preposition 'across' is used to refer from one side to the other (a place, area, etc.).
  • The preposition 'for' will be used as it is used to depict that the narrator's Italian words are good only for one day.

​Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

5

According to the passage, the narrator was visiting which city in Italy?

  1. ((a))

    Rome

  2. ((b))

    Milan

  3. ((c))

    Florence

  4. ((d))

    Venice

  5. ((e))

    Naples

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Florence

The correct answer is 'Florence'.

 

Key Points

  • The first sentence of the first paragraph says, 'It is almost a fortnight now that I am domiciled in a medieval villa in the country, a mile or two from Florence.'
  • From the above sentence, we can say that, according to the passage, the narrator was visiting Florence in Italy.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

6

According to the passage, which Italian word sounded Shakespearian to the narrator?

  1. ((a))

    Avanti

  2. ((b))

    Sono dispiacentissimo

  3. ((c))

     Avaunt 

  4. ((d))

    Dov' `e il gatto

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Avanti

The correct answer is 'Avanti'.

 

Key Points

  • The first sentence of the second paragraph says, 'Yesterday's word was Avanti. It sounds Shakespearian, and probably means Avaunt and quit my sight.'
  • From the above sentence, we can say that, according to the passage, the word Avanti sounded Shakespearian to the narrator.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

7

According to the passage, the author was well content without what?

  1. ((a))

    Family

  2. ((b))

    Work

  3. ((c))

    Business

  4. ((d))

    Leisure

  5. ((e))

    Newspaper

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Newspaper

The correct answer is 'Newspaper'.

 

Key Points

  • The first two sentences of the third paragraph say, 'During my first week in the deep and dreamy stillness of this woodsy and flowery place I was without news of the outside world, and was well content without it. It has been four weeks since I had seen a newspaper, and this lack seemed to give life a new charm and grace and saturate it with a feeling verging upon actual delight.'
  • From the above sentence, we can say that, according to the passage, the author was well content without the Newspaper.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

8

According to the passage, from where does the narrator get the Italian word he uses in his everyday life?

  1. ((a))

    Knowledge of the language

  2. ((b))

    Morning paper

  3. ((c))

    His help

  4. ((d))

    Dictionary

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Morning paper

The correct answer is 'Morning paper'.

 

Key Points

  • The fourth last sentence of the first paragraph says, 'It seemed but a minute before the quiet old plantation, in which the harvest, the corn-shucking, and the Christmas holidays alone marked the passage of the quiet seasons, and where a strange carriage or a single horseman coming down the big road was an event in life, was turned into a depot of war-supplies, and the neighbourhood became a parade-ground.'
  • From the above sentence, we can say that, according to the passage,  the narrator gets the Italian word he uses in his everyday life from the morning paper.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

9

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it or not. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

She rose, having (A)/ sleep fully clothed out (B)/ of fear that a demon would (C)/ attack her in her sleep.(D)/ No error

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct option is B.

Key Points

  • The error lies in part B of the sentence.
  • The given sentence has the participle ‘HAVING’ in it.
  • Perfect participle clauses show that the action they describe was finished before the action in the main clause. The perfect participle is formed by putting the present participle having in front of the past participle.
  • Example: Having got dressed, he slowly went downstairs.
  • Having finished their training, they will be fully qualified doctors.
  • Having been made redundant, she started looking for a new job.
  • Hence, V3 (slept) should be used after the participle having.

Correct sentence: "She rose, having slept fully clothed out of fear that a demon would attack her in her sleep." 

Additional Information

Participle: A word that acts as a verb, as well as an adjective, is called a participle.

  • Present participle: V1 + ing
  • thinking all is well, he went to bed.
  • Past participle: V3 
  • Driven by poverty, she committed suicide.
  • Perfect participle: Having + V3  
  • Having rested, they started their journey again.

Confusion Points

  • Both a gerund and a present participle come from a verb, and both end in –ing. However, each has a different function. A gerund acts as a noun while a present participle acts as a verb or adjective.
10

Find the error in the given sentence, if there is no error mark 'no error' as your answer.

"When is the best days to go to the mall?",(A)/ the child asked the guardian, who was(B)/ stone-faced throughout the day and (C)/ during most of the conversations. (D) No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e. A.

Key Points

  • The part A: "When is the best days to go to the mall?" is not correct.
  • The use of 'is' before 'best days' is incorrect.
  • Interrogative sentences ask a question. They ask us something. They want information, and they always end with a question mark.
  • It has the following structure:
  • (wh-word +) auxiliary + subject + verb.
  • Interrogative sentences can be positive or negative. Consider the examples:
PositiveNegative
Do you like coffee?Don't you like coffee?
Why did you go?Why didn't you go?
  • In the given sentence, with the subject 'best days' which is plural in nature we will use the auxiliary verb 'are' instead of 'is'.
<br>

📌Correct sentence: "When are the best days to go to the mall?", the child asked the guardian, who was stone-faced throughout the day and during most of the conversations.

Additional Information

  • Interrogative sentences ask a question. They ask us something. They want information, and they always end with a question mark.
  • Interrogative sentences can be positive or negative. Consider the examples
  • | auxiliary verb | + | subject | + | main verb | | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Do | | you | | speak | English |

The typical form (structure) of an interrogative sentence is:

  • If we use a WH- word it usually goes first:
WH-wordauxiliary verb+subject+main verb
Whendoesthe moviestart?
11

Find the error in the given sentence, if there is no error mark 'no error' as your answer.

"Shall they not go to the cinema", He whispered to me, (A)/ while we were looking up at (B)/ the stars, the walk was very (C)/ pleasant with the wind blowing around.(D)/ No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e. A.

Key Points

  • The error lies in part A: "Shall they not go to the cinema?" He asked me.
  • The use of 'they' is incorrect.❌
  • Imperative sentences give a command. They tell us to do something, and they end with a full-stop/period (.) or exclamation mark/point (!).
  • The usual word order for the imperative sentence is:
  • base verb.
  • Note that there is usually no subject—because the subject is understood, it is (for the given examples)YOU.
  • Imperative sentences can be positive or negative. Consider the examples:
positivenegative
Stop!Do not stop!
Give her coffee.Don't give her coffee.
  • In the given sentence, as can be seen from the other parts 'while we were looking up at the stars' the subject of the sentence in part A should be 'we' instead of 'they'.
<br>

📌Correct sentence"Shall we not go to the cinema", He whispered to me, while we were looking up at the stars, the walk was very pleasant with the wind blowing around.

Additional Information

  • Declarative sentences simply make a statement or express an opinion. In other words, it makes a declaration. This kind of sentence ends with a period or full stop: 
  • It has the following structure:
  • Subject + Verb.
  • Declarative sentences can be positive or negative. Consider the examples:
  • | Positive | Negative | | --- | --- | | I like to play the violin. | I do not like to play the violin. | | We played Badminton last week. | We did not play badminton last week. |
12

A sentence with four emboldened words is given below. See if any of the words are wrongly used based on context or spelling and mark that word accordingly. If all the words are used correctly, use option 5 as the answer.

After the dinner got over, the lights mysteriuously failed, and we stumbled around in complete darkness.

  1. ((a))

    Got

  2. ((b))

    Mysteriuously 

  3. ((c))

    Stumbled

  4. ((d))

    Darkness

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mysteriuously 

Correct answer: Option 2.

The word mysteriuously is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is mysteriously.

13

In the following question four words are given in bold. One of these words given in bold wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context. Find out that word. If all the words are correct, choose ‘All correct’ as the answer.

She adduces (1)/ she's being oistracized by (2)/ some members of (3)/ her vernacular community. (4)/ All correct (5)

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

Correct option - 2

Here, word 'oistracized' is incorrectly spelt. Its correct spelling is ostracized. 

Let's find out the meaning of given bold words :-

Adduce - To claim.

Ostracize - Cut off; to exclude.

Members - Persons of a group, etc.

Vernacular - Local

Hence, option 2 i.e. oistracized is the correct answer.

Correct sentence - She adduces she's being ostracized by some members of her vernacular community.

14

In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been printed in bold. One bold part in the sentence is not acceptable in Standard English. Pick up that part and mark its number. If there are no errors in the bold parts, mark (5) i.e. No error as the answer.

The traveller consouled himself (1)/ with philosophical reflections (2)/ on the numberless meetings (3)/  and partings going on in the world.(4)

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

The error lies in part 1 of the sentence as the word 'consoled' which means 'comfort (someone) at a time of grief or disappointment' has been incorrectly spelt.

15

In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been printed in bold. One bold part in the sentence is not acceptable in Standard English or is wrongly spelt. Pick up that part and mark its number. If there are no errors in the bold parts, mark (5) i.e. No error as the answer.

While the president’s speech (1)/ seems original, it contains (2)/ an allesion to a speech made (3)/ by another world leader. (4)

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The word 'allusion' has been incorrectly spelt here which means 'a statement that refers to something indirectly; an indirect reference.' Thus option 3 is the correct answer.

16

In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been printed in bold. One bold part in the sentence is not acceptable in Standard English or is wrongly spelt. Pick up that part and mark its number. If there are no errors in the bold parts, mark (5) i.e. No error as the answer.

Her son’s increasingly depressed and (1)/ angry mood swings were becoming (2)/ worisome so she made an (3)/ appointment with a therapist. (4)

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The word 'worrisome' which means 'something that causes stress or fear' has been spelt incorrectly here. Thus option 3 is the correct answer.

17

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. mass formal education

B. part of all industrial 

C. began in industrial society

D. societies in India

E. and is an established

  1. ((a))

    ABCDE

  2. ((b))

    CDEBA

  3. ((c))

    DEBAC

  4. ((d))

    BECDA

  5. ((e))

    ACEBD

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

ACEBD

The correct answer is ACEBD.

Key Points

  • A is the part that establishes the subject of the matter,i.e., ' Mass formal education '. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
  • Part C refers to the beginning of mass formal education. Hence, C follows A.
  • Now three parts are remaining, and out of them, part E starts with a connector. Also, it talks about the establishment of the same. So, part E follows C.
  • Part B talks about it being a part of industrial societies in India, so it must come after part E.
  • Part D talks in continuation with part B. Hence, D follows B.

Correct rearrangement of segments is - Mass formal education began in industrial society and is an established part of all industrial societies in India.

Hint

  • While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
  • Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
  • Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So these parts will always be at the end.

18

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. of many sorts show

B. both plants and animals

C. growth habits and even modes 

D. remarkable changes in form,

E. of reproduction to adapt to changing environment

  1. ((a))

    BADCE

  2. ((b))

    ABCED

  3. ((c))

    CAEDB

  4. ((d))

    BDCEA

  5. ((e))

    CAEBD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BADCE

The correct answer is BADCE.

Key Points

  • B is the part that establishes the subject of the matter,i.e., ' Both plants and animals '. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
  • Part A refers to the types of plants and animals. Hence, A follows B.
  • Now three parts are remaining, and out of them, part D talks about remarkable changes. So, part D follows A.
  • Part C talks about different forms, growth habits and modes of reproduction, so it must come after part D.
  • Part E talks about the adaptation to the environment. Hence, E follows C.

Correct rearrangement of segments is - Both plants and animals of many sorts show remarkable changes in form, growth habits and even modes of reproduction to adapt to changing environment.

Hint

  • While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
  • Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
  • Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So these parts will always be at the end.

19

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. of current events

B. of ancient history

C. working knowledge

D. is necessary for the 

E. intelligent interpretation

  1. ((a))

    ABDEC

  2. ((b))

    CEABD

  3. ((c))

    BEADC

  4. ((d))

    ABCDE

  5. ((e))

    CBDEA

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

CBDEA

The correct answer is CBDEA.

Key Points

  • C is the part that establishes the subject of the matter,i.e., ' working knowledge'. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
  • Part B refers to the knowledge of ancient history. Hence, D follows B.
  • Now three parts are remaining, and out of them, part D refers to the importance of history for interpretation. So, part D follows B.
  • Part E talks about intelligent interpretation, so it must come after part D.
  • Part A talks about the understanding of current events. Hence, E follows A.

Correct rearrangement of segments is - Working knowledge of ancient history is necessary for the intelligent interpretation of current events.

Hint

  • While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
  • Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
  • Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So these parts will always be at the end.

20

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. play an important role 

B. in the global carbon cycle as

C. mature forests do 

D. stable carbon pools 

E. and decrease carbon dioxide levels

  1. ((a))

    CABDE

  2. ((b))

    DECAB

  3. ((c))

    BCDAE

  4. ((d))

    BDEAC

  5. ((e))

    DEBAC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CABDE

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. CABDE.

Explanation      

  • First is C as it establishes the subject i.e. mature forests. C is the only opening segment that can lead to the formation of a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
  • Next is A as it states what mature forests do.
  • B follows A as it tells in which area they play an important role.
  • Next is D as it tells 'how' the forests play a role in the global carbon cycle.
  • Last is E as it further elaborates on their role.
<br>

Correct sentence- Mature forests do play an important role in the global carbon cycle as stable carbon pools and decrease carbon dioxide levels.

21

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. As India faces extreme 

B. weather events such as

C. increased intensity of rainfall,

D. scientists have warned that 

E. global warming could bring about changes to the rainfall.

  1. ((a))

    ABCDE

  2. ((b))

    DEABC

  3. ((c))

    BCDEA

  4. ((d))

    DEACB

  5. ((e))

    EABCD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ABCDE

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. ABCDE.

Explanation:

  • First is A as it establishes the subject i.e. India. A is the only opening segment that can lead to the formation of a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
  • Next is B as it tells what India faces i.e. extreme weather events.
  • C follows B as it gives an example of the extreme weather events mentioned in B.
  • Next is D as it contextually follows C.
  • Last is E as it tells what the scientists have warned about.
<br>

Correct sentence- As India faces extreme weather events such as increased intensity of rainfall, scientists have warned that global warming could bring about changes to the rainfall.

22

Directions: The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

After examining him, the doctor smiled at him ________ and took out a syringe.

  1. ((a))

    unkindly

  2. ((b))

    staring

  3. ((c))

    Immediately

  4. ((d))

    mischievously

  5. ((e))

    cautiously

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

mischievously

The correct answer is 'mischievously'.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the word mischievously is '

in a way that shows a fondness for causing trouble in a playful way'.

  • For example, I believe he has mischievously misled the Committee.
  • The given statement is trying to tell that the doctor while giving an injection using a syringe to a patient smiled at him in a playful way knowing that he has caused some pain to the patient.
  • Therefore, mischievously is the correct answer here.

Additional Information

Let's learn about the other options given:

  • unkindly: not in a kind way/ in a harsh way
  • cautiously: in a way that deliberately avoids potential problems or dangers.
  • staring: look fixedly or vacantly at someone or something with one's eyes wide open.
  • immediately: at once; instantly.
23

Directions: The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

Children have always known that there is _______ in the adult world.

  1. ((a))

    harmonious

  2. ((b))

    Conflict

  3. ((c))

    clear

  4. ((d))

    agreement

  5. ((e))

    vagueness

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Conflict

The correct answer is 'conflict'.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the word conflict is 'a serious disagreement or argument'.
  • For Example, parents' and children's interests sometimes conflict.
  • The given statement is trying to tell that children have always known that adults have disagreements with themselves.
  • Therefore, conflict is the correct answer here.

Additional Information

  • Let's learn about the other options given 
  • harmonious: free from disagreement or dissent.
  • vagueness: lack of preciseness in thought or communication.
  • clear:  easy to perceive, understand, or interpret.
  • agreement: harmony or accordance in opinion or feeling.
24

The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the given options that could fit in the blank correctly. 

Alexis had to move to a small town when she lost all her ________ in a financial scam.

  1. ((a))

    Torture

  2. ((b))

    Luck

  3. ((c))

    Fortune

  4. ((d))

    Sympathy

  5. ((e))

    Empathy

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fortune

The correct answer is Fortune

Key Points

  • Fortune: A large amount of money and/or assets.

It should read as: 

Alexis had to move to a small town when she lost all her fortune in a financial scam. 

Important Points

The word 'financial' is critical here as it implies that the events in the sentence are related to money matters. 

Additional Information

Let us understand the meaning of the other words:

  • Torture:  A act of inflicting severe pain or wounds on someone in order to punish them or get some information out of them.
  • Luck:  Success or failure brought by chance rather than hard work or actions.
  • Sympathy: A feeling of sadness or pity towards someone else's misfortune.
  • Empathy: The ability to understand and share the feelings of others.

Confusion Points

The words 'fortune' and 'luck' do share one similar meaning - (a person's success or failure being caused by external chance factors), and so the reader may be confused here. In this case, the word 'fortune' refers to a person's possessions and financial position.

25

The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the given options that could fit in the blank correctly. 

Casey had been having recurring _________ for 3 nights in a row and she was extremely scared.

  1. ((a))

    Jokes

  2. ((b))

    Paranormal

  3. ((c))

    Daydreams

  4. ((d))

    Nightmares

  5. ((e))

    Dreams

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nightmares

The correct answer is nightmares.

Key Points

  • Nightmare:  A frightening or unpleasant dream that usually occurs during one's nighttime sleep.

It is read as:

Casey has been having recurring nightmares for 3 nights in a row and she was scared. 

Important Points

The usage of the adjective 'scared' is important in this context as it lets the reader know whether what has been happening for 3 nights in a row has been unpleasant and scary. This would help them eliminate options that have a pleasant or positive connotation. 

Additional Information

Let's look at the meaning of the other words:

  • Joke: A thing that someone says in order to create amusement and laughter.
  • Paranormal: Occurrences or instances that happen beyond normal, scientific understanding.
  • Daydream: A series of pleasant thoughts that distract one from reality.
  • Dream: A series of thoughts, images and sensations happening to a person while they're asleep.

Reasoning Ability (25 questions)

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight person A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seating around a square table, they seating in such a way that four sits in middle of each four sides and facing outsides, and another four sits at the four corners facing center.

E, who faces the center sits 3rd to the right of B. H faces the center who is not the immediate neighbor of B. Only one person sits between B and D. G faces center, F sits second to the right of G. C is not immediate neighbor of E.

26

Who sits third to the left of F?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Four were facing inside and four were facing outside.

1) E faces center and sits 3rd to the right of B.

2) H faces center and H is not the immediate neighbor of B.

 

3) Only one person sits between B and D.

 

4) G faces center, F sits second to the right of G. 

 

5) C is not immediate neighbor of E. (From here Case 2 is eliminated)

 

Hence, D sits third to the left of F.

27

What should be the place in the question mark?

EF GH CD ?

  1. ((a))

    AB

  2. ((b))

    BG

  3. ((c))

    CF

  4. ((d))

    DE

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AB

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Four were facing inside and four were facing outside.

1) E faces center and sits 3rd to the right of B.

2) H faces center and H is not the immediate neighbor of B.

 

3) Only one person sits between B and D.

 

4) G faces center, F sits second to the right of G. 

 

5) C is not immediate neighbor of E. (From here Case 2 is eliminated)

 

Here in EF (E sits opposite to F)

In GH (G sits opposite to H)

In CD (C sits opposite to D)

Same as in AB (A sits opposite to B)

Hence, AB comes in place of question mark (?).

28

Who sits diagonally opposite to E?

  1. ((a))

    H

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

F

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Four were facing inside and four were facing outside.

1) E faces center and sits 3rd to the right of B.

2) H faces center and H is not the immediate neighbor of B.

 

3) Only one person sits between B and D.

 

4) G faces center, F sits second to the right of G. 

 

5) C is not immediate neighbor of E. (From here Case 2 is eliminated)

 

Hence, F sits diagonally opposite to E.

29

Who sits fourth to the right of B?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

A

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Four were facing inside and four were facing outside.

1) E faces center and sits 3rd to the right of B.

2) H faces center and H is not the immediate neighbor of B.

 

3) Only one person sits between B and D.

 

4) G faces center, F sits second to the right of G. 

 

5) C is not immediate neighbor of E. (From here Case 2 is eliminated)

 

Hence, A sits fourth to the right of B.

30

Who sits immediate left of G?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

D

Person: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Four were facing inside and four were facing outside.

1) E faces center and sits 3rd to the right of B.

2) H faces center and H is not the immediate neighbor of B.

 

3) Only one person sits between B and D.

 

4) G faces center, F sits second to the right of G. 

 

5) C is not immediate neighbor of E. (From here Case 2 is eliminated)

 

Hence, D sits to the immediate left of G.

31

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which conclusion among the given conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

S = H ≥ P = K < L; M > J = Q > K

Conclusions:

I. H ≥ M

II. M ≤ L

  1. ((a))

    Only II is true

  2. ((b))

    Only I is true

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II is true

  5. ((e))

    None is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None is true

Given Statements: S = H ≥ P = K < L; M > J = Q > K

On Combining: S = H ≥ P = K < Q = J < M; M > J = Q > K = P < L

Conclusions:

I. H ≥ M → False (As, S = H ≥ P = K < Q = J < M → Clear relation between H and M cannot be determined)

II. M ≤ L → (As, M > J = Q > K = P < L → Clear relation between M and L cannot be determined)

Hence, none of the conclusion is true

32

Direction:In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

D > A ≥ J = B < P < Q; W > A = F

Conclusions:

I. D > W

II. D < W

  1. ((a))

    Only II is true

  2. ((b))

    Only I is true

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II is true

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neither I nor II is true

Given Statements: D > A ≥ J = B < P < Q; W > A = F

On Combining: W > F = A ≥ J = B < P < Q; D > A = F < W

Conclusions:

I. D > W → False (As, D > A = F < W → Clear relation between D and W cannot be determined)

II. D < W → False (As, D > A = F < W → Clear relation between D and W cannot be determined)

Hence, neither I nor II is true

33

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

G ≤ H < Y = B ≤ U; B > F = D > R

Conclusion:

I. Y > R

II. U > D

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusion I and II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion II follows

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusions I nor II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both conclusion I and II follows

Given statements: G ≤ H < Y = B ≤ U; B > F = D > R

On combination:

  1. G ≤ H < Y = B > F = D > R
  2. U ≥ B > F = D > R

Conclusion

I. Y > R → True (as Y = B > F = D > R)

II. U > D → True (as U ≥ B > F = D)

Hence, both conclusion I and II follow.

34

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: X < C = Z < S > G; X > M < J ≥ N

Conclusion:

I. S > M

II. G > J

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusion I or II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion II follows

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusions I nor II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows

Given statements: X < C = Z < S > G; X > M < J ≥ N

On combination: N ≤ J > M < X < C = Z < S > G

Conclusion

I. S > M → True (as M < X < C = Z < S)

II. G > J → False (as J > M < X < C = Z < S > G)

Hence, only conclusion I follows.

35

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “TEACHER” each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Three

The given word can be represented as follows,

Hence, we get 3 such pairs “CE, “EH” and “CE”.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language:

‘home is beautiful coloured’ is written as ‘aa ff ac cc’,

‘nice are not beautiful’ is written as ‘ac ec ce af’,

‘we love beautiful home’ is written as ‘aa ac ea ae’ and

‘we love nice coloured’ is written as ‘cc ae ea ec’.

36

Which word is represented by ‘ea’?

  1. ((a))

    we

  2. ((b))

    love

  3. ((c))

    nice

  4. ((d))

    coloured

  5. ((e))

    Can’t say

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Can’t say

The information given can be represented as follows,

Thus, ‘we/love’ is coded as ‘ea’.

Hence, option 5 is the correct answer.

37

Which of the following code is used for ‘beautiful’ in this code language?

  1. ((a))

    ff

  2. ((b))

    aa

  3. ((c))

    ac

  4. ((d))

    cc

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ac

The information given can be represented as follows,

Hence, ‘beautiful’ is coded as ‘ac’.

38

Code ‘ff’ is for which word in the given language?

  1. ((a))

    is

  2. ((b))

    home

  3. ((c))

    beautiful

  4. ((d))

    coloured

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

is

The information given can be represented as follows,

The code ‘ff’ is for ‘is’.

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

In a family, there are 9 family members having 3 generations. Male members will be lesser than female members. N is mother in law of P who is son of S. C's father has only one son who is married to D. N is mother of C. Q is sister in law of D. D is aunt of L who is unmarried. L is grandchild of N. M is not married to S. C is father of T who is grandson of M. M is married to C's mother.

39

Who is father of Q?

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

M

Answer: Option (2)

From the given information,

1) N is mother in law of P and P is son S.

  1. C is father of T who is grandson of M.

  2. M is married to C’s mother so it is clear that C will be only son of M.

  3. N is mother of C so N will be wife of M.

  1. C is married to D so C will be husband of D.

  2. Q is sister in law of D so Q will be sister of C.

  1. N is mother of Q so P will be husband of Q.

  2. D is aunt of L so L will be child of P and Q.

It is given that Male is lesser than female so S and L will be female.

Hence, M is the father of Q.

40

How P related to D?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Brother in law

  4. ((d))

    Husband

  5. ((e))

    Sister

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Brother in law

Answer: Option (3)

From the given information,

1) N is mother in law of P and P is son S.

  1. C is father of T who is grandson of M.

  2. M is married to C’s mother so it is clear that C will be only son of M.

  3. N is mother of C so N will be wife of M.

  1. C is married to D so C will be husband of D.

  2. Q is sister in law of D so Q will be sister of C.

  1. N is mother of Q so P will be husband of Q.

  2. D is aunt of L so L will be child of P and Q.

It is given that Male is lesser than female so S and L will be female.

Hence, P is brother in law of D.

41

How is T related to C?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Nephew

  3. ((c))

    Niece

  4. ((d))

    Father

  5. ((e))

    Son

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Son

From the given information,

1) N is mother in law of P and P is son S.

  1. C is father of T who is grandson of M.

  2. M is married to C’s mother so it is clear that C will be only son of M.

  3. N is mother of C so N will be wife of M.

  1. C is married to D so C will be husband of D.

  2. Q is sister in law of D so Q will be sister of C.

  1. N is mother of Q so P will be husband of Q.

  2. D is aunt of L so L will be child of P and Q.

It is given that Male is lesser than female so S and L will be female.

Hence, T is Son of C.

Directions: These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions.

C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

42

What will come in place of the question mark of the series?

R O, % 3 8, 7 A N, ?

  1. ((a))

    $ O G

  2. ((b))

    @ 4 $

  3. ((c))

    % 5 T

  4. ((d))

    $ O 5

  5. ((e))

    @ 4 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

$ O G

Given series: C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

Series in the question: # R O, % 3 8, 7 A N, ?

C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

Here, # + 2 = R, R − 3 = O

R + 2 = %

% + 2 = 3, 3 − 3 = 8

3 + 2 = 7

7 + 2 = A, A − 3 = N

Similarly,

A + 2 = $

$ + 2 = O, O − 3 = G

Here we get $ O G

Hence, the correct answer is $ O G.

43

How many such symbols are there in the above sequence, each of which is immediately followed or preceded by a perfect cube of a number or a perfect square of a number?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

Given series: C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

Squares: 12 = 1, 22 = 4, 32 = 9, 42 = 16

Cubes: 13 = 1, 23 = 8, 33 = 27

C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

Here we get four symbols ($ 8, 8 %, 4 %, 8 @) which are immediately followed or immediately preceded by perfect square or cube of a number.

Hence, the correct answer is 4**.**

44

How many such odd numbers are there in the above sequence, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

1

Given series: C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

Here we get only one odd number which is immediately preceded by a symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is 1.

45

How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number and also immediately preceded by a consonant?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

Given series: C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

We know, consonants are the letters other than vowels (A, E, I, O, U)

C 9 O # 2 R $ 8 % O 3 # N 7 @ A 4 G $ 6 O % 5 T 4 % O 7 # H 3 & E 8 @ L 6 5 L

Here we get two symbols which are immediately followed by a number as well as immediately preceded by consonant.

Hence, the correct answer is 2.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.

Eight friends Divya, Dev, Disha, Charu, Gopal, Golu, Harsh and Nisha live in an eight-floor building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor is Numbered one and above as two and so on. Three persons live between Harsh and Disha and Neither of them lives on an even-numbered floor. Harsh lives above Disha. Divya lives above Disha but below Harsh. Divya does not live on an even-numbered floor. Golu lives below Divya but not immediately below. Golu does not live on an odd-numbered floor. Number of persons live above Gopal is one more than the number of persons live below Golu. Charu lives neither immediately below Golu nor on the topmost floor. Nisha does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

46

Who lives on 6th floor?

  1. ((a))

    Nisha

  2. ((b))

    Golu

  3. ((c))

    Gopal

  4. ((d))

    Divya

  5. ((e))

    Dev

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gopal

Given,

Eight friends Divya, Dev, Disha, Charu, Gopal, Golu, Harsh and Nisha live in an eight-floor building

  1. Three persons live between Harsh and Disha and Neither of them lives on an even-numbered floor.
  2. Harsh lives above Disha.
Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Harsh
4
3Disha
2
1Disha

 

  1. Divya lives above Disha but below Harsh.
  2. Divya does not live on an even-numbered floor.
Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5DivyaHarsh
4
3DishaDivya
2
1Disha

 

  1. Golu lives below Divya but not immediately below.
  2. Golu does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case II eliminated.

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

  1. Number of persons live above Gopal is one more than the number of persons live below Golu
Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

  1. Charu lives neither immediately below Golu nor on the topmost floor. 
  2. Nisha does not live on an odd-numbered floor.
Case I
FloorPerson
8Nisha
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4Charu
3Disha
2Golu
1Dev

 

Gopal lives on the 6th floor.

47

How many persons live between Divya and Disha?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

Given,

Eight friends Divya, Dev, Disha, Charu, Gopal, Golu, Harsh and Nisha live in an eight-floor building

1. Three persons live between Harsh and Disha and Neither of them lives on an even-numbered floor. 2. Harsh lives above Disha.

Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Harsh
4
3Disha
2
1Disha

 

  1. Divya lives above Disha but below Harsh. 4. Divya does not live on an even-numbered floor.
Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5DivyaHarsh
4
3DishaDivya
2
1Disha

 

  1. Golu lives below Divya but not immediately below. 6. Golu does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case II eliminated.

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

7. Number of persons live above Gopal is one more than the number of persons live below Golu

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

8. Charu lives neither immediately below Golu nor on the topmost floor.  9. Nisha does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case I
FloorPerson
8Nisha
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4Charu
3Disha
2Golu
1Dev

 

One person lives between Divya and Disha.

48

Who lives on the lowermost floor?

  1. ((a))

    Dev

  2. ((b))

    Disha

  3. ((c))

    Divya

  4. ((d))

    Gopal

  5. ((e))

    Golu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dev

Given,

Eight friends Divya, Dev, Disha, Charu, Gopal, Golu, Harsh and Nisha live in an eight-floor building

1. Three persons live between Harsh and Disha and Neither of them lives on an even-numbered floor. 2. Harsh lives above Disha.

Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Harsh
4
3Disha
2
1Disha

 

  1. Divya lives above Disha but below Harsh. 4. Divya does not live on an even-numbered floor.
Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5DivyaHarsh
4
3DishaDivya
2
1Disha

 

  1. Golu lives below Divya but not immediately below. 6. Golu does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case II eliminated.

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

7. Number of persons live above Gopal is one more than the number of persons live below Golu

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

8. Charu lives neither immediately below Golu nor on the topmost floor.  9. Nisha does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case I
FloorPerson
8Nisha
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4Charu
3Disha
2Golu
1Dev

 

Dev lives on the lowermost floor.

49

How many persons live above Charu?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Four

Given,

Eight friends Divya, Dev, Disha, Charu, Gopal, Golu, Harsh and Nisha live in an eight-floor building

1. Three persons live between Harsh and Disha and Neither of them lives on an even-numbered floor. 2. Harsh lives above Disha.

Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Harsh
4
3Disha
2
1Disha

 

  1. Divya lives above Disha but below Harsh. 4. Divya does not live on an even-numbered floor.
Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5DivyaHarsh
4
3DishaDivya
2
1Disha

 

  1. Golu lives below Divya but not immediately below. 6. Golu does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case II eliminated.

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

7. Number of persons live above Gopal is one more than the number of persons live below Golu

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

8. Charu lives neither immediately below Golu nor on the topmost floor.  9. Nisha does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case I
FloorPerson
8Nisha
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4Charu
3Disha
2Golu
1Dev

 

Four persons live above Charu.

50

Who live immediately above Harsh?

  1. ((a))

    Harsh

  2. ((b))

    Golu

  3. ((c))

    Divya

  4. ((d))

    Gopal

  5. ((e))

    Nisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Nisha

Given,

Eight friends Divya, Dev, Disha, Charu, Gopal, Golu, Harsh and Nisha live in an eight-floor building

1. Three persons live between Harsh and Disha and Neither of them lives on an even-numbered floor. 2. Harsh lives above Disha.

Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Harsh
4
3Disha
2
1Disha

 

  1. Divya lives above Disha but below Harsh. 4. Divya does not live on an even-numbered floor.
Case ICase II
FloorPersonPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5DivyaHarsh
4
3DishaDivya
2
1Disha

 

  1. Golu lives below Divya but not immediately below. 6. Golu does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case II eliminated.

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

7. Number of persons live above Gopal is one more than the number of persons live below Golu

Case I
FloorPerson
8
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4
3Disha
2Golu
1

 

8. Charu lives neither immediately below Golu nor on the topmost floor.  9. Nisha does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

Case I
FloorPerson
8Nisha
7Harsh
6Gopal
5Divya
4Charu
3Disha
2Golu
1Dev

 

Nisha lives immediately above Harsh.

Numerical Aptitude (25 questions)

Direction: Read the following table carefully and answer the following questions.

The following table depicts the ratio of Girls to Boys and total students In five colleges: 

College NameGirls : BoysTotal Students
M.D College7 : 416,500
D.A.V College5 : 3-
M.G.S College-11,900
M.P College2 : 318,500
D.B.R College6 : 514,300
<br>

Note: Total students = Total number of boys + Total number of girls

51

If the number of girls in M.G.S college is 700 more than the number of boys, find the difference between the number of boys in M.G.S college and the number of girls in M.D college.

  1. ((a))

    5,000

  2. ((b))

    5,900

  3. ((c))

    4,900

  4. ((d))

    5,500

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4,900

Given:

College NameTotal Girls : Total BoysTotal Students
M.D College10,500 : 6,00016,500
D.A.V College5x : 3x-
M.G.S College-11,900
M.P College7,400 : 11,10018,500
D.B.R College7,800 : 6,50014,300
<br>

Calculation:

Let the number of girls in M.G.S college be ‘x’.

So, the number of boys in M.G.S college = x – 700

The total number of students in M.G.S college = 11900

Value of x:

⇒ x + x – 700 = 11900

⇒ 2x = 12600

⇒ x = 6300

The number of boys in M.G.S college = 6300 – 700

⇒ 5600

The total number of students in M.D college = 16500

The number of girls in M.D college = 16500 × (7/11)

⇒ 10500

Required difference = 10500 – 5600

⇒ 4900

The difference between the number of boys in M.G.S college and the number of girls in M.D college is 4,900.

52

The number of girls in D.B.R college is what percent more than the number of boys in M.D college?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    33.33%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    31%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

Given:

College NameTotal Girls : Total BoysTOTAL STUDENTS
M.D College10,500 : 6,00016,500
D.A.V College5x : 3x-
M.G.S College-11,900
M.P College7,400 : 11,10018,500
D.B.R College7,800 : 6,50014,300
<br>

Calculation:

The number of girls in D.B.R college = 14300 × (6/11)

⇒ 7800

The number of boys in M.D college = 16500 × (4/11)

⇒ 6000

Required Percentage = {(7800 – 6000)/6000} × 100

⇒ (1800/6000) × 100

⇒ 30%

∴ The number of girls in D.B.R college is 30% more than the number of boys in M.D college.

53

If the difference between the number of boys and girls in D.A.V college is 4400, find the sum of the total number of students of D.A.V college and the total number of boys in M.P college.

  1. ((a))

    23,600

  2. ((b))

    27,700

  3. ((c))

    28,700

  4. ((d))

    29,000

  5. ((e))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

28,700

Given:

College NameTotal Girls : Total BoysTotal Students
M.D College10,500 : 6,00016,500
D.A.V College5x : 3x-
M.G.S College-11,900
M.P College7,400 : 11,10018,500
D.B.R College7,800 : 6,50014,300
<br>

Calculation:

Let the ratio of the number of boys and girls in DAV college be 5x and 3x respectively.

Difference between the ratio of number of boys and girls in DAV college = 5x – 3x

⇒ 2x

Value of x,

⇒ 2x = 4400

⇒ x = 2200

The total number of students of D.A.V college = 5x + 3x

⇒ 8 × 2200

⇒ 17600

The total number of boys in M.P college = 18500 × (3/5)

⇒ 11100

Required sum = 17600 + 11100

⇒ 28700

The sum of the total number of students of DAV college and the total number of boys in MP college is 28,700.

54

Find the ratio of the number of boys of DBR college to the number of girls of MD college.

  1. ((a))

    13 : 21

  2. ((b))

    13 : 15

  3. ((c))

    13 : 11

  4. ((d))

    Data can not be determined

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 : 21

Given:

College NameTotal Girls : Total BoysTotal Students
M.D College10,500 : 6,00016,500
D.A.V College5x : 3x-
M.G.S College-11,900
M.P College7,400 : 11,10018,500
D.B.R College7,800 : 6,50014,300
<br>

Calculation:

The number of boys in D.B.R college = 14300 × (5/11)

The number of girls in M.D college = 16500 × (7/11)

Required ratio = 14300 × (5/11) : 16500 × (7/11)

⇒ (143 × 5) : (165 × 7)

⇒ (13 × 5) : (15 × 7)

⇒ 13 : 21

The ratio of the number of boys of BR college to the number of girls of MD college is 13 : 21.

55

If the total number of students of DAV college is 17,600 and the ratio of girls and boys of M.G.S college is 9 : 8 then find the average number of boys in all the colleges.

  1. ((a))

    7,000

  2. ((b))

    7,260

  3. ((c))

    7,160

  4. ((d))

    Data cannot be determined

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7,160

Given:

College NameTotal Girls : Total BoysTOTAL STUDENTS
M.D College10,500 : 6,00016,500
D.A.V College5x : 3x-
M.G.S College-11,900
M.P College7,400 : 11,10018,500
D.B.R College7,800 : 6,50014,300
<br>

Formula Used:

Average = (Total sum of all numbers)/(Number of item in the set)

Calculation:

Let the ratio of the number of boys and girls in D.A.V college be 5x and 3x respectively.

Value of x

⇒ 8x = 17600

⇒ x = 2200

The total number of boys in D.A.V college = 3x

⇒ 6600

Let the ratio of girls and boys of MGS college be 9y and 8y.

Value of y,

⇒ 17y = 11900

⇒ y = 700

The total number of boys in M.G.S college = 8y

⇒ 5600

The total number of boys in M.D college = 16500 × (4/11)

⇒ 6000

The total number of boys in M.P college = 18500 × (3/5)

⇒ 11100

The total number of boys in D.R.B college = 14300 × (5/11)

⇒ 6500

Required sum = 6600 + 5600 + 6000 + 11100 + 6500

⇒ 35800

The average number of boys in all the colleges = 35800/5

⇒ 7160

The average number of boys in all the colleges is 7,160.

56

What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

570.55 ÷ 15.03 + 35% × ? – 37.02 × 28.90 = 1944.40 – 22.22% of 256

  1. ((a))

    8483

  2. ((b))

    8397

  3. ((c))

    8351

  4. ((d))

    8331

  5. ((e))

    8125

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8351

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

570.55 ÷ 15.03 + 35% × ? – 37.02 × 28.90 = 1944.40 – 22.22% of 256

⇒ 570/15 + 35% × ? – 37 × 29 = 1944.40 – 22 × 256/100

⇒ 38 + 35% × ? – 1073 = 1944.40 – 56.32

⇒ 35 × ?/100 = 2923

⇒ ? = 8351

57

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

723%×244.98+723%×379.68=35%;of;?+36.3287\frac{2}{3}\% \times 244.98 + 7\frac{2}{3}\% \times 379.68 = 35\% ;of;? + 36.328

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    33

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    50

  5. ((e))

    55

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

33

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order is given below:

723%×244.98+723%×379.68=35%;of;?+36.3287\frac{2}{3}\% \times 244.98 + 7\frac{2}{3}\% \times 379.68 = 35\% ;of;? + 36.328

723%×245+723%×380=35%;of;?+36.328\Rightarrow 7\frac{2}{3}\% \times 245 + 7\frac{2}{3}\% \times 380 = 35\% ;of;? + 36.328

723%(245+380)=35×x100+36.328\Rightarrow 7\frac{2}{3}\% \left( {245 + 380} \right) = \frac{{35 \times x}}{{100}} + 36.328

⇒ 23/3 × 625/100 = 35x/100 + 36.328

⇒ 208 × 23 = 35x + 3633

⇒ x = 33

58

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

613+415+137217+425×313=?6\frac{1}{3} + 4\frac{1}{5} + 1\frac{3}{7} - 2\frac{1}{7} + 4\frac{2}{5} \times 3\frac{1}{3} = ?

  1. ((a))

    2573525\frac{7}{{35}}

  2. ((b))

    3173531\frac{7}{{35}}

  3. ((c))

    26173526\frac{{17}}{{35}}

  4. ((d))

    24173524\frac{{17}}{{35}}

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24173524\frac{{17}}{{35}}

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order is given below:

193+215+107157+225×103\frac{{19}}{3} + \frac{{21}}{5} + \frac{{10}}{7} - \frac{{15}}{7} + \frac{{22}}{5} \times \frac{{10}}{3}

(193+22×23)+;(107157)+215\Rightarrow \left( {\frac{{19}}{3} + \frac{{22 \times 2}}{3}} \right) + ;\left( {\frac{{10}}{7} - \frac{{15}}{7}} \right) + \frac{{21}}{5}

633+;(57)+215\Rightarrow \frac{{63}}{3} + ;\left( {\frac{{ - 5}}{7}} \right) + \frac{{21}}{5}

2157+215\Rightarrow 21 - \frac{5}{7} + \frac{{21}}{5}

21+21557\Rightarrow 21 + \frac{{21}}{5} - \frac{5}{7}

21×6557=8822535\Rightarrow 21 \times \frac{6}{5} - \frac{5}{7} = \frac{{882 - 25}}{{35}}

241735\Rightarrow 24\frac{{17}}{{35}}

59

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

2161/3 × 264 × 394 ÷ [124 × 3 × 2-3] = 13?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

Concept Used:

1.) Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below, 

  1. ) am × an = am + n

3.) (am)n = am × n

Calculations:

2161/3​ × 264 × 394 ÷ [124 × 3 × 2-3] = 13?

⇒ ((6)3)1/3 × 264 × 39÷ (34 × 44 × 3 × 2-3) = 13?

⇒ ((6)3)1/3 × 264 × 394 ÷ (34 × 28 × 3 × 2-3) = 13?

⇒ ((6)3)1/3 × 264 × 394 ÷ (34 × 28 × 3 × 2-3) = 13?

⇒ 6 × (24 × 134) × (34 × 134) ÷ (35 × 25) = 13?

⇒ (2 × 3 × 24 ×  34 ×134 × 134 ) ÷ (35 × 25) = 13?

⇒ (25 × 35 × 138) ÷ (35 × 25) = 13?

⇒ 138 = 13?

⇒ ? = 8 

∴ The value of ? is 8

60

Find out the approximate value which should replace the question mark (?) in the following question.

764.95 × 3.99 – 332.32 × 10.19 + 2998% of 27.85 = ?2?^2

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    26

  4. ((d))

    16

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Step-1- Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2- Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3- Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4- Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Given expression is,

764.95 × 3.99 – 332.32 × 10.19 + 2998% of 27.85 = ?2

Taking Approximate values as,

764.95 ≈ 765, 3.99 ≈ 4, 332.32 ≈ 332, 10.19 ≈ 10, 2998 = 3000, 27.85 ≈ 28

⇒ 765 × 4 – 332 × 10 + 3000% of 28 = ?2

⇒ ?2 = 580(≈ 576)

∴ ? = 24

61

A bag has total 18 marbles of three different colours Black, Red and Pink. Number of each type of marbles is different. Difference between number of Red and black marbles is same as difference between number of red and pink marbles. If probability of picking a black marble from the bag is more than 0.23 and probability of picking a pink ball is less than 0.44 then find number of Pink marbles in the bag.

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    Can't be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Can't be determined

According to question,

Black + Red + Pink = 18

Also,

Red – black = Pink – red

2×Red=black+Pink2 \times Red = black + Pink

So

3×Red:marbles=183 \times Red :marbles = 18

Red marbles = 6

Black + Pink = 18 – 6 = 12

Also we know that probability of picking a black marble from bag is more than 0.23

Black marbles >0.23×18=4.14> 0.23 \times 18 = 4.14

So, Black marbles ≥ 5

Also pink balls =0.44×18=7.92= 0.44 \times 18 = 7.92

So number of Pink balls in bag ≤ 7

If black marbles = 5

Then Pink marbles = 12 – 5 = 7

Black marbles can’t be 6

If black marbles = 7

Then pink marbles = 5

If black marbles = 8

Pink marbles = 4

This is not unique value. So we can’t determine the exact numbers.

62

The cost of Iphone is 60% more than that of a Android phone. If the cost of Iphone is decreased by 40% and that of Android phone is increased by 30%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of two Iphones and three Android phones as compared to the original cost ? (Correct to one decimal place )

  1. ((a))

    6.2%

  2. ((b))

    5.1%

  3. ((c))

    7.2%

  4. ((d))

    6.1%

  5. ((e))

    5.2%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6.1%

Given:

The cost of Iphone is 60% more than that of a Android phone

Calculation:

Let cost of android phone be 100x

Cost of Iphone = 100x (100% + 60%)

100x × 160100100x\ \times\ \frac{160}{100}

= 160x

Original cost of 2 Iphones and 3 Android phones = 2 × 160x + 3 × 100x2\ \times\ 160x\ +\ 3\ \times\ 100x

= 320x + 300x

= 620x

 If the cost of Iphone is decreased by 40% and that of Android phone is increased by 30%,

Change in cost price of Iphone = 160x (100% - 40%)

160x × 60100160x\ \times\ \frac{60}{100}

= 96x

Change in cost price of Android phone = 100x (100% + 30%)

100x × 130100100x\ \times\ \frac{130}{100}

= 130x

Final cost of 2 Iphones and 3 Android phones = 2 × 96x + 3 × 130x2\ \times\ 96x\ +\ 3\ \times\ 130x

= 192x + 390x

= 582x

Percentage change = 620x  582x620 ×100\frac{620x\ -\ 582x}{620}\ \times 100

38x620x ×100\frac{38x}{620x}\ \times 100

= 6.1%(approx.)

\therefore The correct answer is 6.1%.

63

A town had a population of 4800 in the year 2019 in which the number of males to females is 5 : 3. The number of males in 2020, 2021, and 2022 increased by 25%, 20%, and 10% respectively with respect to the previous year while the number of females in 2020, 2021, and 2022 increased by 20%, 50%, and 40% respectively with respect to the previous year, then find the current population of the town?

  1. ((a))

    9276

  2. ((b))

    9486

  3. ((c))

    9578

  4. ((d))

    9566

  5. ((e))

    9732

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9486

Given   

<br>

The total population of the town in the year 2019 = 4800 

 

Ratio of number of males to females in the year 2019 = 5 : 3  

<br>

Rate of change for males in the year 2020, 2021, and 2022 = 25%, 20%, and 10%  

<br>

Rate of change for females in the year 2020, 2021, and 2022 = 20%, 50%, and 40%  

<br>

Formulation  

<br>

The current population of town = (Total population in the previous year) × [(1 + rate of change in the population for the previous year/100]  

<br>

Calculation   

<br>

Total number of males in the year 2019 = 4800 × (5/8) = 3000  

<br>

Total number of females in the year 2019 = 4800 × (3/8) = 1800  

<br>

Current population of males = 3000 × (1 + 25/100) × (1 + 20/100) × (1 + 10/100) = 4950   

<br>

Current population of females = 1800 × (1 + 20/100) × (1 + 50/100) × (1 + 40/100) = 4536  

<br>

The current total population of the town = 4950 + 4536 = 9486   

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is 9486.

64

Two trains C and D of length (y + 75) meters and (y + 175) meters respectively are moving in the opposite direction. Train C crosses train D in 10 seconds and the speed of train D is 15 m/s. If train D is standing on the platform, then train C crosses train D in 16 seconds. Find the length of train C.

  1. ((a))

    120 meters

  2. ((b))

    110 meters

  3. ((c))

    150 meters

  4. ((d))

    155 meters

  5. ((e))

    160 meters

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

150 meters

Given:

Length of train C = (y + 75) meters

Length of train D = (y + 175) meters

Speed of train D = 15 m/s

Formula used:

Time = distance/speed

Calculation:

Let the speed of train C be s m/s

⇒ [(y + 75) + (y + 175)] / (s + 15) = 10

⇒ 2y + 250 = 10s + 150

⇒ 2y – 10s = 150 – 250

⇒ 2y – 10s = -100     ….(1)

[(y + 75) + (y + 175)]/s = 16

⇒ 2y + 250 = 16s

⇒ 2y – 16s = -250

⇒ y – 8s = -125      ….(2)

From (1) and (2)

⇒ s = 25; y = 75

∴ Length of train C is 150 meters (i.e. 75 + 75)

65

Ram invested a certain sum for t years at a simple interest of 12% per annum and after t years it amounts to ₹300. In the second case, Ram invested the same sum for t years at a simple interest of 7% per annum and after t years it amounts to ₹200. Find the sum.

  1. ((a))

    ₹120

  2. ((b))

    ₹100

  3. ((c))

    ₹40

  4. ((d))

    ₹60

  5. ((e))

    ₹70

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹60

Shortcut Trick

Ram invested a certain sum for t years at a simple interest of R1% per annum and after t years it amounts to A1. In the second case, Ram invested the same sum for t years at a simple interest of R2% per annum and after t years it amounts to A2.

Then the sum invested P = A1R2A2R1R2R1\frac{A_1 R_2 - A_2 R_1}{R_2 - R_1}

According to the question,

A1 = ₹300

A2 = ₹200

R1 = 12% p.a.

R2 = 7% p.a.

Now, 

P = 300×7200×12712\frac{300 × 7 - 200 × 12}{7 - 12} = ₹60

∴ The sum invested is ₹60.

Alternate MethodGiven:

In the first case:

Ram invested a certain sum for t years at a simple interest of 12% per annum and after t years it amounts to ₹300.

In the second case:

Ram invested the same sum for t years at a simple interest of 7% per annum and after t years it amounts to ₹200. 

Formula used:

(1) Simple interest = P×R×T100\frac{P × R × T}{100}

Where,

P, is the principal amount

R, is the rate of interest applied

T, is the time of investment

(2) Amount = Principal + Interest

Calculation:

In the first case:

⇒ ₹300 = P(1 + 12t100\frac{12t}{100})    ----(1)

In the second case: 

⇒ ₹200 = P(1 + 7t100\frac{7t}{100})    ----(2)

On subtracting the equation (2) by (1), we get,

⇒ ₹100 = P(12t1007t100\frac{12t}{100}-\frac{7t}{100})

⇒ ₹100 = P(5t100\frac{5t}{100})

⇒ Pt = ₹2000

Put the above value in equation (1).

⇒ ₹300 = P(1 + 12t100\frac{12t}{100})

⇒ ₹300 = P + 12pt100\frac{12pt}{100}

⇒ ₹300 = P + 12×2000100\frac{12 × 2000}{100}

⇒ ₹300 = P + ₹240

⇒ P = ₹60

∴ The sum invested is ₹60.

Alternate MethodIn 1st case A= 300

r = 12 %A = P + I 

⇒ I = 300 - P

Then, 300 - P = (p×12×t)100(p × 12 × t) \over 100

⇒ 30000 - 100P = 12 P t

⇒ P t  = 30000100P1230000-100P\over12

In 2nd case A =  200

r = 7 %

Then, 200 - P = P×t×7100P\times t\times7\over 100

 ⇒ 20000 - 100P = 7 P t

⇒ Pt = 20000100P720000 - 100P\over 7

Now, 30000100P12=20000100P7{30000-100P\over12} = {20000 - 100P\over 7}

⇒ 2100 - 7P = 2400 -12P

⇒ 5P = 300

⇒ P = 60

∴ the sum is 60 Rs.

66

A ship went downstream for 27 km and immediately returned. It took the ship twice as long to make the return trip. If the speed of flow of the river was twice its initial speed, the trip downstream and back would take 648 minutes. Find the speed of the ship in still water and the speed of the river flow.

  1. ((a))

    9 km/hr, 3 km/hr

  2. ((b))

    10 km/hr, 4 km/hr

  3. ((c))

    8 km/hr, 3 km/hr

  4. ((d))

    6 km/hr, 3 km/hr

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9 km/hr, 3 km/hr

Given:

Distance to be traversed one way = 27 km and it takes 648 minutes or 54/5

hours for a two way journey if the flow of the river is twice as high.

Concept:

Going along the stream, resultant speed = speed of the boat in still water + speed of the stream.

Going against the stream, resultant speed = speed of the boat in still water - speed of the stream.

Formula used: s = v × t

Where, s = distance of the journey, v = speed, t = time taken

Calculation:

Let’s take the speed of the ship = v km/hr and speed of the stream = x km/hr

Downstream speed = (v + x) km/hr

Upstream speed = (v - x) km/hr

ATQ,

27v+x×2=;27vx\frac{{27}}{{v + x}} \times 2 = ;\frac{{27}}{{v - x}}

⇒ v = 3x      ----(1)

Again, if the flow was twice as high,

27v+2x+;27v2x=545\frac{{27}}{{v + 2x}} + ;\frac{{27}}{{v - 2x}} = \frac{{54}}{5}

⇒ 273x+2x+;273x2x=545\frac{{27}}{{3x + 2x}} + ;\frac{{27}}{{3x - 2x}} = \frac{{54}}{5}

27(15x+1x)=545\Rightarrow {27({1 \over 5x} + {1 \over x})} = {54 \over 5}

1+55x=25\Rightarrow {{1 + 5 \over 5x} } = {2 \over 5}

⇒ 1x=13\frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{3}

⇒ x = 3

From (1), v = 9

Speed of the ship in still water = 9 km/hr

Speed of the river flow = 3 km/hr

From the situation described in the first condition itself we can see that the speed of coming back has to be double the speed of going downstream. Checking the options, only option (1) fits this condition i.e. Downstream speed = 2 × Upstream speed.

Hence, option (1) is correct.

67

If the ages of Joe and Andy are added to thrice the age of Mary, the total becomes 79. If the ages of Joe and Mary are added to twice the age of Andy, the total becomes 61 and if the age of Mary is added to thrice the age of Andy and thrice the age of Joe, the total becomes 101. What is the age of Mary?  

  1. ((a))

    16 yrs

  2. ((b))

    12 yrs

  3. ((c))

    17 yrs

  4. ((d))

    15 yrs

  5. ((e))

    18 yrs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

17 yrs

GIVEN:

Joe + Andy + 3 Mary = 79 yrs

Joe + Mary + 2 Andy = 61 yrs

Mary + 3 Andy + 3 Joe = 101 yrs

EXPLANATION:

Let the ages of Joe, Andy, and Mary be a, b, and c yrs respectively.

∴ a + b + 3c = 79         ----(1)

a + c + 2b = 61       ----(2)

c + 3b + 3a = 101       ----(3)

From (1),

a + b = 79 - 3c      ----(4)

From (3),

c + 3(a + b) = 101      ----(5)

Put (a + b) from (4) in (5)

c + 3 (79 - 3c) = 101

c + 237 - 9c = 101

8c = 136

c = 17 yrs

∴ Mary's age is 17 years.

68

A person invests Rs. 40000 in a scheme in which he gets interest every 6 months at 10% per annum compound interest for 1.5 years. Another person invests the same amount of money in another scheme in which he gets interest every 3 months at 10% per annum compound interest for 1 year. Find the difference of interest (approx.)

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2400

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2153

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3000

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 2153

Given:

1st person invests money = Rs. 40000

Rate of interest = 10%

2nd person invests money = Rs 40000

Formula:

Amount = P × (1 + R/100)t

Where P = principal, R = rate of interest, t = times

Amount = Principal + Compound Interest

Calculation:

For 1st person

Rate of interest = 10%/2 = 5%

(When interest calculated half yearly)

Times (t) = 1.5 years/6 months = 18/6 = 3

Amount = 40000 × (1 + 5/100)3 = 40000 × (21/20)3

⇒ Amount = Rs. 46305

Amount = principal + compound interest

⇒ 46305 = 40000 + Compound Interest

⇒ Compound Interest = 6305

For 2nd person

Rate of interest = 10%/4 = 2.5%

(When interest is calculated quarterly)

Times (t) = 1 year/3 months = 12/3 = 4

Amount = 40000 × (1 + 2.5/100)4 = 40000 × (41/40)4

⇒ Amount = Rs 44152

Amount = Principal + Compound Interest

⇒ 44152 = 40000 + Compound Interest

Compound Interest = Rs. 4152

Difference (interest) = Rs. 6305 - Rs. 4152 = Rs. 2153

∴ Difference in interest of both the scheme = Rs. 2153

69

The floor of a square room of side 4 metres is to be paved with Onyx tiles of size 16 cm × 20 cm. The number of such tiles to be required are:

  1. ((a))

    250

  2. ((b))

    500

  3. ((c))

    2000

  4. ((d))

    200

  5. ((e))

    400

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

500

According to the given information,

Area of one Onyx Tile = 16 × 20 = 320 cm2

Area of square room = (side)2 = (4)2 = 16 m2 = 160000 cm2

Number of Onyx tiles required = (Area of square room)/(Area of each Onyx tile)

= 160000/320 = 500

∴ 500 Onyx tiles are required to cover the required square floor.

70

An Inlet pipe fills the tank at the rate of 3.5 liters/hour. And due to leak tank gets empty in 20% of time taken by both inlet and leak together. When the tank is full and due to leak and inlet pipe, the tank gets emptied in 60 hours. Find the capacity of the tank?

  1. ((a))

    30 liters

  2. ((b))

    35 liters

  3. ((c))

    70 liters

  4. ((d))

    22.5 liters

  5. ((e))

    50 liters

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

35 liters

According to the question

Given:

An Inlet pipe fills the tank at the rate of 3.5 liters/hour

Tank emptied in 60 hours when leakage pipe and inlet pipe open together.

Leakage takes 20% time to empty the tank = 12 hours

Formula/Concept used:

Application of percentage

Calculation:

If inlet pipe takes x hours to fill the tank

⇒ 1/x part will be filled in one hour

Tank emptied in 60 hours when leakage pipe and inlet pipe open together

It takes 12 hours to get emptied by leakage pipe alone

Then time taken by inlet pipe to fill

⇒ 1/x - 1/12= 1/60

⇒ (12 - x)/12x = 1/60

⇒  60 - 5x = x

⇒ 6x = 60

⇒ x = 10 hours

Total capacity of tank = 10 × 3.5 liters = 35 liters

∴ Total capacity of tank is 35 liters

71

In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

32, 33, 25, 52, 12, 113

  1. ((a))

    33

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    52

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    113

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12

Given:

32, 33, 25, 52, 12, 113

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern,

32 + 13 = 33

33 - 23 = 25

25 + 33 = 52

52 - 43 = -12 ≠ 12

-12 + 53 = 113 

Since -12 will come in place of 12.

∴ The required wrong number will be 12.

72

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

132, 156, 181, 210, 240, 272, 306

  1. ((a))

    272

  2. ((b))

    181

  3. ((c))

    210

  4. ((d))

    156

  5. ((e))

    240

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

181

Given:

132, 156, 181, 210, 240, 272, 306

Calculation:

11 × 12 = 132

12 × 13 = 156

13 × 14 = 182 ≠ 181

14 × 15 = 210

15 × 16 = 240

16 × 17 = 272

17 × 18 = 306

∴ The wrong number is 181.

73

In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

154, 145, 161, 136, 174, 123, 187

  1. ((a))

    145

  2. ((b))

    136

  3. ((c))

    174

  4. ((d))

    123

  5. ((e))

    187

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

174

Given:

154, 145, 161, 136, 174, 123, 187

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern

⇒ 154 - 32 = 145

⇒ 145 + 42 = 161

⇒ 161 - 52 = 136

⇒ 136 + 62 = 172 ≠ 174

⇒ 172 - 72 = 123

⇒ 123 + 82 = 187

174 is wrong and should be replaced by 172.

Alternate Method

∴ 174 is wrong and should be replaced by 172.

74

In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

1, 6, 16, 33, 60, 96, 146

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    96

  5. ((e))

    146

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

60

Given:

1, 6, 16, 33, 60, 96, 146

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern

⇒ 1 + 22 + 1 = 6

⇒ 6 + 32 + 1 = 16

⇒ 16 + 42 + 1 = 33

⇒ 33 + 52 + 1 = 59 ≠ 60

59 + 62 + 1 = 96

⇒ 96 + 72 + 1 = 146

60 is wrong and should be replaced by 59.

75

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

30, 31, 76, 207, 844, 4245

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    76

  3. ((c))

    4245

  4. ((d))

    207

  5. ((e))

    844

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

76

Given:

30, 31, 76, 207, 844, 4245

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern,

30 × 1 + 12 = 31

31 × 2 + 22 = 66 ≠ 76

66 × 3 + 32 = 207

207 × 4 + 42 = 844

Since 66 will come in place of 76

The required wrong number will be 76.

General Studies (25 questions)

76

The Alai-Darwaza of Delhi was built by _______.

  1. ((a))

    Iltutmish

  2. ((b))

    Qutb-ud-din Aibak

  3. ((c))

    Aram Shah

  4. ((d))

    Alauddin Khilji

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Alauddin Khilji

The correct answer Alauddin Khilji.

Key Points

  • Allaudin Khilji constructed Alai Darwaza, the Palace of a thousand pillars, and the Fort of Siri.
  • The Alai Darwaza is the main gate from the southern side of the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque in the Qutub Minar complex.

Additional Information

  • Ala-ud-din followed the Divine Right Theory of Kingship and restructured the spy system.
  • He banned social parties and prohibited black marketing.
  • He introduced a permanent standing army and revenue was collected in cash only.
  • He followed discriminatory policies towards the Hindus and imposed the Jizya, a grazing tax, and a house tax on the Hindu community.
  • Officers called Diwan-i-riyasat were appointed in the offices called Shahana-i-mandi to standardize the market.

Image of Alai Darwaza:

77

Who is the richest person in the world as per Forbes real-time billionaires list?

  1. ((a))

    Elon Musk

  2. ((b))

    Bill Gates

  3. ((c))

    Gautam Adani

  4. ((d))

    Jeff Bezos

  5. ((e))

    Bernard Arnault

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Bernard Arnault

The correct answer is Bernard Arnault.

Key Points

  • Bernard Arnault is the CEO and Chair of LVMH (Moët Hennessy Louis Vuitton) and his net worth is $198.4 billion, meaning Elon Musk was overtaken as the world's richest man in 2022.
  • Elon Musk is the co-founder and CEO of Tesla who (until recently) was the richest person in the world, he has a net worth of $144.4 billion.
  • Gautam Adani is the Founder and Chair of the Adani Group and his net worth is $122.9 billion.
  • Jeff Bezos is the founder of Amazon and he holds an estimated net worth of $110.6 billion.
  • Bill Gates is an American businessman and philanthropist. He is a co-founder of Microsoft, along with his late childhood friend Paul Allen.
78

In GSTN, what does N stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Nominee

  2. ((b))

    Nation

  3. ((c))

    Number

  4. ((d))

    Network

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Network

The correct answer is Network.

Key Points

  • The Goods and Service Tax Network (or GSTN) is a non-profit, non-government organization.
  • It manages the entire IT system of the GST portal, which is the mother database for everything GST.
  • The government will use this portal to track every financial transaction and provide taxpayers with all services – from registration to filing taxes and maintaining all tax details.
79

In 1857, the last ruler of the Mughal dynasty _______ was overthrown by the British.

  1. ((a))

    Bahadur Shah Zafar

  2. ((b))

    Nasiruddin Humayun

  3. ((c))

    Jalaluddin Akbar

  4. ((d))

    Zahiruddin Babar

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bahadur Shah Zafar

The correct answer is Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Key Points

  • Bahadur Shah Zafar
  • He was the last ruler of the Mughal Empire.
  • He led Delhi in the revolt of 1857.
  • He was more of a poet than a political leader or emperor.
  • He was an accomplished Urdu poet and had good knowledge of Persian and Arabic as well.
  • He was also a calligrapher and musician.

Additional Information

  • Babur
  • He is the founder of the Mughal Empire.
  • He fought the first Battle of Panipat in 1526 with Ibrahim Lodhi and laid the foundation of the Mughal Empire.
  • His autobiography Tuzuk-i-Babri was written in the Turkish Language.
  • In 1527 his general Mir Baki built Babri Maszid.
  • He died in 1530.
  • Humayun
  • He was the son of Babur.
  • He was a mathematician and astronomer.
  • His biography Humayunama was written by his sister Gulbadan Begum.
  • Akbar
  • He was born in 1542 at Amarkot.
  • He fought the second battle of Panipat in 1556 with Hemu and he defeated Hemu.
  • He abolished the religious tax Jizya.
  • He founded a new religion "Din-i- Allahi".
  • His biography was written by Abul Fazal " Ain-i-Akbari".
80

The leader who participated in the Champaran Satyagraha

  1. ((a))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

  2. ((b))

    Subhash Chandra Bose

  3. ((c))

    Vallabh bhai Patel

  4. ((d))

    Rajendra Prasad

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rajendra Prasad

The correct answer is Rajendra Prasad.

Key Points

  • Rajendra Prasad participated in the Champaran Satyagraha.
  • The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was India's first Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • The protest was against the injustice to the tenant farmers in the Champaran district of Bihar.
  • It was an uprising in which farmers protested against having to grow indigo with barely any payment for it.
  • Gandhiji was accompanied by
  • J.B. Kriplani, Rajkumar Shukla, Rajendra Prasad, N Parekh, M Desai, Brajkishore Prasad and Mazhar-ul-Haq to the district of Champaran.
  • The Champaran Satyagraha gave direction to India's youth and freedom struggle.

Additional Information

  • Dr Rajendra Prasad was the first president of India.
  • He is popularly called "Bihar Gandhi".
  • He became the president of INC in 1935 at the Bombay session.
  • "Mahaprayan Ghat" is a memorial dedicated to Rajendra Prasad.
  • He was elected as the permanent president of the constituent assembly on 11th December 1946.
  • He is the only person to hold the post of president of India for two terms.
  • He is the first president to get Bharat Ratna.
  • He convened the first joint sitting of the Indian Parliament.
  • He is the longest-serving president of India.
  • He died on 28th February 1963.
81

PM Mudra yojana has classified micro units under the following categories?

  1. ((a))

    Shishu

  2. ((b))

    Kishore

  3. ((c))

    Tarun

  4. ((d))

    None of these

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All of the above

Under ‘Shishu’ Scheme, loans up to Rs 50,000 will be sanctioned. This is the first stage

when the Under ‘Shishu’ Scheme, loans up to Rs 50,000 will be sanctioned.

Under ‘Kishor’ Scheme, loans above Rs 50,000 and up to Rs 5 Lakh will be provided.

 Under ‘Tarun’ category, loan of above Rs 5 Lakh and up to Rs 10 Lakh will be sanctioned.

82

Which of the following airlines will be merged with Tata-owned Air India by March 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Go First

  2. ((b))

    IndiGo

  3. ((c))

    Vistara

  4. ((d))

    SpiceJet

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vistara

The correct answer is Vistara.

Key Points

  • Vistara airlines will be merged with Tata-owned Air India by March 2024.
  • Singapore Airlines and Tata Sons have agreed to merge Air India and Vistara by March 2024, subject to regulatory approvals.
  • Singapore Airlines will invest 250 million Dollars or Rupees 2,000 crore into Air India as soon as this integration is completed.
  • Singapore Airlines owns a minority share in Vistara.

Important Points

  • The rearrangement will mean a larger fleet and more routes under the Air India brand for worldwide travelling.
  • Tata group is already in the process of merging Air India Express and AirAsia India into one entity that will provide low-cost flight options.
83

In January 2022, which of the following railway stations was named as Ekta Nagar railway station?

  1. ((a))

    Dabhoi Railway Station

  2. ((b))

    Anand Railway Station

  3. ((c))

    Dadar Railway Station

  4. ((d))

    Kevadiya Railway Station

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kevadiya Railway Station

The correct answer is Kevadiya station.

Key Points

  • From now, Indian Railways’ Kevadiya station was named Ekta Nagar railway station.
  • The Ministry of Railways has approved the renaming of the station situated near the Statue of Unity.
  • It falls under the Vadodara division.
  • The station code of Ekta Nagar railway station will be EKNR and the numerical code of the station will be 08224620.

Important Points

  • According to the Railway Ministry, the upcoming Art Gallery at Kevadiya railway station will showcase various Art and Craft forms from the state of Gujarat as well as India.
  • The Art Gallery at the station will be set up as well as operated by a private party with earnings to Indian Railways of 24.7 lakh and potential revenue of Rs 2.83 crore.
84

What is the electronic trading platform of ITC?

  1. ((a))

    e-Chaupal

  2. ((b))

    e-NAM

  3. ((c))

    e-Rupi

  4. ((d))

    e-Kishan

  5. ((e))

    e-Sampda

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

e-Chaupal

The correct answer is e-Chaupal.

Key Points

  • e-Choupal is an initiative of ITC Limited, a conglomerate in India, to link directly with rural farmers via the Internet for procurement of agricultural and aquaculture products like soybeans, wheat, coffee, and prawns.
  • e-Choupal tackles the challenges posed by Indian agriculture, characterized by fragmented farms, weak infrastructure and the involvement of intermediaries.
  • e-Choupal  was launched in June 2000.
  • e-Choupal has already become the largest initiative among all Internet-based interventions in rural India.
  • e-Choupal services today reach out to over 4 million farmers growing a range of crops - soyabean, coffee, wheat, rice, pulses, shrimp - in over 35000 villages through 6100 kiosks across 10 states (Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu).
85

When was the battle of Chausa fought?

  1. ((a))

    1560

  2. ((b))

    1539

  3. ((c))

    1545

  4. ((d))

    1535

  5. ((e))

    1940

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1539

The correct answer is 1539.

Key Points

  • The Battle of Chausa was fought between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri.
  • Sher Shah defeated Humayun in the battle of Chausa in 1539.
  • The Tomb of Sher Shah Suri is located in Sasaram, Bihar.
  • The Battle of Chausa was a notable military engagement between the Mughal emperor, Humayun, and the Afghan, Sher Shah Suri.
  • It was fought on 26 June 1539 at Chausa.
  • Sher Shah was victorious and crowned himself Farid al-Dīn Sher Shah.

Additional Information

  • Sher Khan defeated Humayun at Chausa (1539) and Kanauj (1540), forcing him to flee to Iran.
  • In Iran, Humayun received help from the Safavid Shah.
  • He recaptured Delhi in 1555 but died the next year after an accident in the library "Sher Mandal".
86

Which of the following is also known as laughing gas ?

  1. ((a))

    Nitrogen dioxide

  2. ((b))

    Nitrogen trioxide

  3. ((c))

    Nitrogen tetraoxide

  4. ((d))

    Nitrous oxide

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nitrous oxide

The correct answer is Nitrous oxide.

Key Points

  • Nitrous oxide (N2O):
  • It is commonly known as laughing gas or nitrous.
  • It is a chemical compound, an oxide of nitrogen with the formula N2O.
  • It is a naturally occurring gas that is colourless and non-flammable.
  • It is commonly used for sedation and pain relief but is also used by people to feel intoxicated or high.
  • It is commonly used by dentists and medical professionals to sedate patients undergoing minor medical procedures.

Additional Information

  • Nitrogen dioxide or NO2:
  • It is a gaseous air pollutant composed of nitrogen and oxygen and is one of a group of related gases called nitrogen oxides.
  • NO2 can cause irritation of the eyes, nose, and throat and when inhaled might cause lung irritations and decreased lung function.
87

Government has Extended Rooftop Solar Scheme till?

  1. ((a))

    February 2025

  2. ((b))

    March 2023

  3. ((c))

    March 2026

  4. ((d))

    December 2024

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

March 2026

The correct answer is March 2026.

Key Points

  • Central Government announced that it has extended the Rooftop Solar Programme till 31 March, 2026.
  • The subsidy under the programme will be available until the target under the Programme is achieved now.
  • The government has advised all residential consumers to not pay any additional charges to any vendor on account of fee for application on the National Portal or any additional charges for net-metering/testing which are not prescribed by the respective distribution company.

Additional Information

  • The Ministry is implementing Rooftop Solar Programme Phase-II wherein CFA/subsidy is being provided to residential consumers for installation of rooftop solar.
  • To ease out the implementation of the Programme, a National Portal was developed which was launched by Prime Minister Modi on 30 July 2022.
  • The list of registered vendors has been made available on the National Portal.
  • There is no fee for application on the National Portal and also the charges for net-metering have been prescribed by the respective distribution companies.
  • Further, no charges to be paid to any vendor or distribution company for receiving subsidy and subsidy will be credited directly into the bank account of the beneficiary by the Power Ministry.
88

Where will a frozen cattle semen station be set up under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission?

  1. ((a))

    Kannauj

  2. ((b))

    Etawah

  3. ((c))

    Purnea

  4. ((d))

    Madhubani

  5. ((e))

    Muzaffarpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Purnea

The correct answer is Purnea

Key Points

  • Frozen Semen Station is being set up in Purnea, Bihar under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission with 100% contribution from the Central Government.
  • Rashtriya Gokul Mission aims to conserve and develop indigenous breeds to increase milk productivity & was initiated in December 2014.
  • Rashtriya Gokul Mission is a ​focused project under National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.
89

The First Session of Indian National Congress was held at 

  1. ((a))

    Bombay 

  2. ((b))

    Madras

  3. ((c))

    Calcutta

  4. ((d))

    Delhi

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bombay 

The correct answer is Bombay.

  • The Indian National Congress conducted its first session in Bombay in 1885 at the initiative of retired Civil Service officer Allan Octavian Hume.

Key Points

  • The first session of the INC was proposed at Poona, but because of an outbreak of plague in Poona, the venue was shifted to Bombay.
  • And in the first session that was held in Bombay, at the ‘Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit Pathshala,’ only 72 delegates had participated and most of them belonged to a background of lawyers, and there weren’t many women in this session.

Additional Information

  • In the first session, the Early Nationalists, presented 9 resolutions before the British, and Lord Dufferin who was closely watching the activities of the Indian National Congress called the organization a ‘microscopic minority’.
  • Thus one can say that the ‘benevolent neutrality’ of Lord Dufferin turned to ‘bitter hostility’.
  • The moderates didn’t want ‘complete independence’, they mainly wanted ‘Indianisation’ of the services, their effort was that India should be governed by Indians, along with collaboration by the British. So, even in 1904, the popular demands from the moderates were representation in the House of Commons- so that the integration of British and Indian political system could be achieved.
  • The session was held under the presidentship of Womesh Chandra Banerjee who was a prominent Bengali barrister. The meeting was attended by 72 delegates from all over India. This meeting was held in December 1885  while the All-India National Conference was also holding its meeting in Calcutta.
90

The audible range of frequency for human ear is _____

  1. ((a))

    10 Hz to 10 kHz

  2. ((b))

    20 Hz to 20 kHz

  3. ((c))

    10 Hz to 20 kHz

  4. ((d))

    10 Hz to 30 kHz

  5. ((e))

    1 Hz to 20 kHz

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20 Hz to 20 kHz

  • The average hearing range for a human is between 20 Hz to 20 kHz and uses three muscles to aid the hearing process.
  • The SI unit of frequency is the hertz (Hz).
  • The upper limit in average adults is often closer to 15–17 kHz.
  • Below 20Hz the frequency is called infrasonic frequency.
  • Above 20000Hz the frequency is called ultrasonic frequency.

  • Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves and frequency can be defined as the number of wave cycles happening in one sec.
  • The types of sound waves whose frequencies are lower than the audible limit of human hearing are called Infrasonic waves.

Frequency can be divided into three categories based on their frequency range:

  • Audible sound waves: The frequency range of this wave is 20Hz - 20000Hz. Humans can easily detect these types of waves.
  • Example: Sound produced by Vocal cords.
  • Infrasonic waves: The frequency range of these types of waves is below 20Hz. Humans cannot detect it.
  • Example: Sound produced by Earthquake, Volcanic eruption and ocean waves, etc.
  • Ultrasonic waves or Ultrasound waves: The sound frequency above 20,000Hz is known as ultrasonic waves. Humans cannot detect it too.
91

Which team won 9th Pro Kabaddi league Title?

  1. ((a))

    Bengaluru Bulls

  2. ((b))

    Bengal Warriors

  3. ((c))

    Jaipur Pink Panthers

  4. ((d))

    Patna Pirates

  5. ((e))

    Dabang Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jaipur Pink Panthers

The correct answer is Jaipur Pink Panthers.

Key Points

  • Jaipur Pink Panthers won the Pro Kabaddi League Season 9 Final against Puneri Paltan by a score of 33-29 to win their second PKL championship.
  • After Patna, Jaipur Pink Panthers, the league’s first-ever winners, are currently only the second team to win multiple titles.
  • The tournament was played across Bengaluru, Pune, and Hyderabad while the playoffs were played in Mumbai.
  • Jaipur Pink Panthers team is currently led by Sunil Kumar Malik and coached by Sanjeev Baliyan.
  • The team is owned by Abhishek Bachchan.

Additional Information

  • Perfect Player of the Final: Sunil Kumar (Pink Panthers)
  • Game Changer of the Final: V Ajit Kumar (Pink Panthers)
  • Moment of the Final: Ankush Rathee (Pink Panthers)
  • Move of the Final: V Ajit Kumar (Pink Panthers)
  • Perfect Moment of the Final: Sunil Kumar (Pink Panthers)
92

Regur Soil is another name for?

  1. ((a))

    Black Soil

  2. ((b))

    Alluvial Soil

  3. ((c))

    Laterite Soil 

  4. ((d))

    Red and Yellow Soil

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Black Soil

The correct answer is Black Soil.

  • Regur Soil is also known as Black Soil.

Key Points

  • Black soil is also known as cotton soil and internationally it is known as ‘Tropical Chernozems’.
  • This is the third-largest soil type in India.
  • This soil is formed from rocks of cretaceous lava.
  • This stretch over the parts of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Western parts of Madhya Pradesh, North- Western Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand up to Raj Mahal hills.
  • The soil is rich in iron, lime, calcium, potash, magnesium, and aluminium.
  • It has high water retaining capacity and is good for Cotton Cultivation, Tobacco, Citrus fruits, Castor, and linseed.

Additional Information

  • The Alluvial Soil occurs mainly in the Satluj- Ganga- Brahmaputra Plains.
  • This soil has a phosphorous deficiency.
  • The colour of soil varies from light grey to ash.
  • This soil is suited for Rice, maize, wheat, sugarcane, oilseeds.
  • The Red Soil developed on Archean granite occupies the second largest area of the country.
  • This soil is also known as the omnibus group.
  • The presence of ferric oxides makes the colour of soil red.
  • The top layer of the soil is red and the horizon below is yellowish.
  • Generally, these soils are deficient in phosphate, lime, magnesia, humus, and nitrogen.
  • This soil is good for the cultivation of wheat, cotton, pulses, tobacco, millets, orchards, potato, and oilseeds.
  • The Laterite Soil is soft, when they are wet and ‘hard and cloddy’ on drying.
  • These are found mainly in the hills of the Western Ghats, Raj Mahal hills, Eastern Ghats, Satpura, Vindhya, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, North Cachar Hills, and the Garo hills.
  • These are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, potassium, lime, and potash.
  • These iron and Aluminum-rich soils are suitable for the cultivation of rice, ragi, sugarcane, and cashew nuts.
93

Which of the following is the Diamond producing city of India?

  1. ((a))

    Kolkata

  2. ((b))

    Chennai

  3. ((c))

    Panna

  4. ((d))

    Indore

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Panna

The correct answer is Panna

  • Madhya Pradesh produces 32 percent of the country's diamond.
  • The diamond reserves in Madhya Pradesh are located in the Panna district.
  • Apart from this, other states producing diamonds are Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala.
  • The largest diamond manufacturer in the country is Harikrishna Export Private Limited. It is owned by Savji Dholakia.

Additional Information

  • The three most big diamond plants in the country are Surat, Mumbai, and Kolkata.
  • All the carbon atoms in a diamond are connected by very powerful co-connective bonds,
  • Therefore it is very harsh. Diamond is the hardest substance in natural materials
94

The monetary policy in India is formulated by :

  1. ((a))

    Central Government

  2. ((b))

    Industrial Financial Corporation of India

  3. ((c))

    Reserve Bank of India

  4. ((d))

    Industrial Development Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Reserve Bank of India

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is given the responsibility of conducting monetary policy.
  • The responsibility is mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • The main objective is to maintain price stability while focussing on the objective of growth.
  • The act was amended in 2016 to provide a statutory for the implementation of flexible inflation.
  • The amended act provides the inflation target to be set once in every 5 years by the Government of India, with the consultation of the Reserve Bank.
  • Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation has the target of 4% for the period from  5th of August 2016 to 31st of March 2021.
  • The CPI inflation remained same for next 5 years from 1st April 2021 to 31st 2026.
  • The Inflation target has upper tolerance limit of 6% and a lower tolerance limit of 2%.

Additional Information

Industrial Financial Corporation of India- Was set up in 1948 by the Government of India. - First Financial institution of India. - The Primary objective of IFCI is making medium and long-term credit to industrial needs. - CEO: Manoj Mittal
Industrial Development Bank of India- Was set up in July 1964. - A subsidiary of the Reserve Bank Of India - The main objective of IDBI is to coordinate activities of other development banks and term-financing
institutions in the capital market of the country. - CEO:  Rakesh Sharma
95

The UN Convention on Biological Diversity also called as Conference of Parties (COP - 15) commenced in which country in December 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Canada

  2. ((b))

    USA

  3. ((c))

    Mexico

  4. ((d))

    Brazil

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Canada

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

  • The UN Convention on Biological Diversity also called as Conference of Parties (COP-15) commenced in Montreal, Canada on 7-19th December 2022.
  • The conference was originally scheduled to be held in China in October but was shifted to Canada due to covid situation in China.
  • This is the 2nd part of the COP15, the 1st part was hosted by China.
  • However, the host of the COP-15 in Montreal is still China.

Important Points

  • Delegates from nearly 200 countries will spend two weeks hashing out a new global deal to protect the world's struggling species and fast-vanishing wild places.
  • China's COP15 summit has been delayed four times, however, from its original date in 2020 due to COVID.
  • There are currently more than 1 million species threatened with extinction, as plant and animal species vanish at a rate 1,000 times faster than the natural extinction rate.
  • In Montreal, negotiators are considering 23 new targets, tackling everything from pesticides and noise pollution to corporate disclosures around the use of natural resources.
96

Which one of the following is a water borne disease?

  1. ((a))

    Smallpox

  2. ((b))

    malaria

  3. ((c))

    Cholera

  4. ((d))

    Tuberculosis

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cholera

The correct answer is Cholera.

<br>

Key Points

  • Waterborne disease
  • Water-borne diseases are the ones caused by pathogenic microbes spread via contaminated water.
  • Transmission of these pathogens occurs while using infected water for drinking, food preparation, and washing clothes, among others.
  • Many developing countries do not have proper water treatment plants, especially in rural areas. In some places, the availability of water is so scarce that people have neither the time nor the money to afford the water purifiers or other water treatment mechanisms.
  • The majority of water-borne diseases worldwide mainly affect children due to poor hygiene and weak immunity.
  • Most of these diseases are life-threatening.
  • The knowledge of the different types of water-borne diseases has come to the forefront with the advent of globalization over the past few decades.
  • Several pathogenic microorganisms which were previously unknown, have become the focus of major research in this field.
  • Few waterborne diseases: Diarrhea, Cholera, Typhoid, Amoebiasis, Hepatitis A.
<br>

Additional Information

  • Smallpox
  • Smallpox is an acute infectious disease that begins with a high fever, headache, and back pain and then proceeds to an eruption on the skin that leaves the face and limbs covered with cratered pockmarks, or pox.
  • For centuries smallpox was one of the world’s most-dreaded plagues, killing as many as 30 percent of its victims, most of them children.
  • Those who survived were permanently immune to a second infection, but they faced a lifetime of disfigurement and in some cases blindness.
  • Smallpox was also one of the first diseases to be controlled by a vaccine, particularly following the great experiments of English physician Edward Jenner in 1796.
  • In 1967 the World Health Organization (WHO) began a global vaccination program against smallpox, and in 1980 the disease was officially declared eradicated.
  • Malaria
  • Malaria is a serious relapsing infection in humans that is characterized by periodic attacks of chills and fever, anemia, splenomegaly (enlargement of the spleen), and often fatal complications.
  • It is caused by one-celled parasites of the genus Plasmodium that are transmitted to humans by the bite of Anopheles mosquitoes.
  • Malaria can occur in temperate regions, but it is most common in the tropics and subtropics.
  • In many parts of sub-Saharan Africa, entire populations are infected more or less constantly.
  • Malaria is also common in Central America, the northern half of South America, and in South and Southeast Asia.
  • Tuberculosis
  • Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease that is caused by the tubercle bacillus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • In most forms of the disease, the bacillus spreads slowly and widely in the lungs, causing the formation of hard nodules (tubercles) or large cheeselike masses that break down the respiratory tissues and form cavities in the lungs.
  • Blood vessels also can be eroded by the advancing disease, causing the infected person to cough up bright red blood.
  • The diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis depends on finding tubercle bacilli in the sputum, in the urine, in gastric washings, or in the cerebrospinal fluid.
97

How many Mahajanapadas or ‘Great Kingdoms’ existed in ancient India during the lifetime of Lord Gautam Buddha?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    14

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16

The total 16 Mahajanapadas are - Kashi, Kosala, Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Avanti, Gandhara and Kamboja.

  • Anguattara Nikaya, a text of Buddhist Literature gives a list of 16 kingdoms called Mahajanapadas.
  • These Mahajanpadas are either Monarchies or Republics (Ganasanghas).
  • The important Republics of this period were the Sakyas of Kapilavastu and the Licchavis of Vaishali.
  • The important monarchical Mahajanpadas of this period were Kaushambi (Vatsa), Magadha, Kosala, and Avanti.

Additional Information

The capitals of the kingdoms were: 

MahajanapadaCapital
AvantiMahishmati, Ujjaini
AssakaPatali/Potana
GandharaTaxila
KambojaRajapur
KosalaSravasti
KuruIndraprastha
MagadhaPatliputra
98

Which line divides India and Pakistan?

  1. ((a))

    McMahon Line 

  2. ((b))

    Durand Line

  3. ((c))

    Radcliffe Line

  4. ((d))

    Maginot Line

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Radcliffe Line

The correct answer is the Radcliff Line.

  • The Radcliffe Line became the international border between India and Pakistan (which also included what is now Bangladesh) during the partition of India.
  • Sir Cyril Radcliffe, drew the Radcliffe line which divides India and Pakistan.

Important Points

  • The Radcliffe Line was declared as the boundary between India and Pakistan On 17th August 1947, following the Partition of India.
  • The line is named after Sir Cyril Radcliffe who was commissioned to equitably divide 4,50,000 km sq of territory with 88 million people.
  • Sir Radcliffe arrived in India on 8th July 1947 and was given five weeks to work on the border.
  • Upon meeting with Mountbatten, Radcliffe traveled to Lahore and Kolkata to meet his Boundary Commission members, who were primarily Jawaharlal Nehru representing the Congress and Muhammad Ali Jinnah representing the Muslim League.
  • Both parties were keen that the boundary be finalized by 15th August 1947, in time for the British to leave India.
  • As requested by both Nehru and Jinnah, Radcliffe completed the boundary line a few days before Independence, but due to some political reasons the Radcliffe Line was only formally revealed on 17th August 1947.

Additional Information

  • Durand LIne:-
  • Its devides Pakistan and Afganistan Borders.
  • The Durand line came into existence on November 12, 1896, when the border which was used to separate the British and the Afghanistan territories came to life.
  • McMohan Line:- 
  • The McMahon Line marks the boundary between the China-occupied territory of the East-Himalayan region and the Indian regions.
  • This region is a mountainous place of high altitudes.
  • This line was determined by Sir Henry McMahon, a British Foreign Secretary in British India, and it is called the McMahon Line after his name.
  • The total length of this line is 890 kilometers.
  • Maginot Line:-
  • ​The Maginot Line is a Defensive line in France.
  • Its constructed in 1930.
  • The Maginot Line was an extremely well-developed chain of fortifications for defense against the German attack during the first world war.
99

Which force is required to maintain a body in Uniform circular Motion?

  1. ((a))

    The Centripetal

  2. ((b))

    The force of Gravitation

  3. ((c))

    Muscular force

  4. ((d))

    Force of Friction

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Centripetal

Concept:

Circular Motion: The movement of an object along a circumference of a circle or rotation along a circular path is called circular motion.

  • Uniform circular motion: The circular motion in which the speed of the particle remains constant is called uniform circular motion. In a uniform circular motion, force supplies the centripetal acceleration.
  • The kinetic energy and the speed of the body remain constant.

 

​Centripetal Force: 

It is a force required to move a body uniformly in a circle. This force acts along the radius and towards the centre of the circle.

Centripetal;Force;(F)=mv2r{\bf{Centripetal}};{\bf{Force}};\left( {\bf{F}} \right) = \frac{{m{v^2}}}{r}

  • The centripetal force required for circular motion along the surface of the road, towards the centre of the turn.

 

Explanation:

  • The Centripetal force is required to maintain a body in Uniform Circular Motion. So this is correct.
  • Centripetal Force acts when a body moves around the other body, the force that causes this acceleration and keeps the body moving along a circular path is acting towards the center
100

Which planet in our Solar System has the longest day?

  1. ((a))

    Saturn

  2. ((b))

    Jupiter

  3. ((c))

    Mars

  4. ((d))

    Venus

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Venus

The correct answer is Venus

Important Points

  • Venus which completes one rotation every 243 Earth days has the longest day of any planet in our solar system.
  • Jupiter has the shortest day of all the eight planets in the Solar System.
  • Venus is unique as it rotates in the opposite direction to most other planets.

Key Points

Saturn

  • It has the lowest density in our Solar system.
  • Has a beautiful ring system around it.
  • Titan is one of the prominent moons of Saturn
  • Saturn is known as the Moon king of the atmosphere with 82 discovered moons (earlier it was Jupiter).
  • Length of the day - 10 hours, 33 minutes.

Mars

  • Also known as Red Planet due to the presence of Iron Oxide in its soil.
  • Olympus Mons is considered the tallest mountain in our Solar system.
  • Phobos and Demos are the two moons of Mars.
  • Length of the day - 24 hours, 37 minutes

Jupiter

  • This gas giant is the largest planet in our Solar system.
  • Great Red Spot on Jupiter is a massive hurricane present there for centuries.
  • Io, Europa, Ganymede (biggest) and Callisto are the prominent moons of Jupiter.
  • Length of the day - 9 hours, 5 minutes

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