Official Paper

FCI AG III Memory Based Question Paper (Held on: 7th January 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

English Language (25 questions)

Read the passage given below and then answer the given questions. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Read carefully.

Marina was extremely afraid of the dark. When the lights went out, everything and every shadow appeared to her as the most terrible of monsters. Her parents explained to her, every day and with great patience, that these things were not monsters. Marina understood her parents, but she could not stop feeling an awful fear whenever it was dark.

One day her Aunt Valerie came to visit. Valerie was an incredible woman. She was famous for her courage, and for having gone on many journeys of adventure, some of which had been made into books and movies. Marina wanted to conquer her fear of the dark, so she asked her Aunt how she became so brave, and whether she had ever been frightened.

<br>

"A great many times, Marina," answered her Aunt, "I remember when I was small and I was terribly afraid of the dark. I couldn't stay in the dark for even a moment".

Marina became very excited. How was it possible that someone so courageous could have been afraid of the dark?

"I'll tell you a secret, Marina. It was some blind children who taught me how to be brave. They can't see, so if they had never discovered the secret of how not to be afraid of the dark, they would have been forever frightened".

"It's true!" said Marina, intrigued, "Can you tell me that secret?"

"Of course! The secret is to change your eyes. Since blind children can't see, their hands are their eyes. All you have to do to conquer your fear is what they do. Shut the eyes of your face and open the eyes of your hands. Let's make a deal: tonight, when you go to bed and put out the light if anything makes you afraid, close your eyes, carefully get out of bed, and try to see what it is that's making you scared. But do it using your hands as eyes... and tomorrow tell me how you're getting on with the fear".

Marina accepted, but she was rather worried. She knew she would need to be brave to close her eyes and go and touch whatever it was that was frightening her, but she was willing to try because she was already too old for this. When her parents took her to bed, she herself put out the light. After a little while, she felt afraid of one of the shadows in the bedroom. Following the advice of Aunt Valerie, she closed the eyes of her face and opened the eyes of her hands. And, summoning up all her courage, she went over to touch that mysterious shadow...

The next morning Marina came running into the kitchen, a big smile on her face, and a song on her lips. "The monster is so soft and smooth !..." she cried,

"It's my teddy bear!"

1

Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word 'terrible' used in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Bad

  2. ((b))

    Expensive

  3. ((c))

    Good

  4. ((d))

    Cheap

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Good

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. 'Good'

  • 'Terrible' means 'bad', 'serious', 'tragic'.
  • Related words: 'unexpected', 'horrifying', 'extreme', 'intense'.
  • Antonyms: 'minor', 'terrific', 'great', 'normal', 'good'.
  • Pronunciation: TE+ RRI( sound of 're')+B+ LE(sound of 'L').
  • Contexts (of terrible): 'Blunder', 'Penury or poverty', 'A state of famine or drought'.
  • Contexts (of good): 'An improvement in performance', 'mannerisms', 'gentle behavior'.
  • In a sentence: For a performer, it is always good to perform for improving.

Hence, option 3)

2

Which word is the most similar in meaning to the word 'conquer' used in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Loose

  2. ((b))

    Give up

  3. ((c))

    Win

  4. ((d))

    Lose

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Win

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. 'Win'

  • 'Win' means 'to conquer a situation/ defeated situation', 'one over the other', 'to be superior of all others'.
  • Synonyms: 'Best', to defeat', 'to get the best of', 'to conquer'.
  • Antonyms: to lose, to liberate, to give up.
  • Related to Conquer: 'trounce', 'vanquish'.
  • Contexts: 'Winning a battle', 'Invasion of India by Mughals'.
  • In a sentence: The invasion of Rajputana gharana by Mughals was a fine exempler of 'winning' India.

Hence*,* option 3)

3

What was the relation of Valarie with Marina?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Sister

  3. ((c))

    Grand mother

  4. ((d))

    Aunt

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Aunt

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. 'Aunt'

  • "One day her Aunt Valerie came to visit. Valerie was an incredible woman", This context from the given passage, also this: "Marina wanted to conquer her fear of the dark, so she asked her Aunt how she became so brave, and whether she had ever been frightened".
  • From the above contexts, it becomes apparent that the relation 'Valarie' and 'Marina' share is of 'Aunt and niece'.
  • 'Valarie' is the 'Aunt' to 'Marine'.

Hence, option 4).

4

Why was marina extremely afraid of dark?

  1. ((a))

    she was afraid of sleeping alone

  2. ((b))

     because everything and every shadow appeared to her as the most terrible of monsters in the dark.

  3. ((c))

    she was a courageous girl

  4. ((d))

    she had bad dreams while she was sleeping.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 because everything and every shadow appeared to her as the most terrible of monsters in the dark.

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. "because everything and every shadow appeared to her as the most terrible of monsters in the dark".

  • "Marina was extremely afraid of the dark. When the lights went out, everything and every shadow appeared to her as the most terrible of monsters. Her parents explained to her, every day and with great patience, that these things were not monsters", are the lines taken from the FIRST two lines of the passage. Words like 'Everything and every shadow appeared', 'the most terrible of monsters', 'Dark' conveys that Marina was extremely afraid of dark.

Hence, option 2)

5

What was Marina's Aunt secret, how she became so brave?

  1. ((a))

    It was some blind children who taught her to be brave

  2. ((b))

    she learned karate and martial arts.

  3. ((c))

    she did physical training to become brave.

  4. ((d))

    she read books on how to become brave.

  5. ((e))

    None of these.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It was some blind children who taught her to be brave

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. 'It was some blind children who taught her to be brave'.

  • "I'll tell you a secret, Marina. It was some blind children who taught me how to be brave", "They can't see, so if they had never discovered the secret of how not to be afraid of the dark, they would have been forever frightened", "Of course! The secret is to change your eyes. Since blind children can't see, their hands are their eyes. All you have to do to conquer your fear is what they do. Shut the eyes of your face and open the eyes of your hands'.
  • The above line from the THIRD paragraph of the passage makes option 1 to be apparently correct.

Hence, option 1.

6

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose "No error'.

One of the plant (1)/ in the garden (2)/ is missing. (3)/ No error (4)

  1. ((a))

    No error

  2. ((b))

    One of the plant

  3. ((c))

    in the garden

  4. ((d))

    is missing

  5. ((e))

    Not Attempted

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

One of the plant

The erroneous part is 'One of the plant'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'One of the plants' should be used instead of 'One of the plant'.
  • The given sentence is an example of subject-verb agreement.
  • The structure of these kinds of sentences is: One + of + the + plural noun + singular verb.
  • Example: This is one of the best institutions I have ever enrolled in.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: One of the plants in the garden is missing.

7

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

My boss insisted (1)/on farther improvement (2)/in the system. (3)/ No error (4)

  1. ((a))

    My boss insisted

  2. ((b))

    on farther improvement

  3. ((c))

    No error

  4. ((d))

    in the system.

  5. ((e))

    Not Attempted

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

on farther improvement

The erroneous part is 'on farther improvement'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'on further improvement' should be used instead of 'on farther improvement'.
  • The word 'further' means 'more; to a greater degree'. (कुछ या कोई और, और कोई; इससे अधिक)
  • Example: Are there any further questions?
  • In the given sentence, the boss insisted on more improvement in the system.
  • The word 'farther' means 'to a greater distance'. (अधिक दूरी तक)
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: My boss insisted on further improvement in the system.

8

Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

If you will (A)/ eat the chocolate (B)/ that is in the fridge, (C)/ you'll sleep (D)/ outside with the dog (E)/.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the use of the future tense ''will + eat'' in the if-clause is incorrect.
  • The given sentence is the first conditional sentence expressing a situation in which the outcome is likely to happen in the future.
  • When using the first conditional we use the simple present tense in the if-clause and simple future tense in the main clause.
  • Therefore, the simple present tense 'eat' should be used in place of the simple future tense ''will eat'' in the if-clause.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: If you eat the chocolate that is in the fridge, you'll sleep outside with the dog.

9

In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

He and his twin Ravi (A)/ are elder than (B)/ their brother (C)/ by two years. (D) No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct answer is ‘B’, i.e this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points 

  • The adjective 'old' along with its comparative and superlative degrees (old, older, oldest) are used for persons (not blood relation) and things.
  • It refers to both age and time.
  • The adjective 'old' along with its comparative and superlative degrees (old, elder, eldest) are used for persons only in the case of blood relations.
  • It refers to age only.
  • Because the given sentence is talking about two twin brothers being elder to their sibling (blood relations), by that logic it is appropriate to use the adjective 'elder'.
  • By rule for some comparative adjectives like 'prior, junior, senior, superior, inferior, preferable, elder' are followed by 'to' instead of 'than', therefore the correct answer is 'is elder to'.

 Hence, the correct option is option 2.

The correct sentence is: He and his twin brother Ravi are elder to their brother by two years.

Additional Information

  • 'older' is followed by 'than' whereas 'elder' is followed by 'to' in a sentence when there is a comparison.
10

In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

They, we and you (A)/ will leave for (B)/  the overseas trip (C)/ for a fortnight, tomorrow. (D)/ No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is ‘A’, i.e this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • 'We' is a plural first-person pronoun.
  • 'You' is a singular second-person pronoun.
  • 'They' is a plural third-person pronoun.
  • In the plural case, the order of the pronouns should be first-person, second-person and then third-person (123).
  • The correct order from the given options should be 'We, you and they'.

 

Hence, the correct option is option 1.

The correct sentence is: We, you and they will leave the overseas trip for a fortnight, tomorrow.

Additional Information

  • Good manners require that the order of singular pronouns should be second-person, third-person and first-person (231).
  • The order to be observed while referring to unpleasant acts is first-person, second-person and third-person (123).
11

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. when Sweden defender

B. in the 98th minute

C. Marcus Danielson was sent off

D. the momentum shifted in extra time

E. for a red card

  1. ((a))

    DCABE

  2. ((b))

    DACBE

  3. ((c))

    DACEB

  4. ((d))

    ABDCE

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

DACBE

The correct answer is DACBE.

Key Points

  • Using the option elimination method we can find the opening sentence i.e. part D. Also D introduces the topic here, therefore, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
  • Part A introduces the person which is mentioned in the jumbled sentence. Hence A follows D.
  • Part C forms a complementary pair with part A as it mentions the name of the Swedish defender.
  • Part B refers to the time when the player was sent off, maintaining the logical flow of the sentence. Thus B follows C.
  • Part E becomes the concluding segment as it gives the reason why the player was sent off.
<br>

Correct rearrangement of segments is: The momentum shifted in extra time when Sweden defender Marcus Danielson was sent off in the 98th minute for a red card.

 

Complementary pair: It’s a pair formed by two segments/sentences in a para jumble where both the segments convey the same idea and are interdependent on each other.

12

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. for their unhealthy choices

B. while most of us would never think

C. it comes to pointing out healthy ones

D. people can be oddly critical when

E. of saying something to someone

  1. ((a))

    BEACD

  2. ((b))

    BDCEA

  3. ((c))

    BEADC

  4. ((d))

    ABDEC

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BEADC

The correct answer is BEADC.

Key Points

  • Out of the given segments, part B appears to be the opening segment by using option elimination. Also by using general to specific rule we can deduce the opening part of the sentence to be B.
  • Part E follows B as it forms a pair with part B. Hence E follows B.
  • Part A follows B as it refers to the reason for what ‘most of us would never think of saying something to someone' that is ‘unhealthy choices’.
  • Part D follows part A to maintain the logical flow of the sentence. So D follows A.
  • Part A is the concluding sentence as it tells about the reason for which people become critical.
<br>

Correct rearrangement of segments is: While most of us would never think of saying something to someone for their unhealthy choices, people can be oddly critical when it comes to pointing out healthy ones.

 

General to specific rule: While solving para jumbles most of the time the general to specific rule follows where the former part of the sentence tells us about the general aspects of the information mentioned and the latter part describes the specifics.

13

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. and a mouthful of blood

B. drenched as if I

C. I landed with a face full of dirt

D. had just gone swimming

E. heart on fire, trembling like a new-born in the cold

  1. ((a))

    CAEBD

  2. ((b))

    CAEDB

  3. ((c))

    CABDE

  4. ((d))

    CABED

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CAEBD

The correct answer is CAEBD.

Key Points

  • Part C has the pronoun I which helps us to deduce the opening of the sentence. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
  • Part A is the follow-up segment as it further describes the face of the individual. Hence A follows C.
  • Part E follows A as it further elaborates the segments C and A. So E follows A.
  • Part B and part D conclude the sentence where B is followed by D. Here the words drenched and swimming are the keywords through which we can find out the logical flow of the sentence.
<br>

Correct rearrangement of segments is: I landed with a face full of dirt and a mouthful of blood, heart on fire, trembling like a newborn in the cold, drenched as if I had just gone swimming.

Hint

While solving jumbles search for noun/pronoun as it is quite obvious for a sentence to start with a noun or a pronoun. 

Additional Information

Drenched: wet thoroughly; soak

Trembling: shaking or quivering, typically as a result of anxiety, excitement, or frailty.

14

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. but the ramped-up vaccine

B. new administration is

C. sending hopeful signals

D. program under the

E. demand for the vaccine is at its peak

  1. ((a))

    EADCB

  2. ((b))

    BACDE

  3. ((c))

    EADBC

  4. ((d))

    EABCD

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

EADBC

The correct answer is EADBC.

Key Points

  • Out of the given segments, part E appears to be the opening segment as it establishes the subject of the matter that is the vaccine. Also using the elimination method we can find out that part E is the opening sentence. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
  • Part A follows E because part A explains how the demand for vaccines will be met. Also, the connector ‘but’ which is used to combine a positive and a negative part helps us to find the follow-up sentence of part E. Hence A follows E.
  • Part D follows part A as it forms a complementary pair with A. So D follows A.
  • Part B refers to the authority under which the vaccine program is run. Hence B follows D.
  • Part C concludes the sentence and has a positive connotation because of the ramped-up vaccine program to meet the demand for vaccines.
<br>

Correct rearrangement of segments is: Demand for the vaccine is at its peak, but the ramped-up vaccine program under the new administration is sending hopeful signals.

Hint

  • Connectors- While solving jumbles look for connectors i.e. and, but, as soon as, etc. These connectors help to find the follow-up sentence/segment.
  • Some sentences/segments will have some concluding notion so those options will always be at the end.
15

Direction: Rearrange the following parts of a sentence labeled as PQRS to make a meaningful sentence.

P. leave no regret are

Q. gained over ignorance

R. the only victories which

S. those which are

  1. ((a))

    QRSP

  2. ((b))

    SRQP

  3. ((c))

    RPSQ

  4. ((d))

    PQSR

  5. ((e))

    Not attempted

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

RPSQ

The correct answer is 'RPSQ​.'

Key Points 

  • While arranging the parts of the sentence given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.
  • In this sentence, we can see that there are different parts like Subject, indirect object, subject of subordinating clause and verb, indirect object, and direct object.
  • The first part of the answer should be "The only victories" as it is providing a subject to the sentence.
  • The next part must be "leave no regret are" because it is providing the verb "leave" to the subject "The only victories."
  • The next part must be "those which are" as it is completing the relative phrase "which leave no regret are those which are."
  • The last part must be "gained over ignorance"
  • The verb "gained" is followed by the preposition "over."
  • Considering these rules, the correct answer is Option 3.

​​Correct sentence: The only victories which leave no regret are those which are gained over ignorance.

16

In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

Meanwhile, cases of Omicron climbed to 33 after a fully vacinated person who travelled to Zimbabwe and South Africa before coming to Delhi tested positive for the new strain in the national capital on Saturday.

  1. ((a))

    climbed 

  2. ((b))

    vacinated 

  3. ((c))

    positive 

  4. ((d))

    national 

  5. ((e))

    no error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

vacinated 

The misspelled word is 'vacinated'.

Key Points

  • Vaccinated is the correct spelling.
  • It means to protect a person or an animal against a disease by giving him/her/it a mild form of the disease with a needle which is put under the skin (an injection)

टीका लगाकर किसी व्यक्ति या पशु को रोग से सुरक्षित करना; टीकाकरण करना

  • Climbed- to move up towards the top of something (पेड़, पहाड़ आदि पर) चढ़ना
  • Positive- thinking or talking mainly about the good things in a situation, in a way that makes you or somebody else feel hopeful and confident (किसी स्थिति के अच्‍छे पक्ष के विषय में ऐसे सोचना या बातें करना कि अपना और दूसरे का विश्‍वास बढ़े; रचनात्‍मक, सकारात्‍मक)
  • National-  connected with all of a country; typical of a particular country (राष्‍ट्रीय; राष्‍ट्र विशेष का प्रतिनिधिक)
  • Hence, the given answer is correct.
17

In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

I'm saddenned(A) by the prospect of never witnessing(B) the all-consuming joy and happiness(C) that my parents complain(D) of.

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A

The correct answer is 'A'.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling is 'saddened'
  • Let's explore the meaning and context of it.
  • Saddened: to make someone sad or unhappy:
  • Ex: It saddened me to learn of your father’s death.
  • Thus the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options as well.
  • Witness: a person who sees an event happening, especially a crime or an accident
  • Happiness: the feeling of being happy
  • Complain: to say that something is wrong or not satisfactory:
18

In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

Phil and Dave were raring((A) to get off to the mountains(B); they packed up their ski(C) gear and climbed into the van with elacrity(D).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

The correct answer is 'D'.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling is 'Alacrity'
  • Let's explore the meaning and context of it.
  • Alacrity: cheerful promptness or willingness; eagerness; speed or quickness
  • Ex: She accepted the assignment with alacrity.
  • Thus the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options as well.
  • Raring: wanting to start doing something very much
  • Ski:to move over snow on skis
19

In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The liability(A) to contribute(B) is incoate(C) only when the sacrifice(D) has been made.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No Error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C

The correct answer is 'C'.

Key Points 

  • The correct spelling is 'Inchoate'.
  • Let's explore the meaning and context of it.
  • Inchoate: recently begun; imperfectly formed or developed; elementary

Ex: Before the Creation, the world was an inchoate mass.

  • Thus the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information Let's explore the meaning of other options as well.

  • Liability: The state of being legally responsible for something.
  • Contribute: give (something, especially money) in order to help achieve or provide something.
  • Sacrifice: An act of slaughtering an animal or person or surrendering a possession as an offering to a deity.
20

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The growing Chinese presense(A) means that India cannot afford(B) to let issues linger(C) but reach out actively(D) to find a resolution(E).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Presense': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • The correct spelling is 'Presence' means The fact of being in a particular place.
  • 'Afford' means To have enough money or time to be able to do something.
  • 'Linger' means To stay somewhere or do something for longer than usual.
  • 'Actively' means In a deliberate and positive way.
  • 'Resolution' means A firm decision to do or not to do something.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence: The growing Chinese presence means that India cannot afford to let issues linger but reach out actively to find a resolution.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Presence' are "Existence, Appearance, Occupancy".
  • Example of 'Presence' in a sentence:
  • Your presence is requested at the meeting.
21

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Her first _____ was not to believe any of it, to reject it all.

  1. ((a))

    instinct

  2. ((b))

    abstain

  3. ((c))

    inability

  4. ((d))

    attitude

  5. ((e))

    distaste

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

instinct

The correct answer is 'instinct'.

Key Points 

  • The given sentence is talking about a woman probably in a difficult situation which is unbelievable to her and her first thought is to disbelieve.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'instinct'.
  • The word 'instinct' means an act or course of action in response to a stimulus that is automatic rather than learned. 
  • Example: The first instinct he had was to lie to get away from an embarrassing situation.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

 

  • Let us explore the other options:
  • Abstain: restrain oneself from doing or enjoying something.
  • Inability: the state of being unable to do something.
  • Attitude: a settled way of thinking or feeling about something.
  • Distaste: mild dislike or aversion.
22

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Gopinath is a Brahmin but didn’t express any_____with the portrayal of being anti-caste.

  1. ((a))

    emergence

  2. ((b))

    manifestation

  3. ((c))

    issue

  4. ((d))

    development

  5. ((e))

    materialising

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

issue

The correct answer is 'issue'.

 

Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about Captain Gopinath who in real life did not show any problem with his portrayal in the film as being anti-caste.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank from the given options is 'issue'.
  • The word 'issue' means something that is discussed or disputed.
  • Example: The issue at hand was not discussed at the meeting.

Hence the correct answer is option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the given options:
  • Emergence: the process of coming into existence or prominence.
  • Manifestation: an event, action, or object that clearly shows or embodies something abstract or theoretical.
  • Development: an event constituting a new stage in a changing situation.
  • Materialising: become actual fact; happen.
23

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The Sanskrit prayer song Sri Venkatesa Suprabhatham is the ______ of most middle-class religious Hindu households of southern India.

  1. ((a))

    curability

  2. ((b))

    hallmark

  3. ((c))

    originality

  4. ((d))

    medallion

  5. ((e))

    stamp

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

hallmark

The correct answer is 'hallmark'.

 

Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about a Sanskrit prayer song will is commonly played in most Hindu households of southern India.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank, from the given options is 'hallmark'.
  • The word 'hallmark' means a distinctive characteristic of something or someone.
  • Example: Simplicity and warmness is the hallmark of the people of this small town.

 

Hence, the correct option is option 2.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the given options:
  • Curability: capability of being cured or healed.
  • Originality: the ability to think independently and creatively.
  • Medallion: a large medal
  • Stamp: impress a pattern or mark on (a surface, object, or document) using an engraved or inked block or die.
24

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

She didn’t appear to comment on the film in a judgmental way, but more as a _____ observation.

  1. ((a))

    critical

  2. ((b))

    factual

  3. ((c))

    fussy

  4. ((d))

    merciless

  5. ((e))

    harsh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

factual

The correct answer is 'factual'.

 

Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about the comment on a film, which is not judgemental in nature but rather an observation based on facts.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank, from the given options is 'factual'.
  • The word 'factual' means concerned with what is actually the case.
  • Example: The thesis should consist of factual information.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the given options:
  • Critical: expressing adverse or disapproving comments or judgements.
  • Fussy: fastidious about one's needs or requirements; hard to please.
  • Merciless: showing no mercy
  • Harsh: unpleasantly rough or jarring to the senses.
25

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Socialism is a political ______ that continues to cause much ideological and political confusion in India.

  1. ((a))

    Legacy

  2. ((b))

    Estate

  3. ((c))

    Device

  4. ((d))

    Capital

  5. ((e))

    Fortune

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Legacy

The correct answer is 'legacy'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about how Socialism shaped the principal economic and social policies of the Indian government in the past and is a political legacy.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'legacy'.
  • The word 'legacy' means of relating to, associated with, or carried over from an earlier time, technology, business, etc.
  • Example: The son carried on his father's legacy and took the position on the company's board of directors.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the other options:
  • estate: all the money and property owned by a particular person, especially at death.
  • device: a plan, method, or trick with a particular aim.
  • capital: wealth in the form of money or other assets owned by a person or organization or available for a purpose such as starting a company or investing.
  • fortune: chance or luck as an arbitrary force affecting human affairs.

Reasoning Ability (25 questions)

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the following questions:

Varun starts walking from point A in south direction and walks 10 m to reach at point B. From point B he takes a right turn and walks 12 m to reach at point C. Then he walks 5 m from point C in north direction to reach point D. From here he turns right and walk 24 m to reach at point E. From point E he turns left and walk 10 m to reach point W. From point W he walks towards east and walks 8 m to reach at point G.

26

What is the shortest distance and direction of point B with respect of point E?

  1. ((a))

    15 m, North

  2. ((b))

    13 m, South-west

  3. ((c))

    13 m, North-west

  4. ((d))

    20 m, East

  5. ((e))

    Non of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

13 m, South-west

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

Now, distance between B and E is:

BE2 = ZE2 + BZ

So, 144 + 25 = sq.169 = 13 m.

And direction of B is south - west direction. 

Hence, 13 m, South - west direction.

27

If Z is the mid point of D and E then what is the distance of Z and A?

  1. ((a))

    3 m

  2. ((b))

    4 m

  3. ((c))

    5 m

  4. ((d))

    2 m

  5. ((e))

    Can not determined.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 m

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

 

Now, distance between Z and A is: 5 m can be easily seen through the figure.

Hence, the distance between Z and A is 5 m.

28

What is the shortest distance between A and D?

  1. ((a))

    3 m

  2. ((b))

    13 m 

  3. ((c))

    20 m

  4. ((d))

    25 m

  5. ((e))

    12 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

13 m 

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

Now, distance between A and D is:

AD2 = ZA2 + DZ2 

So, 144 + 25 = sq.169 = 13 m.

Hence, the distance between A and D is 13 m.

29

What is the direction of point G with respect to C?

  1. ((a))

    North - east

  2. ((b))

    South - east

  3. ((c))

    South - west

  4. ((d))

    East

  5. ((e))

    West

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North - east

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

Hence the direction of point G with respect of C is North - east.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.

Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows. Each row contains five persons in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, and Abdul are seated and all of them are facing North. In row 2, Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai are seated and are facing the South direction but not necessarily in the same order.

Kishore faces the person who sits to the immediate left of Tiru. Abdul sits third to the left of Karishma. Mala and Mohammad are facing each other. Sai and Prashant are not sitting at the extreme ends. Ali sits second to the left of Kishore. Ali is not a neighbor of Sai and Kishore. Karishma is sitting at the extreme end. Ali sits third to the left of Sai. Devas sit immediately to the left of Tiru.

30

How many persons are sitting to the right of Ali?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

Given Names: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, Abdul, Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

Row 1 - Facing North: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, and Abdul.

Row 2 - Facing South: Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

1. Karishma is sitting at the extreme end. 2. Abdul sits third to the left of Karishma.

  1. Devas sit immediately to the left of Tiru.

(So, Mala will sit at the extreme left end of row 1)

  1. Kishore faces the person who sits to the immediate left of Tiru.

  1. Mala and Mohammad are facing each other.
  2. Ali sits second to the left of Kishore.

  1. Ali is not a neighbor of Sai and Kishore.
  2. Ali sits third to the left of Sai.
  3. Sai and Prashant are not sitting at the extreme ends.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

4 persons are sitting to the right of Ali.

31

Which among the following statements is/are true?

  1. ((a))

    Devas sit second to the left of Tiru

  2. ((b))

    Karishma sits immediate right of Tiru

  3. ((c))

    Ali sits immediate right of Prashant

  4. ((d))

    Mohammad sits third to the right of Kishore

  5. ((e))

    Sai is not an immediate neighbor of Mohammad

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Karishma sits immediate right of Tiru

Given Names: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, Abdul, Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

Row 1 - Facing North: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, and Abdul.

Row 2 - Facing South: Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

1. Karishma is sitting at the extreme end. 2. Abdul sits third to the left of Karishma.

  1. Devas sit immediately to the left of Tiru.

(So, Mala will sit at the extreme left end of row 1)

  1. Kishore faces the person who sits to the immediate left of Tiru.

  1. Mala and Mohammad are facing each other.
  2. Ali sits second to the left of Kishore.

  1. Ali is not a neighbor of Sai and Kishore.
  2. Ali sits third to the left of Sai.
  3. Sai and Prashant are not sitting at the extreme ends.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

Karishma sits immediate right of Tiru is true.

32

How many persons are sitting between Mala and Karishma?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

Given Names: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, Abdul, Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

Row 1 - Facing North: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, and Abdul.

Row 2 - Facing South: Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

1. Karishma is sitting at the extreme end. 2. Abdul sits third to the left of Karishma.

  1. Devas sit immediately to the left of Tiru.

(So, Mala will sit at the extreme left end of row 1)

  1. Kishore faces the person who sits to the immediate left of Tiru.

  1. Mala and Mohammad are facing each other.
  2. Ali sits second to the left of Kishore.

  1. Ali is not a neighbor of Sai and Kishore.
  2. Ali sits third to the left of Sai.
  3. Sai and Prashant are not sitting at the extreme ends.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

3 persons are sitting between Mala and Karishma.

33

Who is sitting opposite to Devas?

  1. ((a))

    Ali

  2. ((b))

    Kishore

  3. ((c))

    Sai

  4. ((d))

    Mala

  5. ((e))

    Prashant

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kishore

Given Names: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, Abdul, Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

Row 1 - Facing North: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, and Abdul.

Row 2 - Facing South: Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

  1. Karishma is sitting at the extreme end.
  2. Abdul sits third to the left of Karishma.

  1. Devas sit immediately to the left of Tiru.

(So, Mala will sit at the extreme left end of row 1)

  1. Kishore faces the person who sits to the immediate left of Tiru.

  1. Mala and Mohammad are facing each other.
  2. Ali sits second to the left of Kishore.

  1. Ali is not a neighbor of Sai and Kishore.
  2. Ali sits third to the left of Sai.
  3. Sai and Prashant are not sitting at the extreme ends.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

Kishore is sitting opposite Devas.

34

Who is sitting immediately to the right of Mala?

  1. ((a))

    Abdul

  2. ((b))

    Prashant

  3. ((c))

    Ali

  4. ((d))

    Devas

  5. ((e))

    Tiru

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abdul

Given Names: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, Abdul, Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

Row 1 - Facing North: Tiru, Mala, Devas, Karishma, and Abdul.

Row 2 - Facing South: Ali, Mohammad, Prashant, Kishore, and Sai.

1. Karishma is sitting at the extreme end. 2. Abdul sits third to the left of Karishma.

  1. Devas sit immediately to the left of Tiru.

(So, Mala will sit at the extreme left end of row 1)

  1. Kishore faces the person who sits to the immediate left of Tiru.

  1. Mala and Mohammad are facing each other.
  2. Ali sits second to the left of Kishore.

  1. Ali is not a neighbor of Sai and Kishore.
  2. Ali sits third to the left of Sai.
  3. Sai and Prashant are not sitting at the extreme ends.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

 Abdul is sitting immediately to the right of Mala.

35

In the given word ‘SUBTITLE’ if the vowels are changed to the next letter and the consonants are changed to the previous letters as per the alphabetical series, and alphabets are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right then which letter would be 4th to the right of 3rd letter from the left end?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    K

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

S

If the vowels are changed to the next letter and the consonants are changed to the previous letters:

Given WordSUBTITLE
After changeRVASJSKF
Alphabetical orderAFJKRSSV
<br>

Hence, ‘S’ is 4th to the right of 3rd letter from the left end.

36

How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘250853908’, each of which has as many digits as between them in the number as are there in the general numerical order?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

Pairs:- (02), and (03)

Two pairs are there in the number ‘2408390’, each of which has as many digits as between them in the number as are there in the general numerical order.

Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

M O P 6 9 2 R Q A 4 E N U 1 G F 2 3 L T 1 S 5 H Y 4 D Z 6 I J 1

37

If all the vowels are dropped then which element will be eleventh from the right end?

  1. ((a))

    S

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    N

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1

Given Series:

Left side M O P 6 9 2 R Q A 4 E N U 1 G F 2 3 L T 1 S 5 H Y 4 D Z 6 I J 1 Right side

If all the vowels are dropped from the above arrangement, then the series will be

Left side M P 6 9 2 R Q 4 N 1 G F 2 3 L T 1 S 5 H Y 4 D Z 6 J 1 Right side

Hence, The eleventh element is 1 from the right end.

38

How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement which is immediately preceded by vowel and followed by a number?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

Given Series:

Left side M O P 6 9 2 R Q A 4 E N U 1 G F 2 3 L T 1 S 5 H Y 4 D Z 6 I J 1 Right side

The pattern follows here: Vowel → Consonants → Number

So, The required combination would be → O P 6, I J 1

Hence, There are two consonants preceded by a vowel and followed by a number.

39

Which element is tenth to the left of eighteenth element from the right end?

  1. ((a))

    Y

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    Z

  4. ((d))

    R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9

Given series:

Left side M O P 6 9 2 R Q A 4 E N U 1 G F 2 3 L T 1 S 5 H Y 4 D Z 6 I J 1 Right side

Eighteenth element from right: G

As there is to the left of the eighteenth element so we will be adding.

So, The eighteenth elements added the tenth element towards the left of G 

18 + 10 = 28

So, The 28th element from the right end is 9.

Hence, 9 is 10th to the left of the 18th element.

Important Points

If we have to go from right towards right then we will subtract and vice versa.

If we have to move from right towards left then we will add and vice versa.

 

18th from right: G

18 + 10 = 28

The 28th element from the right end will be 9.

40

What will be the product of the tenth element from the left and the seventh element from right?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    20

  5. ((e))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

16

Given series:

Left end M O P 6 9 2 R Q A 4 E N U 1 G F 2 3 L T 1 S 5 H Y 4 D Z 6 I J 1 Right end

10th element from left → 4

7th element from the right → 4

Product of the numbers 4 * 4 = 16

Hence, 16 is the product of the 10th element from the left and the 7th element from the right.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. A is sitting second from one of the ends. Four persons are sitting between B and D. There are two persons sitting between A and B. D is sitting just left of C. F sits three places away to the right of B. E sits at the extreme right end of the row. G sits to the immediate right of B. Two persons are sitting between C and E.

41

How many persons are sitting in the row?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    16

  5. ((e))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

14

  1. A is sitting second from one of the ends.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: when A is second from the left end and Case 2: when A is second from the right end).

  1. There are two persons sitting between A and B.

  1. Four persons are sitting between B and D.

  2. D is sitting just left of C.

  1. F sits three places away to the right of B.

(Here, we can eliminate case 2 as A is already three places away to the right of B).

  1. E sits at the extreme right end of the row.

  1. G sits to the immediate right of B.

  2. Two persons are sitting between C and E.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, 14 persons are sitting in the row.

42

Who is sitting exactly between A and D?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

G

  1. A is sitting second from one of the ends.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: when A is second from the left end and Case 2: when A is second from the right end).

  1. There are two persons sitting between A and B.

 

  1. Four persons are sitting between B and D.

  2. D is sitting just left of C.

 

  1. F sits three places away to the right of B.

(Here, we can eliminate case 2 as A is already three places away to the right of B).

  1. E sits at the extreme right end of the row.

  1. G sits to the immediate right of B.

  2. Two persons are sitting between C and E.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, G is sitting exactly between A and D.

43

Who is sitting third to the left of E?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C

  1. A is sitting second from one of the ends.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: when A is second from the left end and Case 2: when A is second from the right end).

  1. There are two persons sitting between A and B.

  1. Four persons are sitting between B and D.

  2. D is sitting just left of C.

  1. F sits three places away to the right of B.

(Here, we can eliminate case 2 as A is already three places away to the right of B).

  1. E sits at the extreme right end of the row.

  1. G sits to the immediate right of B.

  2. Two persons are sitting between C and E.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, C is sitting third to the left of E.

44

What is the position of B from the left end?

  1. ((a))

    Third

  2. ((b))

    Fourth

  3. ((c))

    Sixth

  4. ((d))

    Fifth

  5. ((e))

    Seventh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Fifth

  1. A is sitting second from one of the ends.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: when A is second from the left end and Case 2: when A is second from the right end).

  1. There are two persons sitting between A and B.

  1. Four persons are sitting between B and D.

  2. D is sitting just left of C.

  1. F sits three places away to the right of B.

(Here, we can eliminate case 2 as A is already three places away to the right of B).

  1. E sits at the extreme right end of the row.

  1. G sits to the immediate right of B.

  2. Two persons are sitting between C and E.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, the position of B from the left end is fifth.

45

How many persons are sitting between G and C?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Five

  4. ((d))

    Six

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Four

  1. A is sitting second from one of the ends.

(Here, we will have two cases, Case 1: when A is second from the left end and Case 2: when A is second from the right end).

  1. There are two persons sitting between A and B.

 

  1. Four persons are sitting between B and D.

  2. D is sitting just left of C.

 

  1. F sits three places away to the right of B.

(Here, we can eliminate case 2 as A is already three places away to the right of B).

  1. E sits at the extreme right end of the row.

  1. G sits to the immediate right of B.

  2. Two persons are sitting between C and E.

Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:

Hence, four persons are sitting between G and C.

Direction : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

There are eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H born in 8 different months of year 2000 January, February, July, August, September, October, November and December (not necessarily in the same order).

B and F are born in that month which has 31 days. E is the eldest. H is not the youngest. C is born in that month which has least number of days. G is elder to D but younger to F. D is elder to only H and A. B is born before F.

46

In which month is G born?

  1. ((a))

     January

  2. ((b))

    February

  3. ((c))

    September

  4. ((d))

    October

  5. ((e))

    December

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

September

B and F are born in that month which has 31 days.

PersonB/FB/FB/FB/FB/F
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

E is the eldest.

DEB/FB/FB/FB/F
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

H is not the youngest.

PersonEB/FB/FB/FB/F (Hû)
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

C is born in that month which has least number of days.

PersonECB/FB/FB/FB/F (Hû)
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

G is elder to D but younger to F. D is elder to only H and A.  

Since H is not the youngest & D is elder to only H and A, we conclude that D is born in October, H in November & A in December.

PersonFGDHA

 

B is born before F.

PersonECBFGDHA
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

G is born in the month of September.

Hence, G is correct.

47

How many people are elder to B?

  1. ((a))

    one

  2. ((b))

    three

  3. ((c))

     two

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    five

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 two

PersonECBFGDHA
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

Only two people are elder to B, i.e E and C.

Hence, two is correct.

48

Who is the youngest?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

PersonECBFGDHA
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

A is born last, in December, hence A is the youngest.

Hence, A is correct.

49

How many people are born after F?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

PersonECBFGDHA
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

Four people, G, D, H and A are born after F.

Hence, 4 is correct.

50

Which of the following is the pair of people born in 30 day month?

  1. ((a))

    AB

  2. ((b))

    CD

  3. ((c))

    EF

  4. ((d))

    GA

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

PersonECBFGDHA
MonthJanuaryFebruaryJulyAugustSeptemberOctoberNovemberDecember

 

We see, September and November are 30 day months and G and H are born in that month. None of the options given match pair G and H.

Hence, None of these is correct.

Numerical Aptitude (25 questions)

51

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

13 × 25% of 200 - 12 × 66.66% of 50 = ?

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    250

  3. ((c))

    230

  4. ((d))

    290

  5. ((e))

    260

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

250

Concept used:

66.66% → 2/3

25% → 1/4

Calculation:

13 × 25% of 200 - 12 × 66.66% of 50 = ?

⇒ 13 × 1/4 × 200 - 12 × (2/3 × 50) = ?

⇒ 650 - 12 × 100/3 = ? 

⇒ 650 - 400 = ?

∴ ? = 250

52

What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

[(130)2 ÷ 25 × 75] ÷ 30 = ? + 1500

  1. ((a))

    180

  2. ((b))

    190

  3. ((c))

    220

  4. ((d))

    150

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

190

Follow these BODMAS rules to solve the question

Step -1: The part of the equation containing 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step -2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step -3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are solved

Step -4: At last, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be solved.

⇒ [(130)2 ÷ 25 × 75] ÷ 30 = ? + 1500

⇒ [(130 × 130 × 75) /25] ÷ 30= ? + 1500

⇒ (130 × 130 × 3) ÷ 30 = ? + 1500

⇒ 1690 – 1500 = ?

∴ ? = 190

53

What should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

427 - 112 + (32)2/5 + (9)3/2 – 35 × 4 = ?

  1. ((a))

    164

  2. ((b))

    150

  3. ((c))

    197

  4. ((d))

    100

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

197

Given:

427 - 112 + (32)2/5 + (9)3/2 – 35 × 4 = ?

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

427 - 112 + (32)2/5 + (9)3/2 – 35 × 4 = ?

⇒ 427 – 121 + 4 + 27 – 140 = ?

⇒ 427 + 31 – 261 = ?

⇒ 458 – 261 = ?

⇒ ? = 197

The value of ‘?’ is 197.

Additional Information

(32)2/5 = (2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2)2/5

⇒ (25)2/5

⇒ (2)5 × (2/5)

⇒ (2)2

⇒ 4

(9)3/2 = (3 × 3) 3/2

⇒ (32)3/2

⇒ (3)2 × (3/2)

⇒ (3)3

⇒ 27

54

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(3/5) × (18/15) ÷ (9/5) + 60% of 20 = ?

  1. ((a))

    58/5

  2. ((b))

    41/3

  3. ((c))

    62/5

  4. ((d))

    55/7

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

62/5

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

⇒ (3/5) × (18/15) ÷ (9/5) + 60% of 20 = ?

⇒ (3/5) × (18/15) × (5/9) + 12 = ?

⇒ 2/5 + 12 = ?

⇒ (60 + 2)/5 = ?

⇒ 62/5 = ?

∴ The required answer is 62/5

55

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

24 × 26 + 154 × 146 – 384 ÷ 12 = ?

  1. ((a))

    22844

  2. ((b))

    23484

  3. ((c))

    23076

  4. ((d))

    20376

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

23076

24 × 26 + 154 × 146 – 384 ÷ 12 =?

Or, ? = 624 + 22484 – 32

= 23076

Or, we can calculate it like following –

? = (251)×(25+1)+(150+4)×(1504)38412\left( {25 - 1} \right) \times \left( {25 + 1} \right) + \left( {150 + 4} \right) \times \left( {150 - 4} \right) - {{384} \over {12}}

= (25)2 – (1)2 + (150)2 – (4)2 – 32

= 625 – 1 + 22500 – 16 – 32

= 23076

56

Containers I and II have milk and water in the ratio of 4 : 5 and 8 : 3 respectively. In what ratio Container I and Container II should be mixed to get a new mixture in which milk and water are in the ratio of 16 : 13?

  1. ((a))

    12 : 25

  2. ((b))

    23 : 11

  3. ((c))

    28 : 13

  4. ((d))

    18 : 11

  5. ((e))

    Answer not known 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

18 : 11

Given:

The milk and water in the two containers are mixed in the ratio of 4 : 5 and 8 : 3 respectively.

The ratio of milk and water in the new mixture is 16 : 13.

Calculation:

The milk in the first mixture = 4/9

The milk in the second mixture = 8/11

The milk in the new mixture = 16/29

The ratio of the mixture = (8/11 - 16/29) : (16/29 - 4/9) = 56/319 : 28/261 

= 2/11 : 1/9 

= 18 : 11

∴ The ratio of the two mixture is 18 : 11.

57

A and B together can complete 3/4th of total work in 9 days. In the same time, A can complete the 3/5th of total work. Find out the time taken by B to complete the full work if he works alone.

  1. ((a))

    60 days

  2. ((b))

    20 days

  3. ((c))

    45 days

  4. ((d))

    50 days

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60 days

GIVEN:

(i) Time to complete 3/4th of total work by A and B together in 9 days

(ii) Time to complete the 3/5th of total work by A in 9 days

CALCULATIONS:

Together, A and B can complete 3/4th of total work in 9 days,

⇒ A and B together can complete the work in 9/(3/4) = 12 days.

Working alone A can complete 3/5th work in 9 days

⇒ A alone can complete the work in 9/(3/5)] = 15 days.

Let, the total work be LCM of (12, 15) = 60 units

⇒ A and B together can complete it in 12 days

⇒they can complete 5 units of work daily.

⇒ Working alone, A can complete the work in 15 days,

⇒ A works 4 units daily.

⇒ Daily work of B = Work of (A + B) – Work of A = 5 – 4 = 1 unit.

Time for B to complete 60 units of work = 60/1 = 60 days

Alternatively, this can be solved by following Diagram.

1 – day work

\(\left. {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} {A \to 15 \times 4}\ {\frac{{A + B}}{B} \to 12 \times \frac{5}{1}} \end{array}} \right]\)  60 = Total work

58

Due to decrease of 25% in the price of orange, Ram able to buy 10 more orange for Rs.200. Find initial number of oranges he bought and pay what amount for per piece of orange after decrease price.

  1. ((a))

    35 pieces, 5 Rs./piece

  2. ((b))

    40 pieces, 5 Rs./piece

  3. ((c))

    30 pieces, 6.66 Rs./piece

  4. ((d))

    40 pieces, 6.66 Rs./piece

  5. ((e))

    30 pieces, 5 Rs./piece

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

30 pieces, 5 Rs./piece

Given:

Decrease of 25% in the price of orange, Ram able to buy 10 more orange for Rs.200.

Concept: 

Per piece price = total amount paid/ total quantity

Calculation:

Let before decrease of price he buy x oranges for Rs.200

Than after decrease in price buy (x + 10) pieces of oranges for Rs.200

⇒ (200/x) × (75/100) = 200/(x + 10)

⇒ x = 30 orange

New price for per piece orange = 200/(x + 10)

⇒ 200/(30 + 10)

⇒ 5 Rs./piece

Initial 30 oranges he bought, and pay 5 Rs./piece amount buy orange after decrease price.

59

6 years ago Mohan was thrice the age of his brother Rohan. In 10 years Mohan will be twice the age of His brother. Find the ratio of the ages of Rohan and Mohan 25 years from now.

  1. ((a))

    45 : 67

  2. ((b))

    47 : 79

  3. ((c))

    38 : 77

  4. ((d))

    41 : 79

  5. ((e))

    34 : 67

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

47 : 79

Given:

6 years ago Mohan was thrice the age of his brother Rohan

In 10 years Mohan will be twice the age of His brother

Calculation:

Let the age of Rohan 6 years ago be x

Age of Mohan 6 years ago = 3x

Present age of Rohan = x + 6

Present age of Mohan = 3x + 6

10 years from now Rohan’s age will be (x + 6 + 10)

10 years from now Rohan’s age = x + 16

10 years from now Mohan’s age will be (3x + 6 + 10)

10 years from now Mohan’s age = 3x + 16

⇒ 2 × (x + 16) = 3x + 16

⇒ 2x + 32 = 3x + 16

⇒ x = 16

Present age of Rohan = 22

Present age of Mohan = (3 × 16) + 6

⇒ present age of Mohan = 54

Age of Rohan 25 years from now = 22 + 25

Age of Rohan 25 years from now = 47

Age of Mohan 25 years from now = 54 + 25

Age of Mohan 25 years from now = 79

 The required ratio is 47 : 79

60

The average of 4 numbers is 17. The first number is thrice the second number, second number is 1/4 times of the third number and fourth number is 4. Find the second and third number.

  1. ((a))

    8 and 32

  2. ((b))

    4 and 16

  3. ((c))

    12 and 48

  4. ((d))

    7 and 28

  5. ((e))

    5 and 20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 and 32

Given:

Average of 4 numbers = 17

First number = 3 × (second number); second number = (1/4) × third number

Fourth number = 4

Formula used:

Average = sum of all observations/ number of observations

Calculation:

Let the third number is x

∴ Second number is (x/4)

And first number = 3 × (second number)

= 3(x/4)

According to question :

⇒ [3x/4 + (x/4) + x + 4]/4 = 17

⇒ (2x + 4) = 68

⇒ 8x + 16 = 272

⇒ 32 = x

∴ Second number is 8 (i.e. 32/4) and third number is 32.

61

What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?

28, 284, 412, (?), 508, 524

  1. ((a))

    446

  2. ((b))

    376

  3. ((c))

    476

  4. ((d))

    436

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

476

28 + 256 = 284

284 + 128 = 412

412 + 64 = (476)

476 + 32 = 508

508 + 16 = 524

62

What will come in the place of the question mark? In the following number series?

15,    15,    22,    48,     111,     ?

  1. ((a))

    235

  2. ((b))

    232

  3. ((c))

    228

  4. ((d))

    238

  5. ((e))

    240

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

235

15,    15,    22,    48,     111,     235

      0,     7,     26 ,      63,    124

           7      19       37      61

               12       18        24

                     6           6

The difference of the last series increases by 6

? = 111 + (63 + (37 + 18 + 6 )) = 235

63

What should come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?

3, 6, ?, 18, 27, 38

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    26

  5. ((e))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

11

The pattern followed in this question is:

02 + 3 = 3

12 + 5 = 6

22 + 7 = 11

32 + 9 = 18

42 + 11 = 27

52 + 13 = 38

∴ The required term in the series will be 11.

64

What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?

4, 9, 16, 35, 66, 137, (?)

  1. ((a))

    208

  2. ((b))

    388

  3. ((c))

    268

  4. ((d))

    288

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

268

4 × 2 + 1 = 9

9 × 2 – 2 = 16

16 × 2 + 3 = 35

35 × 2 – 4 = 66

66 × 2 + 5 = 137

137 × 2 – 6 = (268)

65

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

45, 49, 40, 56, 31, ?

  1. ((a))

    67

  2. ((b))

    57

  3. ((c))

    37

  4. ((d))

    31

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

67

The series follows the following pattern:

45 + 22 = 49

49 - 32 = 40 

40 + 42 = 56

56 - 52 = 31

31 + 62 = (67)

Directions: Study the following bar graph carefully to answer the following questions.

The bar graph shows the number of paper printed by different machines on Monday and Tuesday

66

Find the total numbers of papers printed on Monday.

  1. ((a))

    18,000

  2. ((b))

    20,000

  3. ((c))

    21,000

  4. ((d))

    19,000

  5. ((e))

    22,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20,000

Calculation:

Total numbers of papers printed on Monday = (4800 + 4400 + 5800 + 5000) 

⇒ 20000

∴ Total numbers of papers printed on Monday is 20,000

67

Find the ratio between the total number of papers printed by machine A and machine D on given days.

  1. ((a))

    23 : 25

  2. ((b))

    25 : 23

  3. ((c))

    55 : 48

  4. ((d))

    48 : 55

  5. ((e))

    24 : 23

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25 : 23

Calculation:

Total number of papers printed by machine A = (4800 + 5200)

⇒ 10000

Total number of papers printed by machine D = (5000 + 4200)

⇒ 9200

Required ratio : 10000 : 9200 = 25 : 23 

∴ The ratio between total number of papers printed by machine A and machine D on given days is 25 : 23

68

Find the difference between the total number of papers printed by machine B and machine C on given days.

  1. ((a))

    500

  2. ((b))

    700

  3. ((c))

    800

  4. ((d))

    600

  5. ((e))

    300

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

600

Calculation:

Total number of papers printed by machine B = (4400 + 4600)

⇒ 9000

Total number of papers printed by machine C = (5800 + 3800)

⇒ 9600

Required difference = (9600 – 9000) 

⇒ 600

∴ The required difference is 600

69

Number of papers printed by D on Tuesday is what percent less than number of papers printed by A on Monday?

  1. ((a))

    12.5%

  2. ((b))

    16.66%

  3. ((c))

    8.33%

  4. ((d))

    8.25%

  5. ((e))

    6.25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12.5%

Calculation:

Number of papers printed by D on Tuesday = 4200

Number of papers printed by A on Monday = 4800

Required percentage = [(4800 – 4200)/4800] × 100

⇒ [600/4800] × 100

⇒ 12.5%

∴ Required percentage is 12.5%

70

Find the average of the total number of papers printed on Tuesday.

  1. ((a))

    4425

  2. ((b))

    4375

  3. ((c))

    4450

  4. ((d))

    4280

  5. ((e))

    4190

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4450

Calculation:

Total number of papers printed on Tuesday = (5200 + 4600 + 3800 + 4200)

⇒ 17800

Required average = 17800/4

⇒ 4450

∴ The average of total number of papers printed on Tuesday is 4450

71

The number of papers printed by machine B on Monday is what percent less than that of machine D on Monday?

  1. ((a))

    14%

  2. ((b))

    15%

  3. ((c))

    12%

  4. ((d))

    18%

  5. ((e))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12%

Calculation:

Number of paper printed by machine B on Monday = 4400

Number of paper printed by machine D on Monday = 5000

Required percentage = [(5000 – 4400)/5000] × 100

⇒ [600/5000] × 100

⇒ 12%

∴ The required percentage is 12%

Direction: A college in Aligarh consists of 800 students and 120 staff members. 65% of the staff members are professors and the remaining are administrative officials. Out of the total students 45% are girls. 20% of the girls can speak only Hindi. The remaining girls can speak both Hindi and English. 3/4th of the boys can speak only Hindi. The remaining boys can speak both Hindi and English. 2/3rd of professors are males. 5/14th of the administrative officials are females.

72

What is the difference between the number of boys (student) who can speak both Hindi and English and the number of girls (student) who can speak both Hindi and English?

  1. ((a))

    164

  2. ((b))

    178

  3. ((c))

    188

  4. ((d))

    174

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

178

Number of professors = 120 × 65/100 = 78

Administrative officials = 120 – 78 = 42

Number of girl students = 800 × 45/100 = 360

Number of boy students = 800 – 360 = 440

Number of girls who speak only Hindi = 360 × 20/100 = 72

Number of girls who speaks both Hindi and English = 360 - 72 = 288

Number of boys who speak only Hindi = 440 × 3/4 = 330

Number of boys who speak Hindi and English = 440 – 330 = 110

Number of male professors = 78 × 2/3 = 52

Required difference = 288 - 110 = 178

73

The total number of girl students is what percentage of the total number of staff members in the college?

  1. ((a))

    350%

  2. ((b))

    300%

  3. ((c))

    400%

  4. ((d))

    450%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

300%

Number of professors = 120 × 65/100 = 78

Administrative officials = 120 - 78 = 42

Number of girl students = 800 × 45/100 = 360

Number of boy students = 800 - 360 = 440

Number of girls who speak only Hindi = 360 × 20/100 = 72

Number of girls who speaks both Hindi and English = 360 – 72 = 288

Number of boys who speak only Hindi = 440 × 3/4 = 330

Number of boys who speak Hindi and English = 440 – 330 = 110

Number of male professors = 78 × 2/3 = 52

Required percentage = 360/120 × 100 = 300

74

Salary of a salesman is Rs. 7000 per month. Additionally, he is given a 5% commission on his sale and a 2% bonus on sale after Rs. 50000. If he earns Rs. 13700 in a month, find out the total sale.

  1. ((a))

    150000

  2. ((b))

    140000

  3. ((c))

    130000

  4. ((d))

    120000

  5. ((e))

    110000

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

110000

GIVEN:

Salary = 7000

Commission = 5% of total sale

Bonus = 2% over the sale of Rs. 50000

Total earning of a month = Rs. 13700

FORMULA USED:

Total Commission = Total earning of a month – Salary of a month

CALCULATIONS:

Total Commission = Total earning of a month – Salary of a month

⇒ Total Commission = 13700 – 7000 = 6700

Let, the total sale be of x rupees.

⇒ Total commission = Commission + bonus

⇒ 6700 = [x ×(5/100)] + [(x – 50000)×(2/100)] = 6700

⇒ 6700 = (x/20) + (x – 50000) /50 = 6700

⇒ 6700 × 100 = 5(x) + 2(x – 50000)

⇒ 670000 = 5x + 2x – 100000 =

⇒ 770000 = 7x

⇒ x = 770000/7 = 110000.

∴ The total sale by a salesman is Rs. 110000.

75

A shopkeeper marked his items 20% above cost price. He sells 1/4th of items at a discount of 10% on marked price and 3/4th at a discount of 5% on the marked price. His gain/loss if he bought 100 items for Rs.10 each –

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 125

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 150

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 200

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 216

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 190

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 125

Given,

Cost price of all the items he has = 100 × 10 = 1000

Marked price of all items = 1000 + 1000 × 20/100 = 1200

Given,

Selling price of 1/4th of items = 1200 × (1/4) × (90/100) = 270

Selling price of 3/4th of items = 120 × (3/4) × (95/100) = 855

∴ Total selling price = 270 + 855 = 1125

Profit = 1125 – 1000 = Rs. 125

General Studies (25 questions)

76

Which of the following is a part of a leaf?

  1. ((a))

    Stamen

  2. ((b))

    Vein

  3. ((c))

    Pistil

  4. ((d))

    Sepal

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vein

The correct answer is Vein.

Key Points

  • Veins provide support for the leaf and transport both water and minerals (via xylem) and food energy (via phloem) through the leaf and on to the rest of the plant.
  • Leaves are the parts of a plant that absorb sunlight which is vital for the process of photosynthesis.
  • Leaves have two main parts: The leaf blade and the Stalk or the petiole
  • The leaf blade: It is also called the lamina and is usually broad and flat. It is in this layer that photosynthesis occurs.
  • It contains a prominent midrib at the center of the leaf blade which is the main vein. From this midrib arise branches called veins.
  • They are of different types depending upon the type of edges, the pattern of the veins, and the number of blades per leaf.
  • The Petiole: It is the stalk-like structure in the leaf that forms the link between the leaf blade to the stem. It has tiny tubes, that connect the veins on the leaf blade to the stem. Some of these veins facilitate the transport of water to the leaf while other one carries the food away from the leaf to other parts of the plant.
  • Some plants also contain another part called Stipules which are small flap-like structures that grow at the base of the petioles in order to protect the petioles when they are growing.

The figure shows the parts of the leaf.

Additional InformationThe flower is the reproductive part of the Plant. It comprises of following major parts-

77

Which of the following is/are part of Human eye?

  1. ((a))

    Cornea

  2. ((b))

    Iris

  3. ((c))

    Pupil

  4. ((d))

    Retina

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

All of the above

The correct answer is Option 5.

Key Points

  • The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive sense organs.
  • It enables us to see the wonderful world and the colors around us. On closing the eyes, we can identify objects to some extent by their smell, taste, sound they make, or by touch.
  • It is, however, impossible to identify colors while closing the eyes. Thus, of all the sense organs, the human eye is the most significant one as it enables us to see the beautiful, colourful world around us.

Explanation:

Parts of an eye:

The adult human eyeball is nearly spherical in structure. It consists of tissues present in three concentric layers

i) Outermost fibrous layer composed of sclera and cornea.

ii) Middle layer consists of choroid, ciliary muscles and iris.

iii) Innermost layer consists of retina

The Human Eye: Anatomy, Structure, Working, Function and Defects

Outermost layer-

  • Sclera:
  • It is an opaque outermost layer, composed of dense connective tissue that maintains the shape of the eyeball and protects all the inner layers of the eyeball.
  • Cornea:
  • The cornea is a thin transparent, front part of sclera, which lacks blood vessels, but is rich in nerve endings. These nerve endings are in charge of the involuntary reflex of closing the eyelid in response to touch, preventing foreign particles from entering and causing damage to the eye.
  • The cornea and lens work together to help in focusing light rays on the back of the eye.

Middle layer-

Choroid:

  • It is a pigmented layer (bluish) present beneath the sclera. It contains numerous blood vessels and nourishes the sclera.
  • The choroid layer is thin over the posterior two-thirds of the eyeball, but it becomes, thick in the anterior part to form the ciliary muscles.

Ciliary muscles:

  • Ciliary muscles holds the lens in position, stretching and relaxation of ciliary muscles changes the focal length of the lens for accommodation.

Iris:

  • Iris forms a pigmented circle of muscular diaphragm attached to the ciliary body in front of the lens.
  • The pigment present in it gives characterstic colour to the eyes.
  • Iris controls the amount of light that enters the eye by adjusting its size. The iris is a thin membrane that controls the pupil, which in turn controls the amount of light that enters the eye.

Pupil:

  • It is the aperture surrounded by the iris.
  • The cornea bends light rays so that they pass freely through the pupil, which allows light into the eye.

Innermost layer

  • Retina:
  • The retina is a delicate membrane having enormous
  • number of light-sensitive cells.
  • The light-sensitive cells get activated upon illumination and generate electrical signals.
  • Retina acts as screen for the image.
78

Who scripted history as she won the Mrs World 2022 title after 21 years while representing India in the beauty pageant that took place in Las Vegas, in December 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Sargam Koushal

  2. ((b))

    Harnaaz Sandhu

  3. ((c))

    Vartika Singh

  4. ((d))

    Srishti Rana

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sargam Koushal

The correct answer is Sargam Koushal.

Key Points

  • Sargam Koushal scripted history as she won the Mrs World 2022 title after 21 years while representing India in the beauty pageant.
  • Beating contestants from 63 countries, the 32-year-old secured the crown at the event that took place in Las Vegas, in December 2022.
  • Mrs Polynesia was named the first runner-up, followed by Mrs Canada as the second runner-up.

Additional Information

  • Recent Awards and Honours:
  • Former vice president Venkaiah Naidu has been conferred with the 25th Sri Chandrasekarendra Saraswathi National Eminence Award.
  • Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology (KIIT) on 30 November 2022 was conferred the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar 2022.
  • E-Panchayat Mission Mode Project (eGramSwaraj and AuditOnline) of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj has won the Gold Award of the National Awards for e-Governance.
  • Google has announced the winner of the 2022 Doodle for Google competition. Shlok Mukherjee from Kolkata was declared the winner for India for his inspiring Doodle titled 'India on the center stage'.
  • Nobel laureate Professor Venki Ramakrishnan has been awarded the prestigious Order of Merit by Britain’s King Charles III in recognition of his distinguished service to science.
79

Which of the following won Golden Ball at the FIFA World Cup 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Lionel Messi 

  2. ((b))

    Emi Martinez 

  3. ((c))

    Cristiano Ronaldo

  4. ((d))

    Enzo Fernandez

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lionel Messi 

The correct answer is Lionel Messi.

Key Points

  • Lionel Messi was awarded the ​Golden Ball Award.
  • At the end of the world cup 2022 he had 7 goals and 3 assists.
  • Lionel Messi also became the first man to win two Golden Ball Awards as he had bagged the honour in 2014 when Argentina lost the final to Germany.

Additional Information 

  • Enzo Fernandez was awarded the Young Player Award.
  • Emi Martinez was awarded the Golden Glove Award.
  • Kylian Mbappe was awarded the Golden Boot award at the FIFA World Cup 2022.
  • The 2022 FIFA World Cup: 
  • It took place in Qatar.
  • It was the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world.
  • It was the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.
  • The tournament was won by Argentina.
  • ​Argentina defeated France by 4-2.
80

In which state is the Nalanda Mahavihara located?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Chhattisgarh

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

  5. ((e))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar

The Correct Answer is Bihar.

Nalanda Mahavihara is located in Bihar.

  • On July 15 2016 The UNESCO declared it as a World Heritage Site. The Nalanda site comprises the archaeological remains of a monastic and scholastic institution dating from the 3rd century BC to the 13th century AD.
  • Besides Nalanda, the Zuojiang Huashan Rock Art Cultural Landscape in China, the Persian Qanat in Iran & the ceremonial center of eastern Micronesia were also declared.
  • Nalanda stands out as the most ancient university in the Indian Subcontinent.
  • It engaged in the organized transmission of knowledge over an uninterrupted period of 800 years.
  • It is spread over 23 Hectares.
  • It includes stupas, chaityas, viharas, shrines, many votive structures, and important artworks in stucco, stone, and metal.

Extra Facts:-

PlaceMajor Sites
Uttar PradeshKushinagar, Sankissa, Sarnath, Shravasti
RajasthanBodh Gram, Asthal Temple
ChattisgarhSirpur
81

Which of the following is the highest peak of Eastern Ghats?

  1. ((a))

    Kolaribetta 

  2. ((b))

    Annaimudi 

  3. ((c))

    Mahendragiri 

  4. ((d))

    Doddabetta

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mahendragiri 

Option 3 is correct, i.e. Mahendragiri.

  • Mahendragiri:
  • Mahendragiri is the highest peak in Eastern ghats of India.
  • This peak is in the Gajapati district of Odisha.
  • The elevation of the peak is 1,501 m.

Note: Annaimudi is the highest peak of western ghats, Shevroy hills(2695 m) is in eastern ghats.

82

In which year was the NITI Aayog formed?

  1. ((a))

    2015

  2. ((b))

    2012

  3. ((c))

    2017

  4. ((d))

    2018

  5. ((e))

    2014

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2015

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

  • The NITI Aayog (abbreviation for National Institution for Transforming India) is a policy think tank of the Government of India.
  • It was established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
  • Its initiatives include "15-year road map", "7-year vision, strategy, and action plan", AMRUT, Digital India, Atal Innovation Mission, Medical Education Reform, agriculture reforms.

Additional Information

  • ​The NITI Aayog:
  • Formed: 1 January 2015
  • Headquarters: New Delhi
  • Chairman - Narendra Modi
  • Vice-Chairman - Dr. Suman Bery
  • CEO - B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
83

In which year was the battle of Haldighati fought between Maharana Pratap and Akbar?

  1. ((a))

    1576

  2. ((b))

    1582

  3. ((c))

    1585

  4. ((d))

    1592

  5. ((e))

    1594

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1576

The correct answer is 1576.

  • The battle of Haldighati between Maharana Pratap and Akbar was fought in 1576.

Key Points

  • The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576.
  • It was fought between the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap, and the Mughal emperor Akbar.
  • The Mughal force was led by Man Singh I of the Amber.
  • Abul Fazl says that the Mughal army was forced to retreat in the initial phase of the battle.
  • Haldighati is a region in the Aravalli mountain range, which links Rajsamand and Pali districts in Rajasthan, the name for which is inspired by its yellow-turmeric-colored soil.
  • The two armies fought a four-hour-long war in which the Mughals suffered heavy casualties and Maharana escaped unhurt.
84

Who was the founder of the Slave dynasty?

  1. ((a))

    Behram Shah

  2. ((b))

    Giyasuddin Balban

  3. ((c))

    Qutbuddin Aibak

  4. ((d))

    Shamsuddin IItutmish

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Qutbuddin Aibak

The correct answer is Qutbuddin Aibak.

  • Qutbuddin Aibak was the founder of the Slave dynasty.

Key Points

  • Qutubuddin Aibak (1206 AD-1210 AD):
  • He was a Turkish slave by origin after the death of Ghori, he became the master of Hindustan and founded the Slave Dynasty in 1206 AD.
  • He was given the title of Lakh Baksh (giver of lakhs).
  • He died in 1210 AD while playing Chaugan or horse polo.
  • He constructed two mosques, Quwwat-ul- Islam in Delhi and Adhai din ka Jhonpra in Ajmer.
  • He also began the construction of Qutub Minar, in honour of the famous Sufi Saint, Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki.
  • He patronised writers like Hasan-ul Nizami, author of Taj-ul-Massir and Fakhruddin, author of Tarikh-i-Mubarak Shahi.

Additional Information

  • Shamsuddin Iltutmish (1211 AD-1236 AD):
  • He was a slave of Qutubuddin Aibak and occupied the throne of Delhi in 1211 AD after deposing Aram Bakhsh.
  • He was regarded as the ‘real founder of the Delhi Sultanate’.
  • He made Delhi the capital in place of Lahore.
  • He saved Delhi Sultanate from the wrath of Genghis Khan by refusing shelter to Khwarizm Shah, whom Genghis Khan was chasing.
  • He completed the construction of Qutub Minar.
  • He constituted a group of 40 nobles known as Turkan-i-Chahalgani or Chalisa.
  • He started the Iqta-dar system.
  • He introduced the tankasilver coin and the jital, copper coin.
  • He patronised Minhaj-al-Siraj, author of Tabaqat-i-Nasiri.
  • Balban:
  • He created a centralised army and established the military department Diwan-i-Arz.
  • He started the festival of Navroz.
  • He introduced zaminbosi (practice of sijda).
85

The Champaran Satyagraha took place in the year ______.

  1. ((a))

    1915

  2. ((b))

    1910

  3. ((c))

    1912

  4. ((d))

    1917

  5. ((e))

    1920

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1917

The correct answer is 1917.

Key Points

  • The Champaran satyagraha took place on 19 April 1917.
  • Champaran is a district in the state of Bihar.
  • Champaran satyagraha came into force because farmers were forced to grow indigo in a part of their land. This created much anger among farmers.
  • The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of the total land (called tinkathia system).
  • Gandhi travelled across the district to different villages, meeting farmers and taking note of their sufferings and complaints against the forced indigo cultivation.
  • His protest led to the abolishing of the exploitative tinkathia system.
  • The victory at Champaran established Gandhiji in India’s struggle against the British raj.
  • This was the first Civil Disobedience Movement by Gandhi Ji in India.
86

Who has been appointed as the first chancellor of Gati Shakti University?

  1. ((a))

    Gajendra Singh Shekhawat

  2. ((b))

    Amit Shah

  3. ((c))

    Smriti Irani

  4. ((d))

    Ashwini Vaishnaw

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ashwini Vaishnaw

The correct answer is Ashwini Vaishnaw.

Key Points

  • Union Cabinet on 13 July 2022 approved the up-gradation of the National Rail and Transportation Institute (NRTI) to Gati Shakti University in Gujarat.
  • This university would serve as a hub for education, training, skilling, and research in the transportation sector.
  • This university is named after the government's flagship 'PM Gati Shakti' National Master Plan for multimodal connectivity.

Additional Information

  • ​PM Gati Shakti – National Master Plan for Multi-Modal connectivity to various Economic Zones.
  • PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (PMGS-NMP) was launched on 13th October 2021 to provide multimodal connectivity infrastructure to various economic zones.
  • Under this, a portal has been set up to bring 16 Ministries together for integrated planning and implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects.
87

Who has been named as named as PETA India's 2022 ‘Person of the Year’?

  1. ((a))

    Deepika Padukone

  2. ((b))

    Anushka Sharma

  3. ((c))

    Priyanka Chopra

  4. ((d))

    Sushmita Sen

  5. ((e))

    Sonakshi Sinha

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Sonakshi Sinha

The correct answer is Sonakshi Sinha.

Key Points

  • Sonakshi Sinha has been awarded PETA India's 2022 Person of the Year title.
  • PETA stands for People for Ethical Treatment of Animals in India.
  • The international animal rights non-profit group endorsed the title and celebrated the actions of the "Dabang" actress for saving animal lives in India.
  • Sonakshi's actions helped save the lives of many animals killed for fashion, but her strong advocacy for dog and cat rights earned her the title.
  • The 'Dabang' actress uploaded a photo to her Instagram, which is a photo of the campaign. Also written on the bag were "Did your bag bleed" and "Choose leather free".
  • The actress wrote in her caption, "Fashion should be fun and not scary. I hope my new @petaindia campaign gets this message across. Choose animal-friendly fashion." Not just because it's humane, but because it's so cold!"
88

Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Yojana and can be opened by the parents of a girl child below the age of _________.

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

  • Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a small deposit scheme for the girl child launched as a part of the 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' campaign.
  • A Sukanya Samriddhi Account can be opened any time after the birth of a girl till she turns 10, with a minimum deposit of Rs 250 (Earlier it was Rs 1,000) and a maximum of Rs 1.5 lakh can be deposited during the ongoing financial year.
  • The account can be opened in any post office or authorized branches of commercial banks.
  • The account will remain operative for 21 years from the date of its opening or till the marriage of the girl after she turns 18 (whichever is earlier).
  • To meet the requirement of her higher education expenses, partial withdrawal of 50 percent of the balance is allowed after she turns 18.
  • Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) was launched by the Prime Minister on 22nd January 2015 at Panipat, Haryana.
  • BBBP addresses the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related issues of women empowerment over a life-cycle continuum.
  • It is a tri-ministerial effort of Ministries of Women and Child Development, Health & Family Welfare, and Human Resource Development (Now Ministry of Education).
  • The key elements of the scheme include the Enforcement of Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC & PNDT) (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994.
  • BBBP scheme also aimed at nation-wide awareness and advocacy campaigns, and multi-sectoral action in select 100 districts (low on CSR) in the first phase.
  • There is a strong emphasis on mindset change through training, sensitization, awareness-raising, and community mobilization on the ground.

Important Points

  • The main targets of the scheme are:
  • Improve the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) in selected gender critical districts by 2 points in a year.
  • Reduce the Gender gap in Under-five Child Mortality Rate from 7 points in 2014 to 1.5 points per year.
  • Increase Institutional Deliveries by at least 1.5 % increase per year.
  • Increase enrolment of girls in secondary education to 82 percent by 2018-19.
  • Provide a functional toilet for girls in every school in selected districts.
  • Improve the Nutrition status of girls – by reducing the number of underweight and anemic girls under 5 years of age.
  • Mobilize communities to improve CSR funding and promote Girl’s education.
  • The scheme was carried in three phases:
  • In the first phase, 100 districts with a Child Sex Ratio below the national average were identified per Census 2011 data.
  • Then in the second phase, the scheme was further expanded to 61 additional districts which were having CSR below 918.
  • Finally, on 8 March 2018, the scheme was rolled out to cover the whole Nation. BBBP was extended to become a pan-India scheme. Now it covers all the 640 districts of the country (as per census 2011). (In 2019, there are a total of 731 districts).
  • Presently, all States and UTs except West Bengal have constituted the State Task Force as per the guidelines of the BBBP scheme. This special task force is headed by the Chief Secretary of the state.

Additional Information

  • Other Popular schemes under Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme are:​
  • Ladli scheme
  • Kanyashree Prakalpa Yojana
  • Balika Samridhi Yojana
  • Ladli Laxmi Yojana
  • Dhanalakshmi scheme
89

The brightest planet is ________.

  1. ((a))

    Venus

  2. ((b))

    Mars

  3. ((c))

    Jupiter

  4. ((d))

    Earth

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Venus

The Correct Answer is Venus.

Key Points

  • Venus: 
  • Venus is Earth's twin in size.
  • Venus is the hottest planet in our solar system.
  • It is the brightest planet in the Solar System.
  • It is also sometimes referred to as the sister planet to Earth, due to its near similarity of size and mass.
  • Venus is referred to as the “morning star” and “evening star”.
  • It is the second planet from the Sun.

Additional Information

  • Jupiter:
  • Jupiter is the planet, orange in colour with white bands on it.
  • Jupiter is the largest planet in the Solar System.
  • Jupiter's atmosphere is mostly made up of hydrogen (H2) and helium (He).
  • Saturn:
  • Saturn is known mostly for its rings.
  • It is the second-largest planet in our solar system.
  • Saturn's atmosphere is also mostly made up of hydrogen (H2) and helium (He).
  • Mercury:
  • It is the closest planet to the sun.
  • It is an extremely hot planet.
  • The planet has no water on it.
  • Mercury planet has no protective blanket like Ozone around it to prevent us from harmful radiations.
  • It does not have any moons or rings.
  • It is the smallest planet in the solar system.
  • It has the shortest period of revolution of approximately 88 Earth days.
90

How many note printing presses are owned by RBI?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

2

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

  • There are four Note printing presses in India.
  • Two currency note printing presses are owned by the Government of India and two are owned by the Reserve Bank, through its wholly-owned subsidiary, the Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Ltd. (BRBNML).
  • The presses owned by RBI are at Mysore and Salboni.
  • The government-owned presses are at Nasik and Dewas.
  • There are four mints for minting coins and all are owned by the Government of India.
91

Indian origin Leo Varadkar was elected as the Prime Minister of which of the following countries for the second time on 17 December 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Ireland

  2. ((b))

    Poland

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    Germany

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ireland

The correct answer is Ireland.

Key Points

  • Indian origin Leo Varadkar was elected as the Prime Minister of the Republic of Ireland for the second time on 17 December 2022.
  • Michael Martin has become the deputy PM and Foreign minister.
  • In a special session in the lower house of the Irish parliament, Dail voted to approve Leo Varadkar’s nomination as the prime minister.
  • The lower house of the parliament is called Dail.

Additional Information

  • Ireland:
  • Capital - Dublin
  • Currency - Irish Pound
  • It is an island in the North Atlantic Ocean, in north-western Europe.
  • It is separated from Great Britain to its east by the North Channel, the Irish Sea, and St George's Channel.
92

An example of inexhaustible natural resource is 

  1. ((a))

    gas

  2. ((b))

    coal

  3. ((c))

    water

  4. ((d))

    wind

  5. ((e))

    none of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

wind

Concept:

  • Everything which is used by us for a purpose in life is called a resource.
  • Resources are generally classified into human-made and natural.

Explanation:

There are two types of natural resources: Inexhaustible and Exhaustible resources.

  • Inexhaustible resource
  • Energy resources that are inexhaustible are ones that cannot be depleted in the future.
  • These resources are those which are mostly renewable in nature.
  • Renewable resources are those that are available in an endless quantity and may be used repeatedly.
  • These resources get renewed or replenished quickly.
  • For example - Sunlight, Air, etc.
  • Water is Exhaustible
  • Exhaustible resource
  • Exhaustible energy sources are those that will get depleted after a few hundred years.
  • They have a finite supply due to their non-renewable nature.
  • Repeated use by human activities will cause their extinction.
  • For example - Coal, petroleum, minerals, forest, etc.
  • Yet careless use of certain renewable resources like water, soil, and forest can affect their stock.
  • Water seems to be an unlimited renewable resource.
  • But shortage and drying up of natural water sources is a major problem in many parts of the world today.
  • Non-renewable resources are those which have limited stock.
  • Once the stocks are exhausted it may take thousands of years to be renewed or replenished.
  • Since this period is much more than human life spans, such resources are considered non-renewable.
  • Coal, petroleum, and, natural gas are some examples.

Thus, the wind is a resource that never gets exhausted.

93

Which of the following Prime Minister was also an Ex Finance Minister of India?

  1. ((a))

    Narendra Modi

  2. ((b))

    Atal Bihari Vajpayee

  3. ((c))

    P. V. Narasimha Rao

  4. ((d))

    Charan Singh

  5. ((e))

    Lal Bahadur Shastri

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Charan Singh

The correct answer is Charan Singh.

Key Points

  • Charan Singh has hold the office of both the Prime Minister was well as the Finance Minister of India.
  • He served as the 5th Prime Minister of India between 28 July 1979 and 14 January 1980.
  • He was often referred to as the ‘champion of India’s peasants' due to his contributions to raising several issues regarding farmers and their rights.
  • His birth anniversary is observed as Kisan Diwas in India on 23 December.
94

Which of the following are the two most common gases in the atmosphere?

  1. ((a))

    Nitrogen and Oxygen

  2. ((b))

    Carbon dioxide and Fluorine

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen and Xenon

  4. ((d))

    Nitrogen and Flourine

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nitrogen and Oxygen

The correct answer is Nitrogen and Oxygen.

Key Points

  • Nitrogen and Oxygen are having the highest percentage of the Earth's atmosphere.
  • The most abundant naturally occurring gas is Nitrogen (N2), which makes up about 78% of air.
  • Oxygen (O2) is the second most abundant gas at about 21%.
  • The inert gas argon (Ar) is the third most abundant gas at 0.93%.
  • Trace amounts of carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour, and neon are some of the other gases that make up the remaining 0.1 per cent.

Additional Information

  • Hydrogen is found in great quantities on Earth combined with other elements, such as in water and hydrocarbons, but it is barely present in our atmosphere, which contains just 0.00005%. The air in Earth's atmosphere is made up of approximately 78 per cent nitrogen.
  • Global background concentrations of carbon monoxide range between 0.06 and 0.14 mg/m3
  • CO2 makes up only about 0.04% of the atmosphere, and water vapour can vary from 0 to 4%.

![Solved] The major constituent of atmosphere by percent is](https://www.vedantu.com/question-sets/d1430663-8d59-4516-bfd6-1522ddbce676822461582134211222.png)

95

Which Indian state has its maximum area under forest cover?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

  • Indian state with maximum area under forest cover Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) released the India State of Forest Report-2021.
  • Largest forest cover in India: Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha > Maharashtra.

 Important Points

  • About India State of Forest Report 2021:-
  • India State of Forest Report-2021 is released by MOEF&CC.
  • It is a biennial report (released once in 2 years).
  • The first survey was published in 1987, and ISFR 2021 is the 17th.
  • Three categories of forests are surveyed – 
  1. Very dense forests (canopy density over 70%),
  2. Moderately dense forests (40-70%) and
  3. Open forests (10-40%).
  • Scrubs (canopy density less than 10%) are also surveyed but not categorised as forests.
  • India’s forest cover is now 7,13,789 square kilometres, 21.71% of the country’s geographical area, an increase from 21.67% in 2019.
  • **The states that have shown the **highest increase in forest cover are Telangana (3.07%), Andhra Pradesh (2.22%) and Odisha (1.04%).
  • Area-wise: Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
  • It has for the first time assessed forest cover in tiger reserves, tiger corridors and the Gir forest which houses the Asiatic lion.
96

The famous Patriotic song, which stirred the common people of their nationalism during the freedom movement,"Sare Jahan Se Acha Hindustan Hamara” was written by

  1. ((a))

    Mirza Galib

  2. ((b))

    Mohammad Iqbal

  3. ((c))

    Rabindranath Tagore

  4. ((d))

    Sadaat Hasan Manto

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mohammad Iqbal

The correct answer is Mohammad Iqbal.

Key Points

  • Sare Jahan Se Acha Hindustan Hamara
  • It is an Urdu language patriotic song for children written by poet Muhammad Iqbal in the ghazal style of Urdu Poetry.
  • It was published in the weekly journal Ittehad on 16 August 1904.
  • Mohammad Iqbal
  • He was a poet in the 20th century whose poetry was written in the Urdu language
  • He was among the founding fathers of Jamia Milia Islamia.
  • He is also known as Allama Iqbal.

Additional Information

  • Mirza Galib
  • Galib is the pen name of Miza Asadullah Baig Khan who was a poet.
  • He wrote in both Urdu and Persian.
  • He was one of the important poets in the court of Bahadur Shah Zafar II.
  • He was given the title of Dabir-ul-Mulk and Najm-ud-Dualla by Bahadur Shah Zafar II.
  • Rabindranath Tagore 
  • ​He was a well-known Bengali Poet.
  • He was the first Asian as well as the first lyricist to win the Noble Prize in literature for his work 'Gitanjali'.
  • He wrote the national anthem for two countries: India's Jana Gana Mana and Bangladesh's Amar Shonar Bangla.
  • He gave the title Mahatma to Mahatma Gandhi and Mahatma Gandhi called him Gurudev.
  • Sadaat Hasan Manto
  • He was a writer, playwright, and author born in British India on 11 May 1912.
  • He wrote 22 collections of short stories, a novel, five series of radio plays.
  • He is best known for his stories about the partition of India.
97

Who was the father of Ashoka?

  1. ((a))

    Chandragupta Maurya

  2. ((b))

    Brihadratha

  3. ((c))

    Bindusara

  4. ((d))

    Kunala

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bindusara

The correct answer is Bindusara.

  • Bindusara was the father of Ashoka.

Key Points

  • Ashoka was the third ruler of the Maurya dynasty.
    • He ruled from  268 to 232 BC
  • Ashoka was also known as ‘Chandaashoka’ as he killed his brothers to get the throne.
  • He promoted Buddhism across India and Asia.
  • He made Buddhism his state religion.
  • He sent his daughter Sanghamitra and son Mahinda to Ceylon for propagating Buddhism.
  • He built a lion Stambh i.e.  Ashok Stambh.
  • Ashok Stambh of Sarnath is accepted as the national emblem of India.
  • Ashoka had built many pillars, rock edicts like Bharhut stupa, Dhamek Stupa, and Mahabodhi Temple.
  • He is best known for his renunciation of war after the war of Kalinga (261 BC).

Additional Information

  • Maurya dynasty was established by Ashoka's grandfather Chandragupta Maurya.
  • Chandragupta defeated the last ruler of the Nanda dynasty, Dhana Nand in 321 BC.
  • The capital of the Mauryan empire was Magadha.
  • He signed a treaty with Seleucus Nicator acquiring Baluchistan, eastern Afghanistan and the region to the west of Indus In 305 BC.
  • He married Nicator's daughter.
  • Megasthenes was the Greek ambassador at Chandragupta’s court.
  • He reigned from 321 BC to 297 BC.
  • He abdicated the throne for Bindusara and went to Karnataka with Jain monk Bhadrabahu.
  • Bindusara
  • Son of Chandragupta.
  • He ruled from 297 BC to 273 BC.
  • He is called Amitraghata (Slayer of foes).
  • Deimachus was a Greek ambassador at his court.
98

Amongst the following who was appointed as the first Director General of the Unique Identification Authority of India created in June, 2009 ?

  1. ((a))

    Mr. Nandan Nilekani

  2. ((b))

    Mr. Ashok Desai

  3. ((c))

    Mr. Ram Sewak Sharma

  4. ((d))

    Mr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mr. Nandan Nilekani

The correct answer is Mr. Nandan Nilekani.

Key Points

  • Mr. Nandan Nilekani is an Indian entrepreneur.
  • He is co-founder of Infosys and the non-executive chairman of Infosys.
  • He left Infosys in July 2009 to serve as the chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI).
  • J. Satyanarayana is the current chairman of UIDAI.

Additional Information

  • Mr. Ashok Desai was an Indian lawyer, practicing in the Supreme Court of India.
  • He was the Attorney General of India from July 1996 to 1998.
  • He was awarded the Padma Bhushan award and the Law Luminary Award in 2001.
  • He was doctorate with "recognition of his contribution to the field of law and jurisprudence" by the North Orissa University in 2009.
  • Mr. Ram Sewak Sharma was the Chairman of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) from August 2015 to September 2020.
  • Mr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia was the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India.
  • He was previously the first Director of the Independent Evaluation Office at the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  • He joined the World Bank in 1968, at the age of 28, he became the youngest "Division Chief" in the World Bank's bureaucracy.

Important Points

  • The Aadhar is a 12-digit unique identification issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) through biometric profiling of an Indian resident.
  • The Aadhar number serves as a basis for Know Your Customer (KYC) norms in banks and financial institutions, telecom services, and a host of other places.
  • One of the most important uses of the Aadhar card is that it permits the holder to avail of all government subsidies he/she is eligible for.
  • It comes under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, India.
99

______ is another name for the river Dakshin Ganga.

  1. ((a))

    Indus

  2. ((b))

    Godavari

  3. ((c))

    Yamuna

  4. ((d))

    Narmada

  5. ((e))

    Tapi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Godavari

The correct answer is the Godavari.

Key Points

  • After Ganga, Godavari is India’s second-longest river.
  • Triambaeswar in Maharashtra is the source of the Godavari River.
  • The Godavari River drains in the states of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.
  • Out of these states, the Maharashtra state has the largest share of the water of the Godavari River.
  • The River finally drains into the Bay of Bengal.

Important Points

  • One of the largest River basins in the Indian subcontinent is formed by the Godavari.
  • The largest river in peninsular India is the Godavari, in terms of the catchment area and discharge.
  • Dakshin Ganga is another name of Godavari due to its huge catchment area.
100

Which of the following is the longest canal in India?

  1. ((a))

    Buckingham canal

  2. ((b))

    Sharda Canal

  3. ((c))

    Indira Gandhi Canal

  4. ((d))

    Upper Ganga Canal

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Indira Gandhi Canal

The correct answer is Indira Gandhi Canal.

Key Points

  • Indira Gandhi canal is the longest canal in India.
  • The total length of the canal is around 650 Km (204 km Indira Gandhi Feeder canal (IGFC) + 445 Km Indira Gandhi Main canal (IGMC)) = 1095 km
  • The aim of this ambitious project is to irrigate the thirsty desert land of Western Rajasthan with Himalaya's water and provide drinking water to crores of inhabitants of this area.

  • The origin of this canal is from the Harike barrage situated in Punjab at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas.
  • From Harike, the 204 Km long Indira Gandhi Feeder takes-off which has 170 Km length in Punjab & Haryana and the remaining 34 Kms in Rajasthan.
  • This canal enters Rajasthan at Hanumangarh.
  • The canal was earlier known as the “Rajasthan Canal”.
  • Buckingham Canal is a 796 kilometers long freshwater navigation canal running parallel to Kakinada City in Andhra Pradesh to Viluppuram in Tamil Nadu.
  • Sharda Canal is located in Uttar Pradesh.

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