FCI AG III Memory Based Question Paper (Held on: 1st January 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is option 5 i.e. rage.

Explanation-

Wrath means extreme anger.

Let's look at the meanings of the given words-

• Humor means the quality of being amusing or comic, especially as expressed in literature or speech.
• Conflict means a serious disagreement or argument, typically a protracted one.
• Retreat means withdraw from enemy forces as a result of their superior power or after a defeat.
• Happiness means the state of being happy.
• Rage means violent uncontrollable anger.

Clearly, 'rage' is the correct word.

The correct answer is option 2.

Explanation-

• It is mentioned that "Further, the route to freedom for India was unique in its capacity that it drew on the Gandhian theory of non-violence, something that went on to inspire several leaders across the globe."
• Clearly, option 2 is the most appropriate.

The correct answer is option 3.

Explanation-

• When speech or writing is not literal, it is figurative. It is non-literal.
• For ex: I have a ton of homework. Here, the speaker actually doesn't have a ton/970 kg of homework, it is just a way of saying that he/she has a lot of homework.
• The given statement is indirectly referring to the country which had gained independence from British rule.
• Other options are rejected because:
• Collateral is something pledged as security for repayment of a loan, to be forfeited in the event of a default.
• Literal means taking words in their usual or most basic sense without metaphor or exaggeration.
• Figurine is a statuette, especially one of a human form.

The correct answer is option 2.

Explanation-

• It is mentioned that "Further, this long drawn battle for independence had been won at a cost, as not one but two independent nations had emerged on August 15, 1947."
• Clearly, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option 1.

Explanation-

• It is mentioned that "The trauma of the Second World War had its grip firmly over the psyche of the Western powers and the colonial powers were facing the wrath of the added expenses brought forth by their colonies.**"
• Clearly, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option 4.

Explanation-

• It is mentioned that " Unsurprisingly, therefore, the major newspapers of the world had culled out a significant part of their front pages to underline the nationalist aspirations, the birth of the two nations and the celebrations as well as the massacre that accompanied the same. Incidentally though, while the partition of Punjab and the bloodshed resulting from it, made its way to the front pages of almost every newspaper, the partition of Bengal was barely ever mentioned at all.**"
• Clearly, the partition of Bengal was not highlighted in the newspaper.

The correct answer is option 3.

Explanation-

• It is mentioned that "Further, it also reported on the fact that a number of princely states were yet to decide on the nationality they wished to adhere to. The ambiguity of the status of the princely states was made evident from the map which left out states like Hyderabad and Kashmir that had not yet made up their mind."
• Clearly, option 3 is the most appropriate answer.

The correct answer is option 2.

Explanation-

• It is mentioned that " Flaunting a large map of the Indian subcontinent, as it stood on August 15, 1947, the front page of the American daily, New York Times reported on the celebration of freedom on one hand and the grief of partition on the other. "
• Clearly, option 2 is the most appropriate answer.

The correct answer is option 1.

Explanation-

• It is mentioned that "Further, this long drawn battle for independence had been won at a cost, as not one but two independent nations had emerged on August 15, 1947, leaving the South Asian region soaked in the blood of the Partition riots that had accompanied it."
• So, the author is referring to the partition riots that accompanied the independence and resulted in a lot of deaths.

The correct answer is option 5 i.e. confined.

Explanation-

Freed means released from confinement or slavery.

Let's look at the meanings of the given words-

• Unleashed means caused (a strong or violent force) to be released or become unrestrained.
• Delivered means provided (something promised or expected).
• Attained means succeeded in achieving (something that one has worked for).
• Spared means made free or available.
• Confined means kept or restricted someone or something within certain limits of (space, scope, or time).

Clearly, 'confine' is the correct word.

The correct answer is 'The girl, with several others, was late for school.' i.e. this sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.

Key Points

• Let us explore the grammatical errors in the sentences:
• In Option 1, the use of the definite article 'the' is erroneous.
• 'Approval' is an uncountable noun and uncountable nouns take 'the' when used in a particular sense.
• In the given sentence, 'approval' is not specified, nor is it qualified by any adjective.
• Therefore, we will omit the article 'the' before 'approval'.
• Correct Sentence: The developers submitted building plans to the council for approval.
• In Option 3, the use of the adverb 'lately' is incorrect.
• 'Lately' is an adverb that denotes 'recently'.
• 'Late' denotes 'after the fixed, right, or usual time.'
• Therefore, the adverb 'late' should be used in place of the adverb 'lately'.
• Correct Sentence: She was heavily fined last month for coming late.
• In Option 4, the use of the plural form of the verb 'have' is incorrect.
• We know that expressions such as each of, one of, anybody, each, every, and nobody must be followed by a singular verb.
• Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'has' should be used in place of the plural form of the verb 'have'.
• Correct Sentence: Each of the ladies has a designer handbag.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'No sooner had he arrived in Delhi than he was kidnapped' i.e. this sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.

Key Points

• Let us explore the grammatical errors in the sentences:
• In Option 1, the use of the determiner 'fewer' is incorrect.
• The determiner 'fewer' is used to refer to numbers among things that are counted.
• The determiner 'less' is used to refer to quantity or amount among things that are measured.
• Therefore, the determiner 'less' should be used in place of the determiner 'fewer'.
• Correct Sentence: I see you have eaten less than ten percent of your mashed potatoes.
• In Option 2, the use of the preposition 'with' is incorrect.
• The verb 'assign' is followed by the preposition 'to'.
• If someone is assigned to a particular place, case, group, or person, they are sent there, usually in order to work at that place or for that case.
• Therefore, the preposition 'to' should be used in place of the preposition 'with'.
• Correct Sentence: A different policeman has been assigned to the case.
• In Option 4, the use of the plural form of the verb 'are' is incorrect.
• We know that amounts, even if plural, have a singular verb.
• Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'is' should be used in place of the plural form of the verb 'are'.
• Correct Sentence: Five kilograms of flour is all that I need for my baking.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is Sound is a fundamental component of ecosystems.

Key Points

• The sentence 'Sound is a fundamental component of ecosystems.' is grammatically correct.
• The word 'sound' is a singular noun that is why singular verb(is) is used here.
• The word 'fundamental' is an 'adjective' and it is appropriately used before the noun 'component'.
• The article and 'a' and the preposition 'of' is also correct.
• Hence, the sentence is grammatically correct.
• The corrected form of the other given sentences are:
• | Option | Grammatical mistake | Corrected sentence | | --- | --- | --- | | 1. | The preposition 'by' should replace the preposition 'with'. | The damage caused by noise is as harmful as over fishing, pollution and the climate crisis. | | 2. | The auxiliary verb 'are' should be added before the word 'also'. | Carbon dioxide emissions from fossil fuel burning are also making the oceans more acidic. | | 4. | The word 'grown' should be replaced with 'growing'. | Underwater noise is a serious concern and it is growing. |

• Therefore, option 3) is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Component: part or ingredient

The correct answer is Social science is the branch of science devoted to the study of societies.

Key Points

• The sentence 'Social science is the branch of science devoted to the study of societies.' is grammatically correct.
• The definite article 'the' is used before the word 'branch' and 'study' to talk about something specific. Hence, it is correct.
• The preposition 'to' is used with word 'devoted' which is appropriate.
• Hence, the sentence is grammatically correct.
• The corrected form of the other given sentences:
• | Option | Grammatical mistake | Corrected sentence | | --- | --- | --- | | 1. | The word 'begin' should be replaced with 'begins'. | The history of the social sciences begins in the Age of Enlightenment after 1650. | | 2. | The preposition 'on' should be replaced with 'to'. | Economics is a social science that seeks to analyze and describe the production, distribution, and consumption of wealth. | | 3. | The word 'specifically' should be replaced with the word 'specific'. | Education encompasses teaching and learning specific skills, and also something less tangible but more profound. |

• Therefore, option 4) is the answer.

Additional Information 

• Consumption: using up
• Encompasses: surrounds or encircles

The correct answer is Excavation is the most expensive phase of archaeological research.

Key Points

• The sentence 'Excavation is the most expensive phase of archaeological research.' is grammatically correct.
• The word 'Excavation' is a 'singular noun' that is why 'singular verb'(is) is used here.
• The definite article 'the' is used before the word 'most' which is appropriate and the word 'most' is used here to form the superlative degree of the adjective 'expensive'.
• The preposition 'of' is also correct.
• Hence, the sentence is grammatically correct.
• The corrected form of the other given sentences:
• | Option | Grammatical mistake | Corrected sentence | | --- | --- | --- | | 1. | The word 'exists' should be replaced with 'existed'. | Archaeological excavation existed even when the field was still the domain of amateurs. | | 3. | The preposition 'on' should be replaced with 'around'. | Archaeologists around the world use drones to speed up survey work. | | 4. | The auxiliary verb 'are' should be replaced with 'have'. | In England, archaeologists have uncovered layouts of 14th century medieval villages |

• Therefore, option 2) is the answer.

Additional Information

• Excavation: digging up
• Amateurs: non-professionals

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e. 'Multiporpose'.

Key Points

• The correct spelling is 'Multipurpose'. It's an adjective which means having multiple uses.
• Example: After Mass, we accompanied Papa to a fund-raising in the multipurpose hall next to the church building.

​ 

Additional Information

The meaning of other words are : 

• Critical: characterized by careful evaluation and judgment
• Moderation: the action of lessening in severity or intensity
• Purpose: an anticipated outcome that is intended or that guides your planned actions

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e**. 'Aberation'.**

Key Points

• The correct spelling is 'Aberration', which means 'a departure from what is normal, usual, or expected, typically an unwelcome one'
• Example: It is important to remember that the Atlantic slave trade was not a single aberration in an otherwise spotless record.

Additional Information

The meaning of other words are :

• Drought:  a shortage of rainfall
• Even: being level or straight or regular and without variation as e.g. in shape or texture; or being in the same plane or at the same height as something else (i.e. even with)
• Permanent: continuing or enduring without marked change in status or condition or place

The correct answer is 'beleive'.

Key Points

• The word 'beleive' has been incorrectly spelled in the given sentence.
• The correct spelling and its meaning has been listed below - 
• believe -  accept that (something) is true, especially without proof.
• Example - You may believe the story that you like best.

​

Hint

• “I before E except after C” is a grammar rule that will help you with remembering the spelling of some words.
• The entire saying is “I before E, except after C or when sounded as A, as in neighbor and weigh. And weird is just weird.”
• It is also important to remember that there are exceptions to this rule like neighbor, Einstein, neither, efficient etc.

Additional Information

The following are the meanings of the other highlighted words in the given sentence - 

• arguments - Plural form of 'argument' which means an exchange of diverging or opposite views, typically a heated or angry one.
• describe - give a detailed account in words of.
• inevitable -  certain to happen.

The correct answer is 'desert'.

Key Points

• The word 'desert' has been incorrectly spelled in the given sentence.
• The correct spelling and its meaning has been listed below - 
• dessert -  the sweet course eaten at the end of a meal.
• Example - Guests finish with an indulgent dessert, baked on premises by the resident pastry chef.

Confusion Points

• 'Desert'  spelled in this manner means a water less, desolate area of land with little or no vegetation, typically one covered with sand.
• Hence, although the spelling is correct, the meaning is not valid for the given sentence.

Additional Information

The following are the meanings of the other highlighted words in the given sentence - 

• shines - be exceptionally good.
• among- surrounded by; in the middle of
• foster -  encourage the development of (something, especially something desirable). But in context of the given sentence we need to consider the phrase 'Bananas Foster' which refers to a dessert made from bananas and vanilla ice cream

The correct answer is 'fourt'.

Key Points

• The word 'fourt' has been incorrectly spelled in the given sentence.
• The correct spelling and its meaning has been listed below - 
• fourth -  constituting number four in a sequence; 4th.
• Example - After the fourth week she knew he wouldn't be back.

Additional Information

The following are the meanings of the other highlighted words in the given sentence - 

• work - activity involving mental or physical effort done in order to achieve a purpose or result.
• stove - an apparatus for cooking or heating that operates by burning fuel or using electricity.
• supper -  an evening meal, typically a light or informal one.

Clearly, ‘c’ is the first part as all other parts seem to be a continuation of something. Now ‘c’ ends with a ‘not’ which should be followed by ‘a’ as no other parts make sense.  Part ‘d’ cannot come after ‘a’ and thus ‘b’ should be after ‘a’ and followed by ‘d’.

The first part of the sentence can either be ‘a’ or ‘c’. But, we see ‘as soon’ at the end of ‘b’ which clearly is a portion of the expression ‘as soon as’. Now, as no other part starts with ‘as’, the part ‘c’ must the after ‘b’. Thus the first part is ‘a’ which indicates the next part should contain the object to which his contributions are referred to. This makes ‘d’ the second part to be followed by ‘b’ and ‘c’.

After reading all the four options, it is clear that the part‘d’ is an introductory part, which introduces the idea of the sentence. The idea of the sentence is that he saves a man without any expectation and in a turn of events, the man he saved turned out to be his boss. Once the meaning of the sentence is inferred, the sequence can be found. And option ‘3’ is the right answer.

The word ‘although’ is the first clue and that must be the first part of the sentence.  The next part of the sentence must be describing the world and that is ‘after fame and money’. The next part must be wither option‘d’ or option ‘a’. The continuity is obtained from option‘d’. Thus,’a’ is the last part.

The first part of the sentence should be ‘A’ as it introduces the theme of the sentence which is ‘living abroad’, the next part of the sentence should be ’B’ as it joins the adjective ‘non-demanding’ to the noun ‘life’. The next part of the sentence should be ‘C’ as it joins the sub-clause of the sentence to its former part which introduces the subject ‘she’. The last sentence is ‘D’ as it concludes the sentence.

The correct sequence is ABCD.

Given that: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are seating around a square table facing the centre:

Four at the corner and four at the edges:

1) A sit second to right of F.

2. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table.

3) G does not sit at any of the corners of the table and sits second to the right of D.

4) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side).

Here, two cases will generate:

Case I                                       Case II

5) H is sits second to the left of B. 

Case I                                   Case II

6)  E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F.

7. C is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Here Case I will follow the, Case II will be eliminate as it does not satisfy the given conditions.

So, C will sit at the immediate right of F and E will sit at immediate right of A.

So, the final figure is:

Hence, C is exactly between F and A.

Given that: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are seating around a square table facing the centre:

Four at the corner and four at the edges:

1) A sit second to right of F. 

2. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table.

3) G does not sit at any of the corners of the table and sits second to the right of D.

4) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side).

Here, two cases will generate:

Case I                                       Case II

5) H is sits second to the left of B. 

Case I                                   Case II

6)  E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F.

7. C is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Here Case I will follow the, Case II will be eliminate as it does not satisfy the given conditions.

So, C will sit at the immediate right of F and E will sit at immediate right of A.

So, the final figure is:

So, 

1. HC (Sitting opposite to each other)

2. AG (Sitting opposite to each other)

3. EB (Sitting opposite to each other)

4. FD (Sitting opposite to each other)

5. HD (Sitting adjacent to each other)

Hence, HD does not belong to the group.

Given that: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are seating around a square table facing the centre:

Four at the corner and four at the edges:

1) A sit second to right of F. 

2. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table.

3) G does not sit at any of the corners of the table and sits second to the right of D.

4) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side).

Here, two cases will generate:

Case I                                       Case II

5) H is sits second to the left of B. 

Case I                                   Case II

6)  E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F.

7. C is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Here Case I will follow the, Case II will be eliminate as it does not satisfy the given conditions.

So, C will sit at the immediate right of F and E will sit at immediate right of A.

So, the final figure is:

Hence, F is immediate to the left of C.

Given that: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are seating around a square table facing the centre:

Four at the corner and four at the edges:

1) A sit second to right of F. 

2. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table.

3) G does not sit at any of the corners of the table and sits second to the right of D.

4) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side).

Here, two cases will generate:

Case I                                       Case II

5) H is sits second to the left of B. 

Case I                                   Case II

6)  E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F.

7. C is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Here Case I will follow the, Case II will be eliminate as it does not satisfy the given conditions.

So, C will sit at the immediate right of F and E will sit at immediate right of A.

So, the final figure is:

Hence, two persons sit between A and H when counted anti-clockwise direction from A.

Given that: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are seating around a square table facing the centre:

Four at the corner and four at the edges:

1) A sit second to right of F. 

2. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table.

3) G does not sit at any of the corners of the table and sits second to the right of D.

4) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side).

Here, two cases will generate:

Case I                                       Case II

5) H is sits second to the left of B. 

Case I                                   Case II

6)  E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F.

7. C is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Here Case I will follow the, Case II will be eliminate as it does not satisfy the given conditions.

So, C will sit at the immediate right of F and E will sit at immediate right of A.

So, the final figure is:

So, AE, EH, HF, ?

Here one more person sits in each successing pair of persons.

AE → No gap, adjacent to each other.

EH → Gap of 1 person.

HF → Gap of 2 persons.

So, next will be gap of 3 persons.

Hence, ? will be FD.

Given Word: REVERSE

The word can be represented as follows:

Here, we see that 2 such pairs are there: Forward: RS, Backward: SV

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G.

Cities: Indore, Agra, Cuttack, Gwalior, Mumbai, Pune, Jaipur.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday.

1. Three people go between E and the one, who belongs to Cuttack. 2. E goes just before F but after Thursday. 

3.  Number of people going before F is same as after A. 4. Two people go between A and the one, who belongs to Agra.  5. G belongs to Indore and goes before the one, who belongs to Agra. 

6. Two people go between G and the one, who belongs to Gwalior. 7.  F does not belong to Gwalior. So, Case 1A is eliminated.

8.  F neither belongs to Jaipur nor Pune. So, F belongs to Mumbai.

9.  B goes before the one, who belongs to Pune but after C. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

So, A belongs to Jaipur. D belongs to Pune. C belongs to Cuttack.

The final arrangement is,

Hence, the one, who belongs to Gwalior goes to party on Saturday.

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G.

Cities: Indore, Agra, Cuttack, Gwalior, Mumbai, Pune, Jaipur.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday.

1. Three people go between E and the one, who belongs to Cuttack. 2. E goes just before F but after Thursday. 

3.  Number of people going before F is same as after A. 4. Two people go between A and the one, who belongs to Agra.  5. G belongs to Indore and goes before the one, who belongs to Agra. 

6. Two people go between G and the one, who belongs to Gwalior. 7.  F does not belong to Gwalior. So, Case 1A is eliminated.

8.  F neither belongs to Jaipur nor Pune. So, F belongs to Mumbai.

9.  B goes before the one, who belongs to Pune but after C. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

So, A belongs to Jaipur. D belongs to Pune. C belongs to Cuttack.

The final arrangement is,

Hence, A goes to Jaipur.

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G.

Cities: Indore, Agra, Cuttack, Gwalior, Mumbai, Pune, Jaipur.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday.

1. Three people go between E and the one who belongs to Cuttack. 2. E goes just before F but after Thursday. 

3.  Number of people going before F is same as after A. 4. Two people go between A and the one, who belongs to Agra.  5. G belongs to Indore and goes before the one, who belongs to Agra. 

6. Two people go between G and the one, who belongs to Gwalior. 7.  F does not belong to Gwalior. So, Case 1A is eliminated.

8.  F neither belongs to Jaipur nor Pune. So, F belongs to Mumbai.

9.  B goes before the one, who belongs to Pune but after C. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

So, A belongs to Jaipur. D belongs to Pune. C belongs to Cuttack.

The final arrangement is,

In every option, the person, goes before the person, who belongs to the respective city

Hence, B-Cuttack is the odd one out.

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G.

Cities: Indore, Agra, Cuttack, Gwalior, Mumbai, Pune, Jaipur.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday.

1. Three people go between E and the one who belongs to Cuttack. 2. E goes just before F but after Thursday. 

3.  Number of people going before F is same as after A. 4. Two people go between A and the one, who belongs to Agra.  5. G belongs to Indore and goes before the one, who belongs to Agra. 

6. Two people go between G and the one, who belongs to Gwalior. 7.  F does not belong to Gwalior. So, Case 1A is eliminated.

8.  F neither belongs to Jaipur nor Pune. So, F belongs to Mumbai.

9.  B goes before the one, who belongs to Pune but after C. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

So, A belongs to Jaipur. D belongs to Pune. C belongs to Cuttack.

The final arrangement is,

I. The one, who go immediately before E goes to Pune.

II. Four people go to party between E and A.

III. F is the last person to attend the party.

Hence, every sentence except III is true about E.

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G.

Cities: Indore, Agra, Cuttack, Gwalior, Mumbai, Pune, Jaipur.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday.

1. Three people go between E and the one who belongs to Cuttack. 2. E goes just before F but after Thursday. 

3.  Number of people going before F is same as after A. 4. Two people go between A and the one, who belongs to Agra.  5. G belongs to Indore and goes before the one, who belongs to Agra. 

6. Two people go between G and the one, who belongs to Gwalior. 7.  F does not belong to Gwalior. So, Case 1A is eliminated.

8.  F neither belongs to Jaipur nor Pune. So, F belongs to Mumbai.

9.  B goes before the one, who belongs to Pune but after C. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

So, A belongs to Jaipur. D belongs to Pune. C belongs to Cuttack.

The final arrangement is,

Hence, C goes to the party immediately before G.

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T and W.

1) The weight of the second heaviest person is 120 kg.

2. Weight of T is 120. Imply that T is the second heaviest person.

The possible arrangement for the given statements is as follows,

___ > T(120) > ___ > ___ > ___ > ___

3. Only two persons have weight more than P.

4. Sum of the weight of S and T is 250 kg.

S + T = 250

S + 120 = 250

S = 250 - 120 = 130

S(130) > T(120) > P > ___ > ___ > ___

5. the weight of the second lightest person is 78 kg.

6. R is heavier than both W and Q but W is not the lightest. It means W is the second lightest having weight 78 kg.

7) Sum of the weight of W and Q is 128 kg.

W + Q = 128

78 + Q = 128

Q = 128 - 78 = 50

The final arrangement is as follows,

S(130) > T(120) > P > R > W(78) > Q(50)

Sum of the weight of S and Q = 130 +50

Hence, sum of weight of S and Q is 180.

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T and W.

1) The weight of the second heaviest person is 120 kg.

2. Weight of T is 120. Imply that T is the second heaviest person.

The possible arrangement for the given statements is as follows,

___ > T(120) > ___ > ___ > ___ > ___

3. Only two persons have weight more than P.

4. Sum of the weight of S and T is 250 kg.

S + T = 250

S + 120 = 250

S = 250 - 120 = 130

S(130) > T(120) > P > ___ > ___ > ___

5. the weight of the second lightest person is 78 kg.

6. R is heavier than both W and Q but W is not the lightest. It means W is the second lightest having weight 78 kg.

7) Sum of the weight of W and Q is 128 kg.

W + Q = 128

78 + Q = 128

Q = 128 - 78 = 50

The final arrangement is as follows,

S(130) > T(120) > P > R > W(78) > Q(50)

Hence, S is the heaviest person.

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T and W.

1) The weight of the second heaviest person is 120 kg.

2. Weight of T is 120. Imply that T is the second heaviest person.

The possible arrangement for the given statements is as follows,

___ > T(120) > ___ > ___ > ___ > ___

3. Only two persons have weight more than P.

4. Sum of the weight of S and T is 250 kg.

S + T = 250

S + 120 = 250

S = 250 - 120 = 130

S(130) > T(120) > P > ___ > ___ > ___

5. the weight of the second lightest person is 78 kg.

6. R is heavier than both W and Q but W is not the lightest. It means W is the second lightest having weight 78 kg.

7) Sum of the weight of W and Q is 128 kg.

W + Q = 128

78 + Q = 128

Q = 128 - 78 = 50

The final arrangement is as follows,

S(130) > T(120) > P > R > W(78) > Q(50)

Hence, three persons are heavier than R.

Hence, "SHOWN" is written as "GRPMV".

The logic followed here is:

So, LEAK is coded as KGXO.

And,

So, CARE is coded as BCOI.

Similarly,

So, WATCH is coded as VCQGC.

Given numbers: 649    459      820      397      528

After interchanging the first and second digits within the numbers:

469      549      280      937      258

Clearly, 280 is the second smallest which is obtained from the number 820.

Hence, the correct answer is 820.

Note: Second-smallest number = second number in the ascending order.

Given numbers: 649    459      820      397      528

After interchanging first and third digits of each number we get,

946      954      028      793      825     

Now 954 is the highest and 028 is the lowest number.

Hence their difference = 954 - 028 = 926.

Given series: 649 459 820 397 528

On adding the first and third digits:

649 → 15

459 → 13

820 → 8

397 → 10

528 → 13

Here, only 15 is divisible by 3.

Hence, the correct answer is 649.

Given Numbers: 649 459 820 397 528

We will add the digits of numbers one by one

649 → 6 + 4 + 9 = 19

459 → 5 + 4 + 9 = 18

820 → 8 + 2 + 0 = 10

397 → 3 + 9 + 7 = 19

528 → 5 + 2 + 8 = 15

Therefore, 10 is the least, which is the sum of digits of 820.

Hence, the correct answer is 820.

According to the alphabetical values of the letters,

The pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, “IURJ” is the correct answer.

Least possible diagram of the following statements is:

I. All dislike can be review → True (As per the venn diagram this possibility is true, as no direct relationship between the two is given)

II. All like are Review → False (Only a few like are review means All review can be like  but All like cannot be review as Some Like are review and Some Like are not review).

Note:

Only a few means Some + Some Not

Hence, Only I follow.

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below,

i) Some cash are definitely not debits ⇒ False (As we know "All debits are Cash" but we don't have any negative relation between Cash and Debits so the negative possibility between both will be never true.)

ii) All credits being cash is a possibility ⇒ True (Here no negative relation between Credits and Cash is given so the possibility will be true here.)

Hence, only II follows.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. A few apples being fruits is a possibility- False (As Only grapes are apples, it means all apples are grapes and there can’t be intersection of any other element with apples, so possibility doesn’t follow.)

II. All fruits are grapes.- False (As a few fruits are grapes.)

Hence, neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Answer: 3

The least possible Venn diagram for given statements is as follows:

Conclusion:

I) No boy is a girl → True (Because no student is a girl makes no boy is a girl)

II) It is a possibility that all students are boys → True (possibility is possible)

Hence, Both conclusion I and II follows.

Calculation:

Total student of mechanical branch = (21 / 100) × 800 = 168

⇒ Boys in mechanical branch = (4 / 7) × 168 = 96

⇒ Girls in mechanical branch = (3 / 7) × 168 = 72

According to the question:

Boys in computer science branch = 3 × Girls in mechanical branch

⇒ Boys in computer science = 3 × 72 = 216

⇒ Girls in computer science = (5 / 6) × 216 = 180

Student in civil branch = 800 – (96 + 72 + 216 + 180) = 236

⇒ Boys in civil = (3 / 4) × 236 = 177

⇒ Girls in civil = (1 / 4) × 236 = 59

So by these details, the below is formed

Number of girls transferred = (30 / 100) × 180 = 54

∴ Number of girls in civil = 59 + 54 = 113

Calculation:

Total student of mechanical branch = (21 / 100) × 800 = 168

⇒ Boys in mechanical branch = (4 / 7) × 168 = 96

⇒ Girls in mechanical branch = (3 / 7) × 168 = 72

According to the question:

Boys in computer science branch = 3 × Girls in mechanical branch

⇒ Boys in computer science = 3 × 72 = 216

⇒ Girls in computer science = (5 / 6) × 216 = 180

Student in civil branch = 800 – (96 + 72 + 216 + 180) = 236

⇒ Boys in civil = (3 / 4) × 236 = 177

⇒ Girls in civil = (1 / 4) × 236 = 59

So by these details, the below is formed

Total boys of mechanical and civil = 96 + 177 = 273

Total girls of mechanical and civil = 72 + 59 = 131

∴ Required ratio = 273 : 131

Calculation:

Total student of mechanical branch = (21 / 100) × 800 = 168

⇒ Boys in mechanical branch = (4 / 7) × 168 = 96

⇒ Girls in mechanical branch = (3 / 7) × 168 = 72

According to the question:

Boys in computer science branch = 3 × Girls in mechanical branch

⇒ Boys in computer science = 3 × 72 = 216

⇒ Girls in computer science = (5 / 6) × 216 = 180

Student in civil branch = 800 – (96 + 72 + 216 + 180) = 236

⇒ Boys in civil = (3 / 4) × 236 = 177

⇒ Girls in civil = (1 / 4) × 236 = 59

So by these details, the below is formed

∴ Required percentage = (216 – 180) / 180 × 100 = 20%

Given:

11.11% of √729 - ?% of √144 = 126 - 132

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

11.11% of √729 - ?% of √144 = 126 - 132

⇒ (1/9) × 27 - (?/100) × 12 = -6

⇒ 3 - ? × (3/25) + 6 = 0

⇒ 9 = (3/25) × ?

⇒ ? = (9 × 25)/3

⇒ ? = 75

∴ 75 will come in place of the question mark ('?'). 

The value of 11.11% is (1/9).

Concept used:

Calculation:

(√3601)% of 600 – (?)² + 24.99² = 24.01

⇒ 60% of 600 – (?)² + 625 = 24

⇒ 360 – ?² + 625 = 24

⇒ 360 + 625 – 24 = ?²

⇒ ?² = 961

⇒ ? = 31

∴ The value of (?) will be 31

Given:

84% of 525 + 46% of 450 = (?) + 55% of 880

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

84% of 525 + 46% of 450 = (?) + 55% of 880

⇒ 84% of 525 + 46% of 450 = (?) + 55% of 880

⇒ 441 + 207 = (?) + 484

⇒ ? = 441 + 207 - 484

⇒ ? = 164

∴ The value of ? is 164

Correct answer is: 4

Concept used:

1. If the digits after decimal in a given number is less than 5, then the digits after decimal are omitted and the rest number will be the approximate value.

2. If the digits after decimal in a given number is more than 5, then the digits after decimal are omitted and the rest of the number is increased by 1. The obtained number will be the approximate value.

3. The BODMAS rule should be followed to solve the question as per the given table:

Calculation:

37.5% of (820 - 201 + 631) - (21.03)2 = ? - (10.05)2 + √1295.99 ÷ √324.33

⇒ 37.5/100 × (1451 - 201) - 21² = ? - 10² + √1296 ÷ √324

⇒ 37.5/100 × 1250 - 441 = ? - 100 + 36 ÷ 18

⇒ 5 × 375/4 - 441 = ? - 100 + 2

⇒ 468.75 - 441 = ? - 100 + 2

⇒ 469 - 441 + 100 - 2 = ?

⇒ 569 - 443 = ?

⇒ ? = 126

∴The value of ? is 126

Correct answer is: 5 

Concept used:

1. If the digits after decimal in a given number is less than 5, then the digits after decimal are omitted and the rest number will be the approximate value.

2. If the digits after decimal in a given number is more than 5, then the digits after decimal are omitted and the rest of the number is increased by 1. The obtained number will be the approximate value.

3. The BODMAS rule should be followed to solve the question as per the given table:

Calculation:

{(127.93)5/7 ÷ (64.32)2/3 × (9.68)2} = √? × (√49.16 + 32.96)

⇒ (128^5/7 ÷ 64^2/3 × 10²) = √? × (√49 + 33)

⇒ (2⁷)^5/7 ÷ (4³)^2/3 × 100 = √? × (7 + 33)

⇒ 32 ÷ 16 × 100 = √? × 40

⇒ 2 × 100 = √? × 40

⇒ ? = (200/40)²

⇒ ? = 25

∴ The value of ? is 25

Given :

Initial investment of A = (x + 200) Rs.

Initial investment of B = (x + 120) Rs.

Initial investment of C = x Rs.

After 1 year they made an investment of Rs. 160, Rs. 160, and Rs. 240 respectively.

Total profit at end of 2 years = 7200 Rs.

Calculation : 

Ratio of profit share of A : B : C = (x + 200) × 1 + (x + 360) × 1 : (x + 120) × 1 + (x + 280) × 1 : x × 1 + (x + 240) × 1

Ratio of profit share of A : B : C = 2x + 560 : 2x + 400 : 2x + 240

Ratio of profit share of A : B : C = x + 280 : x + 200 : x + 120

Profit share of A = [(x + 280)/(3x + 600)] × 7200 

Profit share of B = [(x + 200)/(3x + 600)] × 7200 = 7200/3 = 2400

Profit share of C = [(x + 120)/(3x + 600)] × 7200

Hence, the correct answer is Profit share of 'B' is independent of 'x' and is equal to Rs. 2400.

Shortcut Trick

Remaining Distance = 1 − 3/4 = 1/4 of 540 km = 135 km.

Time delay = 1 hour. Speed increase = 15 kmph.

Using Distance = [S × (S + 15) ÷ 15] × Time Difference

135 = [S × (S + 15) ÷ 15] × 1 ⇒ S(S + 15) = 2025

Since 45 × 60 = 2700 (too high) and 30 × 45 = 1350 (too low), we test S = 45: 45 × 60 = 2700. Wait, S(S+15) = 2025 ⇒ 45 × 45 = 2025. Incorrect. Let's use S = 45 ⇒ 45 × 60 = 2700.

Actually, Increased Speed = 45 + 15 = 60 kmph. Checking: 135/45 − 135/60 = 3 − 2.25 = 0.75 hr (not 1 hr). Re-calculating: 135 = [S(S+15)/15] × 1 ⇒ 2025 = S² + 15S ⇒ S = 38.2... Let's check logic: Remaining dist is 135 km. If Increased speed is 60, original was 45. Time diff = 135/45 − 135/60 = 3 − 2.25 = 45 mins. For 1 hour: 15/S − 15/(S+15) is not the way. 135/S − 135/(S+15) = 1 ⇒ 135(15) = S(S+15) ⇒ 2025 = S² + 15S ⇒ S = 38.2. If the question implies distance AB is 540 and 3/4th was covered, remaining is 135. However, if total distance is larger or if 540 is the remaining part, let's re-read. "3/4 distance... which is 540" means 3/4 × D = 540 ⇒ D = 720. Remaining = 180 km. 180/S − 180/(S+15) = 1 ⇒ 180 × 15 = S(S+15) ⇒ 2700 = S(S+15). For S=45, 45 × 60 = 2700. Increased speed = 60 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 60 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given: 3/4^th of total distance = 540 km. Time delay = 1 hour. Speed increase = 15 kmph.

Formula: Distance = [S₁ × S₂ ÷ (S₂ − S₁)] × Δt

⇒ Total Distance (D) = 540 × (4/3) = 720 km.

⇒ Remaining Distance = 720 − 540 = 180 km.

⇒ Let original speed be S. New speed = S + 15.

⇒ 180/S − 180/(S + 15) = 1

⇒ 180 × [ (S + 15 − S) / (S(S + 15)) ] = 1

⇒ 180 × 15 = S² + 15S

⇒ S² + 15S − 2700 = 0

⇒ (S + 60)(S − 45) = 0 ⇒ S = 45 kmph (Speed cannot be negative).

⇒ Increased speed = S + 15 = 45 + 15 = 60 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 60 kmph.

Additional Information

Speed-Distance-Time Relation

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time (S ∝ 1/T). Ratio of speeds S₁:S₂ = T₂:T₁.

Time Delay Formula

To find distance when speed changes by ΔS and time changes by Δt: Distance = [S × (S ± ΔS) ÷ ΔS] × Δt.

Average Speed

For two equal halves of a journey with speeds u and v, Average Speed = 2uv ÷ (u + v).

Given:

Mother's age = 4 × age of son

Ratio 8 years hence = 16:5

Calculation:

Let the mother's age = m

And son's age = s

Then, m = 4s

Now, 8 years hence, age of mother = m + 8

And age of son = s + 8

∴ According to question,

(m + 8)/(s + 8) = 16/5

⇒ (4s + 8)/(s + 8) = 16/5

⇒ 20s + 40 = 16s + 128

⇒ 4s = 88

⇒ s = 88/4 = 22 years

Now, it is given that x is square of age of son.

∴ x+2 = (22)² + 2 = 484 + 2 

⇒ 486

∴The required value of x+2 is 486.

Let the marked price of the bike at shop P = x Rs.

The marked price of a bike in two shops P and Q is same.

So, the marked price of the bike at shop Q = x Rs.

Man bought the bike from shop P at Rs. 10400.

Therefore, x × 65% = 10400

⇒ x = 16000 Rs.

In shop Q same bike is available at two successive discounts of d% and 20% and man would have to pay Rs. 864 more if he would have bought it from shop Q.

Therefore, 16000 × 80% × (100-d)% = 10400+864

⇒ (100-d) = 88

⇒ d = 12%

Hence, the correct answer is 12%.

Shortcut Trick

Initial members = 4, New members = 5 (D replaced by E and F).

Net increase in Total Age = (New Avg × New count) − (Old Avg × Old count).

Sum of (E + F) = (42 × 5) − (40 × 4) + Age of D.

Sum of (E + F) = 210 − 160 + 33 = 50 + 33 = 83 years.

∴ The correct answer is 83 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Average age of A, B, C, D = 40 years; Age of D = 33 years; New Average = 42 years.

⇒ Total age (A+B+C+D) = 4 × 40 = 160 years

⇒ Total age (A+B+C) = 160 − 33 = 127 years

⇒ New group size = 4 − 1 + 2 = 5 members (A, B, C, E, F)

⇒ Total age (A+B+C+E+F) = 5 × (40 + 2) = 5 × 42 = 210 years

⇒ Sum of ages of E and F = Total age of new group − Total age of (A+B+C)

⇒ Sum (E+F) = 210 − 127 = 83 years

∴ The correct answer is 83 years.

Additional Information

Average Age Property

Sum of ages = Average age × Number of persons. When one person is replaced by two, the divisor for average calculation increases by 1.

Deviation Method

Net Change in Total = (New Avg × New Count) − (Old Avg × Old Count). This handles variations in group size effectively.

Given:

Two types of rice costing Rs. 30 per kg and Rs. 40 per kg respectively are mixed in the ratio 2 : 3 by weight.

Formula used:

Profit% = (selling price – cost price)/cost price × 100

Calculation:

Let the weight of rice be 2 kg and 3 kg

Total weight = 5 kg

According to the question,

Cost price Rs. 30 per kg and Rs. 40 per kg respectively are mixed in the ratio 2 kg and  3 kg by weight

⇒ (2 × 30 + 3 × 40)

⇒ Rs. 180

Selling price two - fifth of the mixture is sold at Rs. 50 per kg and remaining part at the rate Rs. 60 per kg

⇒ (2 × 50 + 3 × 60)

⇒ 100 + 180

⇒ Rs. 280

Profit% = (selling price – cost price)/cost price × 100

⇒ ((280 – 180)/180)× 100

⇒ (100/180)× 100

⇒ 55.55%

∴ The profit percent is 55.55%

Given:

Total invested sum = Rs. 14280

Rate of Interest (R) = 4%

Amount got by Anshika after 3 years = Amount got by Aman after 2 years

Concept Used:

A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

R = Rate of Interest

n = Time

Calculation:

Let principal invested for Anshika be x.

and principal invested for Aman is 14280 - x.

Amount got by Anshika after 3 years = Amount got by Aman after 2 years

⇒ x(26/25)³ = (14280 – x)(26/25)²

⇒ 26/25 = (14280 – x)/x

⇒ x = 7000

∴ The present share of Anshika is Rs. 7000.

Given:

The required is to be done in 80 days, But the 40 workers work in only 30 days in 30% of project

Calculation:

The completed work units = 40 × 30

 ⇒ 1200units

So,

30% of work = 1200 units

⇒ (1200/30) × 100

⇒ Total work = 40,00 units

So, complete the work in time

Then they work in 50 days to complete the work

Required work in units to complete = 40,00 – 1200

⇒ 2800 units

Number of workers to complete 2800 units of work in 50 days

⇒ 2800/50

⇒ Workers = 56

We have already 40 workers, the more workers required

⇒ 56 – 40

⇒ 16 = workers

∴ 16 workers required to complete the remaining work

Solution:

The series follows following pattern:

⇒ 33 + (7 × 1) = 40

⇒ 40 + (7 × 2) = 54

⇒ 54 + (7 × 3) = 75

⇒ 75 + (7 × 4) = 103

⇒ 103 + (7 × 5) = 138

∴ The value of ? is 103

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern

⇒ 7 + 1! = 8

⇒ 8 + 2! = 10

⇒ 10 + 3! = 16

⇒ 16 + 4! = 40

⇒ 40 + 5! = 160

⇒ 160 + 6! = 880

∴ The value of ? is  40

Important Points

1! = 1 × 1 ⇒ 1

2! = 2 × 1 ⇒ 2

3! = 3 × 2 × 1 ⇒ 6

4! = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 ⇒ 24

5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 ⇒ 120

6! = 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 ⇒ 720

Given:

16, ?, 9, 18.5, 73.75, 590.125

Calculation:

Since we need to find the second element, let’s start with the third number to find the pattern.

9 × 2 + 0.5 = 18.5

18.5 × 4 – 0.25 = 73.75

73.75 × 8 + 0.125 = 590.125

That means the multiplication factor is doubling while the addiction factor is decreasing by half at every step.

⇒ 9 = ? × 1 – 1

⇒  ? = 10

10 = 16 × 0.5 + 2

∴ ‘?’ is 10.

Calculation:

According to the given question, we get

0, 1, 6, ?, 156

The series follows the following pattern

⇒ (0 × 5) + 1 = 1

⇒ (1 × 5) + 1 = 6

⇒ (6 × 5) + 1 = 31

⇒ (31 × 5) + 1 = 156

⇒ (156 × 5) + 1 = 781

∴ Required answer is 31

Total marks obtained by Yashvendra in all subjects = 72 + 74 + 82 + 90 = 318

Total marks = 400

∴ Required percentage = (318/400) ×100 = 79.5%

Total marks obtained by all students in chemistry = 90 + 86 + 82 + 74 = 332

∴ Required average = 332/4 = 83

Total marks obtained by Shivansh in all Subjects = 92 + 90 + 74 + 86 = 342

Passing marks = 35% of 400 = 140

∴ Required difference = 342 - 140 = 202

Total marks obtained by Shubham in Mathematics and Physics together = 88 + 92 = 180

Total marks obtained by Shubham in Chemistry and English together = 74 + 82 = 156

∴ Required ratio = 180 ∶ 156 = 15 ∶ 13

Marks obtained by Yashvendra = 72 + 74 + 82 + 90 = 318

Marks obtained by Shivansh = 92 + 90 + 74 + 86 = 342

Marks obtained by Prashant = 96 + 76 + 80 + 82 = 334

Marks obtained by Shubham = 88 + 82 + 92 + 74 = 336

Hence, Shivansh has secured the maximum marks.

The correct answer is Siddhartha.

Key Points

• Gautama Buddha -
• He was born in Lumbini, near Kapilvastu, the then capital of the Shakya Republic, which is in Nepal.
• His mother's name was Mahamaya who was from the Kolia dynasty and his father was Kshatriya king Shuddhodana.
• He was named Siddhartha.
• Being born in Gautam gotra, he was also called Gautam.​

Additional Information

• Charvaka Darshan -
• It is an ancient Indian materialistic atheist philosophy.
• It accepts only direct evidence and does not accept this theory of supernatural beings.
• Buddha gave maximum teaching skills in his life in the capital of the country, Shravasti.
• Mahatma Buddha gave his teachings in the Pali language.
• His main followers were the rulers-

1. Bimbsaar
2. Prasenjit
3. Udayan

• Buddha died at the age of 80 at Kushinara after having a meal offered by Chunda. Which is called "Mahaparinirvana" in Buddhism.
• The holiest festival of Buddhism is Vaishakh Purnima which is also known as Buddha Purnima.
• Most of the Buddha statues were built under the Gandhara style.
• The first statue of Buddha was made under Mathura art.

Vardhamana Mahavira.

• Vardhamana Mahavira was the last and the 24th Tirthankara of Jainas.
• Mahavira was born in 540 BC at Kundagram near Vaishali.
• He left his home at 30 and wandered for 12 years.
• In his 13th year of penance, Mahavira attained kaivalya i.e., omniscience at Jrimbhikagrama in Eastern Uttar Pradesh at the age of 42.
• He died at the age of 72 in 468 BC at Pavapuri near Rajgriha.
• Followers of Mahavira are known as Jainas, who lead very simple lives, begging for food.

Option 1 is correct, i.e. Chlorine.

• Chlorine gas which produces in electrolysis that is used in the manufacturing of bleaching powder.
• Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime Ca(OH)₂.
• Bleaching powder is represented as CaOCl₂, though the actual composition is quite complex.

Ca(OH)₂ + Cl₂ → CaOCl₂+ H₂O

Note:

• Bleaching powder is used:
• For bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry, for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories and for bleaching washed clothes in a laundry.
• As an oxidizing agent in many chemical industries.
• For disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs.

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Key Points

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was called Frontier Gandhi.
• He is a leader from North-West Frontier Province (NWFP) located in present-day Khyber Pakhtunkhwa and federally administered tribal Area (FATA) in Modern Pakistan.
• He was born in year 6^th Feb in1890.
• He was the first non-Indian citizen to be awarded Bharat Ratna in 1987.
• He died in the year in 1988, 20 Jan and buried in Kandahar.

The correct answer is 7th.

Key Points

Geographical area -

• The total geographical area of the world is 510,072,000 square kilometres.
• India, on the other hand, has a geographical area of 3,287,263 square kilometres.
• It makes up around 2.4%of India’s total geographical area of the world.
• India is a country in South Asia that is officially known as the Republic of India.
• It is the second-most populous country in the world, the seventh-largest by land area, and the world's most populous democracy.

Important Points 

The following are the ten largest countries in the world in terms of geographical area-

1. Russia - 17,098,242 sq km,
2. Canada - 9984670 sq. km.
3. China - 9596960 sq. km.
4. America - 9525067 sq. km.
5. Brazil + 855770 sq. km.
6. Australia - 774220 sq. km.
7. India + 3287263 sq km
8. Argentina - 2780400 sq. km.
9. Kazakhstan_- 2724900 sq. km.
10. Algeria - 23874. sq km.

The correct answer is Roger Binny.

Key Points

• Former cricketer Roger Binny has been elected as the 36th President of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• He replaces Sourav Ganguly, who held the post since 2019.
• Binny, 67, was one of the architects of India’s 1983 World Cup triumph and president of the Karnataka State Cricket Association.
• Jay Shah will continue for a second term as the secretary of the BCCI.

Additional Information

• Recent Appointments:
• Senior IFS officer Partha Satpathy has been appointed as India’s next Ambassador to Bosnia and Herzegovina.
• Leading Fintech platform Stashfin has appointed BFSI (Banking, Financial Services and Insurance) expert and former MD and CEO of SBI Cards, Vijay Jasuja as Non-Executive Independent Director.
• IFS officer Bandaru Wilsonbabu has been appointed as the next ambassador of India to the Republic of Madagascar.
• CSB Bank Limited has announced the appointment of Pralay Mondal as the MD and CEO of the bank for a period of three years starting 15 Sept 2022.
• Senior diplomat Sibi George has been appointed as the next Indian ambassador to Japan.
• Pieter Elbers has joined IndiGo as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO).

The correct answer is Pingali Venkaiya.

• Pingali Venkaiya designed the Indian national flag.

Key Points

• National Flag:
• The national flag is a horizontal tricolor of deep saffron at the top, white in the middle, and dark green at the bottom in equal proportion.
• Saffron stands for courage.
• White stands for truth and purity.
• Green is the symbol of life, abundance, and prosperity.
• The ratio of the width of the flag to its length is 2:3.
• Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
• Its diameter approximates the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
• The design was given by Pingali Venkaiya.
• The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.

Additional Information

• It is our Fundamental Duty to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
• The song Vande Mataram, composed in Sanskrit by Bankim Chandra Chatterji, is our National Song.
• The National Song is taken from Bankim Chandra Chatterji’s novel Anandmath, published in 1882.
• Annie Besant founded newspapers like New India and Commonweal.

The correct answer is 'New Delhi'.

Key Points

• The 5^th Assembly of International Solar Alliance (ISA) will begin on October 17 in New Delhi under India’s presidentship.
• Participants from 109 countries will be sharing their experiences towards a low-carbon economy through promotion of solar energy at the 4-day event.
• The Assembly is the apex decision-making body of International Solar Alliance makes decisions concerning the implementation of the ISA’s Framework Agreement. The Assembly meets annually at the ministerial level at the ISA’s seat.
• One of the key focus areas of the meeting is streamlining the solar sector investments in the countries where investments are not flowing at present.
• The assembly will also deliberate on creating a Risk Mitigation Facility for solar projects with a Payment Guarantee Mechanism.
• The ISA initiative was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the India Africa Summit, and a meeting of member countries ahead of the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference in Paris in November 2015.
• The ISA is headquartered in Gurugram, Haryana.

Additional Information

• The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an alliance of 121 signatory nice countries, most being sunshine countries, which lie either completely or partly between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The primary objective of the alliance is to work for efficient consumption of solar energy to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

• The NITI Aayog serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India.
• It is the nodal agency tasked with catalyzing economic development, and fostering cooperative federalism through the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
• Formed: 1 January 2015
• Headquarters**: New Delhi**

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog releases the following reports:
• Agriculture Transformation Index
• Composite Water Management Index
• District Hospital Index
• Export Preparedness Index
• India Innovation Index
• Multidimensional Poverty Index
• School Education Quality Index
• SDG India Index
• State Energy Index
• State Health Index

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Karnataka has dethroned Kerala as the leading producer of pepper.
• Black pepper was first cultivated in Kerala (Malabar Coast of India then).
• Black pepper is dried and used as a seasoning or spice.
• It is also known by the name peppercorn.

The correct answer is Fish.

• Fish is aquatic animals.
• Fish are vertebrates which live in water and possess gills, fins, and scales on their body.
• Aquatic animals breathe through specialized organs called gills.

Key Points

• It extracts dissolved oxygen from water.
• The aquatic animals are a very important source of food, medicine, and raw materials that are used by humans.
• Fish are a rich source of calcium.
• Fish have wide varieties of species,  34,000 species of vertebrate animals found in the fresh and marine waters in the whole world.
• Sharks, rays, and skates are some examples of cartilaginous fish whereas tuna, sardines, and salmon are examples of bony fish.

The correct answer is 40th.

Key Points

• India climbed six notches to 40th position in the Global Innovation Index 2022, according to a report by the Geneva-based World Intellectual Property Organization.
• Turkiye & India entered the top 40 for the first time, placing at 37th and 40th, respectively.
• Switzerland has topped the ranking for the 12th consecutive year.
• The Index was started in 2007 & was created by Soumitra Dutta.

Additional Information

• ​Important Ranking and Index:
• India with an index score of 0.663, stood at 4th in the 2022 Global Crypto Adoption Index.
• India ranked 132 out of 191 countries in the 2021 human development index (HDI), according to a report released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• India ranks 135 among a total of 146 countries in the Global Gender Gap Index 2022.
• Austrian capital Vienna has been ranked as the world's most liveable city in the report 'Global Liveability Index 2022'.
• Vienna replaced New Zealand's Auckland city as the most liveable city.
• Kerala has been ranked first in Asia in Affordable Talent in Global Startup Ecosystem Report (GSER) 2022.
• India has jumped six positions to 37th rank on the annual World Competitiveness Index for the year 2022.
• Denmark has been ranked at the top while Switzerland has been ranked at second position.

The correct answer is the United Kingdom.

Key Points

• India has overtaken the U.K. to become the world's fifth-largest economy and is now behind only the US, China, Japan and Germany, according to IMF projections.

Additional Information

• A decade back, India was ranked 11th among the large economies while the U.K. was at the fifth position.
• The assumption of India overtaking the U.K. is based on calculations by Bloomberg using the IMF database and historic exchange rates on its terminal.
• On an adjusted basis and using the dollar exchange rate on the last day of the relevant quarter, the size of the Indian economy in 'nominal' cash terms in the quarter through March was $854.7 billion. On the same basis, the U.K. was$816 billion
• India has a population 20 times that of the U.K. and so its GDP per capita is lower.
• India's GDP expanded 13.5% in the April-June quarter, the quickest pace in a year, to retain the world's fastest growing economy tag but rising interest costs and the looming threat of a recession in major world economies could slow the momentum in the coming quarters.
• Gross domestic product (GDP) growth of 13.5% year-on-year compares to a 20.1% expansion a year back and 4.09% growth in the previous three months to March.
• The growth, though lower than the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) estimate of 16.2%, was fuelled by consumption and signalled a revival of domestic demand, particularly in the services sector.
• The central bank has raised the benchmark policy rate by 140 basis points in three instalments since May and has vowed to do more to bring inflation under control.

The correct answer is Unique.

Key Points

• About UIDAI:
• The Unique Identification Authority of India is a statutory authority established under the provisions of Aadhaar Act 2016 by the Govt. of India
• It is under the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.
• UIDAI was created with the objective to issue Unique Identification Numbers (UID), named "Aadhaar", to all residents of India.
• The UIDAI had to be- 
• robust enough to eliminate duplicate and fake identities, and
• verifiable and authenticable in an easy, cost-effective way.

Important Points

• Senior bureaucrat Saurabh Garg has been appointed as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) on March 2021.

The correct answer is Bharati Das.

Key Points

• Civil Accounts Service officer Bharati Das took charge as the new Controller General of Accounts (CGA) on 18th Oct 2022.
• Das is the 27th officer to hold the position of CGA.
• Prior to this, Das has served as Principal Chief Controller of Accounts in the Central Board of Direct Taxes.
• CGA is ‘the Principal Advisor’ on Accounting matters to the Union Govt.

Additional Information

• ​The CGA is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India.
• The office is in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, Govt of India.
• The office of the CGA has the mandate to establish and maintain a technically sound Management Accounting system.
• It also prepares and submits the accounts of the Central Government.
• It is also in charge of the exchequer control and internal audits.
• First CGA: C S Swaminathan (1976-77)

The correct answer is Sour.

Key Points

• Acids are the molecules which are capable of giving H+ ion or form a covalent bond with electron pair.
• Acids are sour in taste, which turns blue litmus red.
• The acid forms salt when reacting with the base.
• For example; hydrochloric acid (HCl) when reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) forms sodium chloride (NaCl).

HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) → NaCl (s) + H2O (l)

Acid          Base                Salt

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Ramanujacharya was born in 1017 in Sriperumbudur in Tamil Nadu.
• He is revered as a Vedic philosopher and social reformer.
• He travelled across India, advocating equality and social justice.
• He revived the Bhakti movement, and his preachings inspired other Bhakti schools of thought.
• He is considered to be the inspiration for poets like Annamacharya, Bhakta Ramdas, Thyagaraja, Kabir, and Meerabai.
• He is famous as the chief proponent of the Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedanta.

Additional Information

• About Ramanujacharya:
• Born in 1017 in Sriperumbudur in Tamil Nadu, Ramanujacharya is revered as a Vedic philosopher and social reformer.
• He was named Lakshmana at the time of his birth. He was also referred to as Ilaya Perumal which means the radiant one.
• He traveled across India, advocating equality and social justice.
• He is famous as the chief proponent of the Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedanta.

In News

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 216-feet tall 'Statue of Equality commemorating the 11th-century Bhakti Saint Sri Ramanujacharya in Shamshabad, Hyderabad.
• India is celebrating his 1,000th birth anniversary as the ‘Festival of Equality’, upholding the view that the world is one family, ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’.

The correct answer is 1761.

Key Points

• The third battle of Panipat was fought in the year 1761.
• The Third Battle of Panipat took place on 14 January 1761, at Panipat, about 60 miles (95.5 km) north of Delhi between a northern expeditionary force of the Maratha Empire and a coalition of the King of Afghanistan Ahmad Shah Durrani with two Indian Muslim allies—the Rohilla Afghans of the Doab and Shuja-ud-Daula,
• The battle of Panipat was fought to protect India from the raids that began with Nadir Shah in 1739 and to protect the effete Mughal dynasty.
• Bhau declared Shah Alam as the absentee Mughal Emperor and Shujauddaulah as the Wazir.

Additional Information

• The Battle of Ghaghra was fought in the year 1529.
• The Battle of Ghaghra, fought in 1529, was a major battle for the conquest of India by the Mughal Empire.
• It followed the first Battle of Panipat in 1526 and the Battle of Khanwa in 1527.
• The forces of now Emperor Zahir ud-Din Muhammad Babur of the emerging Mughal Empire were joined by Indian allies in the battle against the Eastern Afghan Confederates under Sultan Mahmud Lodi and Sultanate of Bengal under Sultan Nusrat Shah.
• Battle of Khatauli
• The Battle of Khatoli was fought in 1518 between the Lodi dynasty under Ibrahim Lodi and the Kingdom of Mewar under Rana Sanga, during which Mewar emerged victoriously.
• Battle of Gagron
• The Battle of Gagron was fought in 1519 between Sultan Mahmud Khalji II of Malwa and Rana Sanga of Mewar.
• The conflict took place in Gagron and resulted in Sanga's victory, with him taking Mahmud captive and annexing significant territory.
• Battle of Bayana
• The Battle of Bayana (1526) was a rare setback for Babur after his victory at Panipat on 21 April 1526.
• Although this victory gave Babur control of Delhi and Agra, many other fortified places refused to accede to his authority.

The correct answer is 35 kg​

Key Points

• The National Food Security Act, 2013 was notified on 10th September, 2013 with the objective to provide for food and nutritional security in human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantity of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
• The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized food grains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population.
• The eligible persons will be entitled to receive 5 Kg of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.
• The existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households, which constitute the poorest of the poor, will continue to receive 35 Kg of food grains per household per month.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

A borderline is a dividing line that marks the territorial limits between two countries.

• Our country India shares land borders with seven countries including Bhutan, Bangladesh, China, Afghanistan, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan, and maritime borders with Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Indonesia.
• It has 15,106.7 kilometers of land border and a coastline of 7,516 kilometers including its island territories.

Confusion Points

• Five landlocked states which do not have an international boundary are Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Telangana.
• Tripura is a state in North-East India. It shares borders with Bangladesh, Mizoram and Assam. Tripura is surrounded by Bangladesh on its north, south and west.

Important Points

• Uttarkashi, Chamoli, and Pithoragarh districts of Uttarakhand share an International boundary in the NW with China.
• In the east, the districts of Pithoragarh, Champawat, and Udham Singh Nagar also share an International boundary with Nepal.
• Uttarkashi and Dehradun share inter-state boundaries with Himachal Pradesh in the northwest, while Dehradun, Haridwar, part of Nainital, and Udham Singh Nagar touch the boundary of Uttar Pradesh in the south.
• Uttar Pradesh shares its borders with nine states including Rajasthan to the west, Uttarakhand to the north, Bihar to the east, Madhya Pradesh to the south and Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh to the southeast. The state also shares an international border with Nepal.
• West Bengal has 3 international boundaries. West Bengal has international boundaries with Bangladesh in the east, Bhutan in the North, and Nepal in the northwest.

The correct answer is Capital market

Key Points

• A capital Market is a planned market where both business organizations (corporations and pension funds) and individuals exchange and sell equity securities and debt.
• A capital market is expected to be for the distribution and exchanging of long-term securities.
• A long-term investment means its lock-in period is more than a year.
• SEBI is a statutory regulatory body established on the 12th of April, 1992.
• It monitors and regulates the Indian capital and securities market while ensuring to protect the interests of the investors, formulating regulations and guidelines.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority and is the principal regulator for Stock Exchanges in India.
• SEBI's primary functions include protecting investor interests, and promoting and regulating the Indian securities markets.

Functions of Capital Market

• Change of savings to finance long-term investments
• Minimizing information cost and transaction
• Motivate proprietor of productive assets
• Provide insurance upon price and market risk, through secondary trading
• Expedite trading of securities
• Speedy evaluation of financial measures like debentures and shares
• Settlement of transaction on a particular given time or schedule

The correct answer is 1905.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi Movement, proclaimed on August 7, 1905, at the Calcutta Town Hall, in Bengal.
• When Lord Curzon, then Viceroy of India, announced the partition of Bengal in July 1905, Indian National Congress, initiated the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.
• Swadeshi movement was launched as a protest movement which also gave a lead to the Boycott movement in the country.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai are the key people in swadeshi movement
• The two main goals of this movement were the use of Swadeshi goods and the boycott of foreign-made goods
• It was in the 1906 Calcutta session, headed by Dada Bhai Naoroji, the resolution of Swadeshi was adopted.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• ​A committee headed by Dr. Nachiket Mor in 2013 recommended setting up 'Payments Bank' to cater to lower-income groups and small businesses.
• The Reserve Bank of India has formed Payment Banks to facilitate more transaction and savings accounts for the underserved population who lack banking access.
• Payment Banks will assist those who have little or no banking access and allow increased access to financial services.
• Currently, there are 6 active Payments Bank in India:
• Airtel Payments Bank
• India Post Pay ments Bank
• Fino Payments Bank
• Jio Payments Bank
• Paytm Payments Bank
• NSDL Payments Bank

Additional Information

• Payment Banks are registered under the Companies Act 2013 but are governed by a host of legislations such as Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI Act, 1934; Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 etc.
• Main features of Payment Banks:-
• Acceptance of demand deposit is restricted to holding a maximum balance of Rs 200,000 per individual customer.
• While the payment banks can't issue credit cards, they can issue ATM and debit cards.
• They are not allowed to give loans.
• Distribution of non-risk sharing simple financial products like mutual fund units and insurance products, etc.
• They are only allowed to invest the money received from customers' deposits into government securities.
• They cannot accept NRI deposits.