Official Paper

ECGC PO - Memory Based Paper (29th May 2022) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 140 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning Ability (50 questions)

1

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given some conclusion is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: L > T > N; N ≤ Q = S; B = L ≥ G

Conclusions:

I. L > Q

II. B > N

III. G < L

  1. ((a))

    Only I follow

  2. ((b))

    Only II follow

  3. ((c))

    None is true

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II follows

  5. ((e))

    Either I or III follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follow

2

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: J > N ≥ M < P, O > Q, Q > A ≥ P

Conclusions:

I. N > A

II. N ≤ A

III. O > M

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Either conclusion I or II and conclusion III is true

  3. ((c))

    Neither I nor II is true

  4. ((d))

    All are true

  5. ((e))

    None is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I is true

3

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: P < J ≤ Q < Y; H > Q < R; S > I; P = S

Conclusions:

I. S < H

II. R > I

III. Q ≥ P

  1. ((a))

    All the conclusions are true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I and II are true

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion II and III are true

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I and III are true

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All the conclusions are true

4

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: Y > Z; K = D; A > J ≥ Y; D > Y

Conclusions:

I. K ≥ J

II. K > Z

III. A > D

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II is true

  4. ((d))

    I, II and III are true

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I or II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I is true

Direction: Read the instructions carefully to answer the questions given below.

Eleven people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, and K work in three different departments of a company namely HR, IT, and Finance. Not less than three people work in a department and not more than five people work in a department.

B works neither with G nor K. E does not work with I. H works with F in the same department. K works in the HR department. F does not work with G and  B. Not more than three people work in the HR department. E works in the same department as J. G works in the same department as D. A does not work in the IT department. C and D work in the same department and they do not work in the IT department.

5

Who among the following works with 'I' in the same department?

  1. ((a))

    J

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

J

6

Who among the following works in the HR department?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K

7

Who are the people who work in the IT department?

  1. ((a))

    F, J, and E

  2. ((b))

    C, E, J, and A

  3. ((c))

    C, D, G, and F

  4. ((d))

    B, E, and J

  5. ((e))

    H, E, and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F, J, and E

8

Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. ((a))

    B and A works in the same department.

  2. ((b))

    C and I works in the different department.

  3. ((c))

    A and D works in the same department

  4. ((d))

    F works in the IT department.

  5. ((e))

    D works in the HR department.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B and A works in the same department.

9

Who among the following work with B in the same department?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

10

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by four conclusions I, II, and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some sofas are cushions.

All cushions are curtains.

Only a few curtains are chairs.

Conclusions:

I. All curtains are cushions.

II. Some cushions are chairs.

III. Some sofas are chairs.

IV. All sofas are cushions.

  1. ((a))

    Only IV follows

  2. ((b))

    Only III and IV follows

  3. ((c))

    Only I, II and III follows

  4. ((d))

    All follows

  5. ((e))

    None follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only IV follows

11

Directions: In the following question, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to consider the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and decide which of the following definitely does not follow from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some laptops are USB.

Some fans are light.

Only few fans are charger.

Some fans are USB.

Conclusions

I. Some Laptops are lights.

II. Some USB can be charger.

III. All Fan can be Chargers.

IV. Some fans are not charger.

  1. ((a))

    Both I and II

  2. ((b))

    Only II

  3. ((c))

    Both III and IV

  4. ((d))

    Only III

  5. ((e))

    None follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both I and II

12

Directions: In the following question, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to consider the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and decide which of the following definitely does not follow from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some fruits are mangoes.

All apples are cabbages.

No cabbages are fruits.

All mangoes are fruity.

Conclusions:

I. Some apples are Cabbages.

II. All fruits are fruity.

III. Some Cabbages are mangoes.

IV. Some apples are fruits.

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Only II

  3. ((c))

    Both III and IV

  4. ((d))

    Only IV

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I

13

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few Fan are Cooler.

Only a few Bulb are Cooler.

All Cooler are Switch.

Conclusions:

I. Some Switch are Fan.

II. Some Bulb are Cooler.

III. All Switch are Cooler.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both Conclusion I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both Conclusion II and III follows

  5. ((e))

    None Follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion I follows

Direction: Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F have different heights. Each person likes different colours - Red, Blue, White, Pink, Yellow and Grey. The one who likes Pink is not the tallest. The one who likes Blue is taller than C but shorter than the one who likes Pink. F is shorter than the one who likes Pink but taller than the one who likes Blue. F likes Red. B is taller than the one who likes Yellow but shorter than F. The one who likes Yellow is taller than E. A likes neither Pink nor Grey. The height of the second tallest is 150 cm and the height of the third lowest is 60 cm.

14

Which of the following colour and person combination is correct?

  1. ((a))

    A - Pink

  2. ((b))

    B - Yellow

  3. ((c))

    C - Yellow

  4. ((d))

    D - Grey

  5. ((e))

    C - White

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - Pink

15

If sum of the height of D and F is 290 the what would be the possible height of F?

  1. ((a))

    160

  2. ((b))

    140

  3. ((c))

    130

  4. ((d))

    100

  5. ((e))

    90

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

160

16

E likes which of the following colour?

  1. ((a))

    Grey

  2. ((b))

    Pink

  3. ((c))

    Yellow

  4. ((d))

    White

  5. ((e))

    Blue

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Grey

17

Which of the following statement is true regarding A?

  1. ((a))

    A likes Grey colour.

  2. ((b))

    A is taller than only B.

  3. ((c))

    A is not the tallest

  4. ((d))

    A likes White colour.

  5. ((e))

    A is shorter than D.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A likes Grey colour.

18

D likes which of the following colour?

  1. ((a))

    Pink

  2. ((b))

    Blue

  3. ((c))

    Yellow

  4. ((d))

    Grey

  5. ((e))

    White

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pink

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement.

Input: 24 16 11 46 21 18 19 35

Step I: 11 24 46 21 18 19 35 16

Step II: 11 19 24 46 21 35 18 16

Step III: 11 19 21 46 35 24 18 16

Step IV: 11 19 21 35 46 24 18 16

Step V: 13 21 23 37 43 21 15 13

Step VI: 13 15 13 21 23 21 43 37

And Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: 32 13 26 36 68 17 73 57

19

How many steps needed for this arrangement to complete?

  1. ((a))

    VII

  2. ((b))

    VIII

  3. ((c))

    VI

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    IX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VII

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement.

Input: 24 16 11 48 21 18 19 35

Step I: 11 24 48 21 18 19 35 16

Step II: 11 19 24 48 21 35 18 16

Step III: 11 19 21 48 35 24 18 16

Step IV: 11 19 21 35 48 24 18 16

Step V: 13 21 23 37 45 21 15 13

Step VI: 13 15 13 21 23 21 37 45

And Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: 32 13 26 36 68 17 73 57

20

Which of the following element is second  from the left end in the step III?

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    57

  4. ((d))

    36

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

32

21

Which of the following is step V?

  1. ((a))

    13 17 57 73 68 36 26 32

  2. ((b))

    15 19 59 75 65 33 23 28

  3. ((c))

    15 19 59 75 65 33 29 23

  4. ((d))

    13 17 73 57 68 36 26 32

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 17 57 73 68 36 26 32

22

How many elements are between 36 and 26 in step II?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

23

What is the sum of first element from the left end in the step V and second element from the right end in the step IV?

  1. ((a))

    70

  2. ((b))

    47

  3. ((c))

    38

  4. ((d))

    30

  5. ((e))

    90

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

70

Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

There are certain numbers of persons sitting in a row, facing north direction. Four of them likes different colours i.e. Green, Pink, White and Yellow.

Two persons sit between the one, who likes White colour and the one, who likes Pink colour. Person, who likes White colour is adjacent to A. Position of H is exactly between position of B and position of C, who sits immediate left of E. Number of persons to the right of one, who likes Yellow, is equal to number of persons to the left of one, who likes White colour. H and F are not adjacent to each other. A sits third to the left of H, who is two places away from the one, who like Yellow colour. F is third person from right end. At most two persons sit between F and the one, who likes Yellow colour. Person, who likes Yellow is to the left of F. Number of persons to the left of D is half of number of persons to the right of E. B sits immediate right of A and does not like White colour. G sits immediate left of one, who likes Pink. Person, who likes Green is exactly between B and H.

24

Who sits second to the left of C?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

25

Total number of seats in the row?

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    17

  5. ((e))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13

26

D likes ______ colour.

  1. ((a))

    White

  2. ((b))

    Green

  3. ((c))

    Yellow

  4. ((d))

    Pink

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

White

27

How many persons sit between A and F?

  1. ((a))

    Seven

  2. ((b))

    Six

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Seven

28

Who sits immediate left of D?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

29

Directions: The question consists of a statement and two inferences. The student must first determine whether each statement is true. Choose the appropriate answer after reading the statement carefully.

Statement: Crop residues could be turned to biofuel but our farmers require proper incentives and handholding.

Inference:

I.Other countries are generating biofuels which are eco friendly.

II.This is a good example of re-cycling where waste can be converted into something productive.

  1. ((a))

    If only I follows.

  2. ((b))

    If only II follows.

  3. ((c))

    If both I and II follow.

  4. ((d))

    If  neither I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    If either I or II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If only I follows.

30

Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested course of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement: India currently faces a severe shortage of well trained and skilled professionals, with 2.3% of the work force has undergone formal skill training.

Courses of action:

I.India should outsource work to skilled professionals in other countries.

II. Vocational courses trageting skill-building should be incorporated in the curriculum.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I follows.

31

Direction: In each of the following question, statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can be drawn definitely from the given statement.

Statement: Electronic waste is the fastest and most valuable stream of waste, as one tonne of E-waste is likely to have more silver than a tonne of silver ore.

Conclusions:

I.Production of electronic equipment has increased due to industrialization and urbanization.

II. Countries generating large amounts of E-waste will become rich and powerful.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows.

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion I follows.

32

Directions: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

Statement:  Copyright infringement is the use or production of copyright-protected material without the permission of the copyright holder. Copyright infringement means that the rights afforded to the copyright holder, such as the exclusive use of a work for a set period of time, are being breached by a third party.

Which of the following, if true, can be possible examples of copyright infringement?

I: Downloading movies and music without proper payment for use.

II: Using others' photographs for a blog without permission.

III: Copying software code without giving proper credit.

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II

  2. ((b))

    Only II and III

  3. ((c))

    Only III

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and II

Directions: These questions are based on the following information.

There are 9 members in a family- D, I, J, K, L, M, N, O and T. T is nephew of D but is not son of N. L and D are daughter of M, who is married to O. L is married to K. N is married to J and D is married to I. N is only son of M, who is not the mother of N.

33

Who is nephew of D?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    O

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

T

34

In the question given below, I and II are two statements. You have to decide whether the facts provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Question: Who among the five students U, W, X, Y and Z scored the lowest marks in the exam?

I. U scored more than W but less than Y and X.

II. X scored more than Y but not the highest.

  1. ((a))

    The facts given in both I and II statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The facts given in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The facts given in both I and II statements together are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The facts given in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The facts given in both I and II statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

35

Direction: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement (s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.

What is the distance between A and E?

I. Point A is 3m north of point B. Point E is 9m west of point F. Point C is 2m east of point B. Point D is 5m south of point C. point G is 4m east of point D.

II. Point A is 6m west of point B. point E Is 8m north of point G. point D is 2m east of point B. Point F is 5m west of point G.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is sufficient

  2. ((b))

    Only II is sufficient

  3. ((c))

    Both are required

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II is sufficient

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II is sufficient

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is sufficient

36

Direction: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement (s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.

There are eight persons sit facing inside the centre. Who is the sit opposite to the A?

I) A is third to the right of the C and B is opposite to the C. S is third to the right of B.

II) Q is sitting second from the right of A. S is sitting fourth from the left of A.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is sufficient

  2. ((b))

    Only II is sufficient

  3. ((c))

    Both are required

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II is sufficient

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II is sufficient

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is sufficient

37

Direction: In the following questions, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. 

Seven boxes G, H, I, J, K, L and M are kept one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order.  Only two boxes are kept between H and G. M is kept at the bottom of the stack. As many boxes are kept above I as many are kept below L. How many boxes are kept between H and K?

I. As many boxes are kept below M as many are kept above H. I is kept above K and J. J is kept below G.

II. L is kept below K and J. K is kept below H. No box is placed above H.

  1. ((a))

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    Data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    Data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

38

Direction: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement (s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.     

There is a family of six-member. How J is related to T?

I) R is the grandfather of T who is the son of Q. Q is the only son of R.

II) P is daughter in law of S who married to Q. J is the brother in law of Q.

  1. ((a))

    Only i is sufficient.

  2. ((b))

    only II is sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    Either I or II is sufficient.

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II is Sufficient.

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II are required.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only i is sufficient.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H graduated from the college on 10th of different months, January, March, April, June, July, September, October and December of different years, 1990, 1993, 1998, 2000, 2008, 2011, 2015 and 2017. Difference in the years is considered as per the graduating year, not considering the month of graduating. F, who graduated in April, graduated just before the person, who graduated in December. C graduated just before H. Two persons graduated from college between E and the person, who graduated in October. Both A and H didn’t graduate in October, more than one person become graduate between B and C. The difference in the years of graduating of A and the person, who graduated in March, is 7 years. Person, who graduated in June, graduated from the college just before the person, who graduated in March. The one who graduated in January graduated before the one graduated in July. Two persons graduated from the college between G and the person, who graduated in June. E graduated in September but not in an even numbered year.

39

How many persons graduated after the person, who graduated in October?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Five

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Six

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

40

How many persons graduated before A?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Five

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Six

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

41

Who among the following graduated immediately after G?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    G

  5. ((e))

    H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

42

Four of the following forms a group. Which among the following does not belongs to that group?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    B

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

43

A graduated in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1990

  2. ((b))

    1993

  3. ((c))

    1998

  4. ((d))

    2000

  5. ((e))

    2008

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1990

44

Directions: In a question given below there is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.  An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. You have to consider the statement to be true even if they seem to be variance from the commonly known facts.

Statement: The school has decided to rusticate such students from the school who is creating violence and not following rules in the school.

Assumptions:

I .By rusticating students from the school those students will never do such things again in the future.

II. This action leads to discipline in the school.

  1. ((a))

    Only assumption I implicit

  2. ((b))

    Only assumption II implicit

  3. ((c))

    Either assumption I or II implicit

  4. ((d))

    Neither assumption I nor II implicit

  5. ((e))

    Both assumption I and II implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only assumption I implicit

Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Seven persons, A, Y, U, N, O, R and W are sitting at some distance from each other. A is sitting 3m east to Y, who is sitting 5m north to U, who is sitting middle of N and O. W is sitting 4m east to R, who is sitting 3m south to O, who is sitting 8m east to N.

45

What is the shortest distance between O and W?

  1. ((a))

    3 m

  2. ((b))

    4 m

  3. ((c))

    5 m

  4. ((d))

    2 m

  5. ((e))

    7 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3 m

Direction: Read the instruction carefully and answer the question given below.

Ten people M, N, L, O, P, S, T, U, V, and W are seated in two parallel rows. M, N, L, O, and P are seated in row1 and facing the north direction. S, T, U, V, and W are seated in row2 and facing the south direction not necessarily in the same order. They have different relations with person N – Father, Mother, Husband, Son, Daughter, Son-in-law, Grandson, Brother, and Sister.

W is the brother of O and sitting second to the right of the one who is the grandson of N. T is not the daughter of N. O is the sister of N and sitting on the right side of N. V is sitting in the northwest of P. Two people are sitting between O and M who is the father of N. T is sitting second to the left U who is the father of T. L is the wife of M and sitting in front of the one who is immediate right of N’s son. N is the mother of T and sitting in front of T who is sitting in the middle of the row. The immediate neighbour of the one who is sitting in front of O is the son-in-law of N.

46

What is the position of W's nephew with respect to N's husband?

  1. ((a))

    To the immediate right

  2. ((b))

    Third to the left

  3. ((c))

    In the front

  4. ((d))

    Second to the left

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To the immediate right

47

How O is related to P?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Maternal aunt

  3. ((c))

    Maternal Uncle

  4. ((d))

    Brother

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mother

48

How many persons are sitting between N’s mother and N’s Daughterr?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    More than three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three

49

Four of the following five are alike in a certain manner and hence form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that group?

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    V

  5. ((e))

    L

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

W

50

Who among the following sits second to the right of T’s grandfather?

  1. ((a))

    N's husband

  2. ((b))

    N's son

  3. ((c))

    N's brother

  4. ((d))

    N's daughter

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N's husband

English Language (40 questions)

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The Cold War was a period of geopolitical tension between the United States and the Soviet Union and their respective allies, the Western Bloc and the Eastern Bloc, which began following World War II. Historians do not fully agree on its starting and ending points, but the period is generally considered to span the 1947 Truman Doctrine (12 March 1947) to the 1991 Dissolution of the Soviet Union (26 December 1991). The term "cold" is used because there was no large-scale fighting directly between the two superpowers, but they each supported major regional conflicts known as proxy wars. The conflict was based around the ideological and geopolitical struggle for global influence by these two superpowers, following their temporary alliance and victory against Nazi Germany in 1945. Aside from the nuclear arsenal development and conventional military deployment, the struggle for dominance was expressed via indirect means such as psychological warfare, propaganda campaigns, espionage, far-reaching embargoes, rivalry at sports events, and technological competitions such as the Space Race.

The Western Bloc was led by the United States as well as the other First World nations of the Western Bloc that were generally liberal democratic but tied to a network of authoritarian states, most of which were their former colonies. The Eastern Bloc was led by the Soviet Union and its Communist Party, which had an influence across the Second World. The US government supported right-wing governments and uprisings across the world, while the Soviet government funded communist parties and revolutions around the world. As nearly all the colonial states achieved independence in the period 1945–1960, they became Third World battlefields in the Cold War.

The first phase of the Cold War began shortly after the end of the Second World War in 1945. The United States created the NATO military alliance in 1949 in the apprehension of a Soviet attack and termed their global policy against Soviet influence containment. The Soviet Union formed the Warsaw Pact in 1955 in response to NATO. Major crises of this phase included the 1948–49 Berlin Blockade, the 1927–1950 Chinese Civil War, the 1950–1953 Korean War, the 1956 Hungarian Revolution, the 1956 Suez Crisis, the Berlin Crisis of 1961, and the 1962 Cuban Missile Crisis. The USA and the USSR competed for influence in Latin America, the Middle East, and the decolonizing states of Africa and Asia.

Following the Cuban Missile Crisis, a new phase began that saw the Sino-Soviet split between China and the Soviet Union complicate relations within the Communist sphere, while US ally France began to demand greater autonomy of action. The USSR invaded Czechoslovakia to suppress the 1968 Prague Spring, while the US experienced internal turmoil from the civil rights movement and opposition to the Vietnam War. In the 1960s–70s, an international peace movement took root among citizens around the world. Movements against nuclear arms testing and for nuclear disarmament took place, with large anti-war protests. By the 1970s, both sides had started making allowances for peace and security, ushering in a period of détente that saw the Strategic Arms Limitation Talks and the US opening relations with the People's Republic of China as a strategic counterweight to the USSR.

51

Why was the relationship shared by the USA and USSR termed as 'cold'?

  1. ((a))

    There is a debate among historians about the beginning and ending dates of the war. 

  2. ((b))

    The 2 parties engaged in warlike activities only in the months of winter. 

  3. ((c))

    The fighting mainly took place in the country of Russia, which is snowed-in almost all year round. 

  4. ((d))

    The war lasted for a very long time and lost momentum after a while. 

  5. ((e))

    There was no large-scale direct fighting, but mainly them supporting regional conflicts. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

There is a debate among historians about the beginning and ending dates of the war. 

52

What indirect means did the 2 superpowers use to assert their dominance over each other?

  1. ((a))

    The 2 parties threatened each other with biological and chemical warfare, but never actually went through. 

  2. ((b))

    The 2 parties kept trying to win over various parts of occupied Germany from each other. 

  3. ((c))

    The 2 sides kept warning each other of impending warlike violence but never actually took action on it. 

  4. ((d))

    The 2 superpowers used propaganda, sport-related rivalry and technology based competitiveness to fight each other. 

  5. ((e))

    The 2 superpowers funded the nuclear and military plans of each others' enemies. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The 2 parties threatened each other with biological and chemical warfare, but never actually went through. 

53

Why did colonial states become battlefields for the Cold War?

  1. ((a))

    They were ideal mid-point locations between the Eastern and Western bloc. 

  2. ((b))

    As former colonies they were bound by certain responsibilities towards their former colonizers. 

  3. ((c))

    Most of them achieved independence between the period of 1945 and 1960, making them ideal battlefields. 

  4. ((d))

    They were too weak to support either side in their endeavors and thus had to contribute this way.

  5. ((e))

    They had difficulty choosing between the 2 sides and opted for non-violence. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They were ideal mid-point locations between the Eastern and Western bloc. 

54

What was USSR's response to the US's creation of NATO?

  1. ((a))

    USSR same up with a pact of its own that competed with the terms placed forth by US's NATO. 

  2. ((b))

    USSR created the Warsaw pact in 1955. 

  3. ((c))

    USSR immediately declared a war on the US.

  4. ((d))

    USSR placed sanctions on any movement of the US within the USSR states. 

  5. ((e))

    USSR tried to strike a deal with the US in order to come to a win-win situation. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

USSR same up with a pact of its own that competed with the terms placed forth by US's NATO. 

55

What started happening across the world by the time period of the 1970s?

  1. ((a))

    There were demands for international peace by the 1970s. 

  2. ((b))

    There were movements to increase the investment in nuclear development. 

  3. ((c))

    Both sides saw the increase in the demand for peace and started to prepare for an all-out war. 

  4. ((d))

    The countries under the 2 main powers started asking for more power and autonomy. 

  5. ((e))

    The countries caught in the middle were tired of the constant threats and wanted a war to end all conflicts. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

There were demands for international peace by the 1970s. 

56

What does the term 'disarmament' mean in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    the reduction or withdrawal of military forces and weapons

  2. ((b))

    an open rebellion against the proper authorities, especially by soldiers or sailors against their officers

  3. ((c))

    the action of arousing public concern about an issue and pressing for action on it

  4. ((d))

    an act of violent or open resistance to an established government or ruler

  5. ((e))

    the process of encouraging or establishing a belief or pattern of behavior

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the reduction or withdrawal of military forces and weapons

57

Which of the following terms is opposite in meaning to 'authoritarian'?

  1. ((a))

    dystopian

  2. ((b))

    autocratic

  3. ((c))

    dictatorial

  4. ((d))

    oligarchical

  5. ((e))

    democratic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

dystopian

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

It is not often that by-elections are of any significant consequence. But Uttarakhand, where the Chief Minister was in a do-or-die battle; Kerala, where the main Opposition, the Congress, was fighting for survival; and Odisha, where the ruling party was seeking another vote of confidence; all saw high-stakes contests. An impressive victory in the Thrikkakara Assembly by-election has revived the Congress in Kerala from the slumber and the chaos that had gripped the party following two consecutive Assembly election defeats, in 2016 and 2021. The seat is a Congress stronghold that stayed with the party even in 2021 when the ruling Left Democratic Front (LDF) won 99 of the 140 seats. The seat had fallen vacant following the demise of P.T. Thomas, who had shown great courage to stand up to the Catholic Church on issues of public policy. His wife Uma Thomas was the Congress candidate. The LDF was criticized on grounds that it sought to align its selection of candidates and campaign with the wishes of the Church. The Congress-led United Democratic Front (UDF) also turned the election into a referendum on the Silver Line semi-high speed railway project that the Pinarayi Vijayan government was championing. The victory, by an increased margin in comparison with 2021, reinforces the leadership of V.D. Satheesan, the leader of the Opposition, and K. Sudhakaran, the President of the Congress State unit. The CPI(M) and the LDF must take the lessons from the results with humility and appropriately recalibrate their positions.

In Odisha’s Brajarajnagar Assembly constituency, the ruling Biju Janata Dal (BJD) candidate, Alaka Mohanty, won by a margin of 66,122 votes, defeating the Congress that pushed the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) to the third position. The by-poll was necessitating by the death of the winner’s husband Kishore Mohanty. The result has further strengthened the hands of Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik, who revamped his Council of Ministers immediately after the victory. The BJP that has been nurturing ambitions to replace the BJD in the State had to eat humble pie in the seat, though it is part of the Bargarh Parliamentary Constituency which it had won in 2019. In 2024, Mr. Patnaik will be on his way to becoming one of the longest-serving Chief Ministers. In Uttarakhand, Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami won the Champawat Assembly seat as expected, tightening his grip over the party. The BJP has been _______ through a churn in the State, leading to the elevation of Mr. Dhami who was not an MLA, after the Assembly elections in February-March. But the path ahead will depend on how smartly Mr. Dhami navigates the dangerous roads in the hill State’s politics.

58

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The insignificance of by-elections.

  2. ((b))

    By-elections are not of any significant consequence.

  3. ((c))

    Public's disinterest in by-elections.

  4. ((d))

    Significance of by-elections.

  5. ((e))

    Politicians' indifference in by-elections.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The insignificance of by-elections.

59

Which of the following is/are incorrect according to the given passage?

A. The Congress-led United Democratic Front (UDF) is the ruling party in Kerala.

B. Alaka Mohanty was the lone winner from the BJP in Odisha.

C. V.D. Satheesan is the opposition leader of Kerala.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Both B and C

  5. ((e))

    Only C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only A

60

According to the passage, who is the chief of Cong's Kerala unit?

  1. ((a))

    V.D. Satheesan

  2. ((b))

    P.T. Thomas

  3. ((c))

    K. Sudhakaran

  4. ((d))

    Pinarayi Vijayan

  5. ((e))

    Uma Thomas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V.D. Satheesan

61

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: ''The BJP has been _______ through a churn in the State, leading to the elevation of Mr. Dhami who was not an MLA, after the Assembly elections in February-March.''

  1. ((a))

    Gone

  2. ((b))

    Go

  3. ((c))

    Went

  4. ((d))

    Goes

  5. ((e))

    Going

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gone

62

In this question, a sentence (in bold) from the passage has been divided into five parts (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If there is no error, the answer is 'No error'. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

The by-poll (A)/ was necessitating (B)/ by the death of (C)/ the winner’s husband Kishore Mohanty. (D)/ No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

63

Select the word from the passage that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A place where a particular cause or belief is strongly defended or upheld

  1. ((a))

    Revived

  2. ((b))

    Slumber

  3. ((c))

    Stronghold

  4. ((d))

    Stayed

  5. ((e))

    Demise

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Revived

64

Choose the synonym of the word 'Humility'.

  1. ((a))

    Arrogance

  2. ((b))

    Diffidence

  3. ((c))

    Pride

  4. ((d))

    Hauteur

  5. ((e))

    Conceit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arrogance

65

Choose the antonym of the word 'Chaos'.

  1. ((a))

    Mayhem

  2. ((b))

    Havoc

  3. ((c))

    Order

  4. ((d))

    Bedlam

  5. ((e))

    Tumult

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mayhem

66

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the passage:

Stand up

  1. ((a))

    To be in or arise into a standing position.

  2. ((b))

    To fail to show up for a meeting or a date.

  3. ((c))

    To pull or place someone or something into a standing or upright position.

  4. ((d))

    To be a candidate in an election.

  5. ((e))

    To confront someone or something fearlessly.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To be in or arise into a standing position.

67

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the passage:

Do-or-die

  1. ((a))

    To make a last-ditch effort.

  2. ((b))

    To stop living.

  3. ((c))

    To become less loud or strong.

  4. ((d))

    To die one after another until few or none are left.

  5. ((e))

    To be forgotten.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To make a last-ditch effort.

Fill in the blank with appropriate words.

During the first lockdown last year, one of my (A) created a WhatsApp group. They had a (B): every day we send a photo. The catch? It had to be positive. I was grateful, very (C), for that chat. We soon failed to send a photo daily, but frequently something would appear, and I would receive an (D) into my friend’s world. It was a reassurance. Before I had even clicked on the latest photo I would find myself (E) — here was a friend, thinking of the rest of us. There was something in that alone.

The pandemic has encouraged reflection. We have turned inwards: stuck inside, and in our heads. With forced (F), for some, it has been a time to take stock. All the while, friends have been kept at a distance. How to be social when seeing your friends in person is discouraged (sometimes, illegal)? How have friendships (G) during the pandemic?

68

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank A.

  1. ((a))

    Friends

  2. ((b))

    Acquaintance

  3. ((c))

    Friend

  4. ((d))

    Well-wisher

  5. ((e))

    Friend's

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Friends

69

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank B.

  1. ((a))

    Condemnation

  2. ((b))

    Question

  3. ((c))

    Suggestion

  4. ((d))

    Solution

  5. ((e))

    Telling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Condemnation

70

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank C.

  1. ((a))

    Quick

  2. ((b))

    Quickly

  3. ((c))

    Quickness

  4. ((d))

    Slow

  5. ((e))

    Eventually

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quick

71

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank D.

  1. ((a))

    Ineptness

  2. ((b))

    Ignorance

  3. ((c))

    Inability

  4. ((d))

    Insightful

  5. ((e))

    Insight

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ineptness

72

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank E.

  1. ((a))

    Cheer

  2. ((b))

    Discouraged

  3. ((c))

    Depressed

  4. ((d))

    Cheered

  5. ((e))

    Saddened

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cheer

73

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank F.

  1. ((a))

    Isolation

  2. ((b))

    Accessibility

  3. ((c))

    Contact

  4. ((d))

    Socializing

  5. ((e))

    Camaraderie

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Isolation

74

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank G.

  1. ((a))

    Succumbed

  2. ((b))

    Weathered

  3. ((c))

    Deceased

  4. ((d))

    Expired

  5. ((e))

    Departed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Succumbed

75

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with phrase from the second column to make grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
A. Blue-green algae have been spotted at Snowdonia lake since MayD. of the 27-nation bloc, amid fury over the forced diversion of a passenger jet to arrest an opposition journalist.
B. Eiderdown is one of the warmest natural fibres on the planet, both light and highlyE. tropical storm to a hurricane with top winds of 80 mph (128 kph)as it crossed western Cuba and entered the Gulf of Mexico.
C. The European Union has agreed to impose sanctions against Belarus, including banning its airlines from using the airspace and airportsF. insulating, and is used to make some of the world's best duvets and quilts.
  1. ((a))

    B-F, C-D

  2. ((b))

    A-D, B-E

  3. ((c))

    B-F, C-E

  4. ((d))

    A-E, B-D

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B-F, C-D

76

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with phrase from the second column to make grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
A. Coal is the world's most harmful fuel and ending its use is seen as a necessary step by environmentalistsD. while the text is endorsed quickly by the world leaders who were determined to respond strongly to the incident.
B. The UN health agency has consistently called for vaccines to be distributed evenly around the worldE. even though a guarantee by rich countries to deliver on previous promises to help poorer nations cope with climate change.
C. Vultures not only keep our environment free ofF. carcasses but help control outbreaks of several diseases.
  1. ((a))

    A - E, B - D

  2. ((b))

    B - D, C - F

  3. ((c))

    A - D, B - E

  4. ((d))

    A - E, B - D, C - F

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - E, B - D

77

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with phrase from the second column to make grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
A. A cable car taking visitors to a mountaintop view of some of northern Italy’sD. relatively rare but doctors suspect that the sudden increase in the infection could further complicate India’s fight against the pandemic.
B. Scientists have unearthed a 43-million-year-old fossil of an extinctE. products claiming to be cures and preventions are on the rise.
C. China reopened a key terminal at the world's third-busiest cargo, after a shutdown toF. four-legged whale that once lived both on land and in the sea, making it amphibious.
  1. ((a))

    A - E, B - D

  2. ((b))

    C - E

  3. ((c))

    B - F, C - E

  4. ((d))

    B - F

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - E, B - D

78

In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B, and C in the first column and P, Q, and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentence can be formed. If none of the options makes it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
(A) Himanta Biswa, the face of the BJP in Northeast India(P) Delhi Metro services will be suspended
(B) Will be sworn in on Monday as the 15th CM of Assam.(Q) The decision to extend the lockdown has taken
(C) Delhi recorded 13,336 new COVID­19 cases(R) China rocket falls into the Indian Ocean
  1. ((a))

    A-R

  2. ((b))

    C-P

  3. ((c))

    B-Q

  4. ((d))

    A-P

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-R

79

Direction:- In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B, and C in the first column and P, Q,  and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentence can be formed. If none of the options makes it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

 

Column 1Column 2
(A) Their purpose and business models are different(P) He said he wasn’t going to listen
(B) With annual subscriptions reaching up to 40000rs(Q) Chances are you know somebody in your life
(C) And we cannot fault them for not reaching everyone(R) The accessibility of low-income group is limited
  1. ((a))

    A-Q

  2. ((b))

    B-P

  3. ((c))

    C-R

  4. ((d))

    B-R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-Q

80

Direction:- In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B, and C in the first column and P, Q,  and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentences can be formed. If none of the options makes it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1Column 2
(A) Readers wanted to see more pictures(P) This process of photoengraving was remarkably time-consuming
(B) The man who invented a solution to this problem(Q) But nobody could figure out how to print images quickly and cheaply
(C) In the 1870s, newspapers, and printers faced(R) A very specific and very costly problem
  1. ((a))

    A-Q

  2. ((b))

    C-R

  3. ((c))

    C-R and B-P

  4. ((d))

    A-Q and C-R

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-Q

81

In the following questions, a sentence is given with five words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) & (E). These words may or may not have been placed at their correct places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no change is required, mark ‘No arrangement required’ as your answer. 

hundreds(A)  as a substance is non-biodegradable bags(B) thus plastic polluting(C) remain in the environment for plastic(D) of years and(E) it immensely.

  1. ((a))

    ACDBE

  2. ((b))

    BACDE

  3. ((c))

    CADBE

  4. ((d))

    DEBAC

  5. ((e))

    No arrangement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACDBE

82

Directions: In the following questions, a sentence is given with five words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) & (E). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If there is no change required, mark ‘No rearrangement required’ as your answer.

Sport brings country (A) and natural (B) from across the witness (C) and the globe together—tennis, as a sport, has a communities (D) social distancing — so it’s great to people (E) it back in action.

  1. ((a))

    DEABC

  2. ((b))

    CEDAB

  3. ((c))

    BADCE

  4. ((d))

    DABCE

  5. ((e))

    No Rearrangement Required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DEABC

83

Directions: In the following questions, a sentence is given with five words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no change is required, mark 'No arrangement required’ as your answer.

During a cattle(A) of were(B), streams and rivers dried up, the drought(C) died from period(D) and thirst(E) ruined.

  1. ((a))

    ABCDE

  2. ((b))

    ACEBD

  3. ((c))

    CDEAB

  4. ((d))

    DCAEB

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ABCDE

84

Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

The net(A) saw the splashing(B) water and thought the Fishes had broken(C) through the fisherman(D) and that one had gone up the river.

  1. ((a))

    A-B

  2. ((b))

    B-C

  3. ((c))

    A-D

  4. ((d))

    A-C

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-B

85

Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

The golden deer herd(A) in a forest(B) and was king of a lived(C) of five hundred Banyan(D) Deer

  1. ((a))

    A-B

  2. ((b))

    B-C

  3. ((c))

    C-D

  4. ((d))

    A-C

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-B

86

Three sentences are given. You need to find if they are grammatically correct or incorrect and mark the answer accordingly.

(P)   I managed to bargain down to two dollars an hour, and then he brought from his house nearby a sort of large black box on wheels

(Q)  He had already made it his own task to find Oliver Lutkins for me.

(R)   At the end, he hit me on the shoulder and laughed, “Well, will give Brother Lutkins a little surprise.

  1. ((a))

    Only P is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Only Q is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both P and Q are incorrect.

  4. ((d))

    Only R is incorrect

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only P is incorrect

87

Three sentences are given. You need to find if they are grammatically correct or incorrect and mark the answer accordingly.

(P)  She was one of those pretty, young ladies, born as if through an error of destiny, into a family of clerks.

(Q) She had no dowry, no hopes, no means of becoming known, loved, and married by a man neither rich or distinguished.

(R)  She was distressed at the poverty of her dwelling, at the bareness of the walls, the shabby chairs and the ugliness of the curtains.

  1. ((a))

    Only P is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Only Q is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Only P and R are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Only R is incorrect

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only P is incorrect

88

Three sentences are given. You need to find if they are grammatically correct or incorrect and mark the answer accordingly.

(P)  He broke open boxes and wrappers and fitted himself out with warm clothes

(Q) Soon, with shoes, an overcoat, and a wide-brimmed hat, he became a fully dressed and visible person.

(R) If only Griffin had managed to wake up in good time all may have been well.

  1. ((a))

    Only P is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Only Q is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both P and Q are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Only R is incorrect

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only P is incorrect

89

Three sentences are given. You need to find if they are grammatically correct or incorrect and mark the answer accordingly.

(P) The bewildered boys had been following a scientist who had just discovered how to make the human body transparent

(Q) Griffin, the scientist, had carried out experiment after experiment to prove the human body could become invisible

(R) Finally, he swallowed certain rare drugs and his body became as transparent as a sheet of glass.

  1. ((a))

    Only P is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Only Q is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both Q and R are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Both P and Q are incorrect

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only P is incorrect

90

Three sentences are given. You need to find if they are grammatically correct or incorrect and mark the answer accordingly.

(P) He made locks and was successful enough at his business to have two helpers.

(Q) Fifteen years ago, Horace served his first and only sentence in a prison library.

(R) Each year he planned carefully just what he would do, stole enough to last for twelve months, and secretly bought the books he loved thorough an agent.

  1. ((a))

    Only P is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Only Q is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both P and Q is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Only R is incorrect

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only P is incorrect

Computer Knowledge (20 questions)

91

In Windows, CTRL + V is used for 

  1. ((a))

    for copying an item 

  2. ((b))

    for opening a document 

  3. ((c))

    for selecting a document 

  4. ((d))

    for pasting a copied item 

  5. ((e))

    for closing the window

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

for copying an item 

92

To add a transition to the current slide in PowerPoint, which tool do you have to select?

  1. ((a))

    Insert

  2. ((b))

    Animations

  3. ((c))

    Design

  4. ((d))

    Slideshow

  5. ((e))

    Review

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Insert

93

Which of the following tabs is used to edit the header and footer in PowerPoint?

  1. ((a))

    Home

  2. ((b))

    Insert

  3. ((c))

    Design

  4. ((d))

    Slideshow

  5. ((e))

    View

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Home

94

What is the file extension of Excel Binary Workbook?

  1. ((a))

    .xlsm

  2. ((b))

    .xlsb

  3. ((c))

    .xlst

  4. ((d))

    .xlam

  5. ((e))

    .ex

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

.xlsm

95

What is the shortcut key for the "insert function" dialog box in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Shift + F3

  2. ((b))

    Shift + F1

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + Shift + F3

  4. ((d))

    Shift + F5

  5. ((e))

    Ctrl +F3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shift + F3

96

For adding border and shadding to page for making the page effective and affective, we can click on______tab.

  1. ((a))

    Home Tab

  2. ((b))

    Insert Tab

  3. ((c))

    Review Tab

  4. ((d))

    View tab

  5. ((e))

    Data Tab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Home Tab

97

Wide Area Network (WAN) has an inter-processor distance of ________.

  1. ((a))

    100 km

  2. ((b))

    1000 km

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    10000 km

  5. ((e))

    1 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 km

98

Which of the following is an application software?

  1. ((a))

    Windows-8

  2. ((b))

    Windows - XP

  3. ((c))

    Windows Win

  4. ((d))

    Microsoft Excel

  5. ((e))

    Control Panel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Windows-8

99

A complete operating system that works on a desktop computer, notebook computer, or a mobile computing device is called _______ operating system.

  1. ((a))

    Stand-alone

  2. ((b))

    Real time

  3. ((c))

    Server

  4. ((d))

    Mobile

  5. ((e))

    Linux

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stand-alone

100

Which of the following is/are a computer virus?

  1. ((a))

    Le-Hard

  2. ((b))

    Key logger

  3. ((c))

    Trojans

  4. ((d))

    All of these

  5. ((e))

    Only 1 and 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Le-Hard

101

A byte can hold one _______ of data.

  1. ((a))

    bit

  2. ((b))

    binary digit

  3. ((c))

    character

  4. ((d))

    numeric

  5. ((e))

    None of These

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

bit

102

Which of the following acts as temporary high speed holding area between the memory and the CPU thereby improving processing capabilities?

  1. ((a))

    ROM

  2. ((b))

    RAM

  3. ((c))

    Temporary memory

  4. ((d))

    Cache memory

  5. ((e))

    Flash memory

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ROM

103

If the user wants to delete a folder in the disk operating system, he will use the ________ command.

  1. ((a))

    REN

  2. ((b))

    DEL

  3. ((c))

    CD

  4. ((d))

    MD

  5. ((e))

    DELTREE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

REN

104

The term_______ refers to an individual, who breaks into computer systems without authorization, deliberately defaces Web sites for fraudulent purpose.

  1. ((a))

    white hat

  2. ((b))

    hacker

  3. ((c))

    cracker

  4. ((d))

    stacker

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

white hat

105

What is the term used to refer to the connection where devices are connected together for exchange of information or resources.

  1. ((a))

    Network

  2. ((b))

    Router

  3. ((c))

    Server

  4. ((d))

    Tunnel

  5. ((e))

    Pipeline

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Network

106

The ability to read or write each piece of information in a storage device in approximately the same length of time regardless of its location is _______.

  1. ((a))

    Sequential Access

  2. ((b))

    Random Access

  3. ((c))

    Raster scan

  4. ((d))

    Search

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sequential Access

107

First super-computer of India is

  1. ((a))

    CRAY3

  2. ((b))

    HITAC S-300

  3. ((c))

    PARAM

  4. ((d))

    ARYABHATA

  5. ((e))

    Shakti PARAM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CRAY3

108

For transmitting data between electronic devices, ______ is a set of rules and procedures.

  1. ((a))

    Domain

  2. ((b))

    Protocol

  3. ((c))

    IP Address

  4. ((d))

    Gateway

  5. ((e))

    Host

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Domain

109

The memory management technique that used RAM and hard disk space to provide dedicated memory space for each program is known as

  1. ((a))

    Cache memory

  2. ((b))

    Virtual memory

  3. ((c))

    Read only memory

  4. ((d))

    Flash memory

  5. ((e))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cache memory

110

What should be entered in the run command in order to open a Microsoft word document?

  1. ((a))

    MSWord

  2. ((b))

    OfficeWord

  3. ((c))

    Word

  4. ((d))

    Winword

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MSWord

General Awareness (40 questions)

111

In April 2022, the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders launched ________, the last of the six submarines under Project 75.

  1. ((a))

    INS Vela

  2. ((b))

    INS Vagsheer

  3. ((c))

    INS Kalvari

  4. ((d))

    INS Vagir

  5. ((e))

    INS Karang

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

INS Vela

112

Recently, _____________ has been appointed as the vice-chairperson of federal policy think tank, NITI Aayog w.e.f 1 May, 2022.

  1. ((a))

    Naomi Kawase

  2. ((b))

    Vikram Dev Dutt

  3. ((c))

    Suman Bery

  4. ((d))

    Sanjay Malhotra

  5. ((e))

    Urjit Patel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Naomi Kawase

113

Who amongst the following has recently been appointed as the chairman of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA)?

  1. ((a))

    Sanjeev Sanyal

  2. ((b))

    Ajay Bhushan Pandey

  3. ((c))

    Paritosh Singh

  4. ((d))

    Pooja Mehra

  5. ((e))

    Mayank Bhushan Pandey

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sanjeev Sanyal

114

The government has set the foodgrain production target for the crop year 2022-23 at a record level of __________ on the heels of good monsoon rains.

  1. ((a))

    316 million tonnes

  2. ((b))

    323 million tonnes

  3. ((c))

    328 million tonnes

  4. ((d))

    335 million tonnes

  5. ((e))

    350 million tonnes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

316 million tonnes

115

Which of the following groups of countries is/are members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?

  1. ((a))

    ​Iran, Iraq, Kuwait and India

  2. ((b))

    Iran, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela

  3. ((c))

    USA, China, Kuwait and India

  4. ((d))

    USA, China, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela

  5. ((e))

    Kuwait , India, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

​Iran, Iraq, Kuwait and India

116

Nelson Mandela was awarded Bharat Ratna in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1988

  2. ((b))

    1990

  3. ((c))

    1992

  4. ((d))

    1993

  5. ((e))

    1995

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1988

117

In which year 'Project Tiger' was launched in India?

  1. ((a))

    In 1989

  2. ((b))

    In 1985

  3. ((c))

    In 1973

  4. ((d))

    In 1976

  5. ((e))

    None of the above/ More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In 1989

118

As per the Hurun Global Healthcare Rich List of 2022, who is the world’s richest billionaire in the healthcare sector in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Thomas Frist Jr

  2. ((b))

    Cyrus Poonawalla

  3. ((c))

    Dilip Shanghvi

  4. ((d))

    Li Xiting and Xu Hang

  5. ((e))

    Adar Poonawalla

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thomas Frist Jr

119

In Feb 2021, NASA’s Perseverance rover successfully touched down the surface of which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Venus

  2. ((b))

    Moon

  3. ((c))

    Mars

  4. ((d))

    Mercury

  5. ((e))

    Jupiter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Venus

120

As per the Union Budget 2022, the Scheduled Commercial Banks will set up how many new Digital Banking Units (DBUs)?

  1. ((a))

    50 DBUs

  2. ((b))

    65DBUs

  3. ((c))

    70DBUs

  4. ((d))

    75DBUs

  5. ((e))

    80DBUs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50 DBUs

121

Which Indian actor/actress has launched her first book “Mrs. Funny bones”?

  1. ((a))

    Twinkle Khanna

  2. ((b))

    Akshay Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Amitabh Bachchan

  4. ((d))

    Hema Malini

  5. ((e))

    Divya Dutta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Twinkle Khanna

122

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was organised which was 36th edition of  ___________ from 26-30 April 2022.

  1. ((a))

    SWAAD

  2. ((b))

    SWAAD FAIR

  3. ((c))

    AAHAR

  4. ((d))

    FOODFAIR

  5. ((e))

    AAHARFAIR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SWAAD

123

Which Indian bowler has been named among five players in Wisden's 'Cricketers of the Year' in the 2022 edition of the Almanack?

  1. ((a))

    Mohammad Shami

  2. ((b))

    Umesh Yadav

  3. ((c))

    Ishant Sharma

  4. ((d))

    Jasprit Bumrah

  5. ((e))

    Ravichandran Ashwin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mohammad Shami

124

The Central Information Commission has ruled that the disclosure of the identity of electoral bond scheme donors will not serve any larger public interest. Which among the following is the lead body for implementing the Right to Information Act? (Dec)

  1. ((a))

    NITI Aayog

  2. ((b))

    FICCI

  3. ((c))

    Central Information Commission

  4. ((d))

    National Human Rights Commission of India

  5. ((e))

    Competition Commission of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NITI Aayog

125

For which among languages are not specified in the 8th schedule of the Indian constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Awadhi 

  2. ((b))

    Bodo

  3. ((c))

    Dogri

  4. ((d))

    Maithili 

  5. ((e))

    Santali

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Awadhi 

126

Which of the following companies has recently become as one of official sponsor for FIFA Qatar World Cup 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Upgrad

  2. ((b))

    Byju's

  3. ((c))

    Unacademy

  4. ((d))

    Cred

  5. ((e))

    Rupay

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Upgrad

127

In a bid to boost India's exports, the Union Cabinet will invest how many rupees (in crores) in ECGC for five years to provide support to exporters as well as banks?

  1. ((a))

    2,400

  2. ((b))

    3,200

  3. ((c))

    4,400

  4. ((d))

    5,900

  5. ((e))

    1,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2,400

128

Which of the following organisations provides guarantee to the exports?

  1. ((a))

    Exim Bank

  2. ((b))

    Export Credit Guarantee Corporation

  3. ((c))

    Director General Foreign Trade

  4. ((d))

    Reserve Bank of India

  5. ((e))

    Register of Companies

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Exim Bank

129

In which year was the Nestle company founded ?

  1. ((a))

    1866

  2. ((b))

    1900

  3. ((c))

    1904

  4. ((d))

    1851

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1866

130

UK banking giant HSBC has announced that it will keep its headquarters at ____

  1. ((a))

    Singapore

  2. ((b))

    London

  3. ((c))

    Hong Kong

  4. ((d))

    Paris

  5. ((e))

    Kuala Lumpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Singapore

131

In August 2021, who launched the National Monetisation pipeline?

  1. ((a))

    Narendra Modi

  2. ((b))

    Nirmala Sitharaman

  3. ((c))

    Rajnath Singh

  4. ((d))

    Piyush Goyal

  5. ((e))

    Ram Nath Kovind

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Narendra Modi

132

The Supreme Court banned the sale and registration of motor vehicles conforming to the emission standard Bharat Stage-IV in the entire country from ________.

  1. ((a))

    2019

  2. ((b))

    2020

  3. ((c))

    2021

  4. ((d))

    2022

  5. ((e))

    2023

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2019

133

In April 2022, “Twitter Inc. has appointed Tesla CEO, Elon Musk to the company’s board of directors”. He holds what percent of stake in the company?

  1. ((a))

    Five Percent

  2. ((b))

    Nine Percent

  3. ((c))

    Ten Percent

  4. ((d))

    Twelve Percent

  5. ((e))

    Fourteen Percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five Percent

134

What is the rank of India on the 17 Sustainable Development Goals adopted as a part of the agenda 2030?

  1. ((a))

    117

  2. ((b))

    118

  3. ((c))

    119

  4. ((d))

    120

  5. ((e))

    121

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

117

135

How many types of  Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) can be issued by the Banks?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Five

  3. ((c))

    Six

  4. ((d))

    Eight

  5. ((e))

    Seven

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

136

The Reserve Bank of India extended the card-on-file (CoF) tokenization deadline to which of the following months?

  1. ((a))

    March 2022

  2. ((b))

    February 2022

  3. ((c))

    June 2022

  4. ((d))

    May 2022

  5. ((e))

    September 2022

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

March 2022

137

The government of India reopens the application window for Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for White Goods (ACs and LED Lights) from 10th March to 25th April 2022 to give second chance to prospective investors to take benefits of the Scheme. How many sectors are there in Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    14 Sectors

  2. ((b))

    15 Sectors

  3. ((c))

    13 Sectors

  4. ((d))

    16 Sectors

  5. ((e))

    18 Sectors

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14 Sectors

138

RBI has  increased the limit for banks LCR on funds received for NBFCs to…

  1. ((a))

    7.5 crore

  2. ((b))

    7 crore

  3. ((c))

    6.5 crore

  4. ((d))

    6 crore

  5. ((e))

    5 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7.5 crore

139

Government has permitted up to how much percent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) under automatic route in Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    25

  5. ((e))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

140

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced the prompt corrective action (PCA) framework for non-banking financial companies (NBFCs). The PCA framework for NBFCs will come into effect from which month?

  1. ((a))

    January 2022

  2. ((b))

    March 2022

  3. ((c))

    July 2022

  4. ((d))

    October 2022

  5. ((e))

    December 2022

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

January 2022

141

Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) launched STARS scheme to fund science projects. What does 'A' stand for in STARS?

  1. ((a))

    Action

  2. ((b))

    According

  3. ((c))

    Advanced

  4. ((d))

    Allow

  5. ((e))

    Ability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Action

142

As per the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, the combined Index of eight core Industries has increased by what percent in January 2022?

  1. ((a))

    2.7 percent

  2. ((b))

    3.7 percent

  3. ((c))

    3.1 percent

  4. ((d))

    3.8 percent

  5. ((e))

    4.9 percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.7 percent

143

ESOP stand for-

  1. ((a))

    Efficient Service of Promises

  2. ((b))

    Effective System of Projects

  3. ((c))

    Employee Stock Option Plan

  4. ((d))

    Essential Security of Project

  5. ((e))

    Equity Stock Option Plan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Efficient Service of Promises

144

In July 2021, Gift-City regulator IFSCA set up an expert committee to recommend an approach towards development of the Longevity Finance Hub. The IFSCA is headquartered in which city?

  1. ((a))

    Gurugram

  2. ((b))

    New Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Gandhinagar

  5. ((e))

    Ahmedabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gurugram

145

The Mahabalipuram Temple, which is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site is located in ________.

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    Telangana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karnataka

146

Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?

  1. ((a))

    Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency

  2. ((b))

    International Finance Corporation

  3. ((c))

    International center for Settlement of Investment Disputes

  4. ((d))

    Bank for International Settlements 

  5. ((e))

    None of the above.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency

147

Where is Valley of Flowers National Park situated?

  1. ((a))

    Jammu & Kashmir

  2. ((b))

    Ladakh

  3. ((c))

    Uttarakhand

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh

  5. ((e))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jammu & Kashmir

148

Jamshedpur is situated on the banks of which river?

  1. ((a))

    Damodar

  2. ((b))

    Brahmani

  3. ((c))

    Subarnarekha

  4. ((d))

    Ajay

  5. ((e))

    Ganga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Damodar

149

When did India test its first atomic bomb?

  1. ((a))

    1981

  2. ((b))

    1969

  3. ((c))

    1976

  4. ((d))

    1974

  5. ((e))

    1975

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1981

150

Who has written the play 'Merchant of Venice'?

  1. ((a))

    William Shakespeare

  2. ((b))

    William Wordsworth

  3. ((c))

    Robert Frost

  4. ((d))

    Robert De Niro

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

William Shakespeare

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

151

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

500, 250, 125, 62.5, ?

  1. ((a))

    10.5

  2. ((b))

    31.25

  3. ((c))

    25.5

  4. ((d))

    31.5

  5. ((e))

    15.25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10.5

152

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

5, 25, 7, ?, 9, 19

  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    32

  5. ((e))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21

Directions: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

153

18, 29, 42, 53, ?, 77

  1. ((a))

    63

  2. ((b))

    64

  3. ((c))

    65

  4. ((d))

    66

  5. ((e))

    67

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

63

154

18, 8, 6, 9, 32, ?

  1. ((a))

    248

  2. ((b))

    254

  3. ((c))

    251

  4. ((d))

    257

  5. ((e))

    260

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

248

155

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

8, 4.5, 5.5, 13, ?, 456

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    55

  4. ((d))

    56

  5. ((e))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45

156

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 + 3x – 28 = 0

II. 6y2 + 5y – 6 = 0

  1. ((a))

    If x > y

  2. ((b))

    If x < y

  3. ((c))

    If x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    If x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    If x = y or no relation can be established. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If x > y

157

Direction∶ In the following question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

I. x² + 4x - 221 = 0

II. y2 - 6y - 187 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relation cannot be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

158

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 3x2 + 7x + 4 = 0

II. 3y2 + 4y + 1 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or no relationship could be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

159

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 2x2 + 5x – 3 = 0

II. 2y2 + 7y – 4 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or no relationship could be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

160

What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

59.67% of 200 - 9.89% of 100 = ? - 25% of 700

  1. ((a))

    215

  2. ((b))

    285

  3. ((c))

    315

  4. ((d))

    265

  5. ((e))

    325

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

215

161

What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(5.96)3 - (2.14)5 + (4)2 = (10)? × 2

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

162

What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

100.98 - ? = 150.04 - 49.99

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

163

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

12.5% of 512.04 + 37.5% of 95.99 = ?2

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    40

  5. ((e))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

Direction: Study the following table given below carefully and answer the question based on it. These are the marks scored by 4 students in 3 different subjects.

Student namePhysicsChemistryMaths
Sumit705060
Lakshmi806075
Lakhan759060
Krishna508070
164

What is average number scored by lakhan in all the subjects?

  1. ((a))

    70

  2. ((b))

    85

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    80

  5. ((e))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

70

165

Ratio of marks scored by sumit and Lakshmi together in math to the marks scored by lakhan and Krishna in chemistry together is?

  1. ((a))

    27 : 34

  2. ((b))

    2 : 9

  3. ((c))

    11 : 19

  4. ((d))

    18 : 17

  5. ((e))

    23 : 31

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27 : 34

166

Find out among all the students who got highest marks?

  1. ((a))

    Sumit

  2. ((b))

    Lakshmi

  3. ((c))

    lakhan

  4. ((d))

    Krishna

  5. ((e))

    Can’t be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sumit

167

Find out that total marks scored by sumit is how much percent less/more than total marks scored by Krishna?

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    30%

  4. ((d))

    50%

  5. ((e))

    25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

168

If passing marks is 60% and maximum marks is 100 how many students fail in any one or more subject.

  1. ((a))

    none

  2. ((b))

    one

  3. ((c))

    two

  4. ((d))

    three

  5. ((e))

    four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

none

Directions: The following line graph shows the percentage of tank “G” filled/emptied by 6 different Pipes (A1, A2, A3, A4, A5 and A6) in 1 hours.

169

Pipes A1, A2 and A3 are used to fill the tank and pipes A4, A5 and A6 are used to empty the tank. Initially pipe A2 is opened, after an hour pipe A1 is opened and after another hour all remaining pipes are opened. In what time tank has been emptied since it started filling, if the tank was initially empty?

  1. ((a))

    4 hrs

  2. ((b))

    4 hrs 16 min

  3. ((c))

    4 hrs 20 min

  4. ((d))

    3 hrs 48 min

  5. ((e))

    2 hrs 20 min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 hrs

170

Pipe P is 3 times as efficient as pipe A2, pipe Q is 2 times as efficient as pipe P and pipe R is 2 times efficient than pipe A4. If pipe P and Q are used to fill the tank and pipes R, A2 and A4 are used to empty the tank, in how many hours the empty tank G will be filled completely if all pipes are opened simultaneously?

  1. ((a))

    4 hrs

  2. ((b))

    5 hrs

  3. ((c))

    6 hrs

  4. ((d))

    4.5 hrs

  5. ((e))

    2.5 hrs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 hrs

171

If time required for pipe A1 to fill/empty tank ‘H’ of capacity 10000L is 10 hours, then what percent of tank ‘I’ of volume 40000L will be filled by pipes A2 and A3 together in 5 hours?

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    31.25%

  3. ((c))

    36%

  4. ((d))

    42%

  5. ((e))

    43%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30%

172

If pipes A1, A4 and A5 are used to fill the tank and pipes A2 and A3 are used to empty the tank, then in how many hours will they fill the tank ‘J’ of volume 1000L ?

  1. ((a))

    1 hrs

  2. ((b))

    4 hrs

  3. ((c))

    2.5hrs

  4. ((d))

    5 hrs

  5. ((e))

    Can’t be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 hrs

173

Pipe A3 is used to fill the tank for 33.6 minutes, pipe A5 is used to fill the tank for 108 minutes and remaining tanks are filled by pipe A2 alone, then for how much time pipe A2 is used to fill the tank completely ? (Calculate for tank “G”)

  1. ((a))

    1.5 hrs

  2. ((b))

    2 hrs

  3. ((c))

    2.5hrs

  4. ((d))

    3 hrs

  5. ((e))

    3.5 hrs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.5 hrs

Direction: Refer to the pie chart given below.

The following pie charts show distribution of expense to construct a building. Total cost of construction is Rs 900000.

174

What is the amount spent on Labour?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,80,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5,40,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 3,60,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2,70,000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1,80,000

175

Difference of amount spent on steel to the amount spent on the sand is what percentage of the total cost of construction?

  1. ((a))

    15%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    8%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15%

176

What is percentage amount spent on Brick, Labour and other work to the total cost of construction?

  1. ((a))

    65%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    10%

  4. ((d))

    50%

  5. ((e))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

65%

177

The amount spent on labour is how much more than the amount spent on other work.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,00,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2,40,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,80,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3,60,000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1,00,000

178

What is the total amount spent on Brick, Sand and cement.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2,70,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5,40,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,80,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3,60,000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 2,70,000

Direction: Read the information carefully and answer the following questions:

In a society election, four candidates participated - A, B, C and D, a total of 1600 votes were cast and A has won the election. A got 345 male votes and B got 120 female votes. C got 80 votes less than the total votes of A and the ratio of male and female votes of C is 3: 1. D has got a total of 450 votes, out of which 250 are male votes and the female votes of B is 40% of the male votes of C.

179

Find the number of female votes won by A.

  1. ((a))

    135

  2. ((b))

    125

  3. ((c))

    115

  4. ((d))

    105

  5. ((e))

    145

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

135

180

The number of female votes won by C is what percent less than the number of male votes won by D?

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    50%

  3. ((c))

    60%

  4. ((d))

    70%

  5. ((e))

    80%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40%

181

Find the ratio of number of female votes won by D to that won by B.

  1. ((a))

    5 : 2

  2. ((b))

    3 : 5

  3. ((c))

    5 : 3

  4. ((d))

    3 : 2

  5. ((e))

    1 : 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 : 2

182

What is the difference between the male and female votes won by B?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    30

  5. ((e))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

183

Find the average number of female votes won by B, C and D.

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    110

  3. ((c))

    120

  4. ((d))

    130

  5. ((e))

    140

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

184

Manoj reaches his office 6 minutes late, walking at a speed of 5 km/hr and he reaches there 2 minutes early when walking at 6 km/hr then find the distance of his office from home. 

  1. ((a))

    4 km 

  2. ((b))

    5 km 

  3. ((c))

    6 km 

  4. ((d))

    7 km 

  5. ((e))

    None of the above/More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 km 

185

Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 hours and 30 hours respectively, whereas pipe C alone can empty the full tank in 10 hours. Pipes A and B are opened together for 3123\frac{1}{2} hours and then closed. If pipe C is opened, It will empty the tank in:

  1. ((a))

    2 hours 15 minutes

  2. ((b))

    2 hours

  3. ((c))

    2 hours 55 minutes

  4. ((d))

    2 hours 45 minutes

  5. ((e))

    None of the above/More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 hours 15 minutes

186

A card is drawn at random from a pack of cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a king?

  1. ((a))

    152\dfrac{1}{52}

  2. ((b))

    113\dfrac{1}{13}

  3. ((c))

    413\dfrac{4}{13}

  4. ((d))

    415\dfrac{4}{15}

  5. ((e))

    Answer not known

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

152\dfrac{1}{52}

187

A cricketer’s average runs of 10 innings was 32. How many more runs he should make in his next inning so that his average increases by 4 runs?

  1. ((a))

    60

  2. ((b))

    66

  3. ((c))

    76

  4. ((d))

    50

  5. ((e))

    None of the above/More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60

188

Ram marked the price of an article by 25% more and then gave a discount of 10% to a customer. Find the price at which he sold the article if its cost is Rs. 5000.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 5625

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5500

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 5275

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 6250

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 6000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 5625

189

A man, a woman and a boy received Rs. 4900 as wages for 7 days for the work they did together. If the efficiency of the man is double the woman and efficiency of woman is double the boy, then find daily wages of boy.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 100

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 150

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 75

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 50

  5. ((e))

    None of the above/More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 100

190

The area of a square is 1225 sq. cm whose side is five times of the radius of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to the length of the rectangle. If the area of the rectangle is 924 sq. cm, then, find the breadth of the rectangle?

  1. ((a))

    21 cm

  2. ((b))

    20 cm

  3. ((c))

    25 cm

  4. ((d))

    28 cm

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21 cm

191

Priya and Mahi enter into a partnership with their capital in the ratio of 5 : 13. At the end of 6 month, Mahi withdrew her capital. If they receive the profits in the ratio of 25 : 26 then find how long is Priya capital used.

  1. ((a))

    18months

  2. ((b))

    13months

  3. ((c))

    15months

  4. ((d))

    12months

  5. ((e))

    16months

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18months

192

Sachin marked an article 20% above the cost price and sold it for Rs. 4,896 after giving some discount. Find the discount% if the cost of article is Rs. 5,100.

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    24%

  3. ((c))

    18%

  4. ((d))

    25%

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

193

Directions: Each of the questions given below consists of a question and 2 statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data is sufficient to answer the question. Read both Statements carefully and then answer the questions.

At present, the age of Roger is 1 / 3rd of the age of Andy then what are their ages?

Statement I. The ratio of their ages will become 5 : 11 after 10 years.

Statement II. 5 years ago, the age of Roger was 25% of the age of Andy.

  1. ((a))

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

194

The following question is accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

What will be the sum of two numbers?

Statement I. The smaller number is 12 less than the average of two numbers.

Statement II. The ratio between half of the bigger number to one-third of the average of the numbers is 27 : 14.

  1. ((a))

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

195

Directions: Each of the questions given below consists of a question and 2 statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data is sufficient to answer the question. Read both Statements carefully and then answer the question.

Find the distance traveled by Somnath Express in two hours if it travels with its original speed?

Statement I. The train started from the origin station 20 hours later than the scheduled time towards the destination which is 800 km away from the origin station.

Statement II. To reach the destination station in the scheduled time the speed is increased to 120% of the original speed.

  1. ((a))

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

196

Two persons, Amar and Balram together can do a piece of work in 15 days. Balram is 75% as efficient as Amar. 

Quantity I: If they work on an alternate day, starting with Amar then how many days will they take to complete 75% of the work? 

Quantity II: How many days, Balram alone will take to complete 50% of the total work?

Then which of the following is true?

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

197

Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity I: Find the amount on compound interest on a sum of Rs.625000 at the rate of 25% per annum after three years.

Quantity II: Find the simple interest on a sum of Rs.10000 at the rate 15% per annum after 5 years.

  1. ((a))

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  2. ((b))

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  3. ((c))

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  4. ((d))

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  5. ((e))

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

198

Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Quantity A: A student have to secure 40% marks to pass the exam. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. Find the maximum marks.

Quantity B: 500

  1. ((a))

    Quantity A > Quantity B

  2. ((b))

    Quantity A < Quantity B

  3. ((c))

    Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

  4. ((d))

    Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

  5. ((e))

    Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quantity A > Quantity B

199

A boat takes 30 min more to travel 156 km upstream than to travel the same distance in downstream. If the speed of the boat is 25 km/h what is the speed of the stream?

  1. ((a))

    5 km/h

  2. ((b))

    1 km/h

  3. ((c))

    4 km/h

  4. ((d))

    2 km/h

  5. ((e))

    0.75 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 km/h

200

Train A runs at the speed of 50 km/h and leaves the station 5 hours after the train B left and overtakes it in 7.5 hours. What is the speed of train B?

  1. ((a))

    20 km/h

  2. ((b))

    40 km/h

  3. ((c))

    60 km/h

  4. ((d))

    30 km/h

  5. ((e))

    50 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 km/h

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