DSSSB TGT (Maths) Official Paper (Held On: 14 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The code for each letter is shown below:

Clearly, 1 is the number for the letter A.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

According to the given conditions:

Tejas starts at Point O and drives 30 km towards the south.

He then takes a left turn and drives for 15 km, and then takes a left turn and drives for 20 km.

He then takes a right turn and drives for 12 km. He then finally takes a left turn and drives for 10 km to reach point X.

Thus, he has to drive 27 km towards the west;

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is EMQ.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

For NKOL to SPTQ

For HEIF to MJNK

The common pattern is a constant shift of +5 for each letter in the group.

Applying the same logic to LIMJ:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The given three-digit numbers are:

504, 398, 637, 713, 483

The largest number in the series is 713.

The first digit of the largest number (713) is 7.

The smallest number in the series is 398.

The first digit of the smallest number (398) is 3.

Add the two digits.

= 7 + 3 = 10.

Thus, the resulting number is 10.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. All pears are monks - True (Because, All pears are cameras, all cameras are nuts and all nuts are monks, so all pears are definitely monks).

II. Some monks are cameras - True (Because, All cameras are nuts and all nuts are monks, so all cameras are monks, which implies some monks are cameras).

So, Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4;

The pattern followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the sequence is MC 60.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

420 × 16 ÷ 20 − 40 + 10 = ?

By using the BODMAS rule:

By decoding the given symbols we get:

Substituting the given operators in the expression:

⇒ 420 × 16 ÷ 20 − 40 + 10

⇒ 420 − 16 × 20 + (40 ÷ 10)

⇒ 420 − 16 × 20 + 4

⇒ 420 + 4 − 320

⇒ 424 − 320

⇒ 104

Hence, the correct answer is ‘Option 2’.

Given:

Pritam's rank from the top = 21^st

Pritam's rank from the bottom = 9^th

Total Number of Students = (Rank from Top + Rank from Bottom) - 1

= (21 + 9) - 1

= 30 - 1

Total Number of Students = 29

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 156.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3";

The logic follows here is:

Logic: First Number - 14 = Second Number

For the first pair (95 : 81):

95 - 14 = 81

For the second pair (72 : 58):

72 - 14 = 58

For the third pair (83 : ?):

83 - 14 = 69

Thus, 83 is related to 69 following the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed in this pattern is based on the positional values of the English alphabet (A=1, B=2, ..., Z=26).

For 'MQN':

For 'HLI':

For 'DHE':

For 'NRP':

In 'NRP', the pattern is +4 followed by -2.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is NRP.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The given interchange rules are: ‘+’ ↔ ‘−’ and ‘×’ ↔ ‘÷’.

The original equation: 39 − 24 ÷ 5 + 60 × 15 = ?

After applying the interchange rules to the whole equation, the new equation is:

39 + 24 × 5 − 60 ÷ 15 = ?

Apply the BODMAS rule:

= 39 + 24 × 5 − 60 ÷ 15

= 39 + 24 × 5 − 4

= 39 + 120 − 4

= 159 − 4

= 155

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

1. A and B - 'A and B are married'. 

2. B and N - 'B is the father of N'.

3. N, M, and T - 'N is the mother of T' and 'M is the son of N'. This means M and T are siblings.

4. T and J - 'T is the wife of J'.

Since T is female (wife of J) and M is the son of N, T is the Sister of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic follows here is:

Logic: (Number × 2) - 2 = Second number

For the first pair (5 : 8):

(5 × 2) - 2

= 10 - 2 = 8

For the second pair (7 : 12):

(7 × 2) - 2

= 14 - 2 = 12

For the third pair (11 : ?):

(11 × 2) - 2

= 22 - 2 = 20

Thus, 11 is related to 20 following the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Statement I: Even after reducing prices, very few tourists visited the city.

Statement II: Roads are damaged and connectivity (railway/airport) is poor.

Poor connectivity makes travel difficult, which directly discourages tourists from visiting, even if prices are low.

Statement II (bad roads & connectivity issues) → cause

Statement I (low tourist turnout) → effect

Thus, Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Six boxes (A, B, C, D, E, F) are stacked one above the other. 

1) E is kept second from the top.

2) C is kept immediately above E.

3) B is kept immediately below E.

4) Only two boxes are kept between B and D.

5) Only three boxes are kept between A and C.

6) A is kept immediately below F.

Final Arrangement:

Thus, only Box A (at position 2) is between them.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given three-digit numbers are:

782, 269, 415, 514, 492

The largest number in the series is 782.

The second digit of the largest number (782) is 8.

The smallest number in the series is 269.

The first digit of the smallest number (269) is 2.

Add the two digits.

= 8 + 2 = 10.

Thus, the resulting number is 10.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Seven people A, B, I, J, K, L, and O are sitting in a straight line, facing north.

No one sits to the right of L means L is at the extreme right end.

Only three people sit between L and A.

(North facing)

Only two people sit between A and O.

K sits third to the left of B and I sits to the immediate right of B.

(North facing)

3 people sit between J and O (A, B, and I).

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4;

The logic followed in this pattern is based on the positional values of the English alphabet.

For 'GIK':

For 'PSV':

For 'DFH':

For 'KMO':

In all clusters except 'PSV', the difference between consecutive letters is +2. In 'PSV', the difference is +3.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is PSV.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Calcium.

Key Points

• Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a widely used spice and medicinal plant known for its nutritional and therapeutic properties. It naturally contains several important minerals, vitamins, and bioactive compounds that support human health.
• Among the given options, Calcium is a naturally occurring essential mineral present in ginger. Calcium plays an important role in bone development, muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and enzyme activity in the human body.
• Ginger contains various nutrients including calcium, magnesium, potassium, phosphorus, iron, and vitamin C. These minerals contribute to its use in traditional medicine and modern nutritional supplements.
• Lead, Mercury, and Arsenic are toxic heavy metals. These elements are not naturally present in edible plants in beneficial quantities and may appear only due to environmental contamination, polluted soil, or industrial pollution. Therefore, they are not considered natural nutritional components of ginger.
• Because ginger naturally contains Calcium as a beneficial mineral that contributes to its nutritional and medicinal value, the correct answer is Calcium.

Additional Information

• Ginger (Zingiber officinale):
• Ginger is a rhizome (underground stem) belonging to the Zingiberaceae family.
• It originated in South-East Asia and is widely cultivated in countries like India, China, Nigeria, and Indonesia.
• India is one of the largest producers of ginger, especially in states like Kerala, Karnataka, Meghalaya, and Assam.
• Nutritional Composition of Ginger:
• Ginger contains important nutrients such as calcium, potassium, magnesium, iron, zinc, and phosphorus.
• It also includes bioactive compounds like gingerol, shogaol, and zingerone, which provide anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties.
• These compounds help in improving digestion, reducing nausea, and boosting immunity.
• Role of Calcium in the Human Body:
• Calcium is the most abundant mineral in the human body.
• Nearly 99% of calcium is stored in bones and teeth, supporting their strength and structure.
• It also helps regulate muscle contraction, blood clotting, nerve signalling, and hormone secretion.
• Toxic Heavy Metals:
• Lead, Mercury, and Arsenic are classified as toxic heavy metals and can cause severe health problems such as neurological damage, kidney disease, and poisoning.
• These elements may enter food plants through industrial pollution, contaminated soil, or polluted irrigation water.
• However, they are not natural nutritional minerals found in ginger or other edible plants.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India. It was designated as a biosphere reserve in 1999.
• This biosphere reserve is part of the Satpura Range and includes the Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Satpura National Park.
• The reserve covers an area of approximately 4,926.28 square kilometers, with a core area of 1,541.35 square kilometers and buffer and transition zones.
• The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is known for its rich biodiversity, housing a variety of flora and fauna, including several endemic and endangered species such as the Indian Giant Squirrel and Leopard.
• The reserve is also recognized under the Man and Biosphere Programme (MAB) by UNESCO in 2009, which highlights its global ecological significance.

Additional Information

• Biosphere Reserves in India:
• Biosphere reserves are areas designated to conserve biodiversity, promote sustainable use, and support research and education.
• India has a total of 18 biosphere reserves, such as the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka) and Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve (West Bengal).
• Satpura Range:
• The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is part of the Satpura Range, a series of hills in central India that act as a natural barrier between northern and southern India.
• The range is characterized by dense forests, waterfalls, and sandstone formations.
• UNESCO's MAB Programme:
• The Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme, launched by UNESCO in 1971, aims to improve the relationship between people and their environment.
• The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve was included under UNESCO's MAB Programme in 2009, recognizing its ecological and cultural importance.
• Flora and Fauna of Pachmarhi:
• The biosphere reserve is home to species like the Tiger, Gaur, Indian Wolf, and several species of medicinal plants.
• The flora includes teak, sal, bamboo, and numerous herbs and shrubs with medicinal properties.

Important Points

• Significance of Pachmarhi:
• Pachmarhi is known as the "Queen of Satpura" and is a popular tourist destination for its scenic beauty and biodiversity.
• It is located near the town of Pachmarhi, which is a famous hill station in Madhya Pradesh.
• Research and Conservation:
• The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is crucial for research on biodiversity conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
• The area provides insights into the interrelationship between humans and nature.

The correct answer is State Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Imperial Bank of India, established in 1921, was formed through the amalgamation of three presidency banks: the Bank of Bengal, Bank of Bombay, and Bank of Madras.
• In 1955, the Imperial Bank of India was renamed the State Bank of India (SBI) following the passage of the State Bank of India Act, 1955.
• The transformation into the State Bank of India was a significant step in creating a central banking system to support India's economic development after independence.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acquired a 60% stake in the Imperial Bank of India to form the State Bank of India, marking its transition to a government-owned institution.
• SBI is now India's largest public sector bank, with a vast network of branches and operations in multiple countries, offering comprehensive banking and financial services.

Additional Information

• Imperial Bank of India:
• It was the largest and oldest commercial bank in colonial India.
• The headquarters of the Imperial Bank of India was located in Bombay (now Mumbai), India.
• It operated as a quasi-central bank, handling government banking transactions before the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India in 1935.
• State Bank of India (SBI):
• SBI is the largest public sector bank in India in terms of assets, deposits, and market share.
• As of 2023, SBI operates over 22,000 branches across India and has a presence in 37 countries worldwide.
• SBI provides a wide range of financial services, including savings accounts, loans, credit cards, and investment products.
• It plays a pivotal role in financial inclusion by extending banking services to rural and semi-urban areas.
• Presidency Banks:
• The three presidency banks—Bank of Bengal (1806), Bank of Bombay (1840), and Bank of Madras (1843)—were established during British rule to serve the financial needs of different regions in India.
• These banks were later merged to form the Imperial Bank of India in 1921.
• Other Banks (for comparison):
• UCO Bank: Established in 1943, it was founded as the United Commercial Bank, primarily for trade financing.
• Punjab National Bank (PNB): Founded in 1894, it is one of India's oldest private-sector banks.
• HDFC Bank: Established in 1994, it is a leading private-sector bank in India, offering a wide range of retail and corporate banking services.

Important Points

• The transition from the Imperial Bank of India to the State Bank of India in 1955 was a critical move in strengthening India's banking sector and creating a government-backed financial institution.
• SBI continues to play a crucial role in India's economic growth, supporting initiatives like financial inclusion, rural banking, and digital banking.
• The Imperial Bank's legacy as India's premier banking institution lives on in the State Bank of India, which remains a symbol of trust and reliability for millions of Indians.

The correct answer is Ummah.

Key Points

• Ummah is an Arabic word that translates to "nation" or "community." In Islamic context, it refers to the collective community of Muslims across the world.
• The term emphasizes the concept of unity and solidarity among Muslims, transcending geographical, racial, and cultural boundaries.
• The idea of the Ummah originates from the teachings of the Qur'an and the sayings of the Prophet Muhammad, which encourage Muslims to act as one united body.
• Historically, the concept of Ummah was established when Prophet Muhammad migrated to Medina and formed a cohesive community of Muslims, known as the Medina Ummah.
• The Ummah today is considered a spiritual and religious community that shares common beliefs, practices, and values according to the teachings of Islam.

Additional Information

• Caliph:
• A Caliph is the leader of the Islamic Caliphate, serving as a political and religious successor to the Prophet Muhammad.
• The role of the Caliph is to govern the Ummah and ensure adherence to Islamic laws and principles.
• Famous Caliphs include the Rashidun Caliphs, such as Abu Bakr, Umar, Uthman, and Ali, who led the Islamic community after Prophet Muhammad’s death.
• Khattab:
• The term Khattab is often associated with Umar ibn al-Khattab, the second Caliph of the Rashidun Caliphate.
• He is remembered for his administrative reforms, justice, and expansion of the Islamic empire.
• Umar ibn al-Khattab played a significant role in shaping the governance structure of the Islamic community.
• Sunni:
• The term Sunni refers to the largest denomination within Islam, comprising around 85-90% of Muslims worldwide.
• Sunnis believe in following the Sunnah (practices) of Prophet Muhammad as recorded in the Hadiths.
• They also acknowledge the legitimacy of the first four Caliphs as rightful leaders of the Islamic community.
• Unity in Islam:
• The concept of Ummah is deeply rooted in the Islamic principle of Tawhid (oneness of God), which extends to unity among Muslims.
• Annual gatherings like Hajj symbolize the global unity of Muslims as they come together regardless of nationality or ethnicity.

Important Points

• The concept of Ummah fosters a sense of belonging and mutual responsibility among Muslims worldwide.
• It is a spiritual bond rather than a political one, emphasizing shared faith and values.
• Key historical events, such as the Hijrah (migration) of Prophet Muhammad to Medina, marked the foundation of the first Ummah.
• Despite differences in sects (e.g., Sunni and Shia), the Ummah is united by the core beliefs in the Qur'an and the Prophet Muhammad’s teachings.

The correct answer is Raja Rammohan Roy.

Key Points

• Mirat-ul-Akhbar was a Persian-language weekly newspaper founded by Raja Rammohan Roy in 1822.
• It was one of the first newspapers in India to focus on social reform and was instrumental in spreading ideas of progress, equality, and justice.
• The newspaper was primarily aimed at creating awareness among the Indian populace about their rights and advocating against social evils such as Sati and caste discrimination.
• Raja Rammohan Roy used Mirat-ul-Akhbar as a tool to discuss the importance of freedom of the press and to criticize the policies of the British Government in India.
• Despite its short lifespan, as it ceased publication in 1823, the newspaper played a significant role in shaping the early reformist and nationalist movements in India.

Additional Information

• Raja Rammohan Roy:
• He is regarded as the Father of Modern India and was a prominent social reformer of the 19^th century.
• He played a key role in the abolition of Sati, a practice where widows were burned alive on their husband’s funeral pyre, through his efforts which culminated in the Sati Regulation Act of 1829.
• Rammohan Roy was a strong advocate for women's rights, including education and property rights.
• He founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828, a movement aimed at reforming social and religious practices in India, particularly opposing idolatry and promoting monotheism.
• Significance of Mirat-ul-Akhbar:
• It was a medium for intellectual discourse and raised awareness about the need for social and political change in India during the colonial period.
• The newspaper frequently highlighted issues such as freedom of speech, education, and the need for modernization of Indian society.
• It also served as a platform to criticize oppressive British policies, particularly those affecting Indian culture, economy, and governance.
• Other Works by Raja Rammohan Roy:
• He also published the Sambad Kaumudi, a Bengali newspaper, which focused on similar reformist themes and was instrumental in spreading his ideas among the Bengali-speaking population.
• His writings on various subjects, including religion, economics, and politics, emphasized the need for rationality and scientific thought.
• Contemporaries:
• Dayananda Sarasvati: Founder of the Arya Samaj, which worked towards Vedic revivalism and social reform but was not associated with Mirat-ul-Akhbar.
• Syed Ahmed Barelvi: A prominent Islamic reformer, but his work was mainly focused on religious revival rather than journalism.
• Atma Ram Pandurang: An Indian social reformer, but his contributions came later and were not associated with the founding of Mirat-ul-Akhbar.

Important Points

• Press in Colonial India:
• The early newspapers, such as the Bengal Gazette, Hickey's Gazette, and Mirat-ul-Akhbar, played a significant role in the emergence of public opinion and national consciousness.
• These newspapers were often subjected to censorship and suppression by the British authorities, highlighting the struggle for freedom of expression.
• Role of Persian Language:
• Persian was widely used in India during the 19^th century, especially for administrative and literary purposes, making it an effective medium for communication among the educated elite.
• The use of Persian in Mirat-ul-Akhbar allowed Rammohan Roy to reach a broader audience, including both Indians and the colonial administration.

The correct answer is Maharana Pratap of Mewar and Raja Man Singh of Amber representing Mughal emperor Akbar.

Key Points

• The Battle of Haldighati was fought on 18 June 1576 between the forces of Maharana Pratap, the ruler of Mewar, and the Mughal army led by Raja Man Singh of Amber, who represented Emperor Akbar.
• Maharana Pratap fiercely resisted the Mughal expansion in Rajasthan, seeking to defend the sovereignty of Mewar.
• The battle took place at Haldighati Pass in the Aravalli Hills, near the modern-day town of Gogunda in Rajasthan.
• The Mughal forces outnumbered Maharana Pratap's army significantly, with an estimated strength of 80,000 Mughal soldiers compared to 20,000 Rajput warriors.
• Though the battle was inconclusive, it demonstrated the valor of Maharana Pratap and his troops, including his loyal horse Chetak, who played a crucial role in the battle before succumbing to injuries.

Additional Information

• Maharana Pratap:
• He is celebrated as a symbol of Rajput valor and resistance against foreign rule.
• After the Battle of Haldighati, Maharana Pratap continued to fight guerrilla warfare against the Mughals and successfully regained much of his lost territory.
• He never accepted Akbar's suzerainty, unlike many other Rajput rulers of the time.
• Raja Man Singh:
• He was a trusted general of Emperor Akbar and played a key role in consolidating Mughal power in India.
• Raja Man Singh was also instrumental in building alliances between the Mughals and Rajput rulers.
• Haldighati Pass:
• Located in the Aravalli Hills, this pass is named after the yellow-colored soil that resembles turmeric (Haldi in Hindi).
• It was strategically significant for controlling access to Mewar.
• Akbar's Policy of Expansion:
• Emperor Akbar sought to expand the Mughal Empire by forging alliances with Rajput rulers through diplomacy, marriage, and military campaigns.
• The Battle of Haldighati was part of Akbar's larger strategy to bring Rajasthan under Mughal control.
• Chetak:
• Chetak, Maharana Pratap's loyal horse, is remembered for his bravery and loyalty in the Battle of Haldighati.
• Despite being severely injured, Chetak carried Maharana Pratap to safety before succumbing to his wounds.

Important Points

• Option 2: Refers to the Battle of Khanwa (1527) between Rana Sanga of Mewar and Babur. This was fought during the initial phase of Mughal expansion in India. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Option 3: Refers to conflicts between Rana Hammir Singh and Alauddin Khalji in the 14^th century during the Delhi Sultanate era. This is unrelated to the Battle of Haldighati.
• Option 4: Refers to battles involving Raja Udai Singh of Chittor and Sher Shah Suri in the mid-16^th century, which were part of Afghan–Rajput conflicts and are not connected to the Battle of Haldighati.

The correct answer is Article 6.

Key Points

• Article 6 of the Indian Constitution lays down provisions for citizenship for persons who migrated to India from Pakistan after the partition of 1947.
• This article provides eligibility criteria for such individuals to acquire Indian citizenship, based on their place of birth, migration timeline, and residence in India.
• Persons who migrated to India before July 19, 1948, are automatically deemed citizens of India, provided they have been residing in India since their migration.
• For individuals migrating after this date, they could acquire Indian citizenship by registering themselves with an officer appointed by the Indian Government, provided they have resided in India for at least six months before the date of registration.
• Article 6 highlights the inclusive approach of the Indian Constitution towards those displaced due to the partition, ensuring them a legal framework to secure their identity as Indian citizens.

Additional Information

• Article 5:
• Deals with citizenship of persons who were domiciled in India at the commencement of the Constitution (January 26, 1950).
• It specifies that anyone born in India, or either of whose parents were born in India, or who has been ordinarily resident in India for at least five years immediately before the commencement of the Constitution, is a citizen of India.
• Article 7:
• Provides conditions for citizenship for individuals who migrated to Pakistan after March 1, 1947, but later returned to India under a permit for resettlement or permanent return.
• Such persons are required to reside in India for at least six months before applying for citizenship.
• Article 8:
• Deals with the citizenship of persons of Indian origin residing outside India.
• It allows such individuals to register as Indian citizens with the diplomatic or consular representatives of India in the country where they reside.
• Partition of India (1947):
• The partition led to the creation of India and Pakistan, resulting in the displacement of millions of people across borders.
• Provisions like Article 6 were crucial in addressing the legal identity and citizenship rights of displaced individuals.

Important Points

• Article 9: States that a person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of another country will no longer be a citizen of India.
• Article 11: Empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship through legislation. Based on this, the Citizenship Act, 1955 was enacted.
• Citizenship Act, 1955: Provides detailed provisions for acquiring, renouncing, and terminating Indian citizenship.
• These constitutional provisions reflect the challenges India faced in integrating diverse populations post-independence while ensuring legal clarity on citizenship status.

The correct answer is Sushil Shukla.

Key Points

• Sushil Shukla is the author of the book ‘Ek Batey Bara’, which won the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar in 2025 for the Hindi language.
• The Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar is a prestigious literary award conferred by the Sahitya Akademi of India for exceptional contributions in children's literature in various Indian languages.
• ‘Ek Batey Bara’ is a significant work in children’s literature, celebrated for its creative storytelling, engaging narrative, and ability to connect with young readers.
• The book reflects themes of innocence, curiosity, and imagination, making it widely appreciated among readers and critics alike.
• This recognition highlights Sushil Shukla's contribution to fostering literary growth and promoting Hindi literature among children.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar:
• The Sahitya Akademi instituted the Bal Sahitya Puraskar in 2010 to recognize and honor writers for their contributions to children's literature in 24 Indian languages.
• It is awarded annually and includes a cash prize of ₹50,000, an engraved copper plaque, and a citation.
• The award aims to encourage literary works that contribute to the cultural and creative development of young minds.
• Significance of Children’s Literature:
• Children’s literature plays a crucial role in shaping young minds by fostering creativity, imagination, and critical thinking.
• It introduces children to cultural heritage, moral values, and universal themes through engaging narratives.
• Books like ‘Ek Batey Bara’ contribute to building a habit of reading and help in the overall intellectual development of children.
• Hindi Literature:
• Hindi literature holds a rich tradition of storytelling, poetry, and prose that reflects India’s cultural and social diversity.
• Prominent Hindi writers like Premchand, Harivansh Rai Bachchan, and Mahadevi Verma have contributed significantly to this literary tradition.
• Contemporary works like ‘Ek Batey Bara’ continue to enrich the legacy of Hindi literature through innovative approaches and relatable themes.
• Other Writers Mentioned:
• Varun Grover: Known for his work as a lyricist, screenwriter, and stand-up comedian. He has contributed significantly to Indian cinema but is not associated with the book ‘Ek Batey Bara’.
• Shashi Goyal: A writer and poet whose works primarily focus on social and philosophical themes but has no connection to the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2025.
• Suman Bajpai: An author known for her work in children's literature and journalism, but she did not write ‘Ek Batey Bara’.

Important Points

• The Sahitya Akademi is India's National Academy of Letters, established in 1954, and is responsible for promoting literary works in Indian languages.
• The Bal Sahitya Puraskar recognizes contributions across various genres, including poetry, novels, short stories, plays, and folk literature.
• The award is instrumental in encouraging writers to produce quality literature for young readers and contributes to the promotion of regional languages and literature.
• Sushil Shukla’s recognition in 2025 reflects the evolving landscape of children’s literature in India and the increasing emphasis on creative storytelling for the younger generation.

The correct answer is Doon University.

Key Points

• The 12^th Sustainable Mountain Development Summit (SMDS-XII) was held at Doon University in Dehradun in September 2025.
• The summit emphasized scientific practices aimed at enhancing climate resilience in mountain ecosystems.
• SMDS is an annual event organized by the Integrated Mountain Initiative (IMI), a civil society platform promoting sustainable development in India's mountain regions.
• The summit brought together scientists, policymakers, researchers, and local stakeholders to discuss and propose actionable solutions for climate-related challenges in mountain areas.
• The focus areas of the summit included climate adaptation, livelihood sustainability, disaster management, and biodiversity conservation in mountain regions.

Additional Information

• About Sustainable Mountain Development Summit (SMDS):
• SMDS is organized annually by the Integrated Mountain Initiative (IMI), which aims to address issues specific to the Indian Himalayan Region (IHR).
• The summit focuses on themes such as climate change, water security, disaster risk reduction, and livelihoods.
• Previous summits have been hosted in various states of the Himalayan region, including Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland.
• Importance of Climate Resilience:
• Climate resilience refers to the ability of communities and ecosystems to withstand, recover, and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
• Mountain regions, particularly the Himalayas, are highly vulnerable to climate change, with risks such as glacial melting, erratic weather patterns, and biodiversity loss.
• About Doon University:
• Located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, Doon University is a state university known for its focus on environmental studies, natural resource management, and sustainable development.
• The university's location in the foothills of the Himalayas makes it an ideal venue for discussions on mountain development and climate resilience.
• Other Key Initiatives for Mountain Regions:
• The National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) is part of India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) and focuses on protecting the Himalayan environment.
• The Himalayan University Consortium (HUC) aims to enhance collaboration among universities and institutions in the Himalayan region to address sustainable development challenges.

Important Points

• Uttarakhand’s Role in Climate Action:
• Uttarakhand, home to a significant portion of the Indian Himalayas, plays a crucial role in promoting sustainable mountain development.
• The state has implemented various environmental initiatives, such as the State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC).
• Global Perspective on Mountain Development:
• International frameworks like the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) emphasize the importance of sustainable mountain development for global environmental health.
• In particular, SDG 13 (Climate Action) and SDG 15 (Life on Land) are directly relevant to mountain ecosystems.

The correct answer is To ensure seamless and integrated multimodal infrastructure connectivity.

Key Points

• The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, launched by the Government of India in October 2021, aims to provide seamless and integrated multimodal infrastructure connectivity to boost economic growth and reduce logistics costs.
• This initiative is designed to break departmental silos and bring together 16 Ministries, including Railways and Roadways, on a single digital platform for comprehensive project planning and implementation.
• The plan focuses on a multi-modal connectivity network to facilitate the movement of goods and people across the country efficiently, thereby supporting the Make in India initiative and driving industrial growth.
• It incorporates a Geographic Information System (GIS)-enabled platform, which provides a real-time view of projects for better coordination and effective decision-making.
• This initiative not only aims to enhance logistics efficiency but also aligns with India's goal to become a $5 trillion economy by improving infrastructure and reducing logistical bottlenecks.

Additional Information

• Objectives of PM Gati Shakti:
• To provide integrated and holistic infrastructure development across sectors by coordinating between different ministries and departments.
• To ensure a reduction in logistical costs, which currently account for approximately 13-14% of GDP, and bring it closer to the global benchmark of 8%.
• To strengthen India's industrial and manufacturing sectors by ensuring better connectivity to industrial hubs, ports, and airports.
• To enhance the pace of project approvals and implementation by leveraging technology and data-driven decision-making.
• Key Features of the Plan:
• Integration of 16 Ministries, including Railways, Roads, Ports, and Aviation, on a GIS-enabled digital platform.
• Focus on the development of economic corridors, logistic hubs, and warehousing zones.
• Incorporation of data layers, including land records, utilities, and geographic features, to ensure optimal project planning.
• Use of multi-modal transport systems (rail, road, water, and air) to create a unified logistics framework.
• Comparison with Other Initiatives:
• Unlike PM-SYM or other social welfare schemes, PM Gati Shakti focuses on infrastructure development rather than individual benefits.
• It complements initiatives like Bharatmala Pariyojana and Sagarmala, which focus on road and port connectivity, respectively.
• Impact on the Economy:
• By reducing logistical inefficiencies, the plan is expected to enhance India's global competitiveness and attract foreign investment.
• It supports the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative by promoting domestic manufacturing and reducing dependency on imports.
• The emphasis on infrastructure development is likely to create employment opportunities in construction, logistics, and allied sectors.

Important Points

• Relevance to Sustainable Development:
• The plan emphasizes the use of green and sustainable technologies to reduce the environmental impact of infrastructure projects.
• Promotes the development of energy-efficient transport systems, such as electrified rail networks and renewable energy-powered facilities.
• Global Comparisons:
• India's PM Gati Shakti initiative is comparable to global programs like China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), which focuses on infrastructure and connectivity to boost economic growth.
• However, unlike BRI, which is international in scope, PM Gati Shakti focuses on domestic infrastructure optimization.
• Future Goals:
• To achieve a seamless logistics network by 2024-25, with reduced transit times and logistics costs.
• To make India a global manufacturing and export hub by ensuring robust infrastructure and supply chain connectivity$.

The correct answer is 1990.

Key Points

• The Constitution (Sixty-seventh Amendment) Bill was introduced in 1990 to provide for a collegium system for appointments to the Supreme Court of India.
• This collegium comprised the Chief Justice of India and two other senior judges of the Supreme Court.
• The purpose of the collegium system was to ensure a more transparent and collective decision-making process in judicial appointments.
• Prior to this, appointments to the judiciary were primarily under the discretion of the Executive branch, which sometimes led to controversies regarding transparency and fairness.
• The introduction of the collegium system marked a significant shift towards judicial independence in India.

Additional Information

• Collegium System:
• The collegium system is a method of judicial appointments and transfers used in India, introduced through judicial decisions rather than statutory or constitutional provisions.
• The system became operational following the Second Judges Case (1993), which interpreted Article 124 and Article 217 of the Indian Constitution.
• Under this system, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and a group of senior judges make recommendations for appointments and transfers.
• Articles of the Constitution:
• Article 124: Deals with the establishment of the Supreme Court and the appointment of judges.
• Article 217: Concerns the appointment of judges to the High Courts.
• These articles were interpreted to emphasize the judiciary's role in maintaining independence in appointments.
• Historical Background:
• Before 1990, judicial appointments were mostly controlled by the Executive branch, which sometimes led to political interference.
• The collegium system was introduced as part of broader efforts to reduce executive influence and enhance judicial independence.
• Significance of Collegium System:
• It ensures transparency and fairness in judicial appointments.
• The system is aimed at maintaining judicial independence, which is a cornerstone of democracy.
• Though effective, it has faced criticism for lack of accountability and reform proposals have been debated for years.

Important Points

• Evolution of Collegium System:
• The collegium system evolved through three important judgments: First Judges Case (1981), Second Judges Case (1993), and Third Judges Case (1998).
• The Third Judges Case clarified that the collegium would comprise the CJI and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court for appointments.
• Criticism:
• Critics argue that the system lacks accountability and transparency since deliberations are not made public.
• Efforts to replace it with a National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) were struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015, citing concerns over judicial independence.
• Judicial Independence:
• Judicial independence is crucial for ensuring fair and unbiased interpretation of laws.
• The collegium system plays a vital role in safeguarding this independence.

The correct answer is Rural sector.

Key Points

• Agriculture is the primary source of livelihood for the rural sector, as most people in rural areas rely on farming, crop production, and related activities for their income.
• In India, approximately 70% of the population lives in rural areas, and a significant portion of this population is directly or indirectly dependent on agricultural activities.
• The rural economy encompasses activities such as crop cultivation, animal husbandry, fisheries, forestry, and horticulture, forming the backbone of rural livelihoods.
• Since agriculture is the predominant occupation in rural areas, rural development policies often focus on improving agricultural productivity, irrigation systems, and access to markets.
• Government schemes such as the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana and National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) emphasize boosting agricultural infrastructure and providing employment in rural areas.

Additional Information

• Service Sector:
• The service sector contributes significantly to urban and suburban economies, including activities such as IT services, healthcare, education, and hospitality.
• It is less dominant in the rural areas, where agriculture and allied activities are the primary occupations.
• India's service sector contributes approximately 55% of the GDP, but its reach in rural areas is relatively limited.
• Urban Sector:
• The urban sector is characterized by industrial and service-based economies, including manufacturing, technology, and corporate businesses.
• Unlike the rural sector, agriculture plays a minimal role in the livelihoods of urban populations.
• Urban areas focus on infrastructural development, corporate employment, and high-value industries.
• Industrial Sector:
• The industrial sector primarily involves manufacturing, production, and distribution of goods, which are largely concentrated in urban and peri-urban regions.
• Although some industries, such as agro-based industries, are connected to agriculture, they do not form the primary livelihood source for the rural population.
• The industrial sector contributes significantly to employment generation in urban areas but less so in rural regions.
• Key Statistics and Reports:
• According to the 2011 Census, rural areas constituted 68.84% of India’s population, with agriculture serving as the primary livelihood source for most households.
• The Economic Survey 2022-23 highlights the importance of agricultural growth in sustaining rural economies and contributing to overall GDP.
• Government initiatives like the PM-KISAN scheme provide financial support to farmers, emphasizing the critical role of agriculture in rural development.

Important Points

• Challenges in Rural Agriculture:
• Limited access to modern farming techniques and technologies in rural areas.
• Dependence on monsoons and lack of adequate irrigation facilities.
• Poor infrastructure, including storage and transportation facilities, affects agricultural productivity.
• Migration of the rural workforce to urban areas due to lack of alternative livelihood options.
• Government Support:
• The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana and National Food Security Mission focus on increasing productivity and ensuring food security.
• The Digital India initiative aims to equip rural farmers with digital tools for better market access.
• Subsidized loans and crop insurance schemes like PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana) ensure financial support to farmers.
• Rural infrastructure programs, such as Bharatmala Pariyojana, aim to improve connectivity and market access for rural areas.

The correct answer is Ahimsa.

Key Points

• The symbol of Jainism is a hand with a wheel on the palm, known as the Ahimsa Hand. The word Ahimsa is inscribed at the center of the wheel, representing non-violence as the core principle of Jainism.
• Ahimsa, or non-violence, is one of the foundational tenets of Jain philosophy and is practiced in thought, word, and deed.
• The wheel in the symbol is called the Dharmachakra, which signifies the principles of Jain teachings and the path to liberation.
• The hand signifies the message "Stop" or "Halt," urging individuals to refrain from committing acts of harm, emphasizing the Jain ideology of complete non-violence.
• The Jain philosophy encourages compassion towards all living beings, including humans, animals, plants, and microorganisms, which is encapsulated in the concept of Ahimsa.

Additional Information

• Jainism Overview:
• Jainism is one of the oldest religions originating in India, dating back to the 6^th century BCE.
• It was founded by Lord Mahavira, the 24^th Tirthankara, who emphasized self-discipline and non-violence.
• Jain teachings focus on achieving liberation through ethical living, meditation, and renunciation of worldly attachments.
• Ahimsa in Jainism:
• Ahimsa is considered the supreme religious principle in Jainism, influencing dietary practices, daily behaviors, and spiritual endeavors.
• Jains follow a strict vegetarian diet to avoid harm to living beings and often avoid root vegetables to protect microorganisms.
• The principle of Ahimsa extends to environmental protection and sustainable living practices.
• Significance of the Symbol:
• The hand with the wheel represents the Five Vows (Ahimsa, Satya, Asteya, Brahmacharya, Aparigraha) taken by Jain monks and followers.
• The 24 spokes of the wheel symbolize the teachings of the 24 Tirthankaras.
• The symbol conveys the message of self-restraint and adherence to non-violence.
• Other Jain Practices:
• Jains practice extreme care in daily activities, such as sweeping the ground to avoid harming insects and wearing masks to avoid inhaling microorganisms.
• They observe festivals like Paryushan and Mahavir Jayanti, which celebrate spiritual introspection and Lord Mahavira's teachings.

Important Points

• Ahimsa in Indian Philosophy:
• The concept of Ahimsa is not restricted to Jainism but is also integral to Buddhism and Hinduism.
• Historical figures like Mahatma Gandhi adopted Ahimsa as a principle for his non-violent resistance against colonial rule.
• Jain Scriptures:
• Major Jain texts include the Agamas, which contain teachings of Lord Mahavira.
• The Tattvartha Sutra is an important philosophical text summarizing Jain doctrines.
• Global Influence:
• Jain principles, particularly Ahimsa, have influenced global movements advocating for peace, vegetarianism, and animal rights.
• Many Jain temples and pilgrimage sites, such as Shatrunjaya and Ranakpur, attract visitors worldwide.

The correct answer is A.D. 1320-1414.

Key Points

• The Tughlaq dynasty was a Muslim dynasty of Indo-Turkic origin that ruled the Delhi Sultanate during the period A.D. 1320-1414.
• The dynasty was founded by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, who came to power in 1320 A.D. after overthrowing the Khilji dynasty.
• It was one of the prominent dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate, and its rulers attempted to consolidate and expand the empire. The most notable ruler was Muhammad bin Tughlaq, known for his ambitious but often impractical policies.
• The dynasty witnessed significant events, including economic reforms, administrative developments, and territorial expansions, though it also suffered from rebellions and economic instability.
• The Tughlaq dynasty declined after 1414 A.D., paving the way for the rise of the Sayyid dynasty.

Additional Information

• Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq:
• He was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty and ruled from 1320 to 1325 A.D..
• He is credited with laying the foundation of Tughlaqabad Fort, which served as the capital of his reign.
• His policies focused on strengthening the empire's infrastructure and administration.
• Muhammad bin Tughlaq:
• He ruled from 1325 to 1351 A.D. and is known for his ambitious and experimental policies.
• Among his notable projects were the shifting of the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad and the introduction of token currency.
• Though innovative, many of his policies failed, leading to widespread unrest.
• Firoz Shah Tughlaq:
• He ruled from 1351 to 1388 A.D. and is remembered for his focus on public welfare and infrastructure development.
• He established several cities, including Firozabad, and built canals for irrigation.
• He also promoted Islamic culture and education by constructing madrasas.
• Characteristics of the Tughlaq Dynasty:
• The dynasty was marked by centralized administration and ambitious expansionist policies.
• It faced numerous challenges, including internal revolts and external invasions, particularly from the Mongols.
• Their architectural contributions, such as forts and tombs, reflect a blend of Persian and Indian styles.

Important Points

• Option 1 (A.D. 1290-1320): This period corresponds to the rule of the Khilji dynasty, not the Tughlaq dynasty.
• Option 2 (A.D. 1451-1526): This period marks the rule of the Lodi dynasty, which succeeded the Sayyid dynasty after the decline of the Tughlaqs.
• Option 3 (A.D. 1320-1414): This is the correct timeframe for the Tughlaq dynasty's rule over Delhi. It spans the reigns of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, Muhammad bin Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq, and other successors.
• Option 4 (A.D. 1206-1290): This period corresponds to the rule of the Slave dynasty, also known as the Mamluk dynasty.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Young fold mountains are formed by the upward folding of the Earth's crust due to tectonic activity. These mountains are geologically young, rugged, and have steep slopes.
• The Himalayas, which include Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and the northern part of West Bengal (Darjeeling region), are classic examples of young fold mountains.
• Himachal Pradesh is part of the western Himalayas and is characterized by high peaks, deep valleys, and a rugged terrain. Hence, it consists of young fold mountainous features.
• Sikkim, located in the northeastern Himalayas, features some of the highest peaks, including Kanchenjunga, and is also part of the young fold mountain system.
• West Bengal (particularly the Darjeeling and Kalimpong regions) is part of the eastern Himalayas, which are also young fold mountains.
• Rajasthan, on the other hand, primarily consists of the Aravalli Range, which is one of the oldest mountain ranges in the world. The Aravallis are highly eroded and do not exhibit the characteristics of young fold mountains. Hence, Rajasthan does NOT consist of young fold mountainous features.

Additional Information

• Himalayas:
• The Himalayas are young fold mountains formed due to the collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate around 50 million years ago.
• They are classified into three parallel ranges: the Greater Himalayas (Himadri), Lesser Himalayas (Himachal), and Shivaliks.
• These mountains are characterized by high peaks such as Mount Everest, Kanchenjunga, and Nanda Devi.
• The Himalayas are still tectonically active, leading to frequent earthquakes and landslides in the region.
• Aravalli Range:
• The Aravalli Range, located in Rajasthan, is one of the oldest fold mountain ranges in the world, formed around 3.2 billion years ago.
• It extends from Gujarat to Delhi, covering parts of Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi.
• Unlike the Himalayas, the Aravallis are highly eroded and have low elevations, with Guru Shikhar being the highest peak (1,722 meters above sea level).
• The range is rich in minerals like marble, granite, and sandstone and plays a crucial role in preventing desertification by acting as a natural barrier to the Thar Desert.
• Sikkim:
• Sikkim is part of the eastern Himalayas and is home to India's highest mountain, Kanchenjunga (8,586 meters).
• The region is known for its glaciers, high-altitude passes, and biodiversity, being part of the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot.
• Darjeeling (West Bengal):
• The northern part of West Bengal, particularly the Darjeeling region, falls under the Himalayan foothills.
• It is known for its steep terrain, tea plantations, and the UNESCO World Heritage Site Darjeeling Himalayan Railway.

Important Points

• Difference Between Young and Old Fold Mountains:
• Young Fold Mountains: Formed recently in geological terms (e.g., Himalayas). They have high elevations, steep slopes, and rugged terrain.
• Old Fold Mountains: Formed millions or billions of years ago (e.g., Aravallis). They are eroded, have low elevations, and gentle slopes.
• Significance of Young Fold Mountains:
• They are the source of major rivers like the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Indus.
• They support diverse flora and fauna and provide resources like timber, medicinal plants, and water.

The correct answer is collaborate with young innovators and students to develop future-ready space technologies for India.

Key Points

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched a dedicated platform in 2025 to foster innovation and collaboration among young innovators and students. This initiative aims to develop future-ready space technologies that will contribute to India's growing space ecosystem.
• The platform was announced by Senior Scientist G. Sathish Kumar, emphasizing ISRO's commitment to nurturing young minds and fresh talent in the domain of space sciences and technology.
• This initiative aligns with ISRO's broader objective to engage with academia, research institutions, and students for the development of cutting-edge technologies and innovative solutions to space exploration challenges.
• By involving students and young innovators, ISRO aims to harness the creative potential of the youth while fostering a culture of research and development in space technology.
• The initiative is expected to address long-term goals, including the development of sustainable and indigenous space technology solutions, to make India a global leader in space exploration.

Additional Information

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):
• ISRO is India's national space agency, headquartered in Bengaluru, and operates under the Department of Space, which reports directly to the Prime Minister of India.
• Established in 1969, ISRO is responsible for space research and the development of space technology for national development.
• Some of ISRO's notable achievements include the Mangalyaan mission (Mars Orbiter Mission), Chandrayaan missions, and the launch of the GSLV and PSLV rockets.
• Importance of Youth Engagement in Space Technology:
• Youth engagement fosters innovation and creativity, which are critical for staying competitive in the rapidly evolving field of space exploration.
• Involving students and young innovators ensures the development of a skilled workforce ready to tackle future challenges in space technology.
• Countries like the USA (NASA) and Europe (ESA) also have similar programs to engage young minds and foster innovation in space science.
• India's Space Ambitions:
• India aims to become a global leader in space technology by focusing on indigenous development and cost-effective solutions for space missions.
• Future projects include the Gaganyaan mission (India's first human spaceflight), lunar and interplanetary missions, and the development of reusable launch vehicles.
• Collaborations with international space agencies like NASA, ESA, and Roscosmos further strengthen India's position in the global space arena.
• Other ISRO Initiatives to Engage Youth:
• YUVIKA: A program designed to engage school students and provide them with insights into space science and technology.
• Student Satellite Program: A platform for students to design, build, and launch satellites with ISRO's assistance.
• Space Apps Challenge: A hackathon that encourages students and young professionals to develop solutions for space exploration challenges.

Important Points

• Option 2: While ISRO does collaborate with private industrial partners, transferring proprietary launch vehicle technologies directly was not the primary objective of this initiative. Instead, the focus was on fostering innovation among students and young talents.
• Option 3: Joint satellite missions with international agencies are part of ISRO's global collaborations but are not directly linked to the creation of a platform aimed at engaging young innovators and students.
• Option 4: Providing online training exclusively for defence personnel is not aligned with the broader objective of this platform, which focuses on youth engagement and innovation in space technology.
• This initiative is part of India's larger goal to strengthen its position as a global space power through innovation and indigenous technological advancements.

The correct answer is epiblema.

Key Points

• The epiblema, also known as the piliferous layer, is the outermost layer of a dicot root. It functions as the protective and absorptive layer.
• It is a single layer of thin-walled cells without any cuticle, which facilitates the absorption of water and minerals from the soil.
• The epiblema is unique in dicot roots as it bears structures called root hairs, which are unicellular extensions that increase the surface area for water and nutrient absorption.
• This layer lacks stomata or chloroplasts, as its primary role is not photosynthesis but absorption and protection.
• The epiblema is replaced by a protective layer called the exodermis in mature roots.

Additional Information

• Pericycle:
• The pericycle is the outermost layer of the stele in the root, located just inside the endodermis.
• It is involved in the formation of lateral roots and contributes to the vascular cambium and cork cambium during secondary growth.
• This layer is made up of parenchymatous or sclerenchymatous cells.
• Endodermis:
• The endodermis is a single layer of barrel-shaped cells that forms the innermost boundary of the cortex.
• It plays a crucial role in regulating the movement of water and nutrients into the vascular tissues through structures called Casparian strips.
• Casparian strips are made of suberin, which makes the cell walls impermeable to water and solutes.
• Cortex:
• The cortex lies between the epiblema and the endodermis and is composed of parenchymatous cells.
• It serves as a storage tissue for food and water in the root.
• In some plants, the cortex also aids in the transport of water and nutrients to the vascular tissues.
• Root Hairs:
• Root hairs are unicellular extensions of the epiblema that significantly increase the root's surface area for absorption.
• These structures are ephemeral and are replaced continuously as the root grows.
• They play a vital role in absorbing water and dissolved minerals from the soil into the plant.
• Significance of the Root System:
• The root system anchors the plant in the soil and absorbs water and essential nutrients.
• It also stores food in some plants, such as carrots and sweet potatoes, which are modified roots.
• Roots can also form symbiotic associations with microorganisms, such as mycorrhizal fungi and nitrogen-fixing bacteria, to enhance nutrient uptake.

Important Points

• Root Hair Zone: The zone of maturation in roots is where root hairs are formed. This zone is vital for maximum absorption of water and minerals.
• Root Cap: The root cap is the tip of the root and protects the root as it penetrates the soil. It secretes mucilage to lubricate the root's movement through the soil.
• Exodermis: In mature roots, the epiblema is replaced by an exodermis, which is a protective layer composed of suberin-coated cells.
• Dicot vs Monocot Roots: Dicot roots have a well-defined cortex and vascular bundles arranged in a ring, while monocot roots lack secondary growth and have vascular bundles scattered throughout.

The correct answer is Registrar General of India.

Key Points

• The Registrar General of India (RGI) is the authority responsible for releasing the “Vital Statistics of India based on Civil Registration System (CRS)” report. This report provides important data on births, deaths, and marriages registered in India.
• The CRS is a unified system for recording vital events in India and is governed by the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969. The system aims to maintain a comprehensive database for policy formulation and planning.
• The 2023 CRS report highlights significant improvements in the coverage and quality of registration across states and union territories, contributing to better demographic insights.
• The Registrar General of India operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs and is also responsible for conducting the decennial Census in India, further adding to its role in demographic data collection.
• The CRS report is a vital statistical document that aids in understanding population trends, mortality rates, and other demographic indicators crucial for government policies and programs.

Additional Information

• Registrar General of India (RGI):
• The Registrar General of India was established in 1961 under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its primary responsibility includes conducting the Population Census and overseeing the Civil Registration System (CRS).
• The RGI oversees the implementation of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, ensuring uniformity in vital event registration across the country.
• The RGI also monitors the Sample Registration System (SRS), which provides demographic data such as birth rate, death rate, and infant mortality rate.
• Civil Registration System (CRS):
• The CRS is designed to record births, deaths, and marriages in India continuously and systematically.
• It serves as a primary source of data for monitoring population growth, mortality trends, and social indicators like sex ratio and life expectancy.
• The CRS has seen significant improvements in terms of coverage and accuracy in recent years due to government initiatives like digitalization and awareness campaigns.
• Other Authorities Mentioned in the Options:
• National Statistical Office (NSO): It is responsible for collecting and disseminating economic and social statistics, but it does not manage the CRS or vital statistics.
• NITI Aayog: This is a policy think tank that focuses on economic planning and development. It does not handle the CRS or demographic data collection.
• Office of the Chief Economic Adviser: This office provides economic advice to the government and prepares the Economic Survey, but it is not linked to the CRS.
• Importance of CRS Data:
• CRS data is critical for tracking health indicators like maternal and infant mortality rates.
• The data aids in policy formulation for healthcare, education, and social welfare programs.
• It is also used in the calculation of population-based indices, such as the Human Development Index (HDI).

The correct answer is Finance Commission of India.

Key Points

• The Finance Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution to define the financial relations between the Centre and the States.
• It is responsible for recommending the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, as well as among the States themselves.
• The Commission determines the principles governing grants-in-aid to the States by the Centre, as well as other financial matters referred to it by the President.
• The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every five years or at such earlier time as deemed necessary.
• The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature, but they carry significant weight in financial planning and policy-making in the country.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Provisions:
• The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
• It is tasked with ensuring a fair distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States, which is crucial for maintaining fiscal federalism in India.
• Composition and Tenure:
• The Commission is composed of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President.
• The qualifications of the members are determined by the President, and they hold office for a term specified by him.
• Functions:
• Recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States.
• Advise on the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.
• Address issues related to financial imbalances between the Union and the States.
• Examples:
• The 15^th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, was constituted in November 2017 and submitted its report for 2021–26.
• It recommended a vertical distribution of 41% of divisible taxes to the States, ensuring equitable resource distribution.

Important Points

• Other Constitutional Bodies:
• Supreme Court of India: It is the apex judicial authority in India and resolves disputes between the Centre and States but does not deal with financial distribution.
• Law Minister of India: This is an executive position and does not have the authority to decide financial matters between the Centre and States.
• Finance Minister of India: While the Finance Minister is responsible for preparing and presenting the budget, the actual distribution of financial resources is based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
• Reports and Recommendations:
• The Finance Commission submits its report to the President, who lays it before both Houses of Parliament.
• While its recommendations are advisory, they are generally accepted and implemented by the government.

4) President

 Key Points

• Under Article 344 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India has the authority to constitute a Commission and a Committee on Official Language.
• The President is required to constitute a Commission at the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of ten years.
• The first Official Language Commission was appointed by the President in 1955, under the chairmanship of B.G. Kher, which submitted its report in 1956.
• Article 344(4) also provides for the constitution of a Committee of Parliament on Official Language consisting of 30 members (20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha) to examine the recommendations of the Commission.
• The primary duty of the Commission is to make recommendations to the President regarding the progressive use of the Hindi language for official purposes of the Union and restrictions on the use of the English language.
• The President, after considering the report of the Parliamentary Committee, may issue directions in accordance with the whole or any part of that report.

Additional Information

• Speaker of the Lok Sabha: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the lower house of Parliament. Their role involves maintaining order, interpreting rules of procedure, and certifying Money Bills. While the Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha members who sit on the Committee on Official Language, the Speaker does not hold the constitutional power to appoint the Commission itself.
• Prime Minister: As the head of the Union Council of Ministers, the Prime Minister advises the President on various appointments. However, the constitutional mandate under Article 344 specifically vests the power of appointment and the issuance of subsequent orders regarding official language in the President of India.
• Governor: The Governor is the constitutional head of a State. Under Article 345, the legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State or Hindi as the language to be used for all or any of the official purposes of that State. The Governor's role is limited to the state level and does not extend to appointing National Commissions on Official Language.
• Eighth Schedule: This schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages of the Republic of India. Currently, it includes 22 languages. The Official Language Commission must include members representing these different languages.
• Official Languages Act, 1963: This act was passed to provide for the languages which may be used for the official purposes of the Union, for transaction of business in Parliament, for Central and State Acts, and for certain purposes in High Courts. It allowed for the continued use of English alongside Hindi even after the initial 15-year period prescribed by the Constitution.

Given:

Initial speed = 31 km/hr

Reduction percentage = 83%

Formula Used:

New speed = Initial speed × (1 - Reduction percentage ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Reduction percentage ÷ 100 = 83 ÷ 100 = 0.83

⇒ 1 - Reduction percentage ÷ 100 = 1 - 0.83 = 0.17

⇒ New speed = 31 × 0.17

⇒ New speed = 5.27 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 5.27.

Given:

CP of Arvind = x

Loss = 15%

Transportation = 188

Profit = 52%

Final SP = 1216

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 ± Profit/Loss)

Calculation:

⇒ Arvind's SP = x × 85 ÷ 100

⇒ Biru's CP = x × 85 ÷ 100

⇒ Biru's total CP = x × 85 ÷ 100 + 188

⇒ Biru's SP = (x × 85 ÷ 100 + 188) × 152 ÷ 100

⇒ (x × 85 ÷ 100 + 188) × 152 ÷ 100 = 1216

⇒ x × 85 ÷ 100 + 188 = 1216 × 100 ÷ 152

⇒ x × 85 ÷ 100 + 188 = 800

⇒ x × 85 ÷ 100 = 800 − 188

⇒ x × 85 ÷ 100 = 612

⇒ x = 612 × 100 ÷ 85

⇒ x = 720

∴ The correct answer is 720.

Given:

A's capital = 153000

A's time = 12 months

B's time = 6 months

Profit ratio = 6 : 2

Formula Used:

Profit ∝ Capital × Time

Calculation:

⇒ A's share ∝ 153000 × 12

⇒ A's share ∝ 1836000

⇒ Let B's capital = x

⇒ B's share ∝ x × 6

⇒ 1836000 : 6x = 6 : 2

⇒ 1836000 : 6x = 3 : 1

⇒ 1836000 ÷ (6x) = 3 ÷ 1

⇒ 1836000 = 18x

⇒ x = 1836000 ÷ 18

⇒ x = 102000

∴ The correct answer is 102000.

Given:

₹101619

₹125530

Formula Used:

Percentage Increase = ((New Value - Old Value) ÷ Old Value) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ New Value - Old Value = ₹125530 - ₹101619 = ₹23911

⇒ Percentage Increase = (₹23911 ÷ ₹101619) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 23.525%

⇒ Rounded Percentage = 24%

∴ The correct answer is 24%.

Given:

Tap A = 19 hours

Tap B = 6 hours

Tap C (empty) = 13 hours

Formula Used:

Net work rate = Sum of filling rates − emptying rate

Time = Total work ÷ Net rate

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 19, 6, 13 = 1482

⇒ A's work per hour = 1482 ÷ 19 = 78

⇒ B's work per hour = 1482 ÷ 6 = 247

⇒ C's work per hour = 1482 ÷ 13 = 114

⇒ Net work per hour = 78 + 247 − 114

⇒ Net work = 211

⇒ Time = 1482 ÷ 211

⇒ Time = \( 7\frac{5}{211} \)

∴ The correct answer is \( 7\frac{5}{211} \) hours.

Given:

Diameter = 8 m

Length = 25 m

Formula Used:

Radius = Diameter ÷ 2

Curved Surface Area of Cylinder = 2π × Radius × Length

Calculation:

⇒ Radius = 8 ÷ 2 = 4 m

⇒ Curved Surface Area = 2π × 4 × 25

⇒ Curved Surface Area = 200π m²

∴ The correct answer is 200π m².

Given:

Cost price of 100 guavas = 1240

Profit = 810

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit

Price per dozen = (Total SP ÷ Total quantity) × 12

Calculation:

⇒ Total SP = 1240 + 810

⇒ Total SP = 2050

⇒ SP per guava = 2050 ÷ 100

⇒ SP per guava = 20.5

⇒ SP per dozen = 20.5 × 12

⇒ SP per dozen = 246

∴ The correct answer is 246.

Given:

Distance (one way) = 6

Time (morning) = 5.5 hours

Time (evening) = 6.5 hours

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance = 6 + 6

⇒ Total distance = 12

⇒ Total time = 5.5 + 6.5

⇒ Total time = 12

⇒ Average speed = 12 ÷ 12

⇒ Average speed = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1 km/hr.

Given:

Sum = 329

HCF = 47

Formula Used:

Numbers = HCF × co-prime numbers

Sum = HCF × (a + b)

Calculation:

⇒ Let numbers = 47a and 47b

⇒ 47(a + b) = 329

⇒ a + b = 329 ÷ 47

⇒ a + b = 7

⇒ Possible pairs: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4)

⇒ Numbers = 47 × 1 and 47 × 6

⇒ Numbers = 47 and 282

⇒ Numbers = 47 × 2 and 47 × 5

⇒ Numbers = 94 and 235

⇒ Numbers = 47 × 3 and 47 × 4

⇒ Numbers = 141 and 188

∴ The correct answer is 141 & 188.

Given:

Arnav = 8 days

Manya = 11 days

Work pattern = alternate days (starting with Arnav)

Total days worked initially = 7

Formula Used:

Work = LCM of days

Work per day = LCM ÷ days

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 8 and 11 = 88

⇒ Arnav's 1 day work = 88 ÷ 8 = 11

⇒ Manya's 1 day work = 88 ÷ 11 = 8

⇒ Day-wise work:

⇒ Day 1 (A) = 11

⇒ Day 2 (M) = 8

⇒ Day 3 (A) = 11

⇒ Day 4 (M) = 8

⇒ Day 5 (A) = 11

⇒ Day 6 (M) = 8

⇒ Day 7 (A) = 11

⇒ Total work in 7 days = 11 + 8 + 11 + 8 + 11 + 8 + 11

⇒ Total work = 68

⇒ Remaining work = 88 − 68

⇒ Remaining work = 20

⇒ Manya alone work per day = 8

⇒ Required days = 20 ÷ 8

⇒ Required days = 2.5

∴ The correct answer is 2.5 days.

Given:

Length = 12 m

Width = 15 m

Formula Used:

Largest tile side = HCF of length and width

Number of tiles = (Length × Width) ÷ (side × side)

Calculation:

⇒ HCF of 12 and 15 = 3

⇒ Area of floor = 12 × 15

⇒ Area = 180

⇒ Area of one tile = 3 × 3

⇒ Area = 9

⇒ Number of tiles = 180 ÷ 9

⇒ Number of tiles = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Given:

Principal = 44800

Rate = 10%

Time = 1 year

Compounded half-yearly

Formula Used:

Amount = P × (1 + r ÷ (2 × 100))²

Calculation:

⇒ Rate per half-year = 10 ÷ 2 = 5%

⇒ Amount = 44800 × (1 + 5 ÷ 100)²

⇒ Amount = 44800 × (1.05)²

⇒ Amount = 44800 × 1.1025

⇒ Amount = 49392

∴ The correct answer is 49392.

Given:

Marked price of notebook = 12

Discount on notebook = 25%

Marked price of pen = 100

Discount on pen = 85%

Formula Used:

Savings = Marked price × Discount%

Calculation:

⇒ Saving on notebook = 12 × 25 ÷ 100

⇒ Saving = 3

⇒ Saving on pen = 100 × 85 ÷ 100

⇒ Saving = 85

⇒ Total saving = 3 + 85

⇒ Total saving = 88

∴ The correct answer is 88.

Given:

Principal = ₹400

Time = 9.5 years

Rate = 16% per annum

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (400 × 16 × 9.5) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (400 × 152) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 608

∴ The correct answer is 608.

Given:

Distance on map = 8 cm

Scale = 1 : 379792

Formula Used:

Actual distance = Map distance × Scale

Calculation:

⇒ Actual distance = 8 × 379792 cm

⇒ Actual distance = 3038336 cm

⇒ Convert into km = 3038336 ÷ 100000

⇒ Actual distance = 30.38336 km

⇒ Rounded value = 30.38 km

∴ The correct answer is 30.38 km.

Given:

Initial population = 210000

Increase in first year = 15%

Increase in second year = 30%

Formula Used:

Population = Initial × (1 + r₁) × (1 + r₂)

Calculation:

⇒ Population after 1^st year = 210000 × 1.15

⇒ = 241500

⇒ Population after 2^nd year = 241500 × 1.30

⇒ = 313950

∴ The correct answer is 313950.

Given:

Length = 49 cm

Breadth = 13 cm

Volume = 5096 cm³

Formula Used:

Volume = Length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

⇒ 5096 = 49 × 13 × h

⇒ 5096 = 637 × h

⇒ h = 5096 ÷ 637

⇒ h = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Given:

Average of A, T, B = 45

Average of A and T = 37

Average of T and B = 47

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ A + T + B = 45 × 3 = 135

⇒ A + T = 37 × 2 = 74

⇒ T + B = 47 × 2 = 94

⇒ (A + T) + (T + B) = 74 + 94

⇒ A + 2T + B = 168

⇒ (A + T + B) + T = 168

⇒ 135 + T = 168

⇒ T = 168 − 135

⇒ T = 33

∴ The correct answer is 33.

Given:

2020: 30 + 12.5 + 22.5

2021: 30 + 25 + 20

2022: 22.5 + 27.5 + 35

2023: 25 + 20 + 30

Formula Used:

Total production = Sum of all three types

Calculation:

⇒ 2020 = 65

⇒ 2021 = 75

⇒ 2022 = 85

⇒ 2023 = 75

⇒ Maximum = 85

∴ The correct answer is 2022.

Given:

Average = 20

Number 1 = 12

Number 2 = 29

Formula Used:

Total Sum = Average × Count

Third Number = Total Sum - (Number 1 + Number 2)

Calculation:

⇒ Total Sum = 20 × 3

⇒ Total Sum = 60

⇒ Third Number = 60 - (12 + 29)

⇒ Third Number = 60 - 41

⇒ Third Number = 19

∴ The correct answer is 19.

The correct answer is Option1: Delay.

Key Points

• The word "alacrity" means brisk and cheerful readiness; a willingness or eagerness to do something promptly. (चुस्ती, तत्परता)
• Example: She accepted the invitation to the party with alacrity.
• "Delay" refers to the act of postponing or putting off something to a later time; it is the opposite of promptness or eagerness. (विलंब)
• Example: His delay in completing the assignment caused a setback in the project timeline.
• Hence, the antonym of "alacrity" is "delay."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Delay.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Promptness (तत्परता): The quality of acting quickly and efficiently.
• Example: The promptness of her response impressed the client.
• Eagerness (उत्सुकता): A keen desire or enthusiasm to do something.
• Example: His eagerness to learn was evident in the way he asked questions during the lecture.
• Enthusiasm (उत्साह): Intense and eager enjoyment, interest, or approval.
• Example: Her enthusiasm for painting was contagious, inspiring others to join her art classes.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Lenient).

Key Points

• The word "stern" means strict, serious, or severe in manner or attitude. It often refers to someone who is firm and uncompromising. (कठोर)
• Example: The principal gave a stern warning to the students about adhering to the school rules.
• "Lenient" refers to being more permissive, tolerant, or less strict in manner or attitude. It is the opposite of being stern. (उदार या नरम)
• Example: The teacher decided to be lenient with the students and allowed them extra time to complete the assignment.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate antonym for 'stern' is 'lenient'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Lenient).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Stringent (सख्त): Extremely strict or severe, especially in enforcing rules or standards.
• Example: The airline has stringent security measures in place to ensure passenger safety.
• Severe (गंभीर या कठोर): Very intense or harsh in nature, often relating to punishment or conditions.
• Example: The severe weather conditions caused the cancellation of several flights.
• Harsh (कठोर): Cruel or rough in tone or action, often causing discomfort or pain.
• Example: The harsh criticism from his peers discouraged him from continuing the project.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. worse and worse .

Key Points

• The sentence talks about the health condition of a person after a heart attack. The word that fits the blank must reflect a worsening or deteriorating condition.
• The phrase "worse and worse" is commonly used to indicate a progressive decline in a situation, making it the most appropriate choice.
• Other options are grammatically or contextually incorrect:
• Option 2: "good and good" is not a standard phrase in English.
• Option 3: "bad and bad" is not idiomatic and lacks grammatical correctness.
• Option 4: "good and better" is contradictory and does not align with the context of a worsening health condition.

Correct sentence: After the heart attack, his health has been getting worse and worse.

Additional Information

• Usage of "worse and worse":
• This phrase is used to describe something that continues to deteriorate over time.
• Example: The weather is getting worse and worse as the storm approaches.
• Other similar expressions:
• Better and better: Indicates progressive improvement (e.g., Her performance is getting better and better).
• Bigger and bigger: Indicates progressive increase in size or magnitude (e.g., The problem is getting bigger and bigger).

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Lightining.

Key Points

• The word "Lightining" is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "Lightning".
• Lightining does not have any meaning in English, and it is a typographical error. (कोई अर्थ नहीं)
• Example: There is no example as the word itself is incorrectly spelled.
• Lightning refers to a natural electrical discharge of very short duration and high voltage, occurring between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud, accompanied by a bright flash and typically thunder. (बिजली का कड़कना)
• Example: During the storm, we saw streaks of lightning illuminating the night sky.
• Therefore, we can conclude that the incorrect spelling is "Lightining", and the correct spelling is "Lightning".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Necessary (आवश्यक): Required to be done, achieved, or present; needed or essential.
• Example: It is necessary to bring your ID card for the entrance exam.
• Occasion (अवसर): A particular event or the time at which it takes place.
• Example: Her birthday was a special occasion for the entire family.
• Mischievous (शरारती): Showing a fondness for causing trouble in a playful way.
• Example: The mischievous child hid behind the curtain, giggling softly.

The correct answer is: Option 1 (interveiw).

Key Points

• The word "interveiw" is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "interview". The word "interview" refers to a formal meeting where someone is questioned to gather information or assess their qualifications. (साक्षात्कार)
• Example: The company scheduled an interview with the shortlisted candidates for the job.
• The correct word "interview" means the act of meeting someone to ask questions, especially for gathering information or assessing suitability for a position. (साक्षात्कार)
• Example: The journalist conducted an interview with the famous actor to learn about his upcoming movie.
• Hence, the word "interveiw" is incorrectly spelled, and the correct spelling is "interview".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 (interveiw).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Journalist (पत्रकार): A person who writes for newspapers, magazines, or broadcasts news on television or radio.
• Example: The journalist covered the breaking news with great accuracy and detail.
• Conducted (आयोजित): To organize and carry out an activity or process.
• Example: The teacher conducted a workshop on creative writing for the students.
• Exclusive (विशेष): Restricted or limited to the person, group, or area concerned.
• Example: The magazine published an exclusive story about the actor's personal life.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. has .

Key Points

• The sentence discusses a factual statement about Mr. Sinha not having children.
• The subject "Mr. Sinha" is singular, and the verb must agree with the singular subject.
• The correct verb form to use is "has," which is appropriate for third-person singular subjects.
• Options such as "have," "should," and "is having" are incorrect in this context due to grammatical rules and the intended meaning of the sentence.

Correct sentence: Mr. Sinha has no children.

Additional Information

• Usage of "has": "Has" is used for singular subjects in the present tense to show possession or attributes.
• Usage of "have": "Have" is used for plural subjects or with "I" and "you" in the present tense.
• Incorrect usage of "should": "Should" implies advice or obligation, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Incorrect usage of "is having": "Is having" denotes a continuous action, which is not applicable in this factual statement.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. a belief.

Key Points

• The word belief is singular and countable, so it requires an article.
• The indefinite article "a" is used before singular countable nouns that begin with a consonant sound.
• In this sentence, "a belief" fits grammatically and contextually.

Correct sentence: There is a belief that coffee is good for health.

Additional Information

• Usage of Articles:
• "a": Used before singular countable nouns starting with a consonant sound. Example: a car, a belief.
• "an": Used before singular countable nouns starting with a vowel sound. Example: an apple, an idea.
• "the": Used to refer to specific or previously mentioned nouns. Example: the book on the table.
• No article required: Used for general references to uncountable nouns or plural nouns. Example: Coffee is good for health.

The correct answer is: Eloquent.

Key Points

• The word "Eloquent" means expressing oneself in a clear, persuasive, and impactful manner, often with the use of articulate and compelling language. (प्रभावशाली वक्ता)
• Example: The lawyer's eloquent arguments convinced the jury to reconsider the verdict.
• In the given context, the politician's speech was described as a masterful display of rhetoric, filled with persuasive arguments and stirring appeals to emotion, which captivated the audience. This matches the meaning of "Eloquent." (प्रभावशाली वक्ता)
• Example: The politician's eloquent speech inspired his followers to support his vision for the future.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Eloquent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Inarticulate (अस्पष्ट): Lacking the ability to express oneself clearly or effectively.
• Example: His inarticulate response made it difficult for the audience to understand his point.
• Hackneyed (सामान्य या घिसा-पिटा): Something that is overused, unoriginal, or lacking freshness.
• Example: The movie's hackneyed plot failed to impress the critics.
• Bombastic (शब्दाडंबरपूर्ण): High-sounding language with little meaning, used to impress people.
• Example: His bombastic claims about solving all the country's problems were met with skepticism.

The correct answer is: Induction.

Key Points

• The word "Induction" refers to a logical process of reasoning where specific observations are used to form a general conclusion. (आम धारणा बनाने के लिए विशेष अवलोकनों का उपयोग करना)
• Example: Sherlock Holmes used induction by piecing together various observations and evidence to solve the mystery.
• "Induction" is a systematic approach to reasoning that involves analyzing data, evidence, or patterns to arrive at a conclusion. (तर्क का एक व्यवस्थित दृष्टिकोण जो डेटा, साक्ष्य या पैटर्न का विश्लेषण करता है)
• Example: A scientist observes that several plants grow better in sunlight and concludes that sunlight is essential for plant growth.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Induction.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Intuition (सहज ज्ञान): The ability to understand something immediately, without the need for conscious reasoning.
• Example: She had an intuition that something was wrong, even though all the evidence suggested otherwise.
• Deviation (विचलन): The action of departing from an established course or accepted standard.
• Example: The sudden deviation from the plan caught everyone by surprise.
• Perception (धारणा): The ability to see, hear, or become aware of something through the senses.
• Example: His perception of the situation was influenced by his personal experiences.

The correct answer is ' Option 4' i.e. BACDE.

Key Points

• To arrange the sentences in a coherent paragraph, we need to follow the logical sequence of events.
• Sentence B introduces the main event: the discovery of gold at Sutter's Mill in 1848, which sparked the California Gold Rush.
• Sentence A follows logically, describing how thousands of people flocked to California in search of wealth.
• Sentence C explains the transformative effects of the Gold Rush on California's economy and society.
• Sentence D highlights the negative environmental impact caused by destructive mining methods.
• Sentence E wraps up the paragraph by discussing the enduring legacy of the Gold Rush.

Correct sequence: BACDE

Additional Information

• Tips for solving jumbled sentences:
• Identify the introductory sentence, which often introduces a topic or event.
• Look for sentences that logically follow the introduction, providing details or effects.
• Find sentences that conclude the paragraph by summarizing or discussing the legacy.
• Practice: Regular practice with similar questions can help improve sequencing skills.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. The; the.

Key Points

• The definite article "The" is used to refer to something specific or unique. In this context, the Amazon rainforest is a specific and well-known entity, so the first blank should be filled with "The."
• The phrase "lungs of the Earth" is a specific metaphor used to describe the Amazon rainforest's role in producing oxygen and maintaining the planet's ecological balance. Hence, the second blank should also be filled with "the."
• Option 3, "The; the," appropriately fits both blanks and ensures the sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.

Correct sentence: The Amazon rainforest, often referred to as the lungs of the Earth, is a vital ecosystem facing numerous threats.

Additional Information

• Usage of Articles:
• "The": Used before specific or well-known nouns (e.g., the Sun, the Moon).
• "An": Used before singular, countable nouns starting with a vowel sound (e.g., an apple).
• "A": Used before singular, countable nouns starting with a consonant sound (e.g., a book).

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. People cannot change their innate nature.

Key Points

• The proverb "A leopard cannot change its spots" means that it is impossible for someone to change their innate or inherent nature. (कोई अपनी स्वाभाविक प्रकृति को नहीं बदल सकता है।)
• Example: Despite promising to reform, his dishonest behavior proved that a leopard cannot change its spots.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. People cannot change their innate nature.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: An animal remains an animal (जानवर हमेशा जानवर रहता है।): This option suggests that animals cannot change their behavior, but it does not correctly represent the meaning of the proverb.
• Example: A lion will always hunt for prey because an animal remains an animal.
• Option 3: It is difficult to differentiate between good and bad (अच्छे और बुरे में अंतर करना कठिन है।): This is unrelated to the proverb as the focus is on innate nature, not differentiation.
• Example: In a crowded marketplace, it can be difficult to differentiate between good and bad products.
• Option 4: Black spots are difficult to remove (काले धब्बे हटाना कठिन होता है।): This option is literal and does not reflect the metaphorical meaning of the proverb.
• Example: The ink stain on the shirt showed that black spots are difficult to remove.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. BDACE.

Key Points

• The question asks us to arrange the jumbled sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
• We begin by identifying the introductory sentence, which establishes the main idea of the paragraph. Sentence B introduces the topic by stating what happens "when one society conquers another."
• The second sentence is logically D, which elaborates on how the victorious society spreads its ideas and customs to the conquered people.
• The third sentence is A, which highlights the reverse scenario where the defeated society influences the conquerors.
• Sentence C then follows, explaining that such mutual exchanges are common in history and contemporary times.
• The final sentence is E, which provides a modern example of this phenomenon — the relationship between the United States and Japan.

Correct sequence: B → D → A → C → E.

Additional Information

• When solving such questions, always look for the introductory sentence. It usually contains a general idea and does not depend on any other sentence for its meaning.
• Pay attention to linking words like "other times," "sometimes," "this," and "one modern example," as they help establish the sequence of sentences.
• The concluding sentence often provides a specific example or a summary of the idea discussed.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "Usually, bad news is what reaches you quickly, hence not receiving any news is a good thing."

Key Points

• The proverb "No news is good news" means that if you do not hear any news, it is likely that everything is going well. (कोई खबर न होना अच्छी बात है)
• Example: I haven’t heard from my friend in weeks, but I’m not worried—no news is good news!
• In this context, it suggests that bad news tends to spread quickly, while the absence of news likely indicates that there are no issues to worry about. (समाचार नहीं मिलने का मतलब है कि सब कुछ ठीक है।)
• Example: When the company didn’t call me back for days, I assumed no news is good news and waited patiently.
• Hence, the correct interpretation of the proverb aligns with Option 4.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "Good news never reaches you, since it travels much slower than bad news." (अच्छी खबर आप तक कभी नहीं पहुँचती क्योंकि यह बुरी खबर की तुलना में धीमी गति से चलती है।)
• Example: Some people believe good news takes time to spread, but this is not always true.
• Option 2: "There is always something negative in everything, hence there is no such thing as completely good news." (हर चीज में कुछ न कुछ नकारात्मक होता है, इसलिए पूरी तरह से अच्छी खबर जैसी कोई चीज नहीं होती।)
• Example: This interpretation assumes negativity in all situations, which contradicts the optimistic tone of the proverb.
• Option 3: "Good news is generally known to everyone by the time it reaches you, hence it is not news at all." (अच्छी खबर आम तौर पर आप तक पहुँचने तक सभी को पता चल जाती है, इसलिए यह खबर नहीं होती।)
• Example: This explanation overlooks the idea that good news does not spread as quickly as bad news.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. elder to .

Key Points

• The word "elder" is used to compare two people in terms of age, especially within a family or formal context.
• "Elder to" is the correct phrase to use when establishing a comparison in this sentence.
• The word "older" is generally used in broader contexts but not with the preposition "to."
• Incorrect options:
• "Older than" (Option 1): While grammatically correct, it is not appropriate here as "elder" is more formal and fits better.
• "Elder than" (Option 3): This is incorrect because the preposition "than" is not used with "elder."
• "Older to" (Option 4): This is incorrect because "older" does not pair with the preposition "to."

Correct sentence: Is your friend Raghav elder to you?.

Additional Information

• Difference between "elder" and "older":
• Elder: Used for people, usually within a formal or familial context.
• Older: Used for comparing age, but also applicable to objects, relationships, etc.
• Prepositions:
• "Elder to": Correct pairing for formal comparisons.
• "Older than": Commonly used for general comparisons.

The correct answer is option3. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

The correct answer is option3. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

The correct answer is option1. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

The correct answer is Option 2: The journalist knew the pulse of the villagers well and spoke to them accordingly.

Key Points

• In the passage, the word ‘pulse’ is used metaphorically to mean understanding the feelings, opinions, or mood of employees.
• The phrase “take their pulse” refers to assessing the general sentiment or attitude of the workforce.
• Option 2 correctly uses ‘pulse’ to indicate awareness of people’s thoughts and emotions.
• Other options use ‘pulse’ in the literal sense (heartbeat) or as a noun for food grains, which do not match the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Usage: "The journalist knew the pulse of the villagers well and spoke to them accordingly."

Additional Information

• Option 1: Refers to ‘pulses’ as food items (lentils), not relevant to the passage.
• Option 3: Refers to the physical heartbeat, which is a literal meaning.
• Option 4: Again uses ‘pulses’ in the sense of food, not metaphorical meaning.

The correct answer is option2. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

दी गई लोकोक्ति 'अपनी दही को कोई खट्टा नहीं कहता' का सही अर्थ है- अपनी चीज़ को कोई बुरा नहीं कहता

Key Points

• 'अपनी दही को कोई खट्टा नहीं कहता' लोकोक्ति का भाव यह है कि प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को अपनी वस्तु, विचार या कार्य श्रेष्ठ ही लगते हैं और वह उनमें दोष नहीं देखता।
• ​वाक्य प्रयोग - अजय ने जो पुरानी गाड़ी मुझे बेची, उसकी इतनी तारीफ कर रहा था जैसे वह बिल्कुल नई हो। सच है, "अपनी दही को कोई खट्टा नहीं कहता"।
• लोकोक्ति का शाब्दिक अर्थ 'लोक में प्रचलित उक्ति' है। यह किसी विशेष अनुभव पर आधारित पूर्ण वाक्य होता है जो जीवन के सत्य को संक्षिप्त रूप में व्यक्त करता है।
• अन्य उदाहरण: 1. अपनी गली में कुत्ता भी शेर होता है। 2. अपनी-अपनी ढपली, अपना-अपना राग।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 लोकोक्ति के मुख्य लक्षण-

1. यह पूर्ण वाक्य होती है और इसका प्रयोग स्वतंत्र रूप से किया जा सकता है।
2. इसका अर्थ प्रत्यक्ष न होकर व्यंजनात्मक या लाक्षणिक होता है।
3. लोकोक्ति का जन्म लोक-अनुभवों और जन-साधारण की बातचीत से होता है।

Additional Information

'जिसका भाषा द्वारा वर्णन असंभव हो' वाक्यांश का सही उत्तर है- अनिर्वचनीय

Key Points

• 'जिसका भाषा द्वारा वर्णन असंभव हो' के लिए एक शब्द 'अनिर्वचनीय' होता है। यह शब्द 'अ' (नहीं) + 'निर्' (बिना) + 'वचनीय' (कहने योग्य) से मिलकर बना है।
• हिंदी व्याकरण में कम से कम शब्दों में अधिक से अधिक विचारों को अभिव्यक्त करने के लिए वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण:
• जो वाणी द्वारा व्यक्त न किया जा सके - अनिर्वचनीय।
• जो वचन या वाणी से परे हो - वचनातीत।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द के कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण उदाहरण-

1. जो इंद्रियों द्वारा न जाना जा सके - अगोचर
2. जिसकी आशा न की गई हो - अप्रत्याशित
3. जो पहले कभी न हुआ हो - अभूतपूर्व
4. समान उदर से जन्म लेने वाला - सहोदर
5. जो किए गए उपकारों को न मानता हो - कृतघ्न
6. जिसके समान कोई दूसरा न हो - अद्वितीय
7. जो सब कुछ जानता हो - सर्वज्ञ
8. जो बहुत कम जानता हो - अल्पज्ञ

रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए उचित क्रिया-विशेषण शब्द का सही उत्तर है- आजकल

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्य में 'आजकल' सबसे उपयुक्त शब्द है क्योंकि यह वर्तमान समय की स्थिति या दौर का बोध करा रहा है।
• वाक्य का पूर्ण रूप होगा - "आजकल धर्म तो धूर्तों का अड्डा बना हुआ है।"
• जो शब्द क्रिया की विशेषता बताते हैं, उन्हें क्रिया-विशेषण कहते हैं।
• समय का बोध कराने वाले क्रिया-विशेषणों को कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहा जाता है।
• अन्य उदाहरण:

(1) वह आजकल घर पर ही रहता है। (2) आजकल महंगाई बहुत बढ़ गई है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 क्रिया-विशेषण के मुख्य भेद-

1. कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण (समय का बोध)
2. स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण (स्थान का बोध)
3. परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण (मात्रा का बोध)
4. रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण (क्रिया के होने के ढंग का बोध)

Additional Information