DSSSB TGT (Maths) Official Paper (Held On: 14 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number × 9) = 2^nd number.

Now,

For, 1 : 9

⇒ (1 × 9) = 9.

For, 5 : 45

⇒ (5 × 9) = 45.

Similarly, for 7 : 63

⇒ (7 × 9) = 63.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

L is the husband of K.

K is the mother of T and U.

T is the wife of O.

U is the father of J.

Let us decode the relationships step by step to draw the family tree:

L K T O U J

Hence, T is J's Father's sister.

The correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 94.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1";

The logic followed here is:

For 'ZTV':

For 'XRT':

For 'VPS':

For 'TNP':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is VPS.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given series:

(Left) 311   199   481   276   158 (Right)

The largest number is 481

The third digit of 481 is 1.

The smallest number is 158.

The second digit of 158 is 5.

Result = (Third digit of largest number) + (Second digit of smallest number)

Result = 1 + 5 = 6

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

PACK – CAKP – PAKC

  P A C K     C A K P     P A K C

And,

RAIN – IANR – RANI

  R A I N     I A N R     R A N I

Similarly,

NAME – AEMN – NAEM

  N A M E     A E M N     N A E M

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For 'ZWV':

For 'TRP':

For 'SPO':

For 'IFE':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is TRP.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

The common letters are A, S, and D. The common digits in the codes '5123' and '4321' are 1, 2, and 3.

Clearly, 4 is the number for the letter H.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is UL 107.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given : Six boxes – A, B, C, D, E, and F are placed one above the other. There are 6 positions, where 6 is the topmost and 1 is the bottommost.

1. F is placed second from the bottom.

2. Only three boxes are placed between A and F.

3. A is placed immediately above E.

4. B is placed immediately below F.

5. Only one box is placed between D and E.

6. D is placed immediately below C.

The box at position 6 is the top. The box at position 5 is second from the top.

Box E is at position 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given : Six boxes – A, B, C, D, E, and F are placed one above the other in a stack of 6 positions.

1. B is placed third from the bottom.

2. C is placed immediately above B and E is placed immediately below B.

3. Only two boxes are placed between B and F.

4. A is placed immediately below F.

5. Only two boxes are placed between C and D.

The top box is F (6). The box placed second from the top is at position 5.

Box A is at position 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

**Given

Statements:

**

• All rulers are fruits.
• Some fruits are sweets.
• All sweets are corn.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusions:

I. Some rulers are sweets - False (There is no direct intersection defined between rulers and sweets; it is a possibility, but not a definite conclusion).

II. All fruits are corn - False (Only those fruits that are sweets are definitely corn; we cannot say all fruits are corn based on the given information).

So, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given

Statement:

The Board of Directors has decided to conduct a thorough audit of all financial transactions for the past five years.

Now,

Assumptions:

1. There may have been financial discrepancies in the past - Implicit (An audit is typically initiated when there is a possibility or suspicion of irregularities, errors, or discrepancies that need to be identified or ruled out.)
2. The company wants to ensure transparency and accountability in its financial transactions - Implicit (The primary objective of conducting a thorough five-year audit is to verify records, ensure compliance, and establish clear accountability for the company's financial dealings.)

Here, Both assumptions I and II are implicit.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number × 3) + 5 = 2^nd number.

Now,

For, 14 : 47

⇒ (14 × 3) + 5 = 42 + 5 = 47.

For, 23 : 74

⇒ (23 × 3) + 5 = 69 + 5 = 74.

Similarly, for 42 ∶ ?

⇒ (42 × 3) + 5 = 126 + 5 = 131.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given interchange rules are: ‘+’ ↔ ‘−’ and ‘×’ ↔ ‘÷’.

The original equation: 78 − 24 ÷ 5 + 32 × 8 = ?

After applying the interchange rules, the new equation is:

78 + 24 × 5 − 32 ÷ 8 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

78 + 24 × 5 − 32 ÷ 8

⇒ 78 + 24 × 5 − 4

⇒ 78 + 120 − 4

⇒ 198 − 4 = 194

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The given three-digit numbers are: 305, 287, 599, 363, 296.

Now,

The largest number is 599. Its first digit is 5.

The smallest number is 287. Its third digit is 7.

Perform the subtraction.

Subtract the first digit of the largest number 5 from the third digit of the smallest number 7.

7 - 5 = 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 

City G is to the north of City L.

City V is to the south of City L.

City Q is to the east of City S.

City Q is to the east of City L.

City G is to the north-east of City S.

So, the position of City S with respect to City V is North-West.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

1. F sits to the immediate right of E.
2. B sits fourth to the left of E.
3. Only one person sits between B and A.
4. C sits immediate left of A. D sits second to the left of F.

Final Arrangement: B, C, A, D, E, F. Now check the pairs:

1. DE: D and E are immediate neighbors.

2. CA: C and A are immediate neighbors.

3. AD: A and D are immediate neighbors.

4) BF: B and F are at extreme ends, not neighbors.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is OBJ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The given interchange rules are: ‘+’ ↔ ‘−’ and ‘×’ ↔ ‘÷’.

The original equation: 28 × 7 − 40 ÷ 2 + 39 = ?

After applying the interchange rules, the new equation is:

28 ÷ 7 + 40 × 2 − 39 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

28 ÷ 7 + 40 × 2 − 39

⇒ 4 + 40 × 2 − 39

⇒ 4 + 80 − 39

⇒ 84 − 39 = 45

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

Key Points

• The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, was a major legislation passed by the Parliament of India aimed at the reorganization of states and territories based on linguistic and administrative considerations.
• It was enacted following the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC), which was chaired by Fazal Ali. The other two members of the commission were K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru.
• The Act led to the establishment of five zonal councils: Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern, under the State Reorganisation Act. These councils were created to foster inter-state cooperation and resolve disputes among states.
• The zonal councils are advisory bodies and play a key role in discussing common issues such as economic planning, border disputes, and infrastructure development.
• The Act came into effect on 1 November 1956, and it resulted in the restructuring of Indian states and union territories into 14 states and six union territories, based predominantly on linguistic lines.

Additional Information

• Background of the States Reorganisation Act:
• After India’s independence in 1947, the country inherited a diverse set of princely states and provinces with significant linguistic and cultural differences.
• The demand for linguistic states gained momentum, particularly after the death of Potti Sriramulu in 1952, who fasted to death for the creation of Andhra Pradesh for Telugu-speaking people.
• This led to the creation of the States Reorganisation Commission in 1953, which recommended reorganizing states on a linguistic basis.
• Zonal Councils:
• Zonal councils were created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 to promote cooperation and coordination between states and the central government.
• These councils comprise representatives of states and union territories in the respective zones, chaired by the Union Home Minister.
• The councils are not binding but provide a platform for resolving disputes amicably.
• Features of the States Reorganisation Act:
• It abolished the earlier classification of states (Part A, B, C, and D) and introduced a uniform state structure.
• It reorganized the country into 14 states and 6 union territories based on linguistic and cultural similarities.
• It also introduced provisions for inter-state councils and zonal councils to promote federal cooperation.
• Examples of Reorganized States:
• Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953 for Telugu-speaking people after separating from the Madras Presidency.
• Similarly, Maharashtra and Gujarat were created in 1960 by bifurcating the Bombay state along linguistic lines.
• Punjab and Haryana were reorganized in 1966 to create a separate state for Punjabi-speaking people.

Important Points

• Constitutional Provisions:
• The power to reorganize states is derived from Article 3 of the Indian Constitution.
• Under Article 3, the Parliament has the power to create, abolish, or alter the boundaries and names of states.
• This requires the President’s recommendation before introducing any bill in Parliament for state reorganization.
• Significance of the Act:
• The Act played a crucial role in addressing regional aspirations and promoting administrative efficiency.
• It laid the foundation for a linguistically and culturally cohesive federal structure in India.
• The reorganization also aimed at fostering national integration and reducing regional disparities.
• Later Developments:
• Post-1956, several new states were created, such as Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Uttarakhand in 2000, and Telangana in 2014.
• The process of state reorganization remains dynamic and continues to address socio-political demands.

The correct answer is Mutation and Recombination.

Key Points

• Mutation:
• A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence, which can lead to new genetic variations.
• Mutations occur due to errors during DNA replication or external factors like radiation or chemicals.
• They are crucial for generating diversity in populations as they introduce new traits that can be beneficial, neutral, or harmful.
• Mutations contribute to evolutionary processes, allowing species to adapt to changing environments.
• Recombination:
• Genetic recombination occurs during sexual reproduction, specifically during meiosis.
• In recombination, segments of DNA are shuffled between chromosomes, creating new combinations of alleles.
• This process increases genetic diversity, ensuring offspring have unique genetic traits.
• Recombination is essential for maintaining genetic variability within populations.
• Role in Diversity:
• Both mutation and recombination are fundamental biological processes responsible for creating genetic diversity.
• While mutations introduce new genetic material, recombination rearranges existing genetic material.
• These processes enable populations to evolve over time, providing the genetic foundation for adaptation and survival.
• Examples:
• Mutations in bacteria can lead to antibiotic resistance, showcasing the role of genetic changes in survival.
• Recombination during meiosis leads to unique genetic combinations in humans, influencing traits like eye color and height.

Additional Information

• Mitosis:
• Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells.
• It plays a role in growth, repair, and maintenance of tissues but does not contribute to genetic diversity.
• Hybridization:
• Hybridization involves the crossing of two genetically distinct individuals to produce offspring with a mix of traits.
• It can lead to genetic diversity but is not a fundamental biological process like mutation or recombination.
• Transpiration and Photosynthesis:
• Transpiration refers to the loss of water vapor from plants, while photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy.
• These processes are vital for plant survival but do not directly contribute to genetic diversity.
• Evolutionary Impact:
• Mutations and recombination drive natural selection, a key mechanism of evolution.
• Species with higher genetic diversity are better equipped to adapt to environmental changes and survive.
• Applications:
• Understanding mutations and recombination helps in fields like genetic engineering, medicine, and conservation biology.
• For example, genetic recombination is utilized in creating genetically modified crops with desirable traits.

Important Points

• Mutation Rates:
• Mutation rates vary across species and are influenced by factors like environmental conditions and replication machinery.
• In humans, the mutation rate is estimated to be around 1 mutation per 10 million base pairs per generation.
• Meiosis and Recombination:
• Recombination occurs during prophase I of meiosis, where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material.
• This process ensures genetic variation in gametes and is a cornerstone of sexual reproduction.
• Impact on Biodiversity:
• Genetic diversity is a key driver of biodiversity, enabling ecosystems to function effectively.
• Loss of genetic diversity can lead to reduced adaptability and increased extinction risk.
• Research and Studies:
• Numerous studies, such as those in population genetics, explore the role of mutation and recombination in shaping genetic landscapes.
• Understanding these processes helps in predicting evolutionary trends and managing genetic resources.

The correct answer is Abu Bakr.

Key Points

• After the death of Prophet Muhammad in 632 CE, the Muslim community chose Abu Bakr, one of Muhammad's closest companions, as the first caliph (successor).
• Abu Bakr was known for his unwavering support to Prophet Muhammad and was one of the first converts to Islam. He was given the title Al-Siddiq, meaning "The Truthful," due to his steadfast faith.
• His caliphate lasted from 632 CE to 634 CE, during which he played a crucial role in unifying the Arabian Peninsula under Islam.
• Abu Bakr successfully dealt with the Ridda Wars (Wars of Apostasy), which were rebellions by various Arab tribes who refused to pay zakat (charity tax) or accept the authority of the caliphate.
• He also initiated the compilation of the Quran into a single manuscript form, ensuring the preservation of the holy text.

Additional Information

• Uthman:
• Uthman ibn Affan was the third caliph of Islam, succeeding Umar. He served as caliph from 644 CE to 656 CE.
• During his rule, the Quran was standardized, and copies were distributed to different regions of the Islamic empire.
• He faced criticism for alleged nepotism and favoritism, which ultimately led to internal dissent and his assassination.
• Ali:
• Ali ibn Abi Talib, the cousin and son-in-law of Prophet Muhammad, became the fourth caliph after Uthman’s assassination in 656 CE.
• He is highly revered in Islam, especially among Shia Muslims, who consider him the first legitimate imam.
• His caliphate was marked by internal conflicts, including the Battle of the Camel and the Battle of Siffin.
• Ali was assassinated in 661 CE, leading to the establishment of the Umayyad Caliphate.
• Umar:
• Umar ibn al-Khattab succeeded Abu Bakr as the second caliph and ruled from 634 CE to 644 CE.
• He is known for his administrative reforms and the expansion of the Islamic empire into Persia, Byzantium, and Egypt.
• Under his leadership, the Muslim calendar (Hijri calendar) was introduced, starting from the year of Prophet Muhammad’s migration (Hijra) to Medina.
• Umar was assassinated by a Persian slave named Abu Lu'lu'a in 644 CE.
• Significance of Caliphs:
• The first four caliphs, known as the Rightly Guided Caliphs (Rashidun), are considered exemplary leaders in Islamic history.
• They played a pivotal role in spreading Islam beyond the Arabian Peninsula and establishing the foundations of Islamic governance.
• Their leadership helped consolidate the teachings of Islam and maintain the unity of the Muslim community (Ummah).

Important Points

• The selection of Abu Bakr as the first caliph was based on consultation among the Prophet's companions (Sahabah). This process set a precedent for the selection of subsequent caliphs.
• The Ridda Wars were critical in preserving the unity of the Islamic state and preventing fragmentation after the Prophet's death.
• The term caliph (khalifah) means "successor" or "representative" and signifies the leader of the Muslim community.
• The compilation of the Quran during Abu Bakr’s time ensured the preservation of the holy text, which remains unchanged to this day.

The correct answer is NCT of Delhi.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 Census, the NCT of Delhi (National Capital Territory of Delhi) has the highest population density among all Union Territories in India.
• The population density of Delhi is recorded at 11,297 persons per square kilometer, which is significantly higher than any other Union Territory or state in India.
• Population density refers to the number of people living per unit area, typically per square kilometer.
• The high population density in Delhi is attributed to its status as the capital city of India, its economic opportunities, and the concentration of administrative and political institutions.
• Other Union Territories like Chandigarh, Puducherry, and Lakshadweep have comparatively lower population densities, making Delhi the most densely populated Union Territory.

Additional Information

• NCT of Delhi:
• Delhi is officially known as the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
• It is the political, administrative, and cultural hub of India, attracting a large influx of migrants from across the country.
• Delhi has a total area of 1,484 square kilometers, and its population as per the 2011 Census was approximately 16.8 million.
• Being an urban center, Delhi offers numerous opportunities in sectors like education, healthcare, business, and government employment, contributing to its high population density.
• Chandigarh:
• Chandigarh is a Union Territory and serves as the capital of two states—Punjab and Haryana.
• Its population density is significantly lower than Delhi, recorded at 9,252 persons per square kilometer in 2011.
• Chandigarh is known for its well-planned infrastructure, modern architecture, and relatively high standard of living.
• Puducherry:
• Puducherry (formerly known as Pondicherry) is a coastal Union Territory in southern India.
• Its population density, as per the 2011 Census, was around 2,598 persons per square kilometer.
• Puducherry is known for its French colonial heritage and attracts tourists due to its unique cultural blend and seaside location.
• Lakshadweep:
• Lakshadweep is a Union Territory consisting of a group of islands located off the southwestern coast of India.
• It has the lowest population density among Union Territories, recorded at 2,149 persons per square kilometer in the 2011 Census.
• The low population density is due to its limited land area and relatively small population.

Important Points

• Population Density Index:
• Population density is an important demographic indicator, highlighting the distribution of population relative to land area.
• Urban areas, such as Delhi, tend to have higher population densities due to industrialization, job opportunities, and infrastructure development.
• Rural and remote areas, such as Lakshadweep, have lower population densities because of limited accessibility and natural constraints.
• Significance of Census Data:
• The Census is conducted every 10 years in India to provide comprehensive data on population statistics.
• The 2011 Census remains the most recent complete dataset available for population-related metrics.
• Accurate data on population density helps in urban planning, resource allocation, and infrastructure development.

The correct answer is Winter season.

Key Points

• Clear skies: The winter season in India is marked by predominantly clear skies, which is a characteristic of high-pressure systems dominating the region during this time.
• Low humidity: During the winter, the humidity levels drop significantly, especially in northern India, due to the absence of monsoonal moisture and cooler temperatures.
• Mild and variable winds: The winds during winter are generally mild and variable, often influenced by the high-pressure systems prevailing over northern parts of India.
• High-pressure systems: Northern India experiences high-pressure zones during winter, leading to stable weather conditions and cooler temperatures.
• Seasonal timing: The winter season in India typically spans from late November to February, with January often being the coldest month.

Additional Information

• Southwest monsoon season:
• Occurs from June to September and is characterized by heavy rainfall across most parts of India.
• Dominated by moist winds from the Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea, leading to high humidity and cloudy skies.
• The southwest monsoon is responsible for around 75% of India's annual rainfall.
• Summer season:
• Occurs from March to May and is marked by high temperatures, especially in northern and central India.
• Heatwaves are common during this period, and humidity varies depending on the region.
• Pre-monsoon showers, known as "Mango showers," occur in certain parts of southern India during this time.
• Returning monsoon season:
• Also known as the northeast monsoon, it occurs from October to December.
• This season primarily impacts southeastern India, including Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, bringing rainfall.
• Unlike the southwest monsoon, the winds during this season are dry and come from the northeast.
• Winter season:
• Occurs from late November to February, with clear skies and cooler temperatures dominating the northern part of India.
• Regions in the Himalayas experience snowfall, while plains witness chilly winds and foggy conditions.
• The winter season is influenced by western disturbances, which occasionally bring rainfall to northern India.

Important Points

• Western Disturbances:
• These are extratropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region that impact northern India during winter.
• They bring sporadic rainfall and snowfall to the Himalayan region, occasionally extending to the northern plains.
• Temperature variability:
• Winter temperatures in northern India can drop below 5°C, while southern India remains relatively warm.
• Coastal regions experience milder winters compared to inland areas.
• Agricultural impact:
• Winter is crucial for rabi crops like wheat, mustard, and barley, which thrive in cooler temperatures.
• Fog and frost during extreme winter conditions can sometimes impact crop yields negatively.

The correct answer is Final Good.

Key Points

• Final goods are goods that are ultimately consumed by the end user and do not require any further processing. They are ready for use.
• They contribute to the calculation of a nation's Gross Domestic Product (GDP), as they are the finished goods sold to consumers.
• Examples of final goods include a car purchased by a consumer, a loaf of bread bought by a household, or a piece of furniture used in a home.
• In contrast to intermediate goods, which are used as inputs to produce other goods, final goods are meant for immediate consumption or investment.
• The purchase of final goods directly reflects consumer demand in an economy. Hence, the correct answer is Final Good.

Additional Information

• Intermediate Goods:
• These are goods used as inputs in the production of other goods and services.
• Examples include raw materials like steel used to manufacture cars or flour used by bakeries to produce bread.
• They are not included in GDP calculations to avoid double counting.
• Producers' Goods:
• These goods are used by producers or manufacturers to create finished goods or services.
• Examples include machinery, tools, and equipment used in factories.
• They help in the production process but are not directly consumed by end users.
• Public Goods:
• These are goods that are provided by the government for public use and are non-excludable and non-rivalrous.
• Examples include street lighting, national defense, and public parks.
• They are typically funded through taxes and benefit society as a whole.
• Characteristics of Final Goods:
• They are ready for sale to the final consumer without any additional processing.
• They can be durable (e.g., cars, appliances) or non-durable (e.g., food, clothing).
• Final goods are categorized into consumer goods and capital goods. Consumer goods are for personal use, while capital goods are for investment purposes.

Important Points

• Consumer Goods vs. Capital Goods:
• Consumer goods are final goods meant for direct consumption, such as food, clothing, and electronics.
• Capital goods are final goods used for producing other goods and services, such as machinery and equipment.
• GDP Contribution:
• Only final goods are included in GDP calculations to avoid the issue of double counting, which would distort economic data.
• Intermediate goods are excluded because their value is already included in the final goods they help produce.

The correct answer is Tropical Thorn Forests.

Key Points

• Khair (Acacia catechu) and Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) trees are primarily found in Tropical Thorn Forests, which are characterized by their ability to survive in arid and semi-arid regions.
• Tropical Thorn Forests are typically located in regions with low rainfall (less than 70 cm annually), high temperatures, and frequent droughts. Such conditions prevail in parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh in India.
• These forests are dominated by xerophytic vegetation, which are drought-resistant plants adapted to conserve water through features like thick bark, small leaves, and deep root systems.
• Khair and Khejri trees are integral to the ecological balance of arid and semi-arid regions. They help prevent soil erosion, provide shade, and are used for fodder, fuelwood, and medicinal purposes.
• The presence of Khejri trees, in particular, is significant in desert ecosystems like the Thar Desert as it supports biodiversity and contributes to the livelihoods of rural communities.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Tropical Thorn Forests:
• These forests are found in areas with arid climates and feature sparse vegetation.
• Typical flora includes thorny trees, shrubs, and grasses like Babool, Ber, Cactus, and Neem.
• The trees in these forests are short and stunted, with hard, woody stems and small, waxy leaves to minimize water loss.
• Importance of Khejri Trees:
• Khejri trees are often referred to as the "lifeline of the desert" due to their ability to survive harsh desert conditions.
• The tree is culturally and economically significant in Rajasthan, where it is used for fodder, firewood, and traditional medicines.
• Khejri contributes to soil fertility by fixing atmospheric nitrogen and is associated with sustainable agriculture in arid regions.
• Other Types of Forests in India:
• Mangrove Forests: Found in coastal regions, they are characterized by salt-tolerant vegetation like mangroves. Examples include the Sundarbans in West Bengal.
• Tropical Evergreen Forests: Found in areas with high rainfall (above 200 cm), such as the Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They have dense vegetation and trees like Mahogany and Rosewood.
• Mountainous Forests: Found in hilly and mountainous regions of India, they vary with altitude and include coniferous trees like Pine, Deodar, and Fir in higher altitudes.
• Adaptations of Xerophytic Plants:
• Thick bark and waxy coatings to reduce water loss.
• Deep root systems to access underground water sources.
• Small or modified leaves (e.g., spines) to minimize transpiration.

Important Points

• Khair: Widely used for its heartwood, which is a source of catechu (used in traditional medicine and tanning).
• Khejri: Declared the state tree of Rajasthan, it is a symbol of ecological and cultural significance in the desert regions of India.
• Role in Desert Ecosystems: Both Khair and Khejri trees play a critical role in stabilizing sand dunes and supporting rural livelihoods.
• Conservation Efforts: Several afforestation projects and government schemes promote the planting of drought-resistant trees to combat desertification.

The correct answer is 1969.

Key Points

• India adopted the concept of social banking and the multi-agency approach in 1969 to address the inadequacies in rural credit and improve access to financial services for rural communities.
• This marked a significant shift in India's banking policy, with the nationalization of 14 major banks being a pivotal step in ensuring that banking services reached the rural and underprivileged sectors.
• The primary objective was to provide institutional credit to rural areas, particularly to farmers, artisans, and small-scale industries, which were previously reliant on informal and exploitative sources of credit.
• Through the multi-agency approach, institutions such as Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Cooperative Banks, and Commercial Banks were integrated to cater to the diverse needs of rural credit requirements.
• This initiative laid the foundation for inclusive banking and contributed significantly to rural development, poverty alleviation, and economic empowerment.

Additional Information

• Nationalization of Banks (1969):
• On 19^th July 1969, 14 major private sector banks were nationalized by the Government of India to ensure that banking services catered to the needs of the underserved and rural populations.
• This move aimed to align banking operations with the nation's socio-economic goals, especially to support agriculture, small industries, and weaker sections of society.
• It significantly increased the reach of banks in rural areas and helped in mobilizing savings for economic development.
• Multi-Agency Approach:
• The multi-agency approach involves the collaboration of various banking and financial institutions like Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Cooperative Banks, Commercial Banks, and NABARD to meet diverse rural credit needs.
• This strategy enhanced rural credit delivery, minimized duplication of efforts, and ensured better utilization of resources.
• It also enabled targeted credit assistance for specific sectors such as agriculture, small businesses, and rural infrastructure development.
• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
• RRBs were established in 1975 under the Regional Rural Banks Act to provide banking services to rural areas and promote financial inclusion.
• RRBs focus on providing credit and other financial services to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and rural entrepreneurs.
• They play a crucial role in implementing government-sponsored schemes like PM-KISAN and MGNREGA.
• Cooperative Banks:
• Cooperative banks have been an integral part of rural credit delivery since their inception under the Cooperative Societies Act, 1904.
• These banks are primarily owned and managed by their members and focus on providing affordable credit to farmers and rural communities.
• They operate at various levels, such as Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), District Cooperative Banks, and State Cooperative Banks.
• NABARD:
• The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in 1982 to provide and regulate credit for agriculture and rural development.
• NABARD plays a key role in planning, financing, and implementing rural development programs and schemes.
• It also provides financial and technical assistance to cooperative banks, RRBs, and other rural financial institutions.

Important Points

• Impact of Social Banking:
• Social banking initiatives significantly improved financial inclusion by increasing the number of rural bank branches and extending credit facilities to previously underserved areas.
• They contributed to poverty alleviation, rural employment generation, and agricultural growth through accessible and affordable credit.
• These measures also helped reduce the reliance of rural communities on informal credit sources, such as moneylenders.
• Evolution of Rural Credit Policies:
• Post-1969, India saw a significant transformation in its rural credit policies to focus on targeted lending and the development of priority sectors like agriculture, small-scale industries, and rural infrastructure.
• Government schemes such as Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and PM-KISAN further enhanced rural credit access.
• In recent years, digital initiatives like Aadhaar-enabled payment systems have streamlined rural credit delivery mechanisms.

The correct answer is 2023.

Key Points

• The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) officially came into existence as a full-fledged treaty-based intergovernmental international organization in 2023.
• The IBCA was launched during the Global Tiger Day celebrations in 2023, focusing on the protection and conservation of big cat species such as tigers, lions, leopards, jaguars, cheetahs, and snow leopards.
• This alliance is aimed at uniting range countries and other interested nations to work collaboratively on big cat conservation, ensuring their survival and addressing threats like habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflicts.
• The establishment of the IBCA aligns with India's commitment to wildlife conservation, particularly its efforts under the Project Tiger, which celebrated its 50^th anniversary in 2023.
• India has played a pivotal role in initiating this alliance, leveraging its success in tiger conservation and sharing its expertise with other range countries.

Additional Information

• Big Cats Covered by IBCA:
• The alliance focuses on six big cat species: Tigers, Lions, Leopards, Jaguars, Cheetahs, and Snow Leopards.
• These species are distributed across diverse habitats globally, including grasslands, forests, wetlands, and mountainous regions.
• Big cats are classified as apex predators, playing a vital role in maintaining ecosystem balance and biodiversity.
• India's Role in IBCA:
• India has been a global leader in tiger conservation, hosting approximately 70% of the world's tiger population.
• Under Project Tiger, launched in 1973, India has implemented successful strategies for habitat protection, anti-poaching measures, and community engagement.
• India's experience and leadership in wildlife conservation were instrumental in establishing the IBCA.
• Global Tiger Day:
• Observed annually on 29^th July, Global Tiger Day aims to raise awareness about tiger conservation and the need to protect their habitats.
• The theme for 2023 was aligned with the launch of the IBCA, emphasizing collaborative efforts for big cat conservation.
• Threats to Big Cats:
• Big cats face numerous threats, including habitat destruction, illegal wildlife trade, human-wildlife conflicts, and climate change.
• Conservation efforts focus on addressing these challenges through habitat restoration, anti-poaching initiatives, and community involvement.
• International Collaboration:
• The IBCA encourages global cooperation among range countries, conservation organizations, and researchers to share knowledge and resources.
• It supports the implementation of sustainable practices, policy frameworks, and joint efforts to combat threats to big cat populations.

Important Points

• Project Tiger:
• Launched in 1973, Project Tiger has been India's flagship initiative for tiger conservation.
• It has led to the establishment of 53 tiger reserves across India, covering over 75,000 square kilometers.
• The project's success has been attributed to effective management practices, scientific monitoring, and community participation.
• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:
• This act provides the legal framework for wildlife conservation in India, including the protection of endangered species like tigers and leopards.
• It prohibits hunting, poaching, and trade of protected species, imposing strict penalties for violations.
• Global Conservation Efforts:
• International organizations like the WWF, IUCN, and CITES play a significant role in big cat conservation.
• Collaborative initiatives such as the Global Tiger Forum and transboundary conservation programs aim to protect big cats and their habitats.
• Big Cat Population Statistics:
• According to the WWF, the global tiger population has increased to approximately 3,900, thanks to conservation efforts.
• Lions are primarily found in Africa, with small populations in India (Asiatic lions in Gir National Park).
• Cheetahs were recently reintroduced in India in 2022 under a translocation project from Namibia.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Gujarat - 1299: Alauddin Khilji's campaign in Gujarat occurred in 1299. This invasion was significant as Gujarat was a rich province and provided immense wealth to the Delhi Sultanate. It led to the looting of Somnath temple and the capture of Malik Kafur, who later became an important general in Alauddin's court. This statement is correct.
• Chittorgarh - 1303: In 1303, Alauddin besieged Chittorgarh, the capital of the Rajput kingdom of Mewar. This campaign is notable for the legendary tale of Rani Padmini and the act of Jauhar performed by Rajput women to avoid falling into enemy hands. This statement is correct.
• Ranthambore - 1301: The conquest of Ranthambore occurred in 1301. Alauddin Khilji captured the fort after a prolonged siege. It was considered one of the most formidable forts at the time. This statement is correct.
• Warangal - 1307: This is incorrectly matched. The Warangal campaign occurred later, in 1310-1311, under the leadership of Malik Kafur, one of Alauddin's generals. Warangal was part of the Kakatiya dynasty, and its conquest brought immense wealth to the Sultanate, including the famous Koh-i-Noor diamond. This statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Alauddin Khilji's Military Campaigns:
• Alauddin Khilji ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1296 to 1316. He is remembered for his military conquests and administrative reforms.
• His campaigns were primarily aimed at expanding his empire and securing wealth from rich provinces and kingdoms.
• Some of his notable campaigns include the invasions of Gujarat (1299), Ranthambore (1301), Chittorgarh (1303), Malwa (1305), and the southern expeditions led by Malik Kafur.
• Warangal Campaign:
• The Warangal campaign was part of Alauddin Khilji's southern expeditions. It targeted the Kakatiya dynasty, whose capital was Warangal.
• The campaign led to the capture of immense wealth, including the famed Koh-i-Noor diamond.
• It was spearheaded by Malik Kafur, not Alauddin himself, and occurred between 1310 and 1311.
• Malik Kafur:
• Malik Kafur, also known as "Hazardinari," was a slave-turned-general under Alauddin Khilji.
• He played a crucial role in the southern campaigns, including the conquest of Warangal, Devagiri, and Madurai.
• His expeditions significantly expanded the territory and wealth of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Alauddin Khilji's Administration:
• He is known for implementing strict market reforms, price control measures, and a centralized system of governance.
• He introduced a standing army and ensured the efficient collection of revenue to support his military campaigns.
• His reign marked the peak of the Delhi Sultanate's territorial expansion.

Important Points

• Gujarat Campaign (1299): It was one of Alauddin's earliest campaigns and resulted in the plunder of immense wealth, including the capture of Malik Kafur.
• Chittorgarh Campaign (1303): This siege is associated with the famous legend of Rani Padmini and the act of Jauhar by the Rajput women.
• Ranthambore Campaign (1301): The fort of Ranthambore was considered impregnable, but Alauddin succeeded in capturing it after a long siege.
• Warangal Campaign: It occurred in 1310-1311 and was part of the southern expeditions led by Malik Kafur. The campaign brought immense wealth to the Delhi Sultanate.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• The SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages Abadi and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) scheme was launched by the Government of India on April 24, 2020, on the occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day.
• This scheme aims to provide a 'Record of Rights' to rural property owners in India by mapping land parcels in rural inhabited areas using drone technology.
• The scheme targets the empowerment of rural households through accurate property documentation, which can be used for availing loans, resolving property disputes, and enhancing socio-economic stability.
• The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is the nodal agency for implementing the SVAMITVA scheme, in collaboration with the Survey of India and respective state governments.
• The scheme uses modern drone technology to create digital maps of rural properties and provide ownership certificates to property owners, thereby formalizing rural property ownership.

Additional Information

• Objectives of the SVAMITVA Scheme:
• To reduce property disputes in rural areas by providing accurate property records.
• To enable rural residents to use their property as a financial asset for availing loans and other financial benefits.
• To streamline planning and revenue collection at the Panchayat level for better governance.
• To improve rural land management through the use of cutting-edge technology like drones and GIS mapping.
• Key Features of the Scheme:
• The scheme involves drone surveys of inhabited areas to create high-resolution digital maps.
• Each property in the mapped area is assigned a unique property ID, and ownership details are documented in a property card.
• Property cards are distributed to owners as proof of ownership, which can be used for legal and financial purposes.
• The scheme covers all rural areas across the country, ensuring equitable access to property documentation services.
• Significance:
• Empowers rural property owners by formalizing property ownership.
• Helps in the development of better infrastructure and public services in rural areas.
• Facilitates faster resolution of property disputes, which are a common issue in rural India.
• Supports the government’s agenda of Digital India by leveraging modern technology for rural development.
• Technology Used:
• Drones: Used for high-resolution aerial imaging to map rural properties.
• GIS (Geographic Information System): Helps in accurate mapping and database creation.
• Data Integration: Integration of property data with state revenue records for seamless governance.

Important Points

• National Panchayati Raj Day: Observed every year on April 24, it commemorates the enactment of the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which empowered Panchayati Raj Institutions in India.
• Survey of India: Established in 1767, it is India’s central engineering agency in charge of mapping and surveying. It plays a vital role in implementing the SVAMITVA scheme by providing technical expertise.
• Drone Technology: The use of drones in the SVAMITVA scheme represents a significant step towards integrating advanced technology into rural governance and development.
• Global Recognition: The SVAMITVA scheme has been lauded internationally for its innovative approach to property rights formalization and rural development.
• Future Expansion: The scheme is expected to be extended to cover all 6.62 lakh villages in India, aiming for universal rural property documentation.

The correct answer is Govindarajan Padmanabhan.

Key Points

• Govindarajan Padmanabhan is a renowned Indian biochemist and molecular biologist known for his extensive contributions to the field of science and technology.
• He served as the director of the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, and has been associated with various groundbreaking research projects.
• Dr. Padmanabhan’s research in the area of malaria, specifically on the biochemistry of the malaria parasite, is globally recognized and has contributed to advancements in combating the disease.
• In 2024, he was awarded the Vigyan Ratna Award for his lifetime contribution to science and technology. This prestigious award honors individuals who have made exceptional contributions to scientific innovation and development.
• Dr. Padmanabhan has received numerous accolades throughout his career, including the Padma Shri in 1991 and Padma Bhushan in 2004, further emphasizing his impact on Indian science.

Additional Information

• Vigyan Ratna Award:
• The Vigyan Ratna Award is one of India’s most prestigious awards given to individuals for their lifetime achievements in science and technology.
• This award recognizes contributions that have had a significant impact on scientific research, innovation, and societal progress.
• Recipients are selected based on their years of dedication, groundbreaking research, and influence in their respective fields.
• Govindarajan Padmanabhan’s Research Contributions:
• Dr. Padmanabhan’s research primarily focused on malaria biochemistry, including the study of Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite responsible for malaria.
• His work has contributed to understanding the mechanisms of drug resistance in malaria and paved the way for new drug development.
• He has also worked extensively on the biosynthesis of heme, which is crucial for the survival of the malaria parasite.
• Other Recognitions:
• Dr. Padmanabhan received the Padma Shri in 1991 and Padma Bhushan in 2004 for his outstanding contributions to science.
• He has been an elected fellow of prestigious scientific organizations, such as the Indian National Science Academy and the World Academy of Sciences.
• Indian Institute of Science (IISc):
• The IISc Bangalore, where Dr. Padmanabhan served as director, is one of India’s premier institutions for scientific research and higher education.
• Under his leadership, IISc saw advancements in biotechnology, molecular biology, and interdisciplinary research.
• The institute continues to produce cutting-edge research and contribute to India’s scientific growth.

Important Points

• Lifetime Achievement Awards:
• These awards are typically given to individuals who have contributed decades of service in their respective fields, influencing the direction of research and innovation.
• Such awards aim to inspire young scientists and highlight the importance of dedication to scientific exploration.
• Malaria Research:
• Malaria continues to be a significant health concern, especially in tropical countries.
• Research conducted by scientists like Dr. Padmanabhan plays a crucial role in developing effective treatments and preventive measures.
• India is actively involved in global initiatives to eradicate malaria, making such contributions highly impactful.
• Scientific Recognition in India:
• India has a rich history of scientific achievements, with initiatives to promote and recognize contributions through awards like the Padma Awards and Vigyan Ratna.
• These awards highlight India’s commitment to fostering scientific growth and innovation.

The correct answer is Articles 5 to 11.

Key Points

• Articles 5 to 11 of the Indian Constitution deal with the provisions of citizenship in India. These articles comprehensively outline the criteria for determining who qualifies as a citizen of India at the commencement of the Constitution and the subsequent acquisition or termination of citizenship.
• Article 5: It provides for citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution. It states that any person domiciled in India and meeting specific conditions such as birth, parentage, or residency is considered an Indian citizen.
• Article 6: It addresses the rights of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan to acquire Indian citizenship, subject to certain conditions like migration before or after a specified date.
• Article 7: It deals with the rights of persons who migrated to Pakistan but later returned to India under a permit for resettlement or permanent return.
• Article 8: It provides citizenship rights to persons of Indian origin residing outside India (e.g., in other countries), provided they are registered by a diplomatic or consular representative of India.
• Article 9: It specifies that any person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state will cease to be an Indian citizen.
• Article 10: It guarantees the continuance of citizenship for those who are already Indian citizens, subject to the law enacted by Parliament.
• Article 11: It empowers the Parliament to make laws concerning the acquisition and termination of citizenship and other related matters.
• Hence, the correct answer is Articles 5 to 11.

Additional Information

• Citizenship Act, 1955:
• The Citizenship Act, 1955, enacted by the Parliament, governs the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
• The act provides five ways to acquire citizenship: by birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and incorporation of territory.
• It also outlines the conditions under which Indian citizenship can be terminated, such as renunciation, deprivation, or acquisition of foreign citizenship.
• Amendments to Citizenship Laws:
• Over the years, the Citizenship Act has been amended multiple times, including significant amendments in 1986, 1992, 2003, 2005, and 2019.
• The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019, allows certain religious minorities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh who arrived in India before December 31, 2014, to acquire Indian citizenship under relaxed conditions.
• Constitutional Provisions:
• The framers of the Constitution included provisions for citizenship to ensure a smooth transition post-Independence and Partition.
• These provisions aimed to address the complexities arising from migration and the need to unify diverse groups under one national identity.
• Dual Citizenship:
• India does not allow dual citizenship. A person holding Indian citizenship cannot simultaneously hold the citizenship of another country.
• However, the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme provides certain privileges to foreign nationals of Indian origin without granting full citizenship.
• Key Legal Cases:
• Several landmark cases, such as Mohammad Raza v. State of Bombay (1966), have helped interpret and clarify the provisions of citizenship under the Constitution.
• Judicial interventions have played a crucial role in defining the scope and application of citizenship laws in India.

Important Points

• Definition of Domicile: A key criterion for citizenship under Article 5 is "domicile." It refers to the permanent home or place of residence with the intention to remain there indefinitely.
• Migration Post-Partition: Articles 6 and 7 were included to address the unique challenges of migration due to the Partition of India in 1947.
• Role of Parliament: Article 11 empowers the Parliament to legislate on matters of citizenship, ensuring flexibility to address future challenges and needs.
• Global Context: Unlike many countries, India does not have a provision for automatic acquisition of citizenship through marriage or long-term residency without meeting specific criteria.

The correct answer is Pritishmita Bhoi.

Key Points

• Pritishmita Bhoi created a new youth world record by lifting 92 kg in the girls' 44 kg clean and jerk event at the 2025 Asian Youth Games held in Bahrain.
• This achievement has brought global attention to India's emerging talent in the field of weightlifting, particularly in the youth category.
• The Asian Youth Games, organized by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), is a prestigious event where young athletes from across the continent showcase their skills in various sports.
• Pritishmita’s performance not only set a record but also highlighted India's growing dominance in the international weightlifting arena.
• Her record-breaking lift of 92 kg in the clean and jerk category is a testament to her rigorous training, discipline, and dedication.

Additional Information

• About the Asian Youth Games:
• The Asian Youth Games is a multi-sport event organized for young athletes under the age of 18 from across Asia.
• It was first held in 2009 in Singapore and has since been a platform for nurturing young talent in sports.
• The 2025 edition took place in Bahrain, featuring athletes from various countries competing in diverse sports categories.
• Weightlifting Categories:
• In weightlifting competitions, athletes are divided into categories based on their body weight.
• Competitions typically include two types of lifts: Snatch and Clean and Jerk.
• The clean and jerk is a two-part lift where the athlete lifts the barbell from the ground to their shoulders (clean) and then from the shoulders to overhead (jerk).
• Pritishmita Bhoi:
• Pritishmita Bhoi is an Indian weightlifter who has shown exceptional promise in the youth category.
• Her performance at the 2025 Asian Youth Games has positioned her as a rising star in the international weightlifting circuit.
• She trains under the guidance of experienced coaches and represents India in international competitions.
• India in Weightlifting:
• India has a strong history in weightlifting, with athletes like Mirabai Chanu and Bindyarani Devi achieving international acclaim.
• The country has consistently won medals in events like the Commonwealth Games, Asian Games, and the Olympics.
• The rise of young athletes like Pritishmita Bhoi ensures that India continues to excel in this sport.

Important Points

• Key Achievements:
• Pritishmita Bhoi lifted a total of 92 kg in the clean and jerk event, setting a new youth world record in the 44 kg category.
• Her achievement has placed her among the top young weightlifters globally.
• Other Notable Indian Weightlifters:
• Mirabai Chanu: Won the silver medal in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• Bindyarani Devi: Secured gold in the Commonwealth Games 2022.
• Harshada Garuda: Known for her success in the youth and junior categories.

The correct answer is vascular bundle.

Key Points

• Xylem and phloem are the main components of vascular tissues in plants. Together, they form the vascular bundle, which is responsible for the transport of water, nutrients, and food within the plant.
• Xylem primarily transports water and dissolved minerals from the roots to other parts of the plant. It also provides mechanical support to the plant.
• Phloem is responsible for the transport of organic nutrients, especially sugars, from the leaves (where they are synthesized during photosynthesis) to other parts of the plant.
• The vascular bundle is organized in a way that ensures efficient transport and structural integrity. In dicotyledonous plants, the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, whereas in monocotyledonous plants, they are scattered throughout the stem.
• The vascular bundle plays a vital role in maintaining the life processes of the plant, enabling growth, reproduction, and survival.

Additional Information

• Xylem:
• Xylem consists of specialized cells like tracheids, vessel elements, xylem fibers, and xylem parenchyma.
• Tracheids and vessel elements are responsible for the conduction of water and minerals.
• Xylem is a dead tissue at maturity, which provides mechanical strength to the plant.
• Xylem also contributes to the formation of wood in trees.
• Phloem:
• Phloem consists of specialized cells like sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem fibers, and phloem parenchyma.
• Sieve tubes are responsible for the transport of food, and they are supported by companion cells.
• Phloem is a living tissue, which allows active transport of nutrients.
• Unlike xylem, phloem transport is bidirectional, i.e., it can move nutrients both upwards and downwards.
• Pith:
• Pith is the central part of the stem or root, primarily made of parenchyma cells.
• It stores nutrients and water and contributes to the plant's growth.
• Pith is not involved in the transport of water or nutrients, unlike vascular bundles.
• Endodermis:
• Endodermis is the innermost layer of the cortex in plant roots.
• It regulates the movement of water and minerals into the vascular bundle through the Casparian strip.
• Endodermis is not directly responsible for nutrient transport but acts as a gateway to the vascular tissues.
• Pericycle:
• Pericycle is a layer of cells found between the endodermis and the vascular bundle in roots.
• It plays a role in the formation of lateral roots and contributes to secondary growth in certain plants.
• While it is associated with vascular tissues, it is not directly involved in transport processes.

Important Points

• Vascular bundles in monocots and dicots:
• In monocots, vascular bundles are scattered, and they do not have a cambium, which limits their ability for secondary growth.
• In dicots, vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, and they possess a cambium, enabling secondary growth like thickening of stems.
• Casparian strip:
• The Casparian strip in the endodermis ensures selective absorption of minerals and water into the vascular tissues.
• This strip is made of suberin, a waxy substance that prevents passive movement of substances.
• Functions of vascular tissues:
• Xylem ensures the upward movement of water and minerals (also known as ascent of sap).
• Phloem facilitates the transport of food from the leaves to other parts of the plant.
• Both tissues work together to maintain homeostasis and support plant growth and development.
• Significance of vascular bundles:
• They form the transport system of plants, ensuring efficient distribution of essential substances.
• Vascular bundles also provide structural support, preventing the plant from collapsing under its own weight.

The correct answer is High Courts for Union Territories.

Key Points

• Article 241 of the Indian Constitution deals with the establishment of High Courts for Union Territories. It provides the legal framework for judicial administration in Union Territories.
• This article allows the Parliament to establish a High Court in any Union Territory or designate an existing High Court to exercise jurisdiction over Union Territories.
• Currently, some Union Territories, like Delhi, have their own High Courts (e.g., Delhi High Court established in 1966), while others are under the jurisdiction of High Courts of neighboring states.
• For Union Territories without their own High Court, judicial matters are handled by the High Court of the state under whose jurisdiction the Union Territory falls.
• The provision ensures that Union Territories, which may not have the same administrative framework as states, still receive equitable access to judicial services.

Additional Information

• Union Territories in India:
• India currently has 8 Union Territories: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Delhi, Lakshadweep, Puducherry, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.
• Union Territories are directly governed by the Central Government, unlike states which have their own elected governments.
• Some Union Territories, like Delhi and Puducherry, have partial statehood with legislative assemblies and elected governments.
• High Courts in India:
• There are currently 25 High Courts in India, which serve as the highest judicial authority at the state and Union Territory level.
• The High Courts have jurisdiction over civil, criminal, constitutional, and administrative cases within their respective regions.
• For Union Territories without their own High Court, jurisdiction is handled by nearby state High Courts. For instance, Chandigarh comes under the jurisdiction of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
• Delhi High Court:
• Established in 1966, the Delhi High Court serves the Union Territory of Delhi exclusively.
• It is one of the few Union Territories that has its own High Court due to its significant population and administrative requirements.
• Special Provisions for Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh:
• After the abrogation of Article 370 in August 2019, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh were reorganized into Union Territories.
• The High Court of Jammu & Kashmir continued to serve both Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh as part of this reorganization.

Important Points

• Judicial Framework:
• The judicial framework for Union Territories ensures that residents have access to justice, even if the territory does not have a full-fledged state government or High Court.
• Article 241 provides flexibility in judicial administration, allowing Parliament to create High Courts or extend the jurisdiction of existing ones.
• Examples of High Court Jurisdictions:
• The Bombay High Court has jurisdiction over Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
• The Kerala High Court handles cases from Lakshadweep.
• The Punjab and Haryana High Court serves Chandigarh.
• Legal Reforms:
• Legal reforms related to Union Territories often involve extending the jurisdiction of state High Courts or establishing new ones to address administrative and judicial challenges.
• For example, the establishment of the Delhi High Court was a significant development in providing dedicated judicial services to the Union Territory.

The correct answer is Defeated Pandya king Maravarman Rajasimha II in the Battle of Vellore and reorganized the administration.

Key Points

• Parantaka I was one of the prominent rulers of the Chola Empire who reigned from 907 to 955 CE.
• His rule is marked by the defeat of the Pandya king Maravarman Rajasimha II in the Battle of Vellore, which was a significant achievement in consolidating Chola authority in southern India.
• After the victory over the Pandyas, Parantaka I focused on reorganizing the administrative structure of his empire, ensuring efficient governance and stability.
• Parantaka I's administrative reforms included strengthening the local governance system, which is evident from the inscriptions detailing his efforts to enhance temple administration and land revenue systems.
• His victory in the Battle of Vellore and subsequent administrative initiatives laid the groundwork for the expansion and prosperity of the Chola Empire in the succeeding centuries.

Additional Information

• Parantaka I’s Military Campaigns:
• He expanded the Chola territory by defeating Maravarman Rajasimha II and annexing Pandya territories, which were critical to Chola dominance in southern India.
• Parantaka I’s military campaigns also focused on defending the empire against threats from neighboring powers like the Rashtrakutas.
• Temple Administration:
• Parantaka I is known for his contributions to temple administration. He facilitated the construction and maintenance of temples, which served as important centers for socio-economic activities.
• His reign witnessed the strengthening of the temples' financial autonomy through land grants and endowments.
• The Battle of Takkolam:
• Though Parantaka I attempted to expand his empire towards the northwest, he faced a setback against the Rashtrakutas at the Battle of Takkolam.
• This loss limited the Chola expansion in the northern regions during his reign.
• Legacy of Parantaka I:
• Despite challenges, Parantaka I’s reign is remembered for laying the foundation of the Chola Empire’s administrative and military structure, which enabled the empire to flourish under future rulers like Rajaraja I and Rajendra Chola I.
• His initiatives in temple administration and local governance significantly contributed to the cultural and economic prosperity of the Chola Empire.

Important Points

• Chola Administration:
• The Chola rulers introduced a highly organized system of governance that included well-documented revenue collection and village administration.
• The temples played a central role in the administrative framework, acting as hubs for economic and social activities.
• Historical Significance of the Battle of Vellore:
• Victory in the battle marked the decline of Pandya influence and strengthened the Chola Empire’s dominance in the region.
• It also ensured the security of the Chola territory and paved the way for future territorial expansions.
• Role of Inscriptions:
• Inscriptions from Parantaka I’s reign provide critical insights into the administrative, military, and cultural aspects of the Chola Empire.
• These inscriptions are valuable historical records that shed light on land grants, temple contributions, and governance.

The correct answer is Mahadev Govind Ranade.

Key Points

• Mahadev Govind Ranade, a prominent Indian social reformer, was one of the key figures who advocated for the motto of "Humanization, Equality, and Spirituality" within the Indian social reform movement.
• He was associated with various reformist organizations such as the Prarthana Samaj, which worked towards modernizing Indian society and abolishing practices like child marriage, caste discrimination, and untouchability.
• Ranade emphasized the importance of humanizing society by promoting compassion and empathy, ensuring equality among all individuals irrespective of caste, creed, or gender.
• His efforts were deeply rooted in spirituality, as he believed that moral and ethical values derived from spiritual teachings could guide social reforms effectively.
• Ranade was also a founding member of institutions like the Indian National Social Conference, which served as a platform to address social issues and propagate reformist ideals.

Additional Information

• Mahadev Govind Ranade:
• Born on 18 January 1842 in Niphad, Maharashtra, Ranade was a judge, historian, and social reformer.
• He was a strong proponent of educational and social reforms and worked tirelessly to eradicate social evils prevalent in Indian society during the colonial era.
• Ranade played a vital role in establishing the Widow Remarriage Association to support widows in remarrying and leading dignified lives.
• He believed in the integration of Western education with Indian values to uplift society.
• Prarthana Samaj:
• The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867 in Bombay and was inspired by the ideas of the Brahmo Samaj.
• It aimed at religious and social reforms such as the abolition of caste discrimination and the promotion of women's education.
• It emphasized monotheism and rejected idolatry.
• Indian Social Reform Movement:
• The Indian social reform movement during the 19^th century focused on addressing issues such as child marriage, sati, female education, and caste discrimination.
• Prominent leaders like Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Jyotirao Phule, and Ranade played key roles in these efforts.
• The movement laid the foundation for modern Indian society by combining progressive ideas with spiritual and ethical values.
• Humanization, Equality, and Spirituality:
• The motto signifies creating a society that prioritizes human dignity, ensures equal opportunities for all, and draws upon spiritual values to guide moral conduct.
• It reflects the essence of reformist ideologies that sought to balance modernity and tradition in transforming Indian society.

Important Points

• Shankar Pandurang Pandit: He was a scholar and translator but did not directly contribute to the motto mentioned in the question.
• Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar: He was a historian and reformer associated with the Prarthana Samaj but focused more on historical studies rather than articulating this motto.
• Rest Ramji Ghole: Though a social reformer, his contributions were focused more on education and community development.
• Mahadev Govind Ranade: His ideology and contributions align directly with the motto of "Humanization, Equality, and Spirituality," making him the correct answer.

The correct answer is English.

Key Points

• English is the official language of the state of Nagaland. It serves as the medium for government communication, education, and administration.
• Nagaland, being a linguistically diverse state with multiple tribes, each having its distinct language and dialect, adopted English as the official language to maintain neutrality and inclusivity among all tribes.
• English plays a vital role in uniting the people of Nagaland and acts as a bridge language for inter-tribal communication and interaction with the rest of the country and the world.
• The use of English in Nagaland also reflects the historical influence of British colonization and the introduction of Western education by Christian missionaries in the region.
• Unlike many other Indian states, Nagaland does not have a regional or state-specific language as its official language, making English the preferred choice for administrative purposes.

Additional Information

• Linguistic Diversity in Nagaland:
• Nagaland is home to 16 major tribes, each with its unique language, dialect, and cultural practices.

Some of the major tribes include the Ao, Angami, Sumi, Lotha, and Chakhesang.

• Each tribe has its distinct mother tongue, but Nagamese, a creole language based on Assamese, is widely used as a lingua franca for inter-tribal communication.
• Role of Christian Missionaries:
• Christian missionaries introduced formal education and the English language in Nagaland during the late 19^th and early 20^th centuries.
• The majority of Naga people are Christians, and churches play a significant role in promoting English for religious and educational purposes.
• Education and English in Nagaland:
• English is the medium of instruction in schools, colleges, and universities in Nagaland, ensuring that students are well-versed in the language.
• The promotion of English in education also facilitates employment opportunities and higher education prospects for Naga youth across India and abroad.
• Comparison with Other Indian States:
• Unlike Nagaland, many Indian states have regional languages as their official languages, such as Hindi in Uttar Pradesh or Tamil in Tamil Nadu.
• The adoption of English as the sole official language in Nagaland highlights its distinct socio-cultural and linguistic landscape.

Important Points

• Nagamese: Though not an official language, Nagamese serves as a lingua franca in the state, enabling communication among tribes with different native languages.
• English as a Unifying Factor: The use of English helps maintain administrative efficiency and ensures equal representation for all tribes in governance and education.
• Constitutional Provisions: The adoption of English as the official language aligns with the provisions of the Indian Constitution, which allows states to choose their official languages.
• Historical Context: The influence of British colonization and Christian missionary activities significantly contributed to the widespread use of English in Nagaland.

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

• Mahayana Buddhism is one of the three major branches of Buddhism, alongside Theravada and Vajrayana. It is known for its focus on the path of the bodhisattva and universal compassion.
• China is a primary center for Mahayana Buddhism, where it has flourished for centuries. Mahayana teachings were introduced to China around the 1^st century CE and became widely practiced.
• Mahayana Buddhism in China is characterized by schools such as Chan Buddhism (known as Zen in Japan), Pure Land Buddhism, and Tian Tai. These schools emphasize meditation, devotion, and philosophical study.
• Countries like Laos, Myanmar, and Thailand primarily practice Theravada Buddhism, which is distinct from Mahayana in its focus on individual enlightenment rather than universal compassion.
• China's Mahayana Buddhist tradition has also influenced neighboring countries, including Korea, Japan, and Vietnam, where Mahayana Buddhism plays a dominant role.
• Key cultural sites in China, such as the Shaolin Temple and Longmen Grottoes, are iconic representations of Mahayana Buddhism's historical significance.

Additional Information

• Mahayana Buddhism:
• Mahayana means "Great Vehicle" and focuses on the universal liberation of all beings.
• Key teachings include the concept of the bodhisattva, an enlightened being who delays their own nirvana to help others attain enlightenment.
• It incorporates a broader range of scriptures, including the Prajnaparamita Sutras, Lotus Sutra, and Avatamsaka Sutra.
• Theravada Buddhism:
• Known as the "Teaching of the Elders," Theravada is the oldest form of Buddhism.
• It emphasizes meditation and the direct teachings of the Pali Canon.
• Countries such as Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, and Sri Lanka primarily follow Theravada Buddhism.
• Vajrayana Buddhism:
• Known as the "Diamond Vehicle," Vajrayana Buddhism incorporates tantric practices and rituals.
• It is widely practiced in Tibet, Bhutan, Mongolia, and parts of Russia.
• Key features include the use of mantras, mandalas, and meditation on deities.
• Historical Spread of Mahayana Buddhism:
• Mahayana Buddhism spread from India to China via the Silk Road and later to Korea, Japan, and Vietnam.
• Prominent Chinese monks, such as Xuanzang, contributed to the translation and dissemination of Mahayana texts.
• Important Mahayana sites like the Yungang Grottoes and Mount Wutai are celebrated for their religious and cultural significance.

Important Points

• Key Philosophical Differences:
• Mahayana emphasizes universal compassion and the enlightenment of all beings.
• Theravada focuses on individual liberation and achieving nirvana through personal effort.
• Vajrayana incorporates esoteric practices and rapid paths to enlightenment.
• Global Influence:
• Mahayana Buddhism has shaped the art, architecture, and literature of East Asia.
• It remains the dominant form of Buddhism in China, Korea, Japan, and Vietnam.
• Theravada Buddhism is predominant in Southeast Asia, while Vajrayana holds sway in the Himalayan regions.

Given:

Average of three numbers = 20

First number = 13

Second number = 21

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all numbers) ÷ Total numbers

Sum of all numbers = Average × Total numbers

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of all numbers = 20 × 3

⇒ Sum of all numbers = 60

⇒ Third number = Sum of all numbers − (First number + Second number)

⇒ Third number = 60 − (13 + 21)

⇒ Third number = 60 − 34

⇒ Third number = 26

∴ The correct answer is 26.

Given:

Principal = 68600

Rate = 3%

Time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)²

Calculation:

⇒ Difference = 68600 × (3 ÷ 100)²

⇒ = 68600 × (0.03)²

⇒ = 68600 × 0.0009

⇒ = 61.74

⇒ Rounded value = 61.7

∴ The correct answer is 61.7.

Given:

Length = 12

Breadth = 16

Volume = 6144

Formula Used:

Volume = Length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

⇒ 6144 = 12 × 16 × Height

⇒ 6144 = 192 × Height

⇒ Height = 6144 ÷ 192

⇒ Height = 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Given:

Capital of A = 334000

Time of A = 12 months

Time of B = 10 months

Profit ratio = 5 : 2

Formula Used:

Profit ∝ Capital × Time

Calculation:

⇒ A : B = (334000 × 12) : (x × 10)

⇒ 5 : 2 = (334000 × 12) : (10x)

⇒ 5 : 2 = 4008000 : 10x

⇒ 5 × 10x = 2 × 4008000

⇒ 50x = 8016000

⇒ x = 8016000 ÷ 50

⇒ x = 160320

∴ The correct answer is 160320.

Given:

Average of Rakesh, Shivam, Rupesh = 45

Average of Rakesh, Shivam = 37

Average of Shivam, Rupesh = 46

Formula Used:

Average = Total sum ÷ Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Total of Rakesh, Shivam, Rupesh = 45 × 3 = 135

⇒ Total of Rakesh, Shivam = 37 × 2 = 74

⇒ Total of Shivam, Rupesh = 46 × 2 = 92

⇒ Sum of both pairs = 74 + 92 = 166

⇒ 2 × Shivam + (Rakesh + Rupesh) = 166

⇒ Rakesh + Shivam + Rupesh = 135

⇒ Shivam = 166 − 135 = 31

∴ The correct answer is 31.

Given:

Loss in weight = 36%

Formula Used:

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let CP of 1 kg = 100

⇒ Actual weight given = 100 − 36 = 64

⇒ SP = 100

⇒ CP of 64 g = 64

⇒ Profit = 100 − 64 = 36

⇒ Profit % = 36 ÷ 64 × 100

⇒ Profit % = 56.25

∴ The correct answer is 56.25%.

Given:

2019 Income = 30

2019 Expenditure = 20

2023 Income = 60

2023 Expenditure = 35

Formula Used:

Profit = Income − Expenditure

Percentage increase = (Increase ÷ Original) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Profit in 2019 = 30 − 20 = 10

⇒ Profit in 2023 = 60 − 35 = 25

⇒ Increase = 25 − 10 = 15

⇒ Percentage increase = 15 ÷ 10 × 100

⇒ = 150

∴ The correct answer is 150%.

Given:

Total distance = 64

Time = 3 hours 15 minutes = 3.25 hours

Covered distance = 4 ÷ 5 of remaining distance

Formula Used:

Total distance = Covered distance + Remaining distance

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ Let remaining distance = x

⇒ Covered distance = 4x ÷ 5

⇒ Total distance = x + 4x ÷ 5 = 64

⇒ 9x ÷ 5 = 64

⇒ x = 64 × 5 ÷ 9 = 320 ÷ 9

⇒ Covered distance = 4 × (320 ÷ 9) ÷ 5 = 256 ÷ 9

⇒ Speed = (256 ÷ 9) ÷ 3.25

⇒ Speed = (256 ÷ 9) × (1 ÷ 3.25)

⇒ Speed = (256 ÷ 9) × (4 ÷ 13)

⇒ Speed = 1024 ÷ 117 = 8.75

⇒ Rounded value = 8.8

∴ The correct answer is 8.8 km/hr.

Given:

Time taken by A = 6 hours

Time taken by B = 8 hours

Time taken by C = 24 hours

Formula Used:

Work = Rate × Time

Efficiency = Total work ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 6, 8 and 24 = 24 units (Total work)

⇒ Efficiency of A = 24 ÷ 6 = 4 units/hour

⇒ Efficiency of B = 24 ÷ 8 = 3 units/hour

⇒ Efficiency of C = 24 ÷ 24 = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Total efficiency = 4 + 3 + 1 = 8 units/hour

⇒ Time = 24 ÷ 8 = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3 hours.

Given:

Sides of triangle = 8, 15, 17

Height of prism = 22

Formula Used:

Lateral surface area = Perimeter of base × Height

Volume = Area of base × Height

Area of triangle = (1 ÷ 2) × base × height

Calculation:

⇒ Perimeter = 8 + 15 + 17 = 40

⇒ Lateral surface area = 40 × 22 = 880

⇒ Triangle is right angled

⇒ Area of base = (1 ÷ 2) × 8 × 15 = 60

⇒ Volume = 60 × 22 = 1320

∴ The correct answer is 880 and 1320.

Given:

Cost price of car = 233000

Repair cost = 52000

Profit = 17%

Formula Used:

Total Cost Price = Cost price + Repair cost

Selling Price = Total Cost Price × (1 + Profit/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Total Cost Price = 233000 + 52000

⇒ Total Cost Price = 285000

⇒ Selling Price = 285000 × (1 + 17/100)

⇒ Selling Price = 285000 × 117/100

⇒ Selling Price = 333450

∴ The correct answer is 333450.

Given:

Time taken by Anjani = 21 days

Time taken by Anjani and Khushboo = 18 days

Time taken by Anjani, Khushboo and Sushmita = 14 days

Formula Used:

Work = LCM of all times

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Combined efficiency = Sum of individual efficiencies

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 21, 18 and 14 = 126

⇒ Efficiency of Anjani = 126 ÷ 21 = 6

⇒ Efficiency of Anjani + Khushboo = 126 ÷ 18 = 7

⇒ Efficiency of Anjani + Khushboo + Sushmita = 126 ÷ 14 = 9

⇒ Efficiency of Khushboo = 7 − 6 = 1

⇒ Efficiency of Anjani + Sushmita = 9 − 1 = 8

⇒ Time taken by Anjani + Sushmita = 126 ÷ 8 = \(\frac{63}{4}\)

∴ The correct answer is \(\frac{63}{4}\) days.

Given:

Cost price = 7125

Profit = 25%

Discount = 5%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 + Profit/100)

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 − Discount/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Selling Price = 7125 × 125/100

⇒ Selling Price = 8906.25

⇒ 8906.25 = Marked Price × 95/100

⇒ Marked Price = 8906.25 × 100/95

⇒ Marked Price = 9375

∴ The correct answer is 9375.

Given:

\( \frac{0.5 \times 0.5 \times 0.5 - 0.05 \times 0.05 \times 0.05}{5 \times 5 \times 5} \)

Concept Used:

\( \text{BODMAS rule} \)

Calculation:

\( \Rightarrow \frac{\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{20} \times \frac{1}{20} \times \frac{1}{20}}{125} \)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{\frac{1}{8} - \frac{1}{8000}}{125} \)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{\frac{1000 - 1}{8000}}{125} \)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{\frac{999}{8000}}{125} \)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{999}{8000 \times 125} \)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{999}{1000000} \)

\( \Rightarrow 0.000999 \)

∴ The correct answer is \( 0.000999 \)

Given:

\( 2^3 \times 9^2 \times 13 \)

\( 2^2 \times 13^2 \times 17 \)

\( 9^3 \times 13^2 \times 17^2 \)

Concept Used:

\( \text{LCM = product of highest powers of all prime factors} \)

Calculation:

\( \Rightarrow 9 = 3^2 \)

\( \Rightarrow 9^2 = 3^4 \)

\( \Rightarrow 9^3 = 3^6 \)

\( \Rightarrow \text{Highest power of 2} = 2^3 \)

\( \Rightarrow \text{Highest power of 3} = 3^6 \)

\( \Rightarrow \text{Highest power of 13} = 13^2 \)

\( \Rightarrow \text{Highest power of 17} = 17^2 \)

\( \Rightarrow \text{LCM} = 2^3 \times 3^6 \times 13^2 \times 17^2 \)

\( \Rightarrow \text{LCM} = 2^3 \times 3^6 \times 13^2 \times 17^2 \)

∴ The correct answer is \( 2^3 \times 3^6 \times 13^2 \times 17^2 \)

Given:

Principal = 400

Rate = 20%

Time = 9.5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Simple Interest = (400 × 20 × 9.5) ÷ 100

⇒ Simple Interest = (400 × 190) ÷ 100

⇒ Simple Interest = 76000 ÷ 100

⇒ Simple Interest = 760

∴ The correct answer is 760.

Given:

Monthly salary = 3864

Savings = 25%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Salary × (1 − Savings/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Expenditure = 3864 × (1 − 25/100)

⇒ Expenditure = 3864 × 75/100

⇒ Expenditure = 3864 × 0.75

⇒ Expenditure = 2898

∴ The correct answer is 2898.

Given:

Original speed = 73

Reduction = 95%

Formula Used:

New Speed = Original Speed × (1 − Reduction/100)

Calculation:

⇒ New Speed = 73 × (1 − 95/100)

⇒ New Speed = 73 × 5/100

⇒ New Speed = 365 ÷ 100

⇒ New Speed = 3.65

∴ The correct answer is 3.65.

Given:

Required = 1% of 38% of a number

Formula Used:

x% of y% = (x × y)/100 %

Calculation:

⇒ 1% of 38% = (1 × 38)/100 %

⇒ = 38/100 %

⇒ = 0.38 %

∴ The correct answer is 0.38%.

Given:

\( 12 : 76 :: 96 : x \)

Formula Used:

\( a : b :: c : d \Rightarrow \frac{a}{b} = \frac{c}{d} \)

Calculation:

\( \Rightarrow \frac{12}{76} = \frac{96}{x} \)

\( \Rightarrow 12 \times x = 76 \times 96 \)

\( \Rightarrow x = \frac{76 \times 96}{12} \)

\( \Rightarrow x = 76 \times 8 \)

\( \Rightarrow x = 608 \)

∴ The correct answer is \( 608 \)

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. accidental.

Key Points

• The word "accidentel" is incorrectly spelt in the given sentence. The correct spelling is "accidental".
• Meaning of "accidental": Happening by chance, unintentionally, or unexpectedly. (अप्रत्याशित/अनायास)
• Example: The fire in the building was accidental and not caused by negligence.
• The word "accidentel" does not exist in English and is a misspelling.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. accidental.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: acsidental (गलत वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling of "accidental".
• Option 3: aciddental (गलत वर्तनी): This is another incorrect spelling of "accidental".
• Option 4: acidental (गलत वर्तनी): This is also a misspelling of "accidental".

The correct answer is: Option 3 (cut).

Key Points

• The word "cut" means to divide or sever something with a sharp tool, such as a knife or scissors. (काटना)
• Example: She cut the paper into small pieces for her craft project.
• In the given sentence, the verb "cut" is used in its simple past tense to indicate that the action has already happened. (काट दिया)
• Example: The girl cut her hand with a knife.
• Hence, "cut" is the most appropriate verb to complete the sentence correctly.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (cut).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1 (not cut) (नहीं काटा): This phrase is grammatically incorrect in the context of the sentence. It does not form a proper past tense or meaningful sentence.
• Example: Incorrect usage: The girl not cut her hand with a knife.
• Option 2 (won't cuts) (नहीं काटेगी): This phrase is grammatically incorrect because "won't" (will not) should be followed by the base form of the verb, not the third person singular form "cuts."
• Example: Incorrect usage: The girl won't cuts her hand with a knife.
• Option 4 (not cuts) (नहीं काटती): This phrase is grammatically incorrect because "not cuts" does not fit the sentence structure and tense.
• Example: Incorrect usage: The girl not cuts her hand with a knife.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. BCEAD .

Key Points

• The question involves rearranging sentences into a coherent paragraph.
• Let us analyze the sequence logically to form a meaningful paragraph.

Correct Sequence:

1. B: The paragraph begins by introducing the Dust Bowl disaster during the 1930s, caused by drought and unsustainable farming practices.
2. C: It then elaborates on the consequences, such as the conversion of fertile land into wasteland and families abandoning their homes.
3. E: The federal government’s response is described next, including soil conservation programs and the establishment of the Soil Conservation Service.
4. A: The paragraph then highlights the devastating black blizzards that swept across the plains, causing economic hardship.
5. D: Finally, the paragraph concludes with the lesson learned from the disaster about the importance of sustainable land management.

Additional Information

• Correct sequence ensures the paragraph flows logically, starting with the cause (B), elaborating on the effects (C), describing the response (E), highlighting the devastation (A), and concluding with the lesson learned (D).
• Understanding the chronological and thematic connection between sentences is key to solving such questions.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. BADEC .

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the Chernobyl nuclear disaster and its aftermath, and the sentences need to be arranged in a logical sequence to convey the events coherently.
• Sentence B introduces the topic and provides the date and location of the disaster. Therefore, it is the opening sentence.
• Sentence A details the immediate consequence of the explosion, which logically follows the introduction.
• Sentence D describes the response to the disaster, such as evacuation and cleanup, which comes next in the sequence.
• Sentence E highlights the long-term global impact of the disaster on the nuclear industry, following the discussion of the immediate response.
• Sentence C serves as a concluding remark, summarizing the significance of the Chernobyl disaster as the worst nuclear accident in history.

Correct arrangement: BADEC

Additional Information

• When arranging jumbled sentences, it is crucial to identify the introductory sentence, subsequent events or consequences, and the concluding remark.
• Look for clues such as dates, cause-and-effect relationships, and transitions between ideas to establish the logical flow of the paragraph.

The correct answer is Option 4:  Visceral.

Key Points

• The word "Visceral" refers to something that elicits a deep emotional response or is related to instinctive, gut-level feelings rather than rational thought. (आंतरिक / गहरी भावनात्मक प्रतिक्रिया)
• Example: Her visceral reaction to the tragic news was evident in her tears and trembling hands.
• In the context of the young artist's paintings, they provoke strong emotional responses, which aligns with the meaning of visceral.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Visceral.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pedantic (शिक्षा या सूचनाओं पर अत्यधिक ध्यान देने वाला): Excessively concerned with minor details or rules; overly academic or scholarly.
• Example: His pedantic approach to explaining grammar rules bored the students.
• Staid (गंभीर और रूढ़िवादी): Serious, calm, and conventional; lacking excitement or spontaneity.
• Example: The staid atmosphere of the office discouraged any form of creativity.
• Didactic (शिक्षाप्रद): Intended to teach or convey a moral lesson, often in a patronizing manner.
• Example: The didactic tone of the book made it sound preachy rather than engaging.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. a lot of .

Key Points

• The sentence refers to the quantity of friends the subject has. The appropriate phrase here is "a lot of", as it is used to describe a large quantity of countable nouns like "friends".
• "Much" is incorrect because it is typically used for uncountable nouns (e.g., "much water").
• "Any" is incorrect because it is used for questions and negatives (e.g., "Do you have any friends?" or "He doesn't have any friends").
• "None" is incorrect because it implies having zero friends, which contradicts the sentence structure.

Correct sentence: He has a lot of friends.

Additional Information

• Usage of "a lot of":
• It is used to describe a large quantity of both countable and uncountable nouns.
• Example: "She has a lot of books." (countable) or "There is a lot of water in the tank." (uncountable).
• Usage of "much":
• It is used for uncountable nouns, especially in negative sentences or questions.
• Example: "How much time do we have left?" or "There isn't much sugar in the jar."

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "A collector trades a rare coin for a painting he personally values more".

Key Points

• The proverb "Fair exchange is no robbery" means that when two parties willingly exchange goods or services that they both value, there is no ethical or moral wrongdoing involved. (निष्पक्ष आदान-प्रदान चोरी नहीं है)
• Example: If one person trades their handmade jewelry for a friend's handwoven scarf, and both parties agree to the trade, it is considered fair.
• Correct Application: In the given scenario, the collector willingly trades a rare coin for a painting that he personally values more. Both parties are satisfied with the trade, making it a fair exchange. (सही उदाहरण: संग्रहकर्ता एक दुर्लभ सिक्का एक ऐसी पेंटिंग के लिए बदलता है जिसे वह अधिक महत्व देता है।)
• Example: A collector trades a rare stamp for a piece of artwork that holds sentimental value to him, and the artist values the stamp highly.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: A company tricks customers into buying a defective product through false advertising. (कंपनी ग्राहकों को धोखा देकर खराब उत्पाद बेचती है।)
• This situation does not represent a fair exchange. It involves deceit, making it morally wrong.
• Example: A company advertises a smartphone with features it does not actually have, leading customers to feel cheated.
• Option 3: A thief justifies stealing because he believes he needs the item more. (चोर चोरी को सही ठहराता है क्योंकि उसे लगता है कि उसे वस्तु की अधिक आवश्यकता है।)
• This is not a fair exchange; it involves taking something without the owner's consent, which is theft.
• Example: A person steals bread from a bakery and claims it was justified because he was hungry.
• Option 4: A poor farmer is forced to sell his land at a low price due to financial pressure. (एक गरीब किसान वित्तीय दबाव के कारण अपनी भूमि कम कीमत पर बेचने के लिए मजबूर है।)
• This situation involves coercion and lack of free will, making it an unfair exchange.
• Example: A farmer sells his fertile land to a wealthy businessman at a fraction of its value because he has no other way to repay his debts.

The correct answer is Option 2: Tumult.

Key Points

• The word "tranquillity" means a state of being calm, peaceful, and free from disturbance. (शांति, सुकून)
• Example: She found tranquillity in the quiet countryside, away from the chaos of the city.
• "Tumult" refers to a loud, confused noise, especially one caused by a large mass of people, or a state of chaos and disorder. (कोलाहल, अशांति)
• Example: The tumult of the protest could be heard from several blocks away.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'tranquillity' is 'tumult'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Tumult.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Serenity (संतोष, शांति): A state of being calm, peaceful, and untroubled.
• Example: The serenity of the mountain lake was breathtaking.
• Peace (शांति): Freedom from disturbance; a state of quiet and harmony.
• Example: After a long day at work, he sought peace in the solitude of his garden.
• Calm (शांत): Not showing or feeling nervousness, anger, or other strong emotions.
• Example: The teacher’s calm demeanor helped the students settle down during the emergency.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. The; the .

Key Points

• The article 'The' is used before nouns to refer to something specific or unique. Here, 'The Taj Mahal' refers to a specific monument.
• The second blank requires the article 'the' because the phrase 'the epitome' emphasizes that the Taj Mahal is a unique and definitive example of Mughal architecture.
• Thus, 'The; the' is the most appropriate choice for the given sentence.

Correct sentence: The Taj Mahal, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is considered the epitome of Mughal architecture.

Additional Information

• Usage of Articles:
• 'The' is used before unique nouns (e.g., the Taj Mahal, the Sun).
• 'A' and 'An' are used before non-specific or general nouns. 'An' is used when the next word begins with a vowel sound.
• Example Sentences:
• The Eiffel Tower is a famous landmark.
• An artist painted a beautiful portrait.

The correct answer is: Option 2, i.e., "Beginning a project well is already half the task."

Key Points

• The proverb "Well begun is half done" highlights the importance of starting a task or project in the right way. (अच्छी शुरुआत आधा काम पूरा होने के बराबर है)
• English Meaning: If you start something properly or with good preparation, it will make the rest of the task easier and more efficient.
• Hindi Meaning: यदि आप किसी कार्य को सही तरीके से या अच्छी तैयारी के साथ शुरू करते हैं, तो शेष कार्य करना आसान हो जाता है।
• Example: When Riya started her assignment with a detailed plan, she realized that well begun is half done, as the rest of the work became much simpler.
• Option 2 correctly captures the essence of the proverb, emphasizing that a good start contributes significantly to the completion of a task. (सही शुरुआत करना कार्य को पूरा करने में महत्वपूर्ण योगदान देता है।)
• Hindi Meaning: सही शुरुआत करना पहले से ही आधे काम के बराबर है।
• Example: If you start your fitness journey with a proper diet and exercise plan, you’ll see that "well begun is half done."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "A task cannot be done unless it is begun." (कोई भी कार्य तब तक पूरा नहीं हो सकता जब तक वह शुरू न हो।)
• Explanation: While this statement is true, it does not capture the specific idea of starting well, as mentioned in the proverb.
• Example: You can't finish your homework unless you actually start working on it.
• Option 3: "Finishing any project is a mammoth task." (किसी भी परियोजना को पूरा करना एक बहुत बड़ा कार्य है।)
• Explanation: This statement focuses on the difficulty of completing a project, which is unrelated to the idea of starting well.
• Example: Building the bridge was a mammoth task that took years of effort.
• Option 4: "You can finish a task only if you start early." (आप किसी कार्य को तभी पूरा कर सकते हैं जब आप उसे जल्दी शुरू करें।)
• Explanation: This statement emphasizes starting early, which is different from starting well.
• Example: Waking up early helped me complete my project on time.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Unwaving)..

Key Points

• The word "Unwaving" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Unwavering", which means steady, firm, or resolute without any sign of hesitation or doubt. (अडिग)
• Example: She showed unwavering determination in achieving her goals.
• "Unwaving" does not exist in standard English and is a misspelling. The correct word is "Unwavering".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Unwaving)..

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Funambulist (रस्सी पर चलने वाला): Refers to a tightrope walker or acrobat who performs feats of balance on a rope.
• Example: The funambulist amazed the crowd with his daring stunts.
• Chasm (गहरी खाई): A deep fissure or gap in the earth's surface.
• Example: The explorers carefully navigated the treacherous chasm to reach the other side.
• Tightrope (रस्सी): Refers to a rope or wire stretched tight, often used by acrobats for performances.
• Example: Walking on a tightrope requires immense balance and focus.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. an honest student.

Key Points

• The blank in the sentence requires an article to describe the noun 'honest student.'
• The word 'honest' begins with a vowel sound (the 'h' is silent), so the correct article to use is 'an.'
• Option 1 ('an') is the most appropriate choice because it follows the rule of using 'an' before words that begin with vowel sounds.

Correct sentence: I got my wallet back from an honest student at our institute, which was appreciable.

Additional Information

• Usage of Articles:
• 'A': Used before singular nouns that begin with a consonant sound (e.g., a car, a university).
• 'An': Used before singular nouns that begin with a vowel sound (e.g., an apple, an hour).
• 'The': Used to refer to something specific or already mentioned (e.g., the book on the table).
• 'No article': Used when referring to general concepts or plural/uncountable nouns (e.g., I like music).

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. are going.

Key Points

• The sentence is discussing a future plan or arrangement.
• To talk about planned actions in the near future, we use the present continuous tense (am/is/are + verb-ing).
• The correct form of the verb in this context is "are going", as it aligns with the subject Mahesh and family, which is plural.

Correct sentence: Mahesh and family are going to the beach tomorrow.

Additional Information

• Present Continuous Tense for Future Plans:
• Structure: Subject + am/is/are + verb-ing.
• Example: We are visiting the museum next week.
• Usage: Indicates definite arrangements or plans for the future.
• Incorrect Options:
• Option 1: "may going" – "may" is a modal verb and cannot be followed by "going" without "be".
• Option 3: "was going" – Incorrect as it refers to the past, not the future.
• Option 4: "shall going" – Grammatically incorrect as "shall" is not followed by an -ing form.

The correct answer is 'Option(3)' i.e. 'Aggravate'.

Key Points

• The word "mollify" means to calm someone’s anger or anxiety; to soothe. (शांत करना)
• Example: The manager tried to mollify the angry customers with a refund.
• "Aggravate" means to make a problem or situation worse or more serious. (और बिगाड़ना)
• Example: His careless remarks aggravated the already tense situation.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'mollify' is 'aggravate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Aggravate.

Additional Information

• Appease (शांत करना): To calm or pacify someone by satisfying their demands.
• Example: He tried to appease the crowd with kind words.
• Alleviate (कम करना): To reduce the severity of pain or a problem.
• Example: Steps were taken to alleviate poverty in the region.
• Calm (शांत करना): To make someone relaxed or less upset.
• Example: The teacher spoke gently to calm the nervous students.

The correct answer is Option 1:  Impasse.

Key Points

• The word "Impasse" refers to a situation in which no progress is possible, especially because of disagreement or a deadlock. (गतिरोध)
• Example: The peace talks reached an impasse as neither side was willing to compromise.
• In the given context, the detective's investigation had reached a deadlock or a point where no further progress could be made, which aligns with the meaning of the word "Impasse." (गतिरोध)
• Example: The lack of cooperation from witnesses and contradictory evidence caused the investigation to reach an impasse.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Impasse.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Culmination (परिणति): The highest or climactic point of something, especially as attained after a long time.
• Example: The project was the culmination of years of research and hard work.
• Breakthrough (महत्वपूर्ण सफलता): A sudden, dramatic, and important discovery or development.
• Example: The scientist's breakthrough in cancer research gave hope to millions.
• Resolution (समाधान): The action of solving a problem or dispute.
• Example: After hours of discussion, they reached a resolution to the conflict.

The correct answer is Option 3: Reading and conversation.

Key Points

• The two means of improving vocabulary mentioned in the passage are reading and conversation.
• Reading helps in understanding new words in context, while conversation allows practical application of the learned vocabulary.
• These methods are effective for enhancing both written and spoken language skills.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Writing and conversation – Writing is helpful, but conversation is more effective when paired with reading.
• Option 2: Writing and listening – Listening can be beneficial, but reading is essential for vocabulary building.
• Option 4: Listening and conversation – While helpful, reading is a more impactful method for vocabulary development.

The correct answer is Option 2: A dictionary.

Key Points

• A dictionary is considered one’s best friend when it comes to improving vocabulary.
• It provides meanings, synonyms, antonyms, and usage of words, helping to expand one’s vocabulary effectively.
• Unlike other options, a dictionary is a direct and reliable resource for learning new words and their correct usage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Wise friends: While wise friends may offer occasional help, they are not always available or reliable for improving vocabulary systematically.
• Books: Reading books is an excellent way to improve vocabulary, but it is not as direct and focused as a dictionary.
• Conversational methods: Engaging in conversations helps in practicing vocabulary, but learning new words requires a resource like a dictionary.

The correct answer is Option 1: To emerge as a cultivated women.

Key Points

• The writer emphasizes that girls should enhance their vocabulary to emerge as cultivated women.
• A good vocabulary reflects a polished and refined personality, which is essential in social and professional circles.
• It helps individuals express themselves effectively, making them appear more intellectual and confident.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Context: "The writer believes that a strong vocabulary is indicative of a cultivated and refined personality, especially for girls aspiring to present themselves as sophisticated women."

Additional Information

• Option 2: While financial success is important, the writer does not mention vocabulary enhancement as a direct means to achieve it.
• Option 3: Becoming a linguist and writing books is unrelated to the writer's intention in this context.
• Option 4: Impressing friends and colleagues could be a byproduct, but it is not the primary reason mentioned by the writer.

The correct answer is Option 3: Increase.

Key Points

• The word "Enlarge" means to make something bigger or increase its size.
• Option 1: "Diminish" is the opposite of "Enlarge" and means to make smaller, so it is incorrect.
• Option 2: "Contract" also means to reduce in size, which is the opposite of "Enlarge," so it is incorrect.
• Option 3: "Increase" is a synonym of "Enlarge," meaning to make something larger, so it is the correct answer.
• Option 4: "Reduce" is again the opposite of "Enlarge," so it is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Explanation: The word "Enlarge" is often used in contexts where something is being expanded or increased in size, such as a photo, a physical object, or an abstract concept like a discussion. The synonym "Increase" accurately captures this meaning.

Additional Information

• Diminish: To decrease or reduce in size, importance, or intensity.
• Contract: To become smaller or shrink.
• Increase: To make or become larger in number, size, or degree.
• Reduce: To make something smaller or less in size, amount, or degree.

The correct answer is Option 4: Benefitting from the results of past actions.

Key Points

• The phrase ‘reaping the harvest’ means benefitting from the results of past actions.
• It is often used metaphorically to imply that one is enjoying the rewards or consequences of their previous efforts.
• Option 4 is correct because it aligns with the figurative meaning of the phrase.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Explanation: "The phrase reflects the concept of receiving the outcomes of actions undertaken in the past, much like harvesting crops after planting and nurturing them."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Make loss due to inappropriate behavior" does not fit the meaning of the phrase.
• Option 2: "Contemplating over past actions" is unrelated to the idea of benefiting from results.
• Option 3: "Reaping during the season of harvest" is literal and does not capture the metaphorical sense.
• Option 4: "Benefitting from the results of past actions" is the correct interpretation.

‘__________ पुस्तक आपको खरीदनी है?’ वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान के लिए उचित विशेषण का सही उत्तर है- कौन-सी

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्य में 'पुस्तक' एक संज्ञा है और इसकी विशेषता पूछने के लिए 'कौन-सी' शब्द का प्रयोग किया गया है, जो एक प्रश्नवाचक विशेषण है।
• जो शब्द संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की विशेषता बताने के साथ-साथ प्रश्न पूछने का कार्य करते हैं, उन्हें प्रश्नवाचक विशेषण कहा जाता है।
• अन्य उदाहरण: किस आदमी ने यह कहा? कैसी वस्तु चाहिए?

अन्य विकल्प -

Confusion Pointsसर्वनाम और प्रश्नवाचक विशेषण में अंतर -

• प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम: यह संज्ञा के स्थान पर आता है। इसके तुरंत बाद संज्ञा नहीं होती।
• उदाहरण: "वहाँ कौन खड़ा है?" (यहाँ 'कौन' अकेले आया है)।
• प्रश्नवाचक विशेषण: यह संज्ञा के ठीक पहले आता है।
• उदाहरण: "वहाँ कौन लड़का खड़ा है?" (यहाँ 'कौन' के तुरंत बाद संज्ञा 'लड़का' है)।

Important Points 

Additional Information