DSSSB PRT Official Paper (Held On: 03 Apr, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent alphabetical shift where each letter is moved backward by 4 positions in the English alphabetical order.

For 'QPRO' related to 'MLNK':

For 'HGIF' related to 'DCEB':

Applying the same logic to 'XWYV':

Thus, XWYV is related to TSUR.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given: L, A, Y, E, R, S and T each have their exam on a different day of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.

1. Only three persons have exam between A and Y.
2. Only three persons have exam between T and S.
3. L has his exam on a day before Y and on a day after E.
4. Only R has his exam before S

The Final Arrangement is,

There are 4 (Four) persons who have their exam after A.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Combining the results, the next term in the series is JUR.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4

Given number: 3754826

According to the question,

• The new digits formed are: 1 8 6 2 9 3 4
• The highest digit is: 9
• The lowest digit is: 1
• So, the difference between the highest and the lowest digits is: 9 − 1 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is  'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 7) − 8

For the first pair 9 : 55

⇒ (9 × 7) − 8

⇒ 63 − 8 = 55.

For the second pair 13 : 83

⇒ (13 × 7) − 8

⇒ 91 − 8 = 83.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

15 : ?

⇒ (15 × 7) − 8

⇒ 105 − 8 = 97.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For USN,

For FCY,

For LIE,

For OLH

The pattern for USN is −2 and −5, which does not match the other three letter-clusters (−3 and −4).

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1"

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second letter = First letter + 4; Third letter = Second letter − 2.

Option 1) GKI,

Option 2) BFD,

Option 3) QUR

This cluster does not follow the rule.

Option 4) LPN,

Therefore, the letter cluster that is different from the others is QUR.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is to modify each letter based on whether it is a vowel or a consonant.

Given word : BRIQUET.

• Vowels: I, U, E
• Consonants: B, R, Q, T

All letters in the group AQJPVFS appear only once. There are no letters that appear exactly twice.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Given Letter Series:  Left  B G N T A P Q E K I S M J W Y X D F O R U  Right 

Required Pattern: Vowel − Consonant − Vowel

​Left  B G N T A P Q E K I S M J W Y X D F O R U  Right 

There are exactly two such consonants that satisfy the condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2"

Given:  Seven people, H, I, S, T, O, R and Y, are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only O sits to the left of T.
2. Only four people sit between O and Y.
3. Only H sits between I and R, and I is not an immediate neighbor of Y

The Final Arrangement is, 

According to the final arrangement, S sits at the extreme right of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

The logic follows here,

• The new group of letters formed is: Q, J, L, E, V, J, B, P.
• J will appear exactly twice in the new group of letters thus formed

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here

The code for D is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4"

Given: H, U, S, B, A, N and D each have their exam on a different day of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.

1. No one has an exam before U.
2. Only three people have an exam between U and H.
3. Only one person has an exam between H and B.
4. A has an exam on Wednesday.
5. D has an exam one of the days after N but before S.

The Final Arrangement is,

H has his exam on Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The Family Tree Diagram,

• S is the brother of A.
• A is the father of Y, so Y is S's niece (Brother's daughter).
• W is the son of Y.

Therefore, W is the son of S's brother's daughter. In other words, W is the Brother's daughter's son of S.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The mirror image of the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The water image of the given figure :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given: E, F, G, H, Q, R and S each have their exam on a different day of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.

1. F has his exam on Thursday.
2. E has his exam on one of the days after Q and before G.
3. H has his exam on one of the days after R and before S.
4. R has his exam on one of the days after F

The Final Arrangement is,

Three people have their exam between H and E

Hence, the correct answer is " Option 3"

The logic follows here, 

Given word is: CREATING

The only letter that remains at the same position is E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given Series: 11, 18, 32, 53, 81, ?

• 11 + 7 = 18
• 18 + 14 = 32
• 32 + 21 = 53
• 53 + 28 = 81
• 81 + 35 = 116

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given Expression: 30 − 3 × 12 + 2 ÷ 18

Signs Interchange:

• '+' and '−' are interchanged.
• '×' and '÷' are interchanged.

After Expression and Applying BODMAS rule,

= 30 ÷ 3 + 12 × 2 − 18

= 10 + 12 × 2 − 18

= 10 + 24 − 18

= 34 − 18

= 16

Therefore, the value that will come in the place of ‘?’ is 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The correct answer is To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

Key Points

• Article 51A of the Constitution of India outlines the Fundamental Duties of its citizens. These were not part of the original Constitution but were added later to emphasize the obligations of citizens toward the nation.
• According to Article 51A(d), it is the duty of every citizen of India to defend the country and render national service whenever the need arises or when called upon by the state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The provision to maintain just and honourable relations between nations is actually a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) under Article 51. It directs the State, not the individual citizen, to promote international peace and security. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Voting in public elections is considered a statutory right or a constitutional right (derived from Article 326), but it has not been formally incorporated into the list of 11 Fundamental Duties under Article 51A. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The goal to ensure the right to an adequate means of livelihood is categorized under the Directive Principles of State Policy in Article 39(a). It is a guideline for the government to frame policies that ensure economic justice for all citizens. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Origin and Evolution:
• The Fundamental Duties were included based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee in 1976.
• They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which introduced Part IV-A containing only one article, Article 51A.
• Initially, there were 10 duties. The 11th Fundamental Duty, which relates to providing education to children aged 6 to 14 years, was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002.
• Nature and Significance:
• The Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced directly by the courts. However, Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation.
• They serve as a reminder to citizens that while they enjoy Fundamental Rights, they also have certain social and civic obligations toward the Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity of India.
• These duties are applicable only to the citizens of India and do not extend to foreigners.
• Key Examples of Fundamental Duties:
• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals, the National Flag, and the National Anthem.
• To protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
• To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
• To strive toward excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Important Points

• The concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
• The Verma Committee (1999) identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties, such as the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971) and the Wildlife Protection Act (1972).

The correct answer is 1605 AD.

Key Points

• The Dutch East India Company, also known as the Vereenigde Oost-Indische Compagnie (VOC), was established in 1602 with the primary objective of trading in the East Indies.
• In 1605, Admiral Van der Hagen led an expedition that resulted in the establishment of the first Dutch factory at Masulipattanam (now known as Machilipatnam).
• Masulipattanam is located on the Coromandel Coast in the present-day state of Andhra Pradesh and was a major port under the Qutb Shahi rulers of Golconda.
• The Dutch chose this location because it was a significant center for the production of fine textiles, which they used as a medium of exchange to acquire spices from the Indonesian archipelago.
• The establishment of this factory marked the formal beginning of Dutch commercial presence in India, challenging the Portuguese monopoly in the region.

Additional Information

• Expansion of Dutch Factories: Following their success in Masulipattanam, the Dutch established several other factories along the Indian coast, including Pulicat (1610), Surat (1616), Bimilipatam (1641), Karaikal (1645), Chinsurah (1653), Kasimbazar, Patna, Balasore, Nagapatam (1658), and Cochin (1663).
• Headquarters: Initially, Pulicat served as the main center of Dutch activities in India, where they built Fort Geldria. However, in 1690, the headquarters was shifted to Negapatam (present-day Nagapattinam).
• Key Commodities: The Dutch were major exporters of indigo from Yamuna valley and Central India, textiles and silk from Bengal and Gujarat, saltpetre from Bihar, and opium and rice from the Ganges valley.
• Decline of Dutch Power: The Dutch influence in India began to wane due to constant conflict with the English East India Company. They were decisively defeated by the British in the Battle of Bedara (also known as the Battle of Chinsurah) in November 1759.
• Anglo-Dutch Treaty of 1824: Through this treaty, the Dutch exchanged their settlements in India for British possessions in Sumatra and Malaya, effectively ending their presence on the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is Parvati Valley.

Key Points

• An experimental geothermal project is located at Manikaran, which is situated in the Parvati Valley in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.
• The project utilizes the hot springs of Manikaran, which have surface temperatures as high as 96 degrees Celsius, to generate electricity and demonstrate the feasibility of geothermal energy in India.
• The Geological Survey of India (GSI) conducted extensive surveys in the 1970s and 1980s to identify this region as a high-potential geothermal field within the Himalayan geothermal belt.
• The pilot plant in Manikaran was developed to test binary cycle power generation, where a secondary fluid with a lower boiling point is evaporated by the geothermal heat to drive a turbine.
• This initiative is part of India’s broader strategy to explore non-conventional energy sources and reduce dependency on fossil fuels by tapping into the Earth’s internal heat.

Additional Information

• Geothermal Energy:
• It refers to the thermal energy generated and stored in the Earth. It is a renewable and sustainable energy source with a high capacity factor, meaning it can provide power 24/7 unlike solar or wind.
• In India, the potential for geothermal energy is estimated to be around 10,000 MW, spread across seven provinces including the Himalayas, Sohna, and SONATA (Son-Narmada-Tapti) regions.
• Puga Valley:
• Located in Ladakh, Puga Valley is considered the most promising geothermal field in India. The Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) is currently executing India’s first Geothermal Field Development Project there.
• Kangra Valley:
• This valley is located in the Himachal Pradesh state and is famous for its tea gardens, the Masroor Rock Cut Temple, and the Kangra Fort. It is not a site for the experimental geothermal project.
• Spiti Valley:
• Known as a cold desert mountain valley, it is located in the north-eastern part of Himachal Pradesh. While geologically significant, it is primarily known for Tibetan Buddhism and monasteries like Key Monastery.
• Solang Valley:
• A side valley at the top of the Kullu Valley, Solang is a popular destination for adventure sports such as paragliding, skiing, and zorbing, rather than geothermal energy research.

Important Points

• The Manikaran hot springs are not only significant for energy but also hold great religious importance for both Hindus and Sikhs, featuring the Gurudwara Shri Manikaran Sahib.
• Geothermal fluids at Manikaran are also used for direct applications such as space heating and cooking food in the local community kitchens, showcasing the diverse uses of geothermal resources.
• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) provides the policy framework for the development of such alternative energy projects in India to achieve the country’s climate goals.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Madhya Pradesh was the first state in India to enact the Right to Public Service Act.
• The legislation is officially known as the Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010, and it was enacted on 18th August 2010.
• The act provides a statutory guarantee to citizens for the delivery of specified public services within a fixed time limit.
• If the Designated Officer fails to provide the service within the stipulated time without a valid reason, the act provides for a penalty against the official, which is usually deducted from their salary.
• Initially, the act covered a limited number of services like caste certificates, domicile certificates, and copy of land records, but it has since been expanded to include hundreds of services across various departments.

Additional Information

• Timeline of other states: Following the success of the model in Madhya Pradesh, other states followed suit. Bihar became the second state to implement a similar law, the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, which came into force on 15th August 2011. Rajasthan and Punjab also enacted their versions of the act later in 2011 to improve administrative transparency and accountability.
• Mechanism of the Act: The act typically involves a three-tier structure. A citizen applies to a Designated Officer. If the service is not provided, the citizen can file an appeal with the First Appellate Authority, and subsequently a second appeal with the Second Appellate Authority or a Public Service Commission.
• Objectives: The primary goal is to reduce corruption by minimizing the direct interaction between citizens and officials for routine tasks and ensuring time-bound delivery. It shifts the power dynamic from the bureaucracy to the citizens, treating them as right-holders rather than mere beneficiaries.
• Penalties and Compensation: Under these acts, the Second Appellate Authority has the power to impose a fine on the defaulting officer. In some states, a portion of this penalty is given to the applicant as compensation for the delay and inconvenience caused.
• E-Governance Integration: To make the implementation effective, states like Madhya Pradesh launched portals such as MP e-District and Lok Seva Kendra, allowing citizens to track their applications in real-time using a unique registration number.

Important Points

• National Level Initiatives: While many states have their own acts, a central legislation titled the Right of Citizens for Time Bound Delivery of Goods and Services and Redressal of their Grievances Bill, 2011 was introduced in the Lok Sabha but could not be passed into a law before the dissolution of the house.
• Governance Impact: The enactment of the Right to Public Service Act is considered a major milestone in administrative reforms in India, similar to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, as it empowers the common man against bureaucratic delays.
• Madhya Pradesh Lok Seva Management Department: This dedicated department was created in 2012 specifically to monitor the implementation of the act and ensure citizen-centric governance in the state.

The correct answer is मरुस्थलों में कम कीमत पर भूमि की उपलब्धता.

मुख्य बिंदु

• लौह और इस्पात उद्योग एक वजन घटाने वाला उद्योग है, जिसका अर्थ है कि इसमें उपयोग किए जाने वाले कच्चे माल का वजन तैयार उत्पाद की तुलना में बहुत अधिक होता है। इसलिए, परिवहन लागत को कम करने के लिए इन उद्योगों को लौह अयस्क और कोयला खदानों के पास स्थापित करना सबसे तर्कसंगत होता है। अतः, विकल्प 1 एक महत्वपूर्ण विचारणीय कारक है।
• बाजार अभिगम्यता किसी भी उद्योग की सफलता के लिए अनिवार्य है क्योंकि तैयार माल (जैसे स्टील की छड़ें, चादरें आदि) को अंतिम उपभोक्ताओं, निर्माण क्षेत्र और ऑटोमोबाइल उद्योगों तक जल्दी और कुशलता से पहुँचाना आवश्यक होता है। अतः, विकल्प 2 एक महत्वपूर्ण विचारणीय कारक है।
• भारी इंजीनियरिंग और धातुकर्म प्रक्रियाओं के लिए पानी की भारी खपत होती है। भट्टियों को ठंडा करने और सफाई प्रक्रियाओं के लिए नाव्य सरिताओं या नदियों तक पहुंच न केवल पानी की आपूर्ति सुनिश्चित करती है बल्कि भारी मशीनरी के परिवहन के लिए सस्ते जलमार्ग भी प्रदान करती है। अतः, विकल्प 4 एक महत्वपूर्ण विचारणीय कारक है।
• मरुस्थलों में कम कीमत पर भूमि उपलब्ध हो सकती है, लेकिन वहां पानी की कमी, प्रतिकूल जलवायु, परिवहन बुनियादी ढांचे का अभाव और कच्चे माल से अत्यधिक दूरी जैसे कारक इसे एक अव्यवहारिक स्थान बनाते हैं। केवल भूमि की कम कीमत एक भारी उद्योग की स्थापना का आधार नहीं हो सकती। अतः, विकल्प 3 विचारणीय कारक नहीं है।
• भारत के अधिकांश प्रमुख इस्पात संयंत्र छोटा नागपुर पठार क्षेत्र में स्थित हैं, जो झारखंड, पश्चिम बंगाल, ओडिशा और छत्तीसगढ़ के कुछ हिस्सों में फैला हुआ है, क्योंकि वहां संसाधनों का अनुकूल संयोजन उपलब्ध है।

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• कच्चे माल का अनुपात: 1 टन स्टील बनाने के लिए लगभग 8 टन कच्चे माल की आवश्यकता होती है, जिसमें लौह अयस्क, कोकिंग कोल, चूना पत्थर और मैंगनीज शामिल हैं। यही कारण है कि यह उद्योग कच्चे माल उन्मुख (Raw Material Oriented) है।
• प्रमुख इस्पात संयंत्र और उनकी स्थिति:
• टाटा आयरन एंड स्टील कंपनी (TISCO): यह जमशेदपुर में स्थित है, जहां सुवर्णरेखा और खरकई नदियों से पानी प्राप्त होता है।
• भिलाई इस्पात संयंत्र: यह छत्तीसगढ़ के दुर्ग जिले में स्थित है और इसे रूस की सहायता से स्थापित किया गया था।
• राउरकेला इस्पात संयंत्र: यह ओडिशा में जर्मनी के सहयोग से स्थापित किया गया था और यह कोयले के लिए झरिया तथा लौह अयस्क के लिए सुंदरगढ़ पर निर्भर है।
• तटीय स्थान: विशाखापत्तनम इस्पात संयंत्र भारत का पहला तट-आधारित इस्पात संयंत्र है। यह स्थान कच्चे माल के आयात और तैयार उत्पादों के निर्यात के लिए समुद्री बंदरगाह का उपयोग करने की रणनीति के तहत चुना गया है।
• परिवहन की भूमिका: भारतीय रेलवे ने कोयला और लौह अयस्क को लंबी दूरी तक ले ज��ने में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई है, जिससे उद्योगों का थोड़ा विकेंद्रीकरण संभव हुआ है।

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु

• अल्फ्रेड वेबर का सिद्धांत: प्रसिद्ध अर्थशास्त्री अल्फ्रेड वेबर ने औद्योगिक अवस्थिति का सिद्धांत दिया था, जिसमें उन्होंने बताया कि भारी और अशुद्ध कच्चे माल वाले उद्योग हमेशा स्रोत के निकट स्थापित किए जाते हैं।
• पानी की आवश्यकता: एक टन स्टील के उत्पादन में लगभग 20,000 लीटर से अधिक पानी की आवश्यकता हो सकती है, इसलिए नदियों और जलाशयों की निकटता भूमि की कीमत से अधिक महत्वपूर्ण है।
• बाजार का प्रभाव: हाल के वर्षों में, मिनी स्टील प्लांट बाजार के करीब स्थित होने लगे हैं क्योंकि वे कच्चे माल के रूप में स्क्रैप आयरन (कबाड़ लोहे) और बिजली का उपयोग करते हैं, जिससे वे कोयला खदानों पर कम निर्भर रहते हैं।
• ऊर्जा की उपलब्धता: इस्पात उत्पादन एक ऊर्जा-गहन प्रक्रिया है। इसलिए, थर्मल पावर स्टेशन या पनबिजली परियोजनाओं के पास होना औद्योगिक विकास के लिए एक आवश्यक शर्त है।

The correct answer is Garba.

Key Points

• Garba is a vibrant and devotional folk dance originating from the state of Gujarat, India. It is traditionally performed during the Navratri festival, which spans nine nights of worship dedicated to Goddess Durga. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The dance is performed in a circular formation around a centrally lit lamp or a picture/statue of the Goddess. The word Garba comes from the Sanskrit word Garbha, meaning womb, symbolizing the cycle of life from birth to death with the Goddess at the center.
• In December 2023, UNESCO officially included Garba of Gujarat in its Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. This recognition highlights the dance form's cultural significance as a unifying force and its role in promoting social inclusivity.
• Performers typically wear colorful traditional attire: women wear Chaniya Choli (a three-piece outfit consisting of a blouse, skirt, and dupatta), while men wear Kediyu and Dhoti or Kafni pajamas.

Additional Information

• Charba:
• This is a popular folk dance of Himachal Pradesh.
• It is performed specifically during the Dussehra festival to celebrate the harvest and religious festivities. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
• Bhangra:
• Bhangra is a highly energetic and rhythmic folk dance from the state of Punjab.
• It was originally a harvest dance performed by farmers during Vaisakhi (the Sikh and Punjabi New Year). It is characterized by the use of the Dhol (a double-headed drum) and vigorous movements. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• Kalbelia:
• Kalbelia is a famous folk dance of Rajasthan, performed by the tribe of the same name, traditionally known as snake charmers.
• The dance movements mimic the flexible and slithering motions of a serpent. The dancers wear flowing black skirts embellished with silver embroidery.
• Kalbelia was included in the UNESCO list of Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2010. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
• Dandiya Raas:
• Often associated with Garba, Dandiya Raas is another major dance form of Gujarat performed during Navratri. While Garba involves rhythmic clapping and hand movements, Dandiya is performed using sticks (dandiyas) as props, symbolizing a mock-fight between the Goddess and the demon Mahishasura.

Important Points

• Cultural Impact: Garba has evolved from a local folk tradition to a global phenomenon, celebrated by the Indian diaspora in countries like the USA, UK, Canada, and Australia.
• Social Integration: Modern Garba events in cities like Ahmedabad, Vadodara, and Surat attract thousands of participants from various backgrounds, emphasizing communal harmony and religious devotion.

The correct answer is Kol Insurrection.

Key Points

• The Kol Insurrection was a major tribal revolt that took place in the Chotanagpur region between 1831 and 1832. It was a reaction against the British East India Company’s administrative and land policies.
• Bindrai Manki, along with Sui Munda, was a primary leader who spearheaded the rebellion in the Singhbhum district. The revolt was largely sparked by the Mankis (village headmen) who were aggrieved by the loss of their traditional land rights. Hence, the statement is correct.
• The immediate cause of the rebellion involved the leasing of tribal lands to outsiders, such as Sikh and Muslim farmers, who were called Dikus (foreigners) by the tribes. Bindrai Manki himself revolted after his land was snatched and given to an outsider, and his family members were mistreated.
• The Kol tribe, which included Mundas, Hos, and Oraons, joined forces to protest against the British judicial system, the introduction of opium cultivation, and the exorbitant land revenue demands.
• The rebellion spread across Ranchi, Hazaribagh, Palamau, and Manbhum. It was one of the most organized tribal movements of the 19th century, requiring the British to deploy large-scale military force to suppress it.
• The revolt finally came to an end in 1832 after many leaders, including Buddhu Bhagat, were killed in action. Bindrai Manki eventually surrendered in 1832, leading to a reorganization of the region’s administration.

Additional Information

• Santhal Rebellion (1855−56):
• This rebellion took place in the Damin-i-Koh region (modern-day Jharkhand and West Bengal).
• It was led by the legendary brothers Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu.
• The movement was directed against the Zamindari system and the exploitative nature of British revenue collection.
• Munda Uprising (1899−1900):
• Known as the Ulgulan (The Great Tumult), it was led by Birsa Munda in the Ranchi region.
• The movement aimed to restore the Khuntkatti (joint landholding) system and establish a Munda Raj.
• Birsa Munda is still worshipped as Dharti Aba (Father of the Earth) in the region.
• Rangpur Peasant Revolt (1783):
• This was a significant peasant uprising in Bengal against the high-handedness of Ijaradars (revenue contractors) like Devi Singh.
• The peasants established their own government and refused to pay the high revenue demanded by the British East India Company.
• South-West Frontier Agency (SWFA):
• As a result of the Kol Insurrection, the British realized that general laws could not be applied to tribal areas.
• In 1834, they established the South-West Frontier Agency under Regulation XIII, which placed tribal territories under a Non-Regulated administrative system managed by a Political Agent.

Important Points

• Key Figures: While Bindrai Manki and Sui Munda were active in Singhbhum, Buddhu Bhagat led the revolt from the Silli region near Ranchi.
• Outcome: Although the revolt was militarily defeated, it led to the Wilkinson’s Rule, which recognized the Munda-Manki system and provided some legal protection to tribal land rights in the Chotanagpur plateau.

The correct answer is Rashtriya Raksha University.

Key Points

• The Asmita Khelo India Wushu League 2025 (West Zone) was hosted by Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) at its campus in Lavad, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
• This prestigious sporting event was organized in collaboration with the Wushu Association of India (WAI) and received extensive support from the Sports Authority of India (SAI) under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• The league is part of the ASMITA initiative, which stands for Achieving Sports Milestone by Inspiring Women through Action. It is a dedicated platform designed to promote and empower female athletes in the field of martial arts.
• The competition saw significant participation from female wushu players across various states in the West Zone, including Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Goa.
• The primary objective of hosting this league at Rashtriya Raksha University was to provide a professional environment for budding talent to showcase their skills and earn points for national rankings.
• The event featured two main categories of Wushu: Sanda (a combat system involving striking and wrestling) and Taolu (choreographed routines of martial arts movements).

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU):
• It is an Institution of National Importance and a pioneering National Security and Police University of India.
• Located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, it functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• RRU focuses on specialized education in internal security, policing, cybersecurity, and physical education through its various schools.
• Khelo India Program:
• Launched in 2017-18, this program aims to revive the sports culture in India at the grassroots level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country.
• The Asmita Women's League is a component of this program specifically targeted at gender equality in sports and increasing the participation of women.
• Sports Authority of India (SAI):
• Established in 1984, SAI is the apex national sports body of India, responsible for the development of sports in the country.
• It operates several Regional Centres and Academic Institutions, providing training and infrastructure to elite athletes.
• Wushu in India:
• Wushu is a traditional Chinese martial art that has become highly popular in India, with Indian athletes consistently winning medals at the Asian Games and World Championships.
• The Wushu Association of India is the governing body recognized by the Indian Olympic Association and the International Wushu Federation.

Important Points

• The Asmita Khelo India leagues are held across different zones—North, South, East, and West—to ensure nationwide coverage and talent identification.
• The initiative helps in creating a talent pipeline for the national teams, especially focusing on the Sub-Junior, Junior, and Senior categories.
• Hosting such events at security-focused institutions like RRU highlights the integration of sports and physical fitness with national security training.

The correct answer is Malaysia.

Key Points

• The ICC U19 Women’s T20 World Cup 2025 is the second edition of the biennial international championship for under-19 women's cricket teams.
• The International Cricket Council (ICC) awarded the hosting rights for the 2025 edition to Malaysia and Thailand, with Malaysia serving as the primary host country for the tournament.
• The event is scheduled to take place in January 2025, featuring 16 teams from across the globe competing for the title.
• The selection of Malaysia highlights the ICC's commitment to diversifying cricket venues and promoting the sport in Associate Member nations within the Asian region.
• This tournament provides a critical platform for young female cricketers to showcase their talent on a global stage before transitioning to senior international cricket.

Additional Information

• Inaugural Edition: The first-ever ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup was held in 2023. The host nation for this historic event was South Africa.
• First Champions: India emerged as the inaugural champions in 2023 by defeating England in the final by 7 wickets. The Indian team was captained by the prolific senior international player Shafali Verma.
• Future Hosts: Looking ahead, the ICC has announced that the 2027 edition of the U19 Women's T20 World Cup will be co-hosted by Bangladesh and Nepal.
• Tournament Format: The competition typically involves a Group Stage where 16 teams are divided into four groups of four, followed by a Super Six stage, semifinals, and the final match.
• Qualification Path: While major cricketing nations receive automatic qualification, other spots are filled through regional qualifiers held across Africa, Americas, Asia, East Asia-Pacific, and Europe.

Important Points

• The 2025 tournament in Malaysia is expected to utilize several international-standard venues, including the Bayuemas Oval and the Kinrara Academy Oval, which have previously hosted major ACC (Asian Cricket Council) events.
• The U19 World Cup acts as a talent pipeline; players like Shweta Sehrawat (top scorer in 2023) and Grace Scrivens gained significant prominence through their performances in the first edition.
• The International Cricket Council, headquartered in Dubai, UAE, governs the tournament and ensures that playing conditions and standards are consistent with international T20 protocols.

CONCEPT:

Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

• The Zeroth law of thermodynamics states that if two thermodynamic systems are each in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they are in thermal equilibrium with each other.
• This law is fundamental because it allows us to define the concept of temperature and justifies the use of thermometers.
• Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium when there is no net flow of heat energy between them when they are connected by a path permeable to heat.

EXPLANATION:

• Consider three systems: System A, System B, and System C.
• According to the statement:
• If System A is in thermal equilibrium with System C, they are at the same temperature.
• If System B is also in thermal equilibrium with System C, then System B and System C are at the same temperature.
• By the transitive property of thermal equilibrium, it follows that System A and System B must be at the same temperature and thus in thermal equilibrium with each other.
• Comparison with other laws:
• The First law of thermodynamics is the law of conservation of energy.
• The Second law of thermodynamics deals with entropy and the direction of spontaneous processes.
• The Law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed.
• Since the given statement describes the transitive nature of thermal equilibrium, it is the definition of the Zeroth law of thermodynamics.

Therefore, the correct answer is the Zeroth law of thermodynamics.

सही उत्तर बैरम खाँ है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• 1556 में हुमायूँ की आकस्मिक मृत्यु के समय अकबर की आयु केवल 13 वर्ष थी। इस कारण बैरम खाँ को उनका प्रतिशासक (Regent) और संरक्षक नियुक्त किया गया था।
• बैरम खाँ ने 1556 से 1560 तक मुगल साम्राज्य का कुशलतापूर्वक संचालन किया। इस अवधि को अकबर के शासनकाल का संरक्षण काल कहा जाता है।
• उनके नेतृत्व में मुगलों ने 5 नवंबर 1556 को पानीपत के दूसरे युद्ध में हेमू (हेमचंद्र विक्रमादित्य) को पराजित किया, जो मुगल साम्राज्य की पुनर्स्थापना के लिए निर्णायक सिद्ध हुआ। इसलिए, कथन 4 सही है।
• अकबर ने उन्हें खान-ए-खाना की प्रतिष्ठित उपाधि प्रदान की थी और वे साम्राज्य के वकील-उस-सल्तनत (प्रधानमंत्री) के पद पर आसीन थे।
• 1560 में अकबर ने सत्ता की बागडोर पूरी तरह से अपने हाथों में ले ली और बैरम खाँ को उनके पद से सेवानिवृत्त होने का आदेश दिया।

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• अबुल फज़ल:
• ये अकबर के नवरत्नों में से एक थे। उन्होंने अकबर के शासनकाल का आधिकारिक इतिहास अकबरनामा और आइन-ए-अकबरी लिखा था।
• वे अकबर के शासन के प्रारंभिक वर्षों में प्रतिशासक नहीं थे, बल्कि बाद के वर्षों में उनके सलाहकार और मित्र बने।
• मिर्ज़ा हाकीम:
• वे अकबर के सौतेले भाई थे और काबुल के स्वतंत्र शासक के रूप में कार्य करते थे।
• उन्होंने अकबर के शासनकाल के दौरान कई बार विद्रोह किया और मुगल सिंहासन पर अपना दावा पेश करने की कोशिश की थी।
• मुनीम खान:
• बैरम खाँ के पतन के बाद, मुनीम खान को अकबर का वकील (प्रधानमंत्री) नियुक्त किया गया था।
• उन्होंने मुगल साम्राज्य के विस्तार में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई और वे बंगाल और बिहार के गवर्नर के रूप में भी प्रसिद्ध हुए।
• अकबर का शासनकाल (1556-1605):
• अकबर का राज्याभिषेक 14 फरवरी 1556 को पंजाब के कलानौर में हुआ था।
• 1560 से 1562 के बीच के समय को अक्सर पेटीकोट सरकार कहा जाता है, क्योंकि इस दौरान शासन पर अकबर की धाय माँ माहम अनगा का अत्यधिक प्रभाव था।

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु

• बैरम खाँ का पतन: दरबारी षड्यंत्रों और अकबर की अपनी स्वतंत्रता की इच्छा के कारण 1560 में बैरम खाँ को पद से हटाया गया। मक्का की तीर्थयात्रा पर जाते समय गुजरात के पाटन में उनकी हत्या कर दी गई थी।
• बैरम खाँ के पुत्र अब्दुल रहीम खान-ए-खाना बाद में अकबर के दरबार में एक महान विद्वान और हिंदी कवि के रूप में प्रसिद्ध हुए।

The correct answer is Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Himalayas are geologically classified as the youngest fold mountains in the world. They represent a youthful topography with high peaks, deep valleys, and fast-flowing rivers.
• The formation of the Himalayas took place during the Tertiary period of the Cenozoic Era, which is approximately 40 to 50 million years ago.
• These mountains were formed by the collision of the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. The sedimentary rocks which were accumulated in the geosyncline known as the Tethys were folded to form the mountain system of western Asia and Himalayas.
• The Himalayas stretch for about 2,400 kilometers from the Indus River in the west to the Brahmaputra in the east, acting as a natural barrier for the Indian subcontinent.
• Because the tectonic plates are still moving, the Himalayas are technically still growing in height and are seismically active, which is a characteristic of young mountains.

Additional Information

• Aravalli Hills:
• The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, dating back to the Pre-Cambrian Era (over 570 million years ago).
• It runs across Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat. Over millions of years, it has been heavily eroded, and today it exists mostly as relict mountains.
• Eastern Ghats:
• The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India's eastern coast.
• They are older than the Western Ghats and the Himalayas. They have been extensively eroded by the four major rivers of peninsular India: Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna, and Kaveri.
• Satpura Range:
• The Satpura Range is a series of seven hills forming part of the Deccan Plateau.
• Geologically, these are Block Mountains formed due to faulting in the earth's crust. They run parallel between the Narmada and Tapi rivers.

Important Points

• Fold Mountains: These are created where two or more of Earth's tectonic plates are pushed together. At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, and entire mountain ranges.
• Mount Everest: Located in the Himalayas, it is the highest peak in the world with an elevation of 8,848.86 meters.
• Regional Divisions: The Himalayas are divided into three main longitudinal belts: the Great Himalayas (Himadri), the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal), and the Outer Himalayas (Shiwaliks). The Shiwaliks are the southernmost and the youngest part within the Himalayan system itself.
• Geological Significance: The age of mountain ranges is determined by radiometric dating of rocks and the study of fossil records found in the sedimentary layers. The absence of complex fossils in older ranges like the Aravallis contrasts with the marine fossils found in the Himalayan strata.

The correct answer is NNP at Factor Cost.

Key Points

• NNP at Factor Cost (Net National Product at Factor Cost) is the most comprehensive measure of the National Income of a country.
• It represents the net value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country, whether operating within the domestic territory or outside, during a financial year.
• The term Net indicates that the Depreciation or Consumption of Fixed Capital has been deducted from the gross value to account for the wear and tear of assets.
• As a National aggregate, it includes Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA), which is the difference between income earned by residents from abroad and income earned by non-residents within the country.
• The Factor Cost refers to the total cost of all factors of production (Land, Labour, Capital, and Entrepreneurship) used in the production process, excluding Net Indirect Taxes (NIT).

Additional Information

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at Market Price:
• It is the total market value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries or domestic territory of a country during a specific year.
• It does not account for Depreciation and does not include NFIA.
• Gross National Product (GNP) at Market Price:
• It refers to the market value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country.
• It is calculated by adding Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) to the GDP at Market Price.
• Net Domestic Product (NDP) at Market Price:
• It represents the net value of goods and services produced within the domestic territory.
• It is obtained by subtracting Depreciation from GDP at Market Price.
• Factor Cost vs. Market Price:
• Market Price (MP) includes Indirect Taxes and excludes Subsidies provided by the government.
• Factor Cost (FC) = Market Price − Indirect Taxes + Subsidies, or simply Market Price − Net Indirect Taxes (NIT).

Important Points

• The Normal Residents of a country include individuals and institutions whose center of economic interest lies in that country and who have resided there for one year or more.
• Depreciation is a non-cash expense that represents the reduction in the value of fixed assets over time due to usage, obsolescence, or accidental damage.
• In India, the National Statistical Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), is responsible for the estimation of National Income and related aggregates.
• The basic formula for National Income is: NNP at FC = GNP at MP − Depreciation − Net Indirect Taxes.
• While GDP reflects the strength of the domestic economy, NNP at Factor Cost reflects the actual income available to the residents of the nation.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Exercise Desert Hunt 2025 is a premier joint military training exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Royal Saudi Land Forces (RSLF).
• The exercise was held in the state of Rajasthan, utilizing the specialized facilities at the Mahajan Field Firing Range (MFFR), which is known for its rigorous desert conditions.
• The primary focus of this bilateral engagement is to enhance interoperability and synergy between the two nations' armies in performing counter-terrorism operations under a desert environment.
• The training involves a series of tactical maneuvers, including cordon and search operations, room intervention, and combat shooting drills to share best practices.
• This exercise represents the strengthening defense diplomacy and strategic partnership between India and Saudi Arabia, aimed at ensuring regional peace and security.

Additional Information

• Mahajan Field Firing Range (MFFR):
• Located in the Bikaner district of Rajasthan, it is the Indian Army's largest and oldest field firing range.
• The range is capable of supporting multi-dimensional training for infantry, artillery, and armored units, making it a preferred site for international joint exercises such as Yudh Abhyas and Dharma Guardian.
• India-Saudi Arabia Defense Ties:
• Defense cooperation between the two countries has surged since the signing of the Riyadh Declaration in 2010.
• Apart from land exercises, the Indian Navy and Royal Saudi Naval Forces participate in Exercise Al-Mohed Al-Hindi, which started in 2021.
• The cooperation also extends to intelligence sharing and high-level defense exchanges, reflecting India's Look West Policy.
• Rajasthan as a Training Hub:
• The Thar Desert in Rajasthan offers a unique landscape for testing desert warfare strategies, which are essential for both Indian and Saudi Arabian forces.
• The state regularly hosts large-scale domestic exercises like Sudarshan Shakti and Vijay Prahar to validate the operational readiness of the Southern Command.

Important Points

• The 2025 edition of the exercise highlights the integration of modern technology, such as unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) and night vision equipment, in tactical scenarios.
• The exercise serves as a platform for soldier-to-soldier interaction, fostering mutual trust and cultural understanding between the armed forces of the two friendly nations.
• Successful completion of Desert Hunt validates the ability of both armies to work together under the United Nations mandate for peacekeeping or counter-insurgency tasks.

CONCEPT:

Bohr Atomic Model and Classical Physics

• The Bohr model of the atom was developed to resolve the fundamental contradictions between the observed behavior of atoms and the predictions of classical physics.
• The main challenge was to explain the stability of atoms and the existence of discrete line spectra, which could not be explained by the electrodynamics of that era.

EXPLANATION:

• According to the Classical electromagnetic theory (Maxwell's theory), an accelerating charged particle must continuously emit energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
• In the Rutherford model of the atom, electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths. Circular motion is a type of accelerated motion because the direction of velocity changes continuously.
• If classical theory were correct, the electron would constantly lose energy, its orbital radius would decrease, and it would eventually spiral into the nucleus, making the atom inherently unstable.
• Furthermore, if an electron lost energy continuously, the emitted radiation would cover a continuous range of frequencies, resulting in a continuous spectrum.
• However, experiments showed that atoms like hydrogen are stable and produce a line spectrum (discrete wavelengths), not a continuous one.
• In 1913, Niels Bohr challenged the classical electromagnetic theory by postulating that:
• Electrons revolve in certain fixed, non-radiating stationary orbits.
• The angular momentum of an electron in these orbits is quantized.
• Energy is emitted or absorbed only when an electron jumps from one stationary orbit to another, explaining the discrete spectral lines.

Therefore, the theory Bohr challenged to explain atomic spectra is the classical electromagnetic theory.

The correct answer is Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana.

Key Points

• The Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY) was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment on 1 October 2020 to incentivize employers for the creation of new employment along with social security benefits and restoration of loss of employment during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The scheme was effective for registrations from 1 October 2020 to 31 March 2022. It was designed to reduce the financial burden on employers of various sectors and encourage them to hire more workers.
• Under this scheme, the Government of India provides subsidy for two years in respect of new employees engaged on or after 1 October 2020 and upto 31 March 2022.
• For establishments employing up to 1000 employees, the Central Government pays both the 12% employees’ contribution and 12% employers’ contribution (total 24% of wages) towards EPF.
• For establishments employing more than 1000 employees, the Central Government pays only the employees’ share of EPF contribution, which is 12% of wages.
• To be eligible, a new employee must have a monthly wage of less than 15,000 rupees. This is the primary salary cap for beneficiaries under the scheme.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY):
• Launched on 8 April 2015, this scheme provides loans up to 10 lakh rupees to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
• These loans are classified as Shishu (up to 50,000), Kishore (50,000 to 5 lakh), and Tarun (5 lakh to 10 lakh) based on the stage of growth and funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit.
• Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP):
• This is a major credit-linked subsidy scheme launched in 2008 by merging the Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) and Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP).
• It is administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and implemented by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) at the national level.
• The scheme aims to generate employment opportunities in rural as well as urban areas of the country through setting up of self-employment ventures.
• Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan (GKRA):
• Launched on 20 June 2020 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi via video conference from Telihar village in Khagaria district of Bihar.
• It was a massive 125-day employment-cum-infrastructure drive to provide immediate livelihood opportunities to returnee migrant workers and rural citizens in 116 districts across 6 states (Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Odisha, and Jharkhand).
• The scheme involved the coordinated effort of 12 different Ministries to expedite 25 public work projects.

Important Points

• The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana.
• The Ministry of Labour and Employment oversees the welfare of workers and the implementation of labor laws, headed by the Union Minister of Labour and Employment.
• The ABRY scheme was a part of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat 3.0 stimulus package announced to provide a boost to the Indian economy during the recovery phase of the pandemic.
• Beneficiaries include any new employee joining employment in EPFO registered establishments on monthly wages less than 15,000 rupees and who did not have a Universal Account Number (UAN) prior to 1 October 2020.

The correct answer is Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• In April 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) achieved a significant milestone by successfully testing a 30-kilowatt laser-based Directed Energy Weapon (DEW).
• The testing was conducted at a specialized facility in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh, which has emerged as a key strategic site for evaluating high-energy weapon systems.
• This 30-kilowatt system is designed to neutralize a variety of aerial threats, including Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), drones, and electronic sensors, using a highly concentrated beam of light.
• The successful trial demonstrates India's growing capability in fifth-generation warfare technologies, reducing reliance on traditional kinetic ammunition for short-range air defence.
• The development of this DEW is part of a larger roadmap by DRDO to create scalable high-power laser systems for the Indian Armed Forces.

Additional Information

• Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs):
• DEWs are systems that produce a beam of concentrated electromagnetic energy or atomic/subatomic particles to damage or destroy targets.
• Unlike conventional missiles, DEWs travel at the speed of light, making them effective against fast-moving targets with near-instantaneous impact.
• They offer a low cost per shot compared to expensive surface-to-air missiles, as the primary requirement is a robust electrical power source.
• Key Research Laboratories:
• The primary laboratory responsible for this technology is the Laser Science and Technology Centre (LASTEC), located in Delhi.
• LASTEC operates under the aegis of DRDO and focuses on the development of Gas Dynamic Lasers, Chemical Oxygen Iodine Lasers, and Fiber Lasers for military applications.
• Durga-II Project:
• The 30-kilowatt test is closely linked to Project Durga-II (Directionally Unrestricted Ray-Gun Array), which aims to deploy 100-kilowatt lightweight laser systems on various platforms.
• The ultimate goal of Durga-II is to integrate these weapons onto naval ships, aircraft, and land-based mobile units for comprehensive protection against ballistic missiles and hypersonic threats.

Important Points

• Testing Ranges in India: While Chandipur and Balasore in Odisha are traditional sites for missile testing, Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh is being developed as a vital hub for advanced electronic and energy-based trials due to its geography.
• Strategic Advantage: Deploying DEWs provides a silent and invisible strike capability, which is crucial for Electronic Warfare (EW) and protecting high-value assets like nuclear power plants or parliament buildings.
• Global Context: With this successful test in 2025, India joins a select group of nations, including the USA, Russia, China, and Israel, that possess operational or near-operational high-energy laser weapon technologies.

The correct answer is Itimad-ud-Daula Tomb.

Key Points

• The Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daula is located in Agra, Uttar Pradesh, and was built during the 17th century between the years 1622 and 1628.
• It was commissioned by Nur Jahan, the powerful wife of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir, as a memorial for her father, Mirza Ghiyas Beg, who was bestowed with the title Itimad-ud-Daula (Pillar of the State).
• The structure is historically significant as it represents the transition from the first phase of Mughal architecture, which primarily used red sandstone (like in Fatehpur Sikri), to the second phase, characterized by the use of white marble.
• This tomb is the first Mughal structure to make extensive and sophisticated use of Pietra Dura (also known as Parchin Kari), an architectural technique involving the inlay of precious and semi-precious stones into marble.
• Due to its architectural style and decorative elements, it is frequently referred to as the Baby Taj, as it is considered a precursor or a draft for the design of the Taj Mahal.

Additional Information

• Isa Khan Tomb:
• Located in Delhi within the Humayun's Tomb complex, this tomb was built in 1547-48 for a noble in the court of Sher Shah Suri.
• It belongs to the Sur dynasty architectural style and features an octagonal plan, which is distinct from the later Mughal 17th-century designs. Hence, this is not the correct option.
• Khan-i-Khana Tomb:
• This tomb was built for Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana, a famous poet and one of the Navaratnas of Akbar, in 1627.
• Situated in Nizamuddin, Delhi, it is known for its massive dome and served as an inspiration for the Taj Mahal, though it lacked the refined Pietra Dura work seen in Agra. Hence, this is not the correct option.
• Safdarjung Tomb:
• Built in 1754 in New Delhi, this tomb was constructed for Safdarjung, the Wazir of the Mughal Empire during the reign of Ahmad Shah Bahadur.
• It is considered the last monumental garden tomb of the Mughals and represents the late, somewhat declining phase of Mughal architecture. Hence, this is not the correct option.
• Pietra Dura Technique:
• This decorative art uses cut and fitted, highly polished colored stones like Lapis Lazuli, Onyx, Jasper, and Topaz to create images and patterns.
• While the technique originated in Italy, it was adapted by Indian craftsmen during the reign of Jahangir and Shah Jahan to create the iconic floral motifs that define Mughal grandeur.

Important Points

• Location: The tomb is situated on the eastern bank of the Yamuna River, offering a serene environment that became a hallmark of Mughal Charbagh garden layouts.
• Mirza Ghiyas Beg: He was a Persian noble who played a crucial role in the Mughal administration and was the grandfather of Arjumand Banu Begum (later known as Mumtaz Mahal).
• Architectural Features: The tomb consists of a square base with hexagonal towers at the four corners, topped with kiosks or Chattris, a feature that influenced several subsequent Mughal monuments.

The correct answer is In any court or before any authority except the Supreme Court and other High Courts.

Key Points

• Article 220 of the Constitution of India imposes specific restrictions on the professional practice of individuals who have served as permanent judges.
• According to this article, no person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court after the commencement of the Constitution shall plead or act in any court or before any authority in India, except the Supreme Court and the other High Courts.
• This provision implies that a retired judge is barred from practicing in the same High Court where they served as a permanent judge and in any courts subordinate to it.
• The restriction is intended to preserve the dignity and independence of the judicial office and to prevent any potential conflict of interest or undue influence on former colleagues.
• It is important to note that this restriction applies specifically to those who were permanent judges; it does not strictly apply to those who served only as additional or acting judges.

Additional Information

• Restriction on Supreme Court Judges: Under Article 124(7), a person who has held office as a Judge of the Supreme Court is completely prohibited from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority within the territory of India.
• Retirement Age: A judge of a High Court holds office until they attain the age of 62 years, as per the 15th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 (which increased it from 60). In contrast, Supreme Court judges retire at 65 years.
• Appointment Process: High Court judges are appointed by the President of India under Article 217 after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State, and the Chief Justice of the respective High Court.
• Transfer of Judges: Article 222 provides for the transfer of a judge from one High Court to another by the President, which is done after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
• Qualification for High Court Judge: A person must be a citizen of India and must have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least 10 years or been an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years.

Important Points

• Independence of Judiciary: These restrictions are part of the broader framework of the Indian Constitution to ensure the Judiciary remains separate from the Executive and Legislature, as envisioned in Article 50.
• Removal: A High Court judge can only be removed from office by the President following an address by Parliament, supported by a special majority, on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
• Jurisdiction: Each state in India is required to have a High Court under Article 214, although Parliament has the power to establish a common High Court for two or more states or Union Territories under Article 231.

The correct answer is World Health Organization.

Key Points

• The World Health Organization (WHO), in July 2025, formally expressed its gratitude and recognition for the Heads of State and Government who provided the necessary political momentum to finalize the Pandemic Agreement.
• The Pandemic Agreement was officially adopted in May 2025 during the 78th World Health Assembly held in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The recognition highlighted how high-level political involvement was essential to overcome deadlocks in negotiations concerning equitable access to medical countermeasures and pathogen-sharing mechanisms.
• Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus, the Director-General of the WHO, noted that the agreement represents a generational pact to protect future populations from the devastating social and economic impacts of pandemics.
• This milestone marked the culmination of a process that began with a Special Session of the World Health Assembly in December 2021, where Member States agreed to establish an Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB).

Additional Information

• The Pandemic Agreement (WHO CA+):
• It is a legally binding international instrument established under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution, which allows the World Health Assembly to adopt conventions or agreements on any matter within the competence of the Organization.
• The primary objective of the agreement is to strengthen Pandemic Prevention, Preparedness, and Response (PPPR) by fostering global cooperation and transparency.
• Key provisions of the 2025 agreement include the WHO Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) System and the Global Supply Chain and Logistics Network.
• World Health Organization (WHO):
• Founded on 7 April 1948, the WHO is the specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
• Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland, and it operates through six regional offices globally.
• The World Health Assembly (WHA) is the supreme decision-making body of the WHO, attended by delegations from all 194 Member States.
• International Health Regulations (IHR):
• Parallel to the Pandemic Agreement, the International Health Regulations (2005) were also targeted for targeted amendments in 2024 and 2025 to improve early warning systems and surveillance.
• While the Pandemic Agreement focuses on long-term equity and structural preparedness, the IHR provides the legal framework for responding to Public Health Emergencies of International Concern (PHEIC).
• Other Organizations Mentioned:
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) focuses on global monetary cooperation and financial stability, not public health treaties.
• UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) deals with education, science, and culture.
• The World Bank provides financial and technical assistance to developing countries, often supporting health projects, but it does not host the Pandemic Agreement.

Important Points

• The Pandemic Agreement emphasizes the principle of Sovereignty, ensuring that Member States have the sovereign right to legislate and implement legislation in pursuance of their public health policies.
• It addresses the One Health approach, recognizing the interconnection between the health of people, animals, and ecosystems to prevent zoonotic spillovers.
• The 2025 adoption follows years of intensive diplomatic sessions by the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB), which included Bureau members representing different WHO regions like Africa, the Americas, South-East Asia, Europe, Eastern Mediterranean, and Western Pacific.

Shortcut Trick

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of 1 hemisphere = 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 21 = 2772 cm².

Total Area for 1000 basins = 1000 × 2772 = 2,772,000 cm².

Convert to m² (divide by 10,000) ⇒ 277.2 m².

∴ The correct answer is 277.2 m².

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of hemispherical basins (n) = 1000

Radius (r) of each basin = 21 cm

Value of π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area of a Hemisphere = 2πr²

Total Area Required = n × (2πr²)

Calculations:

⇒ Area of 1 steel sheet for 1 basin = 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 21 cm²

⇒ Area of 1 basin = 2 × 22 × 3 × 21 = 2772 cm²

⇒ Total area for 1000 basins = 1000 × 2772 = 2,772,000 cm²

⇒ We know that 1 m² = 10,000 cm² (as 1 m = 100 cm, so 1 m² = 100 × 100 cm²)

⇒ Total Area in m² = 2,772,000 ÷ 10,000

⇒ Total Area = 277.2 m²

∴ The correct answer is 277.2 m².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Hemisphere

For a solid hemisphere, the total surface area includes the base area (πr²) and curved area (2πr²), giving TSA = 3πr².

Volume of a Hemisphere

The volume of a hemisphere is exactly half the volume of a full sphere: V = (2/3)πr³.

Unit Conversion Rules

To convert cm² to m², divide by 10,000. To convert cm³ to m³, divide by 1,000,000.

Shortcut Trick

Rise in water level (H) = (Volume of water from pipe) ÷ (Base area of tank)

H = (r² × Speed × Time) ÷ R² (since π cancels out)

H = (1² × 500 cm/s × 1560 s) ÷ 100²

H = 780000 ÷ 10000 = 78 cm

∴ The correct answer is 78 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Internal diameter of pipe = 2 cm ⇒ Radius (r) = 1 cm

Rate of flow (v) = 5 m/s = 500 cm/s

Base radius of tank (R) = 100 cm

Time (t) = 26 minutes = 26 × 60 = 1560 seconds

Formula Used:

Volume of water flowing through pipe = Area of cross-section × Speed × Time

Volume of water in cylindrical tank = πR²H

Calculations:

⇒ Volume from pipe = π × (1)² × 500 × 1560 cm³

⇒ Volume in tank = π × (100)² × H cm³

⇒ π × 500 × 1560 = π × 10000 × H

⇒ 780000 = 10000 × H

⇒ H = 780000 ÷ 10000

⇒ H = 78 cm

∴ The correct answer is 78 cm.

Additional Information

Volume of a Cylinder

The volume of a cylinder is given by V = πr²h, where r is the radius of the base and h is the height.

Flow Rate Concept

The volume of liquid flowing out of a pipe per unit time is Area of cross-section × Velocity of flow.

Unit Conversion

Always maintain consistency in units. For this problem, converting everything to centimeters and seconds is necessary: 1 m = 100 cm and 1 minute = 60 seconds.

Shortcut Trick

Single discount = 40%

Effective discount of 30% and 10% = [30 + 10 − (30 × 10)/100]% = 40% − 3% = 37%

Difference in discount percentage = 40% − 37% = 3%

Difference in Selling Price = 3% of Marked Price = 0.03 × 10,000 = ₹300

&there4$ The correct answer is ₹300.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹10,000

Discount Case 1 = 40% (Single)

Discount Case 2 = 30% and 10% (Successive)

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × (100 − D₁)/100 × (100 − D₂)/100

Calculations:

⇒ Selling Price 1 (SP₁) with 40% discount:

⇒ SP₁ = 10,000 × (100 − 40)/100 = 10,000 × 0.60 = ₹6,000

⇒ Selling Price 2 (SP₂) with successive discounts of 30% and 10%:

⇒ Value after first 30% discount = 10,000 × (100 − 30)/100 = 10,000 × 0.70 = ₹7,000

⇒ SP₂ (after second 10% discount) = 7,000 × (100 − 10)/100 = 7,000 × 0.90 = ₹6,300

⇒ Difference in Selling Price = SP₂ − SP₁

⇒ Difference = 6,300 − 6,000 = ₹300

∴ The correct answer is ₹300.

Additional Information

Equivalent Single Discount

For two successive discounts x% and y%, the equivalent single discount is given by the formula: (x + y − xy/100)%.

Successive Discount Property

The order in which successive discounts are applied (e.g., 20% then 10% or 10% then 20%) does not change the final selling price.

Marked Price vs Selling Price

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick

Speed of the train in metres per minute = (69 × 1000) ÷ 60 = 1150 m/min.

Time taken to cover the distance = Total Distance ÷ Speed in m/min.

Time = 4600 ÷ 1150 = 4 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 4 minutes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the train = 69 km/hr

Distance to cover = 4600 metres

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Distance in km = 4600 ÷ 1000 = 4.6 km

⇒ Time in hours = 4.6 ÷ 69

⇒ Time in minutes = (4.6 ÷ 69) × 60

⇒ Time = (4.6 × 60) ÷ 69

⇒ Time = 276 ÷ 69 = 4 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 4 minutes.

Additional Information

Speed Conversion

To convert Speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Basic Relation

Distance = Speed × Time. Always ensure that the units for Distance, Speed, and Time are consistent before performing calculations.

Time Conversion

To convert Time from hours to minutes, multiply by 60. To convert from minutes to seconds, multiply by 60.

Shortcut Trick

In a proportion a : b :: c : d, the Product of Extremes equals the Product of Means.

Formula: a × d = b × c

⇒ 18 × x = 30 × 30

⇒ x = 900 ÷ 18 = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Alternate Method

Given: The proportion is 18 : 30 :: 30 : x.

Formula Used: Ratio 1 = Ratio 2 ⇒ a/b = c/d

Applying the ratio equality:

⇒ 18 ÷ 30 = 30 ÷ x

⇒ 3 ÷ 5 = 30 ÷ x (Simplifying 18/30 by dividing both by 6)

⇒ 3 × x = 30 × 5

⇒ 3x = 150

⇒ x = 150 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Additional Information

Third Proportional

In a continued proportion a : b = b : c, the term c is called the third proportional to a and b. Formula: c = b² ÷ a.

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is √(a × b). Here, 30 is the mean proportional between 18 and x.

Fourth Proportional

If four quantities a, b, c, and d are in proportion (a : b :: c : d), then d is the fourth proportional. Formula: d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Shortcut Trick

Assume a base value (Assumed Mean) to find the average quickly.

Let the assumed mean be 50 kg.

Find deviations from 50: (40−50), (49−50), (57−50), (76−50), (39−50) ⇒ −10, −1, +7, +26, −11

Sum of deviations: −10 − 1 + 7 + 26 − 11 = 11

Average deviation: 11 ÷ 5 = 2.2

Actual Average: 50 + 2.2 = 52.2 kg

∴ The correct answer is 52.2 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Weights of five members: 40 kg, 49 kg, 57 kg, 76 kg, and 39 kg.

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of weights = 40 + 49 + 57 + 76 + 39

⇒ Sum of weights = 261 kg

⇒ Total number of members = 5

⇒ Average weight = 261 ÷ 5

⇒ Average weight = 52.2 kg

∴ The correct answer is 52.2 kg.

Additional Information

Sum of Deviations

The algebraic sum of deviations of a set of observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero.

Weighted Average

When groups have different sizes, use Weighted Average = (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the number of items and x is the average.

Inclusion/Exclusion Rule

If a new person joins, New Value = New Average + (Increase in Average × Previous Number of Members).

Shortcut Trick

Step 1: Calculate 30% of 80 → 3 × 8 = 24

Step 2: Calculate 25% of 35 → 35 ÷ 4 = 8.75

Step 3: Difference = 24 − 8.75 = 15.25

∴ The correct answer is 15.25.

Alternate Method

Given:

First Value = 30% of 80

Second Value = 25% of 35

Formula Used:

Percentage Value = (Percentage Rate ÷ 100) × Total Value

Calculations:

⇒ First Value = (30 ÷ 100) × 80

⇒ First Value = 0.3 × 80 = 24

⇒ Second Value = (25 ÷ 100) × 35

⇒ Second Value = 35 ÷ 4 = 8.75

⇒ Difference = First Value − Second Value

⇒ Difference = 24 − 8.75 = 15.25

∴ The correct answer is 15.25.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To calculate percentages quickly, use common fractions: 25% = 1/4, 50% = 1/2, 75% = 3/4, and 20% = 1/5.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage Change = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100.

A% of B is equal to B% of A

This property (Commutative Property) allows for easier calculation: 25% of 35 is the same as 35% of 25.

Shortcut Trick

Check the divisibility of options by 11, as the formula contains π (22/7).

Only 30800 is divisible by 11 (3−0+8−0+0 = 11).

Alternatively, Volume = 22/7 × 14 × 14 × 50 = 44 × 14 × 50 = 44 × 700 = 30800.

∴ The correct answer is 30800 cm³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) = 14 cm

Height (h) = 50 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Cylinder = πr²h

Calculations:

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 14 × 14 × 50

⇒ Volume = 22 × (14 ÷ 7) × 14 × 50

⇒ Volume = 22 × 2 × 14 × 50

⇒ Volume = 44 × 700

⇒ Volume = 30800 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 30800 cm³.

Additional Information

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The area of the curved part of the cylinder is given by the formula 2πrh.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The total area including the two circular bases is 2πr(h + r).

Volume of a Cone

A cone with the same radius and height has a volume exactly 1/3^rd of the cylinder: (1/3)πr²h.

Units of Volume

Volume is always measured in cubic units such as cm³, m³, or liters (1000 cm³ = 1 liter).

Shortcut Trick If an inlet pipe fills a tank in 'x' hours and an outlet pipe empties it in 'y' hours, the net time to fill the tank is: Net Time = (x × y) ÷ (y − x) Given: x = 12 hours, y = 18 hours Net Time = (12 × 18) ÷ (18 − 12) = 216 ÷ 6 = 36 hours ∴ The correct answer is 36 hours. Alternate Method Given: Filling time of Pipe A = 12 hours Emptying time of Pipe B = 18 hours Formula Used: Total Capacity = LCM of individual times Efficiency = Total Capacity ÷ Time

Person/Pipe Time (hrs) Total Work (LCM) Efficiency

Pipe A (Fill) 12 36 units +3

Pipe B (Empty) 18 −2

Calculations: ⇒ Net Efficiency when both pipes are open = 3 + (−2) = 1 unit/hour ⇒ Time taken to fill the tank = Total Capacity ÷ Net Efficiency ⇒ Time = 36 ÷ 1 ⇒ Time = 36 hours ∴ The correct answer is 36 hours. Additional Information Negative Efficiency Concept In Pipes and Cisterns, the work done by an outlet pipe (leakage) is always taken as negative because it reduces the volume of the tank. Reciprocal Method The fraction of tank filled in 1 hour by both pipes is 1/x − 1/y. Here, it is 1/12 − 1/18 = (3 − 2)/36 = 1/36. Condition for Filling A tank will only be filled if the efficiency of the inlet pipe is greater than the efficiency of the outlet pipe (i.e., filling time < emptying time).

शॉर्टकट ट्रिक

बार ग्राफ का अवलोकन करने पर, यू.एस.ए. के पर्यटकों की संख्या में 2019 से 2020 तक सबसे तीव्र ढलान (गिरावट) दिखाई देती है।

यू.एस.ए. में गिरावट (2019-2020) ≈ (15.1 लाख − 3.9 लाख) / 15.1 लाख × 100 ≈ 74%

कनाडा में गिरावट (2019-2020) ≈ (3.5 लाख − 1.2 लाख) / 3.5 लाख × 100 ≈ 65%

तुलनात्मक रूप से, 74% की गिरावट 65% से अधिक है, इसलिए उत्तर यू.एस.ए., 2020 है।

∴ The correct answer is यू.एस.ए., 2020.

वैकल्पिक विधि

ग्राफ से प्राप्त डेटा निम्न प्रकार है:

यू.एस.ए. (2019) = 15,12,032 | यू.एस.ए. (2020) = 3,94,092

कनाडा (2019) = 3,51,859 | कनाडा (2020) = 1,22,868 | कनाडा (2021) = 80,437

सूत्र: प्रतिशत गिरावट = [(पुराना मान − नया मान) ÷ पुराना मान] × 100

⇒ यू.एस.ए. के लिए वार्षिक प्रतिशत गिरावट (2020 में):

⇒ [(15,12,032 − 3,94,092) ÷ 15,12,032] × 100

⇒ (11,17,940 ÷ 15,12,032) × 100 ≈ 73.93%

⇒ कनाडा के लिए वार्षिक प्रतिशत गिरावट (2020 में):

⇒ [(3,51,859 − 1,22,868) ÷ 3,51,859] × 100

⇒ (2,28,991 ÷ 3,51,859) × 100 ≈ 65.08%

⇒ कनाडा के लिए वार्षिक प्रतिशत गिरावट (2021 में):

⇒ [(1,22,868 − 80,437) ÷ 1,22,868] × 100

⇒ (42,431 ÷ 1,22,868) × 100 ≈ 34.53%

⇒ सभी गणनाओं की तुलना करने पर, सबसे अधिक प्रतिशत गिरावट यू.एस.ए. में वर्ष 2020 में हुई है।

∴ The correct answer is यू.एस.ए., 2020.

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

प्रतिशत परिवर्तन का सूत्र

प्रतिशत परिवर्तन = (परिवर्तन / मूल मान) × 100। यदि मान घटता है, तो यह प्रतिशत गिरावट कहलाती है।

बार ग्राफ की व्याख्या

बार की ऊंचाई सीधे तौर पर डेटा के परिमाण को दर्शाती है। दो क्रमिक वर्षों के बीच ऊंचाई का बड़ा अंतर बड़ी गिरावट या वृद्धि का संकेत देता है।

आधार मान का महत्व

प्रतिशत की गणना हमेशा पिछले वर्ष (आधार वर्ष) के मान के संदर्भ में की जाती है। यदि आधार मान बड़ा है, तो समान संख्यात्मक गिरावट कम प्रतिशत गिरावट दर्शाएगी।

Shortcut Trick

Total interest percentage = Rate × Time

Total % = 20% × 2 = 40%

Given, 40% of Principal = ₹1680

100% (Principal) = (1680 ÷ 40) × 100 = 42 × 100 = 4200

∴ The correct answer is ₹4200.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹1680

Time (T) = 2 years

Rate (R) = 20% per year

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ 1680 = (P × 20 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ 1680 = (P × 40) ÷ 100

⇒ 1680 = (P × 2) ÷ 5

⇒ 1680 × 5 = 2P

⇒ 8400 = 2P

⇒ P = 8400 ÷ 2

⇒ P = 4200

∴ The correct answer is ₹4200.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total Amount (A) received after the time period is the sum of the Principal (P) and Simple Interest (SI): A = P + SI.

Effective Rate of Interest

For Simple Interest, the effective rate for 'n' years is simply (R × n)%. This is constant every year as interest is only calculated on the Principal.

Difference between SI and CI

For a 2-year period, the difference between Compound Interest (CI) and Simple Interest (SI) is given by the formula: Difference = P(R/100)².

Shortcut Trick

Prime numbers between 50 and 70: 53, 59, 61, 67 → Average = (53 + 59 + 61 + 67) ÷ 4 = 240 ÷ 4 = 60.

Multiples of 2 between 20 and 80: 22, 24, ..., 78 → Average of AP = (First + Last) ÷ 2 = (22 + 78) ÷ 2 = 100 ÷ 2 = 50.

Required Difference = 60 − 50 = 10.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method

Given:

Range 1: Prime numbers strictly between 50 and 70.

Range 2: Multiples of 2 strictly between 20 and 80.

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations

Average of an Arithmetic Progression (AP) = (a + l) ÷ 2, where a = first term and l = last term.

Step 1: Calculate Average of Primes

⇒ Prime numbers between 50 and 70 are 53, 59, 61, and 67.

⇒ Sum = 53 + 59 + 61 + 67 = 240

⇒ Average₁ = 240 ÷ 4 = 60

Step 2: Calculate Average of Multiples of 2

⇒ Multiples of 2 between 20 and 80 are 22, 24, 26, ..., 78.

⇒ This is an Arithmetic Progression with a = 22 and l = 78.

⇒ Average₂ = (22 + 78) ÷ 2 = 100 ÷ 2 = 50

Step 3: Find the Difference

⇒ Difference = Average₁ − Average₂

⇒ Difference = 60 − 50 = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information

Prime Numbers

Numbers greater than 1 having exactly two factors (1 and itself). 2 is the only even prime number.

Average of AP

For any sequence in Arithmetic Progression, the average is always the middle term or (First + Last) ÷ 2.

Between vs From

The word between strictly excludes the boundary values, whereas from-to usually includes them.

Shortcut Trick

Total time spent is 50 minutes. The journey has three parts: 16 min at x, 22 min at 2x, and (50 − 38) = 12 min at x.

Convert all parts to equivalent time at speed x: 16 + (22 × 2) + 12 = 72 minutes.

Using Distance = Speed × Time: 30 = x × (72 / 60)

x = (30 × 60) / 72 = 1800 / 72 = 25 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 25 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total distance = 30 km

Total time = 50 minutes

First part: 16 min at x kmph

Second part: 22 min at 2x kmph

Third part: (50 − 16 − 22) = 12 min at x kmph

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = D₁ + D₂ + D₃

⇒ 30 = [x × (16/60)] + [2x × (22/60)] + [x × (12/60)]

⇒ 30 = (16x / 60) + (44x / 60) + (12x / 60)

⇒ 30 = (16x + 44x + 12x) / 60

⇒ 30 = 72x / 60

⇒ 30 × 60 = 72x

⇒ 1800 = 72x

⇒ x = 1800 / 72

⇒ x = 25 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 25 kmph.

Additional Information

Speed-Time Relationship

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time. When time is constant, distance is directly proportional to speed (D = S × T).

Unit Conversion

To convert minutes to hours, divide by 60. To convert kmph to m/s, multiply by 5/18.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. In this problem, Average Speed = 30 / (50/60) = 36 kmph.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of goods: 36 : (25% of 64) : (64 − 16) ⇒ 36 : 16 : 48 ⇒ 9 : 4 : 12

Total units = 9 + 4 + 12 = 25 units

Net profit % (x) = (9 × 36% + 4 × 11% + 12 × (−14%)) ÷ 25

x = (324 + 44 − 168) ÷ 25 = 200 ÷ 25 = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit on 36% goods = 36%

Profit on 25% of remaining goods = 11%

Loss on the rest = 14%

Let total goods = 100 units

⇒ Goods at 36% profit = 36 units

⇒ Remaining goods = 100 − 36 = 64 units

⇒ Goods at 11% profit = 25% of 64 = 16 units

⇒ Rest of the goods = 64 − 16 = 48 units

Total profit/loss amount:

⇒ Profit₁ = 36 × (36/100) = 12.96

⇒ Profit₂ = 16 × (11/100) = 1.76

⇒ Loss₃ = 48 × (−14/100) = −6.72

⇒ Total Net Profit = 12.96 + 1.76 − 6.72 = 8.00

⇒ Net Profit Percentage (x) = (8.00 / 100) × 100 = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Profit

Overall Profit % = (n₁p₁ + n₂p₂ + n₃p₃) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + n₃), where n is the quantity and p is the profit/loss percentage.

Percentage Change of Remaining

When calculating parts of a whole, always ensure the base is updated if the question mentions 'remaining' or 'rest'.

Successive Discounts

Successive percentage changes can also be calculated using the formula a + b + (ab/100) for two consecutive changes.

Shortcut Trick

Direct Multiplying Factor method: Profit of 24% means Selling Price is 124% of Cost Price.

SP = CP × 1.24

SP = 1200 × 1.24 = 12 × 124 = 1488

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,488.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹1,200

Profit Percentage = 24%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit

Profit = (Profit% ÷ 100) × CP

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = (24 ÷ 100) × 1,200

⇒ Profit = 0.24 × 1,200

⇒ Profit = 24 × 12 = ₹288

⇒ SP = CP + Profit

⇒ SP = 1,200 + 288

⇒ SP = ₹1,488

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,488.

Additional Information

Selling Price in case of Loss

If an article is sold at a loss, the Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100.

Profit Percentage Formula

Profit% = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100. It is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise.

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price can also be calculated as Marked Price (MP) − Discount, where Discount = Discount% × MP.

Shortcut Trick

Inlet pipe fills in 6 hours and Outlet pipe empties in 24 hours.

Net filling rate per hour = (1/6) − (1/24)

Net rate = (4 − 1) / 24 = 3 / 24 = 1/8

Total Time taken to fill the tank = 8 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 8 hours.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Filling Pipe (A) = 6 hours

Time taken by Emptying Pipe (B) = 24 hours

Total Capacity of the tank = LCM of (6, 24) = 24 units

Calculations:

⇒ Combined efficiency of both pipes = Efficiency of A + Efficiency of B

⇒ Combined efficiency = 4 + (−1) = 3 units/hour

⇒ Time taken to fill the tank = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Time taken = 24 ÷ 3 = 8 hours

∴ The correct answer is 8 hours.

Additional Information

Net Efficiency Rule

When one pipe is filling and another is emptying, the net work done is the difference of their individual efficiencies. Inlet efficiency is positive and outlet efficiency is negative.

Direct Formula for Two Pipes

If pipe X fills in 'a' hours and pipe Y empties in 'b' hours, then the time taken to fill the tank when both are open is (a × b) ÷ (b − a), provided b > a.

Pipes and Cisterns vs Time and Work

The concept is identical to Time and Work, where negative work corresponds to the outlet pipe removing water from the tank.

Shortcut Trick

Profit distribution ratio = (Investment × Time)

Investment ratio (M : N : U) = 8 : 7 : 7

Time period (M : N : U) = 12 months : 12 months : 6 months

Profit ratio = (8 × 12) : (7 × 12) : (7 × 6)

Divide throughout by 6 ⇒ (8 × 2) : (7 × 2) : (7 × 1) = 16 : 14 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 16 : 14 : 7.

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment of Mansi : Neha = 8 : 7

Investment of Utsavi = Investment of Neha = 7 units

Time for Mansi and Neha = 1 year = 12 months

Time for Utsavi = 12 months − 6 months = 6 months

Calculations:

⇒ Profit share of Mansi = 8 × 12 = 96 units

⇒ Profit share of Neha = 7 × 12 = 84 units

⇒ Profit share of Utsavi = 7 × 6 = 42 units

⇒ Required Ratio = 96 : 84 : 42

⇒ Dividing by the highest common factor (6):

⇒ Ratio = (96 ÷ 6) : (84 ÷ 6) : (42 ÷ 6)

⇒ Ratio = 16 : 14 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 16 : 14 : 7.

Additional Information

Partnership Profit Rule

If capitals C₁, C₂, C₃ are invested for time periods T₁, T₂, T₃, then the ratio of profits P₁ : P₂ : P₃ = C₁T₁ : C₂T₂ : C₃T₃.

Working and Sleeping Partners

A working partner manages the business and may receive a salary, while a sleeping partner only invests capital and shares profit/loss.

Capital Calculation

If profits and time periods are known, the ratio of investments is given by C₁ : C₂ = (P₁ ÷ T₁) : (P₂ ÷ T₂).

Shortcut Trick

Convert the expression under the square root into a single fraction: 196 + 29 = 225.

LHS becomes √(225/196) = 15/14.

Compare this with the RHS: 1 + x/14 = (14 + x)/14.

Equating the numerators: 15 = 14 + x.

Solving for x: x = 1.

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: √(1 + 29/196) = 1 + x/14

Formula Used: √(a/b) = √a / √b

⇒ √((196 + 29) / 196) = (14 + x) / 14

⇒ √(225 / 196) = (14 + x) / 14

⇒ 15 / 14 = (14 + x) / 14

⇒ 15 = 14 + x

⇒ x = 15 − 14

⇒ x = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Additional Information

Square Root of Fractions

To find the square root of a fraction, take the square root of the numerator and the denominator separately: √(x/y) = √x / √y.

Perfect Squares

Memorizing perfect squares like 14² = 196 and 15² = 225 helps in solving simplification problems rapidly without manual multiplication.

Equation Solving

When solving linear equations with fractions, if the denominators are identical on both sides, the numerators must be equal to satisfy the equation.

Shortcut Trick

Effective rate for two years with different rates r₁ and r₂ = [r₁ + r₂ + (r₁ × r₂)/100]%

Here, r₁ = 4% and r₂ = 4 + 4 = 8%

Effective Rate = [4 + 8 + (4 × 8)/100]% = 12.32%

Compound Interest = 12.32% of ₹57,500 = 0.1232 × 57,500 = ₹7,084

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,084.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹57,500

Rate for 1st year (r₁) = 4%

Rate for 2nd year (r₂) = 4% + 4% = 8%

Time (n) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P × (1 + r₁/100) × (1 + r₂/100)

Compound Interest (CI) = A − P

Calculations:

⇒ A = 57500 × (1 + 4/100) × (1 + 8/100)

⇒ A = 57500 × (104/100) × (108/100)

⇒ A = 57500 × 1.04 × 1.08

⇒ A = 59800 × 1.08

⇒ A = ₹64,584

⇒ CI = 64584 − 57500

⇒ CI = ₹7,084

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,084.

Additional Information

Effective Rate for Successive Percentage Change

For two successive changes of x% and y%, the net change is given by (x + y + xy/100)%. This applies directly to Compound Interest with different annual rates.

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years

If the rate of interest is 'r' for both years, the difference (CI − SI) = P(r/100)². If rates are different (r₁ and r₂), then CI − SI = P(r₁ × r₂)/10,000.

Annual vs Half-Yearly Compounding

In half-yearly compounding, the rate is halved (r/2) and the time period is doubled (2n). The interest earned is always higher or equal to annual compounding.

Shortcut Trick

Group the recurring decimals with common denominators (9 and 99) to simplify the calculation.

2.4̅ − 1.7̅ = (2 + 4/9) − (1 + 7/9) = 1 − 3/9 = 2/3.

Convert 1.27̅ to a fraction: 1 + 27/99 = 1 + 3/11 = 14/11.

Required value = 2/3 + 14/11 = (22 + 42) / 33 = 64/33.

∴ The correct answer is 64/33.

Alternate Method

Given:

The expression is 2.4̅ + 1.27̅ − 1.7̅.

Formula Used:

To convert a recurring decimal to a vulgar fraction:

For pure recurring decimals: x.a̅ = (xa − x) / 9 and x.ab̅ = (xab − x) / 99.

Calculations:

⇒ 2.4̅ = (24 − 2) / 9 = 22/9 ⇒ 1.27̅ = (127 − 1) / 99 = 126/99 = 14/11 ⇒ 1.7̅ = (17 − 1) / 9 = 16/9 ⇒ Expression = 22/9 + 14/11 − 16/9 ⇒ Expression = (22/9 − 16/9) + 14/11 ⇒ Expression = 6/9 + 14/11 ⇒ Expression = 2/3 + 14/11 ⇒ Expression = (2 × 11 + 14 × 3) / 33 ⇒ Expression = (22 + 42) / 33 = 64/33

∴ The correct answer is 64/33.

Additional Information

Pure Recurring Decimals

A decimal in which all the digits after the decimal point repeat. They are converted by placing the repeating part over as many 9s as there are repeating digits (e.g., 0.3̅ = 3/9).

Mixed Recurring Decimals

A decimal in which some digits after the decimal point do not repeat. The fraction is (Total value − non-repeating part) / (9s for repeating digits followed by 0s for non-repeating digits).

Operations on Recurring Decimals

Always convert recurring decimals into vulgar fractions before performing addition, subtraction, or multiplication to avoid rounding errors.

The correct answer is time saves nine

Key Points

• The sentence requires the correct form of the well-known English proverb: 'A stitch in time saves nine'.
• The core logic of this proverb is that addressing a problem or fault immediately when it is small will prevent it from becoming a much larger and more difficult issue to fix later.
• In the given context, the small leak is the issue that needs timely action. If ignored, the leak will worsen, requiring significantly more effort (symbolized by nine stitches) to repair.
• The phrase 'clothes saves time' is an incorrect variation that disrupts the idiomatic meaning and rhythm of the traditional saying.
• Therefore, Option (3) is the only correct substitute that completes the idiomatic expression accurately.

Additional Information

• The origin of this proverb is related to sewing and mending; if a small tear in fabric is sewn up (a stitch in time), it prevents the fabric from ripping further.
• The number 'nine' was likely chosen because it rhymes with 'time', making the proverb easy to remember, which is a common feature of folk wisdom.
• This proverb promotes the concept of procrastination avoidance and preventative maintenance in various aspects of life, including finance, health, and mechanical repairs.
• Similar thematic expressions include 'nip it in the bud' and 'an ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure'.

The correct answer is 'correctly, defensively'.

Key Points

• The first blank requires an adverb to modify the verb answered. The adverbial form of correct is correctly.
• The second blank also requires an adverb to modify the verb reacted. The adverbial form of defensive is defensively.
• In English grammar, adverbs (usually ending in -ly) are used to describe how an action (verb) is performed.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because they use adjectives (correct or defensive) to modify verbs, which is grammatically improper in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: 'Although he answered correctly, he reacted defensively to criticism.'

Additional Information

• Adjectives like correct and defensive are used to modify nouns or pronouns (e.g., 'He is a correct man' or 'His posture was defensive').
• Adverbs like correctly and defensively are used to provide more information about verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs.

The correct answer is: reimbursement.

Key Points

• The word 'reimbusment' is the misspelt version of the word used in the sentence, intended to mean the act of paying back money to someone who has spent it for a particular purpose. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The clerk noticed the typo 'reimbusment' in the initial draft of the policy.
• 'reimbursement' is the correct spelling, which refers to the repayment of a sum of money that has been spent or lost. (भरपाई/धनवापसी)
• Example: She received a full reimbursement for the travel costs she had covered personally.
• Therefore, the correct answer is- reimbursement.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their correct spellings and Hindi meanings:

• expences (गलत वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is expenses, which means the money that you spend on something or the cost of doing something. (खर्च)
• Example: Keeping track of daily expenses is essential for effective budgeting.
• companey (गलत वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is company, which refers to a commercial business or a legal entity representing an association of people. (कंपनी)
• Example: He has been working for the same multinational company for over a decade.
• programe (गलत वर्तनी): This is generally considered an incorrect spelling. While programme is the standard British English spelling and program is the American English spelling, the spelling provided in the option is missing the final 'me'. (कार्यक्रम)
• Example: The training program was designed to enhance the technical skills of the staff.

The correct answer is Astronomer

Key Points

• An Astronomer is a scientist who focuses their studies on celestial bodies and phenomena originating outside the Earth's atmosphere, such as stars, planets, galaxies, and nebulae.
• Geologist: This is a scientist who specializes in Geology, the study of the Earth's physical structure, the rocks of which it is composed, and the processes by which they change over time.
• Biologist: This refers to a scientist who studies living organisms and their relationship to their environment, covering fields from genetics to ecology.
• Meteorologist: This is a professional who studies the atmosphere and uses scientific principles to observe, understand, and explain weather patterns and climate.

Additional Information

• The term Astronomer comes from the Greek words 'astron' (meaning star) and 'nomos' (meaning law or arrangement).
• Historically, astronomy is one of the oldest sciences. Ancient civilizations, such as the Babylonians, Greeks, and Indians, performed methodical observations of the night sky.
• Modern Astronomy is divided into several branches, including Astrophysics (applying physics to the universe), Astrometry (measuring positions of celestial bodies), and Cosmology (studying the origin and evolution of the universe).
• Famous astronomers throughout history include Nicolaus Copernicus (proposed the heliocentric model), Galileo Galilei (pioneered telescopic observation), and Edwin Hubble (discovered the expansion of the universe).

The correct answer is: Manoevre.

Key Points

• The word Manoevre is incorrectly spelt in the given options as it lacks the letter u in the final syllable. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The manuscript was rejected due to a spelling error in the word Manoevre.
• The correctly spelt word is Manoeuvre (British English) or Maneuver (American English), which refers to a movement or series of moves requiring skill and care, or a carefully planned scheme. (पैंतरेबाज़ी / युक्ति)
• Example: The pilot performed a brilliant manoeuvre to avoid the storm clouds.
• Hence, we can conclude that the spelling in option 4 is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Manoevre.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Connoisseur (विशेषज्ञ / पारखी): An expert judge in matters of taste, such as fine arts, cuisines, or music.
• Example: Being a connoisseur of classical music, he has an extensive collection of rare records.
• Rendezvous (मिलन स्थल): A meeting at an agreed time and place, typically between two people.
• Example: They chose the park bench as their secret rendezvous point.
• Harassment (उत्पीड़न): Aggressive pressure or intimidation directed at someone.
• Example: The organization has strict rules to prevent any kind of workplace harassment.

The correct answer is 'a'.

Key Points

• The phrase 'a few' is an idiomatic expression used as a quantifier for plural countable nouns like 'groceries'.
• It means 'some' or 'a small number of', indicating a positive quantity.
• In the given context, the speaker needs to purchase a small amount of items for a meal, so the article 'a' is necessary to complete the quantifier.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: 'I need to buy a few groceries for dinner.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'an' is incorrect because the word 'few' starts with a consonant sound (/f/).
• Option 4: 'the' is used for specific or previously mentioned nouns; here, the groceries are general.
• Option 3: 'No article required' is incorrect because using 'few' without 'a' means 'hardly any' (negative sense), which does not fit the intent of going to buy something for a meal.

The correct answer is: Pacifist.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A person who believes in the total abolition of war' refers to an individual who is fundamentally opposed to war or violence as a means of settling disputes and seeks their complete removal. (युद्ध और हिंसा के पूर्ण उन्मूलन में विश्वास करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: Many groups organized rallies to promote the idea of being a pacifist in times of international conflict.
• 'Pacifist' refers to someone who believes that war and violence are unjustifiable and that all disputes should be settled by peaceful means. (शांतिवादी)
• Example: As a dedicated pacifist, he refused to join the army even when he was drafted during the war.
• Therefore, the correct answer is- Pacifist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fatalist (भाग्यवादी): A person who believes that all events are predetermined and therefore inevitable.
• Example: Because he was a fatalist, he didn't bother to study for the exam, believing his grade was already decided by fate.
• Anarchist (अराजकतावादी): A person who believes in or tries to bring about anarchy, which is a state of society without government or law.
• Example: The anarchist argued that people would live more harmoniously without the interference of a central government.
• Narcissist (आत्ममुग्ध): A person who has an excessive interest in or admiration of themselves and their physical appearance.
• Example: The narcissist spent the entire evening talking about his own achievements without asking anyone else a single question.

The correct answer is 'in'.

Key Points

• The word interested is an adjective that is typically followed by the fixed preposition 'in'.
• The phrase interested in is used to show a desire to learn more about something or to give attention to something.
• In the given sentence, the structure follows Subject + Verb + Adjective + Preposition + Gerund (learning).
• Therefore, the preposition 'in' correctly completes the phrase deeply interested in.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: 'She is deeply interested in learning foreign languages and cultures.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'about' is often used with 'excited' or 'worried' but is grammatically incorrect after interested.
• Option 3: 'at' is commonly used with 'good' or 'skilled' to describe proficiency.
• Option 4: 'for' is used with words like 'passion' or 'talent'.

The correct answer is 'the'.

Key Points

• The word 'the' is a definite article used to point out a specific or particular noun.
• In the given sentence, the noun 'projector' is not any random projector; it is specified by the clause 'that we use in the office.'
• When a noun is followed by a qualifying phrase or clause that identifies it, the definite article 'the' is required.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: 'Priyansh fixed the projector that we use in the office.'

Additional Information

• Option 3: 'an' and Option 4: 'a' are indefinite articles used when referring to any member of a group in general. 'A' is used before consonant sounds, while 'an' is used before vowel sounds.
• Option 2: 'no article' is incorrect because the singular countable noun 'projector' requires an article, particularly since it is defined as a specific one.

The correct answer is: turned it around.

Key Points

• The phrase 'successfully improved it' refers to the act of making something that was previously failing or performing poorly become successful and profitable again. (सफलतापूर्वक सुधार किया)
• Example: The new marketing strategy successfully improved the sales of the old product.
• 'Turned it around' is an idiom that means to make a failing business, situation, or organization successful or positive again. (स्थिति सुधारना / कायापलट करना)
• Example: The new CEO managed to turn the company around within just six months of joining.
• Therefore, the correct answer is- turned it around.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Went the extra mile (अतिरिक्त प्रयास करना): To do more than what is required or expected of one to help someone or achieve something.
• Example: Our teacher always goes the extra mile to help students who are struggling with math.
• Turned the tables (पासा पलटना): To reverse a situation so that you now have an advantage over someone who previously had an advantage over you.
• Example: The underdog team turned the tables on the champions in the final minute of the game.
• Burned the midnight oil (देर रात तक काम करना): To work or study very late into the night.
• Example: He had to burn the midnight oil for a whole week to prepare for his final exams.

The correct answer is: admit.

Key Points

• The word 'deny' means to state that one refuses to admit the truth or existence of something; to declare something to be untrue. (अस्वीकार करना / नकारना)
• Example: Despite the evidence presented by the police, the suspect continued to deny his involvement in the crime.
• 'Admit' refers to confessing that something is true or is the case, typically with reluctance; it is the direct opposite of refusing to acknowledge something. (स्वीकार करना)
• Example: After hours of questioning, he finally decided to admit that he had made a significant error in the calculations.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'deny' is 'admit'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- admit.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Overlook (अनदेखा करना): To fail to notice something or to choose to ignore a mistake or fault.
• Example: It is easy to overlook small typos when you are reading a long document quickly.
• Reject (अस्वीकार करना / खारिज करना): To dismiss as inadequate, inappropriate, or not to one's taste; to refuse to accept.
• Example: The committee had to reject the application because it did not meet the necessary criteria.
• Refuse (मना करना): To indicate or show that one is not willing to do something or to accept something.
• Example: I had to refuse their invitation to the party as I already had other plans.

The correct answer is 'effectively'.

Key Points

• The word 'effectively' means in a way that is successful in producing a desired result. (प्रभावी ढंग से)
• Digital Literacy requires the user to not just use tools, but to use them in a manner that achieves the intended purpose efficiently.
• The other options: 'particularly,' 'sarcastically,' and 'eventually' do not fit the functional definition of a skill or ability in this context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: Digital Literacy refers to the ability to effectively navigate, understand and utilise digital tools and information.

Additional Information

• Particularly (विशेष रूप से): means to a higher degree than is usual or average.
• Sarcastically (व्यंग्यपूर्वक): means in a way that uses irony to mock or convey contempt.
• Eventually (अंततः): means in the end, especially after a long delay or series of problems.

The correct answer is PQRS

Key Points

• The fixed segment S1 establishes the prepositional phrase that sets the time and context of the sentence: 'At the end of the meeting with the employees,'.
• Segment P follows S1 naturally as it introduces the main subject ('the manager') and the transitive verb ('asked').
• Segment Q ('of them to leave') acts as the object complement for the verb 'asked'. The phrase 'asked a few of them to leave' forms a complete and logical grammatical unit.
• Segment R starts with the subordinating conjunction 'while', which is used here to show a contrast between the two groups of employees (those who left and those who stayed).
• Segment S ('for further discussion') is a prepositional phrase that modifies the verb 'stayed back' in segment R, explaining the purpose of their stay.
• The sequence PQRS maintains a logical SVO (Subject-Verb-Object) structure followed by a contrasting clause, making it the only grammatically correct arrangement.

Additional Information

• In Sentence Rearrangement (Para Jumbles), identifying the opening segment and closing segment is crucial. Here, the fixed S1 acts as a transition from a previous context.
• Look for clue words like pronouns ('them') and conjunctions ('while') to find mandatory pairs. In this case, 'a few' in P and 'of them' in Q form a mandatory pair.
• The word while is a coordinating/subordinating conjunction used to indicate that two actions are happening simultaneously or to highlight a contrast between two situations.
• Understanding collocations like 'stayed back for' helps in quickly identifying that R and S must stay together.

The correct answer is 1-D-C-B-A

Key Points

• Sentence Structure: The fixed segment 1 ends with the word best, which most logically pairs with known in Segment D to form the idiomatic phrase best known as. This establishes the primary identity of the subject.
• Logical Flow: After Segment D identifies the subject as the highest mountain in the world, Segment C follows as a participial phrase (boasting an impressive elevation) that adds descriptive detail about its physical stature.
• Prepositional Connection: Segment B (of more than 29,000 feet...) provides the specific measurement for the noun elevation mentioned at the end of Segment C. In English grammar, the preposition of is used here to link the quality (elevation) with its value.
• Resultative Clause: Segment A (making it the tallest peak on Earth) acts as a concluding clause that summarizes the significance of the height mentioned in the previous segments.
• Incorrect Options: Options like 1-A-D-C-B are incorrect because a sentence cannot logically flow from best to making. Similarly, 1-C-D-A-B fails because of more than 29,000 feet (Segment B) is separated from the word elevation (Segment C) which it is meant to describe.

Additional Information

• Mount Everest is part of the Himalayan mountain range and is located on the border between Nepal and China (Tibet).
• The official height of Mount Everest was recently updated to 8,848.86 meters, which is approximately 29,031.7 feet above sea level.
• The first confirmed climbers to reach the summit were Sir Edmund Hillary of New Zealand and Tenzing Norgay, a Sherpa of Nepal, on May 29, 1953.
• In Nepal, the mountain is known as Sagarmatha, while in Tibet, it is called Chomolungma.

The correct answer is: Praise.

Key Points

• The word 'belittle' means to dismiss someone or something as unimportant; to suggest that someone or something is of little value or small importance. (कम आंकना / नीचा दिखाना)
• Example: It is cruel to belittle a child's efforts when they are trying their best to learn.
• 'Praise' refers to expressing warm approval, admiration, or commendation for someone's achievements, qualities, or actions. (प्रशंसा करना / सराहना)
• Example: The coach took a moment to praise the team for their incredible discipline on the field.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate antonym for the word 'belittle' is 'praise'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Praise.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Demand (मांग करना): An insistent and peremptory request, made as if by right.
• Example: The customers began to demand a full refund for the faulty products.
• Belief (विश्वास / धारणा): An acceptance that a statement is true or that something exists.
• Example: It is his belief that hard work is the only path to true success.
• Insist (ज़ोर देना / आग्रह करना): To demand something forcefully, not accepting a refusal.
• Example: I must insist that you wear a helmet while riding the bicycle for your own safety.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The passage begins by establishing a direct comparison between the lives of modern man and his forefathers, stating that we are happier today.
• The author systematically contrasts various aspects of life: medical facilities, means of communication, rational thinking vs. superstition, and technological amenities like air-conditioners and refrigerators.
• The narrative structure is comparative, repeatedly weighing the limitations of the past against the advancements of the present.
• The concluding sentence reinforces this theme by asserting that the man of today is in a better position than his forefathers.
• Therefore, 'Modern Life vs. Life of Forefathers' is the most comprehensive title as it encapsulates the entire scope of the text.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Title: "Modern Life vs. Life of Forefathers"

Additional Information

• The Progress of Medical Science: This is a supporting detail mentioned in the text, but it does not represent the central theme of the entire passage.
• Comforts of Modern Living: While the passage discusses modern comforts, this title ignores the historical comparison which is the primary focus of the author.
• Development of Human Civilization: This title is too broad and general; the passage is specifically focused on the immediate contrast between the current generation and their ancestors.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• In the context of the passage, the word luxurious is used to describe a life characterized by comfort, modern amenities, and ease provided by science.
• An antonym is a word that expresses the opposite meaning of a given word.
• The word miserable means being in a state of great unhappiness, wretchedness, or discomfort, which is the direct opposite of living a luxurious life.
• Thus, miserable is the correct antonym for luxurious as used in the text.

Therefore, the correct answer is Miserable.

Additional Information

• Extravagant: This is a synonym or related term referring to spending much more than is necessary or being excessively elaborate.
• Lavish: This is a synonym meaning sumptuously rich, elaborate, or luxurious.
• Elegant: This refers to something that is graceful and stylish in appearance or manner, often associated with a luxurious lifestyle.
• The passage contrasts the difficult and restricted life of our forefathers with the comfortable and luxurious life of modern man.

The correct answer is Reflective and appreciative

Key Points

• The tone of a passage refers to the author's attitude or emotional perspective toward the subject matter. In this text, the author compares the life of modern man with that of his forefathers.
• The passage is reflective because the author contemplates the historical progression of human life, looking back at the limitations of the past (superstition, lack of medical facilities) to understand the present.
• The tone is appreciative because the author uses positive and complimentary language to describe modern advancements. Words and phrases such as happier, worth living, luxurious life, amenities, and gift of science clearly indicate a sense of gratitude and approval for technological progress.
• The author concludes that today's man is in a better position, reinforcing an optimistic and admiring viewpoint rather than a doubtful, harsh, or sarcastic one.

Additional Information

• Doubtful and ironic: This tone would involve skepticism or saying the opposite of what is meant to create a mocking effect. The author, however, is very direct and certain about the benefits of science.
• Harsh and judgmental: This tone would involve severe criticism. While the author notes the flaws of the past, the primary focus is on the improvement of the human condition rather than condemning the ancestors.
• Humorous and sarcastic: This tone aims to provoke laughter or use wit to insult. The passage is a straightforward expository comparison and lacks comedic elements.
• Tone Identification: To identify tone, look for adjectives and adverbs used by the author. Positive descriptors generally lead to an appreciative or optimistic tone.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The passage utilizes a Comparative structure by constantly weighing the lifestyle, beliefs, and health of modern man against those of his forefathers.
• It is Expository in nature because its primary purpose is to explain and inform the reader about how science and technology have facilitated a better quality of life.
• The author systematically explains various factors such as medical science, means of communication, and rational education to clarify why the current generation is happier.
• By presenting facts and logical progression (e.g., from superstition to rational thinking), the text fulfills the criteria of an expository piece that compares two distinct eras.

Therefore, the correct answer is Comparative and expository.

Additional Information

• Narrative: This structure is used for storytelling, involving characters, a plot, and a sequence of events. This passage lacks a fictional or personal story arc.
• Descriptive: While the passage describes amenities like air-conditioners, the focus is not solely on sensory details but on the comparison of conditions.
• Argumentative: An argumentative text focuses on persuading the reader to adopt a specific viewpoint through debate. While the author has an opinion, the text reads more like an informative explanation (expository) of progress.
• The central theme highlights that modern man's life is easier and more rational due to scientific and technological progress compared to the restricted and superstitious lives of ancestors.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The central theme of the passage is the positive transformation of human life through the advancement of science and technology.
• The author highlights that modern man enjoys a longer span of life due to improved medical science and hygienic conditions, whereas forefathers often died premature deaths.
• It emphasizes that education has replaced superstition and illiteracy with rational thinking, allowing individuals to solve life's problems more effectively.
• The passage contrasts the restricted movement and lack of facilities of the past with the luxurious life, amenities (like ACs and refrigerators), and global accessibility provided by modern inventions.
• The concluding sentence reinforces this by stating that the man of today is definitely in a better position and far happier than his ancestors.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2: This is incorrect as the author maintains a highly positive and appreciative tone regarding science, rather than describing it as a source of stress.
• Option 3: This is the opposite of the author's claim; the passage explicitly starts by saying we are happier than our forefathers.
• Option 4: This is an overgeneralization. While the passage says education helps solve problems, it does not claim that all problems of mankind have been completely removed.

दिए गए वाक्यों में से वर्तनी की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य सूरज कितने बजे डूबता है ? है।

Key Points

• शुद्ध वाक्य 'सूरज कितने बजे डूबता है ?' में सभी शब्दों की वर्तनी व्याकरणिक रूप से सही है।
• सूरज शब्द में 'स' वर्ण के साथ दीर्घ ऊ (ू) की मात्रा का प्रयोग होता है।
• डूबता शब्द में 'ड' वर्ण के साथ दीर्घ ऊ (ू) की मात्रा का प्रयोग होता है।
• वर्तनी - लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी या अक्षरी कहते हैं। जिस शब्द में जितने वर्ण या अक्षर जिस अनुक्रम में प्रयुक्त होते हैं, उन्हें उसी क्रम में लिखना ही वर्तनी है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण शुद्ध-अशुद्ध शब्द -

'थाली का बैंगन' मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है- बिना सिद्धांत का आदमी

Key Points

• 'थाली का बैंगन' मुहावरे का तात्पर्य ऐसे व्यक्ति से है जिसका अपना कोई स्थिर मत या सिद्धांत नहीं होता। जिस प्रकार थाली में रखा हुआ बैंगन लुढ़कता रहता है, उसी प्रकार ऐसा व्यक्ति भी अवसर देखकर अपना पक्ष बदल लेता है।
• व्याकरणिक दृष्टि से मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्यांश है जो अपने शाब्दिक अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष लाक्षणिक अर्थ को व्यक्त करता है।
• उदाहरण: राम की बातों का कोई भरोसा नहीं है, वह तो बिल्कुल थाली का बैंगन है।
• उदाहरण: राजनीति में थाली का बैंगन होने वाले नेताओं की कमी नहीं है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 
 प्रमुख मुहावरे और उनके अर्थ-

1. अंधे की लाठी - एकमात्र सहारा।
2. आकाश-पाताल एक करना - कठिन परिश्रम करना।
3. अपने मुँह मियाँ मिट्ठू बनना - अपनी प्रशंसा स्वयं करना।

Additional Information

'अवसर के अनुरूप बदल जाने वाला' का सही उत्तर है: अवसरवादी

मुख्य बिंदु (Key Points)

• 'अवसर के अनुरूप बदल जाने वाला' वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द 'अवसरवादी' होगा।

• 'अवसरवादी' वे व्यक्ति होते हैं जो सिद्धांत की अपेक्षा परिस्थितियों और लाभ के अनुसार अपना व्यवहार बदलते हैं।

• परिभाषा - जब किसी लंबे वाक्यांश या वाक्य को एक शब्द में संक्षिप्त किया जाता है, तो उसे वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द या अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द कहते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

अतिरिक्त जानकारी (Additional Information)

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

'माँ ने मोहन ..................... खीर बनायी है' वाक्य का सही उत्त�� है- के लिए

Key Points

• रिक्त स्थान में 'के लिए' का प्रयोग होगा क्योंकि यहाँ माँ (कर्ता) द्वारा मोहन के हित में कार्य (खीर बनाना) किया जा रहा है।
• जब वाक्य में किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए या किसी को कुछ दिया जाए, तो वहाँ सम्प्रदान कारक होता है। इसका कारक चिह्न 'के लिए' अथवा 'को' होता है।
• उदाहरण 1: राजा ने गरीबों के लिए कंबल बँटवाए।
• उदाहरण 2: भाई ने बहन के लिए उपहार खरीदा।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 
 कारक के भेद-

1. कर्ता कारक (ने)
2. कर्म कारक (को)
3. करण कारक (से, के द्वारा)
4. सम्प्रदान कारक (को, के लिए)
5. अपादान कारक (से - अलग होने के अर्थ में)
6. सम्बन्ध कारक (का, के, की, रा, रे, री)
7. अधिकरण कारक (में, पर)
8. सम्बोधन कारक (हे, अरे, ओ)

Additional Information