DSSSB NDMC PRT 23 March 2022 shift 3 (Previous Year Paper)

Step 1 The age of W5 is more than the age of W2.

W5>W2

Step 2 The age of W3 is less than the age of W2.

W5>W2>W3

Step 3 The age of W1 is more than the age of W5.

W1>W5>W2>W3

Step 4 Only one female is older than W4. 

W1>W4>W5>W2>W3

Step 5 W3 is not the youngest one. Here only W6 is left. Hence W6 is the oldest one.

W1>W4>W5>W2>W3>W6.

Hence, W5 is the third oldest person.

Hence, the correct answer is W5.

Here, coloured portion shows dogs that are both cats and cows

Hence, the correct answer is 61.

The positional value of given alphabets are:-

Logic:- (First letter - 5) (Second letter - 4)

The same logic followed in option 4:-

Hence, the correct answer is (LG, GC, BY).

The correct venn diagram representation is-

I. Some N are not T.❌

Here, no direct relation between N and T is given.

Hence, this statement is incorrect.

II. Some T are not N.✅

The portion of D in T is definitely not N.

Hence, this statement is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Only conclusion II follows.

The positional value of alphabets are-

Logic - (First letter + 3) (Second letter + 3)

<br>

Here, in L we add 4 instead of 3. So, the wrong term is WP.

Hence, the correct answer is WP.

The conditions to make a team of seven members is:-

1. With G3 either G1 or B4 is to be selected. 2.  B2 and G3 are to be selected together. 3. G4 and B3 cannot be selected together. 4. Neither B4 nor B5 can be selected with G4. 5.  Neither B5 nor G5 can be selected with B1.

Option 1 - B1, B2, B3, B4, G3, G4, G5❌ 

Here, G4 and B3 cannot be selected together. 

Hence this option is incorrect.

Option 2 - B2, B3, B4, B5, G2, G3, G5.✅

This option fulfills all the conditions.

Hence this option is correct.

Option 3 - B1, B2, B3, B4, G2, G3, G5❌ 

Here, Neither B5 nor G5 can be selected with B1.

Hence this option is incorrect.

Option 4 - B2, B3, B4, B5, G1, G2, G3❌ 

With G3 either G1 or B4 is to be selected. But here both G1 and B4 are selected.

Hence this option is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is  B2, B3, B4, B5, G2, G3, G5.

Direction chart-

Step1:- Sachin is facing west. He turns 80 degrees in the clockwise direction.

Step2:-  He turns 140 degree in anti-clockwise direction.

Step3:-  He turns 270° in anti-clockwise direction. 

Step4:- He turns 45 degrees in the clockwise direction.

I. If he finally turns 15 degrees in the clockwise direction, he will face north.✅

This statement is correct.

II. If he finally turns 85 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction, he will be facing south-west.✅

Hence, the correct answer is Both I and II.

Logic - First number x 2 = Second number

Second number x 3 = Third number

Option 1 - (72, 144, 432) ✅

72 x 2 = 144

144 x 3 = 432

Option 2 -  (23, 46, 138)✅

23 x 2 = 46

46 x 3 = 138

Option 3 - (43, 86, 258)✅

43 x 2 = 86

86 x 3 = 258

Option 4 - (68, 144, 408)❌

68 x 2 = 136

Here 136 is answer but instead of 136, 144 is given. So, this option is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is (68, 144, 408).

Explanation:- Here, A figure contain same type of figure within it. But in option 1 the same logic is not being followed.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The logic used in this question is:-

If we multiply 18 in 108 we get 1944. But in given series we get 1844 which is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is 1844.

The venn diagram representation are -

Conclusion:

I. Some B are not F.✅

The portion of E under B is definitely not F.

Hence, the given statement is correct.

II. Some G are not F.✅

The portion of E under G is definitely not F.

Hence, the given statement is correct.

III. Some F are not B.❌

We do not have information about B and F.

Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is Both conclusions I and II follow.

The direction chart is given below:-

Step 1:-  A girl walks 5 km towards east.

Step 2:-She takes a right turn and walks 4 km.

Step 3:-She again takes a right turn and walks 8 km.

By using pythagoras theorem in triangle ABC-

(AB)² =(BC)² + (AC)²

(AB)2 = (3)²  +  (4)²

(AB)2 = 9 + 16 =25

AB = 5KM

Hence, the correct answer is 5km.

Statement 1:- The total number of elephant is shown by coloured portion-

Here, the total number of elephants are - 41 + 43 + 51 + 48 = 183

Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement 2:- II. The number of horses which are neither rats nor elephants are:-

Hence, this statement is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Both I and II.

Step 1:-  T sits third to the right of R.

Step 2:- One person sits between P and T. U sits third to the left of P. 

There are 2 possibilities:-

Case 1.

Case 2. 

Step 3:-  V sits third to the right of Q.  P is not the neighbor of S.

Here case 2 is not possible because P is not the neighbor of S. 

Here, V sit second to the left of S.

Hence, the correct answer is V.

Here, the code for  'boys are like' are -

Hence, the code for  'boys are like' are * & $.

Explanation:- We know that criminal live in jail . Similarly, soldier live in barrack. 

Hence, the correct answer is barrack.

Explanation:- Here, Elephant, horse and deer are herbivores whereas Fox is omnivores as they are expert hunters, catching rabbits, rodents, birds, frogs and earthworms as well as eating carrion and  they dine on berries and fruit too.

Hence, the correct answer is Fox.

The positional value of alphabets are :-

Logic - (First letter + 4) (Second letter - 4) (prime number starting from 11)²

 

Hence, the correct answer is FZ841.

The mirror image of the given figure placed on the line AB is -

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Logic - Here, we get figure second when we flip figure first vertically. 

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Indian Constitution came into existence on 26th November 1949.
• The Constituent Assembly of India drafted the constitution considering features of constitutions of the other countries as well as from the Government of India Act 1935.
• There are various sources of Indian constitution for some features of it are borrowed.
• Amendment of the Constitution,Election of members of Rajya Sabha- Constitution of South Africa
• Emergency Powers of the President, Suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency - Constitution of Germany

 Additional Information

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• Golconda Fort is located in Telangana.
• Golconda Fort is located in the western part of Hyderabad city and is about 9 km from the Hussain Sagar Lake.
• It was originally known as Mankal, and built on a hilltop in the year 1143.
• It was originally a mud fort under the reign of Rajah of Warangal.
• Later it was fortified between 14th and 17th centuries by the Bahmani Sultans and then the ruling Qutub Shahi dynasty.
• Golconda was the principal capital of the Qutub Shahi kings.
• The inner fort contains ruins of palaces, mosques and a hill top pavilion, which rises about 130 meters high and gives a bird’s eye view of other buildings..

The correct answer is CSIR - NCL.

Key Points

• CSIR - NCL has launched a new technology 'Swastik' to disinfect water using natural oils.
• The CSIR-National Chemical Laboratory (CSIR-NCL), Pune has come up with a new technique for disinfecting water by using natural oils
• The technology boils liquid as a result of pressure reduction or cavitation.
• It makes use of natural oils with antimicrobial properties to disinfect water.
• The other techniques to disinfect water makes use of chemical such as chlorination which include the formation of harmful or carcinogenic by-products.
• Therefore, the ‘SWASTIIK’ technology is safe to disinfect water.
• The technology was developed by Scientist Dr V.M. Bhandari and his group at CSIR-NCL Pune.

The correct answer is Michael Houghton.

Key Points

• Michael Houghton has been awarded the Nobel Prize 2020 for Medicine.
• The 2020 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine is awarded to Harvey J. Alter, Michael Houghton and Charles M. Rice for the discovery of Hepatitis C virus.
• Hepatitis, from the Greek names for liver and inflammation, is a disease characterized by poor appetite, vomiting, fatigue and jaundice – yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes. Chronic hepatitis leads to liver damage, which may progress to cirrhosis and liver cancer.
• This pioneering work has paved the way for the development of screening methods that have dramatically reduced the risk of acquiring hepatitis from contaminated blood and has led to the development of effective antiviral drugs that have improved the lives of millions of people.

Additional Information

Nobel Prize

• The Nobel Prize is considered the most prestigious prize in the world.
• This prize is given in the 6 fields’ i.e, Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature, Economics, and Peace Prize. These prizes were commenced in 1901.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Both the statements are correct.
• Outsourcing is one of the important consequences of globalization.
• WTO was established in 1995 as a successor organization to GATT.
• Outsourcing is the business practice of hiring a party outside a company to perform services or create goods that were traditionally performed in-house by the company's own employees and staff.
• Globalization is the sharing and trading of concepts, ideas, people, products and services, and goods from one country to another.
• Outsourcing is the consequence of an increasingly globalized market and the gradual interdependence of economies, cultures, and populations. Outsourcing would not exist without globalization. And globalization would not exist without outsourcing**: The two go hand in hand.**

Additional Information WTO 

• The WTO started functioning on 1 January 1995.
• The Uruguay Round and it led to the formulation of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
• The WTO has 164 members and 23 observer governments.
• Afghanistan became the 164th member in July 2016.
• Geneva, Switzerland, where the WTO headquarters is located.
• On 15th February 2021, Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala was appointed as the WTO Director-General.
• She is the first woman chief of the WTO.
• She is also the first African to hold the office of WTO as its director-general.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Odisha state has the largest brackish water lake of India.
• Chilika Lake is located in the state of Odisha in eastern India.
• It is situated at the mouth of the Bay of Bengal and is the largest brackish water lake in Asia.
• Chilika is officially designated as a Ramsar site which refers to a wetland of international importance.
• The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 provides protection to the lake's migrating birds, and the area of the lake that contains important habitat has been designated as a sanctuary for the birds.
• The 2011 Coastal Regulation Zone Notification officially governs the lake.

The correct answer is Mary Kom.

Key Points

• Mary Kom was the flag bearer of India at the opening ceremony of Tokyo Olympics 2020 (to be played in 2021).
• Boxer M. C. Mary Kom and men's hockey team skipper Manpreet Singh will be India's flag bearers at opening ceremony of Tokyo Olympics, the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
• Wrestler Bajrang Punia will be the flag bearer at closing ceremony on July 8.
• The first Indian to carry the national flag at the opening ceremony of the Games was 400m sprinter Purma Banerjee at the 1920 Olympics in Antwerp, Belgium.

Additional Information Olympics 

• The Olympic Games are an athletic festival that originated in ancient Greece and were revived in the late 19th century. They are the world’s foremost sports competition and include athletes from all over the world.
• The Olympics were revived in the late 19th century, with the first modern Games being held in Greece is 1896.

The correct answer is 360 N.

Key Points

• The weight of the object on the surface of the earth will be 360 N.
• Given that Weight of the object on the moon surface (We) = 60 N
• Using the concept Weight of the object on the earth (Wm)=6∗ Wm=6∗60=360N
• An object weighs 360 N when measured on the surface of the earth.
• Its weight on the surface of the Moon will be 60 N.

Additional Information

• The weight of an object on Earth and the Moon is different because Earth's gravity is much great than the Moon's gravity.
• Newton's law says that F=mg, where F is the weight and M is the mass, and G, is the acceleration due to gravity but since the gravity on Moon is much less than Earth.
• The weight of an object will be Different.
• The formula that links mass and the gravitational field strength is: gravity force = mass × gravitational field strength (g)
• This is when: gravity force is measured in newtons (N) mass is measured in kilograms (kg) gravitational field strength (g) is measured in newtons per kilogram (N/kg).

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points 

• Both statements are true.
• All India Muslim League supported the partition of Bengal.
• There was widespread political unrest in the province after Curzon announced the partition.
• Rabindranath Tagore composed the famous song ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’ which later became the national anthem of Bangladesh.
• The Indian National Congress protested this move to separate the province on communal lines.
• Many Muslims from the Bengali Muslim community welcomed this move since they thought that it would advance their educational, economic and political interests if they became the majority in the new province.
• This was also seen as an opportunity for Muslims to develop in education and improve their standard of living.

Additional Information

Lala Lajpat Rai was an active member of Aryasmaj.

• The Arya Samaj participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement against the British.
• They opened schools and colleges in India and gave Indian patriots like Lala Lajpat Rai, Sardar Ajit Singh, Shradhanand, Bhai Parmanand and Lala Hardyal.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points Insoluble salt is obtained by precipitation reaction.

• Precipitation produces insoluble salts.
• Precipitation is the type of chemical reaction that takes place in an aqueous solution when two ions bond together to form an insoluble salt (precipitate).
• AgNO3 (aq) + KCl (aq) → AgCl (s) + KNO3 (aq)

 The addition of oxygen or loss of hydrogen is called oxidation.

• Oxidation is the process of the addition of oxygen and the removal of hydrogen.
• The atom or the molecule which undergoes oxidation loses one or more electrons.
• Example of oxidation
• When Hydrogen sulfide reacts with Chlorine, Sulphur and Hydrogen chloride are formed.

The correct answer is 1782.

Key Points

• In the year 1782 Tipu Sultan became the ruler of Mysore.
• Dashing British hopes of a chaotic transition of power, Tipu Sultan became the ruler of Mysore on December 22, 1782.
• Tipu’s father, Hyder Ali, who served as a military officer at the Mysore kingdom, became the most powerful person in Mysore by 1761.
• The Second Anglo-Mysore War dragged on through 1783 and into the early part of 1784.
• The British eventually accepted defeat, and signed the Treaty of Mangalore in March 1784.

Additional Information Anglo-Mysore War

• The Anglo-Mysore Wars was a series of four military confrontations in India between the British and the rulers of Mysore.
• First Anglo-Mysore War (1767-69)-Treaty of Madras. .
• Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780-84)-Treaty of Mangalore (March, 1784)
• Third Anglo-Mysore War (1790-92)-Treaty of Seringapatam, 1792
• Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1799)-Tipu Sultan died in the war and all his treasures were confiscated by the British.

The correct answer is 6, 11.

Key Points

The Constitution of India has 6 Fundamental Rights and 11 Fundamental Duties.

Fundamental Rights

• Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed to all citizens.
• They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc.
• Significantly, fundamental rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.
• There are six fundamental rights of Indian Constitution along with the constitutional articles related to them are mentioned below:
• Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
• Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
• Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
• Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
• Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
• Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)

Fundamental Duties.

• 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
• 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
• Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77.
• The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is Saganawa - Assam.

Key Points

• One of the most famous and biggest festivals of Sikkim.
• Saga Dawa is celebrated with great enthusiasm and fervour every year.
• The festival is the most significant and sacred for the followers of Mahayana Buddhism.
• Who on this auspicious occasion commemorates Lord Buddha’s birth, his attainment of enlightenment and salvation from this corporeal world.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai

Key Points

• Lala Lajpat Rai  is the author of the book "Unhappy India".
• Lala Lajpat Rai is also known as Punjab Kesri.
• He initiated the foundation of Punjab National Bank.
• He was badly injured in police lathi-charge on the activists, who were protesting the arrival of Simon Commission, and died a few days later due to the injuries.

Additional Information Ohters books by Lala Lajpat Rai

• He also authored the following published books.
• The Story of My Deportation, 1908 Arya Samaj, 1915.
• The United States of America: A Hindu’s Impression, 1916.
• Unhappy India, 1928. England's Debt to India, 1917.

The correct answer is Hockey

Key Points

• Manpreet Singh is related to Hockey.
• Manpreet Singh is one of India’s best field hockey players and the captain of the Indian men’s hockey team.
• In 2018, he was given the Arjuna Award, the highest honour bestowed given to a sportsperson by the Indian government.
• In 2019, he was named the best men’s player at the FIH Player of the Year Awards.
• At Tokyo 2020, he led India to a bronze medal, ending a wait of 41 years for an Olympic medla in hockey.
• Later in 2021, he was awarded the Khel Ratna, the highest honour given to sportspersons in India.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points Generally, warm ocean currents originate near the equator and flow towards the poles.

• Ocean currents are streams of water flowing continuosly over the ocean surface in fixed directions.
• Most of the warm ocean currents originate near the equator.
• The warm ocean currents originate near the equator and move towards the poles.
• The cold currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes.
• Warm ocean currents flow away from the equatorial region on the western side of ocean basins.
• The Gulf Stream in the North Atlantic and the Kuroshio Current in the North Pacific are examples of warm currents.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• Vertebrata are divided into 6 classes.
• Vertebrates are animals that possess a vertebral column and/or notochord at any point in their lives.
• Vertebrate features:
• A stiff rod running through the length of the animal
• Humans and all other vertebrates possess a notochord as an embryo and it eventually develops into the vertebral column.
• A bundle of nerves run above the vertebral column and the alimentary canal exists below it.
• The mouth is present at the anterior portion of the animals or right below it.
• The alimentary canal ends in the anus, which opens to the exterior.
• The tail extends after the anus.
• What are the 6 vertebrate classes -Humans, birds, mammals, reptiles, amphibians, and fish are all vertebrates.

The correct answer is Bodh Gaya.

Key Points

• Buddha attained enlightenment in Bodh Gaya.
• It is located in Bihar.
• The day Gautam Buddha attained enlightenment is celebrated as Buddha Purnima.
• The exact date of is based on the Asian lunisolar calendars and is primarily celebrated in Baisakh month.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Sex Ratio.

Key Points

• The sex Ratio is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between men and women in society, at a given point of time.
• The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the population.
• In the 2011 Population Census, it was revealed that the population ratio in India is 940 females per 1000 males.
• Although many states have a sex ratio of less than one some states like Kerala have a sex ratio of 1058 females for every 1000 males, Whereas Delhi has a sex ratio of 821 females for every 1000 males.
• Thus, it shows the grim scenario regarding female foeticide in India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Reverse Repo Rate.

Key Points

• The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity from banks under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), on an overnight basis, against the collateral of eligible government securities, is called Reverse Repo Rate.
• The reverse repo rate is the rate at which banks earn interest when they park surplus funds with the RBI.
• The repo rate helps control inflation, and the reverse repo rate increases liquidity.
• The repo rate set by the RBI is always higher than the reverse repo rate.

Additional Information

Given:

P = 25X

Q = 20X

Formula used:

P% = (P - Q)/Q  x 100

Solution:

P = (25X - 20X)/20X x 100

P = 5/20 x 100 = 25% more than Q

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Given:

P = Rs. 20,000

T = 6 years

R = 10%

Formula used:

SI = (P x R x T)/100

A = SI + P

here, 

A = Amount

SI = Simple Interest

P = Principle

R = Rate

T = Time

Solution:

Let's put the values given, in the formula to find the value of SI;

SI = 20000 x 10 x 6/100

SI = 12000

A = 12000 + 20000 = Rs. 32000

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Concept used:

A number is divisible by 8 if the last 3 digits are divisible by 8.

Solution:

57Y/8 = 0

8 x 70 = 560

8 x 71  = 568

8 x 72 = 576

8 x 73 = 584

Y = 6

Hence, the correct option is 4.

Solution:

Total working days = 100 + 250 + 350 + 300 + 200 = 1200 days

Average working days = 1200/5 = 240 days

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Given:

L + B = 70 cm

H = 15 cm

H = 1/2 B

Formula used:

TSA(Cuboid) = 2 x (LB + BH + HL)

L = Length

B = Breadth

H = Height

TSA = Total Surface Area

Solution:

1/2B = 15

B = 30 cm

L = 70 - 30 = 40 cm

TSA = 2 x [(40)(30) + (30)(15) + (15)(40)]

TSA = 2 x [1200 + 450 + 600]

TSA = 2 x 2250

TSA = 4500 cm² 

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Formula used:

(a - b)(a + b) = a² - b² 

Solution:

Rationalizing the denominator,

$\implies \frac{\sqrt 3 - \sqrt 4}{{(\sqrt 3 + \sqrt 4) \times (\sqrt 3 - \sqrt 4) }} + \frac{\sqrt 4 - \sqrt 5}{{(\sqrt 4 + \sqrt 5) \times(\sqrt 4 - \sqrt 5) }} + \frac{\sqrt 5 - \sqrt 6 }{{\sqrt 5 + \sqrt 6 ) \times(\sqrt 5 -\sqrt 6 )}} + \frac{\sqrt 6 - \sqrt 7}{{\sqrt 6 + \sqrt 7) \times (\sqrt 6 - \sqrt 7) }} \ \implies \frac{\sqrt 3 - \sqrt 4 + \sqrt 4 - \sqrt 5 + \sqrt 5 - \sqrt 6 + \sqrt 6 - \sqrt 7 }{-1}\ \implies \sqrt7 - \sqrt3$

Hence, the correct option is 4.

Given:

360° = 36000

Solution:

1° = 100

J1 = 100 x (40 + 120 + 18 + 20)/4 = 25 x 198 = 4950

J2 = 100 x (50 - 36) = 100 x 14 = 1400

J1 - J2 = 4950 - 1400 = 3550

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Shortcut Trick

Convert time to hours: 120 min = 2 h and 210 min = 3.5 h.

By doubling the first scenario to match upstream distance: 4 km upstream + 8 km downstream = 4 h.

Compare with scenario 2: (4 km up + 8 km down) − (4 km up + 6 km down) = 4 h − 3.5 h.

This gives 2 km downstream = 0.5 h ⇒ Downstream speed = 2 ÷ 0.5 = 4 kmph.

Substituting back: 2/U + 4/4 = 2 ⇒ Upstream speed (U) = 2 kmph.

Speed in still water = (Downstream + Upstream) ÷ 2 = (4 + 2) ÷ 2 = 3 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 3 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Case 1: 2 km upstream and 4 km downstream in 120 min (2 hours).

Case 2: 4 km upstream and 6 km downstream in 210 min (3.5 hours).

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Let upstream speed be x kmph and downstream speed be y kmph.

Calculations:

⇒ 2/x + 4/y = 2 −−− (i)

⇒ 4/x + 6/y = 3.5 −−− (ii)

Multiply equation (i) by 2:

⇒ 4/x + 8/y = 4 −−− (iii)

Subtracting equation (ii) from equation (iii):

⇒ (4/x + 8/y) − (4/x + 6/y) = 4 − 3.5

⇒ 2/y = 0.5 ⇒ y = 4 kmph (Downstream speed)

Substitute y = 4 in equation (i):

⇒ 2/x + 4/4 = 2

⇒ 2/x + 1 = 2 ⇒ 2/x = 1 ⇒ x = 2 kmph (Upstream speed)

Speed of boat in still water (u) = (y + x) ÷ 2

⇒ u = (4 + 2) ÷ 2 = 6 ÷ 2 = 3 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 3 kmph.

Additional Information

Still Water Speed

The speed of the boat when the water is stationary: u = (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Stream Speed

The speed at which the river water flows: v = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Upstream and Downstream

Upstream = Boat Speed − Stream Speed; Downstream = Boat Speed + Stream Speed.

Given:

Concept used:

Profit is directly proportional to investment.

Solution:

Investment(A : B : Z) = 12 : 15 : 16

12 + 15 + 16 = 43

43 = 3655

15 = ?

Profit of B = 15 x 3655/43 = Rs. 1275

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Given:

S/34 = 53

(S - 34L)/34 = 35

S = Sum of 34 numbers

Solution:

S = 34 x 53

S/34 - L = 35

53 - L = 35

L = 53 - 35 = 18

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Concept used:

Solution:

= 98 ÷  4 × 2 + 5 – 6 × 2

= 24.5 x 2 + 5 - 6 x 2

= 49 + 5 - 12

= 54 - 12

= 42

Hence, the correct option is 4.

Solution:

Last digit of 58 = 8

8¹ = 8

8² = 64

8³ = 512

8⁴ = 4096

8⁵ = 32768

58's unit place will repeat after 4, 96/4 = 0

58⁹⁶ has unit digit = 6

56 has unit digit = 6

6¹ = 6

6² = 36

56²⁵ will have it's unit digit = 6

For 89,

9¹ = 9

9² = 81

9³ = 729

28/2 = 0

89²⁸ will have unit digit = 1

Now,  5896 × 5625 × 8928 = 6 x 6 x 1 = 36

The unit place is 6.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Given:

Speed = 60 m/s

Distance = 4200 m

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

1 minute = 60 seconds

Solution:

Time = 4200/(60 x 60) = 42/36 = 7/6 minutes

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Solution:

The average of the number of students playing G1 in S1 and S2 = (40 + 60)/2 = 50

The ratio of the number of students playing G3 in S1 to the number of students playing G3 in S2 = 30 : 15 = 2 : 1

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Given:

A = 5 days

B = 20 days

Solution:

Work done by A in 1 day = 1/5

Work done by B in 1 day = 1/20

Total work done in 2 days = (1/5 + 1/20) = 1/4

Total days required to complete the work = 2 x 4 = 8 days

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Given:

84L = 30% milk

Solution:

Milk : Water = 3 : 7

To get 4 : 6

Let, M = Milk to be added

84(0.3) + M = 0.4(84 + M)

0.6M = 8.4

M = 14 L

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Given:

Loss% = 50%

If SP = SP + 120, Lss% = 30%

Formula used:

Profit % = (Profit/Cost Price) x 100

Profit = SP - CP

CP = Cost price

SP = Selling price

Solution:

⇒ 120 = (50 - 30)%

⇒ 1% = 120/20 = Rs. 6 

CP = 100 x 6 = Rs. 600

To get a Profit of 40%, it must be sold at,

⇒ 0.4 = SP/600 - 1

SP = 600 x 1.4 = Rs.840

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² 

Solution:

I. (√2 + √3)² = 2 + 3 + 2√6 = 5 + 2√6

Statement I is correct.

II. x + y = 15

x = 15 - y

(15 - y)y = 50

y² -15y + 50 = 0

y = ${15 \pm √{-15^2-4(50)} \over 2}$  = 5 or 10

x = 5 or 10

By considering all the cases

√x + √y = √5 + √10 or 2√5 or 2√10

None of the value matches with the value given in statement II.

So, Statement II is wrong.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Given:

Circumference  = 220 cm

Formula used:

Area of circle = 22/7 x r x r

Circumference of circle = 2 x 22/7 x r 

r = radius

Solution:

⇒ 2 x 22/7 x r = 220

r = 5 x 7 = 35 cm

Area = 22/7 x 35 x 35 = 3850 cm² 

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Solution:

Let, m = number to be added

⇒ (8 + m)/(35 + m) = (7 + m)/(31 + m)

To avoid, a lengthy calculation, let's take m = 1

⇒ 9/36 = 8/32

⇒ 1/4 = 1/4

m = 1, satisfies the equation.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

‘ईंट तक बिकवा देना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है – सर्वस्व नष्ट करना। अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं। अतः सही विकल्प 3 ‘सर्वस्व नष्ट करना’ है।

स्पष्टीकरण:-

अन्य विकल्प:-

Additional Information

इसका सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 ‘नकद’ है। अन्य विकल्प त्रुटिपूर्ण हैं।

Mistake Points

• शुद्ध शब्द ‘नकद’ है
• सामान्य  बोलचाल में हम नगद शब्द का प्रयोग करते हैं जो कि गलत है।

Key Points 

स्पष्टीकरण:

उपर्युक्त तीन विकल्पों में वर्तनीगत त्रुटि है। शुद्ध शब्द ‘नकद’ है जिसका अर्थ है वह धन जो रुपया-पैसा, सिक्का आदि के रूप में हो।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है, '**वह पढ़ता भी है और नौकरी भी करता है।**​' 

• '**वह पढ़ता भी है और नौकरी भी करता है।**​', वाक्य संयुक्त वाक्य है।
• उपरोक्त वाक्य में दो साधारण वाक्य एक योजक शब्द ‘और’ की सहायता से जुड़कर संयुक्त वाक्य बना रहे हैं।
• जिस वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक उपवाक्य मिले हों, परन्तु सभी वाक्य प्रधान हो तो ऐसे वाक्य को संयुक्त वाक्य कहते है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण: 

Additional Information 

• ​रचना की दृष्टि से वाक्य के तीन प्रमुख भेद किये जाते हैं:

सही उत्तर अल्प विराम चिह्न ( , ) है।

विराम चिह्न: विराम चिह्न का अर्थ है  ठहराव, विश्राम, रुकना। अर्थात वाक्य लिखते समय विराम को प्रकट करने के लिए लगाए जाने वाले चिह्न को विराम चिह्न कहते हैं।

• अल्प विराम चिह्न ( , )-
• वाक्य में जहाँ थोड़ा रुकना हो या अधिक वस्तुओं, व्यक्तियों आदि को अलग करना हो वहाँ अल्प विराम (,) चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण-
• सुनील**,** जरा इधर आना।
• राकेश, मोहन, शीतल और पंकज ने यह चित्र बनाया है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

• विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न (!) - ऐसे शब्द जो वाक्य में आश्चर्य, हर्ष, शोक, घृणा आदि भाव व्यक्त करने के लिए प्रयुक्त हों, वे विस्मयादिबोधक कहलाते हैं। ऐसे शब्दों के साथ विस्मयादिबोधक चिन्ह (!) का प्रयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण-
• छि! वह बहुत गन्दा लड़का है।
• उप विराम​ चिह्न( : ) - जहाँ पर किसी वस्तु या विषय के बारे में बताया जाए तो वहां पर उप विराम चिन्ह (:) का प्रयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण-
• विज्ञान**:** वरदान या अभिशाप
• अर्द्ध विराम (;) - अर्द्ध विराम को (;) चिह्न से प्रदर्शित करते है। जिस स्थान पर अल्प विराम की अपेक्षा थोड़े अधिक समय के लिए ठहराव की स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाये, वहां अर्द्ध विराम का प्रयोग करते है। उदाहरण-
• सूर्यास्त हो चुका है; चारो तरफ घना अँधेरा छा जायेगा

अतः निष्कर्ष निकलता है कि सुनील, जरा इधर आना।​ के लिए उपयुक्त विराम चिह्न अल्प विराम चिह्न ( , ) है।

Additional Information 

हिंदी में प्रचलित प्रमुख विराम चिह्न निम्नलिखित है:–

(1) अल्प विराम ( , )

(2) अर्द्ध विराम ( ; )

(3) पूर्ण विराम ( । )

(4) उप विराम  [ : ]

(5) विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न ( ! )

(6) प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न  ( ? )

(7) कोष्ठक ( () )

(8) योजक चिह्न  ( - )

(9) अवतरण चिह्न या उद्धरणचिह्न  ( ''... '' )

(10) लाघव चिह्न) ( o )

(11) आदेश चिह्न/सूचना ( :- )

(12) रेखांकन चिह्न (_)

(13) लोप चिह्न (...)

वाक्य रचना एवं अर्थ की दृष्टि से व्याकरण सम्मत संपूर्ण वाक्य होगा - सभ्यता की दौड़ में संवेदनशील जैसे मनोवेगों का साथ स्वतः छूट जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प स्वतः हैI

अन्य विकल्प

सही उत्तर 'हमें' है।

Key Points

• रिक्त स्थान के लिए उचित सर्वनाम हमें है।
• अतः सही वाक्य है: हमें बड़े-बूढ़ो का आदर करना चाहिए।

सर्वनाम के भेद:

दिए गये विकल्पों में उत्पात : उत्पाद का सही शब्द युग्म 'उपद्रव : उत्पन्न वस्तु' होगा।

• उत्पात के समानार्थी शब्द : उपद्रव, बखेड़ा, हुल्लड़, दंगा-फ़साद, हंगामा, टंटा, ऊधम, अशुभ, अमंगल, विघ्न।
• उत्पाद के समानार्थी शब्द : उपज, उत्पत्ति, प्रोडक्ट, वस्तु, माल, चीज़, रुपया-पैसा, धन-संपत्ति, माल।

Key Points अन्य विकल्प:

• अंश​ - भाग, हिस्सा।
• प्रथम - आद्य।

Additional Information 

दिए गये विकल्पों मे से 'इयत-इतना' यह तत्सम - तद्भव शब्द का युग्म सही है।

Key Points

<br>

अन्य विकल्प:

 

 

 

 

 

Additional Information

दिए गये विकल्पों में लक्ष्य ∶ लक्ष का सही शब्द युग्म 'उद्देश्य ∶ लाख' होगा।

• लक्ष्य का अर्थ : उद्देश्य।
• लक्ष का अर्थ : लाख, सौ हज़ार।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्प:

• अंश​ - भाग, हिस्सा।
• प्रथम - आद्य।

Additional Information 

निन्यानबे के फेर में पड़गा ,मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है,धन कमाने में लगा रहना। 

Key Points

• आजकल जो लोग निन्यानबे के फेर में पड़े है, वे सुखी नहीं हैं।

Additional Information 

दिए गए सभी विकल्पों में सही उत्तर 'ललाइन' है। 

Key Points 

• उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में से ‘लाला' का स्त्रीलिंग शब्द 'ललाइन' होगा।
• लाला : कायस्थ, खत्री आदि जातियों का सूचक शब्द, जो पुरुषो के लिए प्रयुक्त किया जाता है।
• ललाइन : कायस्थ जाति की स्त्रियों के लिए प्रयुक्त शब्द; लाला की पत्नी।

Additional Information 

मधु इंजीनियर है। - यह वाक्य स्थित्यात्मक पक्ष का उदाहरण है। 

• स्थित्यात्मक पक्ष - इसमें क्रिया की स्थिति या अवस्था का बोध होता है। यह किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु की स्थायी स्थिति का वर्णन करता है।
• उदा. मधु इंजीनियर है, वह अध्यापक है।

Key Points 

अन्य विकल्प:

सही उत्तर है, '**जो झूठे व्यक्ति होते हैं उनका कोई भी सम्मान नहीं करता है।**​' 

• '**जो झूठे व्यक्ति होते हैं उनका कोई भी सम्मान नहीं करता है।**​', वाक्य मिश्र वाक्य है।
• उपरोक्त वाक्य ‘जो​’ की उपस्थिती मिश्र वाक्य होने की पुष्टि करती है।
• जिस वाक्य में एक से अधिक वाक्य मिले हों, किन्तु एक प्रधान उपवाक्य तथा शेष आश्रित उपवाक्य हों, मिश्रित वाक्य कहलाता है।

Key Points  अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण: 

Additional Information 

• ​रचना की दृष्टि से वाक्य के तीन प्र��ुख भेद किये जाते हैं:

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 ‘तेजी से' है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

Key Points 

अव्यय- ऐसे शब्द जिनमें लिंग, वचन, पुरुष, कारक आदि के कारण कोई विकार नहीं आता, अव्यय कहलाते हैं।

संबंधबोधक अव्यय- वे शब्द जो संज्ञा, सर्वनाम शब्दों को अन्य संज्ञा, सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ सम्बन्ध का बोध कराते हैं।

Hint

• कुछ कालवाचक और स्थानवाचक क्रियाओं का प्रयोग संबंधबोधक के रूप में होता है। जब इनका प्रयोग संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के साथ होता है, तो ये संबंधबोधक होते हैं लेकिन जब इनके द्वारा क्रिया की विशेषता प्रकट होती है, तो ये क्रिया विशेषण होते हैं।
• उपरोक्त वाक्य में तेजी से अव्यय संज्ञा (गाड़ी) के साथ जुड़कर स्टेशन पर रूकने से संबंधित है, अतः इसे यहाँ संबंधबोधक अव्यय कहेंगे।

Additional Information 

सही उत्तर अल्प विराम चिह्न (;) है।

विराम चिह्न: विराम चिह्न का अर्थ है  ठहराव, विश्राम, रुकना। अर्थात वाक्य लिखते समय विराम को प्रकट करने के लिए लगाए जाने वाले चिह्न को विराम चिह्न कहते हैं।

• अर्द्ध विराम (;) - अर्द्ध विराम को (;) चिह्न से प्रदर्शित करते है। जिस स्थान पर अल्प विराम की अपेक्षा थोड़े अधिक समय के लिए ठहराव की स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाये, वहां अर्द्ध विराम का प्रयोग करते है। उदाहरण-
• कई सप्ताह से वर्षा होती ही जारी है ; अर्थात् फसल नष्ट होकर रहेगी।
• सूर्यास्त हो चुका है; चारो तरफ घना अँधेरा छा जायेगा।

Key Points अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

• आदेश चिह्न/सूचना ( :- ) - इसे विवरण चिन्ह के नाम से भी जाना जाता है। इसे (:-) से प्रदर्शित करते है। इस चिन्ह का प्रयोग तब करते है जब वाक्यांशों के विषयों में कोई निर्देश देना हो। उदाहरण-
• वचन के दो भेद होते है:-
• उप विराम​ चिह्न( : ) - जहाँ पर किसी वस्तु या विषय के बारे में बताया जाए तो वहां पर उप विराम चिन्ह (:) का प्रयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण-
• विज्ञान: वरदान या अभिशाप

अतः निष्कर्ष निकलता है कि कई सप्ताह से वर्षा होती ही जारी है ; अर्थात् फसल नष्ट होकर रहेगी। वाक्य के लिए उपयुक्त विराम चिह्न अर्द्ध विराम (;) है।

Additional Information

हिंदी में प्रचलित प्रमुख विराम चिह्न निम्नलिखित है:–

(1) अल्प विराम ( , )

(2) अर्द्ध विराम ( ; )

(3) पूर्ण विराम ( । )

(4) उप विराम  [ : ]

(5) विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न ( ! )

(6) प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न  ( ? )

(7) कोष्ठक ( () )

(8) योजक चिह्न  ( - )

(9) अवतरण चिह्न या उद्धरणचिह्न  ( ''... '' )

(10) लाघव चिह्न) ( o )

(11) आदेश चिह्न/सूचना ( :- )

(12) रेखांकन चिह्न (_)

(13) लोप चिह्न (...)

'समाविष्ट' शब्द का विलोम है - 'अनुग्रहीत'

• अर्थ : जिसका समावेश हो चुका हो या कर दिया गया हो, समाहित, मिलाया हुआ।

Key Pointsसमर्पित:-

• अर्थ: जो समर्पण किया गया हो, आदरपूर्वक सौंपा गया, अर्पित, स्थापित।
• विलोम शब्द - 'असमर्पित'

समान:-

• अर्थ: सदृश, तुल्य, एक–सा, साधारण।
• विलोम शब्द - ​**'असमान**'

'परिमार्जित' शब्द का अर्थ है - 'साहित्यिक त्रुटियों को दूर'

• 'परिमार्जित' शब्द के अन्य अर्थ है - धोया या माँजा हुआ, साफ किया हुआ।
• विलोम शब्द - 'अपरिमार्जित'

Key Pointsअनर्थ:-

• अर्थ: उपकार के विपरीत काम या अनुचित या बुरा काम।
• विलोम शब्द - ​**'अर्थ'**

परिनिष्ठित:-

• अर्थ: जो पूरा या सम्पन्न किया जा चुका हो, निपटाया हुआ।
• विलोम शब्द - 'अपरिनिष्ठित'

सरल:-

• अर्थ: आसान, सादा, सुगम, सहज, सुलभ, सहल, सीधा, ऋजु, भोला।
• विलोम शब्द - ​ 'कठिन'

'मानक' शब्द का पर्याय होगा - 'प्रामाणिक'

• मानक का अन्य पर्यायवाची - प्रतिमान, आदर्श, प्रतिरूप, नमूना।
• विलोम शब्द - 'अमानक'

Key Pointsतिरस्कार:-

• अर्थ: अपमान, उपेक्षा, अनादर, फटकार, डाँट, अवज्ञा, उपहास, खिल्ली, निरादर, अवहेलना। 
• विलोम शब्द - ​**'पुरस्कार, स्वागत'**

अच्छा:-

• अर्थ: बढ़िया, बेहतर, भला, चोखा, उत्तम।
• विलोम शब्द - ​​**'बुरा'**

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का शीर्षक होगा - 'मानक भाषा'

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• ​मानक भाषा के स्वरूप का वर्णन करते हुआ उसके महत्व को बताया गया है।

Key Points

• ​मानक भाषा:-
• किसी भाषा की वह भाषा प्रयुक्ति या भाषिका होती है जो किसी समुदाय, राज्य या राष्ट्र में सम्पर्क भाषा का दर्जा रखे और लोक-संवाद में प्रयोग हो।
• इन भाषाओं को अक्सर एक मानकीकरण की प्रक्रिया से गुज़ारकर मानक बना दिया जाता है,
• जिसमें उनके लिये औपचारिक व्याकरण, शब्दकोशों और अन्य भाषावैज्ञानिक कृतियों का गठन व प्रकाशन किया जाता है।
• कोई मानक भाषा बहुकेन्द्रीय (pluricentric) या एककेन्द्रीय (monocentric) हो सकती है।
• अरबी, अंग्रेज़ी, फ़ारसी, जर्मन और फ़्रान्सीसी जैसी भाषाएँ बहुकेन्द्रीय हैं, यानि उनके एक से अधिक मानक रूप हैं।
• इनके विपरीत रूसी, इतालवी और जापानी जैसी कई भाषाएँ एककेन्द्रीय हैं।

 

Additional Informationराष्ट्र भाषा:-

• भारतीय संविधान में भारत की कोई राष्ट्र भाषा नहीं है। सरकार ने 22 भाषाओं को आधिकारिक भाषा के रूप में जगह दी है।
• जिसमें केन्द्र सरकार या राज्य सरकार अपने जगह के अनुसार किसी भी भाषा को आधिकारिक भाषा के रूप में चुन सकती है।
• केन्द्र सरकार ने अपने कार्यों के लिए हिन्दी और रोमन भाषा को आधिकारिक भाषा के रूप में जगह दी है।
• इसके अलावा अलग अलग राज्यों में स्थानीय भाषा के अनुसार भी अलग अलग आधिकारिक भाषाओं को चुना गया है।
• फिलहाल 22 आधिकारिक भाषाओं में असमी, उर्दू, कन्नड़, कश्मीरी, कोंकणी, मैथिली, मलयालम, मणिपुरी, मराठी, नेपाली, ओडिया, पंजाबी, संस्कृत, संतली, सिंधी, तमिल, तेलुगू, बोड़ो, डोगरी, बंगाली और गुजराती है।
• वर्तमान में सभी 22 भाषाओं को आधिकारिक भाषा का दर्जा प्राप्त है।
• 2010 में गुजरात उच्च न्यायालय ने भी सभी भाषाओं को समान अधिकार के साथ रखने की बात की थी,
• हालांकि न्यायालयों और कई स्थानों में केवल अंग्रेजी भाषा को ही जगह दिया गया है।

भाषा:-

• भाषा वह साधन है, जिसके द्वारा मनुष्य बोलकर, सुनकर, लिखकर या पढ़कर अपने मन के भावों या विचारों को दूसरो के समक्ष प्रकट करता है।

बोली मानक भाषा बन जाती है - 'लिखित रूप में प्रयोग होने लगे'

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• ​किसी क्षेत्र की स्थानीय या आँचलिक बोली का शब्द-भण्डार सीमित होता है तथा उसका कोई नियमित व्याकरण भी नहीं होता,
• जिसके कारण इसे अधिकारिक या व्यावहारिक भाषा का माध्यम नहीं बनाया जा सकता।
• इसलिए ऐसी बोली विशिष्ट भौगोलिक, राजनीतिक, प्रशासनिक, सांस्कृतिक, सामाजिक आदि कारणों से अपना एक व्याकरणिक रूप विकसित कर लेती है,
• जोकि पत्राचार, शिक्षा, व्यापार, प्रशासन आदि में लिखित रूप में प्रयोग होने लगता है।

Key Pointsव्यावहारिक:- 

• अर्थ: व्यवहार के योग्य, व्यवहार्य, कारोबार संबंधी, (प्रोफ़ेशनल)।

सांकेतिक:-

• अर्थ: संकेत रूप में होनेवाला, संकेत संबंधी।

वैश्विक:-

• अर्थ: विश्व संबंधी या विश्वव्यापी।

The correct answer is “Aspersion”.

Key Points

• Abuse means ‘speaking insultingly / harshly / unjustly (दुर्व्यवहार करना या दुर्वचन कहना).
• Example: 'Don't abuse the system'
• Marked option Aspersion means ‘Using damaging / derogatory remark (निंदा, आक्षेप अथवा लांछन).
• Example: 'In the 19th century any reference to female sexuality was considered a vile aspersion.'
• The word 'Aspersion' means the same as the given word 'Abuse'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• The meanings of other options are: -
• Ablution – The act of washing yourself clean. (अपमार्जन जल)
• Omen – Anything happening portending a good/bad circumstance in future (शकुन चिन्ह)
• Oppression – Exercise of authority/power in cruel manner (अत्याचार या उत्पीड़न)
• Other Synonyms of Abuse – Misconduct, Wrongdoing, Mishandling, Debasement

The correct option is "Masseuse"

Key Points 

• The French origin word ‘Masseuse’ means ‘A woman who provide massage as profession or occupation’.
• All spellings in other options do not constitute any word of English language.

 

Thus, the correct spelling is “Masseuse”

Additional Information 

Masseur – A man who provide massage as profession/occupation.

The correct answer is "to give complete freedom".

Key Points

• Here, the idiom given in the question means “To give one complete freedom to do what one chooses.” Rein here refers to the reins of a horse.
• For example: “You may not believe that my father has given me loose rein to run his business. I am Planning to buy a new car next month.”

Thus, the meaning of idiom “Give loose rein to” is best expressed by alternative “To give complete freedom.”

Additional Information

• Other Idioms with similar meaning are: -     
• Allow free rein to
• Give free rein to
• Other Idiom with opposite meaning: -
• Keep a tight rein - 'To control something or someone firmly.'

The correct answer is option “Elevate”

Key Points

• The meaning of the given word 'Debauch' is ‘down to hell, degrade, corrupt, pervert, subvert or pollute (नीचे लाना, उतारना या भ्रष्ट होना)’.
• Example: 'Young people debauch their character with wine and women'.
• The meaning of the word Elevate means to Raise, to go upward, to improve, to upgrade (ऊंचा करना, बुलंद करना या ऊंचा उठाना).
• Example: 'Kindhearted souls elevate themselves towards salvation'.

Thus, option 2 "Elevate" is the correct opposite meaning to the given word.

 Additional Information

• Meaning of other options: -
• Vital – Important, Significant
• Taint – Ruin, Contaminate, dirty
• Evolve – develop gradually, emit

Confusion Points

• Students may get confused with apparently similar meaning of the words ‘Evolve’ and ‘Elevate’, but: -
• Evolve means to undergo evolution.
• Elevate means raising to a higher position
• Debauch means dropping to a lower position or value.

The correct answer is “QPRS”

Key Points

• The opening sentence is indicating about some musical activity taking place somewhere.
• The next part should be telling us the location of the activity, which is “Took place in a little known port.”
• The preposition ‘on’ related previous part with its location i.e. “On the west of our country”
• Rest of the two parts has a logical sequence of word 'teaching' followed by preposition 'to' attached with direct recipient (the young princess). So, part “Where my father taught English” will be followed by “To the young princess”.

 

Therefore, the correct sequence of the jumble would be: -

“All of this musical activity Took place in a little known port on The West of Our Country Where my father taught English to the young princes”

The correct answer is 'Jealous'.

Key Points

• Green eyed is an idiom which  means feeling angry or sad because you want to be like somebody else or because you want what somebody else has. (किसी के प्रति ईर्ष्यालु क्‍योंकि आप उसके समान होना चाहते हैं या जो उसके पास है वह आप भी चाहते हैं)
• ​For example- Mr. Modi is green eyed of Keju, because of his win in the election.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The correct answer is 'Mirrored'.

Key Points

• Mirrored is a verb which means to show an image of somebody/something on the surface as mirror. (दर्पण, जल आदि में व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु का प्रतिबिंब दिखना)
• ​For example-  The tiger saw himself mirrored in the river.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The correct answer is 'Would have seized upon the'.

Key Points

• We use would have as the past tense form of will have.
• For example- Students would have completed the classwork which was given to them.
• Seize on or upon something means to suddenly show a lot of interest in something, especially because you can use it to your advantage.​
• The correct sentence will be- He would have seized upon a offer which was given to him.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The correct answer is 'Fierce'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is of Past tense.
• Fierce is an adjective which means angry, aggressive and frightening. (आक्रामक और डरावना)
• ​For example- Rana Sangha was a fierce warrior.
• ​From the above sentence, fierce is the appropriate fill up.
• The correct sentence will be- It was a fierce debate between political parties.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information 

• Roast means to cook or be cooked in an oven or over a fire.(भूनना)
• Sinless means free from sin. (गुनाहों के बिना)
• Consent means to agree to something. (किसी बात से सहमत होना)

The correct answer is '1'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is of Past Indefinite tense.
• Climb up is a phrasal verb which means to go up, or to go towards the top of something. (ऊपर चढ़ना)
• For example- It is very difficult to climb up the Mount Everest.
• So, Climbed up will be used instead of Climbed above.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The correct answer is 'Is'.

Key Points

• Auxiliary verb is always used according to subject.
• In the given sentence, according to subject the list of verb will be used singular.
• In the given sentence, Verb 1st form + ing (lying) is given.
• So, the given sentence is of Continuous or Progressive tense of Present or Past.
• The correct sentence will be- The list of products is lying on the table.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'. 

Additional Information

• The structure used in the Present continuous tense is-
• Subject + Is/are/am +Verb 1st form + ing + Object.
• The structure used in the Past continuous tense is-
• Subject + was/were + Verb 1st form + ing + Object.
• The structure used in Present Perfect tense is-
• Subject + has/have + Verb 3rd form + Object.

The correct answer is '2'.

Key Points

• After some words as somebody of, nobody of, everybody of, anybody of, anyone of, one of etc. noun or pronoun will be plural and verb will be singular.
• For example- 1.One of the students have done his work. (Incorrect)

                                           2.One of the students has done his work. (Correct)

• In the given, we have to use was in place of were according to the grammar rule.
• The correct sentence will be- One of the most graphic demonstrations was the 2008 financial crisis.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The correct answer is: My friends and I.

Key Points

• The order of pronouns in case of singular: Second person> Third person> First person (In a case of positive effect).
• For example: You (second person), he (third person) and I (first person) are going to Vegas.
• Hence, the sentence needs improvement and option 3) gets eliminated.
• The pronoun which takes action or is the doer is called Subjective Pronoun. 'I' is a subjective pronoun while 'me' is an objective pronoun.
• In this question, the persons who take the action ('going for shopping') should be subjective. Hence, 'I' is the appropriate pronoun that must be used. Hence, option 2) gets eliminated.

Therefore, the correct answer is: My friends and I are going for shopping.

Additional Information

• The pronoun which takes action or is the doer is called Subjective Pronoun.
• Some of the subjective pronouns are:
• I
• He
• She
• We
• You
• They
• For example: I am cooking. (Here, ‘I’ is doing the action)
• The pronoun which is the receiver of the action, is called Objective Pronoun.
• Some of the objective pronouns are:
• Me
• Him
• Her
• Us
• You
• Them
• For example: She gave me a pen. (Here, ‘She’ is the Subjective Pronoun because it is the doer of the action. ‘Me’ is the Objective Pronoun because it is the receiver of the action.)

The correct answer is 'Philistine'

Key Points

• Philistine is a noun which means a person who does not like, understand or enjoy the beauty of art, literature, music, etc. (कला, साहित्य, संगीत आदि के सौंदर्य को न समझनेवाला; संस्कारशून्य व्यक्ति; अशिक्षित मनुष्य)
• ​For example- Certainly, Roshan is not philistine, but a artist himself.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

• Misanthrope means a person who hates mankind. (मनुष्य से घृणा करनेवाला)
• Curator means a person whose job is to look after the things that are kept in a museum. (संग्रहालय का अध्यक्ष)
• Snob means a person who thinks he/she is better than somebody of a lower social class and who admires people who have a high social position. (घमंडी,वर्गदंभी; जो सामाजिक स्‍तर में छोटों से अपने को बड़ा समझे और बड़ों की तारीफ़ करे)

The correct answer is 'PQSR'.

Key Points

• The given question is an example of Para Jumble.
• We know that the first statement of para jumbled is usually independent general statement, a universal fact, introduction or starting of an incident etc.
• P will be the first statement because it is the introductory line from the above line.
• Q will be the second statement because subject they are used for skilful speakers.
• S will be the third statement because subject it is used here for affirmative directions.
• R will be the fourth statement lastly.

Therefore, the correct statement is 'Option 3'.

The correct sequence is- Skillful speakers get at the outset a number of 'yes' responses. They thereby steer their listeners towards an affirmative direction. It is like the movements of a billiard ball. Propel it in one direction and it takes some force to deflect it.

The correct answer is What makes Finland The happiest Country in The World.

Key Points

• Title is always the central idea of the passage.
• The passage starting line is about the Finland and its rank in World happiness Index.
• The whole passage is talking about the Finland and the reason behind its happiness.
• So, the suitable title of the passage from the above option is 'What makes Finland the Happiest Country in The World ?

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'

The correct answer is 'Healthy work-life balance.'

Key Points

• Finland is better than Nordic countries and many European countries is mentioned in last paragraph of the passage.
• In the last two lines of passage, Finland is better than Nordic countries in healthy work life balance is also mentioned.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The correct answer is 'Progressive taxation has played a significant role in the wellbeing of Finnish citizens.'

Key Points

• The weather conditions of Finland are not so favourable, this line is mentioned in the first line of first paragraph of the passage.
• More than 80% of Finns trust their police force, this line is mentioned in the last line of first paragraph of the passage.
• Finland is one of the first countries to push the flat working model, this line is mentioned in the first line of second paragraph of the passage.
• Progressive taxation has played a significant role in the wellbeing of Finnish citizens, this line is not correct according to the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The correct answer is 'Workplace productivity'.

Key Points

• Finland has long been praised by a multitude of international bodies for its extensive welfare benefits, low levels of corruption, well-functioning democracy, and its instilled sense of freedom and autonomy.
• This line is mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage.
• Workplace Productivity is not one of the reasons for international bodies to praise Finland.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The correct answer is 'Dissuade'.

Key Points

• Promote is a verb which means to encourage something, to help something to happen or develop.(किसी बात को प्रोत्‍साहित करना; किसी बात के होने या बढ़ने में सहायता करना)
• For example- We should promote extra-curricular activities in school.
• ​From the above options, the Dissuade is the antonym of Promote.
• Dissuade is a verb which means to persuade somebody not to do something. (किसी को कोई काम करने से रोकना)
• ​For example- He used every endeavor possible to dissuade them from entering.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

• Uphold means to support a decision, etc. especially when other people are against it. (किसी निर्णय आदि का समर्थन करना; विशेषतः उसका विरोध होने पर)
• Advocate means to recommend or say that you support a particular plan or action. (किसी योजना या कार्रवाही का समर्थन करना )
• Claim means to say that something is true, without having any proof. (बिना प्रमाण प्रस्‍तुत किए सत्‍यता का दावा करना)

Piaget is a swiss psychologist who was more interested in knowing what children think. He conceptualizes moral development as a constructivist process, whereby the interplay of action and thought builds moral concepts.

Key Points

• Piaget found that children’s ideas regarding rules, moral judgments, and punishment tended to change as they get older.
• He gave two stages of moral development.
• Moral Realism/ Heteronomous Reality(5 and 10 years): Younger children’s thinking is based on the results of their actions and the way these actions affect them. A behavior is judged as either good or bad only in terms of consequences.
• Moral relativism/Autonomous morality (10yrs and above): They realize that rules are socially agreed-upon guidelines that are designed to benefit all the group members and are adjustable.
• ​Piaget described that children below the age of 5 do not possess any kind of morality and called it Pre Moral.

Hence both  I and II are correct with reference to Piaget's stages of moral development. Option 2 is the correct answer.

Motor skills involve specific movements of the body's muscles to perform certain tasks that include walking, running, or riding a bike. The motor skills are developed as a result of a series of changes.

Key Points The development of motor skills in a child follows the given pattern:

• Birth to 2 year
• Uses arms to swing or "bat" at objects
• Watches hands move and bring them to the mouth
• Holds own hands together and reaches for toys using both arms
• Develops pincer grasp (using index finger and thumb to grasp objects) and feeds themselves.
• Clap hands​
• Age 3
• Folds a piece of paper in half
• Draws a circle after being shown an example
• jump up to a distance of 15 to 24 inches.
• Age 4
• Gets dressed and undressed without help
• Touches the tip of each finger to the thumb
• jump up to a distance of 24 to 33 inches.

 Hence both  I and II are motor skills in children. Option 1 is the correct answer.

Attachment theory focuses on relationships and bonds (particularly long-term) between people, including those between a parent and child and between romantic partners.

Psychologists John Bowlby and Mary Ainsworth studied attachment as a "lasting psychological connectedness between human beings."

Key Points

 

• Bowlby studied the anxiety and distress that children experience when separated from their primary caregivers.
• Bowlby elaborated his theory of attachment as an alternative to the Freudian approach.
• Mary Ainsworth expanded greatly upon Bowlby's "strange situation" study and revealed the profound effects of attachment on behavior in infants.
• Ainsworth described three major styles of attachment based on her research :
• secure attachment,
• ambivalent-insecure attachment, and
• avoidant-insecure attachment
• ​A fourth attachment style called disorganized-insecure attachment was added later on by Solomon.​

Hence I and II are true about attachment theories. Option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional InformationThe Stages of Attachment are :

• Pre-Attachment Stage : (birth to 3 months) infants do not show any particular attachment to a specific caregiver.
• Indiscriminate Attachment : ( 6 to 7 months)  infants begin to show preferences for primary and secondary caregivers and develop trust that the caregiver will respond to their needs. ​
• Discriminate Attachment: (7 to 11 months)  infants show a strong attachment and preference for one specific individual. They will protest when separated from the primary attachment figure (separation anxiety), and begin to display anxiety around strangers (stranger anxiety).
• Multiple Attachments : (9 months of age)  children begin to form strong emotional bonds with other caregivers beyond the primary attachment figure. This often includes a second parent, older siblings, and grandparents.

Illness and Injury are the factors that are intertwined with the health of a child and depend on environmental factors such as proper nutrition and care provided to the child during childhood.

Key Points

• Parental smoking is an important preventable cause of childhood illness and death. Smoking exposes the growing child to harmful smoke which impacts the child's health negatively.
• A higher socioeconomic status provides the child with better health facilities that result in fewer chances of illness and injuries to the children.
• Also, the prenatal environment plays an important role in the health of the child as it is the stage when the child is developed from a single to a complete human. Thus it is advised to take special care during the pre-natal stage.

Hence only  I tell the reason for illness and injury during childhood. Option 4 is the correct solution.

Cognitive development involves areas such as problem-solving, moral understanding, and conceptual understanding; language acquisition; social, personality, and emotional development, and self-concept and identity formation.

Jean Piaget studied cognitive development among children of different age groups in different developmental stages, According to Piaget, development is based on Physical environment and Biological abilities, he ignores social Aspects. he categorized it into different developmental stages. These stages are-

• Sensory-motor stage (0 to 2 years)
• Pre-operational stage (2 to 6 years)
• Concrete operational stage (6 to 11 years)
• Formal Operational stage (11+ years to adolescence).​

Key PointsStages of cognitive development 

 Piaget concerned the cognitive development in terms of stages. Piaget’s stages are age-specific and marked by important characteristics of thought processes. The stages are:

Thus by all these references, we can consider that the preoperational stage is from 2 to 7 years and early childhood also starts from 2 years and ends at 6-7 years. So the pre-operational stage is equivalent to early childhood.

Cognitive processes include mental processes such as thinking, knowing, remembering, judging, and problem-solving. 

According to Piaget, children progress from a series of stages accompanied by different developmental changes in the cognitive processes.

Key Points

• Understanding of cause and effect - Children understand that events have causes.
• Conservation - It is the ability to deal with different dimensions of quantities.
• Decentration - the ability to pay attention to multiple attributes of an object or situation rather than being locked into attending to only a single attribute.
• Empathy is not a cognitive process, rather it is an emotional concept that refers to the ability to understand others' feelings and emotions.

Hence Only I am correctly matched with its importance. Hence option 4 is the correct answer.

Important Points Piaget's stages are:

• Sensorimotor stage: Birth to 2 years -  The infant learns about the world through their senses and through their actions moving around and exploring their environment.
• Preoperational stage: Ages 2 to 7 - During this stage, young children can think about things symbolically such as a word or an object. A child’s thinking is dominated by how the world looks, not how the world is.
• Concrete operational stage: Ages 7 to 11 - During this stage, children begin to think logically about concrete events. Children begin to understand the concept of conservation; understanding that, although things may change in appearance, certain properties remain the same.
• Formal operational stage: Ages 12 and up - During this stage, adolescents can deal with abstract ideas and can deal with hypothetical problems with many possible solutions.

After conception, begins a period of dramatic change known as the embryonic stage that runs from the 5th through the 10th week of pregnancy. During this stage, the heart begins to beat and organs form and begin to function. 

Key Points

• It is the second stage of Pre-Natal Development.
• It is followed by the development and functioning of the different organs of the body.
• It is a most critical period and is the period of danger for German measles (rubella).
• The process of prenatal development occurs in three main stages.
• Germinal stage: The first two weeks after conception are known as the germinal stage.
• Embryonic period: the third through the eighth week is known as the embryonic period, and
• Fetal period: the time from the ninth week until birth is known as the fetal period.

​Hence only  II is correct about the embryonic stage. Option 2 is the correct answer.

Important Points

The Embryonic Stage has the following features : 

• It Starts in the second week after fertilization.
• During this stage, the embryo starts to develop distinct cell layers, form the nervous system, make blood cells, and form many organs.
• By the end of the embryonic stage, most organs have started to form, although they will continue to develop and grow in the next stage.

The basic physical condition of a newborn baby is assessed through a Test called the Apgar test to check a baby's heart rate, muscle tone, and other signs to see if extra medical care or emergency care is needed.

Key Points

In the test, five things are used to check a baby's health. These are:

• Appearance (skin color)
• Pulse (heart rate)
• Grimace response (reflexes)
• Activity (muscle tone)
• Respiration (breathing rate and effort)

 Hence, we can conclude that option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• The Brazelton Scale assesses the quality of the baby's tone, activity level, and reflexes.
• The ordinal scale reports the ranking and ordering of the data without actually establishing the degree of variation between them.
• A nominal scale is a measurement scale, in which numbers serve as “tags” or “labels” only, to identify or classify an object.

Developmental psychology is a scientific approach that aims to explain growth, change, and consistency throughout the lifespan of an individual. It includes thinking, feeling, and behavior change throughout a person’s life.

Key Points

• It studies a wide range of theoretical areas, such as biological, social, emotional, and cognitive processes.
• It consists of empirical studies obtained through Longitudinal and Cross-sectional studies.
• Longitudinal study - Its research design explores changes in similar individuals over a specific period of time.
• Cross-sectional studies - Its research design is to study individuals of different ages at the same time.
• The goals of developmental psychology are to describe, explain, and optimize development.​

Hence Both I and II are correctly matched with reference to developmental psychology.

Important Points Features of longitudinal vs cross-sectional studies:

Double-earner couples are those in which both partners contribute to the financial support of their household through their work outside the home. 

Key Points A dual-earner family has a number of benefits:

• It acts as another source of income and increases the economic status of the family.
• It makes women more independent.
• It reduces the pressure on men to be a provider.
• It leads to the financial independence of both the male and female individuals in a relationship, thus reducing exploitation that takes place due to financial dependence.
• It empowers women.

​Hence I, II, and III are the benefits of double-earner families.

A pattern of Love refers to a limiting belief in love that you unconsciously feel “as true” love. It originates in your childhood, in the way you received love from your parents, but also in the way you felt your parents’ partnership model.

Key Points

• Psychologist Robert Sternberg's theory describes types of love based on three different scales: intimacy, passion, and commitment.
• Intimacy: It involves feelings of closeness, connectedness, and bondedness.
• Passion: It involves feelings and desires that lead to physical attraction, romance, and sexual consummation.
• Decision/commitment: It involves feelings that lead a person to remain with someone and move toward shared goals.
• There are seven types of love according to Robert Sternberg:
• Friendship - Components: Liking
• Infatuation - Components: Passion
• Empty Love -Components: Commitment
• Romantic Love - Components: Intimacy and Passion
• Companionate Love - Components: Liking and Intimacy
• Fatuous Love - Components: Commitment and Passion
• Consummate Love -Components: Intimacy, Passion, and Commitment.

​Hence Only II is correct. Option 4 is the correct answer.

Marriage is one of the universal social institutions established and nourished by human society connected to the institution of the family.

According to Gillin and Gillin, "Marriage is a socially approved way of establishing a family of procreation."

Key Points

The main types of marriages are:

• Polygamy -It is a form of marriage in which one man married more than one woman at a given time.
• Polyandry- Polyandry is the marriage of one woman to several men.
• Monogamy -Monogamy is a form of marriage in which one man marries a woman. It is the most common form of marriage found in societies around the world.​

Hence Only III is correct about marriage. Option 2 is the correct answer.

Gardner's Multiple Intelligence Theory challenged the notion of intelligence as a single entity with eight categories of intelligence.

Key Points

• Visual-Spatial Intelligence- people with strong visual-spatial intelligence are able to work with or manipulate objects, lines, angles, materials, and more.
• Verbal-Linguistic Intelligence - People with verbal-linguistic intelligence are inclined to understand languages, grammatical structures, and speech patterns.
• Logical-mathematical intelligence: It refers to the strong ability to solve problems with logical steps, equations, and/or critical thought.
• Musical intelligence It means that an individual understands pitch, rhythm, tone, patterns, and composition.
• Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence refers to one's ability to use his or her body to accomplish physical feats, create products, or express ideas/emotions.
• Interpersonal - individuals with high interpersonal intelligence are characterised by their sensitivity to others' moods, feelings, temperaments, motivations, and ability to cooperate.
• Intrapersonal  - This refers to having a deep understanding of the self; what one's strengths or weaknesses are, what makes one unique, and being able to predict one's own reactions or emotions.
• Naturalistic- the individual who is readily able to recognize flora and fauna, make other consequential distinctions in the natural world, and use this ability productively.

Hence I and II are correctly matched. Option 3 is the correct answer.

Yarrow, Rubenstein, and Pedersen in the book Infant and environment: early cognitive and motivational development emphasizes the behavioral differences between parents with their young male child and with a young female child.

Key Points

• Boys received more varied and more intense stimuli.
• Girls experienced greater compatibility and stability in interactions with caregivers.​
• The book Infant and the environment by Yarrow, Rubenstein, and Pedersen represent a relatively new trend in the field of research in infant development.
• They depart from traditional approaches in significant ways, and pioneer directions in the study of the influences of the environment upon infants and in the modes of assessing these influences.
• It demonstrates methodologies that may have broad application, but, as yet, are short on major substantive findings regarding infant development.
• Yarrow presents the relationship between the environment and psychological functioning in a group of 41 six-month-old infants to devise a reliable and theoretically-based instrument for the assessment of psychological development in children.
• It represents important advances in the methodology of child behavior and development.

 Hence neither  I nor II is correct. Option 3 is the correct answer

Lawrence Kohlberg contends that children's ideas about gender development are in a stage-like manner. 

Key Points

Kohlberg identified three stages in gender development.

 

• Gender Identity - It develops at about 2 years of age. It is when the child recognizes they are male or female and other people are as well.​
• Gender Stability - This stage happens at about 4 years of age. It denotes the child now understands that their gender is fixed and will be male/female when they're older.
• Gender Constancy-

 This happens between 5 and 7 years and is the stage when the child understands that cosmetic changes will not alter sex. For example, a girl wearing jeans is still female.​

​Hence, we can conclude that option 1 is the correct answer.

Fetal anomalies refer to unusual or unexpected conditions in a baby’s development during pregnancy also known as congenital anomalies or birth defects.

Key Points

• Fetal Alcohol Syndrome - It is a pattern of physical and mental abnormalities found in infants due to excessive drinking of the mother during pregnancy.
• Duplication Syndrome: It is a condition that can cause a variety of neurological and behavioral problems as well as other abnormalities.
• Agenesis Syndrome: It is a birth defect in the brain in which a bundle of nerves connecting the left and right sides of the brain, is either missing or partially missing.
• Chiasmal Syndrome: It causes an optic neuropathy that may be associated with reversible visual loss often immediately following surgical decompression.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Important Points

There are two general categories of fetal anomalies:

• Structural anomalies: These affect the developing baby’s body parts, such as its heart, lungs, kidneys, limbs, or facial features. Heart defects, missing toes, cleft lip, and spina bifida are examples of structural birth defects.
• Functional anomalies: These affect how a body part or body system works, such as the brain, nervous system, or sensory perception. Examples: seizures, blindness, developmental disabilities, muscular dystrophy, and Down syndrome.

Some fetal abnormalities may affect both the baby’s structure and function.

Moral Development means learning to spot differences between right and wrong, proper and improper. It is a theory that focuses on how children develop morality and moral reasoning.

Key Points

• It emphasizes ethical as well as sociocultural issues.
• If a person is acting ethically, they are acting morally and with good intentions.
• The consequences of those actions are generally positive; however, if a person acts unethically, they can cause severe problems that affect society.
• For example, an unethical action could be lying to someone or doing something illegal for personal gain. In these cases, there are often negative consequences for both parties involved.
• Socio-traditional issues - deals with uniformity in the regulation of social conduct.

Hence, we can conclude that option II is correct.

<br>

Important PointsKohlberg's theory consists of six stages of Moral Development:

• Level 1. Preconventional Morality
• ​Stage 1 (Obedience and Punishment)- People at this stage see rules as fixed and absolute.
• Stage 2 (Individualism and Exchange)- children account for individual points of view and judge actions based on how they serve individual needs.
• Level 2. Conventional Morality
• ​Stage 3 (Developing Good Interpersonal Relationships): Often referred to as the "good boy-good girl" orientation, this stage of the interpersonal relationship of moral development is focused on living up to social expectations and roles.
• Stage 4 (Maintaining Social Order): This stage is focused on ensuring that social order is maintained.
• Level 3. Postconventional Morality
• ​Stage 5 (Social Contract and Individual Rights): The ideas of a social contract and individual rights cause people in the next stage to begin to account for the differing values, opinions, and beliefs of other people.
• Stage 6 (Universal Principles): Kohlberg’s final level of moral reasoning is based on universal ethical principles and abstract reasoning.

According to Piaget, reasoning ability refers to the ability of an individual to understand and logically work through concepts and problems expressed in words.

Key Points

• Deductive reasoning: is a basic form of reasoning that starts out with a general statement, or hypothesis, and examines the possibilities to reach a specific, logical conclusion.
• It is developed at the formal operations stage.
• It goes from general to specific.
• It begins with a theory, supports it with observation, and eventually arrives at a confirmation
• ​Inductive reasoning: It involves forming general theories from specific observations.
• It is used by children in the concrete operational stage.
• Observing something happen repeatedly and concluding that it will happen again, in the same way, is an example of inductive reasoning.
• Also referred to as “cause-and-effect reasoning".​

Hence, we can conclude that Both I and II are correct.

Additional Information

• ​According to Piaget- until around age 6, children lack a clear understanding of how two things with different outward appearances might actually be the same.
• Younger children tend to focus on only one feature of a problem at a time called centration.
• Children tend to have a single perspective of objects and situations called egocentrism.

A disorder is a disturbance in physical or mental health or functions. It may be caused by genetic factors, disease, or trauma.

Key Points Different disorders include :

• Autism-It involves a profound failure in social, linguistic, and imaginative development. Signs of autism are:​
• not responding to their name.
• avoiding eye contact.
• not smiling when you smile at them.
• getting very upset if they do not like a certain taste, smell, or sound.
• repetitive movements, such as flapping their hands, flicking their fingers, or rocking their body.
• Psychosis- It includes disruptive thoughts and perceptions such as delusions (false beliefs) and hallucinations (seeing or hearing things that others do not see or hear).
• Anxiety Disorder- It includes a cluster of mental disorders characterized by significant and uncontrollable feelings of anxiety and fear.
• Bipolar Disorder - It causes extreme mood swings that include emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows (depression).

Hence, we can conclude that option 2 is the correct answer.

Babies are born with facial and object recognition skills that sharpen over the course of several months.

Key Points

With reference to smiling and social recognition :

• Babies smile at voices, especially the familiar voice of their mother, from week 6 onwards.
• The view of the ethologist, Ahrens, suggests that smiles in infants begin with the eyes as a "releasing stimulus".
• Babies born blind will smile at the touch or voice of their mother.
• Studies have shown that even newborns, with their eyesight limited to about 12 inches, prefer to look at familiar faces.

Hence I, II, and III are correct. Option 3 is the correct answer.