DSSSB DOE PRT 7 March 2022 shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Let's solve this question with the help of venn diagram

<br>

The coloured portion shows the number of teachers that are students also.

Hence, the total number of teachers that are students also

= 48 + 12 = 60

Hence, the correct answer is 60.

We have to make venn diagram of given question

 

Conclusion I :- All Q are N.❌

Here some Q are N.

Hence, this statement is wrong.

Conclusion II :- Some P are not Q.❌

This is indefinite conclusion, as some P are Q. It may possible but not definite.

Hence, this statement is wrong.

Hence, the correct answer is None of the conclusions follows.

Let's find out the trick over here :-

Trick = Sum of first three numbers of row + 1 = fourth number of that row.

Let's apply this trick in the question

In row1:- 5 + 14 + 25 + 1 = 45

row2:-  8 + 19 + 11 + 1 = 39

row3:- 12 + 21 + 41 + 1 = 75

Hence, the correct answer is 75.

Let's solve this question step by step

Step I:- Point P is 80m north of point Q. 

 

Step II:- Point R is 100m east of point Q.

 

Step III:- Point S is 120m north of point R.

 

Step IV:-  Point S is 120m east of point T.

 

 

 

Step V:-  Point V is 60m south of point T.

 

Now, let's calculate the distance between Point P and Point V:-

 

By using pythagoras theorem:-

20² + 20² = (PV)²

20√2 = PV

Hence, the correct answer is 20√2 m, North-East.

We see that the figure changes their place as well as Alphabets also changes their places.

 

Let's apply same trick with second diagram

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Seven lectures L1, L2, L3, L4, L5, L6, and L7 are given on seven different days (not necessarily in the same order) in the same week from Monday to Sunday. No two lectures are given on the same day.

Three lectures are given between L1 and L2.

L1 is given before L2. 

L6 is given on Friday. 

 L4 is given after L6.

Two lectures are given between L5 and L6. 

L3 is given before L7. 

I. L7 Said on Thursday. (Correct)

II. Three lectures were said between L2 and L5. (False)

The correct answer is option 4

I. The number of children who are neither men nor women is 85.

(True) as per the Venn diagram

​

II. The total number of women is 311. 

= 128 + 78 + 71 + 24

= 301

So, the correct answer is option 3

I. Some P are T.

II. Some T are S.

 

III. No J is P.

After combining the all,

I. Some S are not J. - Does not follow because no direct relation between S and J

II. Some T are not J. - Follow because Some T is P and All P are not T so its hold true

III. Some J are not T. - Does not follow because no direct relation between them.

So, the correct answer is option II i.e. Some T are not J

Trick = (First letter + 6) (Second letter + 6) (Third letter - 6)

We saw that in last term we have to add 7 to get A but according to trick we have to add 6.

Hence, the wrong term is  IAP.

According to the dictionary-

1. Wailer (3)
2. Wader (1)
3. Waking (4)
4. Waling (5)
5. Waggon (2)

After the rearrangement -

 Wader , Waggon, Wailer, Waking, Waling

So, the correct answer is option 4 i.e. 25134

As per give,

Two persons sit between B and G. D sits third to the right of B. B sits 3rd to the right of G. So here we  get 1 possible case.

 

A sits second to the left of E. C is the neighbor of G. From these conditions we get that C sits immediate right of G and E sits just left of D. 

 

Now only F remains who sits just right of B. So, the final solution is- 

 

I. F sits immediate left of D. (True)

II. Two persons sit between G and E. **(**True)

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Both I and II

Logic: Letter replaced with its place value and then add all the digits within the number after that resultant value is multiply by 2.

IT (9 + 20) × 2 = 58

SAD (19 + 1 + 4) × 2 = 48

FISH (6 + 9 + 19 + 8) × 2 = 84

So, the correct answer is option 4 i.e. 84

Car : Garage :: Clothes : Almirah

Logic: We can park a car in the garage and also we can put clothes in Almirah.

So, the correct answer is option 3 i.e. Almirah

A is father of B.

B is sister of C.

 

C is sister of D.

 

D is the son of E.

 

After combining all we get,

 

So, there are three women.

Pattern followed here:

Now, here X = 199 + (6²+1) = 236

Hence, the correct answer is 236 .

A person starts walking from a point towards South. After walking 100 metres,

he takes a left turn and walks 60 metres.

  

Finally he takes a left turn and walks 20 metres. 

 

By using Pythagoras theorem  

Shortest distance between starting and ending point is 100m

Hence, the correct answer is 100m.

1, 3, 5, 9, 21, 37, ?

Logic: first multiple with 1 and then add 2 to the previous resultant after that multiply with 3 and add 4 and so on.

So, the correct answer is option 1 i.e. 117

Logic:

The same logic follows in only option 1

So, the correct answer is option 1 i.e. ZQC: WME

The logic followed here is:

The opposite surface of the open dice can be found by the below method:-

• Alternate surfaces are opposite to each other.
• No two opposite surfaces are touched by side or by corners

So, by using the above rule we can find the opposite surface of open dice.

In the given figure, Opposite faces are :

∴ Here, the opposite face of '$' is '∑'.

Hence, the correct answer is "∑".

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Odisha is an Indian state located in eastern India.
• The Barbil city of Odisha is famous for the deposition of the manganese ore
• Barbil city has one of the largest deposits of iron ore and manganese ore in the world.
• The famous manganese mines in Odisha are located at Sambalpur, Rayagada, and Sundergarh.
• The old name of Odisha was Kalinga.
• Orissa and Utkalam are also the old names of Odisha.
• Bhubaneswar is the capital of Odisha
• The famous Kalinga battle in BC 261 took place in Odisha.
• Odisha is the largest producer of Manganese in India.
• Paradip is the major seaport od Odisha.
• The longest dam in India Hirakud Dam s located in Odisha.
• Rourkela is the industrial capital of Odisha.
• Jharkhand is the largest coal-producing state in India.
• Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state in India.
• Gujarat is the largest cotton-producing state in India.

The correct answer is Tughlaq Dynasty.

Key Points

• Tughlaq Dynasty ruled Delhi immediately after the Khilji dynasty.
• The Tughlaq dynasty:
• It ruled the Delhi throne from 1320 to 1414.
• Three competent rulers arose in this period i.e. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, Muhammad bin Tughlaq, and Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
• Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq dies because of the breaking of a wooden ramp in 1325 AD.
• The real name of Muhammad bin Tughlaq was Jauna Khan.
• Muhammad bin Tughlaq died in thatta while campaigning in Sindh against Taghi, a Turkish slave.

Additional Information

• Khilji dynasty:
• It was started by Jalaluddin Khilji in 1290 by slaughtering Shamsuddin Qumars who was the last ruler of the Slave dynasty.
• He was also executed by Allauddin Khilji in 1296 ad who was his nephew and son-in-law.
• Lodi dynasty:
• The first ruler of the Lodi dynasty was Bahlol Lodi (1451-1489).
• The Sultanate period ended with the Ibrahim Lodi who lost to Babar in the first battle of Panipat fought in 1526 AD.
• Sayyid dynasty:
• Khijra Khan founded the Saiyyad dynasty by removing Mahmoud Tughlaq in 1414 AD.
• He reigned from 1414 to 1421 AD.
• Allauddin Shah was the last ruler of this clan, he died in Badaun in 1478 AD.
• Rajput Dynasty:
• The first major Rajput kingdom was the Sisodia-ruled kingdom of Mewar.
• In 1518 the Rajput Mewar Kingdom under Rana Sanga achieved a major victory over Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi of the Delhi Sultanate.
• In the 18th century, the Rajputs came under the influence of the Maratha empire.
• By the late 18th century, the Rajput rulers begin negotiating with the East India Company, and by 1818 all the Rajput states had formed an alliance with the company.

The correct answer is 3.27.

Key Points

• In India, the revenue deficit was 3.27 percent of GDP in the financial year 2019-20.
• Revenue Deficit is defined as the difference between the revenue receipts and the
  

revenue expenditure of the government in a financial year.

• A positive revenue deficit implies that the revenue generated is not sufficient to service the needs of the government functioning.
• Therefore, the government has to borrow and also sell its assets to meet the expenses.

Additional Information

• A fiscal deficit:
• A fiscal deficit is a difference between the income and expenditure of the Government.
• 3.3% of GDP was the estimation for the fiscal deficit in the financial year 2019- 20.
• One of the key sources to bridge the deficit is borrowing.
• Reasons for the higher deficit include a fall in the nominal GDP growth rate to 7.2 per cent and a decline in not only tax but also non-tax revenue.
• As a result, the fiscal deficit was over ₹9.35-lakh crore against the revised Budget estimate of *7.66-lakh crore.
• A higher deficit also reflects much lower revenue from disinvestment and spectrum.
• At the same time cut in corporate tax, mid-year has an impact of over 1.45 lakh crore.

In News

• Presenting the annual budget in February, Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman announced the fiscal deficit target of 6.4 per cent of the GDP for the current financial year 2022-23, compared with 6.7 per cent in the previous fiscal.
• Presenting the annual budget in February, Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman announced the fiscal deficit target at 6.4 per cent of the GDP for the current financial year 2022-23, compared with 6.7 per cent in the previous fiscal.
• In FY22, the Centre is reined in the fiscal deficit at 6.7% of GDP.

The correct answer is Piyush Goyal.

Key Points

• Trade Minister Piyush Goyal has been appointed as India's Sherpa for the G20 meet.
• The next G20 Summit is scheduled for 30-31 October 2021 under the Italian Presidency.
• India has been a member of the G20 since its inception in 1999.
• India will be holding the G20 Presidency from 1 December 2022 and will convene the G20 Leaders' Summit in 2023 for the first time.
• India will be part of the G20 Troika (preceding, current, and incoming G20
  

Presidencies) from 1 December 2021 till 30 November 2024.

Additional Information

• The G20:
• It is a major international grouping that brings together 19 of the world's major economies and the European Union.
• The 19 countries are:
• Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, Germany, France, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu is the first state in India to make it necessary to build rooftop rainwater harvesting structures in every house.
• The rooftop rainwater harvesting structure is the part of the technique through which rainwater is captured from the roof catchments and stored in reservoirs.
• The act of collecting, diverting, and storing water from rain events for later reuse is called rainwater harvesting.
• Tamil Nadu was the first state in India that launched rooftop rainwater harvesting and made it compulsory for every building to avoid groundwater depletion.
• The rooftop rainwater harvesting model of the Tamil Nadu government gave an excellent result within five years and led to a 50% rise in water level in five years in Chennai.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Kathakali:
• Kathakali took shape in Kerala in southern India in the seventeenth century under the patronage of the prince of Karnataka, who wrote plays for performances drawn from the epic Ramayana in Malayalam, the language of the region.
• Kathakali is traditionally performed by boys and men, even for female roles.
• The costumes and makeup are especially elaborate, with faces made to look like
  

painted masks and enormous headdresses.

• Kathak:
• Kathak is the principal dance of northern India.
• It is widely practised in Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh, and even parts of western and eastern India today.
• Thus, we can conclude that Kathakali is a classical dance form from the State of Kerala. Hence option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is Article 239.

Key Points

• Part-8 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Territory.
• The Union Territory of India is described between articles 239 to 242 in our constitution.
• There were 9 union territories in India but from 26th January 2020, Dadra and Nager Haveli and Daman and Diu are to be combined into a single territory, thus resulting in 8 Union Territories in India now.
• The 8 Union territories of India include Delhi, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Chandigarh, Andaman, and the Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
• Out of the 8 union territories in India, Delhi, Puducherry (formerly Pondicherry) and Jammu & Kashmir have their legislatures.
• Union Territories are special administrative sectors in the republic of India which operate directly by the central government. Each territory has a capital. The territories are governed by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government of India.
• India's smallest Union Territory is Lakshadweep.

Additional Information

• Parts of the Indian Constitution -

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Marketed Surplus:
• In accordance with the goal of the state controlling the commanding heights of the economy, the Industrial policy resolution of 1956 was adopted. Hence option 2 is correct.
• In agriculture, marketable surplus represents the surplus of a harvest that can be sold for profit after a farmer sells their crop to cover the costs of maintaining and operating their farm. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The farmer has set expenses, including maintenance on machinery, labour costs, fertilizer, and mortgage payment on their land.
• For any farmer, there are many expenses that they incur while producing the product like the cost of inputs, any technical facilities employed for production, etc.
• These costs need to recover by the farmers by selling off their inputs to the market.
• Thus, the marketable surplus is just the portion of the surplus that is available for selling to the ultimate customers.
• Most of the farmers do not have the inputs to produce in excess of the household use that can be sold in the market.
• Hence, in such a case marketable surplus is almost nil for low-income earning areas. Since the agricultural industry can be wildly unpredictable and is most susceptible to weather upsets, this surplus can be quickly eaten up by the costs of unusual or unexpected damage to the farmland.

Important Points

• Highlights of IPR 1956:
• In order to initiate a new industry or expand existing capacity, private entrepreneurs were supposed to obtain licenses from the government.
• Licensing, imposition of the tax, tax exemptions, and subsidies were used by the government:
• to regulate private industries.
• bring about a reduction in regional disparities in industrial development.
• to keep a check on the production of goods that are socially undesirable.

The correct answer is - Rajaraja I

Key Points

• Rajaraja I
• Rajaraja I (985–1014 CE) was a remarkable ruler and the architect of the Chola Empire's golden age.
• He strengthened the Chola naval power, making the empire a dominant maritime force in South Asia.
• Under his reign, the Cholas began expansive territorial conquests, including parts of Sri Lanka and the Maldives.
• Rajaraja I constructed the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur, showcasing the architectural brilliance of the Chola period.
• He also organized an efficient administrative system and ensured cultural and economic prosperity during his rule.

Additional Information

• Rajendra I
• Rajendra I, the son of Rajaraja I, succeeded him and extended the Chola Empire further.
• He conducted the Gangaikonda Chola campaign and founded the capital Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
• Rajendra I is also renowned for his naval expeditions to Southeast Asia.
• Dantidurga
• Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty and not associated with the Cholas.
• He is known for establishing Rashtrakuta control in the Deccan region during the 8th century CE.
• Vijayalaya
• Vijayalaya Chola founded the Chola dynasty in the 9th century CE.
• He captured Tanjore and laid the foundation for the later expansion of the Chola Empire.

The correct answer is PV Sindhu.

Key Points 

• PV Sindhu is an Indian badminton player.
• She was born on 5th July 1995 in Hyderabad.
• She has received the Arjuna Award (2013), Major Dhayan Chand Khel Ratna (2016), Padma Shri (2015), and Padma Bhushan (2020).
• She has won the bronze medal in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics and the silver medal in the 2016 Rio Olympics.

Additional Information n

• Summer Olympic
• It is also known as the Games of the Olympiad.
• It was managed and run by International Olympic Committee (IOC) which was founded by Baron Pierre de Coubertin
• The first Summer Olympics was held in Athens in 1896.
• ​Sakshi Malik is an Indian freestyle wrestler and She won the bronze medal (58 categories) at the Rio 2016 Olympics.
• MIthali Raj is an Indian Cricket player.
• ​Deepika Kumari is an Indian Archer player.

The correct answer is 31 May.

Key Points 

• World No Tobacco Day is celebrated every year on May 31.
• The theme for World No Tobacco Day 2021 is "Commit to Quit".
• This 2022 year, the World No Tobacco Day theme is "Protect the environment".
• In 1988, World Health Assembly passed resolution WHA42.19 calling for the celebration of World No Tobacco Day, every year on May 31.
• As per WHO, over 8 million people die every year due to tobacco use.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key PointsAnalysis of the Statements:

• Statement I: Laterite soil is useful for growing tea and coffee.
• Laterite soil is rich in iron and aluminum, formed in wet and hot tropical areas. It has good drainage, which makes it suitable for certain crops like tea and coffee that require heavy rainfall conditions with good drainage ability.
• Hence, statement I is correct.
• Statement II: Laterite soils are formed in areas of high temperature and heavy rainfall.
• Laterite soils are indeed formed in regions with high temperatures and heavy rainfall. The extensive leaching due to heavy rains removes much of the silica, leaving behind iron and aluminum oxides.
• Hence, statement II is correct.

Additional Information

• Formation:
• Laterite soil formation is highly specific to the climate and requires heavy rainfall to promote leaching and warm temperatures to accelerate weathering.
• Usage:
• Apart from tea and coffee, laterite soil can also support crops such as cashews, rubber, and coconut under the right conditions.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Atomicity:
• The present number of atoms in any molecule of an element is called its atomicity.
• For example, Nitrogen is Diatomic, Sulphur is Polyatomic, oxygen is diatomic & helium is monoatomic. Hence both statements are correct.
• Types of Atomicity:
• Monoatomic:
• When an element consists of a single atom.
• Example - all kinds of metals in nature.
• Diatomic:
• The element consists of two atoms.
• Example - all types of gases.
• Triatomic:
• The element consists of three atoms.
• Tetra-atomic:
• The element consists of four atoms.
• Poly-atomic:
• The element consists of more than two atoms.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points 

• The Aga Khan Palace was built by Sultan Muhammed Shah Aga Khan III in the city of Pune, Maharashtra in 1892.
• The palace was an act of charity by the spiritual leader of the Nizari Ismaili Muslims, who wanted to help the poor in the neighbouring areas of Pune, who were drastically hit by famine.

Additional Information 

• Sir Sultan Mahomed Shah, Aga Khan III was the 48th Imam of the Nizari Ismaili sect of Islam.
• He played a very important role in giving the Muslims a political stance to express their opinions to the British.
• In 1906, the Aga Khan was a founding member and first president of the All India Muslim League.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Composting:
• It is one of the options for the treatment of solid waste.
• In the composting process, the organic matter breaks down under bacterial action resulting in the formation of humus-like material called compost. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Vermicomposting:
• It is the scientific method of making compost, by using earthworms.
• They are commonly found living in soil, feeding on biomass and excreting it in a digested form.
• Vermicast, similarly known as worm castings, worm humus, or worm manure, is the end-product of the breakdown of organic matter by a species of earthworm.  Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is an excellent, nutrient-rich organic fertilizer and soil conditioner.
• It improved the physical makeup of the upper layers of soil and enriches the soil with micro-organisms (adding enzymes that help to use complex matters such as phosphate and cellulose).
• The microbial activity in worm castings is 10 to 20 times higher than in the soil and organic matter that the worm ingests.
• It also attracts deep-burrowing earthworms already present in the soil and the mucus present in vermicast improves water-holding capacity.
• It enhances germination, plant growth, and crop yield and improves root growth and structure.
• It enriches the soil with microorganisms (adding plant hormones such as auxins and gibberellic acid).

The correct answer is Article 53.

Key Points

Additional Information

• Union Executive (Article 52-78)
• The union executive of Indian polity is a part of the political executive, that comprises three important posts:
• President (Article 52-62)
• Prime Minister & Council of Ministers (Article 74-75 & Article 78)
• Attorney-General of India (Article 76)
• State Executive (Article 153-167)
• The state executive of Indian Polity is also a part of the political executive that comprises three important posts:
• Governor (Article 153-161)
• Chief Minister & Council of Ministers (Article 164-167)
• Advocate-General of State (Article 165 and 177)

The correct answer is Lysosomes.

Key Points

• Lysosomes are a kind of waste disposal system of the cell.
• They help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign materials as well as worn-out cell organelles.

Important Points 

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The Kandariya Mahadeva temple:
• It is dedicated to Lord Shiva and was constructed in c.999 CE by king Dhangadeva of the Chandela dynasty. Hence option 1 is correct.
• King Dhangadeva of the Chandela dynasty built the Shiva-dedicated Kandariya Mahadeva temple in 999.
• An elaborate gateway at the temple's entrance was decorated.
• Its maha mandapa main hall was where dance performances took place.
• An Indian dynasty in Central India was known as the Chandelas of Jejakabhukti.
• Between the 9th the 13th centuries, the Chandelas dominated a large portion of the Bundelkhand region. They belonged to the Rajput Chandel clan.
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas of Kanyakubja were the earliest feudatories of the Chandelas.
• Raja Rajeshwara Temple:
• Inscriptions are mostly found in the southern parts of India and were also an important feature of Raja Rajeshwara Temple also known as Brihadishwara temple.
• Brihadeshwara Temple, also known as Raja Rajeswara Temple, was one of the tallest temples of its time and is dedicated to Shiva and is located in Thanjavur (Tamil Nadu) and was an outstanding example of Dravidian Culture. Hence option 2 is correct.
• This temple has also got recognition as a UNESCO World Heritage site.
• They give a lot of information such as that in the case of the above temple many inscriptions in Tamil and Sanskrit language give the introduction of the king.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• Each team consists of 12 players, but during a contest, only 9 players from each side take the field.
• In a match, there are two innings. In an innings, each team gets seven minutes for chasing and seven minutes for defending.
• Kho Kho was started in the state of Maharashtra.
• The game is popular in Marathi-speaking people.
• The Asian Kho Kho federation first came into existence in 1987 at the time of the third South Asian Federation Games held in Calcutta.
• The game gained international credit with the First Asian Kho Kho championship was held in Kolkata in 1996.
• Other games and number of players-

The correct answer is Raghuram Rajan.

Key Points

• I do what I Do is a non-fiction book authored by Raghuram Rajan.
• Mr. Rajan is an economist and former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• This book is published by Harper Collins India in 2017.
• The book is a collection of speeches delivered by Rajan during his tenure as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India along with his views on the economic and political context prevalent at that time.
• The book was released on September 5, 2017.
• It became one of the best-selling books of that time.

Additional Information 

• Pranab Mukherjee's Books
• The Coalition Years
• The Turbulent Years: 1980 - 1996
• Urjit Patel's Book
• Overdraft: Saving the Indian Saver
• Jagdish Prakas's Book
• A Tempest in Silence
• ​Salman Rushdie Book:
• The Golden House (Novel)
• The Ground Beneath Her Feet
• Imaginary Homelands: Essays, Midnight's Children
• The Moor's Last Sigh.
• ​Shashi Tharoor
• The Paradoxical Prime Minister
• Why I Am a Hindu
• An Era of Darkness: The British Empire in India
• The Great Indian Novel

Given:

m/19 = 37   [m = sum of 19 numbers]

(m + 19B)/19 = 59

Solution:

m = 37 x 19 = 703

m + 19B = 19 x 59 = 1121

19B = 1121 - 703 = 418

B = 418/19 = 22

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Given:

Speed 1 = 18km/h = 5m/sec

Speed 2 = 72km/h = 20m/sec

Formula used:

Hypotenuse² = side₁² + side₂² 

Solution:

Distance travelled in 6 seconds 

side₁ = 5 x 6 = 30m

side₂ = 20 x 6 = 120m

Distance between them =$\sqrt{30^2 + 120^2} = \sqrt{900 + 14400} = \sqrt{15300} = 30\sqrt17$m

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Given:

A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 6

Solution:

Let,

A = 2m

B = 3m

C = 6m

m = constant

A/B = 2/3

B/C = 3/6

C/A = 6/2

LCM(2, 3, 6) = 6

(A/B) : (B/C) : (C/A) = 4 : 3 : 18

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Concept used:

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.

Solution:

Numbers from 1 to 200 divisible by 9 = 

9 x 1 = 9  ...  9 x 22 = 198

Hence, a total of 22 numbers are divisible by 9 between 1 and 200.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Alternate Method Formula used:

T_n = a + (n -1)d

Calculation:

The numbers are 9, 28, 27, ......198

a = 9, d = 9, T_n =  198

Using the above formula 

198 = 9 + 9(n -1)

n -1 = 21 = n = 22

Given:

Time = 15 years

SI = 180% of Principle

Formula used:

SI = (P x R x T) /100

here, 

A = Amount

SI = Simple Interest

P = Principle

R = Rate

T = Time

Solution:

1.8P = 15PR/100

R = 180/15 

R = 12%

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Given:

Rishabh can complete 4/5 work in 16 days.

Rani is twice as efficient as Rishabh.

Solution:

Rishabh can complete work in 16 x 5/4 = 20 days

Rani can complete the same work in 20/2 = 10 days

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Given:

15% of (m + n) = 65% of (m - n)

Solution:

⇒ 0.15(m + n) = 0.65(m - n)

⇒ 0.15m + 0.15n = 0.65m - 0.65n

⇒ -0.5m = -0.8n

m = 8/5 n

⇒ 8/5 x 100 = 160%

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Given:

A = 60kg

B = 80kg

A = Zinc : Copper = 7 : 5

B = Zinc : Copper = 3 : 7

Solution:

Zinc in A = 60 x 7/12  = 35kg

Zinc in B = 80 x 3/10 = 24kg

Zinc in new alloy = 35 + 24 = 59kg

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Shortcut Trick

A square has 4 equal sides, making its perimeter equal to 4 × side.

The difference between the perimeter and one side is exactly 3 × side.

Given this difference is 36 cm ⇒ 3 × side = 36 cm.

Side of the square = 12 cm.

Area of the square = 12 × 12 = 144 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 144 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

The perimeter of a square is 36 cm more than its side.

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a square = 4 × a

Area of a square = a²

(Where 'a' is the side of the square)

Calculations:

According to the given condition:

⇒ Perimeter = a + 36

⇒ 4a = a + 36

⇒ 4a − a = 36

⇒ 3a = 36

⇒ a = 36 ÷ 3 = 12 cm

Now, substitute the value of 'a' to find the area:

⇒ Area = 12²

⇒ Area = 12 × 12 = 144 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 144 cm².

Additional Information

Perimeter of a Square

The perimeter is the total length of the boundary. For a square with side 'a', Perimeter = 4 × a.

Diagonal of a Square

The diagonal connects two opposite corners, dividing the square into two right-angled triangles. Its length is d = a × √2.

Area using Diagonal

The area of a square can also be calculated directly if the diagonal 'd' is known: Area = d² ÷ 2.

Calculation:

Arun's salary increased in 2014 by (12500  - 10000) = Rs 2500

So the percentage increased in 2014 by (2500 / 10000) × 100 = 25%

Arun's salary increased in 2015 by (14670 - 12500) = Rs 2170

So the percentage increased in 2015 by (2170 / 12500) × 100 = 17.36%

Arun's salary increased in 2016 by (17890 - 14670) = Rs 3220

So, the percentage increased in 2016 by (3220 / 14670) × 100 = 21.9%

In 2014 Arun's salary increased the highest percentage in respect of the previous year.

Given:

40L milk at Rs.50/L + 12L water at 0Rs./L

Sells milk at Rs.40/L

Formula used:

Profit% = Profit/Cost Price x 100

Solution:

Cost Price = 40 x 50 = Rs. 2000 for 52 L

Selling Price = 52 x 40 = Rs.2080 for 52 L

Profit = 2080 - 2000 = Rs.80

Profit% = 80/2000 x 100 = 4%

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Given:

The expression = 18 - 3 × 4 + 2

Concept:

Calculation:

⇒ 18 - 3 × 4 + 2

⇒ 18 - 12 + 2

⇒ 20 - 12

⇒ 8

∴ The required result will be 8.

Concept used:

HCF = Highest Common Factor

It is the product of the smallest power of each common prime factor in the numbers.

Solution:

76 - 4 = 72

310 - 4 = 306

463 - 4 = 459

72 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3

306 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 17

459 = 3 x 3 x 3 x 17

HCF(72, 306, 459) = 3 x 3 = 9

9 divides 76, 310, & 463 leaving a remainder of 4 in each case.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Shortcut Trick

Total money spent = (Number of men)²

⇒ Number of men = √17424

The number 17424 ends in 4, so its square root must end in 2 or 8.

We know that 130² = 16900 and 140² = 19600.

Since 17424 is very close to 16900, its square root must be 132.

∴ The correct answer is 132 men.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total money spent = ₹17424

Amount spent by each man = Number of men

Formula Used:

Total Amount = Number of men × Amount spent per man

Calculations:

⇒ Let the number of men be x.

⇒ Amount spent by each man = ₹x

⇒ Total money spent = x × x = x²

⇒ x² = 17424

⇒ x = √17424

⇒ Finding the prime factorisation of 17424:

⇒ 17424 = 2⁴ × 3² × 11²

⇒ x = 2² × 3 × 11

⇒ x = 4 × 33 = 132

∴ The correct answer is 132 men.

Additional Information

Unit Digit Concept for Perfect Squares

If a perfect square ends in 4, its square root will always end in either 2 or 8. Similarly, ending in 1 gives 1 or 9, ending in 6 gives 4 or 6, and ending in 9 gives 3 or 7.

Prime Factorisation Method

To find the square root of a large number, express it as a product of prime numbers and take exactly half the power of each prime factor.

Divisibility Rules for Quick Factoring

To rapidly factorise a number like 17424, check divisibility: it is divisible by 4 (last two digits are 24), by 9 (sum of digits is 18), and by 11 (difference of alternating sums is 0).

Given:

Mumbai at 3 pm to Ahmedabad at speed of 35 km/h

Ahmedabad at 5 pm to Mumbai at 45 km/h

Distance between Mumbai - Ahmedabad = 390 km

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

The relative speed of two trains moving in different directions is the sum of their speeds.

Solution:

Distance Travelled by 1st train till 5pm in 2 hours = 35 x 2 = 70 km

Distance left = 390 - 70 = 320 km

Relative speed = 35 + 45 = 80km/h

They will meet at 320/80 = 4 hours

5pm + 4 hours = 9pm

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Given:

Find the value of x3 + 4x + 12 at x = -1

Calculation:

Here, x = -1

⇒  x3 + 4x + 12 

⇒ (-1)³ + 4 (-1) + 12

⇒ -1 - 4 + 12

⇒ 7

∴ Option 1 is correct.

Calculation:

Total students who opted for different subjects in 2019 = 70 + 100 + 90 + 70 + 80 = 410

Students who opted for maths only in 2020 = 80

So required total = 410 + 80 = 490

∴ The sum of the total number of students who opted for different subjects in 2019 and only maths in 2020 is 490

Shortcut Trick

Number of cubes = (Volume of cylinder) ÷ (Volume of cube)

n = (π × r² × h) ÷ a³

n = ((22 ÷ 7) × 44 × 44 × 14) ÷ (11 × 11 × 11)

n = (22 × 4 × 4 × 2) ÷ 11 = 2 × 4 × 4 × 2 = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of cylinder (r) = 44 cm

Height of cylinder (h) = 14 cm

Side of cube (a) = 11 cm

Formula:

Volume of cylinder = πr²h

Volume of cube = a³

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of cylinder = (22 ÷ 7) × 44 × 44 × 14

⇒ Volume of cylinder = 22 × 44 × 44 × 2 = 85184 cm³

⇒ Volume of each cube = 11 × 11 × 11 = 1331 cm³

⇒ Number of cubes = Total Volume ÷ Volume of 1 cube

⇒ Number of cubes = 85184 ÷ 1331

⇒ Number of cubes = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Additional Information

Conservation of Volume

When a solid object is melted and recast into new shapes, the total volume remains constant (provided there is no wastage).

Mensuration Formulas

Total Surface Area of Cylinder = 2πr(r + h). Total Surface Area of Cube = 6a². Volume of Sphere = (4/3)πr³.

Unit Consistency

Always ensure all dimensions are in the same unit (cm, m, etc.) before performing volume calculations.

Given:

X = Y + 40%Y

Solution:

X = Y + 0.4Y = 1.4Y

Percentage of marks of Y less than X = (X - Y)/X x 100

⇒ (1.4Y - Y)/1.4Y x 100

⇒ 4/14 x 100

⇒ 28.57%

Hence, the correct option is 4.

Calculation:

Total imports in 4 years is 500 + 650 + 750 + 820 = 2720

Total exports in last 3 years is 560 + 620 + 785 = 1965

The ratio will be 2720: 1965 = 544: 393

The required ratio will be 544:393

सही उत्तर 'पूर्ण विराम चिन्ह-(I)' है।

• दिए गए विकल्पों में पूर्ण विराम चिन्ह '(I)' है।
• किसी वाक्य के अंत में पूर्ण विराम चिन्ह लगाने का अर्थ होता है कि वह वाक्य खत्म हो गया है। यानी जहाँ एक बात पूरी हो जाये या वाक्य समाप्त हो जाये वहाँ पूर्ण विराम ( । ) चिह्न लगाया जाता है।
• पूर्ण विराम (।) का प्रयोग प्रश्नसूचक और विस्मयादि सूचक वाक्यों को छोड़कर बाकि सभी प्रकार के वाक्यों के अंत में किया जाता है।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

• अपूर्ण विराम/उप विराम [ : ]-जब एक वाक्य समाप्त होने पर भी भाव समाप्त नहीं होता है वहाँ अपूर्ण विराम/उपविराम चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• संवाद लेखन में भी इस चिह्न का प्रयोग होता है।
• अर्द्धविराम (;)-वाक्य को कहते हुए बीच में हल्का सा विराम लेना हो पर वाक्य को खत्म न किया जाये तो वहाँ पर अर्द्ध विराम (;) चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण : सूर्यास्त हो गया; लालिमा का स्थान कालिमा ने ले लिया।
• **प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न ( ? )-**हिन्दी भाषा में प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों के अंत में इस चिह्न (?) का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण-तुम कहाँ जा रहे हो ?

Additional Information

सही उत्तर 'समुच्चयबोधक' हैं।

• 'जल्दी चलो ताकि समय पर पहुँच जाए।' वाक्य में समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय है।
• क्योंकि इसमें दो वाक्य 'ताकि' संयोजक से जुड़े हुए हैं। इसलिए यहां समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय है।

Key Points

सही उत्तर 'बहिः + मुख' है।

• शब्द 'बहिर्मुख' का संधि विच्छेद 'बहिः + मुख' होगा।
• यहां 'विसर्ग संधि' है।
• जब विसर्ग के साथ स्वर या व्यंजन के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है, तो वहां विसर्ग संधि होता है।

Key Points

सही उत्तर 'दुष्ट : पक्षियों की चहचहाहट' है।

• दिए गए शब्द 'कुजन : कूजन' का सही शब्द युग्म = 'दुष्ट : पक्षियों की चहचहाहट' है।

Key Points 

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

Additional Information

• समानोच्चारित शब्द: कुछ शब्द ऐसे होते हैं जिनमें स्वर, मात्रा अथवा व्यंजन में थोड़ा-सा अन्तर होता है। वे बोलचाल में लगभग एक जैसे लगते हैं, परन्तु उनके अर्थ में भिन्नता होती है। ऐसे शब्द 'समश्रुत/समानोच्चारित /श्रुतिसम भिन्नार्थक शब्द' कहलाते हैं।
• जैसे- घन और धन दोनों के उच्चारण में कोई खास अन्तर महसूस नहीं होता परन्तु अर्थ में भिन्नता है।
• घन-बादल=धन-सम्पत्ति

सही उत्तर 'ठंड बहुत ज़्यादा होने के कारण मैं बाहर नहीं गया।' हैं।

• 'ठंड बहुत ज़्यादा होने के कारण मैं बाहर नहीं गया।', सरल वाक्य हैं।
• वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं जिनमें 'एक ही उद्देश्य और एक ही विधेय हो'।
• अर्थात् ऐसा वाक्य जिसमे एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है।
• जैसे - सीता पुस्तक पढ़ती है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण: 

Additional Information

सही उत्तर 'सत्य' है।

• उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में ‘सत्य’ भाववाचक संज्ञा है।
• जिन संज्ञा शब्दोँ से किसी व्यक्ति, वस्तु और स्थान के गुण, दोष, भाव, दशा, व्यापार आदि का बोध होता है, उन्हेँ भाववाचक संज्ञा कहते हैँ।
• जैसे– सत्य, बचपन, बुढ़ापा, सफलता, मिठास, मित्रता, हरियाली, मुस्कुराहट, लघुता, प्रभुता, वीरता, चूक, लड़कपन, जवानी, ठगी, डर आदि।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण

Additional Information

सही उत्तर 'जीवन' है।

• दिए गए विकल्पों में से रिक्त स्थान के लिए उचित शब्द **'**जीवन' होगा।
• इसका पूर्ण वाक्य है: 'मेहनत ही जीवन है।'

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प :

Additional Information

• वाक्य- सार्थक शब्दों का वह व्यवस्थित समूह जिनके माध्यम से मन के भाव-विचार प्रकट किए जाते हैं, उन्हें वाक्य कहते हैं।
• सामान्य ज्ञान की रिक्त स्थान पूर्ति अभ्यास का मूल उद्देश्य ज्ञान वर्धन करना है।
• साथ ही शब्दों के उचित प्रयोग की जानकारी अर्जित करना है।

सही उत्तर 'प्रकृति और नियम के विरुद्ध कार्य करना' हैं।

• मुहावरा "अँधेर खाता होना" का अर्थ: 'प्रकृति और नियम के विरुद्ध कार्य करना' हैं।
• वाक्य में प्रयोग: अजीब अंधेर-खाता है, यहाँ तो सभी लूट-खमोट में लगे हैं।

Key Points 

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

Additional Information 

सही उत्तर 'उसने झूठी गवाही न दी होती तो राम जेल से बाहर होता।' है।

• 'उसने झूठी गवाही न दी होती तो राम जेल से बाहर होता।', वाक्य संयुक्त वाक्य है।
• उपरोक्त वाक्य में दो साधारण वाक्य एक योजक शब्द ‘तो’ की सहायता से जुड़कर संयुक्त वाक्य बना रहे हैं।

Key Points अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण: 

Additional Information

सही उत्तर 'अल्प विराम ( , )' है।

• दिए गए वाक्य 'मोहन घर आया थोड़ी देर रूका और चला गया।' के लिए उचित विराम चिन्ह: मोहन घर आया, थोड़ी देर रूका और चला गया।
• अल्पविराम (,) एक विराम चिह्न है जिसका अर्थ 'थोड़ा रुकना' होता है, जो वाक्य के हिस्सों, जैसे सूचियों के आइटम, उपवाक्यों, या संबोधनों को अलग करके अर्थ को स्पष्ट करता है और वाक्य को पढ़ने में आसान बनाता है, जैसे "राम, श्याम और मोहन दोस्त हैं" या "हाँ, मैं जानता हूँ"।

Key Points 

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

• प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न ( ? )-हिन्दी भाषा में प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों के अंत में इस चिह्न (?) का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण-तुम कहाँ जा रहे हो ?
• अपूर्ण विराम/उप विराम [ : ]-जब एक वाक्य समाप्त होने पर भी भाव समाप्त नहीं होता है वहाँ अपूर्ण विराम/उपविराम चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• संवाद लेखन में भी इस चिह्न का प्रयोग होता है।
• अर्द्धविराम (;)-वाक्य को कहते हुए बीच में हल्का सा विराम लेना हो पर वाक्य को खत्म न किया जाये तो वहाँ पर अर्द्ध विराम (;) चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण : सूर्यास्त हो गया; लालिमा का स्थान कालिमा ने ले लिया।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर 'पुल्लिंग' हैं।

• दिया गया शब्द शीशम, पुल्लिंग शब्द हैं।
• शीशम का एक पेड़ होता है, और सभी पेड़ पुल्लिंग होते हैं।

Key Points  अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:​

• सहायक क्रिया: जो क्रियाएं किसी विशेष भाव या अर्थ व्यक्त करने के लिए मुख्य क्रियाओं की मदद करती हैं, उन्हें सहायक क्रिया कहते हैं।
• उदाहरण: रमेश घर जाता है।
• उपरोक्त वाक्य में जाता मुख्य क्रिया तथा है सहायक क्रिया है।
• कारक - संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से वाक्य के अन्य शब्दों के साथ उसके सम्बन्ध का बोध होता है, उसे कारक कहते हैं।

<br>

Additional Information

सही उत्तर 'पाबंदी' हैं।

• दिए गए शब्द 'अंकुश' का पर्यायवाची शब्द 'पाबंदी' है।
• अंकुश के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द: नियंत्रण, रोक, अंकुसी, दबाव, गजांकुश, नियंत्रित

Key Points

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

Additional Information

• जो विभिन्न शब्द एक ही अर्थ का बोध कराएं, उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते हैं। सामान्य भाषा में इनको समानार्थक शब्द भी कहते हैं।
• कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:

सही उत्तर 'रामा घर को जाती है।' हैं।

• 'रामा घर को जाती है।', वाक्य त्रुटिपूर्ण है।
• इस वाक्य में विभक्ति संबन्धित त्रुटि है।
• सही वाक्य: 'रमा घर जाती है।'
• अन्य विकल्प व्याकरण और वर्तनी की दृष्टि से शुद्ध है।

Key Points

सही उत्तर 'अधिकार में आना, बस में आना' हैं।

• दिए गए विकल्पों में से, 'पंजे में आना' मुहावरे के अर्थ: 'अधिकार में आना, बस में आना' हैं।
• वाक्य प्रयोग – वह आपके पंजे मे कभी नही आ सकता।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

Additional Information

सही उत्तर 'उन्मुख' है। 

Key Points

• दिए गए शब्द 'विमुख' का विलोम शब्द 'उन्मुख' है।
• विमुख का अर्थ: मुँह फेरने वाला
• उन्मुख का अर्थ: जिसका मुख  ऊपर की ओर हो , प्रतिमुख , प्रत्यक्ष

Additional Information

• विलोमार्थक शब्द/ विलोम: 'विलोम’ शब्द का अर्थ है- उल्टा या विपरीत।
• अत: किसी शब्द का उल्टा अर्थ व्यक्त करने वाला शब्द विलोमार्थक शब्द कहलाता है।
• कुछ महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द:

'हॉकी' खेल हैं - खुले मैदान में खेला जाने वाला

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• हॉकी ​खुले मैदानों में खेले जाने वाले खेलो से मन को प्रोत्साहन और शरीर को स्फूर्ति मिलती हैं।

Key Points

• मैदान- वह समतल विस्तृत भूमि जहाँ खेल खेला जाता है, सपाट भूमि, खेत।

Additional Informationभीड़:- 

• अर्थ: जनता, जनसमूह, जमघट, भीड़-भड़क्का। 
• समूहवाचक संज्ञा

कमरा:-

• अर्थ: ​कक्ष, घर, कोठरी, प्रकोष्ठ, रूम, सेल।
• जातिवाचक संज्ञा

भारत ने ओलंपिक में हॉकी खेल से लगातार 6 स्वर्ण पदक जीते।

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• भारत सर्वप्रथम सन् 1928 में ओलंपिक में पंहुचा था और सन् 1928 से 1956 तक हॉकी के खेल में भारत ने हर ओलंपिक में लगातार 6 स्वर्ण पदक जीते।
• इस समय को हॉकी के इतिहास में स्वर्ण काल रूप में जाना जाता है।​

Key Pointsहॉकी:- 

• दुनिया के सबसे पुराने खेलों में से एक, हॉकी की शुरुआत संभवत: 1527 में स्कॉटलैंड से हुई थी, तब इसे अंग्रेज़ी में हॉकी (Hokie) के नाम से जाना जाता था।
• जयपाल सिंह मुंडा ओलंपिक में भारतीय हॉकी टीम के पहले कप्तान थे।
• उन्होंने एम्सटर्डम 1928 खेलों में भारत की कप्तानी की थी और देश को पहला स्वर्ण पदक दिलाया था।

उपर्युक्त अपठित गद्यांश के लिए शीर्षक होगा- भारत में हॉकी

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• हमारे जीवन में खेलों के महत्व को बताते हुआ भारत में हॉकी के खेल को दर्शया गया है।

Key Pointsविश्व:-

• अर्थ: जगत, जग, भव, संसार, लोक, दुनिया।

विजेता:-

• अर्थ: जिसने विजय पाई हो, जीतनेवाला।

मैदान:- 

• अर्थ: वह समतल विस्तृत भूमि जहाँ खेल खेला जाता है, सपाट भूमि, खेत।

स्वर्ण शब्द का पर्यायवाची है - सोना

• स्वर्ण शब्द का पर्यायवाची है - सोना, सुवर्ण, कंचन, हेन, हारक, जातरूप, तामरस, हिरण्य।
• तांबा शब्द का पर्यायवाची है - ताम्र, तामा।
• चाँदी शब्द का पर्यायवाची है - रजत, सौध, रूपा, रूपक, रौप्य, चन्द्रहास।
• काला शब्द का पर्यायवाची है - असित, श्याम, स्याह, कृष्ण, नील, काला-कलूटा, साँवला।

Key Points

• एक ही शब्द के एक से ज्यादा अर्थ निकले उसे पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते है।

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

• पानी - जल, वारि, नीर, तोय, सलिल, अंबु, सर।
• हवा - पवन, वायु, समीर, अनिल, वात, मरुत्, पवमान, बयार, प्रकंपन, समी
• साँप - सर्प, नाग, विषधर, व्याल, भुजंग, उरग, अहि पन्नग।
• जंगल - वन, कानन, बीहड़, विटप, विपिन।
• घर - गृह, सदन, आवास, आलय, गेह, निवास, निलय, मंदिर।
• अमृत - सुधा, सोम, पीयूष, अमिय, जीवनोदक
• असुर - राक्षस, दैत्य, दानव, निशाचर, दनुज, यातुधान, निशिचर, रजनीचर।
• अश्व - घोड़ा, हय, तुरंग, वाजी, घोटक, सैंधव, तुरंग।
• आकाश - गगन, नभ, आसमान, व्योम, अंबर, धौ, अंतरिक्ष, अनंत
• आँख - नेत्र, दृग, नयन, लोचन, चक्षु, अक्षि, अंबक, दृष्टि, विलोचन।

ओलम्पिक में सर्वप्रथम हॉकी खेल सन् 1908 वर्ष में खेला गया था।

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• हॉकी बहुत ही पुराना खेल है, जो आज एक अंतर्राष्ट्रीय खेल के रूप में प्रसिद्ध है। ओलम्पिक में सर्वप्रथम यह खेल सन् 1908 में खेला गया था।​

Key Pointsओलम्पिक:-

• ओलम्पिक खेल अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर आयोजित होने वाली बहु-खेल प्रतियोगिता है।
• आधुनिक ओलम्पिक खेल एथेंस में सन 1896 में आरम्भ किये गये। इन खेलों में भारत स्वर्ण पदक भी जीत चुका है।
• वर्ष 1896 में पहली बार आधुनिक ओलम्पिक खेलों का आयोजन ग्रीस (यूनान) की राजधानी एथेंस में हुआ था।
• ओलम्पिक खेल प्रतियोगिताओं में अग्रणी खेल प्रतियोगिता है जिसमे हजारों एथलीट कई प्रकार के खेलों में भाग लेते हैं।
• ओलम्पिक की शीतकालीन एवं ग्रीष्मकालीन प्रतियोगिताओं में 200 से ज्यादा देश प्रतिभाग के रूपमें शामिल होते हैं।
• ओलम्पिक खेल प्रत्येक चार वर्ष के अंतराल में खेला जाता है।

The correct answer is 'Real'.

Key Points

• The adjective 'Titular' means holding or constituting a purely formal position or title without any real authority; nominal.
• For example, Executive authority is vested in the prime minister and their chosen Council of Ministers, despite the president of India being the titular head of the executive.
• The marked option 'Real' is an adjective. Something that is real is actually what it seems to be and not false or artificial.
• For example, The children know that Santa Claus isn’t a real person.
• So, we can say that 'Real' can function as the opposite word of 'Titular.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Cosmetic ⇒ affecting only the appearance of something rather than its substance. It might also refer to the treatment intended to restore or improve a person's appearance.
• Specious ⇒ misleading in appearance but not genuine.
• Ostensive ⇒ directly demonstrative.

The correct answer is 'May'.

Key Points

• Here the speaker is asking for permission, for which purpose, we generally use the modal 'may'.
• For example, May I come in, Sir?
• So, the correct choice for the word to fill the blank is 'May' and the correct sentence is: May I go to the toilet, please?

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• In general phrasing, 'Can' and 'May' are both used to talk about permission. However, using 'can' in this sense isn't incorrect but it is considered informal. If you want to sound formal, use 'may.'

The correct answer is 'disappointment'.

Key Points

• Although we use 'disappointment' to mean sadness or displeasure caused by the non-fulfilment of one's hopes or expectations, but it can also be used to refer to the person or thing that causes disappointment.
• Among the closely related words used for the purpose, we only use the term 'disappointment' for something that fails to meet the expectation and causes the feeling.
• For example, I didn't want to be a disappointment to my father, so I left home for the job I got at hand.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• When you are unhappy with an outcome or a situation, you can feel either disappointed or dissatisfied. The difference between the two is the amount of control that you feel you have over the unfulfilling situation: feeling disappointment implies that you do not feel that you can currently change much about it and that you have to conform to the situation. This puts disappointment closer to sadness. If you are dissatisfied, however, you feel that you do have some control or influence over the unfulfilling situation, and you want it to change, which puts dissatisfaction closer to frustration or annoyance.

Additional Information (2)

• discontent ⇒ dissatisfaction with one's circumstances; lack of contentment..
• dissatisfaction ⇒ lack of satisfaction.
• regret ⇒ the feeling of sadness, repentance, or disappointment over something that one has done or failed to do.

The correct answer is 'To be very poor.'

Key Points

• 'Be on the breadline' is a very common phrase used to mean the level of income people have when they are extremely poor.
• For example, I do not say that we are reduced to be on the breadline, but the allowance no longer covers our usual standard of living.
• So, the correct meaning of the idiom 'Be on the bread line' is To be very poor.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The error lies in Part 2.

Key Points

• The word 'unique' falls in the category of non-gradable adjectives: these cannot be differentiated between different degrees of the same property along a scale by using premodification or postmodification like more, most, as... as, etc.
• In the given sentence, the word 'most' cannot precede unique.
• Correct sentence: This cycle is the unique thing I have ever seen.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Other examples of non-gradable adjectives are automatic; dead/alive; female/male; Indian/Irish/Brazilian etc.; married/unmarried/single etc.

The correct answer is 'QSPR'.

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the sentence, we have to find some grammatical or contextual relationships between them. So let's find them out.
• By reading the sentences, we can get an idea that the paragraph is talking about the environmental impact of the different kinds of breakfasts.
• Sentence Q takes the introductory place as it gives an exact quantitative measure (about a quarter) by which a particular vegetarian choice is better than a non-veg one. So it takes first place.
• Sentence S follows Sentence Q. We can deduce that by the use of the demonstrative pronoun 'This' at the beginning and the quantity (25 %) it refers to.
• Sentence P comes next which goes further to mention what kind of and how vegetarian food can replace non-veg food items (plant-based bacon substitute and vegetarian sausage) and specifies the aggregate improvement it can bring to the carbon footprint due to breakfast. So it takes the third place.
• Sentence R concludes the paragraph in a wishful manner. Its position can be determined again in the same way as S by finding the demonstrative pronoun 'this' which refers to the condition mentioned in the previous sentence. It also refers to the offered change in the food without changing the flavour/taste mentioned in the previous sentence.
• Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct order is 'QSPR'.
• So, the passage in the correct order is:
• 'An average vegetarian sausage has about a quarter of the impact of a standard pork sausage. This change alone would reduce the breakfast’s footprint by 25 percent. A breakfast using plant-based bacon substitutes and vegetarian sausage would reduce its carbon footprint by 51 percent. This makes it an easy option to significantly reduce the breakfast’s environmental impact without dramatically affecting flavour*.*'

The correct answer is 'Despite trying their best'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is wrong for it conveys a different denotation than the intended one: it was 'they' who tried, not that they 'were tried.'
• We have to choose an improvement where the subject stays the same, but they are the doer. When doing that, we have to keep the following things in mind:
• After 'in spite of' and 'despite,' we use a noun, gerund (-ing form of a verb), or a pronoun.
• The preposition 'of' does not follow 'Despite' but 'inspite.'
• So, the correct sentence will be: Despite trying their best, they were not able to reach the goal.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'Caucus'.

Key Points

• Let us see the meanings of the words given:
• Caucus ⇒ A close meeting to select a candidate or promote a policy.
• Clique ⇒ An circle of people with a common purpose who do not readily allow others to join them.
• Brace⇒ A support that steadies or strengthens something else.
• Coterie ⇒ An exclusive circle of people with a common purpose.
• From the above reference, it can be concluded that 'Caucus' is the correct word to substitute for the given description.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The error lies in Part 3.

Key Points

• The terms like 'crowd in/out' are commonly technical terms used in the fields of Investment, Finance, and Economy.
• Crowding-in is a phenomenon that occurs when higher government spending leads to an increase in economic growth and therefore encourages firms to invest due to the presence of more profitable investment opportunities. 'Crowd out' means the opposite.
• As Government investment (chiefly by borrowing) in assorted projects usually forces or keeps the private parties out of the investment, they tend to reduce Commercial involvements. So, Part 3 would need to use 'crowd out' instead of 'crowd in.'
• Correct sentence: The government must invest directly in assorted projects that will crowd out private investment.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'had begun earlier, he might have succeed'.

Key Points

• We use the 'third conditional' to talk about an imaginary result of something in the past.
• The structure used by the third conditional is: If + past perfect, would/wouldn't have + past participle. At times, we might also see structures like 'might have' in the main clause when speaking of possibility.
• For example, 'If he hadn't been in the meeting, he might have noticed the angry crowd gathering outside the office.'
• The given sentence contemplates a past event which, if hadn't happened, would have changed the past of the person of interest — i.e. it represents an unreal past situation.
• So, in the given sentence, the first verb will take the past perfect form (hadn't begun), while the outcome is set in future and will take a compound verb form with might have (might have succeded).
• Correct sentence: 'If he had begun earlier, he might have succeeded in finishing the project before deadline.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'Exaggerate'.

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the given word is 'Exaggerate.' All other spelling alternatives given in the options are incorrect.
• 'Exaggerate' is a verb and it means to represent (something) as being larger, better, or worse than it really is.
• For example, 'He has exaggerated the whole event to make it sound rather more dramatic than it actually was.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'SPQR'.

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the sentence, we have to understand the overall meaning, determine the sentence type ,and find some grammatical or contextual relationships between the parts. So let's find them out.
• Part S comes first as it continues the sentence and the meaning started: The information gleaned from fossil bones along with observations of... So, it will be put in the first place.
• Part P follows Part S and describes the extra information that is gathered besides the fossil bones (The information gleaned from fossil bones along with observations of both the movement and the musculature of...). So, it will be put in the second place.
• Part Q follows Part P. It specifies whose movement and musculature are in discussion: The information gleaned from fossil bones along with observations of both the movement and the musculature of living animal species help scientists model... So, it will be put in the third place.
• Part R comes at the end. It is the continuation of previous parts as it gives the object of the whole sentence and tells us what the scientists are trying to model.
• Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct order is 'SPQR'.
• Hence, the sentence in the correct order is 'The information gleaned from fossil bones along with observations of both the movement and the musculature of living animal species help scientists model how non-avian dinosaurs may have moved.'

The correct answer is 'Rhythm'.

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the given word is 'Rhythm.' All other spelling alternatives given in the options are incorrect.
• 'Rhythm' is a noun and it means a strong, regular repeated pattern of movement or sound.
• For example, 'He's got no sense of rhythm; he's a terrible dancer.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is 'Shy'.

Key Points

• The word 'Bashful' is an adjective that means reluctant to draw attention to oneself.
• For example, She gave a bashful smile when I complimented her on her work.
• The marked option 'Shy' means nervous or timid in the company of other people.
• For example, My daughter was pretty shy in primary school.
• We can see that 'Shy' can express the meaning of the word 'Bashful.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Expressive ⇒ effectively conveying thought or feeling.
• Garrulous ⇒ excessively talkative, especially on trivial matters.
• Coward ⇒ lacking courage, not brave.

The correct answer is 'To solve the difficulty.'

Key Points

• 'To cut the gordian knot' means to solve or remove a problem in a direct or forceful way, rejecting gentler or more indirect methods.
• For example, After understanding the program’s algorithm, he took up the keyboard, cut though the Gordian knot, and completed the task.
• So, the correct meaning of the idiom 'To cut the gordian knot' is To solve the difficulty.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'The Private Memoirs and Confessions of a Justified Sinner'.

Key Points

• The given passage is on the famous author and personality of the 18th century James Hogg.
• Let's take a look at the following line of the passage:
• 'Presented as a found document, Hogg’s best work, The Private Memoirs and Confessions of a Justified Sinner (1824) is deliberately left with holes. Dark, humorous, violent, sweet, light, weird, wild, celebratory and cruel, the book has many tones, often all at once.'
• So, the correct answer is The Private Memoirs and Confessions of a Justified Sinner.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'According to records Hogg baptism took place in 1770, but he believed he was born in 1772.'

Key Points

• The given passage is on the famous author and personality of the 18th century James Hogg.
• Let's take a look at the following line of the passage:
• 'Even though he was celebrated off and on in his own lifetime, some details of the author’s life remain unclear. Records place his baptism on December 9, 1770. But Hogg long believed he was born in 1772, on January 25 – Burns’ Night no less. This complicates attempts to commemorate his 250th birthday, unless we embrace his fantastical worldview.'
• So, the correct answer to the question why it was complicated to commemorate Hogg’s 250th birthday is that according to records Hogg baptism took place in 1770, but he believed he was born in 1772.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'Director.'

Key Points

• T he  given  passage is on the famous author and personality of the 18th century James Hogg.
• James Hogg was practically a polymath: he was a prolific poet, songwriter, playwright, novelist, short story writer and parodist. But this list does not include the role of the Director, nor does it ever mention in the story that he directed any drama or something similar.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is 'Enwrap'.

Key Points

• The word 'Embrace' is a verb that usually means to hold (someone) closely in one's arms, especially as a sign of affection.
• For example, She greeted me with a warm embrace.
• It might also mean to accept (a belief, theory, or change) willingly and enthusiastically which is the intended meaning in the sentence in the passage.
• For example, Maybe there is a way to honor my old life as I embrace my new one.
• The marked option 'Enwrap' means to wrap, envelop or engross or absorb (someone).
• For example, Did you see my book? The book jacket enwraps a plain blue paper binding.
• We can see that 'Enwrap' can denote one meaning of the word 'Embrace.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Embarrass ⇒ cause (someone) to feel awkward, self-conscious, or ashamed.
• Uncover ⇒ induce (someone) to do something through reasoning or argument. It might also mean discover some secret.
• Persuade ⇒ induce (someone) to do something through reasoning or argument.

The correct answer is 'Fact mattered to him more than fiction.'

Key Points

• Let's take a look at the sentences relevant to the statements given in the options:
• 'James Hogg defied categorisation. A prolific poet, songwriter, playwright, novelist, short story writer and parodist, he wrote with equal skill in Scots and English.'
• From this, we can say that the following statement is correct "He wrote with equal skill in Scots and English."
• 'Despite lacking in formal education, Hogg never lacked in confidence.'
• From this, we can say that the following statement is correct "He lacked formal education."
• Labelled as the Ettrick Shepherd, the former Borders farmhand, whose life spanned the 18th and 19th centuries, befriended many of the great writers of his day, including Walter Scott, John Galt and Allan Cunningham.
• From this, we can say that the following statement is correct "He was labelled as the Ettrick Shepherd.**"
• 'Even though he was celebrated off and on in his own lifetime, some details of the author’s life remain unclear. Records place his baptism on December 9, 1770. But Hogg long believed he was born in 1772, on January 25 – Burns’ Night no less. This complicates attempts to commemorate his 250th birthday, unless we embrace his fantastical worldview. Fiction mattered to him more than fact.'
• From this, we can say that the following statement is incorrect "Fact mattered to him more than fiction."

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The answer is 1) Psychometric approach.

The psychometric approach to cognitive abilities seeks to measure quantitative differences in cognitive abilities by using tests that indicate or predict cognitive abilities.

 Key PointsThis approach is based on the assumption that intelligence can be measured and that it is composed of a number of different cognitive abilities, such as verbal reasoning, spatial reasoning, and working memory.

Here are some examples of psychometric tests:

• IQ tests
• Standardized achievement tests
• Cognitive ability tests
• Neuropsychological tests

These tests are used to measure a variety of cognitive abilities, such as verbal reasoning, spatial reasoning, working memory, and processing speed.

Psychometric tests are used in a variety of settings, such as schools, workplaces, and clinics. They can be used to identify children who may need additional support in school, to assess the cognitive abilities of job applicants, and to diagnose cognitive disorders.

Additional InformationThe behaviorist approach, the Piagetian approach, and the Bayley approach are all different theories of cognitive development.

• The behaviorist approach focuses on how people learn through conditioning,
• The Piagetian approach focuses on how children develop cognitive abilities through stages.
• The Bayley approach is a developmental assessment tool that is used to measure cognitive, social, and emotional development in infants and young children.

Erikson's theory of psychosocial development has a second stage that occurs throughout early infancy and focuses on children gaining a greater feeling of personal control.

Key Points

• In the context of psychosocial development in childhood,  As the children begin to move away from parental influence, the peer group opens up new perspectives and frees them to make independent judgments. This is the positive influence of peer relations.
• Children develop a variety of important social and emotional skills, including empathy, collaboration, and problem-solving tactics, in the setting of peer interactions. Bullying, exclusion, and deviant peer dynamics can all have a harmful impact on a person's social and emotional development.
• Peer influence can be positive. For example, a child might be influenced to become more assertive, try new activities, or get more involved with the school.
• Peer relationships do not have a good impact when they tend to perpetuate negative sentiments against members of certain racial and ethnic groups.

Thus, only option 1 is correct in terms of psychological development in children.

When performing a cognitive activity, memory refers to the ability to retain knowledge and replicate it over a period of time. It has been described as a three-stage process, involving encoding, storage, and retrieval.

Key Points

• 5 and 6 years old children can use external memory aids. This statement is correct. Young children, even as young as 4-5, can be taught and can benefit from using external memory aids like lists, notes, or even a "memory palace" (as described in one search result where a 4.5-year-old used a Lego city). While their spontaneous use of complex strategies is limited, they can certainly be guided to use external tools.
• Most children do not do grouping until at least the age of 10 years. This statement is correct. Research indicates that the spontaneous use of elaborative strategies like semantic clustering (grouping) increases significantly with age. Older children (10-12 years old) spontaneously use semantic strategies more frequently than younger children. Younger children may be able to use it if explicitly instructed, but it's not typically spontaneous until around age 10 or later.
• 4 years old do conscious repetition spontaneously. This statement is incorrect. While 4-year-olds may exhibit some precursor behaviors to mnemonic strategies, conscious and spontaneous repetition as a memory strategy is generally not seen at this young age. Younger children tend to rely on more "shallow" strategies or no strategies at all for memorization. The spontaneous use of such strategies develops with age and cognitive maturation.

Thus, the correct answer is I and II.

The act of copying, or a false or replica of something, is referred to as imitation. Making a space seem exactly like a room seen in a designer magazine is an example of imitation. Fish bits presented as crab are one example of imitation.

Key Points

• According to Piaget, facial mimicry is beyond the cognitive ability of infants under the age of 8–12 months. Developmental psychologists have been studying the earliest emergence of facial mimicry in human newborns because it presents such a robust test of existing ideas of imitation.
• Imitation that is either invisible or opaque A word used to describe a kind of imitation in which the model's activity and the imitative response are not viewed in the same modality. Facial impersonation is allowed since the performer can see the model's face but not her own.
• Imitation that is visible. It involves visible elements of one's body. It is a pattern in which a newborn first notices something that another person does, then repeats the activity a few hours or even days later.

As a result, we may conclude that all of the aforementioned imitation pairs are well-matched. Both options 1 and 2 are correct.

The condition of a person's emotions (particularly dejection) is referred to as their emotional state. "His emotional state was dependent on her view"

Key Points

• Mutual regulation: During face-to-face interaction, mothers and infants engage in self-directed and other-directed actions to order to maintain optimal levels of self and dyadic arousal and engagement.
• Mutual regulation process infant and caregiver communicate emotional states to each other and respond appropriately
• The face-to-face connection allows for mutual emotion management. Babies begin to imitate the emotions and expressions they perceive in others around the age of six months. Furthermore, fundamental emotions such as joy, surprise, sadness, contempt, and rage arise between the ages of 6 and 12 months. Babies have learned to express a wide range of emotions by the age of nine months.
• Between the ages of 9 and 10 months, when newborns are intensely emotional, this becomes obvious. They swiftly transition from extreme happiness to extreme despair, irritation, and fury.

As a result of the mutual regulation process, the newborn and caregiver can communicate their emotional states and respond accordingly.

Adolescence is a crucial period of life between childhood and adulthood during which an individual experiences a range of emotions, very confident about certain things and unsure about others.

• It takes some time and efforts to become comfortable with the changes taking place in one’s mind and body. These changes make this phase of life very exciting.

Key Points

• Physical development during adolescence begins with puberty which means beginning of sexual maturity.
• The beginning of adolescence is marked by biological changes in girls and boys. As a matter of fact, just before puberty there occurs what is known as pre-adolescent growth spurt.
• This period is marked by physical growth and change in body shape.
• The duration of puberty varies from person to person and it does not typically take the same amount of time for both genders. On average, girls typically start and complete puberty before boys, starting between the ages of 8-13 and ending around ages 15-17. Boys usually start puberty a bit later, between ages 9-14, and finish around ages 16-17. However, these ages are just averages and the onset and duration of puberty can vary widely.
• During adolescence, both boys and girls experience physical changes but some are specific to boys and some to girls.

Hence only the II statement is correct.

Friendship is defined as a bond of affection between two people. People are referred to as best friends if the friendship is really strong. this relationship is characterized by positive interpersonal qualities such as kindness, generosity, loyalty, and honesty. 

Key Points

Benefits of friendships for children

• Children enjoy school more with friends.
• Friendships help children develop emotionally and morally.
• In interacting with friends, children learn many social skills, such as how to communicate, cooperate, and solve problems.
• Friendship are a source of help and self-validation.
• They practice controlling their emotions and responding to the emotions of others
• Friendships with other students can give children a sense of belonging and a greater connection to their school.

Hence Both I and II are correct options.

Reciprocity is a process of communication between a baby and a parent. The baby sends out signals about his or her needs, using facial and vocal expressions, and waits for a response. The parent reads and responds to the baby's signal's, which serves as a return signal for the baby to read. Attachment is a deep, strong and enduring emotional bond which develops between an infant or young child and their primary caregiver.  

Key Points

• Attachment is the emotional bond of infant to parent or caregiver.
• It is described as a pattern of emotional and behavioural interaction that develops over time, especially in contexts where infants express a need for attention, comfort, support or security.
• Infants are completely dependent on their caregivers from whom they instinctively seek security and protection.
• When a caregiver consistently responds to an infant's needs, it sets the stage for the growing child to enter healthy relationships with other people throughout life and to appropriately experience and express a full range of emotions.
• Therefore, the process of attachment is defined as a mutual regulatory system, in which the baby and the caregiver have an influence on one another over time.

​Hence, we can conclude that Attachment is the reciprocal, enduring tie between infant and caregiver.

Gender constancy refers to the theory that children develop a sense of gender over time and eventually come to understand that their biological sex is fixed and permanent. This theory is over 50 years old and originates from the work of American psychologist Lawrence Kohlberg. 

Key Points

• Gender constancy has been defined as children's understanding of the irreversibility of their sex, which develops in stages between about the ages of two and seven years.
• It is child's awareness about his/her sex being same always.
• Children realize that they are male or female and are aware of the gender of others by the age of three. However, at these ages they still do not understand that people cannot change genders the way they can change their clothes, names, or behavior.
• Kohlberg theorized that children do not learn to behave in gender-appropriate ways until they understand that gender is permanent, which occurs at about the age of seven. At this point they start modeling the behavior of members of their own sex.
• It is also called sex-category constancy.

​Hence Both I and II statement are true.

Gender schemas organize the child's experiences by providing a means for the child to make sense of new social information. Gender-schema theory asserted that children learn about male and female roles from the culture in which they live. According to the theory, children adjust their behavior to align with the gender norms of their culture from the earliest stages of social development.

Key Points

• Sandra Ruth Lipsitz Bem was an American psychologist known for her works in androgyny and gender studies. Gender schema theory is a cognitive theory of gender development that says that gender is a product of the norms of one's culture. The theory was originated by psychologist Sandra Bem in 1981. It suggests that people process information, in part, based on gender-typed knowledge.
• Martin and Halverson describe two types of sex-related schemas in-group schemas and out-group schemas (the opposite group). Once a child has identified with their in-group, they begin to positively evaluate their own group and negatively evaluate the out-group.
• Carol Lynn researched on a schematic processing model of sex typing and stereotyping in children.
• Cognitive theories of early gender development and the stability and consequences of young children's same-sex peer interactions.

Hint

• Sigmund Freud is the psychologist of mind and consciousness. Considered the father of psychoanalysis, his theories and ideas on the connections that exist between the conscious mind, the subconscious mind, the body, and the world around us are still as widely known as they were when he first espoused them at the turn of the 20th century.

​Hence Sigmund Freud is not related gender-schema theory.

Birth trauma, also known as traumatic childbirth, refers to the maternal severe psychological harm caused by the events occurring during birth or at the time of the birth. 

Key Points

• Psychologists believe children who had difficult births are more likely to be angry, aggressive, and anxious compared to children who had easy births.
• Birth trauma is often caused by mechanical force, but it can also be caused by the overuse of delivery drugs, mismanaged abnormal presentation, and other complications.
• Doctors can avoid birth trauma by following best care practices and skillfully handling labor and delivery complications.
• Not only parents but children will also get affected due to birth trauma.
• It can can occur when the birthing parent has a physical, emotional, and/or psychological experience of unsafety shortly before, during birth or at the time of birth.

Hence, we can conclude that birth trauma is Injury sustained at the time of birth.

The preoperational stage is known as the second stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. This stage starts around age 2, as kids start to talk, and lasts until age 7.The main characteristics of the preoperational stage are the concepts of egocentrism, centration and conservation, and symbolic representation. Children in this stage use symbols to represent their world, but they are limited to experience from their point of view. 

Key Points

• The symbolic function substage occurs between 2 and 4 years of age and is characterized by gains in symbolic thinking, in which the child is able to mentally represent an object that is not present, and a dependence on perception in problem solving.
• Here the child shows the ability use symbols or mental representations.
• Symbol helps children remember and think about them without having them physically present.
• Symbolic function is also considered as the cognitive ability to mentally represent objects that are not in sight.
• Children represent concrete objects by using images, words, gestures, or play.

Hence, we can conclude that Both I and II statements are true.

Prenatal Development: After union with the sperm, the ovum enters the germinal period, a time of very rapid cell division, which lasts for about two weeks. This is followed by the embryonic period of about six weeks, during which structural development of the embryo takes place. From the beginning of the third month until birth, the time period is known as the foetal period. During this, the organs, muscles and systems begin to develop and function.

Key Points

There are four stages in child birth

• First stage: Dilation of the cervix :- During the first stage of childbirth, the cervix begins to thin and dilate (open) due to the hormones that are released during labor. For a vaginal delivery, the cervix must be fully dilated (about 10 centimeters) for the baby to pass through.The first stage of labor begins from the time the contractions start until the time the cervix is fully dilated.
• Second stage: Delivery of the baby:- The second stage of childbirth begins when the cervix is fully dilated to 10 centimeters and ends with the delivery of the baby. This stage may last between 20 minutes to 2 hours. It may take longer for first-time mothers and for those who have an epidural.
• Third stage: Afterbirth where placenta is pushed out:- The third stage of childbirth begins after the baby is born and ends with pushing out the placenta through the vagina. Typically, this occurs between 5-30 minutes after childbirth.
• Fourth stage: Recovery:- Recovery begins during the first 2-3 hours after delivery. During this time, the uterus contracts here and there, pushing out what’s left inside and reestablishing muscle tone.

Hence, we can conclude that there are four stages in childbirth.

Cognitive development means how children think, explore and figure things out. It is the development of knowledge, skills, problem solving and dispositions, which help children to think about and understand the world around them. Brain development is part of cognitive development. 

Key Points

Points regarding theory of mind development in  the context of cognitive development in early childhood

• It allows children to understand the relationships between ideas, to grasp the process of cause and effect and to improve their analytical skills.
• This skill development in children involves the progressive building of learning skills, such as attention, memory and thinking.
• It reflects brain maturation and improvements in cognition.
• Heredity and environment is found to influence the development of a children. The genetic makeup inherited from parents seems to be tied to maturation of the body and the brain which influences growth and developmental milestones.
• These crucial skills enable children to process sensory information and eventually learn to evaluate, analyze, remember, make comparisons and understand cause and effect.

Hence, we can conclude that Both statements I and II are true in context to mind theory.

The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development is a standard series of measurements originally developed by psychologist Nancy Bayley used primarily to assess the development of infants and toddlers, ages 1–42 months. 

Key Points

Baby Development: One to Three Months

• Raise their head and chest when on their tummy.
• Track objects with their eyes and gradually decrease eye crossing.
• Turns from back to the side.
• Open and shut their hands and bring hands to their mouth.

Baby Development: Four to Six Months

• Roll over from front to back or back to front. Front-to-back usually comes first.
• Babble, making sounds that can sound like real language.

Baby Development: Seven to Nine Months

• Learn to pull up to a standing position.
• Raises itself to a standing position.
• Sit without support.

Hence, we can conclude that both I and II statements are correct.

Physical development is the process that starts in human infancy and continues into late adolescent concentrating on gross and fine motor skills as well as puberty. Physical development involves developing control over the body, particularly muscles and physical coordination.

Motor development is part of physical development, and refers to the growth in the ability of children to use their bodies and physical skills. 

Key Points

• As motor skills develop, there are certain developmental milestones that young children should achieve. For each milestone there is an average age, as well as a range of ages in which the milestone should be reached.
• During middle childhood, children continue to develop gross and fine motor skills, while there is marked improvement in muscular control and eye-hand coordination.
• Motor development can be divided into gross motor skills and fine motor skills be active for children to build small and large muscles and to use the calories they consume.

Hint

• By age 6, children can judge and block the path of small balls thrown from a distance is not true as per motor development of child in the childhood because this ability can't be attained by the children at age 6.
• By the age of six, the child is physically capable of coordinated actions which require body balance. Small muscle coordination required for fine motor activities, such as putting on shirt buttons or copying a simple figure, improves quite dramatically during the early childhood years. Children can also complete other self-care tasks beyond dressing and undressing, such as brushing their teeth and combing their hair.

​Hence, we can conclude that only I is true.

Physical development is the process that starts in human infancy and continues into late adolescent concentrating on gross and fine motor skills as well as puberty. Physical development involves developing control over the body, particularly muscles and physical coordination. 

Key Points

Changes occurring in bodily growth of children

• Children begin to lose their baby fat, or chubbiness, around age 3. Toddlers soon acquire the leaner, more athletic look associated with childhood.
• At the age of 3, children's abdominal muscles develop, and the toddler potbelly tightens.
• Three‐year‐old preschoolers may grow to be about 38 inches tall and weigh about 32 pounds.
• For the next 3 years, healthy preschoolers grow an additional 2 to 3 inches and gain from 4 to 6 pounds per year.
• By age 6, children reach a height of about 46 inches and weigh about 46 pounds. These figures are averages and differ from child to child, depending on socioeconomic status, nourishment, health, and heredity factors.

Hint

• The statement "At the age of 1, children begin to lose their babyish roundness and take on the slender, athletic appearance of childhood" is wrong because this happens at age 3.

​Hence, we can conclude that only II statement is true.