DSSSB TGT (Hindi) Official Paper (Held On: 17 Aug, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some eggs are not houses.- True (Some eggs are mirrors.No house is a mirror.Hence, Some eggs are not houses is True)

(II) No house is a car.- True (Some eggs are mirrors.All cars are mirrors..Hence, No house is a car is True)

Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given : 15 - 11 + 16 ÷ 21 × 3 = ?

15 - 11 + 16 ÷ 21 × 3 = ?

'+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged

⇒  15 + 11 - 16 × 21 ÷ 3 

⇒ 15 + 11 - 16 × 7

⇒ 15 + 11 - 112

⇒ 26 - 112

⇒ -86

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Total students=(Rank from top)+(Rank from bottom)−1

Given:

• Rank from top = 33
• Rank from bottom = 14
• Total = 33 + 14 − 1 = 46
• Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given : 'BOND' is coded as '8593' and 'DONE' is coded as '1395'

'B O N D' -  '8593'

'D O N E' - '1395'

Code for E is 1

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

**Given:**A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table facing the center.

• A is sitting second to the left of B.
• D is an immediate neighbor of A.
• B is sitting immediately to the left of C.
• E is sitting second to the right of C.
• F is sitting third to the left of D

The Final Arrangement is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic follows here, 

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Course of Action (I):

 

• People should watch programs only on television rather than on laptops/mobile phones.
• This still involves screen time.
• The statement does not suggest that TV screens are safer than other screens.
• Hence, this action does not logically follow from the statement.

 

Course of Action (II):

• People should carefully monitor their screen time and take appropriate measures such as maintaining a proper diet and exercising to avoid eye strain.
• This directly addresses the issue of eye strain due to increased screen time.
• Monitoring screen time and adopting healthy practices is a logical and preventive measure.
• Follows

 

Only Course of Action (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given:  14 D 2 A 56 B 26 C 13 = ?

14 D 2 A 56 B 26 C 13 = ?

'A' means '+', 'B' means '-', 'C' means '÷' and 'D' means '×'

⇒ 14 × 2 + 56 - 26 ÷ 13 

⇒ 14 × 2 + 56 - 2

⇒ 28 + 56 - 2

⇒ 84 - 2

⇒ 82

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Let’s solve it step by step.

• Total students = 27
• Varun is 12^th from the right

 Varun’s position from the left:

 27 – 12 + 1 = 16

So, Varun is 16^th from the left.

• Nisha is 9^th to Varun’s left

  16 – 9 = 7        

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Avneet starts at point Y and drives 38 km east.

• Then he turns right and drives 12 km, then he turns right again and drives 17 km.
• Then he turns right again and drives 55 km.
• Then he turns left and drives 21 km.
• Then he turns left again and drives 29 km, stopping at point Z

 

The Final Diagram, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Logic:  First number + Second number = Third number

(17 + 58 = 75)

(4 + 17 = 21)

Similarly,

(50, 156, 206)

(50 + 156 =  206)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given : (Left) 128 396 357 182 369 (Right)

Third digit of the largest number = 3 9 6 

Second digit of the smallest number = 1 2 8 

⇒ 6 + 2 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Family Chart:

As per the given information,

P is wife of T and E is brother of P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Logic:

• Vowel → next letter in the alphabet
• Consonant → previous letter in the alphabet

Vowels: A, E, I, O, U

 

1. ASH

• A → B
• S → R
• H → G
• BRG → no vowels 

 

2. FAR

• F → E
• A → B
• R → Q

EBQ → contains vowel E 

 

3. HAD

• H → G
• A → B
• D → C

GBC → no vowels 

 

4. RUB

• R → Q
• U → V
• B → A

QVA → contains vowel A 

Two letter groups will contain no vowels.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The correct answer is Babar.

Key Points

• Babar, originally named Zahir-ud-din Muhammad, was a descendant of Timur on his father’s side and Genghis Khan on his mother’s side.
• He founded the Mughal Empire in 1526 after defeating Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat.
• Babar was born in the Fergana Valley (present-day Uzbekistan) in 1483 and was a ruler of Central Asia before establishing his rule in India.
• He was known for his military strategies, use of gunpowder, and effective artillery, which were instrumental in his victories.
• Babar authored the famous autobiography Baburnama, which provides insights into his life, reign, and governance.

Additional Information

• Akbar
• Akbar, the grandson of Babar, was the third Mughal emperor and ruled from 1556 to 1605.
• He is known for his policy of religious tolerance and the establishment of the Din-i-Ilahi, a syncretic religion.
• Under his reign, the Mughal Empire expanded significantly, and he introduced administrative reforms like mansabdari.
• Akbar is also credited with fostering art and culture, including the construction of Fatehpur Sikri.
• Shah Jahan
• Shah Jahan, the fifth Mughal emperor and grandson of Akbar, ruled from 1628 to 1658.
• He is most famous for commissioning the construction of the Taj Mahal in memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal.
• He also built other architectural marvels like the Red Fort in Delhi and the Jama Masjid.
• His reign is considered the golden age of Mughal architecture.
• Aurangzeb
• Aurangzeb, the last powerful Mughal emperor, ruled from 1658 to 1707.
• He expanded the empire to its greatest territorial extent but was criticized for his religious policies and destruction of some Hindu temples.
• He implemented strict Islamic laws and imposed the Jizya tax on non-Muslims.
• His reign marked the beginning of the decline of the Mughal Empire due to internal strife and external invasions.

The correct answer is Purple.

Key Points

• The reaction between copper sulfate and caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) in the presence of protein is known as the Biuret test.
• In this reaction, peptide bonds in proteins react with copper ions to form a purple-colored complex.
• This color change indicates the presence of proteins or polypeptides in the solution.
• The intensity of the purple color is proportional to the concentration of protein in the sample.
• This test is widely used in biochemistry and clinical laboratories for protein estimation and analysis.

Additional Information

• Blue:
• Copper sulfate itself is blue due to the presence of hydrated copper(II) ions in solution.
• When mixed with caustic soda, the blue color remains if no protein is present.
• The absence of a color change after adding proteins indicates a negative result for the Biuret test.
• Green:
• Green is typically not observed in the Biuret test.
• However, green color may appear in other biochemical tests involving copper, such as certain tests for reducing sugars.
• Red:
• Red color is not associated with the Biuret test.
• It may indicate the presence of other compounds or be seen in different protein tests, such as the Millon’s test for tyrosine residues in proteins.

The correct answer is They were smaller and less elaborate.

Key Points

• The states that emerged in the post-Gupta period were smaller in size compared to the vast and centralized Gupta Empire.
• These states were less elaborate in terms of administrative and political structures, with fragmented governance as opposed to the unified administration of the Gupta period.
• Unlike the Gupta Empire, which had a strong, centralized rule, the post-Gupta states often exhibited decentralized governance with local rulers holding significant autonomy.
• The political landscape during this period was marked by regionalism and the rise of smaller kingdoms, such as those in the Rajputana, Deccan, and South India regions.
• Socio-economic and political instability in the post-Gupta period led to the decline of elaborate state mechanisms and the simplification of governance systems.

Additional Information

• The post-Gupta period in Indian history is characterized by the decline of a centralized empire and the rise of smaller, regional states.
• This period marked a transition from the classical age of Indian history under the Guptas to the medieval period, with significant changes in political, social, and economic structures.
• The decentralization of power and the rise of regionalism were defining features of this era.

The correct answer is A village in Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• The term "Kuchipudi" originates from the name of a small village called Kuchipudi located in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
• Kuchipudi is one of the eight classical dance forms of India and is known for its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and expressive gestures (abhinaya).
• The dance form was traditionally performed by male Brahmin dancers, known as Bhagavatulu, but now includes performers from all genders.
• Kuchipudi is closely associated with themes derived from Hindu mythology, particularly the stories of Lord Krishna and other deities.
• This classical dance style includes unique elements such as dialogue delivery and singing, setting it apart from other Indian classical dance forms.

Additional Information

• Temple dedicated to Lord Shiva:
• The option mentioning a temple dedicated to Lord Shiva is inaccurate in the context of the origin of the term "Kuchipudi."
• While temples have historically been important centers for the development of classical dance forms in India, Kuchipudi derives its name from the village and not a specific temple.
• Many classical dances, such as Bharatanatyam, originated in temple settings as offerings to deities, but Kuchipudi developed as a theatrical dance tradition.
• 7^th-century Sanskrit texts on dance:
• The 7^th-century Sanskrit texts like Natya Shastra by Bharat Muni are foundational texts for Indian classical dance forms.
• However, Kuchipudi itself is not directly derived from these texts but rather developed as a unique style in the village of Kuchipudi in Andhra Pradesh.
• Natya Shastra does provide guidelines for classical dance and drama, which influenced various Indian dance forms, including Kuchipudi.
• Famous dancer from Andhra Pradesh:
• This option is incorrect as the name "Kuchipudi" does not refer to any specific dancer.
• Although famous dancers like Siddhendra Yogi played a key role in shaping the Kuchipudi dance form, the term itself is derived from the village.
• Siddhendra Yogi is credited with transforming Kuchipudi into a refined art form and introducing devotional themes.

The correct answer is RHUMI 1.

Key Points

• RHUMI 1 is India's first reusable hybrid rocket developed by Space Zone India, a Tamil Nadu-based startup, in collaboration with Martin Group.
• The rocket was successfully launched on 19^th August 2023, marking a significant milestone in the development of reusable rocket technology in India.
• It operates on a hybrid propulsion system, which combines solid and liquid fuels, making it more efficient and environmentally friendly compared to conventional systems.
• The launch of RHUMI 1 demonstrates India's growing capabilities in space technology and innovation, particularly in the private sector.
• This reusable rocket technology aims to reduce the cost of access to space while promoting sustainability in space exploration.

Additional Information

• Prarambh
• Prarambh is the name of the first mission undertaken by Skyroot Aerospace, a private Indian aerospace company.
• Under this mission, Skyroot successfully launched the Vikram-S rocket on 18^th November 2022, making it India's first privately developed rocket to reach space.
• It was a suborbital mission aimed at demonstrating the capabilities of their Vikram series of launch vehicles.
• Agni 1
• Agni 1 is part of the Agni series of ballistic missiles developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India.
• It is a short-range ballistic missile with a range of 700–1,200 km, capable of carrying a nuclear warhead.
• Agni 1 is primarily designed for strategic deterrence and is not related to reusable rocket technology.
• Vikram-S
• Vikram-S is India's first privately developed rocket, launched successfully on 18^th November 2022 by Skyroot Aerospace.
• The rocket is named after Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the father of the Indian space program.
• It is a suborbital rocket and was developed as part of the "Prarambh" mission to demonstrate the feasibility of Skyroot's technologies.

The correct answer is East Coast Economic Corridor.

Key Points

• The Vizag-Chennai Industrial Corridor (VCIC) is the first phase of the East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC), which spans India’s eastern coastline.
• The ECEC aims to connect India with the dynamic global production networks of South, Southeast, and East Asia, thereby promoting industrial growth, trade, and investments.
• The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has been a key partner in the development of the VCIC, supporting its implementation through technical assistance and financial aid.
• The VCIC focuses on infrastructure development, such as roads, ports, and power, to improve the connectivity of industrial clusters located along the corridor.
• The corridor is critical for leveraging India’s manufacturing potential and creating employment opportunities, particularly in Andhra Pradesh, where it is primarily based.

Additional Information

• Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor (CBIC):
• The CBIC is an important industrial corridor that aims to connect Chennai and Bengaluru through a high-speed transport network and robust infrastructure.
• The corridor focuses on industrial development in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka, and facilitates the establishment of manufacturing zones and Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
• It is part of the larger plan to create industrial corridors across India for promoting economic growth and regional development.
• Amritsar-Kolkata Industrial Corridor (AKIC):
• The AKIC is a proposed industrial corridor connecting Amritsar in Punjab to Kolkata in West Bengal.
• It is designed to leverage the existing Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor and boost industrial development in northern and eastern parts of India.
• The corridor focuses on agro-based industries, textile hubs, and small and medium enterprises (SMEs) to create employment opportunities.
• Chennai-Bengaluru Economic Corridor:
• This is another term often used interchangeably with CBIC, emphasizing economic integration and industrial growth between Chennai and Bengaluru.
• It underscores the strategic importance of this region as a manufacturing and IT hub in South India.

The correct answer is All long.

Key Points

• The parental pea plants with tall (TT) and short (tt) characteristics are homozygous for their respective traits.
• When these plants are crossed, all F1 progeny inherit one allele for height from each parent, resulting in a heterozygous genotype (Tt).
• In pea plants, the tall (T) allele is dominant over the short (t) allele, meaning Tt plants will exhibit the tall phenotype.
• Thus, all F1 progeny will be tall, as the dominant allele masks the recessive allele in heterozygous individuals.
• This phenomenon of dominance was first observed and explained by Gregor Mendel in his experiments on pea plants.

Additional Information

• Mendel’s Experiments
• Gregor Mendel is known as the "Father of Genetics" for his experiments on pea plants.
• He studied seven traits in pea plants, including height, which followed simple Mendelian inheritance patterns.
• He proposed the laws of inheritance, including the Law of Dominance, Law of Segregation, and Law of Independent Assortment.

The correct answer is 1992.

Key Points

• Shobhana Narayan, a renowned Indian classical dancer, was awarded the prestigious Padma Shri award in 1992.
• She is celebrated for her exceptional contributions to the field of Indian classical dance, specifically Bharatanatyam.
• Shobhana Narayan has performed extensively both in India and abroad, showcasing the rich cultural heritage of India through her dance.
• Her work has been instrumental in promoting and preserving Indian classical arts on a global scale.
• The Padma Shri is the fourth highest civilian award in India and is given to individuals for their distinguished contributions in various fields, including art, literature, science, and social services.

Additional Information

• 1998:
• The Padma Shri award for the year 1998 was conferred upon notable personalities like Vishwanath Pratap Singh (for public affairs) and Kiran Bedi (for social work).
• This year saw significant recognition of contributions across diverse fields, including arts, literature, and social services.
• 2001:
• The Padma Shri awardees in 2001 included individuals like Shovana Narayan, another prominent Bharatanatyam dancer.
• This period marked the rise of distinguished contributions in Indian classical arts, with special focus on performing arts.
• 2005:
• The Padma Shri award in 2005 was given to individuals such as Raveena Tandon for her contributions to cinema.
• Several other fields like science, medicine, and social work were also recognized during this year.

Important Points

• Padma Awards:
• The Padma Awards—Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri—are among the highest civilian honors in India.
• Established in 1954, these awards are conferred by the Government of India annually on Republic Day.
• They recognize individuals for their exceptional and distinguished contributions in various fields like arts, literature, science, sports, social work, and public affairs.

The correct answer is 1909.

Key Points

• The Minto-Morley Reforms are officially known as the Indian Councils Act of 1909, introduced during the tenure of Lord Minto as Viceroy and John Morley as Secretary of State for India.
• These reforms marked a significant step towards introducing representative governance in British India by expanding Indian participation in legislative councils.
• The Act provided for the inclusion of Indians in the decision-making process by allowing non-official Indian members to be elected to the councils.
• It introduced the concept of separate electorates for Muslims, allowing them to elect their representatives separately, which sowed the seeds of communal divisions in Indian politics.
• The Act of 1909 increased the number of members in the Imperial Legislative Council and Provincial Legislative Councils, granting Indians limited powers to discuss the budget and suggest amendments.

Additional Information

• 1905
• The year 1905 is historically significant for the Partition of Bengal, announced by Lord Curzon, which divided Bengal into East Bengal and West Bengal based on religious and linguistic lines.
• The partition led to widespread protests and the rise of the Swadeshi Movement, promoting Indian goods and boycotting British goods.
• This event is unrelated to the Minto-Morley Reforms but played a crucial role in shaping the Indian freedom struggle.
• 1903
• The year 1903 is notable for the Durbar in Delhi
• This event showcased the grandeur of the British Empire but did not involve any legislative reforms or policies like the Minto-Morley Reforms.
• 1907
• The year 1907 is significant in Indian history for the split between the Moderates and Extremists in the Indian National Congress during the Surat Session.
• This division highlighted ideological differences within the Congress but is unrelated to the reforms introduced under the Indian Councils Act of 1909

The correct answer is 1984.

Key Points

• Silent Valley National Park is located in the Palakkad district of Kerala and is renowned for its rich biodiversity and pristine rainforests.
• The park was officially declared as a National Park in 1984 after a long environmental struggle to protect it from a proposed hydroelectric project.
• This area is considered one of the last remnants of virgin tropical rainforests in India and is home to several endangered and endemic species, including the Lion-tailed Macaque.
• Silent Valley is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO-recognized reserve, emphasizing its ecological importance.
• The park spans an area of approximately 237.52 square kilometers and is an essential ecological hotspot for conservation efforts in India.

Additional Information

• Silent Valley National Park
• The park derives its name from the relative absence of the chirping sound of cicadas, giving it the "silent" moniker.
• The park is located in the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, recognized for its exceptional biodiversity.
• Silent Valley is home to the Kunthi River, which originates within the park and flows undisturbed, adding to its ecological significance.

The correct answer is To develop a process to convert CO2 into alcohol and eliminate volatile organic compounds.

Key Points

• Dr. Bappi Paul was awarded the prestigious Science Yuva Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award 2024 for his groundbreaking work in developing processes to convert CO2 into alcohol and eliminate volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
• This research focuses on mitigating environmental pollution by targeting greenhouse gases like CO2 and harmful VOCs, which are major contributors to climate change and air pollution.
• The process developed has the potential to revolutionize industrial applications by reducing carbon emissions while producing useful chemical products like alcohol.
• Dr. Paul's work is seen as a step forward in sustainable development and circular economy, where waste gases like CO2 are converted into valuable resources.
• The award recognizes individuals who have made significant contributions to science and technology that address pressing global challenges.

Additional Information

• Determination of chemical characteristics of PM2.5 and source apportionment of organic aerosols
• PM2.5 refers to particulate matter with a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers, which can cause severe respiratory and cardiovascular issues.
• Determining chemical characteristics of PM2.5 helps identify pollution sources and formulate strategies to reduce emissions.
• Source apportionment of organic aerosols involves tracing the origins of these pollutants, such as vehicular emissions, industrial processes, or biomass burning.
• This research aids in improving air quality and reducing health risks associated with PM2.5 exposure.
• To find new solutions for the environmental governance of global sand resources
• Sand is the second most used natural resource in the world after water, and its overextraction has led to ecological degradation.
• Environmental governance of sand resources focuses on sustainable mining practices, recycling construction materials, and reducing illegal sand mining activities.
• Research in this area aims to balance economic development with environmental conservation.
• This work has significant implications for construction, infrastructure development, and biodiversity preservation.
• Assessment of methane emissions and energy recovery potential from municipal solid waste landfills
• Municipal solid waste landfills are significant sources of methane emissions, a potent greenhouse gas.
• Assessing methane emissions involves measuring the quantity and rate of methane released from landfills.
• Energy recovery potential refers to harnessing methane for electricity generation or other energy applications, converting waste into a resource.
• Research in this area supports sustainable waste management and contributes to reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

The correct answer is incidence of disease in the population.

Key Points

• Morbidity refers to the incidence or prevalence of a disease or medical condition in a population over a specific period.
• It is a key indicator used in public health and epidemiology to assess the health status of a population.
• Morbidity rates help in understanding the burden of diseases and planning health interventions to prevent or manage illnesses effectively.
• Diseases or conditions that contribute to morbidity include both acute and chronic illnesses such as infections, cardiovascular diseases, cancers, and respiratory conditions.
• Unlike mortality, which measures death rates, morbidity focuses on the presence of disease and its impact on quality of life and healthcare systems.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Population growth rate
• The population growth rate refers to the rate at which the number of individuals in a population increases over a specific period.
• It is typically expressed as a percentage and considers factors like birth rates, death rates, and migration.
• This measure is important for understanding demographic trends and planning for infrastructure, resources, and services.
• Option 2: Birth rate in the population
• The birth rate is the number of live births per 1,000 individuals in a population over a given time period.
• It is a fundamental demographic indicator that affects population growth and age structure.
• Factors influencing birth rates include cultural, economic, and social conditions, as well as access to healthcare and family planning.
• Option 3: Number of deaths in the population
• This refers to the mortality rate, which measures the number of deaths per 1,000 individuals in a population over a specific time frame.
• Mortality rates are further categorized into infant mortality, maternal mortality, and age-specific mortality rates.
• Studying mortality helps in understanding life expectancy and the effectiveness of healthcare systems.

The correct answer is Option 2: a - ii; b - iv; c - i; d - iii.

Key Points

• Delhi became a Union Territory in 1956 under the States Reorganisation Act. It gained a special status as the National Capital Territory of Delhi later in 1991.
• Puducherry was formed in 1962 after the French settlement transferred to India. It consists of four districts: Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam.
• Chandigarh was established as a Union Territory in 1966 when Haryana was carved out of Punjab, making Chandigarh a shared capital for both states.
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli became a Union Territory in 1961 after liberation from Portuguese rule. It was merged with Daman and Diu in 2020, forming a single Union Territory.

Additional Information

• Union Territories:
• India has several Union Territories (UTs), which are governed directly by the Central Government under Article 239 of the Constitution.
• UTs do not have the same degree of autonomy as states. However, some UTs like Delhi and Puducherry have legislatures and partial state-like governance.
• Union Territories are administered by an Administrator or Lieutenant Governor appointed by the President of India.
• Formation of Union Territories:
• The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, played a major role in the creation of Union Territories.
• Some regions became Union Territories due to historical, linguistic, cultural, or strategic reasons.
• Examples include Lakshadweep (due to geographical isolation) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands (due to strategic importance).
• Key Developments in Union Territories:
• Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh were carved out as separate Union Territories in 2019 following the abrogation of Article 370.
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged with Daman and Diu in 2020, forming a single UT for administrative efficiency.

The correct answer is Avani Lekhara.

Key Points

• Avani Lekhara is an Indian Paralympic shooter who competes in the SH1 category in the sport of rifle shooting.
• She made history by winning India’s first-ever gold medal in shooting at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics in the women's 10m air rifle standing SH1 event.
• Avani Lekhara has consistently displayed exceptional skill and determination, earning her multiple accolades in international shooting competitions.
• Her victory at the Paris 2024 Paralympics in the women's 10m air rifle standing SH1 event reaffirms her position as one of the most celebrated Paralympic athletes in India.
• Avani's achievements have been a source of inspiration for aspiring athletes with disabilities across the globe, showcasing resilience and excellence in sports.

Additional Information

• Rubina Francis
• Rubina Francis is an Indian para shooter specializing in pistol events.
• She holds the world record for scoring 238.1 points in the P2 Women’s 10m Air Pistol SH1 category at the World Shooting Para Sports Championships.
• Although Rubina Francis has achieved significant milestones, she has not won gold in the women’s 10m air rifle standing SH1 event.
• Deepti Jeevanjee
• Deepti Jeevanjee has not been associated with any major achievements in the shooting category at the Paralympics.
• She is not recognized as a medalist or participant in the women’s 10m air rifle standing SH1 event.
• Mona Agarwal
• Mona Agarwal is not known for competing in the women's 10m air rifle standing SH1 event at the Paralympics.
• There is no record of her involvement in this specific event or any major achievements in para shooting.

The correct answer is Tamil.

Key Points

• The Government of India declared Tamil as the first classical language of India in 2004.
• The distinction of being classified as a classical language is based on antiquity, independent tradition, and rich literary heritage.
• Tamil is one of the oldest languages in the world, with a history that goes back over 2,000 years.
• The Tamil language has a rich literary tradition, with Sangam literature being its most prominent and ancient contribution.
• It is a Dravidian language and is predominantly spoken in Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka, as well as by Tamil diaspora worldwide.

Additional Information

• Sanskrit
• Sanskrit is an ancient Indo-Aryan language and is often referred to as the "mother of all languages."
• It was recognized as a classical language of India in 2005, following Tamil.
• Sanskrit has a vast collection of literature, including the Vedas, Upanishads, Mahabharata, Ramayana, and Puranas.
• It is known for its systematic grammar, which was codified by Panini in his famous work, "Ashtadhyayi."
• Telugu
• Telugu, a Dravidian language, is one of the most widely spoken languages in India, particularly in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• It was recognized as a classical language of India in 2008.
• Telugu has a rich literary tradition, with works like "Nannaya Bhattarakudu's Mahabharatam" being a significant contribution.
• Odia
• Odia, an Indo-Aryan language, is predominantly spoken in Odisha.
• It was declared a classical language in 2014, making it the sixth language to receive this status.
• Odia has a long literary history, with works like "Sarala Mahabharata" being an important part of its tradition.

Important Points

• Classical Language Status in India
• The criteria for granting classical language status include:
• High antiquity of early texts/recorded history over 1,500-2,000 years.
• A body of ancient literature or texts considered a valuable heritage by generations.
• Original literary tradition, not borrowed from another speech community.
• As of October 2023, six languages have received this status: Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia.

The correct answer is Abolition of the right to property as a fundamental right.

Key Points

• The 44^th Amendment Act of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution.
• It amended Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, which guaranteed the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property.
• The right to property was reclassified as a legal right under Article 300A, which states that no person shall be deprived of their property except by the authority of law.
• The abolition was intended to resolve the conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy, particularly concerning land redistribution and social justice.
• This change ensured that property rights did not hinder the implementation of land reforms and equitable distribution of resources across the country.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights and Constitutional Amendments:
• Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution and aim to ensure the protection of individual rights and freedoms.
• Constitutional amendments, such as the 44^th Amendment Act, play a crucial role in addressing evolving societal needs and resolving conflicts between different provisions of the Constitution.
• The 44^th Amendment Act is significant for balancing individual rights with the larger goal of social and economic justice.

The correct answer is South-Eastern Rajasthan.

Key Points

• 'Wale' or 'Valtre' is a traditional agricultural practice followed in South-Eastern Rajasthan.
• This practice is primarily associated with the Bhil tribe, which is indigenous to this region.
• It involves a unique form of agriculture where land is cultivated using traditional tools and methods suited to the local terrain and climate.
• The technique is significant in preserving the cultural heritage and traditional ecological knowledge of the region.
• South-Eastern Rajasthan, where this practice is prevalent, is known for its hilly terrains and tribal population, influencing such indigenous agricultural methods.

Additional Information

• South-Eastern Gujarat:
• South-Eastern Gujarat is known for its industrial and agricultural activities, especially the cultivation of crops like sugarcane, cotton, and groundnuts.
• The region is home to the Dang tribe, which has its own unique cultural practices but is not associated with 'Wale' or 'Valtre'.
• South-Eastern Meghalaya:
• South-Eastern Meghalaya is characterized by its hilly terrain and dense forests.
• The region is primarily known for shifting cultivation (jhum cultivation), a traditional agricultural practice of the tribal population, but it is not linked to 'Wale' or 'Valtre'.
• South-Eastern Jharkhand:
• South-Eastern Jharkhand has a significant tribal population engaged in traditional farming methods.
• The region is known for practices like terrace farming and cultivation of millets, paddy, and pulses but does not include 'Wale' or 'Valtre' as a traditional method.
• Traditional Agricultural Practices:
• India is home to a variety of traditional agricultural practices that are region-specific and tailored to local environmental and cultural contexts.
• These methods often involve sustainable practices, utilization of indigenous knowledge, and adaptation to climatic and geographical conditions.
• Examples include Jhum cultivation in the Northeast, step farming in hilly areas, and beemar ploughing in dry regions.

The correct answer is Education.

Key Points

• Economic infrastructure refers to the physical and organizational structures that support economic activities and contribute to economic growth and development.
• It includes sectors such as transportation, energy, communication, and other utilities essential for industrial and commercial activities.
• Education is considered part of social infrastructure, not economic infrastructure, as it focuses on improving human capital and social development rather than directly supporting economic processes.
• Social infrastructure includes facilities and services such as schools, hospitals, housing, and sanitation, which aim to enhance the quality of life of individuals.
• The exclusion of education from economic infrastructure is due to its primary role in fostering societal growth and human development rather than enabling direct economic transactions or production activities.

Additional Information

• Transportation:
• Transportation is a crucial component of economic infrastructure as it facilitates the movement of goods, services, and people.
• Modes of transportation include roadways, railways, airways, and waterways, which are vital for trade, commerce, and connectivity.
• Efficient transportation systems contribute to reducing costs, saving time, and enhancing productivity in various sectors.
• Energy:
• Energy infrastructure includes the generation, transmission, and distribution of power, which is essential for industrial and economic activities.
• Reliable energy supply is critical for production, innovation, and the functioning of businesses.
• Sources of energy include fossil fuels, renewable energy, and nuclear power, and advancements in these areas drive economic growth.
• Communication:
• Communication infrastructure encompasses telecommunication networks, internet services, and broadcasting systems.
• It plays a vital role in enabling information exchange, business operations, and global connectivity.
• Modern communication systems, such as 5G networks, significantly impact technological advancements and economic progress.

The correct answer is 0.1992.

Key Points

• The Hindu population growth rate, as per the 2011 Census, declined to 16.76%.
• In the previous decade (2001 Census), the Hindu population growth rate was recorded at 19.92%, represented as 0.1992 in decimal form.
• The decline in the Hindu population growth rate reflects a broader trend of decreasing population growth rates across India due to improved awareness about family planning and socio-economic development.
• India’s overall population growth rate for the decade 2001-2011 was 17.7%, marking a decline from the 21.54% growth rate recorded in the 1991-2001 decade.
• This data highlights the demographic transition happening across various religious groups in India, including Hindus, Muslims, Christians, and others.

Additional Information

• Key Data Points for 2011 Census:
• Population: 1,210,854,977 (623.7 million males, 586.5 million females).
• Decadal Growth (2001-2011): 17.7%.
• Literacy Rate: 74.04% (Males: 82.14%, Females: 65.46%).
• Sex Ratio: 943 females per 1000 males.
• Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years): 919 females per 1000 males (declined from 927 in 2001).
• Population Density: 382 per sq km.
• Rural-Urban Population: 68.84% rural vs. 31.16% urban.
• Most/Least Populous States: Uttar Pradesh (highest), Sikkim (lowest).

The correct answer is Individuals who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.

Key Points

• The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019, applies to religious minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan, specifically Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians.
• These individuals are eligible for Indian citizenship if they entered India on or before December 31, 2014.
• The act aims to provide protection to these communities who faced religious persecution in their countries of origin.
• The cut-off date of December 31, 2014, ensures that individuals who entered India before this date can apply for citizenship under the provisions of the CAA.
• Under the CAA, the requirement of 11 years of residence for naturalization is reduced to 5 years for eligible individuals.

Additional Information

• Key Features and Amendments
• Citizenship Act, 1955: Defines the 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 7A, 7B, 7C, 7D, 6A, 6B methods of acquiring and terminating citizenship.
• 1986 Amendment: Restricted citizenship by birth, requiring at least one parent to be an Indian citizen.
• 2003/2005 Amendment: Introduced the concept of Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) and stricter measures against illegal migrants.

Given:

Length of train = 510 m

Speed of train = 78 km/h

Time to cross the tunnel = 57 seconds

Formula Used:

Speed (m/s) = Speed (km/h) × (1000 / 3600)

Total distance = Length of train + Length of tunnel

Time = Total distance / Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Speed (m/s) = 78 × (1000 / 3600)

⇒ Speed (m/s) = 21.67 m/s

⇒ Total distance = Speed × Time

⇒ Total distance = 21.67 × 57

⇒ Total distance = 1235.19 m

⇒ Length of tunnel = Total distance - Length of train

⇒ Length of tunnel = 1235.19 - 510

⇒ Length of tunnel = 725.19 m

∴ The correct answer is 725.

Given:

A's investment = ₹24,000 for 6 months

B's investment = ₹30,000 for 8 months

C's investment = ₹18,000 for 12 months

Total profit = ₹1,50,000

Formula Used:

Profit share ratio = (Investment × Time)

B's profit = (B's ratio / Total ratio) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ A's share = 24,000 × 6 = 1,44,000

⇒ B's share = 30,000 × 8 = 2,40,000

�� C's share = 18,000 × 12 = 2,16,000

⇒ Total ratio = A's share + B's share + C's share = 1,44,000 + 2,40,000 + 2,16,000 = 6,00,000

⇒ B's profit = (B's share / Total ratio) × Total profit

⇒ B's profit = (2,40,000 / 6,00,000) × 1,50,000

⇒ B's profit = (2 / 5) × 1,50,000

⇒ B's profit = ₹60,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹60,000.

Given:

Naman can complete the work in 11 days

Umar can complete the work in 15 days

They work together for 2 days

Formula used:

Work = LCM of days

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Remaining work = Total work − Work done

Time = Remaining work ÷ Efficiency

Calculations:

LCM of 11 and 15 = 165

⇒ Total work = 165 units

⇒ Naman’s 1 day work = 165 ÷ 11 = 15 units

⇒ Umar’s 1 day work = 165 ÷ 15 = 11 units

⇒ Together 1 day work = 15 + 11 = 26 units

⇒ Work done in 2 days = 26 × 2 = 52 units

⇒ Remaining work = 165 − 52 = 113 units

⇒ Time taken by Naman = 113/15 days

∴ Naman will complete the remaining work in 113/15 days.

Given:

A ∶ B = 14 ∶ 8

B ∶ C = 13 ∶ 8

Formula Used:

To find C ∶ B ∶ A, equalize the common term B using LCM.

LCM of B values = LCM(8, 13)

Calculation:

⇒ LCM(8, 13) = 104

⇒ A ∶ B = 14 × 13 ∶ 8 × 13 = 182 ∶ 104

⇒ B ∶ C = 13 × 8 ∶ 8 × 8 = 104 ∶ 64

⇒ C ∶ B ∶ A = 64 ∶ 104 ∶ 182

⇒ Simplified ratio = 32 ∶ 52 ∶ 91

∴ The correct answer is 32 ∶ 52 ∶ 91.

Given:

Money triples itself in 10 years.

Interest is compounded annually.

Formula Used:

A = P(1 + r)ⁿ

For compound interest, time to triple = log(3) / log(1 + r).

Calculation:

⇒ Money triples in 10 years, so log(3) / log(1 + r) = 10.

⇒ log(1 + r) = log(3) / 10.

⇒ To become 9 times, log(9) / log(1 + r) = n.

⇒ log(9) = log(3²) = 2 × log(3).

⇒ n = (2 × log(3)) / (log(3) / 10).

⇒ n = 2 × 10.

⇒ n = 20 years.

∴ The correct answer is 20 years.

Solution:

From the bar graph, the sales figures (in thousands) are:

For the year 2000:

B1 = 80

B3 = 95

B6 = 70

Step 1: Find average sales of B1, B3 and B6 in 2000

Average = (80 + 95 + 70) ÷ 3

= 245 ÷ 3

For the year 2001:

B1 = 105

B2 = 65

B3 = 110

Step 2: Find average sales of B1, B2 and B3 in 2001

Average = (105 + 65 + 110) ÷ 3

= 280 ÷ 3

Step 3: Find required percentage

Percentage = (245 ÷ 3) ÷ (280 ÷ 3) × 100

= (245 ÷ 280) × 100

= 0.875 × 100

= 87.5%

Final Answer:

87.5%

Given:

Diameter of semicircular sheet = 42 cm

Radius of semicircular sheet (r) = 42 / 2 = 21 cm

Length of arc of semicircle = π × r = 22/7 × 21 = 66 cm

Formula Used:

Length of arc of semicircle = Circumference of base of cone

Base radius of cone (R) = Circumference / (2 × π)

Slant height of cone (l) = Radius of semicircular sheet = 21 cm

Depth of cone (h) = √(l² − R²)

Calculation:

⇒ Circumference of base of cone = 66 cm

⇒ R = 66 / (2 × 22/7) = 66 × 7 / 44 = 10.5 cm

⇒ l = 21 cm

⇒ h = √(21² − 10.5²)

⇒ h = √(441 − 110.25)

⇒ h = √330.75

⇒ h ≈ 18 cm

∴ The correct answer is 18 cm.

Given:

Akshay spends 70% of his income.

Akshay saves ₹42000.

Formula Used:

Total income = Savings / (1 - Spending percentage).

Calculation:

⇒ Spending percentage = 70% = 70 / 100 = 0.7.

⇒ Savings percentage = 1 - Spending percentage = 1 - 0.7 = 0.3.

⇒ Total income = ₹42000 / 0.3.

⇒ Total income = ₹140000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹140000.

Given:

Percentage 1 = 2%

Percentage 2 = 49%

Target = What percent of the number?

Formula Used:

Percentage of a number = (Percentage × Number) / 100

Required percentage = (Calculated value / Original number) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ 2% of 49% of the number = (2 × 49 × Number) / 100 / 100

⇒ (2 × 49) / 10000 × Number = 0.0098 × Number

⇒ Required percentage = (0.0098 × Number / Number) × 100

⇒ 0.0098 × 100 = 0.98%

∴ The correct answer is 0.98%.

Given:

Remainder when original number is divided by divisor = 22

Remainder when twice the original number is divided by divisor = 8

Formula Used:

Let the original number be N and the divisor be D.

N = D × quotient + remainder

For twice the original number: 2N = D × quotient + remainder

Calculation:

Let N = D × q + 22

Twice the number: 2N = 2(D × q + 22)

⇒ 2N = D × 2q + 44

When divided by D, remainder is 8:

⇒ (D × 2q + 44) mod D = 8

⇒ 44 mod D = 8

⇒ D - 8 = 44 mod D

Find the maximum divisor such that 44 mod D = 8:

44 - 8 = 36

D must be a divisor of 36. Divisors of 36 are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36.

Maximum value of D = 36.

∴ The correct answer is 36.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3000

Rate of Interest (R) = 10% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (3000 × 10 × 3) / 100

⇒ SI = 90000 / 100

⇒ SI = ₹900

∴ The correct answer is ₹900.

Given:

Discount = 40%

Selling Price (SP) = ₹ 65871

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked Price × Discount Percentage / 100

Selling Price = Marked Price - Discount

Calculation:

Let the Marked Price = ₹ x

Discount = x × 40 / 100 = 0.4x

Selling Price = Marked Price - Discount

⇒ ₹ 65871 = x - 0.4x

⇒ ₹ 65871 = 0.6x

⇒ x = ₹ 65871 / 0.6

⇒ x = ₹ 109785

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 109785.

Given:

Ratio of purchase prices of X and Y = 2 : 3

Profit percentage on X = 37%

Loss percentage on Y = 13%

Formula Used:

Total Cost Price = (2 × Cost Price of X) + (3 × Cost Price of Y)

Total Selling Price = (Selling Price of X) + (Selling Price of Y)

Profit/Loss Percentage = [(Total Selling Price - Total Cost Price) / Total Cost Price] × 100

Calculation:

Let the Cost Price of X = 2k and Cost Price of Y = 3k (from the ratio).

⇒ Total Cost Price = 2k + 3k = 5k

Profit on X = 37% of 2k = (37 / 100) × 2k = 0.74k

Loss on Y = 13% of 3k = (13 / 100) × 3k = 0.39k

Selling Price of X = Cost Price of X + Profit on X = 2k + 0.74k = 2.74k

Selling Price of Y = Cost Price of Y - Loss on Y = 3k - 0.39k = 2.61k

⇒ Total Selling Price = 2.74k + 2.61k = 5.35k

Profit/Loss Percentage = [(Total Selling Price - Total Cost Price) / Total Cost Price] × 100

⇒ Profit/Loss Percentage = [(5.35k - 5k) / 5k] × 100

⇒ Profit/Loss Percentage = [0.35k / 5k] × 100

⇒ Profit/Loss Percentage = 7%

∴ The correct answer is Profit, 7%.

Given:

Length = 14 m

Width = 26 m

Height = 5 m

Formula Used:

Volume of a cuboid = Length × Width × Height

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = 14 × 26 × 5

⇒ Volume = 364 × 5

⇒ Volume = 1820 m³

∴ The correct answer is 1820.

Given:

Price per toy for 42 toys = ₹250

Price per toy for 28 toys = ₹400

Total number of toys = 42 + 28

Formula Used:

Total cost = (Number of toys × Price per toy) + (Number of toys × Price per toy)

Average price per toy = Total cost / Total number of toys

Calculation:

⇒ Total cost = (42 × ₹250) + (28 × ₹400)

⇒ Total cost = ₹10,500 + ₹11,200

⇒ Total cost = ₹21,700

⇒ Total number of toys = 42 + 28

⇒ Total number of toys = 70

⇒ Average price per toy = ₹21,700 / 70

⇒ Average price per toy = ₹310

∴ The correct answer is ₹310.

Given:

Speed of car A = 90 km/hr

Speed of car B = 120 km/hr

Time = 2 hours

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Shortest distance = √(Distance_A² + Distance_B²)

Calculation:

⇒ Distance_A = 90 × 2 = 180 km

⇒ Distance_B = 120 × 2 = 240 km

⇒ Shortest distance = √(180² + 240²)

⇒ Shortest distance = √(32400 + 57600)

⇒ Shortest distance = √90000

⇒ Shortest distance = 300 km

∴ The correct answer is 300 km.

Solution:

Given expressions:

5³ × 9² × 12

5² × 12² × 13

9³ × 12² × 13²

Step 1: Convert all numbers into prime factors

9 = 3 × 3 = 3²

12 = 2² × 3

So, rewrite each expression:

1. 5³ × (3²)² × (2² × 3)

= 5³ × 3⁴ × 2² × 3

= 2² × 3⁵ × 5³

2. 5² × (2² × 3)² × 13

= 5² × 2⁴ × 3² × 13

3. (3²)³ × (2² × 3)² × 13²

= 3⁶ × 2⁴ × 3² × 13²

= 2⁴ × 3⁸ × 13²

Step 2: Take highest powers of each prime

2 → max power = 2⁴

3 → max power = 3⁸

5 → max power = 5³

13 → max power = 13²

LCM = 2⁴ × 3⁸ × 5³ × 13²

Correct Option:

Option 2) 2⁴ × 3⁸ × 5³ × 13²

Given:

50% of items sold at 27% profit.

28% of remaining items sold at 35% profit.

Remaining items sold at 15% loss.

Formula Used:

Total profit percentage = (Total profit / Total cost price) × 100.

Remaining items = Total items - items already accounted for.

Calculation:

Let total items = 100 (assumption for simplicity).

⇒ Items sold at 27% profit = 50% of 100 = 50.

⇒ Remaining items = 100 - 50 = 50.

⇒ Items sold at 35% profit = 28% of 50 = 14.

⇒ Remaining items = 50 - 14 = 36.

Profit from 27% profit items = 50 × 27% = 50 × 27 / 100 = 13.5.

Profit from 35% profit items = 14 × 35% = 14 × 35 / 100 = 4.9.

Loss from 15% loss items = 36 × 15% = 36 × 15 / 100 = 5.4.

Net profit = 13.5 + 4.9 - 5.4 = 13.

Total cost price = 100 (assumed).

Total profit percentage = (Net profit / Total cost price) × 100.

⇒ Total profit percentage = (13 / 100) × 100 = 13%.

∴ The correct answer is 13.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the tank in 37 hours.

Pipe B can fill the tank in 18 hours.

Formula Used:

Total work = LCM of time taken by both pipes.

Work done per hour = Total work / Time taken.

Time taken when both pipes are open = Total work / Total rate of work.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM(37, 18) = 666 units.

⇒ Work done per hour by Pipe A = 666 / 37 = 18 units/hour.

⇒ Work done per hour by Pipe B = 666 / 18 = 37 units/hour.

⇒ Total rate of work = 18 + 37 = 55 units/hour.

⇒ Time taken = Total work / Total rate of work = 666 / 55 = \(12\frac{6}{55}\) hours.

∴ The correct answer is \(12\frac{6}{55}\) hours.

Given:

Average marks of 12 students = 50

Marks of each student are doubled.

Formula Used:

New average = Old average × Factor by which marks are increased

Calculation:

⇒ Old average = 50

⇒ Factor by which marks are increased = 2

⇒ New average = 50 × 2

⇒ New average = 100

∴ The correct answer is 100.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Fluctuating.

Key Points

• The word "capricious" means unpredictable, inconsistent, or subject to sudden changes in mood or behavior. (अस्थिर, चंचल)
• Example: Her capricious nature made it hard for others to predict her decisions.
• "Fluctuating" refers to something that is constantly changing, rising, and falling in an irregular way. (ऊपर-नीचे होना)
• Example: The stock market has been fluctuating due to economic uncertainties.
• Thus, "fluctuating" is the most appropriate synonym for "capricious" in the given context.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• High (उच्च): Refers to something at a great height or level.
• Example: The price of gold is at an all-time high.
• Slow (धीमा): Refers to something that moves at a low speed or takes a long time.
• Example: The internet connection is very slow today.
• Mysterious (रहस्यमय): Refers to something difficult or impossible to understand or explain.
• Example: The disappearance of the ship remains a mysterious event.

The correct answer is 'and'.

 

Key Points

• The conjunction "and" is used to link two similar ideas or elements in a sentence.
• In the given sentence, "both academics" and "extracurricular activities" are connected, making "and" the most appropriate choice.
• Options 1 (but), 2 (nor), and 4 (or) are incorrect as they do not fit the intended meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "She excelled in both academics and extracurricular activities, showcasing her versatility."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "but" is incorrect as it introduces a contrast, which is not intended in this sentence.
• Option 2: "nor" is incorrect as it is used to connect two negative ideas, which is not the case here.
• Option 4: "or" is incorrect as it presents alternatives, which does not fit the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'The'.

 

Key Points

• The definite article "The" is used when referring to something specific or unique, like "the human brain," which is one of the most complex structures in nature.
• Option 1: "A" is incorrect because it implies any human brain, not specifically the human brain as a structure.
• Option 2: "No article required" is incorrect because an article is necessary to specify the subject.
• Option 3: "An" is incorrect because "human" starts with a consonant sound, not a vowel sound.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "The human brain remains one of the most complex structures in nature."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "A" is used for non-specific or general references, which does not apply here.
• Option 2: "No article required" is incorrect because articles are necessary to specify a unique subject.
• Option 3: "An" is only used before words starting with a vowel sound.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph structure must move from the general characteristic of machines to the specific demands, consequences, and necessity of serving them.
• Sentence 1 establishes the topic: men serving machines.
• Sentence S is the first sentence** after the opening, as it introduces the main idea that explains why men serve them: "Machines are very stern masters."
• Sentence P follows** as it provides the first specific demand of these "stern masters": "They must be fed well and kept at right temperatures."
• Sentence R follows** as it presents the immediate consequence of failing the demand mentioned in P (referencing "meals"): "If they do not get their meals they refuse to work."
• Sentence Q follows** as it presents the more severe consequence (escalation) of neglect: "They might burst with rage and blow up causing ruin."
• Sentence 6 logically concludes the paragraph by summarising the necessity based on all the demands and consequences: "So, men need to wait upon machines attentively."
• The correct sequence is SPRQ.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Most men spend most of their lives looking after and waiting upon machines. Machines are very stern masters. They must be fed well and kept at right temperatures. If they do not get their meals they refuse to work. They might burst with rage and blow up causing ruin. So, men need to wait upon machines attentively."

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• Let us match the words in Column A with their correct synonyms from Column B:
• A. Perilous matches 4. Hazardous.
• B. Luscious matches 2. Savoury.
• C. Conclude matches 3. Terminate.
• D. Procure matches 1. Secure.
• From the given options, Option 1 (A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1) correctly matches the words with their synonyms.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'prolix'.

 

Key Points

• The word "prolix" means using too many words; too lengthy or wordy.
• The sentence explains that the author's prose alienated modern readers seeking brevity, indicating that the prose was too lengthy.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 do not fit the context because they refer to concise or brief writing styles.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The author's prolix prose, laden with archaic idioms, evoked a bygone era but alienated modern readers seeking brevity."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "pithy" means concise and forcefully expressive, which is the opposite of prolix.
• Option 3: "laconic" means using very few words, which does not fit the context.
• Option 4: "succinct" means briefly and clearly expressed, which is the opposite of prolix.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'gratutous'.

• The correct spelling would be 'gratuitous'.
• The word 'gratuitous' is an adjective which means 'uncalled for; lacking good reason; unwarranted'. (अनावश्यक)
• For Example -
• The movie was criticized for its gratuitous violence.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'gratutous'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Ubiquitous - present, appearing, or found everywhere (सर्वव्यापी)
• Indigenous -  originating or occurring naturally in a particular place (स्थानीय)
• Malicious - characterized by malice; intending or intended to harm (दुष्टतापूर्ण)

The correct answer is 'goes'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "goes" is the correct form for the third-person singular subject "She."
• In the sentence, the action happens every Sunday, indicating a habitual action, so the present simple tense is used.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect for this context, and Option 5 is empty.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "She goes to the market every Sunday."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "going" is incorrect because it is the present participle and not suitable for this context.
• Option 2: "go" is incorrect because it is the base form and does not match the third-person singular subject "She."
• Option 4: "gone" is incorrect because it is the past participle, which is not appropriate here.

The correct answer is 'sound'.

 

Key Points

• The word "sound" means logically valid or based on solid reasoning, which fits the context of the sentence.
• The sentence implies that the arguments were logically valid but lacked empirical evidence to support them.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 do not convey the intended meaning in this context:
• Option 2: "cogent" implies forcefully persuasive, which does not align with the logical validity mentioned.
• Option 3: "fallacious" means logically incorrect, which contradicts the intended meaning.
• Option 4: "specious" implies deceptively attractive but actually invalid, which does not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "His arguments, though logically sound, were undermined by a glaring absence of empirical evidence."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "cogent" is incorrect as it emphasizes persuasiveness rather than logical validity.
• Option 3: "fallacious" is incorrect as it implies a lack of logic, which contradicts the sentence.
• Option 4: "specious" is incorrect because it implies deception rather than sound logic.

The correct answer is 'smoothly'.

 

Key Points

• The adverb "smoothly" describes how the pilot landed the plane, emphasizing a calm and efficient manner, which is suitable for landing on a narrow runway.
• Option 1: peacefully does not fit here, as it implies a sense of tranquility that may not describe the physical action of landing a plane.
• Option 2: badly is incorrect as it suggests poor execution, which contradicts the context of the statement.
• Option 4: quickly is not appropriate because it emphasizes speed rather than the quality of the landing.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The pilot landed the plane smoothly on the narrow runway."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: peacefully is incorrect because the context focuses on the action of landing rather than a state of tranquility.
• Option 2: badly is incorrect as it does not align with the implied successful landing.
• Option 4: quickly is incorrect because it emphasizes speed rather than smoothness or precision.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "Two wrongs do not make a right".

Key Points

• The proverb "Two wrongs do not make a right" means that responding to a bad action with another bad action is not justified; doing something wrong to someone because they did something wrong to you is still unfair and morally incorrect. (दो गलतियाँ एक सही नहीं बनाती)
• Example: If your friend insults you, insulting them back will not solve the issue, because two wrongs do not make a right.
• In the given sentence, Rohit is advised not to behave rudely towards his junior as a response to his boss's rudeness, which aligns with the meaning of "Two wrongs do not make a right".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "Two wrongs do not make a right".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Every dog has his day (हर किसी का समय आता है): This proverb means that everyone gets their moment of success or opportunity, regardless of their current circumstances.
• Example: Don’t worry about your failures; every dog has his day, and your time will come.
• Option 2: Let sleeping dogs lie (सोए हुए कुत्तों को जगाने की ज़रूरत नहीं): This means to avoid stirring up trouble or revisiting old issues that could create problems.
• Example: I didn’t bring up that argument during the meeting because I believe in letting sleeping dogs lie.
• Option 4: As you sow, so shall you reap (जैसा बोओगे, वैसा काटोगे): This proverb conveys the idea that your actions determine your future outcomes or consequences.
• Example: If you work hard now, you will reap the rewards later, because as you sow, so shall you reap.

The correct answer is 'an; an'.

 

Key Points

• The article 'an' is used before words that start with a vowel sound. 'honest' begins with a silent 'h' and has a vowel sound, so 'an' is appropriate.
• Similarly, 'MBA' starts with a vowel sound ('em'), which requires the article 'an'.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not use the correct article for the given context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "She gave me an honest opinion and shared an MBA graduate's perspective."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'a; a' is incorrect because 'a' cannot be used before 'honest' or 'MBA' due to their vowel sounds.
• Option 3: 'a; an' is incorrect because 'a' does not fit before 'honest'.
• Option 4: 'an; a' is incorrect because 'a' does not fit before 'MBA'.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'eradikate'.

• The correct spelling is 'eradicate'.
• The word 'eradicate' is a verb which means 'to destroy completely or put an end to something'. (समाप्त करना)
• For Example -
• Efforts are being made to eradicate poverty around the world.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'eradicate'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the other incorrect options:

• Eredikate - Incorrect spelling.
• Iridicate - Incorrect spelling.
• Eredicate - Incorrect spelling.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Bite off more than one can chew).

Key Points

• The phrase "Bite off more than one can chew" means to take on a task or responsibility that is too large or difficult to manage. (अपनी क्षमता से अधिक काम लेना)
• Example: By agreeing to organize the event single-handedly, she has bitten off more than she can chew.

Explanation:

• The sentence talks about a person (the speaker's brother) who tried to handle both studies and a part-time job, which eventually became overwhelming for him. This aligns with the meaning of the proverb "Bite off more than one can chew", which is why it is the correct answer. (अपनी क्षमता से अधिक काम करने की कोशिश करना)
• Example: He thought he could handle two full-time jobs, but he soon realized that he had bitten off more than he could chew.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Bite off more than one can chew).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Haste makes waste (जल्दबाज़ी में नुकसान होता है): This proverb means that doing something too quickly can lead to mistakes or wastage.
• Example: He tried to finish the project in one day, but haste makes waste, and he ended up with a lot of errors.
• Option 3: No pain, no gain (बिना मेहनत के सफलता नहीं): This means that you cannot achieve success without hard work or effort.
• Example: He spent hours practicing basketball because he believed in the saying, "No pain, no gain."
• Option 4: Beggars can't be choosers (मांगने वाले के पास विकल्प नहीं होते): This means that people who are dependent on others must accept whatever is given to them.
• Example: When you're asking for a favour, remember that beggars can't be choosers.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the gig-based economy, its impacts, and the debates surrounding it.
• Sentence C is the first sentence as it introduces the platforms and the concept of flexible opportunities disrupting traditional job markets:
• "Platforms like Uber, Fiverr, and Upwork have redefined employment, offering flexible opportunities while disrupting traditional job markets."
• Sentence A follows because it explains the broader transformation in labour valuation due to the digital age:
• "The shift towards a gig-based economy reflects a broader transformation in how labour is valued and structured in the digital age."
• Sentence E is the third sentence as it addresses the dual reality created by this disruption, explaining both empowerment and precarity:
• "This disruption has created a dual reality-empowerment for some, but precarity for many others."
• Sentence F is the fourth sentence because it presents the proponents' view of gig work offering autonomy and freedom:
• "Proponents claim that gig work offers autonomy and freedom that conventional jobs lack."
• Sentence B comes next as it presents the critics' argument about the model's impact on workers' welfare:
• "Critics argue that the model prioritises corporate profit over worker welfare, often excluding freelancers from benefits like healthcare or job security."
• Sentence D is the final sentence as it concludes with the ongoing debates around rights, regulation, and long-term sustainability of freelancing:
• "As freelancing becomes increasingly normalised, debates around rights, regulation, and long-term sustainability intensify."
• The correct sequence is CAEFBD.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Platforms like Uber, Fiverr, and Upwork have redefined employment, offering flexible opportunities while disrupting traditional job markets. The shift towards a gig-based economy reflects a broader transformation in how labour is valued and structured in the digital age. This disruption has created a dual reality-empowerment for some, but precarity for many others. Proponents claim that gig work offers autonomy and freedom that conventional jobs lack. Critics argue that the model prioritises corporate profit over worker welfare, often excluding freelancers from benefits like healthcare or job security. As freelancing becomes increasingly normalised, debates around rights, regulation, and long-term sustainability intensify."

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• Waxing reflects broader changes in gender norms and self-expression.
• This is supported by the passage. The text mentions waxing’s shift from being marketed mainly to women to an increase in male clientele, and highlights discussions about gender roles, body autonomy, and inclusive beauty standards. This shows waxing now reflects changing societal views on gender and self-expression.
• Waxing has become less popular due to health concerns.
• This is not supported. The passage mentions health concerns, but does not say waxing has become less popular as a result.
• Ancient practices of waxing are no longer relevant today.
• This is not supported. The passage connects ancient practices with modern ones, showing relevance rather than irrelevance.
• The motivations behind waxing are now solely aesthetic.
• This is not accurate. The passage discusses personal choice, societal expectations, and cultural influences in addition to aesthetics.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect because the passage does not say waxing is less popular due to health concerns.
• Option 3: Incorrect because the passage relates ancient and modern practices, showing ongoing relevance.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the motivations for waxing go beyond just aesthetics.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• As a potentially problematic influence on personal preferences.
• This is supported by the passage. The author notes that some argue the pressure to remove body hair is driven more by commercial beauty ideals than by individual preference, suggesting commercial beauty standards can negatively impact personal choices.
• As a helpful guide for modern grooming.
• This is not supported. The passage does not suggest commercial beauty standards are helpful.
• As a minor factor with little relevance.
• This is not accurate. The passage presents commercial beauty standards as a significant influence.
• As a neutral aspect of consumer choice.
• This is not correct. The passage introduces commercial beauty standards as a source of pressure, not a neutral factor.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because the author does not portray commercial beauty standards as helpful.
• Option 2: Incorrect because the passage treats commercial beauty standards as significant, not minor.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the passage highlights commercial beauty standards as a source of pressure, not neutrality.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Waxing: A Journey from Tradition to Trend
• This is the most appropriate title as the passage traces the evolution of waxing from ancient times to its modern-day significance, discussing cultural, social, and personal factors.
• Why Waxing Is No Longer Popular
• This is not suitable as the passage does not claim that waxing is no longer popular; in fact, it mentions its continued and even growing use.
• Skin Care Tips for Waxing at Home
• This is not appropriate because the passage is not a guide or tip list, but an exploration of waxing’s cultural and historical context.
• The Science Behind Hair Removal
• This is not accurate as the passage focuses more on social and cultural aspects than on scientific explanations.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as waxing’s popularity is not questioned or denied in the passage.
• Option 2: Incorrect, as the passage does not give skin care or at-home waxing tips.
• Option 4: Incorrect, as the passage does not focus on the science behind hair removal techniques.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• Informative
• The passage provides facts about the history, evolution, techniques, and cultural implications of waxing, presenting a balanced and objective overview without expressing strong opinions or emotions.
• Sarcastic
• There is no use of irony or mockery in the passage, so the tone is not sarcastic.
• Persuasive
• The passage does not try to convince the reader to adopt a particular viewpoint or to take action; it aims to inform.
• Celebratory
• The passage does not express praise or celebration of waxing; it takes a neutral, explanatory stance.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect, as the passage is not sarcastic in any way.
• Option 3: Incorrect, as the passage is not attempting to persuade.
• Option 4: Incorrect, as the passage does not celebrate waxing, but rather informs about it.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Discouraged.

Key Points

• The word "prompted" means to cause or encourage something to happen; to incite or stimulate action. (प्रेरित किया, उकसाया)
• Example: Her curiosity prompted her to ask many questions during the lecture.
• "Discouraged" refers to trying to prevent or dissuade someone from doing something; to make someone less confident or enthusiastic about an action. (हतोत्साहित किया)
• Example: The teacher discouraged students from cheating during exams by explaining the consequences.
• The antonym of 'prompted' is 'discouraged' because while "prompted" means to encourage or cause, "discouraged" means to prevent or deter.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 4 i.e. Discouraged

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Facilitated (सुगम बनाया): To make an action or process easier.
• Example: The new software facilitated communication between team members.
• Accelerated (तेज किया): To increase the speed of something.
• Example: The introduction of new technology accelerated the pace of work.
• Encouraged (प्रोत्साहित किया): To give support, confidence, or hope to someone.
• Example: His parents encouraged him to pursue his dreams.

सही उत्तर है - का 

Key Points

• वाक्य: पाँच रुपये का घी।
• जब हम किसी वस्तु की मात्रा, कीमत या उसके संबंध को दर्शाते हैं, तो 'का/के/की' का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• यहाँ 'पाँच रुपये' और 'घी' के बीच कीमत का संबंध बताया जा रहा है।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।
• सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं।
• जैसे -
• मोहन के पिता आ रहे हैं।
• मेरी उम्र साठ वर्ष की है।
• राहुल का घर बहुत बड़ा है।

Important Points 

 हिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Information   

 कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- सीता ने मोबाइल फेंक दिया।

मुझे छुट्टियों में खूब मजा आती है वाक्य के किस भाग में त्रुटि है - आती है

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - मुझे छुट्टियों में खूब मजा आती है।
• दिए गये वाक्य में लिंग प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'आती है' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'आता है' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - मुझे छुट्टियों में खूब मजा आता है।

Important Points

• पुल्लिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से पुरुष जाति का बोध होता है, उसे पुल्लिंग कहते हैं।
• जैसे- छात्र, चाचा, बूढ़ा, नौकर, शेर, बंदर, ताला आदि।
• स्त्रीलिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से व्यक्ति या वस्तु की स्त्री जाति का बोध होता है, उसे स्त्रीलिंग कहते हैं।
• जैसे - छात्रा, चाची, बुढ़िया, नौकरानी, घास, खिड़की आदि।

Additional Information 

 लिंग संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

उसे अनुत्तीर्ण होने की आसंका है वाक्य के किस भाग में त्रुटि है - आसंका है

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - उसे अनुत्तीर्ण होने की आसंका है।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'आसंका' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द '​आशंका' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - ​उसे अनुत्तीर्ण होने की आशंका है।

Important Points

• वाक्य में लिंग, वचन, पुरुष, काल, कारक आदि का क्रिया के साथ ठीक ठीक मेल हो, उसे शुद्ध वाक्य कहते है।
• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Information 

 वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

द्रौपदी का पर्यायवाची है- सैरंध्री

Key Points

• 'द्रौपदी' का पर्यायवाची 'सैरंध्री' होता है।
• 'द्रौपदी' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - पांचाली, कृष्णा, याज्ञसेनी, द्रुपदसुता।
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

• 'कांता' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - स्त्री, नारी, वनिता, अबला, कामिनी, भार्या, अर्द्धांगिनी, प्रिया।
• 'वसुधा' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - धरती, पृथ्वी, वसुंधरा, भूमि, धरा, धरणी, अचला, मही, मेदिनी, क्षिति, उर्वी।
• 'कामायनी' का अर्थ - कविवर जयशंकर प्रसाद का एक काव्य ग्रंथ।

Additional Information

    कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - की

Key Points

• वाक्य: पाँच हाथ की लाठी।
• जब हम किसी वस्तु की लंबाई, माप या गुण का संबंध दूसरी वस्तु से बताते हैं, तो 'का/के/की' का प्रयोग होता है।
• चूँकि 'लाठी' एक स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है, इसलिए यहाँ संबंध कारक का स्त्रीलिंग रूप 'की' आएगा।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।
• सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं।
• जैसे -
• राहुल का घर बहुत बड़ा है।
• यह कमला की गाय है।
• हमारे विद्यालय के पास पार्क है।

Important Points 

 हिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Information 

 कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- घोंसले में चिड़िया है।

सही उत्तर है - गौतम का जन्म 562 ईसा पूर्व में हुआ था। 

Key Points

• सही उत्तर: गौतम का जन्म 562 ईसा पूर्व में हुआ था।
• यहाँ 'गौतम' कर्ता है, जो वाक्य के आरंभ में है।
• '562 ईसा पूर्व में' समय सूचक शब्द है, जो कर्ता के बाद आया है।
• 'जन्म हुआ था' क्रिया पदबंध है, जो वाक्य के अंत में है।
• यह वाक्य व्याकरण के सभी नियमों का पालन करता है और सुनने व पढ़ने में सार्थक है।

Important Pointsवाक्य शुद्धि के लिए मुख्य नियम:

• पदक्रम: कर्ता सबसे पहले और क्रिया सबसे अंत में आती है।
• समय और स्थान: सामान्यतः कर्ता के बाद समय और स्थान का उल्लेख किया जाता है।
• विशेषण: जिस शब्द की विशेषता बतानी हो, विशेषण उससे ठीक पहले आता है।

Additional Information

'पृथ्वी और आकाश के बीच का भाग', वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - अन्तरिक्ष

Key Points

• 'पृथ्वी और आकाश के बीच का भाग' वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा - अन्तरिक्ष
• वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

• '​​आकाश' के प्रमुख पर्यायवाची शब्द नभ, गगन, अम्बर, व्योम, आसमान, अंतरिक्ष और शून्य हैं।

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

'आस्तीन का साँप 'मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है - विश्वासघाती मित्र

Key Points

• 'दांत कटी रोटी' का अर्थ - गहरी दोस्ती,
• वाक्य प्रयोग - श्वेता और उसकी सास में इतना प्रेम है कि उनकी "दांत काटी रोटी है"।
• मुहावरा - ऐसे वाक्यांश, जो सामान्य अर्थ का बोध न कराकर किसी विलक्षण अर्थ को प्रकट करते है, उसे मुहावरा कहते है।
• जैसे - 'चार चाँद लगाना' का अर्थ - चौगुनी शोभा देना, वाक्य प्रयोग - निबन्धों में मुहावरों का प्रयोग करने से "चार चाँद लग जाते है"।

Additional Information

 

सही उत्तर है - के

Key Points

• वाक्य: मेज के ऊपर मत चढ़ो।
• जब भी वाक्य में 'ऊपर', 'नीचे', 'सामने' या 'पीछे' जैसे दिशा/स्थान सूचक शब्दों का प्रयोग होता है,
• तो उनके पहले अक्सर संबंध कारक के चिह्न 'के' का प्रयोग किया जाता है (जैसे: घर के सामने, मेज के ऊपर)।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।
• सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं।
• जैसे -
• भारत के नागरिक वीर हैं।
• यह कमला की गाय है।
• यह राधेश्याम का बेटा है।

Important Points 

 हिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Information  

 कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- वह पेड़ से गिर गया।