DSSSB PA Grade II Official Paper (Held on:26 Feb 2022 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Five students: A, J, K, L and M

1. J is to the immediate left of A.

2. M is second to the right of A.

3. L is second to the left of K.

Hence, While counting toward left of J, "2" students are sitting between L and J.

The logic followed here is:

• 9 is subtracted from each alphabet of the letter
• Then the resulting word is reversed.

'DURGA'  is written as 'RXILU'

Similarly,

 'TOADY' will be written as,

Hence, the correct answer is "PURFK".

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "AZE".

Alternate Method

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "AZE".

Given:

Runs scored by 7 batsmen C1, C2, C3, C4, C6, C7 and C8 are compared.

Now check all the given

Statements:

Hence, “I, II and III” is the correct answer.

In all the pairs, the 1^st word is a found where the 2^nd word is place or 1^st word is meant for 2^nd word i.e.

1)  Teacher - School→ A school is a place where teachers make students study.

2)  Car – Pitch → Here 2^nd word (i.e. Pitch) is not a place for keeping 1^st word (i.e. Car).

3)  Fish - Aquarium → An aquarium is a place where fish are reared.

4)  Medicine - Dispensary → Dispensary is a place where Medicines are kept for purchase or sale.

Thus, “Car – Pitch” is the odd pair.

The pattern followed is,

1)  JZB - GAX

2)  LRZ - IIU

3)  OME - LNA

4)  UMP - RNL

All follow the same pattern, except ‘LRZ - IIU’.

Hence, “LRZ - IIU” is the odd – cluster.

The table is alphabets place value:

'FUNCTION' is written as 'NEZQBSAB'

Similarly,

'NOVEMBER' = ?

Hence, 'NOVEMBER' is coded as "VYHSULQF".

The logic followed here is:

1^st word is "category" and 2^nd is the "type of this category".

Vehicle : Bus → Bus is the type of vehicle.

Similarly,

Stationery : Pencil → Pencil is the type of Stationery.

Hence, ‘Stationery : Pencil’ is the correct answer.

Mistake PointsNote:- In option (3) chair is a "type of category" and furniture is the "category" it is in reverse order.

Given:

A team of 5 boys is to be selected from 9 boys B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, B7, B8 and B9.

Now check all the given

Statements:

Hence, “Only I” is the correct answer.

Given;

1. 'BIKE' is called as 'PINK'

2. 'PINK' is called as 'BOTTLE'

3. 'BOTTLE' is called as 'ZERO'

4. 'ZERO' is called as 'GREY'

5. 'GREY' is called as 'KEYS'

Store waters is used to:

We can store water in BOTTLE

And BOTTLE is called as “ZERO”

Hence, “ZERO” is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Sum of the alphabets place value + 5 = number.

• 'ANVIL' is written as '63'

=> Sum of the alphabets place value + 5 = number.

=> (1 + 14 + 22 + 9 + 12) + 5 = 58 + 5 = 63

And,

• 'SAUDI' is written as '59'

=> Sum of the alphabets place value + 5 = number.

=> (19 + 1 + 21 + 4 + 9) + 5 = 54 + 5 = 59

Similarly,

• COLIC = ?

=> Sum of the alphabets place value + 5 = number.

=> (3 + 15 + 12 + 9 + 3) + 5 = 42 + 5 = 47

Hence, ' COLIC' is coded as "47".

Statements:

I. No B is R.

II. No S is R. 

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. All S are B → False (Because the direct relationship between S and B is not given so it may be possible but not defined)

II. Some R are not B → True (Because statement given no B is R so definitely some R are not B)

Hence, “Only conclusion II follows” is the correct answer.

The logic here is,

CYCLONE: ENOLCYC

Similarly,

DISEASE: ?

Hence, "ESAESID" is the correct answer.

Statements:

I. Some red are yellow.

II. All green are red. 

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. Some yellow are green → False (because no direct relationship is given between yellow and green so it may be possible but not defined)

II. All yellow are green → False (because no direct relationship is given between yellow and green so it may be possible but not defined)

Hence, “Neither conclusion follows” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "TGHD".

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

Given:

1. J is the father of R.

2. P Is the brother of R and L both.

3. C is the wife of L.

4. K is the mother in law of C.

5. D is the only son of L.

Now check all the options:

1) K is the mother of R → True

2) R is the daughter of J → False (R's gender is not confirm)

3) R is the aunt of D → False (R's gender is not confirm)

4) C is the sister of R → False (C is the sister in law of R)

Hence, the correct answer is "K is the mother of R".

Given:

• Five persons A, B, C, D and E.
• They have one pen among P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5.
• They also have one bottle among B1, B2, B3, B4 and B5.
• No two persons have same pen and same bottle.

1) C have P5 but don't have B4 and B3.

2) One who have P2 also have B5.

3) E have B1 and P1.

4) B don't have even numbered pen.

5) D have B5.

• Only A is left so arranging the alphabetically persons:

• B don’t have even number pen so

• C don’t have bottle B4 and B3 so

Now, check all the options:

Option (1) B have pen P3 → True

Option (2) D have pen P2 → True

Option (3) B can have bottle B3 → True

Option (4) A cannot have bottle B4 → False (A have B4 or B3 bottle)

Hence, “A cannot have bottle B4” statement is not correct.

The logic followed here is:

In all the pairs, the 1^st word is a place where the 2^nd word is found or 1^st word is meant for 2^nd word i.e.

Option (2) Garage - Car → Garage is a place for the maintaining or repairing cars.

Option (3) Dispensary - Medicine → Dispensary is a place where Medicines are kept for purchase or sale.

Option (4) Hospital - Patient → Hospital is a place for the treatment of patient.

But in Option (1) Lawyer – Court → Here 1^st word (i.e. Lawyer) is not a place for keeping 2^nd word (i.e. Court) but vice versa is true.

Thus, “Lawyer – Court” is the odd pair.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "TB".

The table is alphabets place value:

The pattern followed here is:

GDAW : TWZD

Similarly,

Option (1): TRPN : GIKM

Hence, "TRPN : GIKM" is the correct answer.

The least possible diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some R are Q - True (From the figure we can clearly see that some part of the R intersects with Q).

II. No Q is P - False (From the figure we can clearly see that some part of the Q intersects with P)

III. Some Q are not R - False ((From the figure we can clearly see that some part of the Q intersects with R)

​Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follow".

The least possible diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. No S is R - True (From the figure we can clearly see that S and R do not directly intersect).

II. Some S are not P - True (From the figure we can clearly see that S and P do not directly intersect)).

III. Some T are S - True (From the figure we can clearly see that some part of T intersects with S).

​Hence, the correct answer is "All conclusion follows ".

The logic followed here is:

The figure has two 3 fanged lines on opposite ends of a line and two 2 fanged lines on opposite ends of another line.

In this sequence, the figure is rotated 45° clockwise in every step.

Hence after the first position, the 3 fanged lines should be rotated 45 degrees clockwise.

Thus the position of the 3 fanged lines should be vertical.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

Confusion Points 

In this option the 3 fanged lines are vertical but this figure does not have similar 3 fanged lines on the opposite end.

The Venn diagram best represents the relationship between -

• The tailor, Lawyer, and Chef are shown below.

• Some lawyers can be chefs or tailors.

• Some Tailors can be lawyers or chefs.

• Some chefs can be lawyers or tailors.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Mistake PointsWe might think and conclude Option (4) as the correct answer. But as elaborated in the Solution, Some lawyers can be chefs or tailors, or some Tailors can be lawyers, or chefs, or Some chefs can be lawyers or tailors.

The logic followed here is:

• The triangle is shifted 1 position to the right until it reached the end and similarly shifted leftwards by 1 position until it reached the other end.

• The square is shifted 1 position to the right until it reached the end and similarly shifted leftwards by 1 position until it reached the other end.

• The diamond is shifted 1 position to the left until it reached the end and similarly shifted rightwards by 1 position until it reached the other end.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

• The figure consists of 2 smaller figures enclosed in a larger figure.

• The smaller figure on the right side is shaded.

• The position of the smaller figure is interchanged.

• The figure on the right remains shaded.

​

• The number of sides on the larger figure is increased by +1.

​​Hence, the correct answer is "option 1"

The logic followed here is:

• The numbers are increased by m × 3 - n.
• Where m = the previous number in the series.
• n = 1,2,3,4...

Hence, the correct answer is "1238".

According to the given information:

We can see that the shaded part denotes the number of males that are only great = 8 + 4 = 12​. 

That is given as "12".

​Hence, the correct answer is "12".

Mistake Points We can see that the shaded part denotes the number of males that are only great = 8 + 4 = 12​. 

Here Only great means male cannot be Human. So, the common part of great and man will be the correct answer(which is not human).

16 would not add because 16 belongs to human.

​Hence, the correct answer is "12".

According to the given information:

Conclusions:

I. The Total number of blue is 47.

• As per the figure the rectangle represents Blue.
• The addition of numbers in blue is,
• 16 + 12 + 14 + 3 = 45
• ​Thus, the conclusion I is False.

II. Number of red that is at least blue is 26.

From the given figure;

We can see that the shaded part denotes the number of red that is at least blue.

• 14 + 12 = 26
• Thus, conclusion II is True.

​​Hence, the correct answer is "Only II".

For this question, the relation is given below,

From figures (A) and (B), only R is common.

Now we take clockwise direction from R in figure (A) and figure (B) respectively, then letters opposite to each other.

from the figure, (A) take a clockwise direction from R which is K and F respectively.

from the figure, (B) take a clockwise direction from R which is G and T respectively.

From figure (A), G is opposite to figure (B) K.

From figure (A), F is the opposite to figure (B) T.

Hence, the correct answer is "F".

When a mirror is placed the mirror image should have the following properties,

• All the images will be inverted in the right-left direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3"

According to the given information:

Conclusions:

I. Number of wheat which are water are 12.

• As per the given diagram the shaded part represents number of wheat that are water.
• Which is given as 12.
• Thus, this statement is correct.

II. Number of rice which are not water are 25. 

• As per the given diagram the shaded part represents number of rice which are not water.
• Which is given as 25.
• Thus, this statement is correct.

​​Hence, the correct answer is "Both I and II".

The shaded part represents " pink are atleast red"

From the given figure;

We can see that the shaded part denotes the number of pink are at least red.

Note:- The cars are pink and red are already included in the number of "pink are at least red".

That is given as 4 and 3 which equals "7".

​Hence, the correct answer is "7"

The logic followed here is;

In a column:

(First number × second number)  × Third number =  Fourth number.

Column 1:

= (5 × 3) × 8

= 15 × 8

= 120

And, 

Column 3:

= (8 × 3) × 6

= 24 × 6

= 144

Similarly, 

Column 2:

= (6 × 2) × 5

= 12 × 5

= 60

Hence, the correct answer is "60".

The logic followed here is:

1. In first row each circle consist of three small triangles on the outer side of its circumference which are being filled one by one in clockwise direction from left to right in each figure respectively.

2. In second row each triangle consist of three small circle on its edges which are being filled in each figure one by one in clockwise direction from left to right in each figure respectively.

3. In third row each rhombus consist of three small circle on its three edges which are being filled in each figure one by one in clockwise direction from left to right in each figure respectively.

According to which the figure that will replace the question mark ? in the following figures series is :

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

The pattern followed here is,

Let (1^st number : 2^nd number)

(1^st number) + 31 = (2^nd number)

Now by following the same pattern we have;

263 : 294

⇒ 263 + 31 = 294 = 2^nd number

Similarly,

531 : ?

⇒ 531 + 31 = 562 = 2^nd number

Hence,the correct answer is "562".

According to the question the value of the given equation should be 13.

i.e. given equation : 3 + 2 ÷ 16 × 2 - 6 = 13

Now,

1. • and ÷ 

Given equation: 3 + 2 ÷ 16 × 2 - 6 = 13

After interchanging the signs, the equation becomes;

L.H.S. = 3 + 2 - 16 × 2 ÷ 6

⇒ 3 + 2 - 16 × 0.33

⇒ 3 + 2 - 5.28

⇒ 5 - 5.28

⇒ -0.28 ≠ R.H.S. 2. + and × 

Given equation: 3 + 2 ÷ 16 × 2 - 6 = 13

After interchanging the signs, the equation becomes;

L.H.S. = 3 × 2 ÷ 16 + 2 - 6

⇒ 3 × 0.125 + 2 - 6

⇒ 0.375 + 2 - 6

⇒ 2.375 - 6

⇒ - 3.625 ≠ R.H.S. 3. + and -

Given equation: 3 + 2 ÷ 16 × 2 - 6 = 13

After interchanging the signs, the equation becomes;

L.H.S. = 3 - 2 ÷ 16 × 2 + 6 

⇒ 3 - 0.125 × 2 + 6

⇒ 3 - 0.25 + 6

⇒ 9 - 0.25

⇒ 8.75 ≠ R.H.S.

4. ÷ and × 

Given equation: 3 + 2 ÷ 16 × 2 - 6 = 13

After interchanging the signs, the equation becomes;

L.H.S. = 3 + 2 × 16 ÷ 2 - 6 

⇒ 3 + 2 × 8 - 6

⇒ 3 + 16 - 6

⇒ 19 - 6

⇒ 13 = R.H.S.

Hence, the correct answer is "÷ and ×".

When the mirror is held down side or horizontally at the bottom of the figure then the reflection of the figure in the mirror appears by inverting the figure vertically i.e. upside down.

Thus the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held down side at the line AB is :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain same.

Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.

The water image of the figure looks like mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.

Statements:

All bottle are bike.

Some bike are red.

Some colour are red. 

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. No colour is bottle → False (Because there is no direct relation between colour and bottle so it is possible but not definite)

II. Some red are colour → True (Because Some colour are red so Some red are also colour)

III. Some red are bike →  True (Because Some bike are red so Some red are also bike)

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusion II and III follows".

The correct answer is Telangana

Key Points

• Bonalu is a Telangana traditional Hindu festival centered on the Goddess Mahakali.
• This festival is celebrated annually in the twin cities of Hyderabad and Secunderabad, as well as in other parts of the state.
• The festival is also considered a thanksgiving to the Goddess for the fulfillment of vows.
• Other festivals of Telangana are: Bathukamma Festival, Sammakka Sarakka Jatara, Monthy Jataras, Ramzan.

Additional InformationState and its fairs and festivals:

The correct answer is Tracheae

Key Points

• Most insects respire through a system of tubes called tracheae that connect to the air via spiracles that can be actively opened or closed.
• In insects, the tracheal tubes primarily deliver oxygen directly into the insects' tissues.
• There is the main pair of lateral tracheae running the length of the body, one on each side.

Additional Information

• Spiracles are the openings of the tracheal system on the integument of the insect.
• Insects do not possess an arrangement of blood vessels such as those in mammals. Instead insects have a cavity that is full of insect blood (known as haemolymph) and the organs of the insect are suspended in this cavity.
• Ventral diaphragm
• An internal septum that divides the body cavity into compartments, located between the ventral nerve cord and the gut.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points

• The Baredi dance is performed by the dancers of the Aheer community of Madhya Pradesh.
• The dance is believed to have originated by Krishna who belonged to this community of cowherds. It is performed every year just the day after the Diwali festival.
• Chhau dance which is also spelled as chau or chaauu, is a tribal dance form that is a mixture of dance with martial arts, performed in Odisha.
• Chhau dance has a significant role in the celebration of the spring festival Chaitra Parva, being innately connected to its rituals.

Additional Information

• A folk dance is a dance that reflects the life of the people of a certain country or region.
• Ritual dances or dances of ritual origin are not considered to be folk dances
• Jawara, Matki, Aada, Khada Nach, Phulpati, Grida Dance, Selalarki, Selabhadoni, Maanch are the folk dance of Madhya Pradesh.
• Odissi (Classical), Savari, Ghumara, Painka, Munari, Chhau are the folk dance of Odisha.

The correct answer is Africa

Key Points

• Victoria fall is a waterfall on the Zambezi River in southern Africa.
• It is located on the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe and is one of the world's largest waterfalls, with a width of 1,708 m.
• In 1989 Victoria Falls was inscribed as a World Heritage Site.

Additional Information

• Wallaman Falls in Queensland is Australia's tallest permanent waterfall with a plunge of nearly 300 meters.
• Angel Falls, Venezuela, is one of the most spectacular waterfalls in South America – and the tallest waterfall on the planet.
• Vinnufossen or Vinnufallet is the tallest waterfall in Europe and the sixth-tallest in the world.

The correct answer is both I and II

Key Points

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of money a bank has to keep with RBI in the form of cash.
• CRR helps commercial banks to build and sustain their solvency position.
• RBI controls and coordinates the credit maintained by banks through the CRR rate.
• The bank rate is the rate charged by the central bank for lending funds to commercial banks.

Additional Information

• When CRR is increased , it decreases money supply, Increases interest rates on home loans, car loans etc.
• When the CRR rate is low, banks have more money to invest in other businesses this reduces the interest rates charged on loans.
• Lower bank rates can help expand the economy by lowering the cost of funds for borrowers, and higher bank rates help reign in the economy when inflation is higher than desired.

The correct answer is I, II, and III.

All are located in Rajasthan

Key Points

• Kumbhalgarh ("Kumbhal fort") also known as the Great Wall of India is a Mewar fortress on the westerly range of Aravalli Hills, in the Rajsamand district near Udaipur of Rajasthan.
• Jaigarh Fort is situated on the promontory called the Cheel ka Teela (Hill of Eagles) of the Aravalli range; it overlooks the Amer Fort and the Maota Lake, near Amer in Jaipur, Rajasthan.
• Gagron Fort is a hill and water fort and is situated in the Jhalawar district of Rajasthan.

Additional Information

• Gagron fort was built by Bijaldev Singh Dod (a Rajput king) in the twelfth century. It was designated a UNESCO world heritage site in 2013 as a part of Hill Forts in Rajasthan.
• Jaigarh fort was built by Jai Singh II in 1726 to protect the Amer Fort and its palace complex and was named after him.
• Kumbhalgarh fort was built during the 15^th century by Rana Kumbha. It is a World Heritage Site included in Hill Forts of Rajasthan.
• Other Forts and monuments of Rajasthan:-

Forts in Rajasthan: 

Amer Fort, Nahargarh Fort, Monsoon Palace, City Palace Jaipur, Chittorgarh Fort, Junagarh Fort, Jaisalmer Fort, Mehrangarh Fort, Ranthambore Fort, Umaid Bhawan Palace, etc.

Monuments Rajasthan:

Gadsisar Lake, Karni Mata Temple, Jantar Mantar, Hawa Mahal, Jal Mahal.

The correct answer is GST

Key Points

• Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax (or consumption tax) used in India on the supply of goods and services.
• It is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-based tax.
• The tax came into effect on 1 July 2017 through the implementation of the One Hundred and First Amendment of the Constitution of India by the Indian government.
• The GST replaced existing multiple taxes levied by the central and state governments.

Additional Information

• Income tax is a type of tax that governments impose on income generated by businesses and individuals within their jurisdiction. It is a direct tax.
• **A wealth tax (**also called a capital tax or equity tax) is a tax on an entity's holdings of assets.
• Gift tax is the tax on money or property that one living person or corporate entity gives to another. A gift tax is a type of transfer tax that is imposed when someone gives something of value to someone else

The correct answer is 1931.

Key Points

• The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931.
• Gandhi represented Indian National Congress and Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women.
• In this conference, Gandhi and Ambedkar differed on the issue of separate electorates for the untouchables.
• The second round table conference was deemed a failure because of the many disagreements among the participants.

Additional Information

• The three Round Table Conferences of 1930–1932 were a series of peace conferences organized by the British Government and Indian political personalities to discuss constitutional reforms in India.
• These started in November 1930 and ended in December 1932.
• B. R. Ambedkar, Jinnah, Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri, Sir Muhammad Zafrulla Khan, K. T. Paul, and Mirabehn were key participants from India.
• According to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji participated only in the Second Round Table Conference.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points

• Sedimentary rocks are types of rock that are formed by the accumulation or deposition of mineral or organic particles at Earth's surface, followed by cementation.
• Common sedimentary rocks include sandstone, limestone, and shale.
• The sedimentary rock cover of the continents of the Earth's crust is extensive (73% of the Earth's current land surface) but the sedimentary rock is estimated to be only 8% of the volume of the crust.

Additional Information

• Rocks are usually grouped into three main groups: igneous rocks, sedimentary rocks, and metamorphic rocks.
• Igneous rocks are formed when magma cools in the Earth's crust, or lava cools on the ground surface or the seabed.
• Metamorphic rocks are formed when existing rocks are subjected to such high pressures and temperatures that they are transformed without significant melting.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that regulates and facilitates international trade.
• It officially commenced operations on 1 January 1995, pursuant to the 1994 Marrakesh Agreement, thus replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
• The WTO has 164 members and 23 observer governments.
• Afghanistan became the 164^th member in July 2016.
• In addition to states, the European Union, and each EU country in its own right is a member.
• India has been a member of the World Trade organization since the beginning of 1995 and was also been a member of GATT since 1948.

Additional Information

• Headquarters - Geneva, Switzerland
• The main objective of the WTO is to help trade flow smoothly, freely, fairly, and predictably. It does this by:
• Administering WTO trade agreements
• Conducting forum for trade negotiations
• Handling trade disputes
• Monitoring national trade policies
• Providing technical assistance and training for developing countries
• Cooperation with other international organizations

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• A mulch is a layer of material applied to the surface of the soil.
• Reasons for applying mulch include conservation of soil moisture, improving fertility and health of the soil, reducing weed growth, and enhancing the visual appeal of the area.
• A rock embankment constructed across a drainage way or other suitable location to create a temporary basin for collecting sediment is called a Rock dam.
• They reduce the water flow by storing runoff thus preventing soil erosion.

Additional Information

• Soil conservation is the prevention of loss of the top most layer of the soil from erosion or prevention of reduced fertility caused by over usage, acidification, salinization, or other chemical soil contamination.
• Crop rotation, reduced tillage, mulching, cover cropping, and cross-slope farming are some of the methods of soil conservation.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Renewable energy is energy that is collected from renewable resources that are naturally replenished on a human timescale.
• It includes sources such as sunlight, wind, rain, tides, waves, and geothermal heat.
• About 20% of humans' global energy consumption is renewables, including almost 30% of electricity.

Additional Information

• Non-renewable energy comes from sources that will run out or will not be replenished in our lifetimes.
• Most non-renewable energy sources are fossil fuels: coal, petroleum, and natural gas.

The correct answer is Gross fiscal deficit - Net interest Liabilities

Key Points

• Gross Primary Deficit is the Gross Fiscal Deficit less interest payments.
• Net Primary Deficit is Net Fiscal Deficit minus net interest payments.
• Fiscal deficit indicates total government borrowing requirements including interest whereas primary deficit indicates total government borrowing requirements excluding interest payments.

Additional Information

• The deficit is the amount by which the spending done in a budget surpasses the earnings.
• There are three types of deficit:

1. Revenue deficit
2. Fiscal deficit
3. Primary deficit.

• Revenue deficit:
• A revenue deficit refers to the surplus of the government’s revenue expenditure over the revenue receipts.
• It reflects the inefficiency of the government to reach its regular or recurring expenditure.
• The government may raise its revenue receipts by raising income tax.
• Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts
• Fiscal deficit:
• A fiscal deficit is the excess of budget expenditure over budget receipts other than borrowings.
• It reflects the total government borrowings during a fiscal year.
• Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts)
• Gross fiscal deficit = Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI + Borrowing from abroad
• ​Primary deficit:
• The purpose of measuring the primary deficit is to draw attention to current fiscal imbalances
• The primary deficit is calculated in order to obtain an estimate of the amount of borrowing that will be required due to current expenditures exceeding revenues.
• Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit – Net interest liabilities

The correct answer is Only III

Key Points

• The discovery of the nucleus of an atom was due to the experiment carried out by Rutherford.
• Rutherford's experiment on the scattering of α-particles showed for the first time that the atom has a nucleus.
• He observed that the positively charged α-particles were repelled and deflected by a positive charge in the atom.
• Rutherford's named this positively charged portion of the atom the nucleus.

Additional Information

• A proton is a stable subatomic particle, symbol H+, or 1H+ with a positive electric charge of +1e elementary charge. It was discovered by Rutherford.
• J. J Thomson discovered the Electron. An electron is a subatomic particle whose electric charge is negative one elementary charge.

The correct answer is I, II, and III

Key Points

• The major copper mines are the Khetri copper belt in Rajasthan, the Singhbhum copper belt in Jharkhand, and the Malanjkhand copper belt in Balaghat of Madhya Pradesh.
• The two leading copper production states of India are – 52% of India's copper is produced in the Balaghat mine in Madhya Pradesh and another leading production of copper is Singbhum district of Jharkhand.
• The world's leading producer of copper is Chile, followed by the U.S. and Peru.

Additional Information

• Copper production in India is only about 2 percent of world copper production.
• Mining is done by both opencast and underground methods.
• Copper is found in many minerals that occur in deposits large enough to mine. These include azurite, malachite, chalcocite, acanthite, chalcopyrite, and bornite.
• Escondida mine in Chile is an open-pit mine and without a doubt the world's largest copper mine.

The correct answer is Direct Action Day

Key Points

• The Muslim League Council proclaimed 16^th August 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day'.
• Their main aim was to attain a different country with a Muslim majority.
• It was initiated by Muslim League and led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
• The Chief Minister of Bengal at that time was Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy of the Muslim League.
• The violence witnessed during and after the Direct Action Day has also been called the Great Calcutta Killings.
• The day also marked the start of what is known as The Week of the Long Knives.

Additional Information

• On 30 December 1906, the All-India Muslim League (AIML), popularly known as the Muslim League was founded in Dhaka, British India (now in Bangladesh).
• The founders of the Muslim League were: Khwaja Salimullah, Vikar-ul-Mulk, Syed Amir Ali, Syed Nabiullah, Khan Bahadur Ghulam and Mustafa Chowdhury.
• The first Honorary President of the League was Sir Sultan Muhammad Shah (Aga Khan III).
• The party’s chief aim was to promote and secure civil rights for Muslims.
• It espoused loyalty to the British government as a means to achieve more political and civil rights.
• Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined the league in 1913.

The correct answer is Only I

Key Points

• Pongal festival is closely related to Tamil Nadu and Tamil culture and is enthusiastically celebrated by Tamil people all over the world.
• In Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana the Pongal is known by different names.
• Pongal is a religious, cultural, and social festival hosted as a thanksgiving to the Sun god and the elements of nature for supporting agriculture.
• The harvest festival of Pongal is celebrated in the month of Tamil month ‘Thai’ (January–February) and lasts for four days.
• Kullu Nati is a dance of Himachal Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Kullu Nati Dance:  Nati is the most famous folk dance in Himachal Pradesh. In the Guinness world record book, it is listed as the largest folk dance.
• Jhora, Jhali, Chharhi, Dhaman, Chhapeli, and Mahasu are the folk dance of Himachal Pradesh.

The correct answer is Only 

Key Points 

Trade deficit and Trade surplus:

The correct answer is I, II and III

Key Points Nereis :

• It is an aquatic annelid. Its parapodia help it swim.
• Nereis is a genus of Polychaeta worms in the family Nereida.
• They possess setae and parapodia for locomotion.
• Every segment of the body, besides the peristomium and the anal segment, bears on either side a flat, fleshy, hollow and vertical flap-like outgrowth called parapodia.

Earthworm:

• It is a terrestrial invertebrate belonging to the phylum Annelida.
• They are the common inhabitants of moist soil and feed on organic matter.
• Earthworms have a tube-like arrangement or cylindrical-shaped and reddish-brown segmented bodies.
• It respires through its skin and has a double transport system made of coelomic fluid.

Leech:

• Leeches are metamerically segmented parasitic worms.
• They are annelids and thus have unjointed appendages.
• The unique feature of leeches is the presence of anterior and posterior suckers.
• Hirudinaria or Indian cattle leech is a freshwater species. They are cosmopolitan in distribution but are mostly found in Myanmar and India.

The correct answer is Frequency

Key Points

• Frequency is the number of occurrences of a repeating event per unit of time.
• Frequency is expressed in units of hertz (Hz) which is equivalent to one (event) per second.
• The corresponding period is the time duration of one cycle in a repeating event, so the period is the reciprocal of the frequency.

Additional Information

• The amplitude of a periodic variable is a measure of its change in a single period.
• The highness or lowness of sound is called Pitch.
• The time period is the time taken by a complete cycle of the wave to pass a point.

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

• The ICC Men's T20 World Cup was founded in 2007.
• It generally occurs every 2 years.
• Hosts:
• South Africa in 2007
• England in 2009
• West Indies in 2010
• Sri Lanka in 2012
• Bangladesh in 2014
• India in 2016
• Oman and UAE in 2021
• Australia in 2022 (TBH)

Additional Information

• List of winners
• India 2007
• Pakistan 2009
• England 2010
• West Indies 2012
• Sri Lanka 2014
• West Indies 2016
• Australia 2021

The correct answer is II and III.

Key Points

• Bindusara was the son of the Mauryan dynasty's founder, Chandragupta.
• He was the father of Ashoka.
• Bindusara was a follower of the Ajivika religion/sect.
• Ashoka is the most famous ruler of the Mauryan dynasty.
• He converted to Buddhism after witnessing the mass deaths of the Kalinga War.
• He ruled through a centralized policy of dharma (dhamma) that favoured peace and tolerance and administered public works and social welfare.

Additional Information

• Chanakya or Kauṭilya or Vishnugupta was the political advisor to Chandragupta, the founder of the Mauryan empire.
• He is considered the pioneer in the field of political science and economics in India.

The correct answer is Joe Root.

Key Points

• The Professional Cricketers' Association is the representative body of past and present first-class cricketers in England and Wales.
• It was founded in 1967.
• England Test captain Joe Root and Central Sparks skipper Eve Jones have won the PCA player of the year awards in 2021.
• Joe Root - Joseph Edward Root, MBE is an English cricketer, who plays for the England Test and One Day International teams, and formerly captained the Test team.

Additional Information

• The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is the governing body for cricket in India.
• James Anderson - James Michael Anderson OBE is an English international cricketer who plays for Lancashire County Cricket Club and the England cricket team.
• Joe Denly - Joseph Liam Denly is an English professional cricketer who plays for Kent County Cricket Club.
• Eoin Morgan - Eoin Joseph Gerard Morgan CBE is a cricketer who captained the England cricket team in limited overs cricket from 2015 until his international retirement in June 2022.
• Under his captaincy, England won the 2019 ICC Cricket World Cup, the first time they won the tournament.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• The “Urjagiri” campaign aims at stopping power theft and saving.
• It is primarily needed for a wider awareness to avoid power loss in Uttarakhand.

Additional Information

• Uttarakhand is a state in northern India crossed by the Himalayas.
• Holy sites such as Devprayag, Badrinath, Kedarnath, Rishikesh, etc. are located here.
• The famous Jim Corbett National Park as well as Nanda Devi, Rajaji, Gangotri, and Valley of Flowers National parks are located here.
• Its capital city is Dehradun (winter) and Gairsain (summer).

The correct answer is both I and II*.*

Key Points

• The International Criminal Police Organization is commonly known as Interpol.
• It is an international organization that facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control.
• It was formed in September 1923.
• Its headquarters is in Lyon, France.
• It currently has 195 member countries, including India.
• India joined Interpol in 1949.

Additional Information

• Like any member nation, India maintains a National Central Bureau, which serves as the national platform for cooperation between domestic law enforcement units and the international police community.
• The NCB is the designated contact point for Interpol.
• Crimes such as poaching, wildlife trafficking, spurious drugs, fake medicine rackets, etc. are tackled.
• India recently became the 68^th country to join Interpol’s child sexual abuse database - Interpol's international child sexual exploitation (ICSE).

The correct answer is both I and II.

Key Points

• Article 124 - There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.
• Article 125 - There shall be paid to the Judges of the Supreme Court such salaries as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such salaries as are specified in the Second Schedule.

Additional Information

• The Constitution of 1950 envisaged a Supreme Court with one Chief Justice and 7 puisne (ranked below CJI) Judges.
• The Parliament later revised that number as empowered by the constitution.
• Currently, there are 34 judges including the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• | Designation | Salary | Gratuity | | --- | --- | --- | | Chief Justice of India | Rs.2,80,000/-p.m. | Rs.20,00,000/- | | Judges of Supreme Court | Rs.2,50,000/-p.m. | Rs.20,00,000/- |

The correct answer is both I and II.

Key Points

• A manuscript is a handwritten composition on paper, bark, cloth, metal, palm leaf, or any other material.
• It should date back at least seventy-five years that have significant scientific, historical, or aesthetic value.
• Manuscripts were written on varied subjects such as religious beliefs and practices, the lives of kings, medicine, and science. Besides, there were epics, poems, musical dance dramas, and plays.
• Manuscripts are found in hundreds of different languages and scripts.
• Often, one language is written in a number of different scripts.
• For example, Sanskrit is written in Oriya script, Grantha script, Devanagari script, and many other scripts.

Additional Information

• India possesses an estimated five million manuscripts, probably the largest collection in the world.
• The Spitzer Manuscript is the oldest surviving philosophical manuscript in Sanskrit.
• The oldest manuscript in the world is The Pseudo-Apuleius Herbarium, dating back to the 6-7^th century.

The correct answer is 1915.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi spent about twenty-one years in South Africa helping fight discrimination.
• He returned to India from South Africa on January 9, 1915.
• Gandhi took up the cause of the Champaranindigo cultivators against the European indigo planters under the Teenkathia system. 
• The Champaran Satyagraha was held in 1917.
• It was Gandhi's first major political work in India.

Additional Information

• A summarised timeline of Mahatma Gandhi during the freedom struggle -
• | Date | Year | Details | | --- | --- | --- | | 2 October | 1869 | Birth at Porbandar. | | 20 May | 1915 | Established 'Satyagraha Ashram', Kochrab. | | 26 June | 1915 | Awarded the 'Kaiser-e-Hind' medal. | | 17 June | 1917 | Sabarmati Ashram was established. | | 24 February | 1919 | Satyagraha pledged against the 'Rowlett Act'. | | 7 September | 1919 | The first issue of 'Navajivan' was published. | | 8 October | 1919 | The first issue of 'Young India' was published. | | 3 December | 1925 | The publication of 'Autobiography or The Story of My Experiments with Truth' commences in Young India. | | 12 March | 1930 | Dandi March commences from Satyagraha Ashram. | | 6 April | 1930 | Broke the Salt Law. | | 5 March | 1931 | Gandhi-Irwin pact signed. | | 8 August | 1942 | 'Quit India' resolution adopted; gave the call 'Do or Die. | | 4 July | 1946 | The Viceroy formed an Interim Government. | | 16 August | 1946 | Communal riots in Calcutta. | | 2 January | 1947 | Bare Foot March to Noakhali commences. | | 30 March | 1947 | Tour of violence-affected villages of Bihar. | | 31 August | 1947 | Indefinite fast against communal violence in Calcutta. | | 30 January | 1948 | Took three bullets to his chest. | | 31 January | 1948 | Cremated on the banks of the Yamuna by Ramdas. |

The correct answer is both I and II.

Key Points

• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India.
• Initially, 14 languages were listed, including Hindi and Urdu.
• Currently, there are 22 official languages.
• English is not listed.

Additional Information

• The current list of languages in the eighth schedule is as follows -
• | Language | Year of Recognition | | --- | --- | | Assamese | 1950 | | Bengali | 1950 | | Gujarati | 1950 | | Hindi | 1950 | | Kashmiri | 1950 | | Kannada | 1950 | | Malayalam | 1950 | | Marathi | 1950 | | Odia | 1950 | | Punjabi | 1950 | | Sanskrit | 1950 | | Tamil | 1950 | | Telugu | 1950 | | Urdu | 1950 | | Sindhi | 1967 | | Konkani | 1992 | | Manipuri | 1992 | | Nepali | 1992 | | Bodo | 2004 | | Dogri | 2004 | | Maithili | 2004 | | Santhali | 2004 |

The correct answer is  United States of America.

Key Points

• The 2021 CONCACAF Gold Cup was the 16^th edition of the CONCACAF Gold Cup.
• It is the biennial international men's football championship of the North, Central American, and Caribbean regions organized by CONCACAF.
• In 2021, the final match was played between Mexico and the USA, and the USA defeated Mexico by 1-0.

Additional Information

• The Confederation of North, Central America, and Caribbean Association Football is abbreviated as CONCACAF.
• It is one of FIFA's six continental governing bodies for association football.
• It is the third-most successful FIFA confederation.
• Its 41 member associations represent countries and territories.

The correct answer is Shashi Tharoor.

Key Points

• Shashi Tharoor is an Indian former international diplomat, politician, writer, and public intellectual.
• He has served as a Member of Parliament for Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, since 2009.
• He was formerly the Undersecretary-General of the United Nations.
• Some of his famous works include Pax Indica, The Great Indian Novel, Inglorious Empire: What the British Did to India, etc.

Additional Information

• Sushma Swaraj was an Indian lawyer, politician, and diplomat.
• She served as the Minister of External Affairs of India between 2014-2019.
• She was the second woman to hold the office, after Indira Gandhi.
• Muppavarapu Venkaiah Naidu is an Indian politician who served as the 13^th Vice President of India (2017-2022).
• He has also served as the minister of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation, Urban Development, and Information and Broadcasting since 2014.
• Pranab Mukherjee was an Indian politician who served as the 13^th president of India (2012-2017).
• In a political career spanning five decades, he has served as Minister of Defence, Minister of External Affairs, Minister of Commerce and Industry, Minister of Finance, etc.

The correct answer is N.V. Ramana.

Key Points

• Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana is the 48^th and current Chief Justice of India.
• He has held the following positions before -
• A judge of the Supreme Court of India
• The chief justice of the Delhi High Court
• The acting chief justice of Andhra Pradesh High Court
• The president of the Andhra Pradesh Judicial Academy

Important Points

• Justice Uday Umesh Lalit is the current and 49^th Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• He succeeded Justice N V Ramana, who retired on 26 August 2022.

Additional Information

• Justice Dr. Ravi Ranjan is the Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court, former Judge of Punjab and Haryana High Court, and Patna High Court.
• Sharad Arvind Bobde served as the 47^th Chief Justice of India between 2019 and 2021 and is a former Chief Justice of the Madhya Pradesh High Court.
• General Manoj Pande, PVSM, AVSM, VSM, ADC is an Indian Army General serving as the 29^th and the current Chief of the Army Staff.
• Justice Uday Umesh Lalit is the current and 49^th Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• He succeeded Justice N V Ramana, who retired on 26 August 2022.
• Recently (in Oct 2022) D Y Chandrachud has been Appointed as the 50^th Chief Justice Of India.

The correct answer is Fundamental Duties.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
• These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.
• The 11 fundamental duties are -
• Abide by the Constitution and respect the national flag & National Anthem
• Follow ideals of the freedom struggle
• Protect sovereignty & integrity of India
• Defend the country and render national services when called upon
• Sprit of common brotherhood
• Preserve composite culture
• Preserve natural environment
• Develop scientific temper
• Safeguard public property
• Strive for excellence
• Duty for all parents/guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school.

Additional Information

• The Directive Principles of State Policy of India are the guidelines or principles given to the institutes for governing India.
• They are provided in Part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution of India.
• Part III (Articles 12-35) of the Indian Constitution talks about Fundamental Rights, which are -
• Right to Equality
• Right to freedom
• Right against exploitation
• Right to freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights
• Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• Part V (Articles 52–151) speaks of the executive power of the Union.

The correct answer is 352.

Key Points

• Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the calling of a National Emergency.
• The key reasons have to do with war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

Additional Information

• Article 351 - The centre shall promote the spread of the Hindi language so that it may become a pan-India medium of expression.
• Article 354 - Application of provisions relating to distribution of revenues while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation.
• Article 350 - A person is entitled to seek redressal from the Union or the state in any language used in the union or the state.

The correct answer is Rabindranath Tagore.

Key Points

• Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali polymath who worked as a poet, writer, playwright, composer, philosopher, social reformer and painter.
• He became the first non-European and the first lyricist to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.
• He won it for the English translation of his collection of poems, Gitanjali.
• He was awarded a knighthood in 1915, but he renounced it after the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Additional Information

• Abul Kalam Azad was an Indian independence activist, Islamic theologian, writer and senior leader of the Indian National Congress.
• Following India's independence, he became the First Minister of Education in the Indian government.
• Morarji Desai was an Indian independence activist and politician.
• He served as the 4^th Prime Minister of India between 1977 and 1979 leading the government formed by the Janata Party.
• Zakir Husain was an Indian economist and politician.
• He served as the third president of India, between 1967 and 1969.
• He was the second vice president of India from 1962 to 1967.
• He was also the co-founder of Jamia Milia Islamia.

The correct answer is Agni - P.

Key Points

• Agni-P or Agni-Prime (Agnī "Fire") is a medium-range ballistic missile.
• It is being developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• It is the sixth missile in the Agni (missile) series of ballistic missiles.
• It is a successor for Agni-I and Agni-II missiles.
• It is a canisterised missile with range capability between 1,000 and 2,000 kms.

Additional Information

• The BrahMos is a medium-range stealth ramjet supersonic cruise missile.
• BrahMos - the name represents the Brahmaputra and the Moskva rivers.
• It is a joint venture by India and Russia and has a range of 290km.
• The Arjun is a third-generation main battle tank.
• It was developed by the Combat Vehicles Research and Development Establishment (CVRDE) of DRDO.
• The Prithvi is a tactical surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile.
• It was developed by DRDO.
• There are 3 versions of Prithvi missiles currently.
• It has a range of from 150 to 300 km.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Peter Gade is a Danish former professional badminton player.
• He topped the world rankings from 1998 to 2001.
• He has 22 Grand-Prix titles.
• Pullela Gopichand is a former Indian badminton player.
• Currently, he is the Chief National Coach for the Indian national badminton team.
• He received the Arjuna Award in 1999, the Dronacharya Award in 2009 and the Padma Bhushan in 2014.
• Thus, statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

Additional Information

• Indian Achievements in Badminton:
• Prakash Padukone won the men’s singles gold at the 1978 Commonwealth Games.
• Saina Nehwal won a bronze at the 2012 London Olympics - the country’s first Olympic medal in badminton.
• P.V. Sindhu won the silver medal in the 2016 Olympics in Rio.

The correct answer is 66.

Key Points

• The last Commonwealth Games were held in Gold Coast, Australia, in 2018.
• India secured a total of 66 medals which included:
• 26 Gold medals
• 20 Silver medals
• 20 bronze medal
• India ended 3^rd, behind Australia and England.

Additional Information

• The Commonwealth Games is an international multi-sport event involving athletes from the Commonwealth of Nations.
• The Commonwealth of Nations is a political association of 56 member states.
• The vast majority are former territories of the British Empire.
• India has hosted the games once in 2010.

The correct answer is Prabha Atre.

Key Points

• Prabha Atre is an Indian classical vocalist from the Kirana Gharana.
• She has been awarded all three of the Padma Awards by the Government of India.
• She received the Padma Shri in 1990, Padma Bhushan Award in 2002 and Padma Vibhushan Award in 2022.
• Thus, she did not receive the Padma Bhushan award in 2022.

Additional Information

• Ghulam Nabi Azad is an Indian politician.
• He was the seventh chief minister of Jammu and Kashmir from 2005 to 2008.
• He received the Padma Bhushan award in 2022.
• He has also served as the Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha until February 2021.
• Victor Banerjee is an Indian actor who appears in English, Hindi, Bengali and Assamese language films.
• He received the Padma Bhushan award in 2022.
• He has worked for directors such as Roman Polanski, James Ivory, Sir David Lean, Jerry London, Ronald Neame, Satyajit Ray, Mrinal Sen, Shyam Benegal, Montazur Rahman Akbar and Ram Gopal Varma.
• Ustad Rashid Khan is an Indian classical musician in the Hindustani music tradition.
• He belongs to the Rampur-Sahaswan Gharana and is the great-grandson of Gharana founder Inayat Hussain Khan.
• He received the Padma Bhushan award in 2022.

The correct answer is Mumbai Indians.

Key Points

• The four teams which qualified IPL playoff in 2021 were Delhi Capitals, Chennai Super Kings, Royal Challengers Bangalore, and Kolkata Knight Riders.
• Chennai Super Kings won IPL 2021.
• Mumbai Indians was at the fifth place in the points table and was unable to qualify for the playoffs.

Additional Information

• The Indian Premier League is a professional men's Twenty20 cricket league.
• The league was founded by the Board of Control for Cricket in India in 2007.
• In IPL 2021, the orange cap was won by Ruturaj Gaikwad and the purple cap was won by Harshal Patel.

Given:

A bag contains black, white and grey balls in the ratio of 6 : 14 : 11

Calculation:

let the number of black , white and grey balls be 6x , 14x, and 11x respectively

Total number of balls in the bag = 6x + 14x + 11x

= 31x

Total number of ball increased by 40% = 31x × \(\frac{140}{100}\)

= 43.4x

Black balls increased by 20% = 6x × \(\frac{120}{100}\) 

= 7.2x

White balls increased by 20% = 14x × \(\frac{120}{100}\)

= 16.8x

After increase,

Black balls + White balls + grey balls = Total number of balls

7.2x + 16.8x + Grey balls = 43.4x

Grey balls after increase = 19.4x

Grey balls before increase = 11x

8.4x balls is increased

Increased percentage = \(\frac{8.4x}{11x}\) × 100

= 76.363636%

Grey balls increased by 76.36%

Answer is 76.36 percent increase.

Shortcut Trick

Successive Multiplier Method: A = D × (Fractional Change)

20% less = 4/5 | 75% more = 7/4 | 60% more = 8/5

A = 20000 × (4/5) × (7/4) × (8/5)

A = 20000 × (224/100) = 200 × 224

A = 44800

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 44800.

Alternate Method

Given:

Income of D = Rs. 20000

Income of C = 20% less than D

Income of B = 75% more than C

Income of A = 60% more than B

D
20000

-20%

C
16000

+75%

B
28000

+60%

A
44800

Calculations:

⇒ Income of C = 20000 − (20% of 20000)

⇒ Income of C = 20000 − 4000 = Rs. 16000

⇒ Income of B = 16000 + (75% of 16000)

⇒ Income of B = 16000 + 12000 = Rs. 28000

⇒ Income of A = 28000 + (60% of 28000)

⇒ Income of A = 28000 + 16800 = Rs. 44800

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 44800.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is changed multiple times, the final value = Initial Value × (1 ± r₁/100) × (1 ± r₂/100) × ...

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

Easily calculate by converting common percentages: 20% = 1/5, 75% = 3/4, 60% = 3/5.

Base Value Concept

Always identify the reference base. In "A is x% more than B", B is the base (denominator).

Direct Net Change Formula

For two successive changes of a% and b%, Net change = (a + b + (a × b)/100)%.

Given:

10 percent of marked price is equal to 20 percent of cost price

Formula:

Profit = \(\frac{Selling\ Price\ -\ Cost \ Price}{Cost\ Price}\) %

Calculation:

10 percent of marked price is equal to 20 percent of cost price

10% Marked Price = 20% Cost Price

\(\frac{Marked\ Price}{Cost\ Price}\) = \(\frac{20}{10}\)

Let MP and CP be 20 and 10 respectively

if discount is not given,

then Marked Price = Selling Price

SP = 20

Profit = \(\frac{20 -10}{10}\) %

Profit = 100%

Answer is 100%.

Additional Information Loss = \(\frac{Cost \ Price\ -\ Selling\ Price\ }{Cost\ Price}\) %

Given:

D1 = Sum of two adjacent sides of a rectangle.

D2 = Diagonal of the rectangle.

Formula used:

Diagonal of the rectangle = \(\sqrt{length^2 + breadth^2} \)

Calculation:

let the longer side be l and shorter side be b

D1 = Sum of two adjacent sides of a rectangle.

D1 = l + b

D2 = Diagonal of the rectangle.

D2 = \(\sqrt{l^2 + b^2}\)

Difference between D1 and D2 is equal to the half of the longer side,

D1 - D2 = l / 2

l + b - ( \(\sqrt{l^2 + b^2}\) ) = l / 2

• ( \(\sqrt{l^2 + b^2}\) ) = \(\frac{l-2l-2b}{2}\)

( \(\sqrt{l^2 + b^2}\) ) = \(\frac{l+2b}{2}\)

squaring on both sides,

4l² + 4b² = l² + 4b² + 4lb

3l = 4b

\(\frac{l}{b}\) = \(\frac{4}{3}\)

Ratio of the shorter side to the longer side is 3 : 4

Answer is 3 : 4. 

Additional Information Area of the rectangle = length × breadth

Shortcut Trick

Use the weighted average method for combined profit/loss percentage.

Overall Percentage = (Ratio₁ × %₁ + Ratio₂ × %₂ + Ratio₃ × %₃) / (Sum of Ratios)

Overall Percentage = (2 × 10 + 5 × 20 + 3 × (−10)) / (2 + 5 + 3)

Overall Percentage = (20 + 100 − 30) / 10 = 90 / 10 = 9%

∴ The correct answer is 9% profit.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) = 2 : 5 : 3

Profit/Loss Percentages = 10% profit, 20% profit, 10% loss

Formula:

Total Profit/Loss = ∑(CP_i × Profit_i%)

⇒ Let CP₁ = 200, CP₂ = 500, CP₃ = 300

⇒ Total CP = 200 + 500 + 300 = 1000

⇒ Profit on 1^st article = 200 × (10 / 100) = 20

⇒ Profit on 2^nd article = 500 × (20 / 100) = 100

⇒ Loss on 3^rd article = 300 × (10 / 100) = 30

⇒ Net Profit = 20 + 100 − 30 = 90

⇒ Overall Profit % = (Net Profit / Total CP) × 100

⇒ Overall Profit % = (90 / 1000) × 100 = 9%

∴ The correct answer is 9% profit.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Percentage

Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss / CP) × 100. Always calculate on Cost Price unless specified otherwise.

Weighted Average in Profit/Loss

When multiple items are sold, the net profit/loss percentage is the sum of (weight × percentage) divided by the sum of weights.

Successive Profit/Loss

If an item is sold successively at a% and b% profit, the effective profit is given by [a + b + (ab / 100)].

Given:

Cost Price of 12 pens = 1 rupee

gain% = 20%

Formula used:

Selling Price = Cost Price \(\frac{100\ ±\ profit% \ or\ loss%}{100}\)

Calculation:

Cost Price of 12 pens = 1 rupee

Cost Price of 1 pen = \(\frac{1}{12}\) rupee

Selling Price of 1 pen = \(\frac{1}{12}\) ×  \(\frac{100\ +\ 20}{100}\)

= \(\frac{1}{10}\) rupee

Selling Price of 10 pens = 1 rupee

Answer is 10.

Additional InformationProfit = \(\frac{Selling\ Price\ -\ Cost \ Price}{Cost\ Price}\) %

Loss = \(\frac{Cost \ Price\ -\ Selling\ Price\ }{Cost\ Price}\) %

Given:

48 - [48 - (16 + 48) - 48 - (48 - \(\overline{16 - 48}\)) + 32]

**Concept used:**​

BODMAS consists of the first letter of the operations involved in a mathematical equation.

B- Bracket (), [], {}

O- Order, Square root, exponents, and powers

D- Division, ÷ /              

M- Multiplication × *