DSSSB LDC Official Paper (Held on : 25 Aug 2019 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

A + 3 = D; D + 5 = I; I + 7 = P; P + 9 = Y; Y + 11 = J; J + 13 = W 

For number series square of natural numbers are given.

Square number series: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49

Hence, ‘W49’ is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Hence, ‘UVW’ is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

A + 1² = A + 1 = B

B + 2² = B + 4 = F

F + 3² = F + 9 = O

O + 4² = O + 16 = E

E + 5² = E + 25 = D

Hence, ‘D’ is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Drawer : Wardrobe : Room → Wardrobe is part of a room and drawer is part of the wardrobe.

Similarly,

Thread : Needle : Machine → Needle is used in a machine and thread is used in the needle.

Hence, ‘Thread : Needle : Machine’ is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘HXUUS’ is the correct answer.

The logic is:

 

Hence, 'Disk : Floppy' is the odd one out.

Persons - A, B, C, D, E and F

1. A and D are from Chennai while the others are from Mumbai. 2. B and D are tall while the others are short. B, C and E are males while A, D and F are females.

 

Clearly, 'B' is tall male from Mumbai.

Hence, ‘B’ is the correct answer.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

you are the daughter of my husband' brother's mother's husband

My husband's brother is the brother in law of me and brother's mother's husband is my father in law and his daughter is the sister of my husband and sister in law of me.

The daughter of the women's husband' brother's mother's husband is the sister of the husband of the women.

Clearly, the women are sisters-in-law of each other.

Hence, ‘Sister-in-law’ is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Tea : Coffee → Tea and Coffee are beverages. Both tea and coffee are used for the same purpose and can be used in place of each other.

Similarly,

Laptop : Tablet → Laptop and Tablet are electronic gadgets. Both Laptop and Tablet are used for the same purpose and can be used in place of each other.

Hence, ‘Laptop : Tablet’ is the correct answer.

1. Six people are sitting in a garden with 3 of them facing the other 3.
2. A is sitting to the north of B whereas B is to the immediate west of C.
3. E sits across F who sits to the east of C.

The arrangement will be as shown below:

Clearly, D sits to the North of C.

Hence, ‘North’ is the correct answer.

1. X remembers that his mother's birthday falls after August 8^th but before August 20^th.

Therefore, possible birthday dates are : 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19. 2. His sister, Y, remembers that her mother's birthday is after 18^th August but before August 28^th.

Therefore, possible birthday dates are : 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27

Clearly, X and Y's mother's birthday falls on 19^th August as Y remembers that her mother's birthday is after 18^th August and X remembers that his mother's birthday falls before August 20^th.

Hence, ‘August 19^th’ is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Tea : Milk : Sugar → Milk and Sugar is used to make tea.

Similarly,

Story : Characters : Plots → Characters and Plots are used to make a story.

Hence, ‘Story : Characters : Plots’ is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

CAT → C (3) × A (1) × T (20) = 3 × 1 × 20 = 60

DART → D (4) × A (1) × R (18) × T (20) = 4 × 1 × 18 × 20 = 1440 

Similarly,

BART → B (2) × A (1) × R (18) × T (20) = 2 × 1 × 18 × 20 = 720

Hence, ‘720’ is the correct answer.

Given :

X ranked 11^th from the top and 30^th from the bottom amongst those who passed the examination.

Number of students who passed the examination = 11 + 30 - 1 = 41 - 1 = 40

6 students did not give the examination whereas 4 failed in it. 

Total number of students = 40 + 6 + 4 = 50

Hence, ‘50’ is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

Conclusions:

I. Some erasers are pens. → True (As, All pencils are pens and Some erasers are pencils → Some erasers are pens)

II. Some pens are erasers. → True (As, All pencils are pens and Some erasers are pencils → Some pens are erasers)

Hence, Both conclusions I and II follow.

The logic is:

 

Nokia, Samsung and Apple are names of brands that sell electronic gadgets.

Similarly,

OnePlus too is the name of a brand that sells electronic gadgets.

Hence, ‘OnePlus’ is the correct answer.

 

All options except 'Player' are names of non-living items used in a game, while 'Player' is a living being, a person who plays any game.

Hence, 'Player' is the odd one out.

The logic is:

1357 : 2468

1 + 1 = 2

3 + 1 = 4

5 + 1 = 6

7 + 1 = 8

Similarly,

2468 : ?

2 + 1 = 3

4 + 1 = 5

6 + 1 = 7

8 + 1 = 9

Hence, ‘3579’ is the correct answer.

1. ×, ÷

Given equation: 18 × 6 ÷ 9 + 3 - 25 = 5

After replacing the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 18 ÷ 6 × 9 + 3 - 25

= 3 × 9 + 3 – 25

= 27 + 3 – 25

= 30 – 25

= 5 = R.H.S

2. -, +

Given equation: 18 × 6 ÷ 9 + 3 - 25 = 5

After replacing the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 18 × 6 ÷ 9 - 3 + 25

= 12 – 3 + 25

= 37 – 3

= 34 ≠ R.H.S

3. +, ÷

Given equation: 18 × 6 ÷ 9 + 3 - 25 = 5

After replacing the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 18 × 6 + 9 ÷ 3 - 25

= 108 + 3 – 25

= 111 – 25

= 86 ≠ R.H.S

4. ×, +

Given equation: 18 × 6 ÷ 9 + 3 - 25 = 5

After replacing the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 18 + 6 ÷ 9 × 3 - 25

= 18 + 2 – 25

= 20 – 25

= -5 ≠ R.H.S

Hence, ‘×, ÷’ is the correct answer.

I. People throw dirt in the water. → The assumption is valid as people throw dirt in water and cause pollution.

II. Factories release dirt in the water. → The assumption is valid as factories release their dirt and waste in air, land and water.

Hence, Both assumptions are valid.

Additional Information The use of the word "dirt" indicates multiple possibilities.

• Dirt from natural resources
• Dirt caused due to man-made factors.
• It is safe to assume that here the pollution could be due to natural or man-made factors.

Since the assumptions talk about two types of man-made factors, both of them are valid.

The logic is:

All options except '216' are cubes of prime numbers, while 216 is cube of a even number.

1. 125 → 5³ (5 is a prime number)

2. 216 → 6³ (6 is an even number)

3. 343 → 7³ (7 is a prime number)
4. 8 → 2³ (2 is a prime number)

Thus 216 is NOT like the other three.

Hence, ‘216’ is the odd one out.

The logic is:

the pattern being followed here is:

(Number)² : (Number)³

1. 225 : 3375 → 15² : 15³
2. 49 : 280 → 7² : 7³ = 343 ≠ 280
3. 64 : 512 → 8² : 8³
4. 25 : 125 → 5² : 5³

Hence, ‘49 : 280’ is the odd one out.

The paper when unfolded will appear as shown below:

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

The set of letters which represents fathers who are poets is shown below:

Hence, ‘GKCD’ is the correct answer.

Confusion Points

Please note that the word 'only' has not been used here in the question, hence, we have to take account of all the letters which are covered in circle and square.

Given: 33 + 43 + 53 ? 63

L. H. S = 33 + 43 + 53 = 27 + 64 + 125 = 216

R.H.S = 6³ = 216

216 = 216

Therefore, 33 + 43 + 53 = 63

Hence, ‘=’ is the correct answer.

According to given conditions,

Clearly, the man is now to the east of his starting point.

Hence, ‘East’ is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Square of 1^st number = Second number

Second Number × 3 = Third number

(5, 25, 75) → 5² = 25 and 25 × 3 = 75 

Similarly,

(4, 16, 48) → 4² = 16 and 16 × 3 = 48

Hence, ‘(4, 16, 48)’ is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, 460.8 is the correct answer.

The pattern being followed is  

Hence, 240 is the wrong term.

The logic is:

Number of images in first figure is 4 and number of images in second figure is 5. Apart from this, the number of half shaded images in both the figures are same.

Similarly,

Number of images in first figure is 5, so number of images in second figure must be 6, as shown in option 1 and option 4.

Also, number of half shaded images in first figure is two and the number of half shaded images in option 4 figure is two. So, it is clear that option 4 figure will complete the analogy.

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

In the given series,

The triangle is moving anticlockwise 90 degrees in each step, without changing its orientation.

The circle is moving corner to corner in the anti-clockwise direction.

The square is being divided in equal triangles and squares alternately.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

According to given conditions,

Shortest Distance = \(√(6^2+8^2 ) km\)

\(= √(36+64) km\)

\(= √100 km\)

= 10 km

Hence, ‘10 km’ is the correct answer.

The logic is:

21 : 28 → 7 × 3 = 21 and 7 × 4 = 28

Similarly,

42 : ? → 14 × 3 = 42 and 14 × 4 = 56

Hence, ‘56’ is the correct answer.

When the unfolded cube is folded, the faces opposite to each other will be as shown below:

1. → Can be made

→ Can be made

→ Can be made

→ Cannot be made as two opposite faces cannot appear on the same dice.

So, Cube 4 in the answer figure CANNOT be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure.

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

The Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between Rose, flowers and Lily is shown below:

Rose and Lily are name of flowers.

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

The figure in which the question figure is embedded is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

The minimum number of straight lines required to draw the given figure is shown below:

\

Hence, ‘12’ is the correct answer.

1. 27, 14

Given equation: 49 × 7 ÷ 14 + 25 - 27 = 0

After replacing the numbers, we get:

L.H.S = 49 × 7 ÷ 27 + 25 – 14

= 12.70 + 25 – 14

= 37.7 – 14

= 23.7 ≠ R.H.S 2. 14, 49

Given equation: 49 × 7 ÷ 14 + 25 - 27 = 0

After replacing the numbers, we get:

L.H.S = 14 × 7 ÷ 49 + 25 - 27

= 2 + 25 – 27

= 27 – 27

= 0 = R.H.S

3. 25, 49

Given equation: 49 × 7 ÷ 14 + 25 - 27 = 0

After replacing the numbers, we get:

L.H.S = 25 × 7 ÷ 14 + 49 - 27

= 12.5 + 49 – 27

= 61.5 – 27

= 34.5 ≠ R.H.S 4. 25, 27

Given equation: 49 × 7 ÷ 14 + 25 - 27 = 0

After replacing the numbers, we get:

L.H.S = 49 × 7 ÷ 14 + 27 – 25

= 24.5 + 27 – 25

= 51.5 – 25

= 26.5 ≠ R.H.S

Hence, ’14, 49’ is the correct answer.

In all the figures except 'c', the number of small straight lines is 13, while in figure 'c' there are 14 small straight lines.

So, 'c' is the incorrect part. 

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

The logic is:

  

Hence, ‘48’ is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Piyush Goyal.

Key Points

• Piyush Goyal the then interim finance minister presented the Interim Budget of 2019-20.
• **Annual Financial

Statement:

**

• It is contained in Articles 112 to 117.
• The word budget is nowhere used in the constitution.
• According to Article 112, the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the ‘annual financial statement’.
• It is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditures both revenue and capital of that financial year.
• The expenditure of the government is classified as ‘charged’ and made from the consolidated fund of India.
• The General Budget is usually presented in the Lok Sabha by Finance Minister.
• The General Budget is presented with the Budget speech by the Finance Minister

Additional Information

• The Union Budget of India for 2020–2021 was presented by the Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman.

The correct answer is District Level Review and Monitoring.

• At the district level, District Level Review and Monitoring Committee has been constituted to monitor Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) activities.
• District Level Advisory and Monitoring Committee (DLAMC):
• DLAMC shall oversee the implementation of SBM (U), ensure that the beneficiaries are properly selected, manual scavenging is eliminated and scientific disposal of solid and liquid waste is done.
• The Major role is to see that the objective of Open Defecation Free (ODF) cities is achieved and sustained.

Key Points

• Roles & Responsibilities of Member Secretary – DLAMC ​
• Planning
• Facilitate demand assessment and house–to–house surveys at the district level.
• Ensure ULBs prepare City Level Sanitation Plans/ Swachh Bharat City Plans16 for approval by States.
• Implementation
• Facilitate coordination amongst various agencies.
• Promote inter-sectoral convergence of resources.
• Promote citizen engagement and participation.
• Monitoring
• Oversee and monitor the progress of implementation of SBM (U) at the district level.
• Convene DLAMC meetings, once in three months.
• Review improvements in service level indicators of each ULB of the district.
• Review implementation of SBM(U) from the perspective of eGovernance and ease of doing business.
• Obtain district login from the SBM (U) portal; http://swachhbharaturban.gov.in/ and update the details of review meetings of DLAMC 2.3 Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).

Roles and Responsibilities of key functionaries – District level

The correct answer is Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan.

• Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan is called the "Father of Green Revolution in India".

Key Points

• Green Revolution:
• It was launched in the year 1966 and was the brainchild of Norman Borlaug.
• In India, it was made successful by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan.
• Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is called the "Father of Green Revolution in India".
• The term ‘Green Revolution’ was coined by Dr. William Gide.
• The achievements of the Green Revolution were the rise in cereal production especially wheat.
• A National Commission on Farmers was appointed in 2004, under the Chairmanship of Dr. M.S. Swaminathan, which inter alia suggested an Agricultural Renewal Action Plan (ARAP).

                  MS Swaminathan

Additional Information

• Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is called the Father of the Indian space program.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was also called as Lokmanya Tilak.

The correct answer is anisogamous.

• Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size, as in some species of Chlamydomonas is termed as anisogamous.

Key Points

• Anisogamy:
• It is the bimodal distribution of gametic sizes i.e. smaller in males, larger in females, is a characteristic feature of all sexually reproducing animals.
• It is observed in some species of Chlamydomonas.

Additional Information

• Isogamy is a form of sexual reproduction that involves gametes of similar sizes.
• It takes place mostly in unicellular organisms.
• Motile fungal spores are called zoospores.
• Oogamy is the fusion of gametes that differ in both size and form.
• It is a form of anisogamy.

The correct answer is 1^st December.

• Hornbill festival is celebrated from 1^st December.

Key Points

• Hornbill festival:
• It is celebrated in Nagaland.
• It is also known as the "festival of all festivals" in the locality.
• The festival is a representation of the Naga culture through splendid traditional music, dance, and performances.
• The festival gets its name from the Indian Hornbill.
• It is a common bird among the folklores and tribes of Nagaland.
• The festival opens on 1^st December each year.

The correct answer is Banvarh.

Key Points

• Banvarh:
• It is a song sung in Goa to mourn the death of loved ones.
• The song is generally sung on the day of cremation by means of Hindu rituals.

Additional Information

• Mando is also a dance song of Goa whose major theme is love**.**
• It is usually sung on various ceremonies and occasions.
• Fughri is a dance song and is performed on various occasions, especially in honour of the deity Ganesha.
• Dekhni is a semi-classical Goan dance form.

The correct answer is the Bay of Bengal.

• Mahabalipuram Rathas is situated along the shores of the Bay of Bengal.

Key Points

• Monuments at Mahabalipuram:

• Mahabalipuram is a temple town situated along the shores of the Bay of Bengal in Chennai.

• Shore Temple and Ratha Cave Temples are the most famous places in the Mahabalipuram.

• Shore Temple:

• It was built in the 7^th century during the reign of Rajasimha.

• It depicts Pallava architecture.

• The temple enshrines Lord Vishnu and Shiva.

• It is a UNESCO world heritage.

• Ratha Cave Temples:

• It was built by the Pallava king Narsimha in the 8^th century.

• There are a total of eight rathas at Mahabalipuram.

• They are architectured in the style of the Buddhist viharas and chaityas.

• The unfinished three-story Dharmaraja Ratha is the largest.

The correct answer is Alluvial Soil.

• Alluvial Soil requires the least use of fertilisers.

Key Points

• Alluvial Soil:
• It is the soil brought by the rivers and is highly fertile.
• In India, it covers 40% of the land area.
• The entire Northern Plains are made up of these soils.
• They have been brought down and deposited by three great Himalayan rivers – Sutlej, Ganga and Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
• The soil is rich in potash and lime.
• It is deficient in nitrogen and phosphorous.

Additional Information

• Laterite Soil:
• The Laterite soils are formed due to weathering of lateritic rock in high temperatures and heavy rainfall with alternate dry and wet periods.
• Laterite soils are red in colour with a high content of iron-oxides; poor in Nitrogen and Lime.
• Black Soil:
• These soils are of volcanic origin.
• These soils are black in colour and are also known as black soils.
• It is also called regur soil.
• Red Soil:
• Formed by weathering of the crystalline and metamorphic mixture of clay and sand.
• They are red in colour because of their high Iron-oxide (FeO) content.

The correct answer is thermosphere.

• The layer of very rare air above the mesosphere is called the thermosphere.

Key Points

• Thermosphere:
• The zone between 85 km and 400 km above the surface is often called the thermosphere.
• In this layer, the temperature increases with increasing altitude.
• The upper part of the thermosphere contains lighter gases like helium and hydrogen.

Additional Information

• Troposphere:
• It is the first layer of the atmosphere.
• It extends to a height of 18 km at the equator and 8 km at the poles.
• In this layer, temperature decreases with height.
• Stratosphere:
• It is the second layer of the atmosphere.
• In this layer, the temperature increases with an increase in height.
• This phenomenon is known as temperature inversion.
• The part of the stratosphere, in which there is a concentration of ozone, is often called Ozonosphere.
• Exosphere:
• The outermost part of the atmosphere of the earth is called the exosphere.

​

The correct answer is Calcium Carbonate.

• Calcium Carbonate is a non-prescription drug used for relief from acid indigestion and heartburn.

Key Points

• Calcium carbonate is used as an antacid.
• Its formula is CaCO₃.
• It is a basic compound that acts by neutralizing hydrochloric acid in gastric secretions of the stomach.
• Nonprescription drugs are drugs that are safe and effective for use by the general public without advice from a health professional.

Additional Information

• Sodium carbonate is commonly called washing soda.
• Its formula is Na₂CO₃.
• Aspirin reduces pain, fever, or inflammation.
• Its formula is C₉H₈O₄.
• Sodium Chloride is the common name for salt.
• Its formula is NaCl.

The correct answer is Odisha.

• Keisabadi is a popular dance form of Odisha.

Key Points

• Keisabadi dance:
• The dance depicts the traditional love story of Lord Krishna and Radha.
• It is popular in the Sambalpur district of Odisha.
• Nritya, Nritta, and Natya are the main elements of the dance.
• The dance is performed by men.
• Other folk dance of Odisha are Ghumura Dance, Changu Dance, Baagh Naach, Karma Naach and Dasakathia Dance.

Additional Information

• The Kathakali is a dance form of Kerala.
• Garba is a popular dance form of Gujarat.
• Lavani is the dance form of Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Naypyidaw.

• The present capital of Burma is Naypyidaw.

Key Points

• Myanmar:
• The name Union of Burma was changed to the Union of Myanmar in 1989.
• Capital: Naypyidaw.
• President: Myint Swe
• Currency: Kyat
• Myanmar shares borders with China, Laos, and Thailand.
• Indian states Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Manipur shares borders with Myanmar.

Flag of Myanmar

Additional Information

• Kathmandu is the capital of Nepal.
• Dhaka is the capital of Bangladesh.
• Thimphu is the capital of Bhutan.

The correct answer is ampere.

• The SI unit of electric current is ampere.

Key Points

• Electric Current:
• It is defined as the rate of flow of charge or charge flowing per unit time interval.
• Its direction is the direction of the flow of positive charge.
• Its SI unit is ampere (A).

Additional Information

• Candela is the SI unit of luminous intensity.
• Its symbol is Cd.
• Kelvin is the SI unit of temperature.
• Its symbol is K.
• Mole is the SI unit of the Amount of substance.
• Its symbol is mol.

The correct answer is Typhoid.

• Typhoid is not an infectious viral disease.

Key Points

• Typhoid:
• It is caused by the bacteria Salmonella typhi.
• It leads to high fever, diarrhea, and vomiting.
• It affects organs like the liver, spleen, and muscles.

Additional Information

• Mumps is caused due to paramyxovirus, a member of the Rubulavirus family.
• It affects salivary glands.
• Influenza is caused due to various influenza viruses.
• The virus infects the nose, throat, and lungs.
• Dengue is caused due to dengue virus (DENV).
• It affects multiple organs of the body.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

• Godavari river originates from the state of Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Godavari:
• It originates from the Tribakeshwar in Nashik district of Maharashtra.
• It drains into the Bay of Bengal.
• It flows through the states of Maharashtra, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh.
• Tributaries:
• Left bank: Banganga, Kadva, Shivana, Purna, Kadam, Pranahita, Indravati, Taliperu, Sabari, Dharna.
• Right bank: Nasardi, Pravara, Sindphana, Manjira, Manair, Kinnerasani.

The correct answer is Gross National Product.

• Gross National Product measures the market value of all final goods and services produced by a country’s citizens or residents.

Key Points

• Gross National Product (GNP):
• GNP refers to the money value of the total output of production of final goods and services produced by the nationals of a country during a given period of time, generally a year.
• It is calculated using the formula:
• GNP= Consumption + Gross Private Investment + Government Expenditure + Net Exports + Net Factor Income from Abroad.

Additional Information

• Net domestic product (NDP):
• It is an annual measure of a nation's economic output that is calculated by subtracting depreciation from the gross domestic product (GDP).
• Gross Domestic Product:
• It is the total money value of all final goods and services produced within the country's geographical boundaries during a given period of time.
• GDP = C + G + I
• C = Consumption expenditure, G = Government expenditure and I = Investment expenditure
• Net National Product (NNP):
• NNP is obtained by subtracting depreciation value (i.e. capital stock consumption) from GNP.

The correct answer is Distillation.

• Distillation is a water purification method that utilizes heat to collect pure water in the form of vapour.

Key Points

• Distillation:
• Distillation is a water purification method that utilizes heat to collect pure water in the form of vapour.
• This method is effective by the fact that water has a lower boiling point than other contaminants and disease-causing elements found in water.
• Water is subjected to a heat source until it attains its boiling point and then left at the boiling point until it vaporizes.
• The vapour then is directed into a condenser to cool.
• The cooled water is then collected for drinking.

Additional Information

• Filtration is a way of purifying water using the right multimedia filters.
• In chlorination, water is purified using chlorine tablets.
• Evaporation is the conversion of liquid into its vapour, below the boiling point of the liquid.
• During evaporation, a small fraction of particles at the surface, having higher kinetic energy, is able to break away from the forces of attraction of other particles and gets converted into vapour.
• Boiling is the process in which a liquid is converted into its vapour when heated to its boiling point.

The correct answer is Cheruthoni Dam.

Key Points

• Cheruthoni Dam:
• It is the largest and highest gravity dam in Kerala.
• It is located in Idukki District, Kerala.
• The dam is a part of the Idukki Hydroelectric Project.
• It is built over the Periyar river.

Additional Information

• Krishnarajasagar Dam is located in Karnataka.
• It is built on the river Kaveri.
• Indira Sagar Dam is located in Madhya Pradesh.
• It is built across the Narmada river.
• Mettur Dam is located in Tamilnadu.
• It is built across the river Kaveri.

The correct answer is Capital Adequacy Ratio.

• CAR stands for Capital Adequacy Ratio.

Key Points

• Capital Adequacy Ratio:
• It is a measurement of a bank's available capital expressed as a percentage of a bank's risk-weighted credit exposures.
• It is also known as the capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR).
• CAR is important to ensure that banks have enough ability to absorb a reasonable amount of losses before they become insolvent.
• Tier-1 capital can absorb a suitable amount of loss without forcing the bank to stop its trading.
• Tier-2 capital can sustain a loss if there's a liquidation of the bank.
• The bank which has a high capital adequacy ratio is considered to be safe.

The correct answer is Platyhelminthes.

• Taenia is an example of Platyhelminthes phylum.

Key Points

• Phylum Platyhelminthes:
• Triploblastic and no body cavity.
• Dorsoventrally flattened animal.
• An alimentary canal with a single opening, anus absent.
• Excretion takes place by flame cells.
• There is no skeleton, respiratory organ, circulatory system, etc.
• These are hermaphrodite animals.
• Example: Planaria, Taenia.
• Taenia causes taeniasis in humans
• Taeniasis in humans is a parasitic infection caused by the tapeworm species Taenia.
• It is also called beef tapeworm.

Additional Information

• Sea pens, comb jellies, hydra are examples of Coelenterata.
• Sycon, Sponge, etc are examples of Porifera.
• Sea walnuts and sea gooseberries are examples of Ctenophora.

The correct answer is Dutee Chand.

Key Points

• Dutee Chand created history by becoming the first Indian to win a gold medal at the Summer Universiade in Napoli, Italy.
• India's star sprinter Chand won the gold in women's 100m with a timing of 11.32 seconds.
• Lisa KwaYie of Germany took the bronze in 11.39 seconds in the race.
• Running at lane No. 4, Dutee was the first to blast off the starting blocks out of the eight athletes.
• she made most of it to fend off a late challenge from Del Ponte (11.33) of Switzerland.

​

Additional Information

• India participated in the 2019 Summer Universiade in Naples, Italy.
• Dutee Chand is an Indian professional sprinter and current national champion in the women's 100 meters event.
• She is the third Indian woman to ever qualify for the Women's 100 meters event at the Summer Olympic Games.

The correct answer is Art-Acting-Theatre.

Key Points

• Balwant Moreshwar Purandare received Padma Vibhusan in 2019 for his contribution in the field of Art-Acting-Theatre.
• He is popularly known as Babasaheb Purandare.
• He is a writer and theatre personality from Maharashtra, India.
• He was awarded Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian award on 25 January 2019.

Additional Information

• He is also known for his significant contribution along with Madhav Deshpande & Madhav Mehere as senior party leaders in the early-1970s of Shiv Sena along with Balasaheb Thackeray.
• Purandare has also studied the history of the Peshwas of Pune.
• A 2008 TV show Raja Shivchatrapati depicting the life of Maratha king Shivaji Maharaj was based on Raja Shivchatrapati novel of Babasaheb Purandare.

The correct answer is Babur.

Key Points

• The battle of Panipat was between the armies of Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.
• Babur was invited by Daulat Khan Lodi to defeat Ibrahim Lodi.
• Babur was the eldest son of Umar Sheikh Mirza, and he ascended the throne of Fergana in 1495 when he was 12.
• But he faced a rebellion from his relatives and wanted to conquer Samarkand.
• In 1526, the Mughal forces of Babur, the Timurid ruler of Kabulistan, defeated the much larger ruling army of Ibrahim Lodi, Sultan of Delhi.
• Ibrahim Lodi was a very cruel and high headed ruler who was known for his atrocities.

Image of Babur:

Additional Information

• Shams ud-Din Iltutmish was the third of the Mamluk kings who ruled the former Ghurid territories in northern India.
• He was the first Muslim sovereign to rule from Delhi and is thus considered the effective founder of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Nur-ud-din Muhammad Salim known by his imperial name, Jahangir, was the fourth Mughal Emperor.
• who ruled from 1605 until his death in 1627.
• Jahangir was the fourth Mughal Emperor who ruled from 1605 until his death in 1627.
• He is famous for his 'golden chain of justice'.

The correct answer is Part III.

Key Points

• Fundamental rights in India are the rights guaranteed under Part III (Articles 12-35) of the Constitution of India.
• There are six fundamental rights recognised by the Indian constitution:
• The right to equality (Articles 14-18)
• The right to freedom (Articles 19-22)
• The right against exploitation (Articles 23-24)
• The right to freedom of religion (Articles 25-28)
• Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29-30)
• The right to constitutional remedies (Article 32 and 226)
• Fundamental rights for Indians have also been aimed at overturning the inequalities of pre-independence social practices.
• The concept of fundamental rights was borrowed from the constitution of the USA.

Additional Information

• Part 4 of the Indian Constitution consists of all the DPSP (Directive Principles of State Policy).
• It covers the Articles from 36 to 51.
• Article 36 of Part IV defines the term “State” as the one, who has to keep in mind all the DPSP before formulating any policy or law for the country.
• Part I
• ​The Union and Its territories is a compilation of laws pertaining to the constitution of India as a country and the union of states that it is made of.
• Part VI
• ​​It deals with states ( 152 to 237).

The correct answer is Aravalli Range.

Key Points

• Guru Shikhar, the highest point of Rajasthan, lies on the Aravalli Range.
• The Aravalli Range is a mountain range in Northwestern India.
• It runs for about 670 km in a southwest direction, starting near Delhi, passing through southern Haryana and Rajasthan, and ending in Gujarat.
• The Aravalli Range is considered to be the oldest fold mountain system in the world.

Image of Guru Shikar:

​

Additional Information

• The Guru Shikhar Peak is located in Rajasthan.
• Guru Shikar is located at a height of 1772 meters above sea level, and one can enjoy the view of Mount Abu region from this peak.
• The Karakoram is a mountain range spanning the borders of China, India, and Pakistan, with the northwest extremity of the range extending to Afghanistan and Tajikistan.
• Its highest 15 mountains are all based in Pakistan.
• It is the second-highest mountain range in the world and part of the complex of ranges including the Pamir Mountains, the Hindu Kush and the Himalayan Mountains.

The correct answer is Annie Besant.

Key Points

• Annie Besant was the first woman president of the Indian National Congress.
• She presided the INC at the Calcutta session of 1917
• She was of Irish origin and was one of the few foreigners who played a significant role in the Indian freedom movement.
• She was a sociologist, theosophist, social reformer, and advocate of Indian self-rule.
• Besant first visited India in 1893 and later settled there, becoming involved in the Indian nationalist movement.
• In 1916 she established the Indian Home Rule League, of which she became president.

Additional Information

• A total of 61 people have served as the president of the Indian National Congress since its formation.
• Sonia Gandhi is the longest-serving president of the party, having held office for over twenty years from 1998 to 2017 and since 2019.
• The President of the Indian National Congress is the highest command of the Indian National Congress (INC), a political party in India.

Confusion Points

Sarojini Naidu was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress Party in 1925, the first-ever Indian woman to assume that position.

The correct answer is Ariana Grande.

Key Points

• Ariana Grande won Best Pop Vocal Album for Sweetener at the 61^st GRAMMY Awards.
• The Grammy Award for Best Traditional Pop Vocal Album is an award presented to recording artists at the Grammy Awards, a ceremony that was established in 1958 and originally called the Gramophone Awards.
• In 1992 the award was known as Best Traditional Pop Performance.
• The award was known as Best Traditional Pop Vocal Performance from 1993 to 2000.
• It has been awarded as Best Traditional Pop Vocal Album since 2001.

Additional Information

• Anthony Dominick Benedetto is known professionally as Tony Bennett.
• He is an American singer of traditional pop standards, big band, show tunes, and jazz.
• He is also a painter, having created works under his birth name that are on permanent public display in several institutions.
• Shawn Peter Raul Mendes is a Canadian singer and songwriter.
• He gained a following in 2013, posting song covers on the video-sharing application Vine.
• David Byrne is a Scottish-American singer, songwriter, record producer, actor, writer, music theorist, and filmmaker.
• who was a founding member and the principal songwriter, lead singer, and guitarist of the American new wave band Talking Heads.

The correct answer is Right against Criminal Injustice.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12-35).
• Fundamental rights for Indians have also been aimed at overturning the inequalities of pre-independence social practices.
• The concept of fundamental rights was borrowed from the constitution of the USA.
• The Fundamental Rights: The Constitution of India provides for six Fundamental Rights.
• Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
• Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)
• Right against exploitation (Articles 23–24)
• Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25–28)
• Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29–30)
• Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
• Originally the constitution also included the Right to property (Article 31).
• However, it was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44^th Amendment Act, 1978.

Additional Information

• Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed to all citizens.
• They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc. Significantly, fundamental rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.
• Part 4 of the Indian Constitution consists of all the DPSP (Directive Principles of State Policy).
• It covers the Articles from 36 to 51.
• Article 36 of Part IV defines the term “State” as the one, who has to keep in mind all the DPSP before formulating any policy or law for the country.
• Part I
• ​The Union and Its territories is a compilation of laws pertaining to the constitution of India as a country and the union of states that it is made of.

The correct answer is Rome.

Key Points

• The Food and Agricultural Organisation of the United Nations is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
• Serving both developed and developing countries, FAO acts as a neutral forum where all nations meet as equals to negotiate arguments and debate policy.
• Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the oldest permanent specialized agency of the United Nations, established in October 1945 with the objective of eliminating hunger and improving nutrition and standards of living by increasing agricultural productivity.

Additional Information

• The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), a UN agency, strives to combat hunger and reduce poverty globally by improving agricultural, forestry, and fishing practices.
• Funded by industrialized countries and development banks, the FAO often works through public-private partnerships.
• Rather than directly administer aid or food, the FAO attempts to set up sustainable food sources, resources, and operational systems in nations.
• The FAO contributes to international efforts to defeat hunger and improve local economies by helping its member countries modernize and improve agriculture, forestry, and fishery practices.
• Headquarters: Rome
• Director General:  Qu Dongyu

​

The correct answer is 13^th April 1919.

Key Points

• People were gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar to protest against the arrest of Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal on 13^th April 1919.
• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre or the Amritsar Massacre took place when many villagers gathered in the park for the celebration of Baisakhi.
• The gatherers wanted to also peacefully protest the arrest and deportation of two national leaders, Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlew.
• On 13 April 1919, Suddenly, a British military officer, General Dyer, entered the park with his troops to open fire on an unarmed crowd who had gathered for the Sikh Vaisakhi festival.
• The attack took place at Jallianwala Bagh, a walled garden with narrow passageways, in the city of Amritsar, Punjab.
• To teach Indians a "lesson" for their "disobedience", Brigadier-General Dyer ordered his troops to open fire on the gathering.

Additional Information

• After the Incident of Jallianwala Bagh 
• The Bengali poet and Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore renounced the knighthood that he had received in 1915.
• Gandhi soon began organizing his first large-scale and sustained nonviolent protest (satyagraha) campaign, the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22).
• The then government of India ordered an investigation of the incident (the Hunter Commission), which in 1920 censured Dyer for his actions and ordered him to resign from the military.

The correct answer is Article 44.

Key Points

• Article 44 of the Indian Constitution states that “the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code (UCC) throughout the territory of India.”
• The desirability of a uniform civil code is consistent with human rights and the principles of equality, fairness and justice.
• Uniform Civil Code in India is a widely debated topic lately since the first petition was filed in 2019 to seek for framing of a UCC to promote national integration and gender justice, equality, and dignity of women.

Additional Information

• The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) calls for the formulation of one law for India, which would be applicable to all religious communities in matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption.
• The code comes under Article 44 of the Constitution, which lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
• It is based on the premise that there is no connection between religion and law in modern civilization.
• Article 40
• ​Organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government
• Article 55
• It tells about MANNER OF ELECTION OF PRESIDENT.
• The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.
• ARTICLE 52: THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA
• There shall be a President of India.

The correct answer is Vaibhav Yadav.

Key Points

• The 24-year-old Indian boxer Vaibhav Yadav is nicknamed ‘Ahir boxer’.
• He hails from New Delhi and so far has a record of 5-1-0 on the pro circuit.
• Indian pro boxer Vaibhav Yadav became World Boxing Council (WBC) Asia silver Welterweight Champion after winning the title bout held in Pattaya, Thailand.
• He won the title after defeating Fahpetch Singmanassak of Thailand.
• Vaibhav clinched a 3^rd-round knockout win over Singmanassak.
• The fight was conducted by Asian Boxing Council (ABC) and approved by World Boxing Council (WBC).

Additional Information

• Asian Boxing Council is a professional boxing organization that is responsible for sanctioning title fights in Greater Asian region.
• It was established in 1985 with headquarters in Thailand.
• ABCO is a Federation of national professional boxing commissions which was formed as a confederation affiliated with WBC.
• Vijender Singh
• Vijender Singh Beniwal is an Indian professional boxer and politician.
• As an amateur, he won bronze medals at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, 2009 World Championships, and the 2010 Commonwealth Games, as well as silver medals at the 2006 and 2014 Commonwealth Games, all in the middleweight division.
• Akhil Kumar
• Akhil Kumar is an Indian boxer who has won several international and national boxing awards.
• He practices an "open guarded" boxing style.
• In 2005, the Indian government gave him the Arjuna Award for his achievements in international boxing.
• Shiva Thapa
• Shiva Thapa is an Indian boxer.
• He is employed with Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Ltd.
• He is supported by Olympic Gold Quest and Anglian Medal Hunt Company, Shiva Thapa participated in the 2012 London Olympics and was the youngest Indian boxer to qualify for the Olympics.

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

• The RAAF Woomera Range Complex (WRC) is a major Australian military and civil aerospace facility and operation located in South Australia, approximately 450 km northwest of Adelaide.
• The Woomera Range Complex is located in the northwest pastoral region of South Australia, with the operational area of the Range encompassed by the 'Woomera Prohibited Area' (WPA), which covers very sparsely populated 'outback' land.
• The range also includes the restricted airspace over the WPA.

Additional Information 

• The United States collaborated with Australia to construct the 26-meter antenna in Woomera (Island Lagoon).
• Woomera was chosen as the best location for Deep Space Station 41 because it was about 120 degrees west of Goldstone, California where another Deep Space Station was located.
• Australia had collaborated with the British government since 1957 to research missiles, rockets, and satellites, proving themselves an ideal partner for NASA.

The correct answer is Avantivarman.

Key Points

• Avantivarman was a king who founded the Utpala dynasty in 855.
• He was the most powerful king of this dynasty.
• He ruled Kashmir from 855 to 883 CE and built the Avantiswami Temple.
• Avantivarman was a patron of the arts and the most notable scholar of his time was Anandhavardana, the author of the Dhvanyaloka.
• Avantivarman died in 883 CE and his death was followed by another civil war among his descendants.

Remains of Avantivarman temple in Jammu and Kashmir:

Additional Information

• Utpala dynasty was a Kashmiri kingdom that ruled over the Kashmir region in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent from the 9^th to 10^th century CE.
• The kingdom was established by Avanti Varman, ending the rule of the Karkota dynasty in 855 CE.
• Gopalavarman
• Gopalavarman was an Utpala clan ruler of Kashmir in the 10^th century.
• He was son of Unmattavanti.
• Sankaravarman
• Sankarava rman was a king of the Utpala dynasty, a Hindu kingdom that ruled over the Kashmir region from the 8^th to 10^th century CE.
• The kingdom was established by Avantivarman, who ended the rule of the Karkota dynasty in 855 CE.
• Sankaravarman ruled from 885 CE until 902 CE.

The correct answer is Anthony Amalraj.

Key Points

• The Indian pair of G. Sathiyan and Anthony Amalraj won bronze in Men’s Doubles at World Tour Platinum Australian Open Table Tennis 2019 held in Geelong near Melbourne in Australia.
• The duo went down with 12-14, 9-11, 8-11 to top seed Korean pair of Jeoung Youngsik and Lee Sangsu.
• The Korean pair could not be pinned down despite being extended in 1^st game.
• The Indian duo (G. Sathiyan and Anthony Amalraj) fought really well before bowing out in the semifinal.
• This was India’s first-ever medal in the Australian Open, which is a Platinum event.
• This lone bronze medal was the only silver lining as other Indians failed to cross preliminary-round hurdles in all events.
• This included Sharath Kamal and Sathiyan as the only two Indians who could make it to 3^rd round of qualifying matches in men’s singles before bowing out.

Additional Information

• It is the 24^th edition of the International Table Tennis Federation’s professional table tennis world tour.
• It is scheduled from 17 January 2019 to 15 December 2019.
• Total no. of Tournaments: 12 + Grand Finals
• The tournaments in the 2019 tour are divided into two Categories-
• World Tour (6)
• World Tour Platinum (6)- It offers higher prize money and more points towards the ITTF World Tour standings.
• The points earned determine qualifiers for ITTF World Tour Grand Finals in December 2019.

The correct answer is Shah Alam II.

Key Points

• Shah Alam II popularly known as ‘Ali Gauhar’, was defeated in the Battle of Buxar.
• Shah Alam II, born Ali Gauhar was the seventeenth Mughal Emperor and the son of Alamgir II.
• Shah Alam II became the emperor of a crumbling Mughal empire.
• He was popularly known as Shahi-i- Bekhabar by Khafi Khan due to his appeasement parties by grants of title and rewards.
• Shah Alam also penned the famous book Ajaib-ul-Qasas which is considered one of the earliest and prominent books of prose in Urdu.

Additional Information 

• The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the combined armies of Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal, Shuja-ud-Daula the Nawab of Awadh, the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
• The forces under the command of the British East India Company led by Hector Munro.
• The battle fought at Buxar, a town located on the bank of the Ganges river then within the territory of Bengal, was a decisive victory for the British East India Company.

The correct answer is Shah Jahan.

Key Points

• The Moti Masjid was built by Emperor Shah Jahan (r. 1628-1658) at the highest point in the Agra Fort complex in Uttar Pradesh.
• It was completed in 1655, taking seven years to build.
• The mosque sits on a platform and consists of a large courtyard surrounded by continuous arcades and a prayer hall.
• Shah Jahan constructed the Moti masjid for his members of the royal court.
• This masjid was constructed at a cost of 2 lakhs and 60 thousand rupees.

 ​

Additional Information

• Shah Jahan was imprisoned by his son Aurangzeb in 1658 in Agra.

• Akbar built many monuments in Delhi and Agra.

• Some were built for protection, like Agra Fort, and some were built due to his love of architecture like Fatehpur Sikri, Buland Darwaza, Humayun's Tomb, Jodhabai Palace, and Akbar's Tomb.

• Akbar constructed his tomb during his lifetime.

• Monuments built by Humayun

• Gates of Din Panah City:

• There were 3 gates in Humayun’s arch and they are known as the Talaqi Gate, The Bara Darwaza, and the Humayun Gate respectively.

• Sher Mandal:

• One of the most beautiful as well as wonderful architectures was built by the emperor Humayun.

• It was the headquarters of the old fort.

• A two-story red sandstone structure with eight angular-shaped construction of the user manual.

• Babur built a few monuments in his honor such as the "avenue garden" in Kabul (which became his tomb), the Babri Masjid.

• The six monuments declared as Monuments of national importance in 2018 are:

• Old High Court Building in Nagpur, Maharashtra.

• Haveli of Agha Khan in Agra.

• Haveli of Hathi Khana in Agra.

• Neemrana Baori in Rajasthan’s Alwar district.

• Group of Temples at Ranipur Jharail in Odisha’s Bolangir district.

• Vishnu Temple in Kotali, Pithoragarh district, Uttarkhand.

The correct answer is Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Key Points

• Vijay Ghat is the Final resting place (Samadhi) of Lal Bahadur Shastri in Delhi.
• Vijay Ghat is the memorial of India’s second Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.
• Vijay means victory and his memorial was named after the victory he led India to in the 1965 war against Pakistan.
• The memorial marks the spot where Shastri was cremated and prayer services are held every year on his birth and death anniversaries.
• Many international heads of state and visiting dignitaries visit Vijay Ghat to pay their respects to this great leader.

Additional Information

• Lal Bahadur Shastri was elected to the legislature of the united provinces in 1937 and 1946.

• His slogan "Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan" ("Hail to the soldier; Hail to the farmer") became very popular during the war of India & Pakistan1965.

• He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna, and a memorial "Vijay Ghat" was built for him in Delhi.

• Indira Gandhi Memorial Museum was the residence of the former Prime Minister of India.

• It was later converted into a museum.

• Shanti Van is the final resting place for Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Indian Prime Minister.

• Built at the place where his final rites took place, it is a lovely place, with lovely surroundings, greenery, a lake, and a beautiful place to remember him and his contribution to the country, both before and after Independence.

• Raj Ghat is a memorial dedicated to Mahatma Gandhi in Delhi, India.

• Originally it was the name of a historic ghat of Old Delhi (Shahjahanabad).

The correct answer is Magic Seeds.

Key Points

• Magic Seeds book was not written by Rabindranath Tagore.
• Magic Seeds is a 2004 novel by Nobel laureate V. S. Naipaul published by Knopf in the US and Picador in the UK.
• The novel is set in India and Europe.
• Magic seeds are the highest level tree patch seeds.
• At level 75 Farming, magic seeds may be planted in plant pots with a trowel and watered to become magic saplings.
• A fully grown magic tree can be cut to yield magic logs (and grant Woodcutting experience).

Additional Information

• Rabindranath Tagore was born in Calcutta on May 7, 1861.
• He was also referred to as ‘Gurudev’, ‘Kabiguru’, and ‘Biswakabi’.
• Regarded as the outstanding creative artist of modern India and hailed by W.B Yeats, Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali poet, novelist, and painter, who was highly influential in introducing Indian culture to the west.
• Rabindranath was an exceptional literary figure and a renowned polymath who singlehandedly reshaped the region's literature and music.
• In 1913 Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature for his work on Gitanjali.
• He was the first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize.
• In 1915 Tagore was awarded a knighthood by the British King George V.
• In 1919, following the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre, he renounced his Knighthood.
• Besides all his literary achievements he was also a philosopher and educationist who in 1921 established the Vishwa-Bharati University, a university that challenged conventional education.
• Rabindranath Tagore was a good friend of Mahatma Gandhi and is said to have given him the title of Mahatma.
• Tagore had always stressed that unity in diversity is the only possible way for India’s national integration.
• He not only gave the national anthems for two countries, India and Bangladesh but also inspired a Ceylonese student of his, to pen and compose the national anthem of Sri Lanka.

The correct answer is Jan 24, 1950.

Key Points

• On 24 Jan1950, The Indian Constituent Assembly adopted "Vande Mataram " as a national song.
• It was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress.
• Vande Mataram is a poem written in Sanskrit by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in the 1870s, which he included in his 1882 Bengali novel Anandamath.
• The poem was first sung by Rabindranath Tagore in the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress.
• The first two verses of the song were adopted as the National Song of India in October 1937 by the Congress Working Committee prior to the end of colonial rule in August 1947.

​Image of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee:

Additional Information

• On the occasion, the first President of India, Rajendra Prasad stated that the song should be honoured equally with the national anthem of India, "Jana Gana Mana".

• There is no time limit or circumstantial specification for the rendition of this song unlike the national anthem "Jana Gana Mana" which specifies 52 seconds.

• In 1934, M N Roy first proposed the idea of a constituent assembly. Under the Cabinet Mission plan of 1946, elections were held for the formation of the constituent assembly.

• Drafting Committee:

• The Drafting Committee had seven members:

• Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi, Mohammad Saadulla, B.L. Mitter, and D.P. Khaitan.

• At its first meeting on 30^th August 1947, the Drafting Committee elected B.R Ambedkar as its Chairman.

Given:

Price of 4 bikes = Price of 3 cars

Price of (7 bikes + 5 cars) = Rs. 4100000

Calculation:

Let the price of 4 bikes or 3 cars be x.

Price of 4 bikes = x

⇒ Price of 1 bike = (x/4)

Price of 3 cars = x

⇒ Price of 1 car = (x/3)

According to the question,

7 bikes + 5 cars = Rs. 4100000

⇒ 7 × (x/4) + 5 × (x/3) = 4100000

⇒ 41x/12 = 4100000

⇒ x = 1200000

The price of 4 bikes = 1200000

⇒ The price of 1 bike = 1200000/4

⇒ Rs. 300000

∴ The price of a bike is Rs. 300000.

Given:

Distance to be covered by car = 125 km

Time taken = 5 hours

Formula used:

Average Speed = Total distance / Total time 

Calculation:

According to the question,

Remaining distance = 125 - 90

⇒ 35 km

Average speed = (35 + 90)/5

⇒ 125/5

⇒ 25 km/h

∴ The average speed of the car is 25 km/hr.

Shortcut Trick Total distance traveled by car = 125 km

Total time taken by the car = 5 hours

Average speed of the car = 125/5 = 25 km/hr

Given:

Speed of first elevator = 15 floors per minute

Speed of second elevator = 20 floors per minute

Concept used:

When two objects are moving each other, then they meet at a point which will in between their starting point.

Calculation:

Let they meet after p minute.

According to the question,

2 + 15p = 107 - 20p

⇒ 35p = 105

⇒ p = 3

The number of floor on which x and y meet = 2 + 15p

⇒ 2 + 15 × 3

⇒ 47^th floor

∴ x and y both meet on the 47^th floor.

Given:

Area of square increased by 69%

Formula used:

a = √(Area of square)

a = side of the square

Calculation:

Let the original area be 100 square unit

Then, original length of side = √100 unit = 10 unit

According to the question, we have

New area = (100 + 69% of 100) square unit = 169 square unit

So new side = √169 unit = 13 unit

Then, percent change in side = {(13 - 10)/10} × 100 = 30

∴ The side is increased by 30%.

 

Traditional Method:

Given:

Area of square increased by 69%

Formula used:

Area of square = a² 

a = side of the square

Calculation:

Let the side of square be a

Then, according to the formula, we have

Area of square = a2 

Let the side is increased by x%

Then length of the new side = a + x% of a = a + (ax/100)

So, area = {a + (ax/100)}² = a² + {(ax)²/10000} + 2a²x/100

According to the question, we have

a2 + 69% of a2 = a2 + {(ax)2/10000} + 2a2x/100

⇒ 69/100 = (x²/10000) + (2x/100)

⇒ x² + 200x - 6900 = 0

⇒ x² - 30x + 230x - 6900 = 0

⇒ x(x - 30) + 230(x - 30) = 0

⇒ (x - 30)(x + 230) = 0

⇒ x = 30 or -230

Length cannot be negative, so -230 is not possible

∴ The side is increased by 30%.

Given:

The given number is 48

Concept used:

While converting any number to its binary form, we divide the given number successively by 2 and write down the reminder.

And at last from the bottom to top we write the reminder, which is the binary form of a given number

Calculation:

According to the concept, we have

48/2 = 24, reminder = 0

24/2 = 12, remainder is 0

12/2 = 6, remainder is 0

6/2 = 3, remainder is 0

3/2 = 1, remainder is 1

1/2 = 0, remainder is 1

Now, reminders from bottom to top = 110000

∴ 110000 is the binary form of the number 48.

Let the cost price be x

⇒ x × (120/100) × (150/100) = 9000

⇒ x = (9,000 × 10 × 10)/(12 × 15)

⇒ x = Rs. 5,000

∴ The cost price of the goods for X is Rs. 5,000.

 

 

CP for X = (9000/180) × 100

CP for X = Rs. 500

∴ The cost price of the goods for X is Rs. 5,000.

 

Traditional method:

Given:

X sells goods to Y at 20% profit 

Y sells goods to Z at 50% profit

Cost price for Z = Rs. 9000

Formula used:

SP = CP + {(P%/100) × CP}

where,

SP is Selling price, CP is Cost price and P% is Profit percentage

Calculations:

Let the cost price of the goods be Rs. a

According to the question, we have

The cost price for Y is 

⇒ a + {(20/100) × a}

⇒ a + 0.2a

⇒ 1.2a

The cost price for Z is 

⇒ 1.2a + {(50/100) × 1.2a}

⇒ 1.2a + 0.6a

⇒ 1.8a

The cost price for Z is Rs. 9,000

⇒ 1.8a = 9,000

⇒ a = 9000/1.8

⇒ a = Rs. 5000

∴ The cost price of the goods for X is Rs. 5,000.

Shortcut Trick

Let the M.P of the gadget be Rs.100

C.P = 100 × (100 - 25)% = Rs. 75

S.P = 100 × (100 - 10)% = Rs. 90

Profit% = [(90 - 75)/75] × 100%

Profit% = 20%

Alternate Method

Given:

A gadget was bought at a 25% discount on MRP

A gadget was sold at 10% discount on MRP

Formula used:

Profit% = {(SP - CP}/CP} × 100

where,

SP = Selling Price, CP = Cost Price

Calculations:

Let the marked price be y

According to the question, we have

When an article is sold at 10% discount on MRP

⇒ SP = {(100 - 10)/100} × y

⇒ SP = 0.9y

When article is bought at 25% discount on MRP

⇒ CP = {(100 - 25)/100} × y

⇒ CP = 0.75y

Profit Percentage is 

⇒ Profit% = {(SP - CP)/CP} × 100

⇒ Profit% = {(0.9y - 0.75y)/0.75y} × 100

⇒ Profit% = (0.15y/0.75y) × 100

⇒ Profit% = 100/5

⇒ Profit% = 20%

∴ The profit percentage is 20%.

Given:

X bought a machine for Rs 10000 and Y bought it for 5 percent less

X sold the machine for 12000 and Y sold it for 15 percent more

Calculations:

According to the question, we have

X bought a machine for Rs. 10,000

Y bought it 5% less

⇒ 5% of Rs. 10,000

⇒ Rs. 500

Now, X sold it for Rs. 12,000

Y sold it for 15% more,

⇒ 15% of Rs. 12,000

⇒ Rs. 1,800

Profit gained by Y is 

⇒ Profit = Rs. 1,800 + Rs. 500

⇒ Profit = Rs. 2,300

∴ The profit gained by Y is Rs. 2,300.

 

Alternate Method 

CP for X = Rs. 10000

CP for Y = 10000 - (5% of 10000) = Rs. 9500

SP for X = Rs. 12000

SP for Y =  Rs. 12000 + (15% of 12000) = Rs. 13800

Profit for X = 12000 - 10000 = Rs. 2000

Profit for Y = 13800 - 9500 = Rs. 4300

∴ Required Difference = 4300 - 2000 = Rs. 2300

Given:

Denominations = Re 1, Rs. 2 and Rs. 5

Ratio of coins = 5 ∶ 4 ∶ 6

Number of days in April = 30 days

Calculation:

Let the numbers of coins of each denomination be 5x, 4x and 6x

According to the question

5x + 4x + 6x = 30

⇒ 15x = 30

⇒ x = 2

Number of Re 1 coins = 5x = 5 × 2 = 10

Number of Rs. 2 coins = 4x = 4 × 2 = 8

Number of Rs. 5 coins = 6x = 6 × 2 = 12

Total amount = (10 × 1) + (8 × 2) + (12 × 5)

⇒ Rs. 86

∴ Total value of coins is Rs. 86.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all observation/Total number of observations

Calculation:

According to the question

First five positive number having perfect cube root are = 1, 8, 27, 64, and 125

Their respective cube roots = 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Average = (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5)/5

⇒ 15/5

⇒ 3

∴ The average is 3.

Given:

4/125, 7/100 and 2/25

Concept used:​

LCM of fractions = (LCM of numerator)/(HCF of denominator)

Calculation:

We have 4/125, 7/100 and 2/25

Now, we can write 4 as 1 × 2 × 2

Similarly, we can write 7 as 1 × 7

And we can write 2 as 1 × 2

 So,  LCM of (4, 7, 2) = 1 × 2 × 2 × 7 

⇒ LCM(4, 7, 2) = 28

We can write 125 as 1 × 5 × 5 × 5 

Similarly, we can write 100 as 1 × 5 × 5 × 4

And, we can write 25 as 1 × 5 × 5 

⇒  HCF(125, 100, 25) = 25.

⇒  LCM of 4/125, 7/100 and 2/25 = 28/25 = 1.12

∴ LCM of 4/125, 7/100 and 2/25 is 1.12

Shortcut Trick

Traditional Method:

Given:

M : N = 8 : 15

N : O = 5 : 9

O : P = 18 : 19

Calculation:

N : O = 5 : 9 

We multiply the above ratio by 2, we get

N : O = 10 : 18

And we have O : P = 18 :19

So, N : O : P = 10 : 18 : 19 

M : N = 8 : 15

We multiply this by 2

⇒ M : N = 16 : 30

And N : O : P = 10 : 18 : 19 

We multiply this by 3

⇒ N : O : P = 30 : 54 : 57

Now, we get

M : N : O : P = 16 : 30 : 54 : 57 

∴ The equivalent proportional of M : N : O : P is 16: 30 : 54 : 57

Shortcut Trick

88 = 8 × 11

For divisibility by 11: (7 + 7 + 4) − (2 + X + 4) = 0 or 11

⇒ 18 − (6 + X) = 12 − X

⇒ 12 − X = 11 ⇒ X = 1

Verification for 8: 144 ÷ 8 = 18 (Valid)

∴ The correct option is D.

Alternate Method

Given: Number 727X44 is divisible by 88.

Formula Used: A number is divisible by 88 if it is divisible by both 8 and 11.

7
2
7
X
4
4

Divisibility by 8 (X44)

Divisibility by 11: Alternate Sums

Calculations:

⇒ Divisibility by 8 check: The last three digits X44 must be divisible by 8.

⇒ If X = 1, 144 ÷ 8 = 18 (Divisible)

⇒ If X = 3, 344 ÷ 8 = 43 (Divisible)

⇒ Now, check Divisibility by 11 for the whole number 727X44.

⇒ Sum of digits at odd places (from right) = 4 + X + 2 = 6 + X

⇒ Sum of digits at even places (from right) = 4 + 7 + 7 = 18

⇒ Difference = 18 − (6 + X) = 12 − X

⇒ For the number to be divisible by 11, (12 − X) must be 0 or 11.

⇒ 12 − X = 11 ⇒ X = 1

⇒ 12 − X = 0 ⇒ X = 12 (Not possible as X is a single digit)

⇒ Final value of X = 1.

∴ The correct option is D.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 8

A number is divisible by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8 or are 000.

Divisibility by 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and even places is 0 or a multiple of 11.

Composite Divisibility Rule

To check divisibility by a composite number N, check divisibility by its co-prime factors a and b such that N = a × b.