DSSSB Junior Secretariat Assistant Official paper (Held on: 5 April 2022 Shift 1 ) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

'BDGK' is related to 'NPSW' as follows:

And, 

'RTWA' is related to 'EGJN'. 

Similarly,

'LNQU' is related to :

Hence, the correct answer is "DFIM".

Given Series: (Left) K 4 G ∞ S D % 7 R Z ∑ 3 5 N 2 @ 6 C & T (Right)

As per the question,

• The thirteenth element from the right end of the series

(Left) K 4 G ∞ S D % 7 R Z ∑ 3 5 N 2 @ 6 C & T (Right)

Thirteenth Element = 7

• The fifth element from the right of the thirteenth element from the right end of the series

(Left) K 4 G ∞ S D % 7 R Z ∑ 3 5 N 2 @ 6 C & T (Right)

Therefore, the fifth element from the right of thirteenth element from the right is '5'.

Hence, the correct answer is "5".

Concept used:

Given equation: 5 – 20 × 3 ÷ 6 + 10

According to the question if we interchange the numbers 6 and 3 then the new equation thus formed is:

New equation:  5 – 20 × 6 ÷ 3 + 10

Calculation:

⇒ 5 – 20 × 6 ÷ 3 + 10

⇒ 5 – 20 × 2 + 10

⇒ 5 – 40 + 10 

⇒15 – 40

⇒ -25 

Hence, the correct answer is "-25".

The pattern followed here is:

'ACCOUNT' is written as 'ZXXLFMG'.

It is clear from the arrangement that each letter is coded to its reverse letter.

Similarly,

'REVENUE' will be coded as ?

'REVENUE' will be coded as 'IVEVMFV'.

Hence, the correct answer is "IVEVMFV".

Given Series: (Left) D # M 5 $ 8 G ѱ F 8 % U 3 Ø W 6 ÷ E & 4√ 9 Ω 7 A (Right)

The pattern being followed here is:

That in each group the 'second element' is to the fifth of 'first element' and 'third element' is to the third of 'second element'.

Now, we will check the above condition one by one in each options:

(A) # G 8

⇒ (Left) D # M 5 $ 8 G ѱ F 8 % U 3 Ø W 6 ÷ E & 4√ 9 Ω 7 A (Right)

It follows the given condition.

(B) F Ø 6

⇒ (Left) D # M 5 $ 8 G ѱ F 8 % U 3 Ø W 6 ÷ E & 4√ 9 Ω 7 A (Right)

Here the 'second element' is to the fifth of 'first element'  but the 'third element' is not to the third of 'second element'.

Therefore, it doesn't follows the given condition. 

Thus, the correct pattern is:

⇒ (Left) D # M 5 $ 8 G ѱ F 8 % U 3 Ø W 6 ÷ E & 4√ 9 Ω 7 A (Right)

⇒  F Ø ÷ 

C) W 4 Ω

⇒ (Left) D # M 5 $ 8 G ѱ F 8 % U 3 Ø W 6 ÷ E & 4 √ 9 Ω 7 A (Right)

It follows the given condition.

(D) U ÷ 4

⇒  (Left) D # M 5 $ 8 G ѱ F 8 % U 3 Ø W 6 ÷ E & 4√ 9 Ω 7 A (Right)

It follows the given condition.

(E) ÷ 9 A

⇒  (Left) D # M 5 $ 8 G ѱ F 8 % U 3 Ø W 6 ÷ E & 4√ 9 Ω 7 A (Right)

It follows the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "B".$

Given:

In certain code language,

‘G is the mother of H’ is represented by ‘G @ H’

‘G is the husband of H’ is represented by ‘G $ H’

‘G is the sister of H’ is represented by ‘G # H’

‘G is the son of H’ is represented by ‘G * H’

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree

On checking each option one by one:

1) Q @ H # P * M

⇒ Here Q is the mother of H, H is sister of P and P is son of M.

So the family tree can be drawn as :

⇒ It doesn't follows the condition that ‘P is the daughter of Q’.

2. Q @ H # M * P

⇒ Here Q is the mother of H, H is sister of M and M is son of P.

So, the family tree can be drawn as :

⇒ It doesn't follows the condition that ‘P is the daughter of Q’.

3) P # M * H $ Q

⇒ Here, P is the sister of M, M is the son of H and H is the husband of Q

So, the family tree can be drawn as :

⇒ Clearly it follows the condition that ‘P is the daughter of Q’.

4. P # M * H @ Q

⇒ Here, P is sister of M, M is son of H and H is mother of Q.

So, the family tree can be drawn as :

⇒ It doesn't follows the condition that ‘P is the daughter of Q’.

Hence, the correct answer is "P # M * H $ Q".

According to given information :

1. The girl walked 5 km towards south from her camp.
2. Then she took a right turn and walked 7 km.
3. Then again she took a right turn and walked 1 km.
4. Finally, she took a left turn and walked 3 km to reach her desired place.

• The following diagram can be drawn as per the given information:

• From the above diagram it is clear that the girl is at 'South-west' direction from her camp.

Hence, the correct answer is "South-west".

Given equation: \((\frac{0.33}{0.333} × \frac{6.66}{0.11})^3\)

Concept used:

Calculation:

⇒ \(\rm \left(\frac{0.33}{0.333}× \frac{6.66}{0.11}\right)^3\)

⇒ (0.99 × 60.54)³

⇒ (52.93)³

⇒ (60)³ {∵ 53.93 ≈ 60}

⇒ 216000

Hence, the correct answer is "216000".

Given equation : 125.95 + (343 ÷ 6.95) ÷ 7 + 11.95 = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule as per the order given below:

Calculation:

⇒ 125.95 + (343 ÷ 6.95) ÷ 7 + 11.95 = ?

⇒ 125.95 + 49.35 ÷ 7 + 11.95 = ?

⇒ 125.95 + 7.05 + 11.95 = ? 

⇒ 144.95 ≈ 145 

Hence, the correct answer is "145".

Shortcut Trick 

Given equation : 125.95 + (343 ÷ 6.95) ÷ 7 + 11.95 = ?

Calculation:

Replacing the given values with approximate values,

⇒ 126 + (343 ÷ 7) ÷ 7 + 12 = ?

⇒ 126 + (343 ÷ 7) ÷ 7 + 12 

⇒ 126 + 49 ÷ 7 + 12 

⇒ 126 + 7 + 12  

⇒ 145  

Hence, the correct answer is "145".

The pattern followed here is:

'MUSIC' is written as "NVTJD".

It is clear from the arrangement that each letter is increased by +1.

Similarly,

Thus the code for 'WELFARE' will be "XFMGBSF".

Hence, the correct answer is "XFMGBSF".

Given statement: 

• K ≤ L > R ≥ S = P > E

According to the given information:

• K is less than or equal to L, L is greater than R, R is greater than or equal to S, S is equal to P,  and P is greater than E.

Conclusions:

I. L < S → False (L > R ≥ S; L > S; L is greater than S, hence, false)

II. L > S  → True (L > R ≥ S; L > S; L is greater than S, hence**, true**)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II is true".

The logic followed here is:

(Second number - 5)² = First number

196 : 19 

• ​​**(19 - 5)2** : 19 = 14² : 19 = 196 : 19

529 : 28

• ​(28 - 5)2 : 28 = 232 : 28 = 529 : 28

Similarly,

361 : ? 

• ​(24 - 5)2 : 24 = 192 : 24 = 361 : 24

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

Given statement: D ≥ W > R = S ≥ O > N

According to the given information:

D is greater than or equal to W, W  is greater than R, R is equal to S, S is greater than or equal to O, and O is greater than N.

Conclusions:

I. R = D → False (D ≥ W > R; D > R; R is smaller than D, so it is false)

II. R < D → True (D ≥ W > R; D > R; D is greater than R, so it is true)

​Hence, the correct answer is "Only II is true".

According to the given information:

From the above image, we can conclude that,

 

So, the code for ‘RDX TQI’ is "MON RAI".

Hence, the correct answer is "MON RAI".

According to the given information:

• G is married to I and is the father of H.
• Here G is the father of H.
• M is the daughter of H.
• H is the sister of J and is married to K. 
• Here H is married to K.
• N is the son of L, who is the wife of J.
• ​Here L is the wife of J.

​​This diagram can be deduced,

• As the diagram suggests, M and N are cousins.

​Hence, the correct answer is "Cousins".

According to the given information,

• B is longer than A.
• A is longer than E.
• B is longer than E.

​

• C is longer than D.

​

• E is longer than C.

​

Thus, C is the second shortest in all pencils. 

Hence, the correct answer is "C".

The logic followed here is:

• STABLE : ATSELB

Similarly, 

• FLOWER is related to ?

Hence, the correct answer is "OLFREW".

According to the given information:

• A car is going in the east direction.
• Then it turns left and then turns right.

​​So from the following, this diagram can be deduced:

 

• As we can see from the diagram car is currently going in the east direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "East*".*

The logic followed here is:

(Sum of digits of 1^st number) × 1^st number = 2^nd number

25 : 175

• ​25 → (2 + 5) = 7
• 25 × 7 = 175.

15 : 90

• ​15 → (1 + 5) = 6
• 15 × 6 = 90

​Similarly,

27 : ?

• ​27 → (2 + 7) = 9
• 27 × 9 = 243

​Hence, the correct answer is "243".

According to the given information:

 

Given Equation → P ÷ Q × R – M + T 

• P is the sister of Q,
• Q is the son of R,
• R is the husband of M, and
• M is the mother of T.

​So from the following, this diagram can be deduced;

As we can see from the diagram P is the sister of T.

Option (1) T is the brother of P - False (Since T's gender is not defined)

Option (2) P is the sister of T - True

Option (3) T is the brother of Q - False (Since T's gender is not defined)

Option (4) T is the brother of Q - False (Since T's gender is not defined)

As t's gender is not specific we cannot deduce the relation of T. T might be Sister or Brother but its not specific.

Hence, the correct answer is "P is the sister of T".

The logic followed here is: 

• The first number is added with the last number.
• Each letter is increased by +2.
• The last number is multiplied by 2 and then added with the first number.

Therefore, the arrangement is :

Thus, '81 HG 131' will complete the given series.

hence, the correct answer is "81 HG 131".

According to given Information :

Total students in the class are 73.

T got 35^th rank from the top and the rank of R is just below the rank of T which means :

• R got 36^th rank from the top.

Therefore,

The number of students who got lower rank than R ⇒ Total Students -Rank of R from the top 

⇒ 73 - 36

⇒ 37

Hence, the correct answer is "37".

The pattern followed here is :

All the symbols are moving in a clockwise direction and every time they move, the new symbol replaces the previous symbol alternatively at the third and first positions respectively.

Let us give numbering to the symbols from left to right in the first figure. Thus, at the first position we have a circle, at the second we have a triangle and in the third, we have an arrow.

Now, in the second figure each symbol moves in a clockwise direction, and a new symbol is replaced at the third position.

Similarly, in the third and fourth figure, each symbol moves in the clockwise direction and a new symbol is replaced at the first position and third position respectively.

According to which figure will replace the question mark (?) in the following figures series is:

      

Hence, the correct option is "option 3".

The logic followed here is:

UIU : FRF

From above arrangement it is clear that each letter is written to its reverse letter.

Similarly,

The relation of VLV will be :

Thus, 'VLV' can be written as 'EOE'.

Hence, the correct answer is "EOE".

According to the given information:

Given that :

Astha ranked 25^th from the top and 17 from the bottom in her class.

Total number of students in the class = Astha position from the top + Ashta position from the bottom - 1 (because Astha added two times)

Total number of students in the class ⇒ 25 + 17 - 1

⇒ 41

Hence, the correct answer is "41".

The logic followed here is :

All the figures consists of two concentric symbols in the middle of square and the same symbol is at the top right corner, except in figure 1.

Option 1) 

Here in this figure, it consists of two concentric symbols in the middle square of but the same symbol is at the top left corner instead of top right corner.

Thus, 'option 1' figure is different.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

Given : \(\frac{1}{3}, \frac{5}{6}, \frac{4}{3}, \frac{11}{6}, ? \)

Calculation : 

The logic follows here is that each fraction is being increased by +\(\frac{1}{2}\) respectively.

⇒ \(\frac{1}{3}, \frac{5}{6}, \frac{4}{3}, \frac{11}{6}, ?\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{5}{6}\)

⇒ \(\frac{5}{6}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{4}{3}\)

⇒ \(\frac{4}{3}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{11}{6}\)

⇒ \(\frac{11}{6}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{7}{3}\)

Hence, the correct answer is "\(\frac{7}{3}\)". 

Alternate Method  The logic follows here is : Addition of +\(\frac{1}{2}\) in each fraction respectively.

Therefore, the final arrangement is :

Hence, the correct answer is  "\(\frac{7}{3}\)".

According to the given information:

38 girls are sitting in a row facing north.

Taruna sits tenth from the right and Tripti sits fifteenth from the left. 

So we can draw the following diagram:

Now,

Total number of girls = Position of Tripti from left end + Position of Taruna from right end + Total number of girls between Tripti and Taruna

Total number of girls between Tripti and Taruna = Total girls - Position of Tripti from left end -Position of taruna from right end       

= 38 - 15 - 10 

= 13

Thus, the total numbers of girls between Taruna and Tripti are '13'.

Hence, the correct answer is "13".

1. OQRU

2) EFHG

3) ACDG

4) HJKN

Clearly, 'EFGH' does not follow the same logic that is being followed by the other options thus it is different from other letter-cluster.

Hence, the correct answer is "EFHG".

According to the given information:

Five girls Priya, Deepa, Reshma, Neha and Kusum are standing in a queue, all facing towards the North.

1. Priya is standing just in front of Neha who is standing just in front of Deepa.

• Here, Neha is standing just in front of Deepa, not Priya.
• So, there are two possibilities:
• Case 1 & Case 2:-

  

2. Kusum is standing at the South end.

• So, Case 1 will be eliminated as it contradicts the given statement.

3. Reshma is not standing at any of the ends​​. So, we can place Reshma between Deepa and Kusum.

• Thus, the final arrangement is:

Clearly, 'Deepa' is at the third position from the North end.

Hence, the correct answer is "Deepa".

The logic in the given series is :

It is clear from the above arrangement that, first and second letter is increased by +2 and numbers are increased by consecutive odd numbers starting from +3.

Thus, 'WY23' will complete the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "WY 23".

Statements:

All noses are ears.

Some noses are tongues.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows :

Conclusions:

I. All tongues are ears → False (Because some noses are tongues and all noses are ears, therefore some tongues which are nose are ears but all tongues are ears is possible but not definite)

II. Some ears are tongues → True (Because some noses are tongues and all noses are ears therefore, some ears are tongues is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

The pattern followed here is:

1. TVUY

2. PRQU 

3. CEDH

4) KMLO

Thus, 'option 4' does not follow the same logic that is being followed by the other options, so it is different from other letter-cluster.

Hence, the correct answer is "KMLO".

The logic followed here is :

The paper when unfolded will look like this :

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

The logic followed here is:

It is clear from the above arrangement that first and second letter is increased by +1 and numbers are decreased by -50.

Thus, 'MN 75' will complete the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "MN 75".

The logic followed here is:

Hence the correct answer is "107".

The logic followed here is :

1) Plus Symbol is moving vertically in downward direction alternatively.

2) Circle is moving horizontally to left direction alternatively.

In figure (1) the plus symbol is at first row and second column, and the circle is at third row and third column.

In figure (2) the plus symbol moves vertically in downward direction i.e. from first row and second column to second row and second column. And the circle remains at the same position i.e. at third row and third column.

In figure (3) the plus symbol remains at the same position i.e. at second row and second column. And the circle moves horizontally from right to left i.e. from  third row and third column to third row and second column.

Following the same pattern, in figure (4) the plus symbol moves vertically in downward direction i.e. from second row and second column to third row and second column. And the circle remains at the same position i.e. at third row and second column.

So the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below :

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2".

The logic followed here is :

The first figure contains " some lines" and second figure contains "the figure made by those lines".

In the first part of the question, the first figure contains three lines and in the second figure a triangle is made with those three lines.

• Figure A to B:

Similarly,

In the second part of the question, the first figure contains five lines.

So, in the second figure with those five lines, an irregular pentagon can be made.

• Figure C to D:

Thus, the final arrangement will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

According to the given information :

The shaded part represents the number of people who can speak French and Spanish.

Therefore the number of  people who can speak both French and Spanish = 11 + 8 = 19

Hence, the correct answer is "19".

According to the given information :

The shaded part represents the number of people who can speak exactly two languages.

Part A: The number of people who can speak both French and Spanish = 11.

Part B: The number of people who can speak both French and Hindi = 12.

Part C: The number of people who can speak both Hindi and Spanish = 18.

Therefore,

The number of people who can speak exactly two languages ⇒ Part A + Part B + Part C

= 11 + 18 + 12

= 41

Hence, the correct answer is "41".

The correct answer is Bhavina Patel (Para-Table Tennis).

Key Points

• Tokyo 2020 Paralympics silver medallist Bhavina Patel, has been conferred with the Arjuna award 2021 in recognition of her achievements in the field of sports (Para Table Tennis), by the President of India.
• She won the first Silver medal for India in Para Table Tennis in the Paralympics, held in Tokyo (Japan).
• Thus**, she was NOT awarded the Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2021.**

Additional Information

• Sumit Antil:  He won a gold medal in the men's javelin throw F64 category at the 2020 Summer Paralympics.
• Pramod Bhagat:  He won the gold medal in the men's singles badminton SL3 event at the Tokyo Paralympics.
• Avani Lekhara: She won a Gold Medal in 10m air rifle standing and a Bronze Medal in 50m rifle 3 positions at Tokyo 2020 Paralympics.

The correct answer is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Key Points

• The 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is the classic Mendelian ratio for a dihybrid cross in which the alleles of two different genes assort independently into gametes.
• A dihybrid cross describes a mating experiment between two organisms that are identically hybrid for two traits.
• A hybrid organism is heterozygous, which means that it carries two different alleles at a particular genetic position or locus.
• A dihybrid cross between two heterozygous fruit flies with brown bodies and red eyes (BbEe X BbEe) should yield offspring with nine possible genotypes (BBEE, BBEe, BBee, BbEE, BbEe, Bbee, bbEE, bbEe, and bbee) and four possible phenotypes (brown body with red eyes, brown body with brown eyes, black body with red eyes, and black body with brown eyes).
• In this case, the ratio of phenotypes observed among the offspring is 9 (brown body, red eyes) : 3 (brown body, brown eyes): 3 (black body, red eyes): 1 (black body, brown eyes).

 

Additional Information

• In 1865, Gregor Mendel performed dihybrid crosses on pea plants and discovered a fundamental law of genetics called the Law of Independent Assortment.
• Mendel began his experiments by first crossing two homozygous parental organisms that differed for two traits.
• An organism that is homozygous for a specific trait carries two identical alleles at a particular genetic locus.

The correct answer is Matang Muni.

Key Points

• Brihaddeshi is a Classical Sanskrit text, (dated to the 6^th to 8^th century CE), on Indian classical music, attributed to Matang Muni.
• It is the first text to speak directly of the raga and to distinguish marga ("classical") from desi ("folk") music.
• It also introduced Sargam (or solfa), the singing of the first syllable of the names of the musical notes, as an aid to learning and performance.
• In the book, Matang Muni specifically classified Indian music as North and South regional variants.

Additional Information

Kashyap Muni: 

• He is one of the Saptarishis, the seven ancient sages of the Rigveda.

Vasishta Muni: 

• He was born in Banaras, India, in 1888 and was an orthodox Hindu who spoke Hindi and English fluently.
• He was a Hindu missionary from India, who came into prominence in Fiji when he assumed the leadership of the strike in the western districts of Fiji in 1921.

Bharata Muni: 

• Bharata Muni was an ancient sage to who the musical treatise Natya Shastra is traditionally attributed.

The correct answer is Pleura

Key Points

Pleura:

• It is a thin layer of tissue that covers the lungs and lines the interior wall of the chest cavity.
• It protects and cushions the lungs.
• This tissue secretes a small amount of fluid that acts as a lubricant, allowing the lungs to move smoothly in the chest cavity while breathing.

Additional Information

• Alveoli: The alveoli are tiny air sacs within the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place.
• Pharynx: The hollow tube that is about 5 inches long and starts behind the nose and ends at the top of the trachea (windpipe) and oesophagus.
• Trachea: The trachea is a cartilaginous and membranous tube that extends from the cricoid cartilage to the carina, and it is approximately 11 cm long.

The correct answer is Suhas Yathiraj.

Key Points

• Suhas Yathiraj has scripted history by becoming the first Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer to win a medal at the Tokyo Paralympics.
• India's para-shuttler Suhas Yathiraj secured the silver medal in the final of the men's singles badminton SL4 event by losing to Lucas Mazur of France at the Tokyo Paralympics 2020.

Additional Information

• Gagan Narang:  He won the bronze medal in the Men's 10 m Air Rifle Event at the 2012 Summer Olympics in London.
• Vishal K Dev: Vishal Kumar Dev IAS (Odisha 1996) presently posted as the Principal Secretary to Government, Sports & Youth Services Deptt, Govt. of Odisha.
• R Vineel Krishna: R. Vineel Krishna, an IAS officer of 2005-batch, is currently working as the Special Secretary to Chief Minister, Odisha with an additional charge of Commissioner cum Secretary of Sports & Youth Services Department in the Government of Odisha

The correct answer is Gopuram.

Key Points

• Most of the important temples present in the South Indian states have a gopuram.
• Gopuram acts as a characteristic feature to represent the temples built in the Dravidian Style.
• The entrance gateway in the Dravidian style of temples is known as Gopuram.
• The finest examples of their architecture are the Chennakesava Temple in Belur, the Hoysaleswara temple in Halebid, and the Kesava Temple in Somanathapura.

Additional Information 

• Shikhara: Shikhara refers to the rising tower in the Hindu temple architecture of North India, and is also often used in Jain temples.
• Vedika: In ancient Indian times, a Vedika was a wooden fence that surrounded a sacred place (sacrificial place or tree shrine).
• Garbhagriha: A Garbhagriha is the sanctum sanctorum, the innermost sanctuary of Hindu and Jain temples where resides the murti (idol or icon) of the primary deity of the temple.

The correct answer is 'Sirius'.

Key Points

• ​Sirius, also known as Alpha Canis Majoris or Dog Star, is the brightest star in the night sky from Earth.
• Its apparent visual magnitude is -1.46, which is twice that of the second brightest star, the Canopus Star.
• It is actually a twin star in the Canis Major constellation.
• The Sirius is at a distance of about 8.6 light-years from Earth.

Additional Information

• Stars are made up of hot burning gases.
• They emit light of their own.
• A constellation is a group of stars forming a recognizable pattern.
• At present, 88 constellations are recognized.

 

 

Confusion Points

• Sun is the brightest star.
• The brightest star in the night sky is Sirius.

The correct answer is 'Dioptre'

Key Points

• Dioptre is the S.I. Unit of Power of a lens.
• A dioptre is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length measured in meters.
• The Power of a lens is the ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays depending on its focal length.
• The power of the lens is the ability of the lens to converge the rays of light falling on it. Definition: The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length in meters.
• When, f = 1 m, P = 1/f= 1/1 = 1 dioptre. 1 dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 meter.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is 'Kalaripayattu'.

Key Points

• ​Kalaripayattu is a martial dance of India originating from the southern state of Kerala. One of the oldest existing martial dances.
• Kalaripayattu is revered as the Mother of all Martial Arts.
• It is prevalent in Kerala and adjoining parts of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka as well as among the Malayali community of northeastern Sri Lanka and Malaysia.

Additional Information

• The Classical Dance Forms recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi and the Ministry of Culture are:
• Bharatanatyam from Tamilnadu
• Kathak from Uttar Pradesh
• Odissi from Orissa
• Kathakali from Kerala
• Sattriya from Assam
• Kuchipudi from Andhra Pradesh
• Manipuri from Manipur
• Mohiniyattam from Kerala

The correct answer is '23'.

Key Points

• There are 23 pairs of chromosomes present in a human body.
• It consists of 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes in a cell.
• Each pair consist of two chromosomes.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• A chromosome is a thread-like structure found in the nucleus.
• It becomes visible during cell division.
• Each chromosome is made up of two chromatids joined together at a point centromere.
• The chromosome was named by Waldeyer in 1888.
• It is capable of self-replication, which transmits coded information from one generation to another.

Confusion Points 

• There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in a human body which is equal to 46 chromosomes. Here, the number of pairs is asked in the question so Option 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is 'Pancheshwar Main Dam'.

Key Points

• Pancheshwar Main Dam is a multipurpose power project to be built on the Indo-Nepal border in the state of Uttarakhand.
• It is an embankment dam. Its generation capacity is proposed to be 6480 MW.
• This project is being built on the Mahakali river.
• This project is a collective project of India and Nepal, in which India's share will be high.
• This will be completed by 2026 and power generation will start from it by 2028.
• Pancheshwar Main Dam will be the largest dam being built in India, whose height is proposed to be 315 meters.

Additional Information

• Let's have a look at other options:

The correct answer is 7 June.

Key Points

• World Food Safety Day on 7 June and it aims to draw attention to and inspire action to:
• help prevent, detect and manage foodborne risks.
• contributing to food security, human health, economic prosperity, agriculture, market access, and tourism.
• encourage sustainable development.
• The WHO announced the theme for the World Food Safety Day 2022, "Safer Food, Better Health".

Additional Information

• World environment day is celebrated on June 5 every year.
• Objective: to raise awareness about environmental issues, the increasingly deteriorating conditions, climate change, etc.
• The theme for 2022 is 'Only One Earth'.

The correct answer is New Moon Day.

Key Points

• Diwali symbolizes the spiritual victory of light over darkness, good over evil, and knowledge over ignorance.
• The festival usually lasts five days and is celebrated during the Hindu lunisolar month Kartika (between mid-October and mid-November).
• Diwali is observed on Amavasya (or new moon) — the 15^th day — of the month of Kartika, every year.

Additional Information

• The Vedic people noticed that the moon suffered from regular waxing and waning, while the sun remained constant.
• Hence, for them, the sun symbolized permanence and immortality.
• The moon represented recurrence, repetition, and rebirth.
• New moon festivals in Hinduism - Diwali, Janmasthami, Shivratri.
• Full moon festivals in Hinduism - Holi, Raksha-Bandhan, Karwa Chauth.

The correct answer is: The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive less heat due to their contact with lesser extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.

Key Points

Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution of Oceans

• Unequal distribution of land and water:
• The temperature of ocean water varies in the northern and the southern hemispheres because of the dominance of land in the former and water in the latter.
• The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with a larger extent of land than their counter­parts in the southern hemisphere and thus the tempera­ture of surface water is comparatively higher in the former than in the latter.
• Prevailing wind:
• Wind direction largely af­fects the distribution of temperature of ocean water.
• The winds blowing from the land towards the oceans and seas (e.g., offshore winds) drive warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold bottom water from below.
• Thus, the replacement of warm water by cold water introduces longitudinal variation in temperature.
• Ocean currents:
• Surface temperatures of the oceans are controlled by warm and cold currents.
• Warm currents raise the temperature of the affected areas whereas cool currents lower the temperature.
• For example, the Gulf Stream raises the temperature near the eastern coasts of N. America and the western coasts of Europe.
• Latitudes:
• The temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the sun’s rays become more and more slanting and thus the amount of insolation decreases poleward accordingly.
• The temperature of surface water between 40°N and 40°S is lower than air temperature but it becomes higher than air temperature between 40^th latitude and the poles in both the hemispheres.

The correct answer is Cave Temples

Key Points

• Ellora is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, India.
• The invaluable ensemble of 34 caves at Ellora in the Charanandri hills are related to the three prominent religions - Buddhism, Brahmanism, and Jainism.
• The rock-cut activity was carried out in three phases from the 6^th century to the 12^th century.

Important Points

• The earliest caves (caves 1–12), excavated between the 5^th and 8^th centuries, reflect the Mahayana philosophy of Buddhism then prevalent in this region.
• The Brahmanical group of caves (caves 13–29), including the renowned Kailasa temple (cave 16), was excavated between the 7^th and 10^th centuries.
• The last phase, between the 9^th and 12^th centuries, saw the excavation of a group of caves (caves 30–34) reflecting Jaina's philosophy.

Additional Information

Rath Temple :

• Pancha Rathas also referred to as Pandava Rathas are the most excellent architectural edifices of the nine monolithic temples of Mahabalipuram.
• They were built during the reign of Narasimhavaram I of the Pallava dynasty.
• The temples are carved in the shape of chariots.

Viman Temple :

• Vimana is the structure over the garbhagriha or inner sanctum in the Hindu temples of South India and Odisha in East India.
• The Brihadeeswarar Temple Vimanam is the tallest Vimanam in India at the Thanjavur state of Tamil Nadu.

Temple with dome :

• Dome, in architecture, is a hemispherical structure evolved from the arch, usually forming a ceiling or roof.
• Above the Vastu-Purusha-mandala is a superstructure with a dome called Shikhara in north India, and Vimana in south India, that stretches towards the sky.

The correct answer is Republic Day

Key Points

• Since 1950, every year January 26 is celebrated as Republic Day in India.
• It was on this day in 1950 that the Indian Constitution came into existence.
• 26 January was chosen as the date for this occasion because this was the day in 1930 when the Indian National Congress had demanded Complete Independence or Purna Swaraj, as opposed to the Dominion Status.

Additional InformationHuman Rights Day :

• Human Rights Day is observed by the international community every year on 10 December.
• It commemorates the day in 1948 the United Nations General Assembly adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
• This day marks the importance of rights everybody is entitled for irrespective of caste, religion, sex and language.

Constitution Day :

• Constitution Day is also known as 'Samvidhan Divas', is celebrated in our country on 26^th November every year.
• It is celebrated to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
• On 26^th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26^th January 1950.

Independence Day:

• Independence Day is celebrated annually on 15 August.
• It was on 15^th August 1947 that India was declared independent from British colonialism, and the reins of control were handed over to the leaders of the Country.

The correct answer is Rajasthan

Key Points

• The Government of Rajasthan has launched the Rajasthan Government Health Scheme in order to provide medical facilities to the honourable MLA, ex-MLA, and its State Government employees and pensioners.
• All the hospitals that are run by the government, approved hospitals, and public-private partnership hospitals can provide medical facilities under this scheme.
• The electronic medical record of the beneficiary will be stored in the RGHS card holder’s e-wallet.

Additional Information

• Central Government Health Scheme(CGHS) was introduced in 1954 with a view to providing comprehensive & holistic medical facilities to the Central Govt employees, other entitled categories and their family members.
• Cashless treatment at empanelled hospitals and diagnostic centres is provided under the scheme.
• A revamped Central Government Health Scheme’ CGHS website and “MyCGHS” mobile application are launched recently.

The correct answer is To reduce friction

Key Points

• Friction is the force that opposes the motion of a solid object over another.
• Frictional force refers to the force generated by two surfaces that contact and slide against each other.
• The powder is sprinkled on a carrom board to reduce friction between the striker/carom coins and the carrom board. The powder smoothens the surface of the board and thus the striker and coins can move on it easily.
• There are mainly four types of friction: static friction, sliding friction, rolling friction, and fluid friction.

Additional Information

Static friction :

• Static friction is defined as the frictional force that acts between the surfaces when they are at rest with respect to each other.
• Following are examples of static friction:
• Skiing against the snow
• Creating heat by rubbing both hands together
• Table lamp resting on the table

Sliding friction :

• Sliding friction is defined as the resistance that is created between any two objects when they are sliding against each other.
• Following are examples of sliding friction:
• Sliding of the block across the floor
• Two cards sliding against each other in a deck.

Rolling friction :

• Rolling friction is defined as the force which resists the motion of a ball or wheel and is the weakest types of friction.
• Following are examples of rolling friction:
• Rolling of the log on the ground
• Wheels of the moving vehicles

The correct answer is - 25 CM

Key Points

Power of Lens:

• The inverse of the focal length is known as the power of the lens.
• It shows the bending strength of the light ray of the lens.
• The unit of power of a lens is Dioptre when the focal length of the lens is taken in meter (m).
• P= 1/f  where P is the power of the lens and f is the focal length of the lens**.**

Concave lens:

• It is a diverging lens that diverges the parallel beam of light.
• It can also gather light from all directions and project it as a parallel beam.
• The focal length of the concave lens is negative.
• It has a virtual focus from the diverging rays of light that seem to converge.

Convex lens:

• The lens whose refracting surface is upside is called a convex lens.
• The convex lens is also called a converging lens.
• The focal length of a convex lens is positive.

CALCULATION:

• Given that P = -4D
• Focal length (f) = 1/P = 1/(-4) = -1/4 = -0.25 m = -25 cm
• The focal length of a concave lens is negative.

The correct answer is Budgetary deficits

Key Points

• A budgetary deficit is a difference between all receipts and expenses in both revenue and capital account of the government.
• A budget deficit occurs when a government spends more in a given year than it collects in revenues, such as taxes.
• The budget deficit increases the level of public sector debt. Large deficits will cause national debt as a % of GDP to increase.

Additional Information

Private Expenditure :

• Private Expenditure is carried out by individuals and businesses that are not government-owned.
• The expenditure is based on the choice of an individual.

Government expenditure :

• Public expenditure is expenditure made by the State, social security administrations, local authorities and the administrations and bodies attached to them.
• Government spending or government expenditure can be divided into three primary groups, government consumption, transfer payments, and interest payments.
• Government consumption is government purchases of goods and services.

Budgetary surplus :

• A budget surplus is when a body spends less money during an accounting period than it takes in through revenue.

The correct answer is '1920'.

Key Points

Gandhi outlined the main features of the non-cooperation policy in 1920. They are as follows:

• The movement could strengthen Hindu-Muslim unity and bring Muslim masses into the national movement.
• It was a platform from which mass and united non-cooperation could be declared against the government.
• The program included a boycott of govt schools, colleges, law courts, foreign cloth, and Legislative Councils. It was a boycott of everything foreign.
• It also included the surrender of govt honours and titles.
• Use of khadi and practice of hand-spinning were encouraged - this is a feature reminiscent of self-reliance advocated by the Swadeshi Movement post-Bengal Partition.
• The Movement was supposed to be firmly based on non-violence, but people failed to learn or fully understand the method of non-violence.
• Gandhi premised his idea of movement on the idea that a violent movement could be easily suppressed by the colonial regime who could use the incidents of violence as an excuse to use their armed might against people.
• The Chauri Chaura incident of 1922 February forced Gandhi to withdraw from the movement.

Thus the correct answer is 1920.

Additional Information

• Non-cooperation Policy
• In view of the increasing atrocities of the British, the non-cooperation movement was launched across the country on the orders of Mahatma Gandhi.
• The Non-Cooperation Movement was a political campaign launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 4 September 1920, in which Indians had to withdraw their cooperation from the British government with the aim of achieving self-government and complete independence (Purna Swaraj).
• This came as a result of the Indian National Congress (INC) withdrawing its support for British reforms following the Rowlatt Act of 18 March 1919 – which suspended the rights of political prisoners on trial for sedition.
• This movement was one of Gandhi's first organized acts of large-scale satyagraha (civil disobedience).
• Protesters refused to buy British goods, used local handicrafts, and staged a sit-in at liquor stores, by spinning Khadi, buying only Indian-made goods, and boycotting British goods.
• Gandhi's non-cooperation movement called for the resumption of the Khilafat (Khilafat movement) in Turkey and the abolition of untouchability.
• This resulted in public meetings and strikes, which led to the first arrests of both Nehru and his father, Motilal Nehru, on 6 December 1921.
• Let's have a look at other options:

The correct answer is '16'.

Key Points Census of 2021

• It will be the 16^th Census of India and the 8^th Census of Independent India.
• The theme of Census 2021 is “Jan Bhagidari se Jan Kalyan”.
• Census 2021 will be completely paperless and the process of collection and classification of population data will be completely digital.
• A mobile app issued by the government will be used in the process of the census.
• Information can be given in 16 languages ​​through this app, this information will be verified by senior officials.
• The census work will be completed in two phases across the country.

Thus the correct answer is 16.

Additional Information  Census of India

• Census is conducted every 10 years in India.
• The first nationwide census was conducted in India in the year 1872 under British rule during the tenure of Lord Mayo.
• The Census of India is the largest project of its kind in the world.
• For the first time after independence, the caste census was conducted in the year 2011.

The correct answer is 'HD Deve Gowda'.

Key PointsHD Deve Gowda

• Hardanahalli Doddegowda Deve Gowda (born 18 May 1933) is the twelfth Prime Minister of India.
• His tenure lasted from 1996 to 1997.
• Prior to this, he was also the Chief Minister of Karnataka State from 1994 to 1996.
• He has never been the President of India.

Thus the correct answer is HD Deve Gowda.

Additional Information

• President of India
• The President of India is the executive head of the Republic of India.
• According to Article 53, the executive power of the Union is vested in him.
• He is also the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces.
• He is the one who imposes and removes all types of emergencies and declares war/peace.
• He is the first citizen of the country.
• The President of India must be an Indian citizen.
• The President of India resides in Rashtrapati Bhavan in New Delhi.
• There is no limit to the maximum number of times the President can hold office.
• So far, only the first President Rajendra Prasad has completed his term in this post twice.
• Pratibha Patil is the 12^th President of India and the first woman to hold this position.
• Draupadi Murmu is currently the 15^th President of India.
• Let's have a look at other options:

The correct answer is 'a member of the Eastern Chaulukya dynasty and a Chola relative'.

Key PointsKulottunga of Vengi 

• Kulottunga of Vengi (1070–1122 AD) was the son of the Chalukyanresha Rajaraja Narendra (1019–1061 AD) of Vengi and was named Rajendra (II). Thus, he was a member of the Eastern Chalukya Dynasty.
• He was married to the Chola dynasty princess Madhurantaka who was the niece of Veerarajendra. Thus, he was a Chola relative.
• He was the legitimate heir of the Vengi kingdom, but due to family animosity, Veerarajendra helped Vijayaditya (VI), the uncle of Rajendra (II), to obtain the kingdom on the condition of accepting subjugation.
• Thus, he could not get its ancestral kingdom of Vengi.

Thus, the correct answer is a member of the Eastern Chaulukya dynasty and a Chola relative.

The correct answer is 'By Visa'.

Key Points Indian citizenship can be acquired in four ways according to the Citizenship Act, 1955 —

• Birth
• Descent
• Registration
• Naturalization

By Visa, one cannot acquire Indian Citizenship.

Thus, the correct answer is By Visa.

Additional Information

• Citizenship is the position or status granted to an individual of being a member/citizen of a particular country.
• In India, certain entitlements and rights of an individual are dependent on their citizenship status.
• Also, the Citizenship Act does not provide for dual citizenship or dual nationality in India.
• The feature of 'Single Citizenship' of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from Britain Constitution.

The correct answer is 'It lies to the south of the Godavari delta'.

Key PointsChilika Lake

• Chilika is the largest lake in Odisha.
• Odisha lies in the Eastern Coastal Region.
• It is the largest saltwater lake in India.​

Hence, options 1), 2) and 3) are TRUE about Chilika Lake. But option 4) is NOT True.

Thus, the correct answer is It lies to the south of the Godavari delta

Confusion Points 

A lake is a water body that is surrounded by land, but Chilika is Lagoon. It is such a water body, which is surrounded by land on three sides and is connected to the sea on one side.

The correct answer is 'Delhi'.

Key Points According to Census 2011,

• Delhi is the most urbanised Union Territory of India, followed by the Tamil Nadu state.
• For the first time since Independence, India's urban population has registered a higher increase than the numbers added in rural areas.
• The country's urban population grew by 90.99 million during 2001-2011.

Thus, the correct answer is Delhi.

Additional InformationLet's have a look at other options: 

• Chandigarh -  Chandigarh slums have the lowest sex ratio in the country according to Census 2011.
• Lakshadweep - It is the least populated union territory of India according to Census 2011.
• Maharashtra - It is the second most highly populated state in India according to Census 2011.

The correct answer is 'migration'.

Key Points Indian citizenship can be acquired in four ways according to the Citizenship Act, 1955 —

• Birth
• Descent
• Registration
• Naturalization

By Migration, one cannot acquire Indian Citizenship.

Thus, the correct answer is migration.

Additional Information

• Citizenship is the position or status granted to an individual of being a member/citizen of a particular country.
• In India, certain entitlements and rights of an individual are dependent on their citizenship status.
• Also, the Citizenship Act does not provide for dual citizenship or dual nationality in India.
• The feature of 'Single Citizenship' of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from Britain's Constitution.

The correct answer is 'Parliament'.

Key PointsArticle 241 in the Indian Constituition is about the provisions related to High Courts for Union territories. It states that -

• Parliament may by law constitute a High Court for a Union territory or declare any court in any such territory to be a High Court for all or any of the purposes of this Constitution.
• The provisions of Chapter V of Part VI shall apply in relation to every High Court referred to in clause (1) as they apply in relation to a High Court referred to in Article 214 subject to such modifications or exceptions as Parliament may by law provide.
• Subject to the provisions of this Constitution and to the provisions of any law of the appropriate Legislature made by virtue of powers conferred on that Legislature by or under this Constitution, every High Court exercising jurisdiction immediately before the commencement of the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956, in relation to any Union territory shall continue to exercise such jurisdiction in relation to that territory after such commencement.
• Nothing in this article derogates from the power of parliament to extend or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court for a State to, or from, any Union territory or part thereof.

Thus, the correct answer is Parliament.

The correct answer is 'Muhammad Iqbal'.

Key PointsRahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha

• Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha was founded in 1851 AD in Bombay.
• It was a Parsi reform movement.
• The founder members were Narouji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, RK Cama, and S. S. Bengalee.
• Its aim was to revive the social condition of the Parsis and to re-purify the Parsi religion.

Thus, the correct answer is Muhammad Iqbal

Additional InformationMuhammad Iqbal

• Muhammad Iqbal Masoudi (9 November 1877 – 21 April 1938) was a famous poet, leader, and philosopher of undivided India.
• His poetry in Urdu and Persian is counted among the best poetry of modern times.
• The famous patriotic album Tarana-e-Hind (Saare Jahan Se Accha) is written by him.

The correct answer is '1.676 metres'.

Key PointsBroad Gauge

• The distance between rails in broad gauge is 1.676 m (5 ft 6 in).
• It would not be wrong to say that a standard gauge or any gauge wider than 1.435 m (4 ft 8½ in) is called a broad gauge.
• The first railway line built in India was a broad gauge line from Bori Bunder (now Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus) to Thane in 1853.
• Broad gauge railways are also used at ports for cranes etc.
• This gives better stability and at the same time, they are much better than thinner gauges.

Thus, the correct answer is 1.676 metres.

Additional Information

• The gauge of a railway track:
• The apparent minimum vertical distance between the inner sides of two tracks is called a railway gauge.
• That is, the distance between two tracks on a railway route is called a railway gauge.
• About sixty percent of the world's railways use a standard gauge.
• There are 4 types of railway gauges used in India - Broad gauge, meter gauge, narrow gauge, and standard gauge.

The correct answer is '2006'.

Key PointsPradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana

• Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was launched with the primary objective of correcting the imbalances in the availability of affordable/reliable tertiary level healthcare in the country in general and to augment facilities for quality medical education in the under-served states.
• The scheme was announced in 2003 and was first launched in March 2006.

Thus, the correct answer is 2006.

Additional Information

• This scheme comes under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• Its two components are -
• Establishment of institutes like AIIMS.
• Upgradation of government medical colleges in different states. The cost of upgradation of each medical college is borne by both the Center and the State.
• So far, 22 new regional AIIMS (All India Institute of Medical Sciences) have been approved under the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana.

The correct answer is 'Classical macroeconomics'.

Key PointsAssumptions of Classical Macroeconomics

• Full Employment
• There will always be full employment (or, near full employment) in the economy – full employment not only of labour but also of other major resources such as land, capital, and other factors of production.
• Perfect Wage - Price Flexibility
• Classical economists postulated that in the capitalist system, wages as also prices (including interest rates) are flexible and not rigid.
• Absence of Money Illusion
• According to this postulate, there is a complete absence of money illusion in the economy.

Thus, the correct answer is Classical macroeconomics.

Additional InformationClassical macroeconomics

• Classical economics is a tradition of economic thought that developed mainly in England from the late 18^th century to the middle of the 19^th century.
• Its main thinkers were Adam Smith, David Ricardo, Jean-Baptiste Say, Thomas Robert Malthus, and John Stuart Mill.
• The economic theory of market economy given by these economists is mainly self-regulating systems which are governed by the natural laws of production and exchange. Adam Smith called this the 'invisible hand'.
• The Book Wealth of Nations by Adam Smith in 1776 is often considered the starting point of classical economics.
• The essence of what Smith said in this book was that the prosperity of any country is not determined by how much gold is deposited in that country, but by how high the national income of that country is.

The correct answer is 'Article 21 A'.

Key PointsThe Constitution of India (86^th Amendment) Act, 2002

• It is related to the new Article 21A added after Article 21.
• The new Article 21A deals with the right to education - "The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years. This shall be subject to the law prescribed by the State concerned."
• The following article has been added to Article 45 of the Constitution in which provision has been made for the early care and education of children below the age of six years.
• Article 45 "The State shall endeavour to provide for the early care and education of all children until they attain the age of six years."
• By amending Article 51A of the Constitution, after (J), a new article (K) has been added, "There is a provision to provide opportunities to enable a parent or guardian of a child of the age of six to 14 years to provide education to his child."

Thus, the correct answer is Article 21 A.

Additional InformationLet's have a look at other options: 

The correct answer is 'a southward'.

Key PointsIndia 

• India (official name: Republic of India) is the largest country in the Indian subcontinent, located in South Asia.
• India is the seventh largest country in the world geographically, while in terms of population it is the second largest country after China.
• India is bordered by Pakistan to the west, China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan to the northeast, and Bangladesh and Myanmar to the east.
• In the Indian Ocean, it shares a maritime border with the Maldives in the southwest, Sri Lanka in the south and Indonesia in the southeast.
• To its north lies the Himalayas Mountains and to the south lies the Indian Ocean.
• In the south-east is the Bay of Bengal and in the west is the Arabian Sea.

Hence, India is a southward extension of the Asian continent. Thus, the correct answer is a southward

Additional InformationAsia is Earth's largest and most populous continent, located primarily in the Eastern and Northern Hemispheres. 

Let's have a look at other options: 

The correct answer is 'Marginal propensity to consume'.

Key Points

• Marginal propensity to consume is the rate of increase in ex ante consumption due to a unit increment in income.
• The term and its formula are based on observations made by famed British economist John Maynard Keynes in the 1930s during the Great Depression.
• He noted that individuals have the propensity to consume more when their income increases. MPC is useful because it relates to how a government stimulus might affect the economy.
• The formula used to calculate marginal propensity to consume is the change in consumption divided by the change in income.
• MPC = ∆C / ∆Y.

Thus, the correct answer is Marginal propensity to consume

Additional InformationLet's have a look at other options: 

• Consumption Function 
• The consumption function, or Keynesian consumption function, is an economic formula that represents the functional relationship between total consumption and gross national income.
• Aggregate income
• Aggregate income is the total of all incomes in an economy without adjustments for inflation, taxation, or types of double counting.
• Average propensity to consume
• ​Average propensity to consume (APC) measures the percentage of income that is spent rather than saved.

The correct answer is 'Vindhyasakti'.

Key PointsVakataka dynasty

• This dynasty was founded in 255 AD by Vindhya Shakti.
• The most famous ruler of this dynasty was King Pravarasena I.
• During his reign, he assumed the title of emperor and organized four Ashwamedha Yagyas.
• The Vakatakas were in favour of the Brahmin religion. They were Brahmin and hence gave a lot of land grants to the Brahmins.
• Culturally, the Vakataka state acted as an important bridge in the development of the ideals of Brahmin religion and social institutions to the south.

Thus, the correct answer is Vindhyasakti

The correct answer is the Percentage of people aged 15 years and above who can both read and write and understand statements of everyday life.

Key Points

• The adult literacy rate in the census of India means the Percentage of people aged 15 years and above who can both read and write and understand statements of everyday life.
• According to the census 2011, Kerala has the highest literacy rate while Bihar has the lowest literacy rate.
• Thus, the correct answer is the Percentage of people aged 15 years and above who can both read and write and understand statements of everyday life.

The correct answer is 'It increases the fertility of soil'.

Key Points

Crop Rotation:

• By growing the same type of crop continuously in the same land, the fertility of the land gradually starts getting destroyed and the production also starts decreasing.
• For this, it is necessary to sow crops alternately that it is better than to grow a crop continuously in the same field.
• The process of sowing different crops in a field every year is called crop rotation.
• Crop rotation increases the fertility of the soil.
• Crop rotation is an important part of the cropping system.

Thus, the correct answer is It increases the fertility of soil

Additional Information

• Generally, crop rotation is very important for the following reasons –

(A) Continuous production of one type of crop in a field may result in deficiency of any one specific nutrient or mineral which affects the fertilizer capacity of the land.

(B) If the same type of crop is grown continuously, soil-borne plant diseases may arise which affect the fertilizer capacity of the soil.

(C) Producing the same type of crop continuously affects the production efficiency.

• Following are the benefits of adopting crop rotation:

(A) There is no deficiency of nutrients in the soil when different crops are produced by changing them under the process of crop rotation because the requirements of all plants are different.

(B) Any soil-borne plant disease arising after adopting the crop rotation process gets destroyed automatically in the next season due to the absence of the host.

The correct answer is 'Major Rock Edict 8'.

Key PointsMajor Rock Edict 8:

• It describes the first Dhamma Yatra by Ashoka.
• This Edict is remarkable in that it describes the visit of the king to Sambodhi another name for Bodh Gaya.
• It is thought that Ashoka built Bodh Gaya the Diamond Throne, in order to mark the place where the Buddha reached enlightenment.
• According to tradition, Ashoka was profoundly grieved when he discovered that the sacred pipal tree was not properly being taken care of and dying out due to the neglect of Queen Tisyaraksita. As a consequence, Ashoka endeavoured to take care of the Bodhi Tree and built a temple around it. This temple became the center of Bodh Gaya.
• Numerous other sculptures at Sanchi show scenes of devotion towards the Bodhi Tree, and the relief above through the Bodhi Tree inside its temple at Bodh Gaya.

Thus, the correct answer is Major Rock Edict 8

Additional InformationMajor Rock Edicts:

• The Major Rock Edicts of Indian Emperor Ashoka refer to 14 separate major Edicts of Ashoka which are significantly detailed and represent some of the earliest dated rock inscriptions of any Indian monarch.
• These edicts are preceded chronologically by the Minor Rock Edicts.

Now, Let's have a look at other options:

Given:

The radius of the circular object is 21 cm.

Time is 2 mins.

Total time is 80 secs.

Formula used:

Speed = \(\dfrac{Distance }{Time}\)

Circumference of the circle = 2πr

Concept used:

1 min = 60 secs

2 mins = 2 × 60 = 120 secs

Let 'r' be the radius.

Calculation:

Time taken by circular object to complete one round = 2 mins = 120 secs.

Distance covered in one round = circumference of a circle

2πr = 2 × \(\dfrac{22}{7}\) × 21 = 132 m

Time taken by circular object to complete one round = 120 secs.

Number of rounds completed in 80 secs = \(\dfrac{80}{120}\) = \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)

Distance covered = 2πr × \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)

2 × \(\dfrac{22}{7}\) × 21 × \(\frac{2}{3}\) = 88 m.

∴ The answer is 88 m.

Given:

\(\frac{A}{B}\) = 7

Calculations:

\(\frac{A}{B}\) = 7

A = 7B

Putting this above value in the below equation,

\(\frac{A + B}{A - B}\) = \(\frac{7B + B}{7B - B}\) = \(\frac{8B}{6B}\) = \(\frac{4}{3}\)

∴ The answer is \(\frac{4}{3}\)

Given:

In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 4.6.

Formula used:

Average = \(\dfrac{Sum \ of \ observation}{Number \ of \ observation}\)

Calculation:

For first 10 overs, run rate = 4.6

Runs scored = 4.6 × 10 = 46

Total runs to be scored = 282

Runs Left to be scored in 40 overs = \(\dfrac{282 - 46}{40}\)

\(\dfrac{236}{40}\) = 5.9

∴ The answer is 5.9

Given:

Five cubes each of 4 cm edge.

Formula used:

The total surface are of cuboid = 2(lb + bh + lh) [where, l is length, b is breadth, h is height]

Concept used:

When 5 cubes are joined end to end it will form a cuboid.

Calculation:

The length of the cuboid = 5 × 4 = 20 cm.

The height and breadth of the cuboid = 4 cm each.

Total surface area of the cuboid = 2 × (20 × 4 + 4 × 4 + 20 × 4)

2 × (80 + 16 + 80)

2 × 176 = 352 cm².

∴ The answer is 352 cm².

Given:

Mahathi went to a shop and bought a sofa.

Got a discount = 20%.

Calculations:

Let the Marked price of the Sofa = x

We know, she got 20% discount.

Had she gotten 25% discount she would have saved Rs. 1000.

This means, 5% extra discount means Rs. 1000. (as, 25% - 20% = 5%)

5% of x = Rs. 1000

\(\dfrac{5}{100}\) of x = 1000

x = Rs. \(\dfrac{1000 × 100}{5}\) = Rs. 20,000

Marked Price = Rs. 20000

So she paid = 80% of 20000 = Rs. 16000

∴ The answer is Rs. 16,000.

Given:

Radius of the cylinder is 4 cm and height of the cylinder is 10 cm.

Formula used:

Total surface area of the cylinder = 2πr(r + h) [where, r is the radius and h is the height]

Calculations:

Total surface area = 2 × π × 4 × (4 + 10)

2 × \(\dfrac{22}{7}\) × 4 × 14 = 352 cm².

∴ The answer is 352 cm².

Given:

Manisha offers her customers a discount of 15% on her beauty products and she still makes a profit of 25%.

Formula used:

Selling price(SP) = Marked price(MP) - Discount(D)% On MP

Profit% = \(\dfrac{SP - CP}{CP}\) × 100

Calculations:

MP = Rs. 700

Discount = 15%

SP = 700 - 700 × 15% = 700 - 700 × \(\dfrac{15}{100}\) = 700 - 105 = 595.

Profit = 25%

CP + 25% CP = 595

CP + \(\dfrac{25 \ CP}{100}\) = 595

\(\dfrac{100 \ CP + 25 \ CP}{100}\) = 595

125 CP = 595 × 100

CP = \(\dfrac{595 × 100}{125}\) = 476.

∴ The answer is Rs. 476.

Given:

a^b = 144

Calculations:

a^b = 144

144 = 12² so, a = 12 and b = 2

(a – 1)^b+1

Putting the above values in the below equation,

(12 -1)²⁺¹ = (12 - 1)³ = 11³ = 1331

∴ The answer is 1331.

Given:

2040.0

Calculations:

2040.0 contains 5 sigificant figures and 1 decimals.

2040.0 rounded to 4 sigificant figures is 2040.

To count the number of sigificant figures in 2040.0, count all 5 digits since it has no insignificant digits (all digits are significant).

∴ The answer is 5.

Given:

\(\sqrt[3]{{{2^n}}}\) = 8

Calculations:

\(\sqrt[3]{{{2^n}}}\) = 8

 \((2^n)^{\frac{1}{3}} = 8\)

\((2)^{\frac{n}{3}} = 2^3\)

Comparing both side

n/3 = 3

n = 9

∴ The answer is 9.

Given: 

 

The greatest number that will divide 43, 91, 183 leaves same remainder in each case.

Concept used:

HCF is the highest common factor of two or more numbers

Here, we need to find differences between the given numbers. If two numbers give the same remainder when divided by some other number, then their difference must give a remainder of zero when divided by that number.

Calculations:

Our numbers here are

91 - 43 = 48,

183 - 91 = 92,

183 - 43 = 140.

So we have the set of numbers {48,92,140} and we want to know the biggest number that divides all these numbers.

48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3

92 = 2 × 2 × 23

140 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 7

The greatest common divisor of {48,92,140} is 4.

∴ The answer is 4.

Alternate Method

We can use hit and trial method in this case.

If we take first option and divide 43, 91 and 183 by 4, we get 3 as the same remainder.

∴ The number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case is 4.