DSSSB Junior Secretariat Assistant Official paper (Held on: 4 April 2022 Shift 2 ) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is : 

The given statement is: B ≥ T > R ≤ S > V ≥ N

Conclusions:

I. R < V is not True (As, R ≤ S > V gives; ⇒ no clear relation determined between R and V, So R < V false)

II. S > N is Ture (As, S > V ≥ N gives; ⇒ so, S > N true)

Hence the correct answer is "Only II is true".

Drawing the diagram according to the given information;

• Amar started walking towards the south.
• He turned to the right, then again to the right, and finally to the left .

​

• Now, he is walking in the West direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "West".**

The logic followed here is:

• GIKM is related to FHJL.

And,

• SUWY is related to RTVX.

Similarly, 

• BDFH related to:

Hence, **"ACEG" is the correct answer .

According to the BODMAS rule:

Decoding the information ;

Given ,

21 – M ÷ ? = 30

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule;

⇒ 21 ÷ 7 + ? = 30

⇒ 3 + ? = 30

⇒ ?  = 30 – 3

⇒ ?  = 27

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer .

According to the given information,

The code for "Weather" is "ol" .

Hence, the correct option is "ol".

Given, BOY HEM LOT SHY

We have to find the number of letters present in between the second letter of the second word from right and the third letter of the third word from left, in English alphabetical series. 

The second letter of the second word from right ⇒ BOY HEM LOT SHY

The third letter of the third word from left ⇒ BOY HEM LOT SHY​​​

There are Four letters present in between O and T, in English alphabetical Series.

• O, P, Q, R, S, T

Hence , the correct answer is "Four".

The logic followed here is : 

Given statements: A ≥ X = M > Q, M = R > W

Conclusions:

1):  W < A → True (as A ≥ X = M = R > W → W < A)

2): Q < R → True (as A ≥ X = M > Q, R = M > W → Q < R)

Here both conclusions are true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II are true".

We have to calculate the approximate value of \(45.00048 \over 0.04\)

• 45.00048 ~ 45 ( approximately )

We can write 0.04 as \(4\over 100\)

So,

\()Hence, the correct answer is "1125".

According to the given information,

The code for "is" is "Ja". 

Hence, the correct answer is Ja .

Given,

1. M is mother of R, who is mother of T.

2. D is the father of E, who is the only brother of R.

3. T is married to Q. Q is brother of J.

Combining all the relation among them, we will get:

From the above family tree, it is clear that D is the Maternal Grandfather of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Maternal Grandfather".

BODMAS rule:

Decoding the information;

Given,

12 × 36 + 3 ÷ 1 – 2 = 16 + 8 ÷ ? – 2

After replacing the sign from left to right and using the BODMAS rule ,

⇒ 12 - 36 ÷ 3 + 1 × 2 = 16 ÷ 8 + ? × 2

⇒ 12 - 12 + 1 × 2  = 2 + ? × 2

⇒ 12 - 12 + 2  = 2 + ? × 2

⇒ 14 - 12 = 2 + ? × 2

⇒ 2 = 2 + ? × 2

⇒ ? × 2 = 2 - 2 

⇒ ? = 0 ÷ 2

⇒ ? = 0 

Hence, the correct answer is "0" .

• Gyanu is in class 10^th. He has always done well in class.
• He scored 75% in class 8^th.
• He was born on 17 July 2005.
• Being a hardworking student, he managed to get 70% in the written test.

All conditions are as follows:

Gyanu fulfills all the criteria except the Criteria C for the selection of students for a scholarship program, that is he has to scored at least 80% in the last three consecutive classes .

Because, He scored 75% in class 8^th. So he will not be selected.

Hence, the correct answer is "Gyanu will not be selected as he scored 75% in class 8^th".

Preparing the family tree using the following table,

Given:

• Rakesh is the brother of Hemant.
• Hemant is the son of Samita.
• Samita is the sister of Alok.

​

From the family tree, it is clear that Rakesh is the Son of Samita.

Hence, the correct answer is "Son'' .

Given statement: O = M ≠ S < J = T < K

Conclusions:

1): T > S  → True (As S < J = T → T > S)

2): S < K  → True (As S < J = T < K → S < K)

Here both the conclusions are true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both I and II".

Given words are:

FAIR CALF IDEA HANG

We have to replace the last letter of each word by "L' and found the new meaningful English words.

If we replace the last letter of the given words,

• FAIR ⇒ FAIL
• CALF ⇒ CALL
• IDEA ⇒ IDEL
• HANG ⇒ HANL​

​Here, FAIL and CALL have proper English meaning, but, HANL and IDEL have no meaning . 

Hence , the correct answer is "Calf and Fair".

​The logic followed here is:

• 25 is related to 100.

And, 225 is related to 400. 

Similarly, 1225 is related to?

Thus, 1225 is related to 1600.

Hence, the correct answer is 1600.

The logic followed here is : 

• QTWZ is related to BEHK

• PSVY is related to GJMP.

Similarly, if we go through the options, 

• RUXA is related to EHKN.

Hence, the correct answer is EHKN.

Given Information:

'M × N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’,

‘M + N’ means ‘M is the father of N’

‘M ÷ N’ means ‘M is the daughter of N’

‘M – N’ means ‘M is the wife of N’.

Given, X – Z + Y means X is wife of Z, Z is father of Y . 

Option 1) Y is father’s sister of X → False (as Y is son or daughter of X)

Option 2) X is the daughter of Y → False (as X is the mother of Y)

Option 3) X is the mother of Y → True 

Option 4) X is father’s sister of Y → False (as X is mother of Y)

Hence, the correct answer is "X is the mother of Y".

Given,

1. Starting from a point P, Sudhir walks 5 km towards the north.
2. Then he turns left and walks 5 km,
3. Then turns left again and walks 5 km.

• Now, he is walking in South direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "South".

The logic followed here is :​ 

Multiplying the consecutive odd number next by next, like :

3 is related to 15. Means,

3 ⇒ 1 × 3

15 ⇒ 3 × 5

And, 35 is related to 63. Means,

35 ⇒ 5 × 7

63 ⇒ 7 × 9

Similarly, 99 is related to ?

99 ⇒ 9 × 11

So the next term will be 11 × 13 = 143.

So, 99 is related to 143.

Hence, the correct answer is "143".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is **"O9L".**​​​​​

The logic followed here is:

The different numbers in this series follow a sequence 2ⁿ where n = (1, 2, 3, 4......)

• 7- 5 = 2 =2¹
• 11- 7= 4 =2²
• 19- 11= 8 =2³

Therefore the difference between next number should be 2⁴ i.e 16

• 19 +16 = 35
• 67- 35 = 32 = 2⁵

​Hence, the correct answer is "35".

The logic followed here is:

• W is sitting in the middle so he is in 3^rd position from the right and left.

​

• S is sitting to the immediate left of W, so S is 4^th from right.

​

• As U & W are immediate neighbors of T,
• He should be between W & U, so U sits in the right corner and T in 2^nd position from right.

​

• The only place left for V is on the left corner so he sits there.

T sits in the second position from the right end.

Hence, the correct option is "T".

The logic followed here is:

• The upper left triangle rotates on its position in a clockwise direction in every step and alternatively changes color from white to black and vice versa.
• The bottom left semicircle rotates in its position in 90° anticlockwise direction in every step.
• In the central figure, the dark triangle switches its place 1 place forward in an anticlockwise direction in every step.
• The upper right square is the same on its position.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

The value of the term is increasing by 5/20.

• 1/5 = 4/20
• 4/20 + 5/20 = 9/20
• 9/20 + 5/20 = 14/20
• 14/20 + 5/20 = 19/20

​Hence, the correct answer is "19/20".

Alternate Method

• 1/5 = 0.2
• 9/20 = 0.45
• 7/10 = 0.7

The value of the fraction is increasing by 0.25.

Therefore the next fraction should have the value of 0.7 + 0.25 = 0.95 = 19/20.

Hence, the correct answer is "19/20".

Friends: A, B, C, D, E, F and G, facing north.

1. ​A is sitting to the extreme right and B to the extreme left.

2. D is the neighbor of A and G therefore D should be 2^nd from right and G 3^rd from right.

3. C is the neighbor of E and B therefore C should be sitting 2^nd from left and E 3^rd from left.

• The only position now left for F is in the middle.

Thus F sits in the middle position.

Hence, the correct answer is "F".

According to the given information:.

1) Minakshi got 20^th rank from the top which means there are 19 students above her.

2) Bhairavi got 12^th rank from the bottom which means there are 11 students below her.

3. There are 2 students between Minakshi and Bhairavi.

Therefore the total number of students becomes,

• 19 + Minakshi + 2 + Bhairavi + 11 = 34.

Hence, the correct answer is "34".

The paper when unfolded will appear as follows:

When we unfold the given question figure the top triangles will be the water image of the bottom triangles.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Confusion Points 

Option 1:

• The position of inner triangles is inverted.

Thus only option figure "4" will be correct.

The pattern followed here is

All follow the same pattern except GKN.

Hence, the correct answer is "GKN".

The logic followed here is:

The 1^st numbers of the series are decreasing by n² where n- 1, 2, 3, 4...

• 41 - 1² = 40
• 40 - 2² = 36
• 36 - 3² = 27
• 27 - 4² = 11

​The alphabets in the series are according to their alphabetical order but inverted alternately.

• AB
• DC
• EF
• HG
• IJ

​The 3^rd numbers in the series are decreasing gradually by -2.

• 41 - 2 = 39
• 39 - 2 = 37
• 37 - 2 = 35
• 35 - 2 = 33

​

​Hence, the correct answer is "11 IJ 33".

Alternate Method1st method:

The middle second alphabets are following the order of +3 & +1 alternatively.

• A + 3 = D, D + 1 = E, E + 3 = H, H + 1 = I

The middle third alphabets are following the order of +1 & +3 alternatively.

• B + 1 = C; C + 3 = F; F + 1 = G; G + 3 = J

2^nd method:

The middle alphabets are following the order of +1 & -1 alternatively.

​

Hence, the correct answer is "11 IJ 33".

The logic followed here is:

All follow the same pattern, except RUS.

Hence, the correct answer is "RUS".

The logic followed here is:

PAMPER is related to ZKNKVI.

And,

STACKE is related to GHZXPV.

• The 1^st and 2^nd lower alphabets are placed below, opposite to the same alphabets as the chart but their position is interchanged.
• The rest of the alphabets are placed right below their opposite alphabets as they are placed in the chart.

​Following the same logic:

Hence, the correct answer is "VINZRM".

The logic followed here is:

The triangle has rotated 1 step anticlockwise with one arrow inside the figure and one arrow outside the figure.

But in figure 3 the triangle has rotated 2 steps anticlockwise and both the arrows are present inside the triangle.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

The logic followed here is:

• The 1^st alphabet of the series is increased by +2.
• The number increases by +6 in every step.
• The 2^nd alphabet of the series is increased by +2.

​

Hence, the correct answer is "N(18)O".

Shortcut Trick 

The alphabets in the series are placed in their alphabetical order.

• J_K; L_M; N_O; P_Q; R_S

​The numbers are increasing by +6 in every step.

Hence, the correct answer is "N(18)O".

The correct option is "A".

The logic followed here is:

• In each step, the figure is rotated clockwise.
• The alphabet in the middle increases by +1 in each step.
• The number of lines increases by +1 with each rotation.

​Therefore in step 5,

• The number of lines should be 5 and should be placed in the top right corner.
• The dark oval shape should be at the bottom left corner.
• And the alphabet In the middle should be E.

​

​Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

The logic followed here is:

• The figure is inverted vertically in its position.
• All the surrounding symbols are also inverted vertically in their respective places.
• The symbol in the middle is moved to the top right corner of the box.

Therefore in the second case:

• The triangle will be inverted vertically.
• The surrounding symbols will also be inverted vertically.
• the middle symbol will be is moved to the top right corner of the box.

​

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

The least possible diagram is as follow:.

Conclusions:

I. Some biscuits are cakes - False (There is no direct relation between biscuits and cakes. It may be possible but not definite).

II. Some chips are biscuits - True (From the figure we can clearly see that some part of chips intersects with biscuits).

​Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

According to the given information:

From the given figure;

We can see that the shaded part denotes the Illiterate male section which is given as 19.

Hence, the correct answer is "19".

According to the given information:

From the given figure;

We can see that the shaded part denotes the Illiterate shopkeeper section which is given as 28.

Hence, the correct answer is "28".

The correct answer is It is an aspartic acid-containing dipeptide sweetener.

Key Points

• Saccharin is one of the oldest artificial sweeteners on the market.
• Saccharin is a non-nutritive or artificial sweetener.

Additional Information 

• It’s made in a laboratory by oxidizing the chemicals o-toluene sulfonamide or phthalic anhydride. It looks like white, crystalline powder.
• It is excreted from the body in the urine unchanged.
• It appears to be entirely inert and harmless when taken.
• Its use is of great value to diabetic persons and people who need to control their intake of calories.

The correct answer is Mediterranean.

Key Points

• Mediterranean climate occurs around Mediterranean sea, along the west coast of continents in subtropical latitudes between 30° - 40° latitudes e.g. — Central California, Central Chile, along the coast in south eastern and south-western Australia.
• These areas come under the influence of sub-tropical high in summer and westerly wind in winter. Hence, the climate is characterised by hot, dry summer and mild, rainy winter.
• Monthly average temperature in summer is around 25° C and in winter below 10°C. The annual precipitation ranges between 35 - 90 cm.

Additional Information 

• Warm temperate (mid-latitude) climates extend from 30° - 50° of latitude mainly on the eastern and western margins of continents. These climates generally have warm summers with mild winters.
• Tropical humid climates exist between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
• The annual range of temperature is very low and annual rainfall is high.
• Humid subtropical climate lies on the eastern parts of the continent in subtropical latitudes. In this region the air masses are generally unstable and cause rainfall throughout the year.

The correct answer is Jainism.

Key Points

• Mahavir Jayanti is celebrated by the Jain community commemorating the birth of Lord Mahavira, the founder of Jainism.
• Mahavira is the 24^th and the last Tirthankara, who preached the essence of life, virtue, and non-violence towards all living beings.
• According to the Swetambaras, he was born in 599 BC but the Digambar school of Jainism believes that Mahavira was born in 615 BC.

Additional Information 

• Lord Mahavir, also referred to as Indian sage Vardhamana was born in Kundalagrama, Bihar, as a son to king Siddartha and Queen Trishala.
• At the age of 30, he renounced his throne and other worldly possessions and spent twelve years of his life as an ascetic.
• At the age of 72, he attained nirvana and devoted the rest of his life to preach spiritual freedom.

The correct answer is Grass.

Key Points

• Smooth surfaces have higher frictional force as compared to rough surfaces.
• So, Frictional force depends upon the surface and opposes the motion.
• Frictional force helps us while walking. Walking on a smooth surface is difficult due to a lack of friction.
• Sliding is easy on smooth surfaces compared to rough ones as less friction will ensure proper movement.

Additional Information 

• The force that always opposes the motion of one body over the other body in contact with it is known as the force of friction or frictional force.
• The frictional force operates between a) two solids in contact, b) a solid and fluid & c) two fluids.
• There are four types of friction, they are: 1) Static friction  2) Dynamic friction 3) Sliding friction 4) Rolling friction

The correct answer is Troposphere.

Key Points

• Troposphere is the lowest part of the atmosphere - the part we live in. It contains most of our weather - clouds, rain, snow.
• The troposphere starts at the Earth's surface and extends 8 to 14.5 kilometers high (5 to 9 miles).
• This part of the atmosphere is the most dense.
• Almost all weather is in this region.

Additional Information 

• Ionosphere: The ionosphere is an abundant layer of electrons and ionized atoms and molecules that stretches from about 48 kilometers (30 miles) above the surface to the edge of space at about 965 km (600 mi), overlapping into the mesosphere and thermosphere.
• Mesosphere: The mesosphere starts just above the stratosphere and extends to 85 kilometers (53 miles) high. Meteors burn up in this layer.
• Stratosphere: The stratosphere starts just above the troposphere and extends to 50 kilometers (31 miles) high. The ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters the solar ultraviolet radiation, is in this layer.

The correct answer is Automobile and auto component industry.

Key Points

• Taking steps forward toward the vision of an ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’, the Government led by Prime Minister, Narendra Modi, has approved the PLI Scheme for the Automobile Industry and the Drone Industry with a budgetary outlay of ₹ 26,058 crores.
• The PLI scheme for the auto sector will incentivize high-value Advanced Automotive Technology vehicles and products.
• It will herald a new age in higher technology, more efficient and green automotive manufacturing.

Additional Information 

• PLI Auto Scheme will incentivize the emergence of Advanced Automotive Technologies global supply chain in India.
• Help create additional employment for over 7.6 lakh people.
• Incentives worth ₹ 26,058 crores will be provided to industry over five years.

The correct answer is Sedimentary Rocks.

Key Points

• Sedimentary rocks are the weathering products of older rocks that have been deposited at the surface of the Earth by water, wind, and/or glaciers.
• Sedimentary rocks are the most common rocks on the surface of the Earth.
• Sedimentary rocks also preserve the remains of once-living organisms and record the emergence and evolution of life on Earth.

Additional Information 

• Metamorphic rocks: Metamorphic rocks are rocks that have become changed by intense heat or pressure while forming.
• Igneous rocks: Igneous rocks come from melted rock material, or magma, that lies beneath Earth’s surface.
• Volcanoes rocks​: Volcanic rock is a rock formed from lava erupted from a volcano.

The correct answer is Panjab University.

Key Points

• In 2020, the Panjab university had won the trophy for the second consecutive time for best all-round performance in sports among Indian varsities.
• Panjab University vice-chancellor Raj Kumar received the MAKA Trophy 2020 on behalf of the university from the minister of youth affairs and sports Anurag Thakur at New Delhi.

Additional Information 

• The top overall performing university in the Inter-University Tournaments is given the Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy, which is a rolling trophy.
• The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy was instituted in 1956-57.

The correct answer is Lithium.

Key Points

• Lithium is a chemical element that occurs first in the period of the periodic table.
• Lithium is a chemical element with the symbol Li and atomic number 3.
• It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal.

Additional Information 

• The third period contains eight elements: sodium, magnesium, aluminium, silicon, phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine, and argon.
• The first two, sodium and magnesium, are members of the s-block of the periodic table, while the others are members of the p-block.
• Periodic Table:

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Sports Ministry has dedicated a total of 143 Khelo India Centres across 7 States with a total budget estimate of Rs 14.30 Crores.
• These centres will be entrusted with one sports discipline each.
• The States include Maharashtra, Mizoram, Goa, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur.

Additional InformationThe States-wise bifurcation includes:

• Maharashtra - Opening of 36 Khelo India Centres in 30 districts with a budget estimate of Rs. 3.60 Crores.
• Mizoram - Opening of 2 Khelo India Centres in Kolasib district with a budget estimate of Rs. 20 Lakhs.
• Arunachal Pradesh- Opening of 52 Khelo India Centres in 26 districts with a budget estimate of Rs 4.12 Crores.
• Madhya Pradesh - Opening of 4 Khelo India Centres with a budget estimate of Rs 40 Lakhs.
• Karnataka - Opening of 31 Khelo India Centres with a budget estimate of Rs. 3.10 Crores.
• Manipur - Opening of 16 Khelo India Centres with a budget estimate of Rs. 1.60 Crores.
• Goa - Opening of 2 Khelo India Centres with a budget estimate of Rs. 20 Lakhs.

The correct answer is Raj Reddy

Key PointsRaj Reddy:

• He is an Indian-American computer scientist and he is the first person of Asian origin to receive the Turing Award, for his work in the field of Artificial intelligence.
• He was awarded the Computer History Museum 2021 fellow award and Padma Bhushan in 2001.
• His AI research concentrated on the perceptual and motor aspects of intelligence such as speech, language, vision, and robotics.

Computer History Museum (CHM):

• The Computer History Museum (CHM) is a museum of computer history, located in Mountain View, California.
• The CHM Fellows are exceptional men and women whose ideas have changed the world and have an impact on the life of every individual.
• The Turing Award is an annual prize given by the Association for Computing Machinery (ACM) for contributions of lasting and major technical importance to computer science.
• It is often referred to as the "Nobel Prize of Computing".

Additional Information

Anuradha Annaswamy :

• Anuradha M. Annaswamy is a computer scientist noted for her research on adaptive control theory and smart grids.
• She is the Director of the Active-Adaptive Control Laboratory at MIT and a Senior Research Scientist in the Department of Mechanical Engineering.

Jacob Abraham :

• Jacob A. Abraham is an Indian -American computer scientist. He is a member of the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers and the Association for Computing Machinery.
• Professor Abraham's research interests include VLSI design and test, formal verification, and fault-tolerant computing.

Anima Anandkumar :

• Animashree Anandkumar is a Professor of Computing at the California Institute of Technology.
• She joined NVIDIA as director of machine learning research in 2018.
• Her research spans both theoretical and practical aspects of machine learning.

The correct answer is Kambala

Key PointsKambala Festival :

• Kambala festival is an annual buffalo race held in the southwestern Indian state of Karnataka.
• The Kambala festival season starts in November and lasts till March.
• The festival is dedicated to Lord Kadri Manjunatha, an incarnation of Lord Shiva.
• According to legend, the festival was started by the Hoysala Kings to see if the buffaloes could be trained and used in war.

Additional Information

Pattadakal :

• Pattadakal is a Dance Festival that takes place in January every year in the State of Karnataka.
• Pattadakallu, commonly known as Pattadakal is a small village in Karnataka and the embodiment of an Indian architectural marvel.
• It is located on the banks of the Malaprabha River and is a UNESCO world heritage site where Pattadakal Dance Festival is organised by Karnataka Government.

Ugadi :

• Ugadi is observed on the first day of Chaitra according to the Hindu lunisolar calendar in Karnataka and the other Southern States.
• The name ‘Ugadi’ originated from two Sanskrit words, ‘Yuga’ and ‘Adi’, translating to a new beginning.
• It is believed that Ugadi was the first day of the creation of the Universe. As per Hindu mythology, Lord Brahma created the Universe on this day.

Hampi :

• Karnataka State Government holds the Hampi Utsava to recreate the grandeur of the erstwhile Vijayanagara Empire.
• It is believed that the Utsav is celebrated since the time of the Vijayanagara Empire and hence might be one of the oldest celebrations/festivals in India.
• Hampi Utsava also called Vijaya Utsav is celebrated for 2 or 3 days and captures the pomp, splendour, and glory of the Vijayanagara empire.

The correct answer is Assam

Key PointsSattriya Dance :

• Sattriya is a classical Indian dance that originated in its eastern state of Assam. It was recognised as a classical dance by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
• Sattriya Dance has its origin in the ‘Sattras’ established by Mahapurush Srimanta Sankardev in the 15^th and the 16^th century.
• The Sattriya dance can be classified into two styles, namely ‘Paurashik Bhangi’ i.e. Tandava or Masculine style and ‘Stri Bhangi’ i.e. Lashya or feminine style.
• The musical instruments used in Sattriya are the Khols or the Drums, the Taals or the Cymbals and the Flute.

Additional Information

• Indian classical dance is an umbrella term for various performance arts rooted in Hindu musical theatre styles, whose theory and practice can be traced to the Sanskrit text Natya Shastra.
• The Indian classical dances have two basic aspects - Tandava (movement & rhythm) and Lasya (grace, bhava & rasa).
• Total 9 dance forms are recognised by the Government of India as Classical Dance. They are :

1. Bharatanatyam, Tamil Nadu (Southern India)
2. Manipuri Dance, Manipur (North-eastern India)
3. Kathak (Northern India)
4. Odissi Dance, Orissa (Eastern India)
5. Kathakali
6. Mohiniattam
7. Kuchipudi (Southern India)
8. Sattriya Dance
9. Chhau (Eastern India)

The correct answer is Deletion - Sickle cell Anaemia

Key PointsDeletion:

• Deletion is a type of mutation that involves the loss of one or more nucleotides from a segment of DNA.
• A deletion can involve the loss of any number of nucleotides, from a single nucleotide to an entire piece of a chromosome.
• Deletion mutations are actually the cause of a large number of genetic diseases, such as two-thirds of cystic fibrosis cases and the cat cry syndrome, which is so-called because children with this syndrome often have a cry that sounds similar to a cat meowing.

Sickle cell anaemia:

• Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders. Sickle cell anaemia is a form of inherited blood disorder that is sickle cell disease.
• It affects the shape of red blood cells, which carry oxygen to all parts of the body.
• In sickle cell anaemia, some red blood cells are shaped like sickles or crescent moons. These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow.

Additional Information

Mutation :

• A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of an organism.
• There are three types of DNA Mutations: base substitutions, deletions and insertions.

Substitution Mutation :

• Substitution is a type of mutation in which one nucleotide is replaced by a different nucleotide.
• The term can also refer to the replacement of one amino acid in a protein with a different amino acid.
• They cause three specific types of point mutations: silent, missense, and nonsense mutations.

Insertion Mutation :

• Insertion is a type of mutation that involves the addition of one or more nucleotides into a segment of DNA.
• An insertion can involve the addition of any number of nucleotides, from a single nucleotide to an entire piece of a chromosome.
• One form of beta-thalassemia is a disease caused by this form of mutation.

The correct answer is the Centre for Cultural Resources and Training

Key PointsCultural Talent Search Scholarship Scheme :

• Cultural Talent Search Scholarship Scheme is an initiative by the Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) (an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Culture of Government of India) for students under the age group of 10 to 14 years.
• The objective of this scheme is to provide specialised training to talented children in various cultural fields with a special focus on rare art forms which are on the verge of extinction.
• The selected scholars will receive Rs. 3,600 per year.

Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT):

• The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Culture of the Government of India.
• It was established in 1979 and pioneered by Smt. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay and Dr. Kapila Vatsyayan.
• The CCRT has its headquarters in New Delhi and three Regional Centres at Udaipur in the west, Hyderabad in the south and Guwahati in the northeast to facilitate the widespread dissemination of Indian art and culture.

Additional Information

Indian National Trust for Art and Culture Heritage 

• Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) was established on the 27^th of January, 1984.
• It has pioneered the conservation and preservation of not just our natural and built heritage but intangible heritage as well.
• In 2007, the United Nations awarded INTACH a special consultative status with the United Nations Economic and Social Council.

National Academy of Fine Arts 

• The National Institute of Fine Arts (NIFA) is a national centre for education in arts.
• The National Institute of Fine Arts  (NIFA) was established by Mrs.RENU KHERA in Delhi in July 2005.
• Its aim is to provide education and training to students on a wide spectrum of Fine Arts.

National School of Drama 

• The National School of Drama is one of the foremost theatre training institutions in the world and the only one of its kind in India.
• It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959.

The correct answer is Food and Clothes

Key PointsPrivate Goods 

• Private goods are those whose ownership is restricted to the group or individual that purchased the good for their own consumption.
• A private good is not shared with anybody else, but can be sold along with transferring rights to use or consume it.
• Examples of Private Goods are Food and Clothes.

Public Goods 

• Public goods are commodities or services that benefit all members of society, and which are often provided for free through public taxation.
• Public goods are the opposite of private goods, which are inherently scarce and are paid for separately by individuals.
• Examples of public goods include law enforcement, national defense, and the rule of law.

The correct answer is Planets orbiting the Sun

Key PointsCentripetal Force 

• Centripetal force is any force which causes a change in direction of velocity toward the center of the circular motion.
• The component of the force which is perpendicular to the velocity is the part resulting in the centripetal force.
• Planets orbiting the Sun is an example of Centripetal force.

Additional Information 

• The centripetal force keeps an object moving in a circle and is always pointed toward the center of that circle.
• The centripetal force is proportional to the square of the velocity, implying that a doubling of speed will require four times the centripetal force to keep the motion in a circle.
• Mass does not play a role in the centripetal acceleration of an object, so no matter what happens to the mass, the centripetal acceleration remains the same.

The correct answer is Calcium pectate

Key PointsMiddle Lamella of Cell Wall:

• Middle lamella is a jelly-like substance made up of calcium and magnesium pectate.
• It is made up of calcium and magnesium pectates, along with muramic acid, phosphoglycerides, and hemicellulose.
• It is laid down by the joint activity of cells between which it lies.
• It is formed at the time of cytokinesis as a layer of pectin.
• The sequence from inside:

Plasma membrane → Tertiary cell wall → Secondary cell wall → Primary cell wall → Middle lamella → Primary cell wall of an adjacent cell.

• The major constituent, pectin forms a unified and continuous lamellar layer between adjacent cells.
• It is lacking on the outer (exposed) side of the surface cells.

Additional Information

Calcium Pectate 

• Calcium is an essential mineral nutrient for all living organisms including bacteria, animals, and plants.
• Calcium pectate is found in all of the fruits and vegetables we eat.

Calcium Oxide 

• Calcium oxide, CaO, also known as lime is a white or greyish white solid produced in large quantities by roasting calcium carbonate so as to drive off carbon dioxide.
• It is used industrially to treat acidic soil and to make porcelain and glass, bleaching powder, caustic soda, mortar and cement.

Calcium Hydroxide 

• Calcium hydroxide, also called slaked lime, Ca(OH)2, is obtained by the action of water on calcium oxide.
• It is used in industrial settings, such as sewage treatment, paper production, construction, and food processing.

Calcium Sulphate

• Calcium sulfate, CaSO4, is a naturally occurring calcium salt. It is commonly known in its dihydrate form, CaSO4∙2H2O, a white or colourless powder called gypsum.

The correct answer is Mount Abu

• Dilwara Temple is located on Mount Abu, Rajasthan.
• Dilwara Temples are a group of Shwetambar Jain temples.
• They were built during the 11^th and 13^th centuries and are a famous pilgrimage centre for Jains.
• There are five temples here and each temple has its own unique identity.

The five temples are the following:

1. Vimal Vasahi - Dedicated to the first Jain Tirthankara, Shri Adinatha
2. Luna Vasahi - Dedicated to the 22^nd Jain Tirthankara, Shri Neminatha.
3. Pittalhar - Dedicated to the first Jain Tirthankar, Shri Adinatha.
4. Parshvanath - Dedicated to the 23^rd Jain Tirthankara, Shri Parshvanatha.
5. Mahavir Swami - Dedicated to the last Jain Tirthankara, Shri Mahaviraswami.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Continental Shelf.

Key PointsOcean Floor Division can be divided into various parts such as Continental Shelf, Continental Slope, Continental Rise or Foot, Deep Ocean basins, Abyssal plains or Deep Sea plain, Oceanic Trenches, Seamounts, and Guyots.

Continental Shelf

• The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs.
• It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less.
• The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break.

Continental Slope

• The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins.
• It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope.
• The gradient of the slope region varies between 2-5°.
• The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m.

Deep-Sea Plain or Abyssal plain

• These plains are gently sloping areas of the ocean basins.
• These are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world.
• It is an underwater plain on the deep ocean floor, usually found at depths between 3,000 and 6,000m.
• Lying generally between the foot of a continental rise and a mid-ocean ridge, abyssal plains cover more than 50% of the Earth's surface.

Oceanic Deeps or Trenches

• These areas are the deepest parts of the oceans.
• The trenches are relatively steep-sided, narrow basins.
• They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding ocean floor.
• They occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs and are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.

The correct answer is Tidal energy.

Key Points

• Tidal energy is a form of renewable energy that is obtained by the natural rise and fall of ocean tides and currents.
• They are caused by the gravitational forces exerted on the earth by the moon, and to a lesser extent, the sun.
• According to the estimates of the Indian government, the country has a potential of 8,000 MW of tidal energy.
• This includes about 7,000 MW in the Gulf of Cambay in Gujarat, 1,200 MW in the Gulf of Kutch, and 100 MW in the Gangetic delta in the Sunderbans region of West Bengal.

Gulf of Khambhat (Cambay)

• The Gulf of Khambhat is special for its oil reserves.
• The two major west-flowing rivers (Narmada, and Tapi) drain in this region into the Arabian sea.

Additional InformationGeothermal energy

• Geothermal energy is heat within the earth.
• Hot water can be released through geysers, hot springs, steam vents, underwater hydrothermal vents, and mud pots. These are all sources of geothermal energy.
• Their heat can be captured and used directly for heat, or their steam can be used to generate electricity.

Solar energy

• Solar power is energy from the sun that is converted into thermal or electrical energy.
• It can be used to cook food, heat water, and generate electricity.
• Solar energy is the cleanest and most abundant renewable energy source available, and the U.S. has some of the richest solar resources in the world.

Wind energy 

• Wind energy is the energy obtained from the force of the wind.
• Wind energy or wind power harnesses the wind to produce mechanical power through wind turbines and then turns it into electricity using electric generators.

The correct answer is Article 350 - B

Key Points

• Article 350 B of the Constitution provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities by the President.
• This Officer is known as the National Commissioner of Linguistic Minorities.
• The Special Officer's responsibility is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution and report to the President. President shall keep the report before the Parliament.

Additional Information

Article 280 :

• Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the Finance Commission to be constituted by the President of India.
• Finance Commission give its recommendations on the distribution of tax between the State Governments and the Union Government and also amongst the states themselves.
• The first finance commission was constituted on 6^th April 1952 under the chairmanship of Shri K.C. Neogy.

Article 76 :

• Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, is related to the Attorney General of India who is appointed by the President.
• The Attorney General of India is the government of India's main legal adviser and its primary advocate before the Supreme Court of India.
• The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Article 148 :

• Article 148  is related to the comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
• CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and provided with tenure of 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.
• CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India, the Consolidated Fund of each state and UT’s having a legislative assembly.

The correct answer is Muhammad Tughlaq.

Key PointsMuhammad bin Tughlaq:

• Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the eighteenth sultan of the Delhi Sultanate belonging to the Tughlaq Dynasty.
• He is known for all his projects like the transfer of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, the introduction of token currency, the experiment in Doab, and the expedition to Kangra which all were unsuccessful.
• Ibn Battuta, the famous traveler, and jurist from Morocco, was a guest at his court.
• For the first time in the history of the Sultanate, he planned a campaign to capture the Mongol territory.

Additional Information

Alauddin Khalji:

• Alauddin Khalji was one of the most powerful rulers from the Khalji dynasty and became the Sultan of Delhi.
• During his reign (1296 – 1316), Alauddin defended his kingdom against the Mongol invasions, at Jaran-Manjur, Sivistan, Kili, Delhi, and Amroha.
• Later, he also raided and annexed Hindu kingdoms such as Gujarat, Ranthambore, Chittor, Malwa, Siwana, and Jalore.

Jalaluddin Khilji:

• Jalal-ud-din Khalji, also known as Firuz-Al-Din Khalji or Jalaluddin Khilji was the founder and first Sultan of the Khalji dynasty that ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1290 to 1296.
• He followed the policy of peace and reconciliation towards all.

Ghiyasuddin Balban:

• Ghiyas-ud-din Balban was the Sultan of Delhi from 1266 to 1287 AD and was one of the most powerful Sultans of the Middle Ages.
• Balban was given the title of Ulugh khan by Sultan Nasir-ud-din Mahmud, who was impressed with his dedication and devotion.
• Balban ruled the empire with an iron hand which included crushing the Mewatis and disciplining the officers. He also reorganized the army and overtook the powers of Chihalgani.

The correct answer is Pataliputra

Key Points

• The Sunga Dynasty was an ancient dynasty established in the post-Mauryan period.
• The dynasty was established by Pushyamitra Shunga, after taking the throne of the Maurya Empire in 185 BCE.
• Its capital was Pataliputra, but later emperors such as Bhagabhadra also held court at Besnagar (modern Vidisha) in eastern Malwa.
• There were ten rulers in the Sunga dynasty who in total ruled for about 112 years.
• One of the greatest achievements of the Sunga dynasty was safeguarding India from Huns' invasion.
• The major rulers of the Shunga dynasty were – Pushyamitra Sunga, Agnimitra, Bhagabhadra, Devabhuti, etc.
• Sunga dynasty was the emergence of various mixed castes and the integration of foreigners into Indian society.
• The language of Sanskrit gained more prominence during the rule of the Shunga kings.

Additional Information

Sakala:

• Sagala, Sakala was a city in ancient India, the predecessor of the modern city of Sialkot located in what is now Pakistan's northern Punjab province.
• The city was the capital of the Madra Kingdom and it was razed in 326 BC during the Indian campaign of Alexander the Great.

Ayodhya:

• Ayodhya, also known as Saket, is an ancient city of India, is the birthplace of Bhagwan Shri Ram and the setting of the great epic Ramayana.
• Ayodhya used to be the capital of the ancient Kosala Kingdom.

The correct answer is DK Karve.

Key PointsDK Karve:

• Dhondo Keshav Karve popularly known as Maharshi Karve was a social reformer in India in the field of women's welfare.
• He advocated widow remarriage and he himself married a widow.
• Karve was a pioneer in promoting widows' education.
• He founded the first women's university in India - SNDT Women's University.
• The Government of India awarded him with the highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 1958, the year of his 100^th birthday.

Widow Remarriage:

• The movement for widow remarriage was led by Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar.
• The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act was legalized on July 16^th 1856 and was enacted on July 25^th the same year.
• Karsondas Mulji started the Satya Prakash in Gujarati in 1852 to advocate widow remarriage.
• In the 1850s, Vishnu Shastri Pandit founded the Widow Remarriage Association.

Additional InformationRaja Ram Mohan Roy:

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy the founder of the Brahmo Samaj (one of the first Indian socio-religious reform movements) was a great scholar and an independent thinker.
• He was known as the ‘Father of Modern India’ or ‘Father of the Bengal Renaissance.
• He was given the title ‘Raja’ by the Mughal Emperor of Delhi, Akbar II.
• He attacked child marriage, polygamy, illiteracy of women and the degraded state of widows.

Swami Dayananda Saraswati:

• Swami Dayananda Saraswati was a social and religious reformer and was born at Tankara located in Gujarat.
• He extolled spiritualism and nationalism and appealed to the people to fight for Swarajya.
• He founded the Arya Samaj on April 7, 1875.
• He opposed the multiplicity of castes.

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:

• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a great social reformer and a key figure of the Bengal renaissance.
• He was the first person in Bengal to introduce the concepts of admission fee and tuition fee.
• He received the title ‘Vidyasagar’ from a Sanskrit College.
• He pressed the British authorities to pass the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act in 1856. It was passed during the East India Company rule.

The correct answer is Article 122

Key PointsArticle 122:

Article 122 deals with the restrictions on courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament. It further states the following:

• The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
• No officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested by or under this Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in Parliament shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers.

Additional InformationArticle 112 - Annual financial statement.

• Article 112 deals with the Annual financial statement. It says that the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement.

Article 114 - Appropriation Bills

• Bill for appropriation out of CFI money required to meet voted grants and expenditure charged on CFI
• No amendment either varies the amount or alters the destination once the bill is passed.
• No money shall be drawn from CFI except appropriation made by law passed in accordance with provisions of this article

Article 120 - Language to be used in Parliament

• Article 120 of the Constitution of India deals with the provision of language to be used in Parliament.
• The proceedings in Parliament shall be conducted in Hindi or English.
• But the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the speaker of the Lok Sabha, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother tongue.

The correct answer is Jataka

Key Points

• The Jataka Katha contains stories of the former births of Lord Buddha.
• The oldest written stories in the world are the Jataka tales in which about 600 stories have been collected.
• This is a composition 300 years before the year of AD which contains popular stories of Buddha's past lives.
• These are composed by ordinary persons and have been compiled by Buddhist monks.
• The Buddhist literature, Theravada Buddhism refers to these Jatakas as a commentary to the famous Pali Kanon (a collection of Theravadan Buddhist literature).
• It divides the texts mentioned in the Khuddaka Nikaya and Sutta Pitaka.

Additional Information 

 Anga

• aṅgā, (Pāli and Sanskrit: “limb,” or “division”) any of several categories into which Buddhist canonical writings were divided in early times, beginning before the Abhidhamma (scholastic) works were added to the canon.

 Pitak

• Each Buddhist sub-tradition had its own Tripiṭaka for its monasteries, written by its sangha, each set consisting of 32 books, in three parts or baskets of teachings:

1. Vinaya Pitaka (“Basket of Discipline”),
2. Sutra Pitaka (“Basket of Discourse”), and
3. Abhidhamma Piṭaka (“Basket of Special Doctrine”).

 Nikaya

• Nikaya is most commonly used in reference to the Pali Buddhist texts of the Tripitaka namely those found in the Sutta Piṭaka.
• The five Nikāyas are the Dīgha Nikāya, Majjhima Nikāya, Saṃyutta Nikāya, Aṅguttara Nikāya, Khuddaka Nikāya

The correct answer is Lahore 

Key Points 

• Revolutionary freedom fighter Rajguru was hanged to death by the British government along with Bhagat Singh, Shivaram and Sukhdev Thapar for their activities on March 23, 1931, at the Lahore Jail.
• On 7 October 1930, Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were sentenced to death while others were sentenced to imprisonment and deportation.
• The trio was ordered to be hanged on 24 March 1931 but the sentence was carried out a day earlier at the Lahore Jail.
• March 23^rd is observed as ‘Martyrs’ Day’ or ‘Shaheed Diwas’ or ‘Sarvodaya Day’ in India in honour of the eternal heroes.

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru

Key Points

• Jawaharlal Nehru was India's First Prime Minister.
• He had initiated socio-economic policies of the idealistic socialist kind.
• He was a prolific writer and authored books such as 'The Discovery of India' and 'Glimpses of the World History.
• He completed his ‘Autobiography’ in Almora Jail on February 14, 1935.

Additional Information

B. R. Ambedkar

• B. R. Ambedkar was popularly known as Babasaheb Ambedkar and he was one of the architects of the Indian Constitution.
• Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar is known as the father of the Indian Constitution.
• He was India's First Minister for Law and Justice.

Mahatma Gandhi

• Mahatma Gandhi was the primary leader of India's independence movement and also the architect of a form of non-violent civil disobedience that would influence the world.
• "Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever.” “Happiness is when what you think, what you say, and what you do are in harmony.” “We may never be strong enough to be entirely nonviolent in thought, word and deed", were some of the statements given by Gandhiji.

Subhash Chandra Bose

• Subhas Chandra Bose (also called Netaji) is known for his role in India's independence movement.
• Bose was given the honorific title of Netaji in Germany in 1942 by the Indian soldiers of the Indian Legion and officials of the Special Bureau for India in Berlin.

The Correct Answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• The state with the lowest population density is Arunachal Pradesh and the Union Territories with the lowest population density are Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The population density of Arunachal Pradesh according to the census 2011 is 17.
• India's 2011 population density record reveals that the 2011 density has risen from 324 to 382 per square kilometre.
• Bihar is the most heavily populated state (1106 inhabitants per square kilometre) followed by West Bengal-1028 and Kerala 860.
• Population growth rose from 2001 to 2011, at a rate of 17.54.

Additional Information

Himachal Pradesh:

As per the Census 2011, 

• The total population of Himachal Pradesh is  68.6 Lacs.
• The population Density of  Himachal Pradesh is 123 per square km which is lower than the national average of 382 per square km.
• The total literacy rate of  Himachal Pradesh is 82.8%

Mizoram:

As per the Census 2011, 

• The total population of Mizoram is 11 Lacs.
• The population Density of Mizoram is 52 per square km which is higher than the national average of 382 per square km.
• The total literacy rate of Mizoram is 91.33%

Sikkim:

As per the Census 2011, 

• The total population of Sikkim is  6.1 Lacs.
• The population Density of Sikkim is 86 per square km which is higher than national average 382 per square km.
• The total literacy rate of  Sikkim is 81.42%

The correct answer is Investment Multiplier

Key Points

• Investment multiplier refers to the increase in the aggregate income of the economy as a result of an increase in the investments done by the government in the form of new projects.
• According to this concept, in the event of an increase in the investment activities either public or private which can be in the form of private consumption spending, government spending in an economy, there is a corresponding increase in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of the economy by a value more than the amount invested.

The multiplier can be represented by the following formula.

• K = ΔY / ΔI
• Where, ΔY = Increase in GDP or National Income
• ΔI = Increase in Investment

Additional Information

Autonomous Investment :

• Autonomous investment is the portion of the total investment made by a government or other institution independent of economic considerations.
• These can include government investments, funds allocated to public goods or infrastructure, and any other type of investment that is not dependent on changes in GDP.

Induced Investment :

• Induced investment refers to that investment that changes as the level of income changes in the economy.
• These investments are made with the intention to generate profit out of such investments.

Consumption function :

• The consumption function is a relationship between consumer spending and the various factors determining it.
• It is given by,
• C= c+ bY where c=autonomous consumption, b= marginal propensity to consume, and Y= income.

The correct answer is 382 persons per sq km

Key Points

• The population density of India as per the 2011 Census was 382 persons per square kilometre.
• The worldwide average for population density was approximately 15 people per sq. km.
• Census of India is conducted every 10 years.
• Census 2011 was the 15^th National census survey conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
• Mr. C. Chandramouli is the Commissioner & Registrar General of the Indian 2011 Census.
• The 15^th Indian Census was conducted in two phases, house listing and population enumeration.
• House listing phase began on 1 April 2010 and involved collection of information about all buildings.
• The second population enumeration phase was conducted between 9 to 28 February 2011.
• The motto of census 2011 was 'Our Census, Our future'.

The correct answer is Alluvial Soil.

Key PointsAlluvial soil:

• It  is also known as riverine soil and are found in Northern plains.

It’s most important characteristics are :

• It is formed by the deposition of the river load as it flows from its upper to its lower course.
• It is light and porous, therefore easily tillable.
• It is a fertile soil as it is rich in minerals, especially potash and lime.
• It is suitable for the growth of a large variety of rabi and kharif crops.
• The color of the alluvial soils varies from the light grey to ash grey.

Additional InformationLaterite Soil:

• The laterite soil is formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods.
• Laterite soil is reddish to yellow in color with a lower content of nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, lime, and magnesia with 90–100% of iron, aluminum, titanium, and manganese oxides.
• Proper irrigation and use of fertilizers make it suitable for growing crops, such as tea, coffee, rubber, cinchona, coconut, etc.

Dry Soil:

• The lack of moisture can cause compacted soil to become dry.
• Dry soil that crumbles freely or with moderate pressure into individual grains is granular.
• Dry soil are not suitable for growing plants.

Black Soil :

• Black soils are also known locally as regur Soil.
• Black soil is rich in calcium, potassium and magnesium but has poor nitrogen content.
• Crops like cotton, tobacco, chilly, oil seeds, jowar, ragi and maize grow well in it.

The correct answer is Dual Citizenship.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India gives single citizenship to the people of the country.
• The term "single citizenship" refers to the fact that all Indians, regardless of where they live, are citizens of India.
• The Constitution of India does not allow holding Indian citizenship and citizenship of a foreign country simultaneously.

Additional Information

Indian Constitution is:

Both Rigid and Flexible which can be seen by fact that, 

• The procedure of amendment is neither as easy as in England nor as difficult as in United States.
• Some provisions can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and certain provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament.

It mentions that India is a Secular State,

• Secularism in India means equal treatment of all religions by the state and it does not have any state religion and people are free to practice any religion of their choice.

Sovereign Democratic Republic,

• It is a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic with a parliamentary system of government.
• India is a sovereign state. It means that India is a supreme power and no internal groups or the external authority could undermine the authority of the Indian government.

The correct answer is 2015

Key Points

• National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana was launched on 21 January 2015.
• The HRIDAY scheme was introduced with an objective to preserve the character of the heritage city and also facilitate heritage-linked urban development by exploring various possibilities.
• Under the scheme, steps like planning, development, implementation, and management of the twelve selected heritage cities were strategized in partnership with the respective state governments.

Additional Information

• The scheme aimed to plan, develop and implement several heritage-sensitive infrastructures.
• HRIDAY scheme is a central sector scheme and thus the complete funding for the scheme came from the central government.
• It is under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• The 12 heritage cities selected under this scheme are,

1. Ajmer
2. Amravati
3. Amritsar
4. Badami
5. Dwarka
6. Gaya
7. Kanchipuram
8. Mathura
9. Puri
10. Varanasi
11. Velankanni
12. Warangal

The correct answer is Control of Epidemic diseases.

• There were two reasons that were responsible for the reduced death rate after 1921.
• One is the control over famines and the other is the control of epidemics.
• The worst killers of the past were different kinds of fever, plague, smallpox, malaria and cholera
• Progress in the treatment of this kind of epidemics, preventive vaccinations, improved hygiene and so on helped in the prevention of these killer diseases.

Additional Information

• In 1901, the average death rate was 43 per thousand and it declined to 8.5 per thousand in 2000-01.
• There are various reasons for this decline which are;

1. Control of Epidemics
2. Urbanisation of Population
3. More Medical Facilities
4. Spread of Education
5. Control over famine
6. Late Marriage
7. Balanced Diet
8. Change of habits
9. The Decline in Social Evils

The correct answer is 1987

Key Points

• Spices Board is a statutory body constituted with effect from 26.02.1987 under the Spices Board Act, 1986 by merging the erstwhile Cardamom Board and the Spices Export Promotion Council under the administrative control of the Department of Commerce.
• Spices Board is responsible for the overall development of the cardamom industry and export promotion of 52 spices listed in the schedule of the Spices Board Act, 1986.
• The primary function of the Board includes the development of small and large cardamom, promotion, development, regulation of export of spices and control on the quality of spices for export.

Additional Information

• The Spices Board also undertakes research activities on cardamom (small & large) under Indian Cardamom Research Institute.
• The board is headquartered in Kochi, Kerala.
• Spices are sold under the brand 'Flavourit'.
• The Spices Board of India has started an online campaign, called the Spice Train, to educate Indians about the country's rich spice heritage.

The correct answer is Westerly Depression.

 Key Points

• Western Disturbances develop in the mid-latitude region (north of the Tropic of Cancer), therefore they are called as mid latitude storms or extra-tropical storms.
• Western Disturbances are the cause of the most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across North-West India.
• India gets close to 5-10% of its total annual rainfall from western disturbances.

Additional Information

Tropical Depression:

• A tropical depression is a tropical cyclone.
• A tropical depression is when the maximum sustained wind speed is less than 63 km/h.
• A Tropical storm is when the maximum sustained wind speed is more than 63 km/h.

Monsoon depression:

• Monsoon depression originally refers to a low-pressure system affecting the North Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal in summer.
• It encompasses a relatively large area and the diameter of a closed isobar can be as wide as 1000 km.
• These occasionally intensify into tropical cyclones if they remain over warm ocean water long enough.

The correct answer is Full Employment Equilibrium

Key Points

• A full employment equilibrium means an economy is adequately using all its input resources such as labour, capital, land, real estate, and others.
• Full employment embodies the highest amount of skilled and unskilled labour that can be employed within an economy at any given time.
• Full employment is not the same as zero unemployment because there are different types of unemployment, and some are unavoidable.

Additional Information

Involuntary Unemployment equilibrium :

• Involuntary unemployment occurs when workers would be willing to work at the current wage, but can't find jobs.
• The types of unemployment are structural unemployment, frictional unemployment, cyclical unemployment, real-wage unemployment, and seasonal unemployment.
• An economy can be in equilibrium when there is unemployment in the economy when the aggregate demand= aggregate supply in the economy.

Underemployment equilibrium :

• Underemployment equilibrium describes a state in an economy where unemployment is persistently higher than usual.
• In this state, the economy has reached a point of macroeconomic equilibrium somewhere below full potential output, which results in sustained unemployment.

The correct answer is Article 18

Key Points

• Article 18 abolishes all titles. It prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen.
• Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give a title or honour to a man of merit.
• It states that No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State.

Additional Information

Article 25 

• Article 25 is Freedom of Conscience and Free Profession, Practice and Propagation of Religion.
• It is one of the Fundamental rights provided by the Constitution.
• This right is available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.

Article 14

• Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• Article 14 guarantees equality to all persons, including citizens, corporations, and foreigners.
• It is one of the Fundamental Rights provided to citizens.

Article 30

• Article 30 mentions that All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• It is also a Fundamental Right given in the Constitution.
• Our Constitution guarantees these rights to the minority community so that the diversity of the country is preserved and propagates their culture.

Given:

Marked Price = ₹2,500

Selling Price = ₹1,870

Discount1 = 15%

Formula used:

Selling Price = Marked Price × (100 - Discount1)% × (100 - Discount2)%

Calculation:

let other discount be x%

₹1,870 =  ₹2,500 × (100 - 15)% × (100 - Discount2)%

1870 = 2500 × (85)% × (100 - x)%

1870 = 2500 × \(\frac{85}{100}\) × \(\frac{100-x}{100}\)

187 = 250 × \(\frac{17}{20}\) × \(\frac{100-x}{100}\)

100 - x = \(\frac{187×100×20}{250×17}\)

100 - x = 88

x = 12

Other Discount is 12%

Answer is 12%.

Additional Information Marked Price (100 - Discount)% = Cost Price ( 100 ± Gain or Loss)%

Given:

If the market price of a shirt is 30% above the cost price and a discount of 20% is declared on it

Formula used:

Marked Price (100 - Discount)% = Cost Price ( 100 ± Gain or Loss)%

Calculation:

let 100x be the Cost price,

The market price of a shirt is 30% above the cost price,

Marked Price = 100x × (100 + 30)%

= 130x

Discount  = 20%

As per the formula;

130x (100 - 20) = 100x ( 100 + Gain)

(100 + Gain) = 130x × 80 / 100x

(100 + Gain) = 26 × 4

(100 + Gain) = 104

Gain = 4%

Answer is 4% gain.

Given:

The average of marks obtained by Shyam, Vazir and Pulkit was 87.5

The average of marks obtained by Shyam and Vazir was 62.7

The average of marks obtained by Vazir and Pulkit was 75.9

Formula used:

Total Sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

The Sum of marks obtained by Shyam, Vazir and Pulkit =  87.5 × 3 = 262.5  -----(1)

The Sum of marks obtained by Shyam and Vazir = 62.7 × 2 = 125.4  ------(2)

The Sum of marks obtained by Vazir and Pulkit = 75.9 × 2 = 151.8  ------(3)

By Adding (2) and (3) we get,

Shyam + 2 Vazir + Pulkit = 277.2   ------(4)

By Subtracting (1) from (2) we get,

Shyam + 2 Vazir + Pulkit - ( Shyam +  Vazir + Pulkit ) = 277.2 - 262.5

Vazir = 14.7

Marks obtained by Vazir is 14.7

Answer is 14.7.

Given:

   B A

× B A

6 2 A

Concepts used:

**RULES OF CRYPTARITHM:**​

1. Alphabets can take up only one distinct value.
2. Alphabets can only take up values between 0-9.0
3. Each Problem have a unique solution.

Calculation:

The given problem is a square of a two digit number,

the only perfect square that has 6 as a hundred's digit and 2 as a ten's digit is 625

Hence, the number BA is 25

   2 5

× 2 5

6 2 5

A = 5 and B = 2

Answer is A = 5 and B = 2.

Given:

\(\frac{19}{21}\),\(\frac{21}{25}\),\(\frac{25}{29}\),\(\frac{29}{31}\) and \(\frac{31}{37}\) 

Calculation:

\(\frac{19}{21}\) = 0.905(approx.)

\(\frac{21}{25}\) = 0.84

\(\frac{25}{29}\) = 0.86(approx.)

\(\frac{29}{31}\) = 0.93(approx.)

\(\frac{31}{37}\) = 0.838(approx.)

Arrange the numbers in ascending order of their values

\(\frac{31}{37}\) < \(\frac{21}{25}\) < \(\frac{25}{29}\) < \(\frac{19}{21}\) < \(\frac{29}{31}\)

\(\frac{21}{25}\) will be the second in the order

Answer is \(\frac{21}{25}\).

Given:

The radii of two spheres is in the ratio of 1 ∶ 2

If the volume of the large sphere is 512 cm³

Calculation:

Let x be the Volume of the small sphere

The radii of two spheres is in the ratio of 1 ∶ 2,

Cube of the ratio of the radius of the spheres is 1³ : 2³

= 1 : 8

Ratio of the volumes of the spheres = Cube of the ratio of the radius of the spheres

x : 512 = 1 : 8

x = 64cm³

Answer is 64cm³.

Alternate MethodGiven:

The radii of two spheres is in the ratio of 1 ∶ 2

If the volume of the large sphere is 512 cm3

Formula used:

Volume of a sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr³

Calculation:

The radii of two spheres is in the ratio of 1 ∶ 2

let x and 2x be the radius of smaller sphere and larger sphere

\(\frac{Volume\ Of \ The \ Large \ Sphere}{Volume\ Of \ The \ Small \ Sphere}\) = \(\frac{\frac{4}{3}\timesπ\times (2x)^3}{\frac{4}{3}\timesπ\times x^3}\)

\(\frac{512}{Volume\ Of \ The \ Small \ Sphere}\) = \(\frac{ 8x^3}{x^3}\)

Volume of the small sphere = 512/8

= 64cm³

Answer is 64cm3

Given:

\({\left( {\frac{1}{3}} \right)^{ - \frac{1}{2}}}\)

Concept used:

x^-1 = \(\frac{1}{x}\)

Calculation:

\({\left( {\frac{1}{3}} \right)^{ - \frac{1}{2}}} \)

= \({\left( {3} \right)^{ \frac{1}{2}}}\)

= \(\sqrt3 \)

Answer is \(\sqrt 3\) .