DSSSB Head Clerk Official Paper (Held on:22 Feb 2022 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

From the given information,

Pillar R is to the east of Pillar S and Pillar R is to the west to the Pillar Q.

Pillar Q is to the north of Pillar P and Pillar S is to the north of Pillar T.

So, the final figure will be;

Thus the position of Pillar Q with respect to Pillar T is "North – east". 

Hence, the correct answer is “North – east”.

The logic followed here is:- 

Add place value of letters with in the word according to the English Alphabet.

CARE = 3 + 1 + 18  +5 = 27

BAT = 2 + 1 + 20 = 23

Similarly,

DROPS = 4 + 18 + 15 + 16 + 19 = 72

Hence, the correct answer is "72".

The given codes in the statement can be represented as,

From the above diagram, the codes for each word can be deducted as:- 

So, it is clear that the code for "Clouds" is "st".

Hence, the correct answer is "st".

According to the given information,

There are six boxes placed one above the other and bottom most box is numbered 1 and so on. 

• Mats were placed in the bottom most box and in the top most box tableware were placed.

• One variety old stuff was kept between books and mats.
• Toys were placed in then box above books but below clothes.

That means, Book will be placed in the 3rd box. Toy and clothes will placed according to the condition. 

Now, only one old stuff is remaining that is Newspapers and 3rd numbered box is vacant where we can put newpapers.

So, the final table would be like :-

So, Newspaper will sit between Books and Mats. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Newspaper".

According to the given information,

Only three person older than C, that means C would be the 4th oldest person.

B is the youngest that means B would sit at the last position.

• B < C < — < — < —

A is younger than D but older than E.

• E < A < D

Now, the final arrangement will be like:-

• B < C < E < A < D

so, from the above arrangement, it is clear that D will be the eldest among all.

Hence, the correct answer is "D".

Given series:-

 (Left) D F * S % 8 E 2 ^ 6 L & 2 T Y # 3 5 $ (Right)

If we drop all the symbols in the given series, then the given series will be like;

 **(**Left) D F S 8 E 2 6 L 2 T Y 3 5 (Right)

In this series, the fifth element from the right end is 2. 

 (Left) D F S 8 E 2 6 L 2 T Y 3 5 (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "2".

According to the given statement, the least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusion (I):- Some lambs are parrots → True (According to the Venn diagram, Some parts of lambs are also part of Parrots. So, Conclusion I follows).

Conclusion (II):- All lambs are rabbits → False (All lambs can be Rabbits but not definite).

Hence, the correct answer is "Only (I) follows."

The given word is:-

DESIGN

Now, Re- arrange the word DESIGN according to the English Alphabet.

DEGINS 

Now, compare both the words;

 

So, from the above figure, it is clear that there are only 3 alphabets that will remain unchanged after re-arrangement.

Hence, The correct answer is "Three​".

According to the statement, the given codes can be represented as:- 

So, it is clear from the above figure that the code for green is np. 

Hence, the correct answer is "np".

According to the given information, Arun's position can be shown as:-

Total number of student = (Position of person from left + position of person from right) - 1 

Total number of student = (14 + 15 ) - 1 = 28 

Hence, the correct answer is "28".

According to the given information,

• C has an exam on Friday and B has an exam immediate before C.

• Only one person has an exam between C and E.
• A do not have an exam on the first day of their schedule, that means A don't have an exam on Monday. So, A will have an exam on Tuesday.
• Here, only D is remaining. So, D will have an exam on Monday.

Now, the final arrangement will be like :- 

From the above table, it is clear that three persons (E, B and C) have their exams after A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Three".

Given:- 

Number of student stand between Anil and Rini = Total number of student - (Position of Anil from left + position of Rini from right)

                                                                  =  35 - (18 + 14)

                                                                  = 35 - 32 

Number of student stand between Anil and Rini = 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Three".

According to the given information, seven people are sitting in a straight line, facing south.

• Only 2 people sit to the left of 1.
• Only three people sit between 5 and 1.
• 3 sits at the one of the extreme end.

• 2 sits third to the right of 3.
• 4 sits to the immediate right of 6.
• Now, 7 will sit on 2nd position from left end.

So, the final arrangement will be ;

From the above figure, it is clear that three people will sit between 7 and 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Three".

According to the given information, this Venn diagram can be deducted;

So, from the above figure, it is clear that there are 2 tablets are present which will also be laptops but not mobiles.

Hence, the correct answer is "2".

According to the given conditions, there are seven people are sitting in a straight line, facing north.

• 4 sits at one of the extreme end.
• 7 sits to the immediate right of 4, that means 4 sits at the extreme left end.
• 3 sits in the middle of the row.

• Only two people sit to the left of 1.
• Only three people sit between 5 and 1.

• 2 is not the immediate neighbor of 3, that means 2 will sit on 2nd from right end.
• And 6 will sit on the remaining vacant place.

So, the final arrangement will be as;

From the above figure, it is clear that 6 is 3rd from the right end.

Hence, the correct answer is "Third".

Here, A, B, C, D and E live on five different floors of the same building.  The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 5.

According to the given condition,

• B lives on an even numbered floor but not on 4^th floor. So, B sits on 2^nd floor.
• C lives an immediately below A and on even numbered floor. So, C sits on 4^th floor and A sits on 5^th floor.

• Only two people live below D, that means D sits on 3^rd floor.
• Only 1^st floor is vacant where E will sit.

From the above table, it is clear that 4 people will sit above E.

Hence, the correct answer is "four".

According to the given conditions,

Each letter of each word change to next letter in English alphabet;

TRY → USZ → One vowel

BAT → CBU → One vowel 

PEN → QFO → One vowel

GUN → HVO → One vowel

So, from the above information, it is clear that each word will have one vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is "None".

As we know, sun appears in east in the morning.

So, from the above figure, it is clear that Danish faces in the north.

Hence, the correct answer is "North".

According to the given information, this figure can be deducted;

So, from the above figure, it is clear that there two such pairs are possible (Between L - O and U - T).

Hence, the correct answer is "Two".

According to the given information,

M × H ÷ J → M is the brother of H and H is the daughter of J.

The family tree will be like;

So, from this figure, it is clear that M is son of J.

Hence, the correct answer is "M is son of J".

The logic followed here is:

(Word) → (Number of letters in the word)²

• BOY is related to 9

​

• SLATE is related to 25.

​

​Similarly,

• INSERT is related to

​

Hence, the correct answer is "36".

The logic followed here is :

All the given figures have some letters inside a square. The letters in all the figure are consonants except in option (1).

In option (1), alphabet 'E' is inside the square which is a 'vowel'.

Thus, 'option 1' does not follows the same logic that is being followed by other options, so it is is different.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

Given:

U + N means U is the father of N;

U – N means U is the mother of N

U × N means U is the brother of N

U ÷ N means U is the sister of N.

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree

On checking each option one by one :

1) P + Q × R

→ Here, P is the father of Q and Q is the brother of R.

 

2) P – Q + R

→ Here, P is the mother of Q and Q is the father of R.

 

→ Here, P is paternal grand mother of R not paternal grand father.

3) P + Q + R

→ Here, P is the father of Q and Q is father of R

 

→ Here, P is paternal grand father of R. 

4) R × S + P

→ Here, R is brother of S and S is father of P.

 

Clearly, only option (3) follows the condition that 'P is paternal grandfather (father’s father) of R'.

Hence, the correct answer is "P + Q + R".

By using the following symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

As per the given information: ​

• T is the son of U but U is not the mother of T.
• S and U are a married couple.
• X is the brother of U.
• W is the daughter of S.
• Y is the brother of T.​

Therefore, the following family tree can be drawn:

 

Thus, it is clear from the above diagram that 'X is Father’s brother of W'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Father’s brother".

The logic followed here is :

The first figure contains "a word" and second figure contains "the inverted image of that word ".

In the first part of the question, the first figure contains a word "CARROT" and in the second figure the mirror image of the word 'CARROT' is given.

• Figure A to B:​

​

Similarly,

In the second part of the question, the first figure contains a word 'SmOoker'

So, in the second figure will have the mirror image of the word 'SmOoker'.

• Figure C to D:

 

 Thus, the final arrangement will be:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

The logic follows here is;

According to the given information:

• Tom : Queen

→ 'Tom' is a male cat while 'Queen' is female cat.

Similarly,

• Buck : ?

→ 'Buck' is a male deer and a female deer is called a 'Doe'.

Thus, 'Buck is to Doe'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Doe".

Additional Information

Given equation: {15 × (3 × 24) ÷ 360 + 72 – 8} ÷ 11 = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule as per the order given below:

Calculation:

⇒ {15 × (3 × 24) ÷ 360 + 72 – 8} ÷ 11 

⇒ {15 × (3 × 16) ÷ 360 + 72 – 8} ÷ 11 

⇒ {15 × 48 ÷ 360 + 72 – 8} ÷ 11 

⇒ {15 × 0.13 + 72 – 8} ÷ 11

⇒ {1.95 + 72 – 8} ÷ 11 (taking approximate value of 1.95 = 2)

⇒ {2 + 72 – 8} ÷ 11 

⇒ {74 – 8} ÷ 11 

⇒ {66} ÷ 11 

⇒ 6

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

The logic followed here is :

The first figure contains "a word" and second figure contains "the water reflection of that word ".

In the first part of the question, the first figure contains a word "NebulizeR" and in the second figure the water image of the word 'NebulizeR' is given.

• Figure A to B:​

​

Similarly,

In the second part of the question, the first figure contains a word 'TROPICANA'

So, in the second figure will have the water reflection of the word 'TROPICANA'.

• Figure C to D:

​

 Thus, the final arrangement will be:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

Given equation: 14.99 – 5.23 + 25.89 × 7.19 = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule as per the order given below:

Calculation:

After replacing the sign from left to right and using BODMAS rule, we get  

New Equation: 15 – 5 + 26 × 7 = ?

Calculation :

⇒15 – 5 + 26 × 7

⇒ 15 – 5 + 182

⇒ 197 – 5 

⇒ 192

Hence, the correct answer is "192".

By using the following symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

As per the given information: ​

• G and H are a married couple.
• H is the daughter-in-law of L.
• I is G’s brother.
• J is the only son of I.
• T is the sister of J.

Therefore, the following family tree can be drawn:

 

Clearly, 'H is Sister-in-law of I'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Sister in law".

Given Series : 121, 128, 139, 152, 169, 190, 211, 240

The logic followed here is:

"Next number in the series is obtained by adding consecutive prime number starting from '7', to the previous number.

 

According to the logic, a consecutive prime number is added to the previous numbers but in the given series '21' is added to the 5th term i.e. '169' which gives the wrong term of the series which is "190".

Therefore, the wrong term in the series is 190.

Thus, the correct series is:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "190".

The logic followed here is:

When the mirror is held vertically, the left side and right side changed vice-versa where the top and bottom remain the same.

Thus the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held vertically at PQ is:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain the same.

Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.

The water image of the figure looks like mirror image of the figure, in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.

The pattern followed here is,

Let (1st number : 2nd number)

(Square of 1st number ) - 4 = (2nd number)

Now by following the same pattern we have:

• 9 : 77

​⇒ ( 9²) - 4 = (81 - 4) = 77 = 2nd number

Similarly,

• 16 : ?

⇒ ( 16²) - 4 = (256 - 4) = 252 = 2nd number​

Hence, the correct answer is "252".

The logic followed here is:

 

Duckling, Cygnet, and Fawn are all young animals but Vixen is a female fox.

Hence, the correct answer is "Vixen".

 Additional Information

Given : 24, 28, 64, 208, ?

The logic followed here is :

Hence, the correct answer is "608".

The logic follows here is :

Figure 1 to Figure 2 →

• 'S' and 'T' interchange their positions and then rotated 45° anti-clockwise.
• '$' and '+' interchange their position and then rotated 45° anti-clockwise.
• 'V' remains at same position.

 

​Figure 2 to Figure 3 →

• 'T' is shifted to 2nd position, 'S' is shifted to 3rd position, 'V' is shifted to 4th position, and  '+' is shifted to 5th position, and '$' is shifted to 1st position.
• Now, all the symbols are arranged in horizontal line at the middle such as : $ T S V +

​

​Figure 3 to Figure 4 →

• $ and T interchange their positions and then rotated 45° anti-clockwise.
• 'V' and '+' interchange their positions and then rotated 45° anti-clockwise.
• 'S' remains at same position.

 

​Figure 4 to Figure 5 →

• 'V' is shifted to 5th position, 'T' is shifted to 4th position, '$' is shifted to 3rd position, 'S' is shifted to 2nd position, and '+' went to 1st position.
• Now, all the symbols are arranged in vertical line at the middle such as : + S $ T V

​

Similarly,

​Figure 5 to Figure 6 →

• '+' and 'S' interchange their positions and then rotated 45° anticlockwise.
• 'T' and 'V' interchange their positions and then rotated 45° clockwise.
• '$' remains at same position.

So the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below :

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

The logic followed here is:

In the water image, the top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.

Thus the correct water image of the given figure is:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The logic followed here is,

Required figure is given below,

So, 25 is following the required logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "25".

The logic followed here is :

The paper when unfolded will look like this :

Hence, the correct answer is "option (4)".

The logic follows here is :

On close observation, we find that the problem figure is embedded in option (4) as shown below :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is 'Assam'.

Key PointsSattriya Dance

• Sattriya dance is one of the eight main Indian classical dance traditions.
• This dance is the classical dance of Assam.
• In the year 2000, this dance got the distinction of being included in the eight classical dances of India.
• The founder of this dance is the great saint Srimanta Sankardev.
• It was an artistic way of presenting mythological teachings to the people in an accessible, immediate and entertaining way.

Thus, the correct answer is Assam.

Important PointsLet's have a look at other options:

The correct answer is 'Vijay Stambh - Rajasthan'.

Key PointsLet's have a look at all options:

• Statue of Unity - Maharashtra: This pair is incorrect because the monument, Statue of Unity is in Gujarat State.
• Vijay Stambh - Rajasthan:  This pair is correct.
• Lingaraj Temple - Karnataka: This pair is incorrect because the monument, Lingaraj Temple is in State.Odisha
• Vivekananda Rock Memorial - Himachal Pradesh: This pair is incorrect because the monument, Vivekananda Rock Memorial is in Tamil Nadu State.

Thus, the correct answer is Vijay Stambh - Rajasthan.

Additional InformationLet's see some facts related to the monuments given in the options:

• Statue of Unity
• ​The Statue of Unity is the world's tallest statue, with a height of 182 metres.
• It depicts Indian statesman and independence activist Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (1875–1950), who was the first deputy prime minister and home minister of independent India and an adherent of Mahatma Gandhi.
• Vijay Stambh
• ​The Vijaya Stambha is an imposing victory monument located within Chittor Fort in Chittorgarh.
• The tower was constructed by the Hindu Rajput king Rana Kumbha of Mewar in 1448 to commemorate his victory over the army of Malwa led by Mahmud Khalji in the Battle of Sarangpur.
• The tower is dedicated to Hindu God Vishnu.
• Lingaraj Temple
• ​The Lingaraja temple is the oldest and largest temple in Bhubaneswar.
• Lingaraja Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva and one of the major tourist attractions of the state.
• Vivekananda Rock Memorial
• ​Vivekananda Rock Memorial is a popular tourist attraction in Kanyakumari, India's southernmost tip.
• It was built in 1970 in honour of Swami Vivekananda, who is said to have attained enlightenment on the rock.

The correct answer is 'Social Democratic Party'.

Key Points

• Olaf Scholz:
• Olaf Scholz (Born on 14 June 1958) is a German politician who has served as the chancellor of Germany since 8 December 2021.
• He is a member of the Social Democratic Party (SPD).
• He served as Vice Chancellor under Angela Merkel and Federal Minister of Finance from 2018 to 2021.
• He was also the First Mayor of Hamburg from 2011 to 2018.
• He was also the deputy leader of the SPD from 2009 to 2019.

Thus, the correct answer is Social Democratic Party.

Additional InformationLet's have a look at all options:

• Social Democratic Party
• ​It is Germany’s oldest political party and one of its main parties.
• It advocates the modernization of the economy to meet the demands of globalization, but it also stresses the need to address the social needs of workers and society’s disadvantaged.
• German Republic Party
• ​It is a German ultranationalist political party.
• It is founded in West Germany in 1983.

The correct answer is 'MardaniJhumar'.

Key Points

• Mardani Jhumar
• It is a folk dance of Jharkhand.
• Mardani Jhumar is performed by men to celebrate the happiness of the harvest season.
• Men wear Ghongroo and dance in a circle by holding each other's hands.
• Musical instruments used in this dance are Mandar, Nagara, Dhak and Shehnai or Bansi.

Thus, the correct answer is MardaniJhumar.

Important PointsLet's have a look at other options:

The correct answer is 'Education is one of the sectors proposed under the Make in India initiative'.

Key PointsMake in India

• The "Make in India" initiative was launched on September 25, 2014, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at a function held at Vigyan Bhawan.
• Thus, option 1 is correct.
• Its aim is to -
• Transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub
• Promote India's economic development
• To create more employment opportunities
• Attract more Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). Thus, option 3 is correct.
• There are 25 sectors proposed under the Make in India initiative which are as follows:

1. Automobiles
2. Automobiles Components
3. Aviation
4. Biotechnology
5. Chemicals
6. Construction
7. Defense manufacturing
8. Electrical machinery
9. Electronic system design
10. Manufacturing
11. Food processing
12. IT and BPM
13. Leather
14. Media and entertainment
15. Mining
16. Oil and gas
17. Pharmaceuticals
18. Ports
19. Railways
20. Renewable energy
21. Roads and highways
22. Space
23. Textiles
24. Thermal power
25. Tourism & Hospitality and Wellness. Thus, option 4 is correct but option 2 is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is Education is one of the sectors proposed under the Make in India initiative.

The correct answer is 'Right to Information Act, 2005'.

Key PointsThe Central Information Commission:

• The Central Information Commission has been constituted with effect from 12-10-2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
• The jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities.
• The Commission has certain powers and functions mentioned in sections 18, 19, 20, and 25 of the RTI Act, 2005.
• These broadly relate to
• adjudication in the second appeal for giving information;
• direction for record keeping, Suo Motu disclosures receiving and enquiring into a complaint on inability to file RTI etc;
• imposition of penalties and Monitoring and Reporting including preparation of an Annual Report.
• The decisions of the Commission are final and binding.

Thus, the correct answer is the Right to Information Act, 2005.

Additional Information

• The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017:
• ​In India, the Mental Health Care Act 2017 was passed on 7 April 2017 and came into force on 29 May 2018.
• The act effectively decriminalized attempted suicide which was punishable under Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code.
• The law was described as;
• "An Act to provide for mental healthcare and services for persons with mental illness and to protect, promote and fulfill the rights of such persons during delivery of mental healthcare and services and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto."
• This Act superseded the previously existing Mental Health Act, 1987 which was passed on 22 May 1987.
• The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013:
• ​The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.
• Commonly known as The Lokpal Act, is an anti-corruption Act of the Indian Parliament in India.
• These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.
• They perform the function of an "ombudsman” and inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and related matters.
• Right to Education Act, 2009:
• ​The Right to Education Act 2009, also known as the RTE Act 2009, was enacted by the Parliament of India on 4 August 2009.
• It describes modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children aged between 6-14 years in India under Article 21 (A) of the Constitution of India.
• This act came into effect on 1 April 2010 and made India one of the 135 countries to have made education a fundamental right for every child.
• Right to Information Act, 2005:
• The Right to Information (RTI) is an act of the Parliament of India which sets out the rules and procedures regarding citizens' right to information.
• It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act of 2002.
• The RTI Bill was passed by the Parliament of India on 15 June 2005 and came into force with effect on 12 October 2005.
• Under the provisions of the Act, any citizen of India may request information from a "public authority" (a body of Government or "instrumentality of State") which is required to reply expeditiously or within 30 days.
• In case of a matter involving a petitioner's life and liberty, the information has to be provided within 48 hours.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Nuakhai or Navakhai or is an agricultural festival mainly observed by people of Western Odisha and Southern Chhattisgarh in India.
• Nuakhai is one of the unique social festivals which gets its name from the word nua meaning new and khai meaning food.
• Nuakhai is understood to have nine colors and as a consequence,

• The preparations begin some 15 days prior to the date of the festival when the elderly persons of the village sit together at a holy place after the beheren calls the villagers by blowing a trumpet.

Additional InformationFamous Festivals of states in India:

The correct answer is 'Chandragupta, Bindusara and Ashoka'.

Key Points

• Chandragupta dethroned the last Nanda Ruler Dhananand and occupied Patliputa in 322 BC with the help of Kautilya (Chanakya).
• This marked the beginning of the Mauryan Empire.
• Then Chandragupta Maurya was succeeded by his son Bindusara.
• Ashoka, the son of Bindusara, had himself formally crowned in 269 BC after killing his 99 brothers.
• Hence, the correct chronological order is Chandragupta, Bindusara and Ashoka.

The correct answer is 'Neeraj Chopra, Ravi Kumar, Lovlina Borgohain, Sreejesh P. R'.

Key PointsMajor Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:

• It is the biggest sports award given in India.
• It was earlier known as Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.
• This award is given annually by the Ministry of Sports and Youth.
• This award is given to those who have made an outstanding performance in the field of sports during the last four years at the international level.
• In this award, a medal, a citation and a cash amount (25 lakh) are given to the awardee.
• List of Awardees of 2021:
• ​Neeraj Chopra (Athletics)
• Ravi Kumar (Wrestling)
• Lovlina Borgohain (Boxing)
• P R Sreejesh (Hockey)
• Avani Lekhara (Para Shooting)
• Sumit Antil (Para Athletics)
• Pramod Bhagat (Para Badminton)
• Krishna Nagar (Para Badminton)
• Manish Narwal (Para Shooting)
• Mithali Raj (Cricket)
• Sunil Chhetri (Football)
• Manpreet Singh (Hockey)

The correct answer is ‘The Great Bath’ was discovered at the site of Kalibanga'.

Key Points The Great Bath

• The Great Bath was excavated from Mohenjo-Daro. Thus, option 2 is incorrect.
• Mohenjo-Daro was the largest Harappan site situated on the Indus river currently in Pakistan.
• The Great Bath was the largest building of Harappan Civilisation (also known as Indus Civilisation).
• It shows the importance of ritualistic bathing. Thus, option 1 is correct.
• There is no leakage or cracks in the construction of ‘The Great Bath'. Thus, option 3 is correct.
• It reflects the cleanliness of this culture. Thus, option 4 is correct.
• In addition to this, Great Granary, Assembly Hall, etc. were also excavated.
• The excavators were Rakhal Das Bannerji (1922), Mackay (1927) & Wheeler (1930).

The correct answer is 'Bangladesh'.

Key Points Bangladesh

• The Republic of Bangladesh is a nation in South Asia.
• The north, east and west borders of the country meet with India.
• At the time of the partition of India in 1947, it was declared as the eastern part of Pakistan by the name of 'East Pakistan'.
• The Pakistani military, with the help of local leaders and religious extremists, committed human rights abuses in East Pakistan.
• On 26 March 1971, the independence of Bangladesh was declared and the liberation war was started.
• Independence was achieved through nine months of civil war against the Pakistani army.
• The victory was finally achieved in the same year on 16 December, which is celebrated as Victory Day.
• Thus in 1971 East Pakistan became Bangladesh.

Important PointsLet's have a look at all options:

The correct answer is 'Cooch Bihar Trophy – Football'.

Key PointsLet's have a look at all options:

Thus, the correct answer is Cooch Behar Trophy – Football.

Additional Information Cups & Trophies related to Football:

• Durand Cup
• Rovers Cup
• Colombo Cup
• Santosh Trophy

The correct answer is 'PSLV-C25'.

Key Points

• Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM):
• It is also called Mangalyaan.
• It was launched on 5 November 2013 by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• It was launched by the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) rocket C25.
• It made India the first Asian nation to reach Martian orbit and the first nation in the world to do so on its maiden attempt.

Thus, the correct answer is PSLV-C25.

Additional Information

• About ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation):
• Headquarters: Bengaluru
• Founded: 15 August 1969
• Founder: Vikram Sarabhai
• Chairman: Dr S Somanath

The correct answer is '3'.

Key PointsNational Education Policies

• The First education policy in India was released in 1968 by the government of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• The Second National Education Policy was released in 1986 by the then Prime Minister, **Rajiv Gandhi.**​​​
• National Educational Policy 1986 was further revised in 1992.
• Now the Government of India has come up with a third new education policy (NEP, 2020) to strengthen the Indian education system.
• The New Education Policy was released by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) under the guidance of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.**
• Hence, a total of 3 national education policies have been introduced till now.

Additional Information

National Education Policy 2020:

• The NEP 2020 is the first education policy of the 21st century and replaces the 34-year-old National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986.
• It is built on the foundational pillars of Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability, and Accountability.
• This policy is aligned with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• It aims to transform India into a vibrant knowledge society and global knowledge superpower by making both school and college education.

The correct answer is 'Outstanding performance in Sports and Games’ is given for good performance over a period of previous four years'.

Key PointsArjuna Award: 

• Arjuna Award is an award given to sportspersons for their outstanding performance in the field of sports and games.
• It is awarded to sportspersons who have consistently performed well at the international level in the last four years and have demonstrated qualities such as leadership, sportsmanship, and discipline.
• The purpose of these awards was to reward the players and make them more enthusiastic about sports.
• The Arjuna Award carries a cash prize of ₹15 lakh and a bronze statue of Arjuna, traditional dress and a 'citation'.
• As of 2021, a total of 916 Recipients have received the Arjuna Award.

Important PointsLet's have a look at other options:

The correct answer is 'Indira Kala Sangeet Vishwavidyalaya'.

Key PointsIndira Kala Sangeet Vishwavidyalaya:

• Established in the Year 1956, Indira Kala Sangeet Vishwavidyalaya “IKSV” is situated in the Khairagarh township of Chhattisgarh State of India.
• It is a different University by its type, where higher education is imparted in the field of Music, Dance, Fine Arts and Theatre.
• Indira Kala Sangeet Vishwavidyalaya was established by the 24th Raja Virendra Bahadur Singh of the princely state of Khairagarh and Rani Padmavati Devi in ​​the name of their princess 'Indira' on her birthday on 14 October 1956.

Important PointsLet's have a look at all options:

The correct answer is '1971'.

Key PointsAmar Jawan Jyoti:

• Amar Jawan Jyoti is an Indian memorial built after the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 in memory of the martyred and unknown soldiers of the Indian Armed Forces who died during the war.
• The memorial was constructed in December 1971 and inaugurated by Indira Gandhi in 1972 under the India Gate at Rajpath in New Delhi.
• Amar Jawan Jyoti has a marble pedestal with a tomb on it.
• "Amar Jawan" is written in gold all around the memorial and at the top, stands an L1A1 self-loading rifle with the helmet of the unknown soldier on its barrel.
• The asana is tied to four urns, one of which holds a continuously burning flame.

The correct answer is 'Sarnath'.

Key Points

• The State Emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath.
• The Lion Capital of Ashoka is the capital, or head, of a column, erected by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka in 250 BCE in Sarnath, a Buddhist site in India.
• Erected after Ashoka's conversion to Buddhism, it commemorated the site of Gautama Buddha's first sermon some two centuries before.
• The profile of the Lion Capital shows three lions mounted on the abacus with a Dharma Chakra in the centre, a bull on the right and a galloping horse on the left.
• The outlines of Dharma Chakras on the extreme right and left were adopted as the State Emblem of India on January 26, 1950.
• The bell-shaped lotus was omitted.
• The motto Satyameva Jayate, which means 'Truth Alone Triumphs', written in Devanagari script below the profile of the Lion Capital is part of the State Emblem of India.

Additional InformationLet's have a look at other options:

• Rajgir
• ​Rajgir was the first capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha, a state that would eventually evolve into the Mauryan Empire.
• Lumbini
• ​It is the birthplace of Siddhartha Gautama who eventually became Gautama Buddha.
• Bodh Gaya
• ​It is the place where Gautama Buddha is said to have attained Enlightenment under the Bodhi Tree.

The correct answer is Kanchipuram.

Key Points

• The capital city of the Pallavas was Kanchipuram.
• The Pallavas emerged as a formidable power in the South around the 4th century AD and were at the height of their power in the seventh century AD.
• They were able to sustain their rule for about 500 years.
• They built great cities, centres of learning, temples, and sculptures and influenced a large part of Southeast Asia in culture.

Additional Information

• Simha Vishnu is considered the founder of the Pallavas.
• He put an end to the political disturbances created by Kalabhras.
• The Land up to Kaveri was acquired by him.
• Mahendravarman I is considered to be the greatest ruler of the Pallavas.
• His reign was marked by many architectural and literary achievements which would lay the foundations of the future Art and Culture of South India.
• Narasimhavarman II built the Shore Temple and the Kanchi Kailasanathar Temple at Mahabalipuram.
• These temples are based on the Rajsingh style.

​

The correct answer is 'Jainism'.

Key PointsParyushana Parva:

• ParyushanParva is an important festival associated with Jainism.
• Jain religion celebrates the Paryushana Parva in the month of Bhadrapada.
• Paryushan of the Shvetambara sect lasts for 8 days.
• On the 8th day, the important festival of the people of Jainism, Samvatsari Mahaparva is celebrated.
• The festival of forgiveness is celebrated at the end of the Paryushan Parwa.
• After that, the Digambar sect celebrates Paryushan for 10 days.
• They address them by the name of 'Daslakshana Dharma'.
• During these ten days, the devotees observe fasting etc. according to their power.
• Most of the time is spent worshipping the Lord.

Important PointsLet's have a look at other options:

The correct answer is I, II, IV.

Explanation:

• Each cell in the human body has 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46.
• Twenty-two of these pairings, referred to as autosomes, are identical in males and females.
• Males and females have different sex chromosomes, the 23rd pair.
• Males have one X and one Y chromosome, while females have two copies of the X chromosome.
• Men have a mismatched set of sex chromosomes, with one being a normal-sized X and the other being a short Y, resulting in XY. An X and a Y chromosome are found on the 23rd pair in males.
• The 23rd pair of X chromosomes in females has two of them. Girls have a perfect sex chromosomal pair as a result.

The correct answer is Water vapour is a variable gas in the atmosphere.

Key Points

• Water vapour, an important component climatically, ranges from 0 to 5% by volume in the atmosphere.
• It is received through the evaporation of moisture from water bodies, vegetation and soil cover.
• Vapour depends on temperature and hence it decreases from the equator poleward in response to decreasing temperature towards the poles.
• The moisture content in the atmosphere creates several forms of condensation like clouds, fog, dew, rainfall, frost, hailstorm, snow, etc.
• Water vapour is almost transparent for the incoming short-wave solar radiation but is less transparent for outgoing long-wave radiation.
• Thus it helps in heating the earth’s surface and the lower atmosphere because it absorbs terrestrial radiation.

The correct answer is Border Road Organisation.

Key Points

• Atal Tunnel:
• Atal Tunnel is named after former Prime Minister of India, Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• It is a highway tunnel built under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas on the Leh-Manali Highway in Himachal Pradesh.
• At a length of 9.02 km, it is the longest highway single-tube tunnel above 10,000 feet (3,048 m) in the world.
• Border Road Organisation:
• The Border Roads Organisation is a road construction executive force in India founded in 1960.
• It provides support to and is now a part of the Indian Armed Forces.
• BRO develops and maintains road networks in India's border areas and friendly neighbouring countries.

Additional Information

• The National Highways Authority of India or NHAI is an autonomous agency of the Government of India.
• It was set up in 1995 and is responsible for the management of a network of over 50,000 km of National Highways in India.
• It is a nodal agency of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

The correct answer is West Bengal, Bihar, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• As per the 2011 census, the population of -
• West Bengal was 9,13,47,736 ~ 9 cr.
• Bihar was 10,38,04,637 ~ 10 cr.
• Maharashtra was 11,23,72,972 ~ 11 cr.
• Uttar Pradesh was 19,98,12,341 ~ 20 cr.
• Thus, option 4 has the correct order.

Additional Information

• The 4 least most populous states in India as per the 2011 census were -
• Goa -14,57,723 ~ 14 lac
• Arunachal Pradesh - 13,82,611~ 13 lac
• Mizoram - 10,91,014 ~ 10 lac
• Sikkim - 6,07,688 ~ 6 lac

The correct answer is 1911-1921.

Key Points

• Nearly 65 lakh people died from the plague between 1901 and 1911.
• The plague was far more prevalent in towns than in rural areas.
• There were 954 females per 1,000 males in 1911 as compared to 963 females per 1,000 males in 1901.
• The report says that this decrease was due to female mortality as a result of epidemics such as plague and malaria.
• Due to the occurrence of influenza in 1918, the mortality rate of the country increased and caused 1.4 crore deaths in the country.
• In addition, the occurrence of famine, plague, and malaria also resulted in the decline of the population.
• All of these resulted in a significant decline in population leading to a negative growth rate.
• The census year 1911- 1921 registered a negative growth rate of-0.31 percent which happened only once throughout the demographic history of India.

Additional Information

• The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011.
• It has been undertaken every 10 years, after the first complete census was undertaken in 1881 under Viceroy Lord Ripon.
• The first unofficial census was undertaken in 1872 under British Viceroy Lord Mayo.

The correct answer is Fats give less energy as compared to the same amount of carbohydrates.

Key Points

• Macronutrients are the nutrients that your body needs in large amounts, which include fat, carbohydrates, and protein.
• They're the nutrients that give you energy and are often called "macros".
• The body will first process carbohydrates, then fats, then proteins.
• Fats
• Fats are the slowest source of energy but the most energy-efficient form of food.
• Each gram of fat supplies the body with about 9 calories, more than twice that supplied by proteins or carbohydrates.
• Because fats are such an efficient form of energy, the body stores any excess energy as fat.

Additional Information

• Vitamins are a group of substances that are needed for normal cell function, growth, and development.
• Vitamins are vital for good health, but needed in much smaller amounts than macro-nutrients, like carbs and fats.
• A protein is a naturally occurring, extremely complex substance that consists of amino acid residues joined by peptide bonds.
• Proteins help in:
• building tissues and muscles
• repairing body tissues
• hormone production
• production of enzymes
• boosting immune function, etc.

The correct answer is Ground Water.

Key Points

• The erosion and transportation of earth materials are brought about by the wind, running water, glaciers, waves and groundwater.
• Of these, the first three agents are controlled by climatic conditions.
• Thus, option 2 is the correct choice.
• They represent three states of matter - gaseous (wind), liquid (running water) and solid (glacier) respectively.
• Groundwater
• Groundwater is fresh water (from rain or melting ice and snow) that soaks into the soil and is stored in the tiny spaces (pores) between rocks and particles of soil.
• Groundwater accounts for nearly 95 percent of the nation's fresh water resources.

Additional Information

• Liquid water is the major agent of erosion on Earth.
• Rain, rivers, floods, lakes, and the ocean carry away bits of soil and sand and slowly wash away the sediment.
• Glaciers cause erosion by plucking and abrasion.
• Valley glaciers form several unique features through erosion, including cirques, arêtes, and horns.
• Wind is a powerful agent of erosion.
• Aeolian (wind-driven) processes constantly transport dust, sand, and ash from one place to another.
• Wind can sometimes blow sand into towering dunes.

The correct answer is ​A main Worker is a person who works for at least 183 days or six months in a year.

Key Points

• Workers were mainly classified as main workers and marginal workers on the basis of their work.
• Those workers who had worked for the major part of the year were termed as main workers.
• A person who works for at least 183 days in a year for economic productivity, is considered a 'main worker'.
• Main workers constitute 77.8 percent of the total workers in India.

Additional Information

• Those who do not work for the major part of the year are termed, marginal workers.
• These workers work for less than 6 months or less than 183 days in a year.

The correct answer is the power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.

Key Points

• The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
• The focal length of the lens is the distance between the lens and the image sensor when the subject is in focus
• The power P of a lens of focal length f (in meters) is given by P=(1/f).
• The SI unit of power of a lens is 'dioptre'.

Additional Information

• Nearsightedness (myopia) is a common vision condition in which you can see objects near you clearly, but objects farther away are blurry.
• Glasses for myopia are often created with a concave (curved inwards) single vision lens, which moves the focus of the light to help you see clearly.
• Farsightedness (hypermetropia) is the condition of the eyes where the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina.
• Convex lenses are used to treat presbyopia, hypermetropia and aphakia.

The correct answer is Rajendra Prasad.

Key Points

• Rajendra Prasad
• Rajendra Prasad served as the first president of the Republic of India from 1950 to 1962.
• Prasad had a major role in the Independence Movement.
• He was so greatly moved by the dedication, courage, and conviction of Mahatma Gandhi that he retired from his lucrative career as a lawyer to aid the Non-cooperation movement.
• He took an active role in helping people affected by the 1914 floods that struck Bihar and Bengal.
• He was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress during the Bombay session in October 1934 and again in 1939.
• He was allocated the Food and Agriculture department in the 1946 interim government.

Additional Information

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was India's first home minister and also the first deputy prime minister.
• Also known as the "Iron Man" of India, was instrumental in uniting the country through the merger of small princely states.
• Zakir Hussain was the first Muslim president of India and the first Indian president to die in office.
• At Gandhi's invitation, he also became chairman of the National Committee on Basic Education, established in 1937 to design a Gandhian syllabus for schools.
• Former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri promoted the White Revolution, a national campaign to increase milk production.
• He also promoted the Green Revolution, to increase food production in India.

The correct answer is II, III, IV.

Key Points

• India has the union government at the center and the state governments for the state-level administration with powers and responsibilities distributed as required.
• Each government works at its levels, including local governments such as panchayats and municipalities.
• Every state in India has a legislative assembly, as well as two union territories.
• Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting session of India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions that Members of Parliament raise about any aspect of administrative activity.
• As per the order issued by the Delimitation Commission in 2008 -
• 412 parliament seats are general,
• 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes, and
• 47 seats for the Scheduled Tribes.
• Thus, statement I is incorrect, while II, II, and IV are correct, making option 4 the correct answer.

Additional Information

• The Parliament of India or Bhāratīya Sansad is the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India.
• It is a bicameral legislature composed of the president of India and two houses -  the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).

The correct answer is Electromagnetic waves.

Key Points

• Electromagnetic radiation consists of waves of the electromagnetic field, propagating through space, carrying electromagnetic radiant energy.
• It includes radio waves, microwaves, infrared, light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays.
• All of these waves form part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
• A changing magnetic field will induce a changing electric field and vice-versa - the two are linked.
• These changing fields form electromagnetic waves.
• Electromagnetic waves don't require a medium to propagate because they are formed by changing magnetic and electric fields, and these fields don't require any medium to propagate.

Additional Information

• Seismic waves are caused by the sudden movement of materials within the Earth, such as slipping along a fault during an earthquake.
• Volcanic eruptions, explosions, landslides, avalanches, and even rushing rivers can also cause seismic waves.
• A sound wave is the pattern of disturbance caused by the movement of energy travelling through a medium as it propagates away from the source of the sound.
• Sound waves are created by object vibrations and produce pressure waves, for example, a ringing cellphone.

The correct answer is Gram, Peas, Soyabeans.

Key Points

• Proteins are polypeptides, i.e. they are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
• Functions of Proteins
• Proteins as digestive enzymes carry out digestion.
• Muscles include a protein called myosin, which helps muscles contract.
• The structural protein known as keratin is what gives humans and other animals hair, nails, and horns.
• Cell receptors, which helps cell communicate with each other, are made of proteins.
• Certain proteins serve as chemical messengers that facilitate communication among cells, tissues, and organs.
• Examples of foods high in protein include meat, fish, poultry, eggs, legumes, and soy products like tofu or tempeh.

Additional Information

• Groundnut, coconut oil, and Til - Rich in fats.
• Fat is an ester of fatty acids or a mixture of such compounds
• Wheat, Potato, Sugarcane - Rich in carbohydrates.
• Carbohydrates, or carbs, are sugar molecules.
• Orange, tomato, lemon - Rich in vitamins.
• Vitamins are a group of substances that are needed for normal cell function, growth, and development.

The correct answer is Indian sub-continent, North Eastern part of South America and Northern Australia.

Key Points

• Tropical Monsoon Climate
• The tropical monsoon climate has monthly mean temperatures above 18 °C every month of the year and a dry season.
• The tropical monsoon climate is the intermediate climate between the wet Af (or tropical wet climate) and the drier Aw (or tropical savanna climate).
• Regions with Tropical Monsoon Climate
• Tropical monsoons are most commonly found in Africa (West and Central Africa), Asia (South and Southeast Asia), central South America and Central America.
• This climate also occurs in sections of the Caribbean, North America, and northern Australia.

Additional Information

• Tropical Wet Climate is only found along the equator, usually within 25 degrees of the equator.
• This is because warm air rises at the equator, and thus, there is a lot of rain.
• Large areas of Tropical Wet are found in Brazil, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Indonesia, and the Philippines.
• A tropical wet and dry climate predominates in areas covered by savanna growth.
• Mean monthly temperatures are at or above 18° C and annual precipitation averages between 30 and 50 inches.
• For at least five months of the year, during the dry season, less than 4 inches a month are received.
• Tropical savanna climates are most commonly found in Africa, Asia, and South America.

The correct answer is Limestone, shale, geyserite, chalk.

Key Points

• Sedimentary rocks are types of rock that are formed by the accumulation or deposition of mineral or organic particles at Earth's surface, followed by cementation.
• Sedimentation is the collective name for processes that cause these particles to settle in place.
• Limestone, shale, geyserite, chalk, and conglomerate are all examples of sedimentary rocks.

Additional Information

• Gabbros are plutonic rocks formed by the cooling and crystallization of molten magma trapped under the Earth's surface.
• They are chemically equivalent to extrusive basalt.
• Pegmatites are unusually coarse-grained crystalline igneous rocks.
• They are usually of granitic composition and characterized by interlocking crystals several centimeters up to tens of meters in length.

The correct answer is Liquid-Gas.

Key Points

• Colloids are substances consisting of particles substantially larger than atoms or ordinary molecules but too small to be visible to the unaided eye,
• The phase that is dispersed or present in colloidal particle shape is called the dispersed phase.
• The medium the colloidal particles are distributed is called the medium of dispersion.
• In a mixture of fog, clouds, and mist, the water droplets are larger molecules dispersed in the gaseous air.
• Thus, the dispersed phase is in liquid form, and the dispersing medium is gas.

Additional Information

• Starch represents the dispersed phase in a starch solution, while water is the dispersing medium.
• Here, the dispersed phase is in solid form, and the dispersing medium is liquid.

The correct answer is Aravali.

• Fold Mountains are mountains that form mainly by the effects of folding on layers within the upper part of the Earth's crust.
• The forces responsible for the formation of the Fold Mountains are called orogenic movements.
• Kilimanjaro is a volcanic mountain. The magma is pushed upwards to form mountain ranges.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is The Arctic Ocean.

Key PointsContinental Shelf

• The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs.
• It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less.
• The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break.
• The average width of continental shelves is about 80 km.
• The shelves are almost absent or very narrow along some of the margins like the coasts of Chile, the west coast of Sumatra, etc.
• On the contrary, the Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean, the largest in the world, stretches to 1,500 km in width.
• The depth of the shelves also varies. It may be as shallow as 30 m in some areas while in some areas it is as deep as 600 m.
• The continental shelves are covered with variable thicknesses of sediments brought down by rivers, glaciers, and wind, from the land and distributed by waves and currents.
• Massive sedimentary deposits received over a long time by the continental shelves have become the source of fossil fuels.

The correct answer is It has no role in money supply of the country.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of the country.
• Under the Re serve Bank of India, Act,1934 (RBI Act,1934 as amended in 2016), RBI is entrusted with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy in India.
• The primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
• To control the  money supply, the RBI buys and sells government securities in the open market.
• Thus, statements in options 1, 2, and 4 are correct and the one in option 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The RBI plays a multi-facet role by executing multiple functions such as -
• overseeing monetary policy
• issuing currency
• managing foreign exchange
• working as a bank of government
• as the banker of scheduled commercial banks, etc.

The correct answer is Right to Freedom of Religion.

Key Points

• The right to freedom of religion is well described in Articles 25, 26, 27, and 28 of the Indian constitution.
• Article 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
• Article 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs.
• Article 27 - Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.
• Article 28 - Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.

Additional Information

• The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution.
• These are important Fundamental Rights that guarantee every citizen protection from any kind of forced labour.
• The Cultural and Educational Rights are provided under Article 29 and Article 30.
• These articles upheld the individual's right to protect their distinct language, script, and culture.
• It also protects against state-sponsored discrimination on the ground of religion, race, caste, and language.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under article 32 for the Supreme court and article 226 for the high court.
• In this right, the Supreme court, as well as the high court, is given the power to instill fundamental rights.

Given:

279 is divided into three parts.

(1 / 3) of first part = (1 / 4) of second part = (1 / 2) of third part.

Concept used:

In such questions we can assume a constant k, such that

(1 / 3) of first part = (1 / 4) of second part = (1 / 2) of third part = k.

Calculation:

Let the first part be x, second part be y and third part be z, then

x + y + z = 279.

And,

$\dfrac{x}{3} = \dfrac{y}{4} = \dfrac{z}{2} = k$

where k is a constant.

x = 3k, y = 4k, z = 2k.

Now,

x + y + z = 279

3k + 4k + 2k = 279

9k = 279

k = 279 / 9

k = 31.

The three parts would be

x = 3k = 3(31) = 93.

y = 4k = 4(31) = 124.

z = 2k = 2(31) = 62.

Smallest part would be 62. 

∴ The smallest part would be 62.

Given:

Square of difference of two numbers = 144

Sum of squares of these numbers = 410

Formula used:

For two numbers a and b,

(a - b)² = a² + b² - 2ab

(a + b)² - (a - b)² = 4ab

Calculation:

As a² + b² = 410, we have

(a - b)2 = 144.

(a2 + b2) - 2ab = 144

410 - 2ab = 144

2ab = 410 - 144

ab = 266 / 2

ab = 133.

Also using the formula,

(a + b)2 - (a - b)2 = 4ab

We get

(a + b)2 - 144 = 4(133)

(a + b)2 = 532 + 144

(a + b)2 = 676

a + b = 26.

∴ Sum of the numbers is 26.

Given:

$2\frac{2}{3}$ is added to a number and the sum is multiplied by $4\frac{2}{3}$.

6 is added to the above product.

The whole sum is divided by $1\frac{1}{3}$ to get the quotient = 29.

Concept used:

Basic rules of addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

When $2\frac{2}{3}$ is added to x, we get

= $x + 2\frac{2}{3}$

When this sum is multiplied by $4\frac{2}{3}$, we get

= $4\frac{2}{3} \left(x + 2\frac{2}{3}\right)$

When 6 is added to the above product we get,

= $4\frac{2}{3} \left(x + 2\frac{2}{3}\right) + 6$

When this sum is divided by $1\frac{1}{3}$ we get quotient as 29, thus

 $\dfrac{4\frac{2}{3} \left(x + 2\frac{2}{3}\right) + 6}{1\frac{1}{3}} = 29$

Solving this we will get the number

$\dfrac{\dfrac{14}{3} \left(x + \dfrac{8}{3}\right) + 6}{\dfrac{4}{3}} = 29$

$\dfrac{\dfrac{14}{3} \left(\dfrac{3x + 8}{3}\right) + \dfrac{18}{3}}{\dfrac{4}{3}} = 29$

$\dfrac{14 \left(\dfrac{3x + 8}{3}\right) + {18}}{{4}} = 29$

$14 \left(\dfrac{3x + 8}{3}\right) + \dfrac{18 \times 3}{3} = 29 \times 4$

14(3x + 8) + 54 = 29 × 4 × 3

42x + 112 + 54 = 348

42x = 348 - 166

42x = 182

x = 182 / 42

x = 13 / 3

x = $4\frac{1}{3}$.

∴ The number is $4\frac{1}{3}$.

Given:

Total quantity of Rava and Sugar mixture = 90 kg.

Percentage of sugar in the mixture = 75%.

Sugar added in the mixture = 43.5 kg.

Concept used:

When one of the contents of a mixture is altered, the ratio of contents of mixture gets altered.

Calculation:

Amount of sugar in the mixture initially

= (75 / 100) × 90

= 270 / 4

= 67.5 kg.

Amount of Rava in the mixture = 90 - 67.5 = 22.5 kg.

Amount of sugar after 43.5 kg of sugar is added to the mixture

= 67.5 + 43.5

= 111 kg.

Total weight of final mixture = 111 + 22.5 = 133.5 kg.

Percentage of sugar in the final mixture

= (111 / 133.5) × 100

= 83.15%.

∴ Percentage of sugar in the final mixture is 83.15%.

Given:

Sum of ages of 4 members A, B, C and D of a family  = 172 years.

Ratio of ages of A, B, C and D, 8 years ago = 2 : 3 : 7 : 8

Formula used:

Average = Sum of quantities / number of quantities.

If a number is added or subtracted to each quantity of the average, the average also gets added or subtracted by the same number and vice-versa.

Calculation:

Present average age of family

= Sum of ages of A, B, C, D / 4

= 172 / 4

= 43.

8 years ago the average would have been = 43 - 8 = 35 years.

Sum of ages of A, B, C and D, 8 years ago

= Average × 4

= 35 × 4

= 140.

Let the ages of A, B, C and D 8 years ago be 2x, 3x, 7x and 8x respectively.

Sum of ages of A, B, C and D = 140

2x + 3x + 7x + 8x = 140

20x = 140

x = 140 / 20

x = 7.

Present age of C

= 7x + 8  

= 7(7) + 8 

= 49 + 8 

= 57.

Present age of A

= 2x + 8

= 2(7) + 8

= 14 + 8

= 22.

A would be as old as C's present age after 

= 57 - 22

= 35 years.

∴ A would be as old as C's present age after 35 years.

Given:

Profit% when car driver carries 4 passengers = 25%.

Price of petrol when car driver carries 4 passengers = Rs. 104 / litre.

Price of petrol when car driver carries 5 passengers = Rs. 90 / litre.

Formula used:

Profit percent = (Profit / Original) × 100

Calculation:

Price of petrol per person per litre when car driver carries 4 passengers = Rs. 104 / 4 = Rs. 26 / person / litre.

Total fare for the journey per person per litre

= 26 + 25% of 26

= 26 + (25 / 100) × 26

= 26 + (650 / 100)

= 26 + 6.5

= Rs. 32.5 / person / litre.

This remains constant for the journey.

Price of petrol per person per litre when car driver carries 5 passengers = Rs. 90 / 5 = Rs. 18 / person / litre.

Profit earned by the driver

= 32.5 - 18

= 14.5

Profit percent 

= (Profit / Original) × 100

= (14.5 / 18) × 100

= 1450 / 18

= 80.56%.

∴ His profit percent will be 80.56%.

Given:

Total number of students = 700.

Percent of students in first division = 56%

Percent of students in second division = 27%

Concept used:

Total number of students

= 100%

= Number of students who passed in first division + Number of students who passed in second division + Number of students who just passed 

Calculation:

Percent of students who just passed = 100% - (56 + 27)% = 17%

Number of students who just passed

= 17% of 700

= (17 / 100) × 700

= 17 × 7

= 119.

∴ Number of students who just passed is 119.

Given:

Total number of votes = 2500

Percentage of valid votes received first candidate X = 30%

Percentage of invalid votes = 20%

Concept used:

Total number of valid votes = Total number of votes – total number of invalid votes

Calculation:

Total number of invalid votes

= 20% of 2500

= (20 / 100) × 2500 

= 20 × 25 

= 500

Total number of valid votes

= Total number of voters – total number of invalid votes

= 2500 – 500

= 2000.

Number of votes cast in favor of first candidate

= 30% of valid votes

= (30 / 100) × 2000

= 600 

Number of votes cast in favor of second candidate = 2000 - 600 = 1400.

∴ Number of valid votes the other candidate got is 1400.

Given:

Number of boys in hostel initially = 32.

Number of boys in hostel after increase of 16 boys = 48.

Increase in expenditure on food = Rs. 43 / day.

Reduction in average of expenditure of boys = Rs. 2.

Formula used:

Average of expenditure of boys = Total expenditure on food per day / Number of boys

Calculation:

Let the initial total expenditure on food be Rs. x / day.

Then we have for 32 boys,

Average of expenditure of 32 boys

= Total expenditure on food per day / Number of boys

= x / 32

This average decreases by 2 when 16 boys join and the total expenditure increases by Rs. 43 / day,

Average of expenditure of 48 boys = Total expenditure on food per day / Number of boys

$\dfrac{x}{32} - 2 = \dfrac{x + 43}{48}$

$\dfrac{x - 64}{32} = \dfrac{x + 43}{48}$

$\dfrac{48}{32} = \dfrac{x + 43}{x - 64}$

$\dfrac{3}{2} = \dfrac{x + 43}{x - 64}$

3(x - 64) = 2(x + 43)

3x - 192 = 2x + 86

x = 192 + 86

x = 278.

∴ Initial expenditure on food is Rs. 278 / day.

Given:

Number of apples = 60

Cost Price of each apple = Rs. 40 / apple.

Sold 15 apples at profit = Rs. 6 / apple

Sold 38 apples at profit = Rs. 7 / apple

Sold remaining apples at loss = Rs. 4 / apple

Formula used:

For cost price (C.P.),

Profit% = (Profit / C.P.) × 100

Calculation:

Cost price(C.P.) of 60 apples = 40 × 60 = Rs. 2400.

Profit on 15 apples sold at Rs. 6 / apple = 15 × 6 = Rs. 90. 

Profit on 38 apples sold at Rs. 7 / apple = 38 × 7 = Rs. 266.

Loss on remaining 7 apples sold at Rs. 4 / apple = 4 × 7 = Rs. 28.

Total profit on 60 apples = 90 + 266 - 28 = Rs. 328.

 

Profit on each apple = 328 / 60 = Rs. 82 / 15.

Profit% on each apple

= (Profit / C.P.) × 100

= $\dfrac{\dfrac{82}{15}}{40} \times 100$

= $\dfrac{82}{15} \times \dfrac{1}{40} \times 100$

= 41 / 3

= 13.67%.

∴ Average profit percentage per apple is 13.67%.

Given:

Total number of questions = 300.

Percent of correct attempts by student from first 150 questions = 80% 

Concept used:

We assume each question to be 1 mark then proceed.

Calculation:

Let each question be of 1 mark. A student gets 1 mark for each correct answer and 0 for incorrect or unanswered question.

Total marks a student can get = 300

Number of marks for 80% correct attempts from 150 questions

= 80% of 150

= (80 / 100) × 150

= 120 marks.

For getting 60% marks on the entire test, the students needs to score a total of

= 60% of 300

= (60 / 100) × 300

= 180 marks.

Number of marks he need to score in remaining 150 questions

= 180 - 120

= 60 marks.

Number of questions the student has to answer correctly to get 60 marks = 60 / 1 = 60 questions.

Percentage of other 150 questions he needs to answer correctly to get 60 marks

= (60 / 150) × 100

= 6000 / 150

= 40%.

∴ To get 60% in final grading he should correct 40% of remaining 150 questions.

Given:

Initial total number of students in the class = 34.

Final total number of students in the class = 33.

Weight of boy = 52 kgs

Average weight of 33 students

= (Average weight of 34 students) + 250 grams

= (Average weight of 34 students) + 0.25 kgs

Formula used:

Average = Sum of quantities / total number of quantities.

Calculation:

Let the average weight of 34 students be x.

Average weight of 34 students = Sum of weights of 34 students / 34

x = Sum of weights of 34 students / 34

Sum of weights of 34 students = 34x.

When a 52 kg boy left , sum of weights of 33 students = 34x - 52

Average weight of 33 students

= Sum of weights of 33 students / 33

= (34x - 52) / 33

But,

Average weight of 33 students = (Average weight of 34 students) + 0.25

$\dfrac{34x - 52}{33} = x + 0.25$

34x - 52 = 33x + 33 (0.25)

34x - 33x = 52 + 8.25

x = 60.25.

Thus, average weight of remaining 33 students = x + 0.25 = 60.25 + 0.25 = 60.5.

∴ Average weight of remaining 33 students is 60.5.

Given:

Highest common factor (HCF) of two numbers = 27

Lowest common multiple (LCM) of two numbers = 189.

Sum of the two numbers = 216

Formula used:

For two numbers A and B we have the relation with their HCF and LCM as

LCM × HCF = A × B

Also,

(A + B)² - (A - B)² = 4 × AB

Calculation:

The product of numbers

LCM × HCF = A × B

189 × 27 = A × B

Difference of the numbers

(A + B)2 - (A - B)2 = 4 × AB

(216)² - (A - B)² = 4 × 189 × 27

(A - B)² = 46656 - (4 × 189 × 27)

(A - B)² = 26244

A - B = 162.

∴ Difference between the numbers is 162.

Given:

Discount on one article = 60%

Purchaser wants a total discount (D) = Rs. 11520

Marked price of each article = Rs. 6400.

Formula used:

For marked price (M.P.),

Discount% = [discount / M.P.] × 100

Calculation:

Discount on each article,

Discount% = [discount / M.P.] × 100

60 = [discount / 6400] × 100

discount = 64 × 60

discount = Rs. 3840.

Number of articles the purchaser should purchase to get discount of Rs. 11520

= 11520 / 3840

= 3.

∴ Number of articles the purchaser should purchase to get discount of Rs. 11520 is 3.

Given:

Second number = (First or third number) + 25% of first or third number

Fourth number = (5 / 4) times third number

Fifth number = (3 / 5) times third number

First number = 25.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of quantities / total number of quantities

Calculation:

First number = Third number = 25.

Second number 

= (First or third number) + 25% of first or third number

= 25 + [(25 / 100) × 25]

= 25 + 625 / 100

= 25 + 6.25

= 31.25.

Fourth number 

= (5 / 4) times third number

= (5 / 4) × 25

= 125 / 4 

= 31.25

Fifth number

= (3 / 5) times third number

= (3 / 5) × 25

= 75 / 5 

= 15.

Average of the five numbers

= Sum of numbers / 5

= (25 + 31.25 + 25 + 31.25 + 15) / 5

= 25.50.

∴ Average of the five numbers is 25.50.

Given:

Number of books left when the student formed group of 5 books each = 4

Number of books left when the student formed group of 6 books each = 4

Number of books left when the student formed group of 9 books each = 4

Number of books left when the student formed group of 10 books each = 4

Formula used:

Total number of books = LCM of (5, 6, 9, 10) + 4

Calculation:

From above formula

Total number of books 

= LCM of (5, 6, 9, 10) + 4

= 90 + 4

= 94.

∴ Total number of books is 94.

Given:

Initial net discount (d) = 20% on marked price

Initial profit (P) = 40%.

Final net discount (d') = 40% 

Formula:

Let M.P. = Marked price, C.P. = Cost price and S.P. = Selling price then

Profit% = [(S.P. - C.P.) / (C.P.)] × 100

M.P. - discount = S.P.

Discount% = (discount / M.P.) × 100

Calculation:

Let the C.P. be Rs.x and M.P. be Rs.y.

For 20% discount

Discount% = (discount / M.P.) × 100

$20 = \dfrac{discount} {y} \times 100$

discount = y / 5.

Now,

M.P. - discount = S.P.

y - (y / 5) = S.P.

S.P. = 4y / 5.

For 40% profit,

Profit% = [(S.P. - C.P.) / (C.P.)] × 100

$40 = \dfrac{\dfrac{4y}{5} - x}{x} \times 100$

$\dfrac{40}{100} = \dfrac{4y - 5x}{5x}$

$\dfrac{2}{5} = \dfrac{4y - 5x}{5x}$

2x = 4y - 5x

7x = 4y

y = 7x / 4.

For 40% discount,

Discount% = (discount / M.P.) × 100

$40 = \dfrac{discount} {y} \times 100$

discount = 2y / 5.

Now,

M.P. - discount = S.P.

y - (2y / 5) = S.P.

S.P. = 3y / 5.

In terms of x, S.P. can be written as

$S.P. = \dfrac{3 \times \dfrac{7x}{4}}{5}$

S.P. = 21x / 20.

Profit percent,

Profit%

= [(S.P. - C.P.) / (C.P.)] × 100

= $\dfrac{\dfrac{21x}{20} - x}{x} \times 100$

= $\dfrac{21x - 20x}{20x} \times 100$

= 100 / 20

= 5%

∴ The profit percentage will be 5%.

Given:

Candidate scoring 20% in examination fails by = 50 marks

Candidate scoring 80% marks in examination = 34 marks more than minimum passing marks

Formula used:

We assume the total marks of the examination to be x, then proceed.

Calculation:

Let the total marks of the examination be x.

Candidate scoring 20% marks gets,

= 20% of x

= (20 / 100) × x

= x / 5.

Minimum passing marks of the examination = (x / 5) + 50

Candidate scoring 80% marks gets,

= 80% of x

= (80 / 100) × x

= 4x / 5.

This is 34 marks more than minimum passing marks thus,

$\dfrac{x}{5} + 50 + 34 = \dfrac{4x}{5}$

$84 = \dfrac{3x}{5}$

x = 84 × 5 / 3

x = 28 × 5

x = 140.

Minimum passing marks of the examination

= (x / 5) + 50

= (140 / 5) + 50

= 78.

∴ The minimum passing marks of the examination is 78.

Given:

Selling price of 1 mobile phone = Rs. 7200.

Commission on selling each mobile phone = 4%

Selling price of 1 iPad tablet = Rs. 860.

Commission on selling each tablet = 20%.

Total number of mobile phones and tablets sold per day = 20 mobile phones and 12 tablets

Formula used:

Commission is the profit earned on the selling price of an item.

Total number of days on which he sold the items in the month of January = 31 - 4 = 27.

Calculation:

Commission earned on selling 1 mobile phone 

= 4% of 7200

= (4 / 100) × 7200

= Rs. 288.

Commission earned on selling 1 tablet

= 20% of 860

= (20 / 100) × 860

= Rs. 172.

Commission earned on selling 20 mobile phones and 12 tablets for 27 days in the month of January

= $27 \times (20 \times 288 + 12 \times 172)$

= 27 × 7824

= 211248.

∴ Amount of commission he will earn in January is Rs. 2,11,248.

Shortcut Trick

Cost Price (CP) of the mixture = 20 ÷ 1.25 = ₹16/kg.

Apply Alligation ratio: (Mixture CP − Ordinary CP) : (Quality CP − Mixture CP).

Ratio of First Quality : Ordinary = (16 − 12) : (21 − 16) = 4 : 5.

Given, 5 units = 12.5 kg ⇒ 1 unit = 2.5 kg.

First quality rice required = 4 units × 2.5 = 10 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 10 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

CP of first quality rice (CP₁) = ₹21/kg

CP of ordinary rice (CP₂) = ₹12/kg

Quantity of ordinary rice (Q₂) = 12.5 kg

Selling Price of mixture (SP_m) = ₹20/kg

Profit percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

CP = SP ÷ (1 + Profit%)

Rule of Alligation: Q₁/Q₂ = (CP_m − CP₂) / (CP₁ − CP_m)

⇒ Cost Price of mixture (CP_m) = 20 ÷ (1 + 25/100) = 20 ÷ 1.25

⇒ CP_m = 20 × (100 / 125) = 20 × (4 / 5) = ₹16/kg

⇒ Ratio (First : Ordinary) = (16 − 12) : (21 − 16) = 4 : 5

⇒ Let quantity of first quality rice be Q₁

⇒ Q₁ / 12.5 = 4 / 5

⇒ Q₁ = (4 × 12.5) ÷ 5 = 50 ÷ 5

⇒ Q₁ = 10 kg

∴ The correct answer is 10 kg.

Additional Information

Rule of Alligation

It states that if two ingredients are mixed, the ratio of the quantity of the cheaper to the quantity of the dearer is (CP of dearer − Mean Price) ÷ (Mean Price − CP of cheaper).

Profit and Cost Price Relation

To find the cost price when a profit is made, use CP = (Selling Price × 100) ÷ (100 + Profit%). Always use CP for alligation calculations.

Weighted Average Method

The mean price can also be calculated as C_m = (n₁c₁ + n₂c₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is quantity and c is cost.

Shortcut Trick

Total parts of present ages = 13 + 11 = 24 parts.

Total age = 3.6 decades = 36 years ⇒ 1 part = 36 ÷ 24 = 1.5 years.

Present age: P = 13 × 1.5 = 19.5 years, Q = 11 × 1.5 = 16.5 years.

After 0.75 decades (7.5 years): P = 19.5 + 7.5 = 27 years, Q = 16.5 + 7.5 = 24 years.

Proportion after 7.5 years = 27 : 24 = 9 : 8.

∴ The correct answer is 9 : 8.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of present ages of P and Q = 13 : 11

Total age of P and Q = 3.6 decades

1 Decade = 10 years

P Q

19.5 yrs

+7.5 yrs

= 27

16.5 yrs

+7.5 yrs

= 24

Proportion = 27 : 24 = 9 : 8

Calculations:

⇒ Total present age = 3.6 × 10 = 36 years

⇒ Let the present ages of P and Q be 13x and 11x respectively.

⇒ 13x + 11x = 36

⇒ 24x = 36

⇒ x = 36 ÷ 24 = 1.5

⇒ Present age of P = 13 × 1.5 = 19.5 years

⇒ Present age of Q = 11 × 1.5 = 16.5 years

⇒ After 0.75 decades, time passed = 0.75 × 10 = 7.5 years

⇒ Age of P after 7.5 years = 19.5 + 7.5 = 27 years

⇒ Age of Q after 7.5 years = 16.5 + 7.5 = 24 years

⇒ Required proportion = 27 : 24

⇒ Simplest ratio = 9 : 8

∴ The correct answer is 9 : 8.

Additional Information

Ratio of Ages

If the current ages are in the ratio a : b, their ages after t years will be in the ratio (ax + t) : (bx + t), where x is the common multiplier.

Concept of Decades

A decade represents a period of 10 years. Therefore, to convert any value given in decades into years, simply multiply the value by 10.

Proportion

A proportion is an equation which states that two ratios are equal. It helps in establishing a relationship between multiple quantities sharing the same ratio base.

Given:

Number of years = 7

6% p.a for first 2 years

9% p.a for next 3 years

12% p.a for last 2 years

Total Simple interest = Rs. 49,140

Formula used:

Simple interest = $\frac{Principal \times Rate \times Time}{100}$

Calculation:

Total Simple interest = $\frac{Principal \times 6 \times 2}{100} + \frac{Principal \times 9 \times 3}{100} + \frac{Principal \times 12 \times 2}{100}$

Let P be Principal,

49140 = $\frac{12P}{100} + \frac{27P}{100} + \frac{24P}{100}$

49140 = $\frac{63P}{100}$

P = $\frac{49140 \times 100}{63}$

P = 78000

The Money he borrowed is Rs. 78,000

Answer is Rs. 78,000.