Official Paper

DSSSB JE & Section Officer CE Shift 2 (Held on 29 June 2022) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Mental Ability (20 questions)

1

If

A + B means 'A is the sister of B'

A = B means 'A is the mother of B'

A & B means 'A is the son of B'

then what does the equation 'M + T = R & K' mean?

  1. ((a))

    M is the daughter of K's son.

  2. ((b))

    M is the sister of K's son.

  3. ((c))

    M is the sister of K's wife.

  4. ((d))

    M is the mother of K's son.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M is the daughter of K's son.

2

Three of the following four option figures are similar in a certain manner while one is different. Choose the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

Three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in some manner and one is different. Identify the one which is different.

  1. ((a))

    SORT : UTSV

  2. ((b))

    COPE : FRRG

  3. ((c))

    MIST : UULQ

  4. ((d))

    DECK : LEHH

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SORT : UTSV

4

Three of the following four number triads are alike in some manner and one is different. Identify the one which is different.

  1. ((a))

    (25, 106, 9)

  2. ((b))

    (19, 163, 12)

  3. ((c))

    (15, 79, 8)

  4. ((d))

    (10, 186, 14)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(25, 106, 9)

5

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow (s) from the statements.

Statement:

No senior is junior.

All officers are seniors.

Conclusions:

I. No officer is junior.

II. Some officers are juniors.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only Conclusion I follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only Conclusion II follows

7

In a code language, MANGO is written as 250, SPY is written as 180. How FASTER would be written as in the same language?

  1. ((a))

    144

  2. ((b))

    318

  3. ((c))

    386

  4. ((d))

    414

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

144

8

Which number in the following series is wrong?

17, 18, 38, 117, 472, 2375

  1. ((a))

    472

  2. ((b))

    2375

  3. ((c))

    117

  4. ((d))

    38

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

472

9

Select the figure amongst the option figures which has the same characteristics as the two figures given below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

Three different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one showing '5'.

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

11

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

OMD-11 : QPH-127 :: KSV-15 : ______

  1. ((a))

    MVZ-231

  2. ((b))

    MVY-235

  3. ((c))

    MVA-221

  4. ((d))

    MUZ-231

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MVZ-231

12

Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one different. Identify the one which is different.

  1. ((a))

    TXA

  2. ((b))

    QUX

  3. ((c))

    NRU

  4. ((d))

    SWY

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TXA

13

In a class of 40 students, Divya scores 11th rank from the top. Agatha scores 21st rank from the bottom. How many students score lesser marks than Divya but more marks than Agatha?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

14

Swapnil starts walking from his home and goes 45 m north then he turns left and walks 40 m. After that, he turns left again and walks 75 m to reach an ATM. What is the shortest distance between his home and the ATM?

  1. ((a))

    40 m

  2. ((b))

    50 m

  3. ((c))

    45 m

  4. ((d))

    35 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 m

15

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

7, 15, 42, 106, 231, ?

  1. ((a))

    348

  2. ((b))

    447

  3. ((c))

    317

  4. ((d))

    296

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

348

16

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

Select the letter cluster that is wrong in the following series.

TH-9, YL-15, BP-25, FT-36, JX-49

  1. ((a))

    BP-25

  2. ((b))

    JX-49

  3. ((c))

    YL-15

  4. ((d))

    FT-36

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BP-25

18

If T < H = K < L = P > E > D = S then which of the following conclusions in NOT correct?

  1. ((a))

    P < T

  2. ((b))

    D < P

  3. ((c))

    T < L

  4. ((d))

    P > H

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P < T

19

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

35 - 55 + 28 ÷ 4 × 16 = 132

  1. ((a))

    16 and 28

  2. ((b))

    35 and 55

  3. ((c))

    35 and 28

  4. ((d))

    35 and 16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16 and 28

20

A statement is followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Assuming everything in the statement to be true, decide which of the assumption/s is/are implicit in the statement :

Statement :

The food inspector has seized some sweet shops for non-compliance with food standards and charged a penalty of Rs twenty thousand to each shop.

Assumptions:

I. The number of sweet shops not complying with established food related norms mainly increase during the festival seasons.

II. The food inspector has the rights to impose penalty to the sweet shops in cases where any non-compliance with the food standards are observed.

  1. ((a))

    Neither I nor II are implicit.

  2. ((b))

    Only II is implicit.

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are implicit.

  4. ((d))

    Only I is implicit.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neither I nor II are implicit.

General Awareness (20 questions)

21

Central Institute of Himalayan Culture Studies (CIHCS) is situated in _______.

  1. ((a))

    Nagalnd

  2. ((b))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Manipur

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nagalnd

22

In which year during freedom struggle Trade Union act was passed?

  1. ((a))

    1932

  2. ((b))

    1930

  3. ((c))

    1926

  4. ((d))

    1916

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1932

23

'Nai Manzil' a scheme to benefit the minority youth who do not have formal school leaving certificate was launched in the year?

  1. ((a))

    2008

  2. ((b))

    2011

  3. ((c))

    2013

  4. ((d))

    2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2008

24

In which year 'Science and Technology of Yoga and Meditation' (SATYAM) program was conceptualized?

  1. ((a))

    2013

  2. ((b))

    2008

  3. ((c))

    2010

  4. ((d))

    2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2013

25

Asian Development Bank was established in the year?

  1. ((a))

    1978

  2. ((b))

    1985

  3. ((c))

    1966

  4. ((d))

    1982

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1978

26

How many times Indian cricket team has won ICC Under 19 World cup till March 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Two times

  2. ((b))

    Seven times

  3. ((c))

    Five times

  4. ((d))

    Three times

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two times

27

Who of the following published 'Free Hindustan' in North America during freedom struggle?

  1. ((a))

    Lala Lajpat Rai

  2. ((b))

    Bhagat Singh

  3. ((c))

    Shubhash Chandra Bose

  4. ((d))

    Tarak Nath Das

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lala Lajpat Rai

28

In which year Central Social Welfare Board was established?

  1. ((a))

    1963

  2. ((b))

    1953

  3. ((c))

    1959

  4. ((d))

    1978

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1963

29

At which place A super computer made in India, named 'PARAM Ganga' 1.66 petaflops was installed in March 2022?

  1. ((a))

    IIM Bengaluru

  2. ((b))

    IIT Roorkee

  3. ((c))

    IIT Jodhpur

  4. ((d))

    MNIT Jaipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

IIM Bengaluru

30

What was the rural literacy rate as per the census 2011?

  1. ((a))

    67.8 percent

  2. ((b))

    55 percent

  3. ((c))

    60.6 percent

  4. ((d))

    62.3 percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

67.8 percent

31

The James Web Space Telescope was launched in December 2021 through.

  1. ((a))

    Arian 2 rocket

  2. ((b))

    Arian 4 rocket

  3. ((c))

    Arian 5 rocket

  4. ((d))

    Arian 1 rocket

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arian 2 rocket

32

In which year Sports Authority of India (SAI) was set up?

  1. ((a))

    1995

  2. ((b))

    1984

  3. ((c))

    1980

  4. ((d))

    1991

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1995

33

The Chini ka Rauza monument is located in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Ajmer

  2. ((b))

    Hisar

  3. ((c))

    Agra

  4. ((d))

    New Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ajmer

34

Nishagandhi dance Festival is celebrated in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

35

Inland waterways authority was set up in the year?

  1. ((a))

    1996

  2. ((b))

    1966

  3. ((c))

    1976

  4. ((d))

    1986

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1996

36

Which article of the constitution deals with transfer of a judge from one high court to another?

  1. ((a))

    222

  2. ((b))

    230

  3. ((c))

    220

  4. ((d))

    215

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

222

37

Alauddin Khalji ruled Delhi Sultanate from:

  1. ((a))

    1315 - 1330 AD

  2. ((b))

    1320 - 1330 AD

  3. ((c))

    1296 - 1316 AD

  4. ((d))

    1280 - 1320 AD

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1315 - 1330 AD

38

Which article of the constitution mentions that "No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be witness against himself"?

  1. ((a))

    23 (2)

  2. ((b))

    20 (3)

  3. ((c))

    19 (5)

  4. ((d))

    22 (4)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

23 (2)

39

Which of the following is multicellular organism?

  1. ((a))

    Bacteria

  2. ((b))

    Fungi

  3. ((c))

    Amoeba

  4. ((d))

    Paramoecium

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bacteria

40

The western disturbances primarily originate in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Bay of Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Mediterranean Sea

  3. ((c))

    Arabian Sea

  4. ((d))

    South China Sea

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bay of Bengal

Arithmetic Ability (20 questions)

41

Two sides of a triangle are 5 cm and 6 cm are perpendicular to each other then for the area of the triangle, which one of the following inequality is the sharpest?

  1. ((a))

    =15

  2. ((b))

    >15

  3. ((c))

    ≠15

  4. ((d))

    <15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

=15

42

The difference of two numbers is 1067. On dividing the larger number by the smaller we get 4 as a quotient and 11 as remainder. Find the smaller number.

  1. ((a))

    352

  2. ((b))

    353

  3. ((c))

    351

  4. ((d))

    354

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

352

43

Two persons are walking with the speed A and B respectively. If the first person takes 5min less to cover a distance, what is the time taken by the second person to cover the same distance provided A : B = 4 : 3.

  1. ((a))

    18 min

  2. ((b))

    21 min

  3. ((c))

    20 min

  4. ((d))

    16 min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18 min

44

A papaya is cut into two pieces in the ratio of 3 : 4 by weight. The bigger of the two is further cut in the ratio of 4 : 5 by weight. Find the ratio of each of the three pieces.

  1. ((a))

    27 : 16 : 25

  2. ((b))

    25 : 16 : 20

  3. ((c))

    27 : 16 : 20

  4. ((d))

    27 : 15 : 20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27 : 16 : 25

45

In a kilometer race Ravi beats Rahul by 150 m and Rahul beats Rakesh by 240 m. By how many meters does Ravi beat Rakesh in the same race.

  1. ((a))

    352 m

  2. ((b))

    354 m

  3. ((c))

    353 m

  4. ((d))

    351 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

352 m

46

A train starts with full of passengers. At the first station it drops one-fifth of the passengers and takes 320 more. At the second station it drops three-fifth of the new total and takes 10 more. On arriving at the third station, it is found to have 250 passengers. Find the number of passengers in the beginning.

  1. ((a))

    101

  2. ((b))

    121

  3. ((c))

    111

  4. ((d))

    350

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

101

47

A ball of diameter 14 cm is floating so that the top of ball is 6 cm above the smooth surface of the pond. What is the circumference in centimeters of the circle formed by the contact of the water surface with the ball?

  1. ((a))

    20\sqrt {20}  cm

  2. ((b))

    10\sqrt {10}  cm

  3. ((c))

    10\sqrt {10}  cm

  4. ((d))

    8π 3\sqrt{3} cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20\sqrt {20}  cm

48

2 liters of pure milk is added to 8 liters of a milk solution containing 8% milk. Find the percentage concentration of the resultant solution.

  1. ((a))

    27.4%

  2. ((b))

    26.4%

  3. ((c))

    27%

  4. ((d))

    26.8%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

27.4%

49

3 liters of pure spirit is added to 5 liters of a spirit solution contains 20% spirit. What is the concentration of the spirit in the resultant solution?

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    55%

  3. ((c))

    65%

  4. ((d))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60%

50

The diameter of a road roller is 36 cm and its length is 84 cm. It takes 300 complete revolutions moving once over to level the stretch of the road. If the cost of leveling is ₹80 per m2, then the total cost of leveling works out to.

  1. ((a))

    ₹21,506.6

  2. ((b))

    ₹21,809.6

  3. ((c))

    ₹21,635.6

  4. ((d))

    ₹22,809.6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹21,506.6

51

Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the question.

What is the percentage change in the overall sales turnover of the five companies together between 2019-20 to 2020-21.

  1. ((a))

    18.7

  2. ((b))

    18.1

  3. ((c))

    18.4

  4. ((d))

    18.8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18.7

52

A, B and C start at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. A completes a round in 142 seconds, B in 208 seconds and C in 96 seconds all started at the same point. After what time will they meet again at the starting point?

  1. ((a))

    1476.28 min

  2. ((b))

    1576.8 min

  3. ((c))

    1476.8 min

  4. ((d))

    1376.8 min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1476.28 min

53

When the speed of a train is increased by 25%, it takes 25 min less to cover the same distance. What is the time taken to cover the same distance with the actual speed?

  1. ((a))

    46 min

  2. ((b))

    47 min

  3. ((c))

    49 min

  4. ((d))

    125 min

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

46 min

54

The height of a cone is 25 cm. A small cone is cutoff at the top by a plane parallel to the base. The volume of this smaller cone 1/8th of the given cone. What is the height of the smaller cone?

  1. ((a))

    12 cm

  2. ((b))

    12.5 cm

  3. ((c))

    11.5 cm

  4. ((d))

    11 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 cm

55

According to Boyle's law, at a constant temperature pressure of a definite mass of gas is inversely proportional to the volume. If the pressure is reduced by 25%, find the respective change in volume.

  1. ((a))

    33.3%

  2. ((b))

    34.2%

  3. ((c))

    31.2%

  4. ((d))

    33.7%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

33.3%

56

Read the table and answer the following question.

Distribution of students at ABC according the professional courses.

S. NOCourseStudents
EngineeringNon-Engineering
GirlsBoysGirlsBoys
1Management Science20422055
2Computers251682230
3Finance231101536
4Others1810258

Taking all the courses together, by what percentage do the number of boys exceed the number of girls.

  1. ((a))

    287.5

  2. ((b))

    284.5

  3. ((c))

    286.5

  4. ((d))

    272.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

287.5

57

A man takes a loan of Rs. 25,000 and pays back Rs. 27,040 after 2 years. What is the rate of compound interest?

  1. ((a))

    2%

  2. ((b))

    6%

  3. ((c))

    4%

  4. ((d))

    3%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2%

58

When we increase both the numerator and denominator by 5, a fraction changes to 7/8. Find the original fraction.

  1. ((a))

    3/2

  2. ((b))

    1/3

  3. ((c))

    1/4

  4. ((d))

    2/3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3/2

59

What will be the remainder when (5757 + 57) is divided by 58.

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    56

  3. ((c))

    57

  4. ((d))

    58

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55

60

At Simple interest a sum of money amounts to four times its original value in 4 years. Find rate of interest.

  1. ((a))

    75%

  2. ((b))

    76%

  3. ((c))

    77%

  4. ((d))

    78%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75%

General English (20 questions)

61

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

He made tall ________ of his achievements.

  1. ((a))

    Demands

  2. ((b))

    Requests

  3. ((c))

    Please

  4. ((d))

    Claims

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Demands

62

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

Her face is familiar ________ us.

  1. ((a))

    by

  2. ((b))

    at

  3. ((c))

    to

  4. ((d))

    with

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

by

63

Select the correct synonym of the given word.

havoc

  1. ((a))

    peace

  2. ((b))

    boon

  3. ((c))

    chaos

  4. ((d))

    calm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

peace

64

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

I enquired ________ him about his date of travel.

  1. ((a))

    off

  2. ((b))

    of

  3. ((c))

    from

  4. ((d))

    into

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

off

65

Identify the grammatically correct sentence.

  1. ((a))

    I am quite tired of doing this monotonous job from morning till evening.

  2. ((b))

    I am quite monotonous of doing this tired job from evening till morning.

  3. ((c))

    This monotonous job quite tired of I am doing from morning till evening.

  4. ((d))

    Doing this job from evening till morning quite tired I am of monotonous.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I am quite tired of doing this monotonous job from morning till evening.

66

Select the correct meaning of the given idiom.

sell like hot cakes

  1. ((a))

    to sell good quality products

  2. ((b))

    to be sold at a loss

  3. ((c))

    to sell bad quality products

  4. ((d))

    to be sold quickly and in large quantities

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to sell good quality products

67

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

I feel that I ________ a turning point in my life.

  1. ((a))

    reached

  2. ((b))

    have reached

  3. ((c))

    reach

  4. ((d))

    was reaching

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

reached

68

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

The man narrated an ________ tale of valour.

  1. ((a))

    Incredible

  2. ((b))

    Optimum

  3. ((c))

    Efficient

  4. ((d))

    Auspicious

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Incredible

69

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    forein

  2. ((b))

    whether

  3. ((c))

    excead

  4. ((d))

    categary

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

forein

70

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

My dress ______ after one wash.

  1. ((a))

    shrunk

  2. ((b))

    was shrinking

  3. ((c))

    shrink

  4. ((d))

    shrinks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

shrunk

71

Select the correct meaning of the given proverb.

a bird in hand is worth two in the bush

  1. ((a))

    one rare bird is valued more than two common ones

  2. ((b))

    what you already possess is better than what you might possess

  3. ((c))

    what you cannot achieve appears to be more precious

  4. ((d))

    a bird that is caught warns others on the tree

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

one rare bird is valued more than two common ones

72

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

Our ______ is a man of ______.

  1. ((a))

    principle, principle

  2. ((b))

    principal, principal

  3. ((c))

    principle, principal

  4. ((d))

    principal, principle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

principle, principle

73

Select the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Break fresh ground

  1. ((a))

    to do or discover something new

  2. ((b))

    to dig in a fresh space

  3. ((c))

    to bury something underground

  4. ((d))

    to prepare the soil for sowing crops

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to do or discover something new

74

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

He waited ______ for me at the gate.

  1. ((a))

    slightly

  2. ((b))

    strictly

  3. ((c))

    patiently

  4. ((d))

    slowly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

slightly

75

Select the correct antonym of the given word.

immense

  1. ((a))

    sharp

  2. ((b))

    infinite

  3. ((c))

    blunt

  4. ((d))

    small

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

sharp

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

Jane Goodall was born in London on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday, her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo and seemed to foretell the course that Jane's life would take.

In July 1960, Jane arrived at Gombe National Park, Tanzania to study the chimpanzees in the wild. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it look months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focussed on her goal.

At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she moved closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all the chimpanzees that she studied, stating that she felt each had a unique personality. One of the first significant observations that Jane made was that chimpanzees make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. Also, that chimps eat meat as well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she had helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are similar.

The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in their natural habitat. Dr Jane Goodall is now the world's most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behaviour for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles. She has written two books and has won numerous awards for her ground-breaking work.

76

What can be regarded as an achievement of Jane Goodall?

  1. ((a))

    publishing articles and books on chimpanzees

  2. ((b))

    naming all the chimpanzees that she was studying

  3. ((c))

    touching, petting and feeding chimpanzees

  4. ((d))

    watching chimpanzees from a great distance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

publishing articles and books on chimpanzees

77

Which of these in NOT a similarity between humans and chimpanzees?

  1. ((a))

    Using tools to procure food

  2. ((b))

    Eating meat as well as plants

  3. ((c))

    Making tools

  4. ((d))

    Using camouflage for survival

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Using tools to procure food

78

At first, Jane observed the chimps from a distance because:

  1. ((a))

    she was attacked by them and had to remain hidden

  2. ((b))

    she had no access to the deep forests

  3. ((c))

    she could observe them better through the binoculars

  4. ((d))

    the chimps were not comfortable with her presence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

she was attacked by them and had to remain hidden

79

Which of the given statements is true?

  1. Jane named all the chimpanzees that she studied.
  2. Jane felt each chimpanzee had a unique personality.
  1. ((a))

    Statement 1 is not related to statement 2

  2. ((b))

    Statement 2 is the effect of statement 1

  3. ((c))

    Statement 2 is the cause of statement 1

  4. ((d))

    Statement 1 is the cause of statement 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement 1 is not related to statement 2

80

The word 'breakthrough' as used in the passage means:

  1. ((a))

    a sudden, important discovery

  2. ((b))

    a short vacation for rejuvenation

  3. ((c))

    a gap or shortcoming in a theory

  4. ((d))

    a forced or dictated action

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a sudden, important discovery

General Hindi (20 questions)

81

'वह ऐसे ही लिखता रहे तो उसकी किताब पूरी ही हो जाए।' वाक्य उदाहरण है-

  1. ((a))

    संभाव्य भविष्य का 

  2. ((b))

    संभाव्य वर्तमान का 

  3. ((c))

    सामान्य भविष्य का 

  4. ((d))

    हेतुहेतुमद्भविष्य का

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

संभाव्य भविष्य का 

82

वाक्य विन्यास की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध वाक्य है-

  1. ((a))

    नाच के समय खुलकर फैल जाते हैं मोर के बहुत बड़े पंखे जैसे पंख।

  2. ((b))

    दारोगा गुस्से में बड़े जोरों से दाँत पीसता हुआ जा रहा था।

  3. ((c))

    न जाने कितने लोग इस बार भी बाढ़ के पेट में समा गए।

  4. ((d))

    गुलाब के फूल-जैसा शिशु का मुख किसे मुग्ध नहीं करता?

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

नाच के समय खुलकर फैल जाते हैं मोर के बहुत बड़े पंखे जैसे पंख।

83

मुहावरे के प्रयोगात्मक रूप से वाक्य पूर्ण करें-

मैं जानता था कि इस बदमाश की हरकतें किसी दिन ________।

  1. ((a))

    रंग लाएँगी

  2. ((b))

    बखिया उधेड़ेंगी

  3. ((c))

    नज़र बदलेंगी 

  4. ((d))

    नाच नचाएँगी

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

रंग लाएँगी

84

'भारत हमेशा से विश्व-शांति का आकांक्षी रहा है।' वाक्य उदाहरण है-

  1. ((a))

    सम्भाव्य वर्तमान का

  2. ((b))

    संदिग्ध वर्तमान का

  3. ((c))

    तात्कालिक वर्तमान का

  4. ((d))

    सामान्य वर्तमान का

  5. ((e))

    पूर्ण वर्तमान काल का

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

सम्भाव्य वर्तमान का

85

उचित शब्द से वाक्य का रिक्त स्थान भरें-

प्रयोगशाला में मैंने गंधक का _______ देखा था।

  1. ((a))

    अमूल 

  2. ((b))

    अम्ल 

  3. ((c))

    अमल 

  4. ((d))

    अमूल्य 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

अमूल 

86

'चट मँगनी पट ब्याह' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है-

  1. ((a))

    बहुत कंजूसी 

  2. ((b))

    किसी के कहने पर विपत्ति में पड़ना

  3. ((c))

    पसंद की शादी करना 

  4. ((d))

    तत्काल कार्य होना 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

बहुत कंजूसी 

87

'कृदन्त' का संधि विच्छेद होगा-

  1. ((a))

    कृद् + अंत 

  2. ((b))

    कृत् + अंत 

  3. ((c))

    कृद्य + अंत 

  4. ((d))

    कृत्य + अंत 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

कृद् + अंत 

88

सर्वोचित शब्द से रिक्त स्थान भरें-

कई बार रस्सी से साँप का ________ होता है।

  1. ((a))

    आवास 

  2. ((b))

    आयास 

  3. ((c))

    आभास 

  4. ((d))

    अभ्यास 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

आवास 

89

निम्न में से 'घोड़े' का पर्यायवाची शब्द है-

  1. ((a))

    केशरी 

  2. ((b))

    उरग 

  3. ((c))

    कंज 

  4. ((d))

    सैंधव

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

केशरी 

90

निम्न में से रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण शब्द नहीं है-

  1. ((a))

    नहीं 

  2. ((b))

    क्यों 

  3. ((c))

    भर 

  4. ((d))

    कुछ 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

नहीं 

91

निम्न में से कौन-सा विलोम युग्म सुमेलित नहीं है-

  1. ((a))

    मुनाफा - नफा 

  2. ((b))

    मुख - प्रतिमुख 

  3. ((c))

    विपत्ति - सम्पत्ति

  4. ((d))

    लघु - दीर्घ 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

मुनाफा - नफा 

92

वाक्य विन्यास की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य है-

  1. ((a))

    मेघा ने पुस्तक के पन्ने फाड़ कर टुकड़े-टुकड़े कर दिए।

  2. ((b))

    मेघा ने पन्ने फाड़ कर पुस्तक के टुकड़े-टुकड़े दिए कर।

  3. ((c))

    टुकड़े-टुकड़े कर दिए मेघा ने पन्ने फाड़ कर पुस्तक के।

  4. ((d))

    पुस्तक के पन्ने फाड़ कर टुकड़े-टुकड़े कर दिए मेघा ने।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

मेघा ने पुस्तक के पन्ने फाड़ कर टुकड़े-टुकड़े कर दिए।

93

'अन्वय' में संधि है-

  1. ((a))

    अयादि संधि 

  2. ((b))

    यण् संधि 

  3. ((c))

    दीर्घ संधि 

  4. ((d))

    गुण संधि 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

अयादि संधि 

94

'तीर से बाघ मार दिया गया।' वाक्य में कारक है-

  1. ((a))

    अपादान कारक 

  2. ((b))

    करण कारक 

  3. ((c))

    कर्ता कारक 

  4. ((d))

    सम्प्रदान कारक 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

अपादान कारक 

95

निम्न शब्दों में से संख्यावाचक विशेषण का उदाहण नहीं है-

  1. ((a))

    एक 

  2. ((b))

    तिगुना 

  3. ((c))

    सब 

  4. ((d))

    चौकोर 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

एक 

दिए गए गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न के उत्तर दीजिए।

बहिष्कार आंदोलन केवल विलायती वस्तुओं के उपयोग तक सीमित नहीं था बल्कि इसका स्वरुप बहुत व्यापक था और उसमें ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा दी हुई उपाधियों और सरकारी पदों का त्याग और कौंसिलों तथा स्कूलों का बहिष्कार भी शामिल था। इस आंदोलन का उद्देश्य सरकार को बंगाल के विभाजन को समाप्त करने तथा दमन को रोकने के लिए बाध्य करना था। वस्तुत: बहिष्कार आंदोलन का उद्देश्य लोगों के अंदर स्वराज्य प्राप्त करने के लिए एक जुझारू संकल्प पैदा करना था। इस आंदोलन के पुरस्कर्ताओं का त्याग और बलिदान इतना बड़ा था कि वह जनता के आदर्श और घर-घर में परिचित नाम बन गए थे। इनमें से तिलक तो स्वतंत्रता के लड़ने वाले और राजनीतिक दमन के प्रतीक बन गए थे। विभाजन के विरोध में छिड़े अभियान में स्वराज, स्वदेशी, बहिष्कार और राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा के नारे भी लगाये गये। सरकार ने इसका दमन करने के लिए कड़े कदम उठाये। नेताओं, सम्पादकों, प्रचारकों और संगठन कर्ताओं को जेल भेज दिया गया। इस दमन के विरोध में बंगाल, महाराष्ट्र और पंजाब में आतंकवादी गतिविधियाँ भी तेज हो गयीं। 1907 में कांग्रेस में उदारवादियों और जुझारु राष्ट्रवादियों में विभाजन हो गया। इसके बाद सरकारी दमन और भी तेज हो गया। 1907 में 'सेडिशस मीटिंग ऐक्ट' और 1910 में 'इण्डियन प्रेस ऐक्ट' लागू किए गये। पर दमनात्मक कारवाईयों के बावजूद आंदोलन समाप्त नहीं हुआ। इसके प्रभाव को कम करने के लिए सरकार ने 1909 में मार्लें-मिंटो रिफार्म लागू किये। इसका नरमपंथियों ने स्वागत किया।

96

इण्डियन प्रेस ऐक्ट कब लागू हुआ?

  1. ((a))

    1810

  2. ((b))

    1910

  3. ((c))

    1907

  4. ((d))

    1807

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1810

97

बहिष्कार आंदोलन में निम्न में से किसका बहिष्कार नहीं किया गया?

  1. ((a))

    सरकारी चिकित्सालय 

  2. ((b))

    विलायती वस्तुओं 

  3. ((c))

    सरकारी पदों का 

  4. ((d))

    ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा दी गई उपाधियाँ 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

सरकारी चिकित्सालय 

98

पुरस्कर्ता का अर्थ है-

  1. ((a))

    चयनित 

  2. ((b))

    अंतिम 

  3. ((c))

    उपकृत 

  4. ((d))

    अगुआ 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

चयनित 

99

बहिष्कार आंदोलन के संदर्भ में असत्य कथन है-

  1. ((a))

    इसका उद्देश्य लोगों के अंदर स्वराज प्राप्ति के लिए जुझारू संकल्प पैदा करना था।

  2. ((b))

    इसमें विलायती वस्तुओं के साथ ही सरकारी नौकरियों, स्कूलों आदि का भी बहिष्कार शामिल था।

  3. ((c))

    बहिष्कार आंदोलन बंगाल विभाजन के विरोध स्वरुप चलाया गया।

  4. ((d))

    इस आंदोलन में अंग्रजों से पुरी तरह स्वतंत्रता प्राप्त करने के लिए संघर्ष किया गया।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

इसका उद्देश्य लोगों के अंदर स्वराज प्राप्ति के लिए जुझारू संकल्प पैदा करना था।

दिए गए गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न के उत्तर दीजिए।

बहिष्कार आंदोलन केवल विलायती वस्तुओं के उपयोग तक सीमित नहीं था बल्कि इसका स्वरुप बहुत व्यापक था और उसमें ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा दी हुई उपाधियों और सरकारी पदों का त्याग और कौंसिलों तथा स्कूलों का बहिष्कार भी शामिल था। इस आंदोलन का उद्देश्य सरकार को बंगाल के विभाजन को समाप्त करने तथा दमन को रोकने के लिए बाध्य करना था। वस्तुत: बहिष्कार आंदोलन का उद्देश्य लोगों के अंदर स्वराज्य प्राप्त करने के लिए एक जुझारू संकल्प पैदा करना था। इस आंदोलन के पुरस्कर्ताओं का त्याग और बलिदान इतना बड़ा था कि वह जनता के आदर्श और घर-घर में परिचित नाम बन गए थे। इनमें से तिलक तो स्वतंत्रता के लड़ने वाले और राजनीतिक दमन के प्रतीक बन गए थे। विभाजन के विरोध में छिड़े अभियान में स्वराज, स्वदेशी, बहिष्कार और राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा के नारे भी लगाये गये। सरकार ने इसका दमन करने के लिए कड़े कदम ���ठाये। नेताओं, सम्पादकों, प्रचारकों और संगठन कर्ताओं को जेल भेज दिया गया। इस दमन के विरोध में बंगाल, महाराष्ट्र और पंजाब में आतंकवादी गतिविधियाँ भी तेज हो गयीं। 1907 में कांग्रेस में उदारवादियों और जुझारु राष्ट्रवादियों में विभाजन हो गया। इसके बाद सरकारी दमन और भी तेज हो गया। 1907 में 'सेडिशस मीटिंग ऐक्ट' और 1910 में 'इण्डियन प्रेस ऐक्ट' लागू किए गये। पर दमनात्मक कारवाईयों के बावजूद आंदोलन समाप्त नहीं हुआ। इसके प्रभाव को कम करने के लिए सरकार ने 1909 में मार्लें-मिंटो रिफार्म लागू किये। इसका नरमपंथियों ने स्वागत किया।

100

ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा बहिष्कार आंदोलन को कुचलने के लिए निम्न में से क्या कार्य नहीं किया गया?

  1. ((a))

    सेडिशस मीटिंग ऐक्ट लगाया गया 

  2. ((b))

    सम्पादकों, नेताओं, प्रचारकों आदि को जेल में डाल दिया गया।

  3. ((c))

    प्रेस ऐक्ट लागू किया गया।

  4. ((d))

    कांग्रेस में विभाजन करा दिया गया।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

सेडिशस मीटिंग ऐक्ट लगाया गया 

Discipline 1 (20 questions)

101

The tangent to the curve y = e2x at the point (0, 1) meets x-axis at:

  1. ((a))

    (0, 2)

  2. ((b))

    (2, 0)

  3. ((c))

    (-1/2, 0)

  4. ((d))

    (0, 1)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(0, 2)

102

Rectilinear motion of a particle is defined by the relation s = t3 - 4t2 + 20t - 3. Calculate the velocity when time (t) = 5 sec. consider that value 's' is measure in meters.

  1. ((a))

    55 m/sec

  2. ((b))

    156 m/sec

  3. ((c))

    78 m/sec

  4. ((d))

    122 m/sec

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55 m/sec

103

How many thermometers are used in Searle's Apparatus which is used to find the thermal conductivity of a good conductor?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

104

Which of the following is the correct expression according to parallel axis theorem used for finding moment of inertia of plane figures?

Where,

'I1-1' is the moment of inertia of plane figure about an axis 1-1 which not passing through centroid of plane figure.

Ix-x is the moment of inertia of plane figure about an axis x-x passing through centroid which is parallel to axis 1-1

A is the area of considered plane figure

h is the perpendicular distance between axis 1-1 and axis x-x.

  1. ((a))

    I1-1 = Ix-x2 + Ah2

  2. ((b))

    I1-1 = Ix-x2 + A2h

  3. ((c))

    I1-1 = Ix-x + A2h

  4. ((d))

    I1-1 = Ix-x + Ah2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I1-1 = Ix-x2 + Ah2

105

Consider the below statements with respect to "Earthing system and protection in low voltage installations" and Identify the correct answer.

Statement A : More number of earth electrodes in soil (Separate earth electrode for Separate equipment), better is the system.

Statement B : According to IS 3043 : 2018, the terms Earthing and Grounding have different meanings.

  1. ((a))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Both statements are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

106

A bracket ABCD is subjected to 3 forces as shown in below figure, calculate the shortest distance measured from point 'A' to the line of action of resultant force for the given force system. using Varignon's theorem

  1. ((a))

    10 cm

  2. ((b))

    15 cm

  3. ((c))

    5 cm

  4. ((d))

    20 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 cm

107

Identify incorrect statement with respect to crossbelt drive used to transmit power from one shaft to another.

  1. ((a))

    Since power transmitted by this type of belt drive is due to the friction, belt drive is subjected to slip and creep.

  2. ((b))

    In case of cross belt drive, belt wears very fast.

  3. ((c))

    In case of cross belt drive, the angle of contact of belt on both the pulleys is equal.

  4. ((d))

    In case of cross belt drive, the pulleys rotate in the same direction.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Since power transmitted by this type of belt drive is due to the friction, belt drive is subjected to slip and creep.

108

Consider the below statements with respect to work and power and identify correct answer.

Statement A : The product of the displacement and the component of force in the direction of displacement is referred to as work done.

Statement B : Power has direction component as it is a vector quantity.

  1. ((a))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Both statements are correct

  3. ((c))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Both statements are incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

109

Which of the following is not the property of an equipotential surface?

  1. ((a))

    The electric field is always parallel to an equipotential surface

  2. ((b))

    The spacing between equipotential surfaces helps to identify regions of weak fields

  3. ((c))

    The spacing between equipotential surfaces helps to identify regions of strong fields

  4. ((d))

    Work done in moving a charge over an equipotential surface is zero

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The electric field is always parallel to an equipotential surface

110

Which of the following theorem's states that "a linear two-terminal circuit can be replaced by an equivalent circuit consisting of a current source IN in parallel with a resistor RN" where Iis the short-circuit current through the terminals and RN is the input or equivalent resistance at the terminals when the independent sources are turned off?

  1. ((a))

    Norton's Theorem

  2. ((b))

    Thevenin's theorem

  3. ((c))

    Maximum Power Transfer Theorem

  4. ((d))

    Superposition Theorem

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Norton's Theorem

111

A semi-circular lamina with a radius r = 30 mm is shown in the figure. The location of the centroid G of the lamina with respect to the axis passing through the diameter (OX) is at a distance of _____ mm.

  1. ((a))

    40 π 

  2. ((b))

    30π\frac{{30}}{\pi }

  3. ((c))

    30π 

  4. ((d))

    40π\frac{{40}}{\pi }

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 π 

112

A block of weight 500 N resting on a horizontal surface is subjected to a horizontal push of 600 N force, calculate the coefficient of static friction at the contact surface between two materials, if the limiting friction force developed is 200 N.

  1. ((a))

    0.5

  2. ((b))

    0.2

  3. ((c))

    0.4

  4. ((d))

    0.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.5

113

Four concurrent forces are acting at a point O as shown in figure. What would be the component of the resultant force in the X direction?

  1. ((a))

    450 N

  2. ((b))

    400 N

  3. ((c))

    350 N

  4. ((d))

    300 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

450 N

114

As per IS 10500 : 2012, permissible limit for the turbidity of drinking water in the absence of alternate source is ______.

  1. ((a))

    5 NTU

  2. ((b))

    10 NTU

  3. ((c))

    1 NTU

  4. ((d))

    3 NTU

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 NTU

115

Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) with a different values of molarity (M) are mixed, volume of first solution is 400 mL with 1.5 M and volume of second solution is 500 mL with 1 M second solution. Calculate the molarity of the final mixture?

  1. ((a))

    1.56 M

  2. ((b))

    1.39 M

  3. ((c))

    1.22 M

  4. ((d))

    0.95 M

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.56 M

116

The arithmetic mean between two numbers is 75 and their geometric mean is 21. Find the numbers.

  1. ((a))

    73 and 77

  2. ((b))

    63 and 87

  3. ((c))

    3 and 147

  4. ((d))

    133 and 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

73 and 77

117

Consider the below statements with respect to dissolved oxygen and temperature and identify correct answer.

Statement A : Cold water can hold more dissolved oxygen than warm water.

Statement B : Dissolved-oxygen concentration is independent of temperature of water.

  1. ((a))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Both statements are correct

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

118

Consider the below statements with respect to Kirchoff's Law and identify the correct answer.

Statement A: At any node (junction) in a circuit the product of currents entering and leaving a node at any instant of time must be equal to zero.

Statement B: In a closed circuit, the algebraic sum of all source voltages must be equal to the algebraic sum of all the voltage drops.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements are incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Both statements are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements are incorrect

119

Consider the below statements with respect to the series circuit and Identify the correct answer.

Statement A: The same current flows through each resistor in series.

Statement B: In a series circuit, the voltage drops across each resistor will be directly proportional to the capacity of the resistor.

  1. ((a))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Both statements are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

120

Pitting corrosion in metals is a ______.

  1. ((a))

    Metallurgically influenced corrosion

  2. ((b))

    Localized corrosion

  3. ((c))

    General corrosion

  4. ((d))

    Uniform corrosion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Metallurgically influenced corrosion

Discipline 2 (20 questions)

121

The type of stairs, where steps radiate from the centre and they do not have either any landing or any intermediate newel post is known as ______.

  1. ((a))

    Three quarter turn stairs

  2. ((b))

    Quarter Turning stairs

  3. ((c))

    Straight stairs

  4. ((d))

    Helical stairs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three quarter turn stairs

122

As per National Building code of India, which of the following type of building comes under Group G based on occupancy?

  1. ((a))

    Mercentile buildings.

  2. ((b))

    Industrial buildings

  3. ((c))

    Storage buildings

  4. ((d))

    Hazardus Buildings

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mercentile buildings.

123

Identify the incorrect statement with respect to parts of internal combustion (IC) engines.

  1. ((a))

    The inside diameter of the cylinder used in IC engines is called as "bore"

  2. ((b))

    Valves are used to control the flow of the intake and exhaust gases to and from the engine cylinder, in case of 4 stroke engines.

  3. ((c))

    Fuel injector is fitted on the cylinder head of petrol engine to spray metered quantity of fuel.

  4. ((d))

    Flywheel is mounted on the crankshaft of the engine to maintain uniform rotation of the crankshaft.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The inside diameter of the cylinder used in IC engines is called as "bore"

124

Linux operating system is invented by ______.

  1. ((a))

    Linus Torvalds

  2. ((b))

    Linux churi

  3. ((c))

    Linus madam

  4. ((d))

    Linux Ritche

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Linus Torvalds

125

A rectangular tank of 20 m2 area filled with water to a height of 5 m, calculate the total water pressure (F) at the bottom of the tank.

  1. ((a))

    981000 Newtons

  2. ((b))

    98100 Newtons

  3. ((c))

    9810000 Newtons

  4. ((d))

    9810 Newtons

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

981000 Newtons

126

Identify the general principle to be used in case of all the Damp-proofing methods.

  1. ((a))

    The damp-proofing course should be kept exposed on the wall surface

  2. ((b))

    Damp proofing course must be inclined

  3. ((c))

    At the corners the damp-proofing course should be discontinuos

  4. ((d))

    Damp proofing course may be horizontal or vertical

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The damp-proofing course should be kept exposed on the wall surface

127

Which of the following type of computer is comparatively most powerful in terms of speed and accuracy?

  1. ((a))

    Mainframe

  2. ((b))

    Personal computer

  3. ((c))

    Mini-computer

  4. ((d))

    Super computer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mainframe

128

As per IS 8112 : 2013, If the final setting time of ordinary Portland cement-grade 43 is greater than ______, such cement should be rejected

  1. ((a))

    10 hours

  2. ((b))

    4 hours

  3. ((c))

    8 hours

  4. ((d))

    6 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 hours

129

If Wheat requires about 8 cm of water every 28 days, and the base period for wheat is 140 days, determine the water requirement (delta) of Wheat in cm."

  1. ((a))

    40 cm

  2. ((b))

    60 cm

  3. ((c))

    80 cm

  4. ((d))

    20 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 cm

130

Pick odd one out with respect to classification of boilers according to contents in tubes.

  1. ((a))

    Conchran boiler

  2. ((b))

    Stirling boiler

  3. ((c))

    Cornish boiler

  4. ((d))

    Lancashire boiler

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Conchran boiler

131

A most economical rectangular channel of width 4 m is having a bed slope of 1 in 1600. find the hydraulic depth.

  1. ((a))

    0.25 m

  2. ((b))

    1 m

  3. ((c))

    2 m

  4. ((d))

    4 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.25 m

132

The type of closer in a brick obtained by cutting the brick longitudinally into two equal parts as shown in figure is called ______.

  1. ((a))

    Metered closer

  2. ((b))

    King closer

  3. ((c))

    Queen closer

  4. ((d))

    Bevelled closer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Metered closer

133

The discharge equation for a triangular V-notch with coefficient of discharge 0.6 is given by _______.

Where, Q = discharge through triangular V notch and H = Head of water above V notch.

  1. ((a))

    Q = 1.417H3/2

  2. ((b))

    Q = 1.417H2/3

  3. ((c))

    Q = 1.417H5/2

  4. ((d))

    Q = 1.417H1/2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Q = 1.417H3/2

134

The external curve (convex side) of an arch is called as _____.

  1. ((a))

    Soffit

  2. ((b))

    Haunch

  3. ((c))

    Extrados

  4. ((d))

    Ring

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Soffit

135

Which of the following is correct regarding Piezometer?

  1. ((a))

    used for measuring flow rate of liquid

  2. ((b))

    used to control the flow of water for outlets of lakes

  3. ((c))

    used for measureing gauge pressure of a liquid in pipe

  4. ((d))

    used to estimate the rate of flow of liquid through a pipe

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

used for measuring flow rate of liquid

136

Which of the following loop is an entry controlled loop?

  1. ((a))

    Do- while loop

  2. ((b))

    Linus loop

  3. ((c))

    While loop

  4. ((d))

    Mailing loop

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Do- while loop

137

Considering the zones in the vertical distribution of water occurs in soil, identify the zone in which Phreatic water exists.

  1. ((a))

    Zone of saturation

  2. ((b))

    Unsatuarted zone

  3. ((c))

    Zone of aeration

  4. ((d))

    Vadose zone

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Zone of saturation

138

If a partition wall consist of a framework of timber within which half - brick partitions are fitted are called as ______.

  1. ((a))

    Bricknogged partitions

  2. ((b))

    Concrete partitions

  3. ((c))

    Reinforced brick partitions

  4. ((d))

    Plain brick partitions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bricknogged partitions

139

As per IS 6198 : 1992, thickness of top and bottom ledges of a Ledged type of wooden doors shall be _____.

  1. ((a))

    5 mm

  2. ((b))

    50 mm

  3. ((c))

    80 mm

  4. ((d))

    25 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 mm

140

What is the ratio of surface tension between hollow bubble and liquid droplet?

  1. ((a))

    0.5

  2. ((b))

    0.125

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    0.25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.5

Discipline 3 (20 questions)

141

Which of the following condition should be satisfied, if an aggregate is said to be Elongated aggregate?

  1. ((a))

    The greatest dimension (length) of aggregate is greater than 1.8 times their mean dimension (mean dimension referes to mean of sieve size through which a particular aggregate passing through and retainied on)

  2. ((b))

    The greatest dimension (length) of aggregate is greater than 2.5 times their mean dimension (mean dimension referes to mean of sieve size through which a particular aggregate passing through and retainied on)

  3. ((c))

    The smallest dimension (thickness) of aggregate is smaller than 0.9 times their mean dimension (mean dimension referes to mean of sieve size through which a particular aggregate passing through and retainied on)

  4. ((d))

    The smallest dimension (thickness) of aggregate is smaller than 0.6 times their mean dimension (mean dimension referes to mean of sieve size through which a particular aggregate passing through and retainied on)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The greatest dimension (length) of aggregate is greater than 1.8 times their mean dimension (mean dimension referes to mean of sieve size through which a particular aggregate passing through and retainied on)

142

Which of the following equipment is more suitable for transportation of concrete over a long distance, like 10 to 15 kms?

  1. ((a))

    Skip and hoist

  2. ((b))

    Belt conveyors

  3. ((c))

    Transit mixers

  4. ((d))

    Pumps and pipeline

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Skip and hoist

143

Consider below statements with respect to shear stress distribution in a symmetrical I sections due to bending action, and identify correct answer.

Statement A : Shear stress developed in a I section will be maximum at the junction of flange and web.

Statement B : Shear stress developed in a I section will be maximum at its neutral axis.

  1. ((a))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    Both statements are incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

144

Consider below statements with respect to workability of concrete and identify correct answer.

Statement A : Use of rounded aggregates makes the concrete harsh when compared to angular shaped aggregates.

Statement B : Higher aggregate cement ratio make the concrete mix cohesive and fatty to give better workability

  1. ((a))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Both statements are correct

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

145

Efficient transfer of stress between matrix and fibers in fiber reinforced concrete doesnot depend up on ______.

  1. ((a))

    Intensity of applied load

  2. ((b))

    Type of fiber

  3. ((c))

    Size and shape of the aggregates

  4. ((d))

    Fiber geometry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Intensity of applied load

146

A rectangular strut of width 150 mm and thickness 120 mm carries a load of 180 kN. Calculate the minimum stress in the section if the load is eccentric by 20 mm in the direction of width and concentric in the direction of thickness. Ignore the self weight of the strut.

  1. ((a))

    8 MPa

  2. ((b))

    2 MPa

  3. ((c))

    4 MPa

  4. ((d))

    6 MPa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8 MPa

147

Which of the following product of cement hydration is responsible of flash setting?

  1. ((a))

    Tricalcium aluminate

  2. ((b))

    Tri-calcium silicate

  3. ((c))

    Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

  4. ((d))

    Di-calcium silicate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tricalcium aluminate

148

Identify the incorrect statement with respect to various types of admixtures used in making concrete.

  1. ((a))

    Accelerating admixtures are added to concrete to increase the rate of early strength development in concrete.

  2. ((b))

    Use of retarders in making concrete allows the concrete to be plastic and workable for a longer time than concrete without retarders.

  3. ((c))

    Addition of Superplasticizers in making concrete increases the water cement ratio required to attain a particular degree of workability.

  4. ((d))

    Addition of Superplasticizers in making concrete increases the workability of concrete for a given water cement ratio.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Accelerating admixtures are added to concrete to increase the rate of early strength development in concrete.

149

Which of the following in not the assumption made in the analysis of trusses?

  1. ((a))

    Members are not rigid

  2. ((b))

    Forces are acting only at joints

  3. ((c))

    The members of trusses are straight

  4. ((d))

    Cross sectional area of members of truss is same through out their length

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Members are not rigid

150

Large number of cutoff valves are required under which type of below mentioned distribution system?

  1. ((a))

    Radial system

  2. ((b))

    Dead end system

  3. ((c))

    Reticular system

  4. ((d))

    Tree system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Radial system

151

A cantilever beam of length 3 m carries a gradually varying load, with an intensity zero at free end (B) to 2 kN/m at fixed end (A). Calculate the value of shear force at A.

  1. ((a))

    -6 kN

  2. ((b))

    -4 kN

  3. ((c))

    -2 kN

  4. ((d))

    -3 kN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-6 kN

152

Identify the effect on the property of concrete due to reduction in water cement ratio, with all other parameters remain constant, and ensuring proper compaction and placing of concrete.

  1. ((a))

    Change of water cement ratio doesnot affect the hardened and fresh concrete properties

  2. ((b))

    Workability of concrete increases

  3. ((c))

    Strength of concrete increases

  4. ((d))

    Strength concrete decreases

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Change of water cement ratio doesnot affect the hardened and fresh concrete properties

153

Which of the following is the correct expression for the calculation of power transmitted by a rotating shaft from one of its end to another?

  1. ((a))

    πNT360\frac{{\pi NT}}{{360}} kW. Where, N is the number of revolutions per minute and T is average torque in kN-m.

  2. ((b))

    πNT100\frac{{\pi NT}}{{100}} kW. Where, N is the number of revolutions per minute and T is average torque in kN-m.

  3. ((c))

    πNT30\frac{{\pi NT}}{{30}} kW. Where, N is the number of revolutions per minute and T is average torque in kN-m.

  4. ((d))

    πNT80\frac{{\pi NT}}{{80}} kW. Where, N is the number of revolutions per minute and T is average torque in kN-m.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

πNT360\frac{{\pi NT}}{{360}} kW. Where, N is the number of revolutions per minute and T is average torque in kN-m.

154

A rectangular beam 200 mm wide and 400 mm deep is simply supported over a span of 5 meters. If the beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 4 kN/m, find the maximum bending stress in the beam.

  1. ((a))

    3156.72 kN/m2

  2. ((b))

    2343.89 kN/m2

  3. ((c))

    3564.79 kN/m2

  4. ((d))

    1251.64 kN/m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3156.72 kN/m2

155

While finding capacity distribution of reservoir, mass curve is drawn, The steepness in the mass curve of demand indicates ______.

  1. ((a))

    Lower the storage capacity

  2. ((b))

    Higher the Rate of demand

  3. ((c))

    Lower the rate of demand

  4. ((d))

    Higher the storage capacity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lower the storage capacity

156

At what pH value "Trichloramines" are formed in disinfection process of water?

  1. ((a))

    between 9 to 11

  2. ((b))

    greater than 7.0

  3. ((c))

    between 6 to 8

  4. ((d))

    between 1 to 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

between 9 to 11

157

Following the IS standards, the permissible limit of total dissolved solids for drinking water in the absence of alternate source is ______.

  1. ((a))

    500 mg/l

  2. ((b))

    5000 mg/l

  3. ((c))

    2000 mg/l

  4. ((d))

    200 mg/l

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

500 mg/l

158

An intake commonly used to obtain supply from lake is called as ______.

  1. ((a))

    Reservior intake

  2. ((b))

    Exposed intake

  3. ((c))

    Submerged intake

  4. ((d))

    Dry intake

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reservior intake

159

Consider below statements with respect to Euler's column theory and identify correct answer.

Statement A : The effect of direct stresses are neglected in the equation derived by Euler which is used study the stability of long columns.

Statement B : Euler's formula can be used in the case of short columns.

  1. ((a))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Both statements are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

160

Consider below statements with respect to poisson's ratio and identify correct answer.

Statement A : When the deformation of the member is within the elastic limit, it is found that the ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is constant for a given material.

Statement B : When the deformation of the member is plastic in nature, it is found that the ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is constant for a given material.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements are incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Both statements are correct

  3. ((c))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements are incorrect

Discipline 4 (20 questions)

161

In the manufacture of cement by wet process, what is the temperature at which the nodules formed are converted into clinker?"

  1. ((a))

    1800 - 2000°C

  2. ((b))

    800 - 1200°C

  3. ((c))

    1000 - 1200°C

  4. ((d))

    1500 - 1600°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1800 - 2000°C

162

According to minimum wages act 1948, cost of living index number is related to ________.

  1. ((a))

    Minimum rates of wages for scheduled employment

  2. ((b))

    Minimum rates of wages for unscheduled employment

  3. ((c))

    Maximum rates of wages for scheduled employment

  4. ((d))

    Maximum rates of wages for unscheduled employment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Minimum rates of wages for scheduled employment

163

Type of Soil, deposited at the bottom of lakes are called as?

  1. ((a))

    Lacustrine soils

  2. ((b))

    Peat

  3. ((c))

    Loess

  4. ((d))

    Alluvial soils

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lacustrine soils

164

Identify the acid type of lgneous rock, from the below list rocks.

  1. ((a))

    Dolerite

  2. ((b))

    Rhyolite

  3. ((c))

    Peridotite

  4. ((d))

    Gabbro

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dolerite

165

According to ISO 9004, considering diversity is an action to consider when addressing competitive factors comes under ______.

  1. ((a))

    Partners

  2. ((b))

    Pricing

  3. ((c))

    People

  4. ((d))

    Processes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Partners

166

To carry out risk assessment and control in a construction industry, which of the following expression should be used in accordance with IS 18001 : 2007?

  1. ((a))

    Risk level = Exposure × Probability

  2. ((b))

    Risk level = Consequence × Probability

  3. ((c))

    Risk level = Consequence × Exposure × Probability

  4. ((d))

    Risk level = Consequence × Exposure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Risk level = Exposure × Probability

167

Calculate the slope at free end of a cantilever beam of length 4 m shown in below figure. Take EI as constant throughout its length.

  1. ((a))

    -15EI\frac{{15}}{{EI}}

  2. ((b))

    -40EI\frac{{40}}{{EI}}

  3. ((c))

    -60EI\frac{{60}}{{EI}}

  4. ((d))

    -25EI\frac{{25}}{{EI}}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-15EI\frac{{15}}{{EI}}

168

Calculate the static indeterminacy of a fixed beam shown in below figure.

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

169

Consider below statements with respect to carry over factor used in moment distribution method and identify correct answer.

Statement A : The carry over factor is always 1/2 for a prismatic section, when the far end is fixed.

Statement B : For a member with a pinned end opposite (where there are no other members connected to that pin) the carry over factor is zero.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements are incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements are incorrect

170

A symmetrical parabolic three hinded arch of span 30 m and rise 5 m carries a uniformly distributed load of intensity 20 kN/m starting from the central hinge and runs over for 10 m towards right hinge. Calculate the support reaction at left support developed in vertical direction.

  1. ((a))

    66.7 kN

  2. ((b))

    85.8 kN

  3. ((c))

    114.2 kN

  4. ((d))

    133.3 kN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66.7 kN

171

After kiln seasoning/drying of wood, the loss in the strength of the wood usually should not be more than _______.

  1. ((a))

    2%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2%

172

Calculate the apparent specific gravity of a soil sample, if its bulk unit weight = 16 kN/m3, dry unit weight is 14 kN/m3 and the unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3

  1. ((a))

    1.5

  2. ((b))

    1.6

  3. ((c))

    1.4

  4. ((d))

    1.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.5

173

According to IS : 712 classification of lime, Class B lime is known as _____.

  1. ((a))

    Dolomitic lime

  2. ((b))

    Semi-Hydraulic lime

  3. ((c))

    Magnesium lime

  4. ((d))

    Fat lime

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dolomitic lime

174

If the liquid limit and plastic limit of fine grained soil sample are found to be 44 and 21 respectively. Identify the type of soil based on unified soil classification system.

  1. ((a))

    ML

  2. ((b))

    CI

  3. ((c))

    CL

  4. ((d))

    MI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ML

175

According to IS-1077 (specifications common burnt clay building bricks), what is the limiting Percentage of water absorption for class 25 bricks?

  1. ((a))

    5%

  2. ((b))

    7%

  3. ((c))

    10%

  4. ((d))

    15%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5%

176

In consolidation of soil, the Secondary consolidation of soil leads to ______.

  1. ((a))

    Compression and rearrangement of particles

  2. ((b))

    Expansion of soil particles

  3. ((c))

    Greater amount of settlement compared to primary consolidation

  4. ((d))

    Dissipation of pore water pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Compression and rearrangement of particles

177

Two wheel loads of magnitude 100 kN (Leading load) and 200 kN spaced at 2 m apart move on a simply supported girder beam of span 16 m from left to right. Calculate the maximum negative and positive shear force at a section 4 m from the left end support.

  1. ((a))

    25 kN, 200 kN

  2. ((b))

    50 kN, 212.5 kN

  3. ((c))

    62.5 kN, 215.5 kN

  4. ((d))

    50 kN, 150 kN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 kN, 200 kN

178

The type of oil paint where Aluminium powder is used as base is ______.

  1. ((a))

    Aluminium paints

  2. ((b))

    Iron Paints

  3. ((c))

    Lead paints

  4. ((d))

    Copper paints

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aluminium paints

179

Which of the following is NOT a suggested consideration in ethical analysis and resolution?

  1. ((a))

    Determination of the key participants involved, based on the cultural values of the client.

  2. ((b))

    Use relational methods to reach an agreement on potential courses of action

  3. ((c))

    Determination of the key participants involved, based on the theoretical perspective of the client.

  4. ((d))

    Collect relevant cultural information.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Determination of the key participants involved, based on the cultural values of the client.

180

The employee state insurance ACT, 1948 is to provide certain benefits related to _______.

  1. ((a))

    sickness, maternity and employment injury

  2. ((b))

    maternity and employment injury only

  3. ((c))

    sickness and maternity only

  4. ((d))

    sickness and employment injury only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

sickness, maternity and employment injury

Discipline 5 (20 questions)

181

Consider below statements with respect to terms used in valuation and identify correct answer.

Statement A : The value of a property at the end of the utility period without being dismantled is known as salvage value.

Statement B : The amount value which can be obtained at any particular time from the open market if the property is put for sale is known as market value.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements are incorrect

  2. ((b))

    Statements A is correct and B is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Both statements are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements are incorrect

182

The keyboard shortcut used to measure the distance in AutoCADD software is ______.

  1. ((a))

    DA

  2. ((b))

    DS

  3. ((c))

    DE

  4. ((d))

    DI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DA

183

Sliding length of rubber shoe in friction coefficient test on Coarse aggregate is _______.

  1. ((a))

    55 mm

  2. ((b))

    65 mm

  3. ((c))

    85 mm

  4. ((d))

    75 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55 mm

184

According to IS 800 : 2007, in the design of tension members, for preliminary sizing, the rupture strength of net section in approximated as Tdn = α.An:fu /γml. The value of co-efficient α to be used for one or two bolts is ______ Where, An = net area of the total cross-section: fu = ultimate stress of the material; γm1 = partial safety factor for failure at ultimate stress.

  1. ((a))

    0.6

  2. ((b))

    0.1

  3. ((c))

    1.5

  4. ((d))

    0.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.6

185

According to IS 800 : 2007, under classification of cross-sections, Class 1 sections are also called as _____.

  1. ((a))

    slender

  2. ((b))

    compact

  3. ((c))

    Semi compact

  4. ((d))

    Plastic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

slender

186

According to IS 800 : 2007, the value of poisson's ratio to be considered irrespective of grade of steel is ______.

  1. ((a))

    0.5

  2. ((b))

    0.3

  3. ((c))

    0.2

  4. ((d))

    0.4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.5

187

A building requires 5 RCC beams of size 0.5 m depth, 0.2 m thickness and 5 m length. Estimate the quantity of steel reinforcement required, if the steel reinforcement to be provided is 1% by their gross volume. Consider that mass density of steel as 7850 kg/m3.

  1. ((a))

    0.956 quintal

  2. ((b))

    2.789 quintal

  3. ((c))

    1.248 quintal

  4. ((d))

    1.9625 quintal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.956 quintal

188

The phenomenon of lamellar tearing occurs at which type of connections?

  1. ((a))

    Bolted steel connection

  2. ((b))

    Reinforced cement concrete connection

  3. ((c))

    Welded steel connection

  4. ((d))

    Pre-stressed concrete connection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bolted steel connection

189

Which of the following type of estimate is a detailed estimate?

  1. ((a))

    Cubs rate estimate

  2. ((b))

    Plinth area estimate

  3. ((c))

    Revised estimate

  4. ((d))

    Approximate quantity method estimate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cubs rate estimate

190

Stopping sight distance value recommended by IRC for a Design speed of 80 Kmph is ______.

  1. ((a))

    180 m

  2. ((b))

    90 m

  3. ((c))

    110 m

  4. ((d))

    120 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

180 m

191

Indian standard rolled steel angle sections, used as compression members comes under which of the following buckling class?

  1. ((a))

    Class d

  2. ((b))

    Class a

  3. ((c))

    Class b

  4. ((d))

    Class c

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Class d

192

In an Autocadd software the command used for snap grid points is ______.

  1. ((a))

    Object snap

  2. ((b))

    Polar snap

  3. ((c))

    Show to grid

  4. ((d))

    Snap to grid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Object snap

193

Secondary road system as per 3rd 20 year road plan in India consists of _____.

  1. ((a))

    State Highway and Major District Roads

  2. ((b))

    State Highway and Other District Roads

  3. ((c))

    Express ways and state Highways

  4. ((d))

    National & State Highways

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

State Highway and Major District Roads

194

Which of the following is the correct unit of measurement for "expansion, contration or construction joint"?

  1. ((a))

    Cubic meter

  2. ((b))

    Running meter

  3. ((c))

    Square meter

  4. ((d))

    Numbers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cubic meter

195

Calculated the quantity of earthwork by mid sectional area method for a 100 meter length cutting for a portion of canal in an uniform ground the depth of cut at the two ends being 1.8 m and 2.2 m. The bed width is 5 meter and side slopes 2H : 1V and no transvers slope.

  1. ((a))

    1800.00 cu m

  2. ((b))

    2400.00 cu m

  3. ((c))

    1700.00 cu m

  4. ((d))

    1500.00 cu m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1800.00 cu m

196

According to IS 800 : 2007, the maximum effective slenderness ratio for a member carrying compressive loads resulting from dead loads and imposed loads is ______.

  1. ((a))

    340

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    230

  4. ((d))

    180

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

340

197

A person purchased a machinery at a cost of Rs. 50,000. Calculate the total amount of sinking fund to be accumulated at the end of 10 years, if the scrap value of the said machinery is 10%.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 45,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 50,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 20,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 4000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 45,000

198

Which of the following type of foundation is classified as deep footing/foundation?

  1. ((a))

    Caisson foundation

  2. ((b))

    Mat foundation

  3. ((c))

    Combined footing

  4. ((d))

    Stepped isolated footing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Caisson foundation

199

Considered below statements with respect to Double Lines for drawing plans in Autocadd and identify correct answer.

Statement A : double lines can be drawn as straight segments.

Statement B : double lines cannot be drawn as arc segments.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements are correct

  2. ((b))

    Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements are correct

200

Anti corrosion coating to dowel bars used at the location of construction joints, provided in rigid pavements can be done using ______.

  1. ((a))

    Alkyed coating

  2. ((b))

    Vinyl resin coating

  3. ((c))

    Epoxy coating

  4. ((d))

    Thermoplastic coating

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alkyed coating

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