Previous Year Paper

DSSSB Court Attendant Official Paper (Held On 02 Jun, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2026

100 questions150 minutes

With answers

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Try Mock Test

Paper last updated: 03 November 2026

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

Hindi 1 (15 questions)

Question 1

नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से उचित कारक परसर्ग चुनकर वाक्य पूर्ण करें।

"आज के इस डिजिटल युग में हम सूचना तकनीक और उच्च गति वाले इंटरनेट के माध्यम _______ विश्व के किसी भी कोने से पल भर में संपर्क साध सकते हैं।"

AOption (a)
से
BOption (b)
पर
COption (c)
को
DOption (d)
ने

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

से

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- से

Key Points

दिए गए वाक्य में 'के माध्यम' के साथ 'से' परसर्ग का प्रयोग सबसे उपयुक्त है, जो कि करण कारक की विभक्ति है।
वाक्य का पूर्ण रूप: "आज के इस डिजिटल युग में हम सूचना तकनीक और उच्च गति वाले इंटरनेट के माध्यम से विश्व के किसी भी कोने से पल भर में संपर्क साध सकते हैं।"
यहाँ इंटरनेट और सूचना तकनीक संपर्क साधने के साधन या माध्यम के रूप में प्रयुक्त हुए हैं। व्याकरण के अनुसार, जिस साधन से क्रिया संपन्न होती है, वहाँ करण कारक (से/के द्वारा) का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
अन्य उदाहरण: वह बस से दिल्ली गया।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्प	विग्रह/अर्थ	भेद/प्रकार
पर	आधार या स्थान सूचित करने के लिए।	अधिकरण कारक
को	जिस पर क्रिया का प��रभाव पड़े।	कर्म कारक
ने	क्रिया को करने वाला (कर्ता)।	कर्ता कारक

Important Points

हिंदी में कारक के भेद-

कर्ता कारक (ने)
कर्म कारक (को)
करण कारक (से, के द्वारा)
संप्रदान कारक (के लिए, को)
अपादान कारक (से - अलग होने के अर्थ में)
संबंध कारक (का, की, के)
अधिकरण कारक (में, पर)
संबोधन कारक (हे, अरे)

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेद	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
करण कारक	वाक्य में जिस शब्द की सहायता से क्रिया का संपादन होता है, उसे करण कारक कहते हैं। इसकी मुख्य विभक्ति 'से' है।	राम ने कलम से पत्र लिखा। वह कुल्हाड़ी से वृक्ष काटता है।

Question 2

'काला अक्षर भैंस बराबर' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ निम्न में से है--

AOption (a)
पढ़ाई-लिखाई का मोल न होना
BOption (b)
अक्षर और भैंस का मूल्य बराबर होना
COption (c)
अशिक्षित होना
DOption (d)
शिक्षा प्राप्त कर भैंस खरीदी जा सकती है

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

अशिक्षित होना

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - अशिक्षित होना

Key Points

'काला अक्षर भैंस बराबर' का अर्थ/भाव - बिल्कुल अनपढ़ या अशिक्षित होना।
प्रयोग - सोहन के लिए अखबार लाने का क्या फायदा, उसके लिए तो काला अक्षर भैंस बराबर है।
लोकोक्ति - लोक-अनुभव, शिक्षा या सत्य को व्यक्त करने वाली प्रचलित पूर्ण उक्ति को लोकोक्ति कहते हैं।
उदाहरण - 'अधजल गगरी छलकत जाए' का भावार्थ - कम ज्ञान होने पर भी अधिक दिखावा करना। प्रयोग - नया सहायक कल से काम पर आया है और खुद को मुख्य प्रबंधक समझने लगा है, इसे कहते हैं - अधजल गगरी छलकत जाए।

अन्य विकल्प-

विकल्प	अर्थ	वाक्य प्रयोग
पढ़ाई-लिखाई का मोल न होना	शिक्षा का महत्त्व न समझना	ज्ञान के बिना जीवन व्यर्थ है।
अक्षर और भैंस का मूल्य बराबर होना	शाब्दिक/निरर्थक अर्थ	यह केवल शब्दों का भ्रम है।
शिक्षा प्राप्त कर भैंस खरीदी जा सकती है	तर्कहीन कथन	यह लोकोक्ति का अर्थ नहीं है।

Additional Information

मुहावरा/लोकोक्ति	अर्थ	वाक्य प्रयोग
अंधों में काना राजा	मूर्खों के बीच कम पढ़ा-लिखा भी विद्वान माना जाता है	पूरे गाँव में केवल रमेश ही चिट्ठी पढ़ सकता है, वह तो अंधों में काना राजा है।
अक्ल पर पत्थर पड़ना	बुद्धि भ्रष्ट होना	संकट के समय उसकी अक्ल पर पत्थर पड़ गए और वह गलत निर्णय ले बैठा।
कोल्हू का बैल	दिन-रात परिश्रम करने वाला	नौकरी में टिके रहने के लिए वह कोल्हू का बैल बना रहता है।
घर की मुर्गी दाल बराबर	घर की वस्तु या व्यक्ति का कोई आदर न करना	शहर के डॉक्टर की सब तारीफ करते हैं, पर अपने भाई को कोई नहीं पूछता; सच है घर की मुर्गी दाल बराबर।
ऊँट के मुँह में जीरा	जरूरत से बहुत कम वस्तु मिलना	इतने बड़े पहलवान को दो रोटियाँ देना तो ऊँट के मुँह में जीरा है।
नाच न जाने आँगन टेढ़ा	अपनी कमी छिपाने के लिए दूसरों में दोष निकालना	गाना खुद को आता नहीं और माइक को खराब बता रहे हो, इसे कहते हैं नाच न जाने आँगन टेढ़ा।

Question 3

‘चूना लगाना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है –

AOption (a)
धोखा देना
BOption (b)
बिगाड़ देना
COption (c)
आदर न करना
DOption (d)
भेद खोलना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

धोखा देना

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - धोखा देना

Key Points

'चूना लगाना' का अर्थ - किसी को धोखा देना या आर्थिक नुकसान पहुँचाना।
वाक्य प्रयोग - ठगों ने भोली-भाली जनता को नकली गहने बेचकर लाखों का चूना लगा दिया।
मुहावरा - ऐसे रूढ़ वाक्यांश जो सामान्य अर्थ के स्थान पर विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं, मुहावरे कहलाते हैं।
उदाहरण - 'ऊँट के मुँह में जीरा' का अर्थ - आवश्यकता से बहुत कम। वाक्य प्रयोग - पहलवान के लिए दो रोटी तो ऊँट के मुँह में जीरा के समान है।

अन्य विकल्प-

मुहावरा	अर्थ	वाक्य प्रयोग
खेल बिगाड़ना	बना-बनाया काम खराब कर देना	उसकी लापरवाही ने सारा खेल बिगाड़ दिया।
आँखें फेर लेना	आदर न करना या प्रतिकूल होना	मुसीबत आते ही मित्रों ने आँखें फेर लीं।
कलई खुलना	भेद खुलना या असलियत सामने आना	जाँच होते ही भ्रष्ट अधिकारी की कलई खुल गई।

Additional Information

मुहावरा/लोकोक्ति	अर्थ/भावार्थ	वाक्य प्रयोग
आँखों का तारा	बहुत प्यारा होना	राम अपनी माँ की आँखों का तारा है।
ईद का चाँद होना	बहुत दिनों बाद दिखाई देना	नौकरी लगने के बाद सोहन तो ईद का चाँद हो गया है।
गागर में सागर भरना	थोड़े शब्दों में बहुत कुछ कह देना	बिहारी के दोहे गागर में सागर भरने के समान हैं।
लोहा लेना	मुकाबला करना	भारतीय सेना ने दुश्मनों से डटकर लोहा लिया।
अंधे की लकड़ी	एकमात्र सहारा	श्रवण कुमार अपने माता-पिता के लिए अंधे की लकड़ी थे।
एक हाथ से ताली नहीं बजती	झगड़ा एक तरफ से नहीं होता	गलती दोनों की है, क्योंकि ताली एक हाथ से नहीं बजती।

Question 4

उपयुक्त क्रिया-विशेषण का चयन कर दिए गए वाक्य को पूर्ण कीजिए ।

'रिमझिम .................... खाना बनाती है।'

AOption (a)
आजन्म
BOption (b)
झट से
COption (c)
बाहर से
DOption (d)
भूल से

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

झट से

Why this answer is correct

'रिमझिम झट से खाना बनाती है।' वाक्य उदाहरण है: रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण का

Key Points

'रिमझिम झट से खाना बनाती है' में झट से रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है। यह क्रिया (बनाती है) के होने के ढंग या रीति का बोध कराता है।
जिन अविकारी शब्दों से क्रिया के होने की रीति, विधि या ढंग का बोध हो, वे रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहलाते हैं।
जैसे- अचानक, एकाएक, धीरे-धीरे, सावधानीपूर्वक, सहसा, शांतिपूर्वक, तेज आदि।
उदाहरण - कछुआ धीरे-धीरे चलता है।

Important Pointsअर्थ के आधार पर क्रिया-विशेषण के भेद-

स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

Additional Information

क्रियाविशेषण	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
स्थानवाचक	क्रिया के स्थान या दिशा का बोध।	भीतर, नीचे, यहाँ, वहाँ, सर्वत्र। वाक्य - तुम अंदर बैठो।
कालवाचक	क्रिया के समय या काल का बोध।	परसों, सदा, अभी, कल, प्रतिदिन। वाक्य - वह कल आएगा।
परिमाणवाचक	क्रिया की मात्रा या परिमाण का बोध।	कम, अधिक, पर्याप्त, थोड़ा, खूब। वाक्य - वह कम बोलता है।

Question 5

निम्नलिखित वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान में उचित ‘क्रिया’ चुनकर रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए-

‘वह पत्र ________ चुका है।'

AOption (a)
कलम
BOption (b)
कागज
COption (c)
सुंदर
DOption (d)
लिख

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

लिख

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - लिख

Key Points

वह पत्र लिख चुका है।
वाक्य में 'लिख' के प्रयोग से क्रिया की पूर्णता का बोध होता है तथा वाक्य का सार्थक एवं व्याकरणिक रूप से शुद्ध अर्थ प्रकट होता है।
'लिख' का अर्थ - लेखन कार्य करना; जैसे- उसने अपना गृहकार्य लिख लिया है।

Additional Informationकलम-

अर्थ: लिखने का उपकरण (संज्ञा)।
जैसे - मैंने बाज़ार से एक नई कलम खरीदी।

कागज-

अर्थ: वह वस्तु जिस पर लिखा जाता है (संज्ञा)।
जैसे - जरूरी जानकारी सफेद कागज पर नोट कर लो।

सुंदर-

अर्थ: देखने में अच्छा या आकर्षक (विशेषण)।
जैसे - बगीचे में बहुत सुंदर फूल खिले हैं।

Question 6

दिये गये वाक्य के किस भाग में त्रुटि है?

मैंने अपने दोस्त से मिलकर बहुत खुशी हुई।

AOption (a)
मैंने अपने दोस्त
BOption (b)
से मिलकर
COption (c)
बहुत खुशी
DOption (d)
हुई

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

मैंने अपने दोस्त

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए वाक्य के अशुद्ध भाग का सही उत्तर है- मैंने अपने दोस्त

Key Points

वाक्य के भाग 'मैंने अपने दोस्त' में त्रुटि है क्योंकि यहाँ कर्ता कारक के साथ 'ने' विभक्ति का प्रयोग अनुचित है; शुद्ध रूप 'मुझे अपने दोस्त' होना चाहिए।
वाक्य शुद्धि का अर्थ वाक्य को व्याकरण के नियमों के अनुसार शुद्ध एवं सार्थक रूप में व्यवस्थित करना है।
उदाहरण 1: 'मुझे' गृहकार्य करना है।
उदाहरण 2: 'मुझसे' यह काम नहीं होगा।

अन्य विकल्प -

विकल्प	विग्रह/अर्थ	अशुद्धि का प्रकार
से मिलकर	यह भाग पूर्णतः शुद्ध है।	कोई त्रुटि नहीं
बहुत खुशी	यह विशेषण और संज्ञा का शुद्ध रूप है।	कोई त्रुटि नहीं
हुई	क्रिया स्त्रीलिंग संज्ञा 'खुशी' के अनुसार शुद्ध है।	कोई त्रुटि नहीं

Important Pointsवाक्य अशुद्धि के मुख्य भेद-

सर्वनाम संबंधी अशुद्धि
कारक संबंधी अशुद्धि
क्रिया संबंधी अशुद्धि
लिंग संबंधी अशुद्धि

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेद	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
सर्वनाम/कारक संबंधी	वाक्य में सर्वनाम या कारक चिह्नों का गलत प्रयोग।	मेरे को जाना है। → मुझे जाना है। तेरे को क्या चाहिए? → तुझे क्या चाहिए?
लिंग संबंधी	कर्ता के लिंग के अनुसार क्रिया या विशेषण का मेल न होना।	मीरा गाना गा रहा है। → मीरा गाना गा रही है। बुद्धिमान स्त्री। → बुद्धिमती स्त्री।

Question 7

'हाथ-पाँव फूल जाना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है--

AOption (a)
प्रसन्न होना
BOption (b)
सूजन आना
COption (c)
अचेतन होना
DOption (d)
डर जाना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

डर जाना

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - डर जाना

Key Points

'हाथ-पाँव फूल जाना' का अर्थ - घबरा जाना या डर जाना।
वाक्य प्रयोग - सामने अचानक शेर को देखकर शिकारी के हाथ-पाँव फूल गए।
मुहावरा - ऐसे रूढ़ वाक्यांश जो सामान्य अर्थ के स्थान पर विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं, मुहावरे कहलाते हैं।
उदाहरण - 'थोककर चाटना' का अर्थ - वादा करके मुकर जाना। वाक्य प्रयोग - पहले तुमने मदद का वादा किया और अब पीछे हट रहे हो, इसे कहते हैं थोककर चाटना।

अन्य विकल्प-

मुहावरा	अर्थ	वाक्य प्रयोग
गद्गद होना	प्रसन्न होना	बेटे की सफलता देख पिता का मन गद्गद हो गया।
आँखें पथरा जाना	अचेतन/जड़ होना	पुत्र के वियोग में माता की आँखें पथरा गईं।
शरीर भर आना	सूजन आना	बीमारी के कारण रोगी का शरीर भर आया है।

Additional Information

मुहावरा/लोकोक्ति	अर्थ/भावार्थ	वाक्य प्रयोग
भीगी बिल्ली बनना	डर के मारे दुबक जाना	शिक्षक के आते ही शरारती छात्र भीगी बिल्ली बन गए।
कलेजा मुँह को आना	अत्यधिक घबरा जाना	धमाके की आवाज सुनकर मेरा कलेजा मुँह को आ गया।
प्राण सूख जाना	बहुत अधिक डर जाना	साँप को अपने पास देखकर रमेश के प्राण सूख गए।
पसीने छूटना	डर या घबराहट होना	कठिन प्रश्नपत्र देखकर मेधावी छात्रों के भी पसीने छूट गए।
न घर का न घाट का	कहीं का न रहना	दो नावों की सवारी करने वाला न घर का रहता है न घाट का।
हवा से बातें करना	बहुत तेज दौड़ना	महाराणा प्रताप का घोड़ा हवा से बातें करता था।

Question 8

दिए गए वाक्य में उचित प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया शब्द का चयन करके रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति करें-

निर्देशक ने अभिनेता को अभिनव कौशल का अभ्यास ------------।

AOption (a)
पढ़वाया
BOption (b)
दिलवाया
COption (c)
समझाया
DOption (d)
करवाया

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

करवाया

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "करवाया" है।

Key Points

वाक्य के अनुसार,

रिक्त स्थान के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शब्द 'करवाया' है।
पूर्ण वाक्य: निर्देशक ने अभिनेता को अभिनव कौशल का अभ्यास करवाया।
यहाँ 'करवाया' एक द्वितीयक प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया है, जहाँ कर्ता (निर्देशक) स्वयं कार्य न करके दूसरे (अभिनेता) को कार्य करने के लिए प्रेरित कर रहा है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

पढ़वाया -

यह 'पढ़ना' क्रिया का प्रेरणार्थक रूप है, जो पठन सामग्री के संदर्भ में उपयोग होता है, अभ्यास के लिए नहीं।

दिलवाया -

यह 'देना' क्रिया का प्रेरणार्थक रूप है, जो किसी वस्तु के आदान-प्रदान हेतु प्रयुक्त होता है।

समझाया -

यह 'समझना' क्रिया का प्रेरणार्थक रूप है। यद्यपि अभ्यास के पहले निर्देश दिए जा सकते हैं, लेकिन अभ्यास 'करने' की क्रिया है, इसलिए 'करवाया' अधिक सटीक है।

Question 9

जो संगीत जानता है- वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द क्या होगा?

AOption (a)
गायक
BOption (b)
बहुज्ञ
COption (c)
संगीतज्ञ
DOption (d)
सर्वज्ञ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

संगीतज्ञ

Why this answer is correct

‘जो संगीत जानता है’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - संगीतज्ञ।

Key Points

‘जो संगीत जानता है’ उसके लिए एक उपयुक्त शब्द संगीतज्ञ है।
संगीतज्ञ शब्द संगीत और ज्ञ (जानने वाला) के मेल से बना है, जिसका अर्थ है संगीत का विद्वान या ज्ञाता।
अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर एक शब्द का प्रयोग करने से भाषा संक्षिप्त, प्रभावशाली और सुगठित बनती है।

अन्य विकल्प-

वाक्यांश	शब्द
जो गाना गाता हो	गायक
जो बहुत जानता हो	बहुज्ञ
जो सब कुछ जानता हो	सर्वज्ञ

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

वाक्यांश	एक शब्द
जो शास्त्र जानता हो	शास्त्रज्ञ
जो कम जानता हो	अल्पज्ञ
जो कला जानता हो	कलाकार
पैर से सिर तक	आपादमस्तक
जिसकी उपमा न हो	अनुपम
ईश्वर में विश्वास रखने वाला	आस्तिक
जिसका कोई शत्रु न हो	अजातशत्रु
जानने की इच्छा रखने वाला	जिज्ञासु

Question 10

दिए गए वाक्य में सम्प्रदान कारक का चयन करके रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति करें-

विश्वविद्यालय ने अनुसंधानकर्ताओं को नवीनतम प्रयोगशाला उपकरणों के उपयोग -----प्रशिक्षण दिया।

AOption (a)
ने
BOption (b)
पर
COption (c)
के लिए
DOption (d)
से

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

के लिए

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "के लिए" है।

Key Points

व्याकरण के अनुसार,

दिए गए वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प 'के लिए' है।
सम्प्रदान कारक का विभक्ति चिह्न 'के लिए' या 'को' होता है, जहाँ क्रिया किसी के हित में या किसी उद्देश्य के लिए की जाती है।
पूर्ण वाक्य: "विश्वविद्यालय ने अनुसंधानकर्ताओं को नवीनतम प्रयोगशाला उपकरणों के उपयोग के लिए प्रशिक्षण दिया।"
यहाँ प्रशिक्षण देने का उद्देश्य प्रयोगशाला उपकरणों का उपयोग करना है, इसलिए यहाँ सम्प्रदान कारक का प्रयोग होगा।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

ने -

यह कर्ता कारक का विभक्ति चिह्न है, जो क्रिया करने वाले का बोध कराता है।

पर -

यह अधिकरण कारक का विभक्ति चिह्न है, जो क्रिया के आधार या स्थान का बोध कराता है।

से -

यह करण कारक (साधन के रूप में) या अपादान कारक (अलग होने के अर्थ में) का विभक्ति चि��्न है।

Question 11

रेखांकित शब्द के आधार पर विशेषण के उचित भेद को चुन कर वाक्य पूर्ण करें -

उसने थोड़ा पानी पिया। वाक्य में ……… विशेषण है।

AOption (a)
सार्वनामिक
BOption (b)
संख्यावाचक
COption (c)
गुणवाचक
DOption (d)
परिमाणवाचक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

परिमाणवाचक

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- परिमाणवाचक

Key Points

दिए गए वाक्य 'उसने थोड़ा पानी पिया' में 'थोड़ा' शब्द परिमाणवाचक विशेषण का उदाहरण है।
जो शब्द संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की माप-तौल या मात्रा का बोध कराते हैं, उन्हें परिमाणवाचक विशेषण कहते हैं।
यहाँ 'पानी' ��क द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा है जिसे गिना नहीं जा सकता, केवल मापा जा सकता है, इसलिए 'थोड़ा' उसकी अनिश्चित मात्रा को दर्शा रहा है।
अन्य उदाहरण: बहुत दूध, कम चीनी, दो लीटर तेल आदि।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्प	विग्रह/अर्थ	भेद/प्रकार
सार्वनामिक	जो सर्वनाम शब्द विशेषण की तरह प्रयुक्त हों।	विशेषण
संख्यावाचक	जो संज्ञा की संख्या का बोध कराएं।	विशेषण
गुणवाचक	जो संज्ञा के गुण, दोष, रंग आदि बताएं।	विशेषण

Important Points

विशेषण के मुख्य भेद-

गुणवाचक विशेषण
परिमाणवाचक विशेषण
संख्यावाचक विशेषण
सार्वनामिक विशेषण

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेद	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
निश्चित परिमाणवाचक	जहाँ वस्तु की निश्चित मात्रा का ज्ञान हो।	पाँच किलो = चावल तीन मीटर = कपड़ा
अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक	जहाँ वस्तु की निश्चित मात्रा का बोध न हो।	ढेर सारा = मक्खन थोड़ा = पानी

Question 12

निम्नलिखित वाक्य को उचित क्रम में लिखें-

ममता अपने संतान
माता-पिता की जो
उसे वात्सल्य कहते है
पर बरसती है

AOption (a)
3, 4, 2, 1
BOption (b)
1, 4, 3, 2
COption (c)
4, 2, 1, 3
DOption (d)
2, 1, 4, 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

2, 1, 4, 3

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- 2, 1, 4, 3

Key Points

दिए गए वाक्यांशों को अर्थपूर्ण क्रम में जोड़ने पर सही वाक्य बनता है- 'माता-पिता की जो ममता अपने संतान पर बरसती है उसे वात्सल्य कहते है।'
वाक्य संरचना के अनुसार, पहले कर्ता या संबंध कारक (माता-पिता की जो ममता) आता है, उसके बाद क्रिया का विस्तार (अपने संतान पर बरसती है) और अंत में परिभाषा या निष्कर्ष (उसे वात्सल्य कहते है) आता है।
यह वाक्य वात्सल्य रस की परिभाषा को स्पष्ट करता है, जहाँ माता-पिता का संतान के प्रति प्रेम प्रदर्शित होता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

क्रम	पूर्ण वाक्य	त्रुटि
1, 4, 3, 2	ममता अपने संतान पर बरसती है उसे वात्सल्य कहते है माता-पिता की जो।	असंगत क्रम

Important Points

वाक्य व्यवस्थापन (Sentence Rearrangement) के नियम-

पदक्रम: हिंदी वाक्य में सामान्यतः पहले कर्ता, फिर कर्म और अंत में क्रिया आती है।
अन्वय: पदों का एक-दूसरे के साथ व्याकरणिक मेल (लिंग, वचन, कारक) होना चाहिए।
सार्थकता: शब्दों का क्रम ऐसा हो जिससे एक स्पष्ट और सार्थक भाव प्रकट हो।

Additional Information

विषय	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
वात्सल्य रस	जहाँ संतान, शिशुओं या अनुजों के प्रति स्नेह का वर्णन हो, वहाँ वात्सल्य रस होता है।	यशोदा हरि पालने झुलावै।

Question 13

निम्न वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द चुनिए।

जो कहा गया है

AOption (a)
कथित
BOption (b)
सत्य
COption (c)
यथार्थ
DOption (d)
कथा

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

कथित

Why this answer is correct

‘जो कहा गया है’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - कथित।

Key Points

प्रस्तुत वाक्यांश के लिए सही एक शब्द कथित है।
कथित शब्द का अर्थ है जो मुख से बोला गया हो या जिसका वर्णन किया गया हो।
अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर एक सार्थक शब्द का प्रयोग भाषा को प्रभावशाली और संक्षिप्त बनाता है।
यह शब्द कथ् धातु में क्त प्रत्यय के योग से बना है, जिसका अर्थ है ‘कहा हुआ’।

अन्य विकल्प-

वाक्यांश	शब्द
जो सदा सत्य बोलता हो या जो प्रमाणिक हो	सत्य
जो वास्तव में जैसा है वैसा ही (वास्तविकता)	यथार्थ
कही जाने वाली कोई काल्पनिक या वास्तविक घटना	कथा

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

वाक्यांश	एक शब्द
जो कहा न जा सके	अकथनीय
जो कहने योग्य हो	कथ्य
ऊपर कहा गया हो	उपर्युक्त
जिसके समान दूसरा न हो	अद्वितीय
जो आँखों के सामने न हो	परोक्ष
हाथ से लिखा हुआ	हस्तलिखित
जो सब कुछ जानता हो	सर्वज्ञ
जो अल्प जानता हो	अल्पज्ञ

Question 14

दिये गये वाक्य का रिक्त स्थान सर्वोचित विशेषण शब्द से पूर्ण करें--

............. समुद्र की नीली लहरें बहुत सुंदर लगती हैं।

AOption (a)
क्षुद्र
BOption (b)
विशाल
COption (c)
सीमि��
DOption (d)
सूखे

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

विशाल

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - विशाल

Key Points

विशाल समुद्र की नीली लहरें बहुत सुंदर लगती हैं।
वाक्य में 'विशाल' के प्रयोग से समुद्र की विस्तृत और भव्य प्रकृति का बोध होता है, जो नीली लहरों की सुंदरता के प्रसंग में सबसे उपयुक्त विशेषण है।
'विशाल' का अर्थ - बहुत बड़ा, विस्तृत या विराट; जैसे- हिमालय एक विशाल पर्वत श्रृंखला है।

Additional Informationक्षुद्र-

अर्थ: छोटा, नीच या तुच्छ।
जैसे - हमें क्षुद्र स्वार्थों के लिए देश का अहित नहीं करना चाहिए।

सीमित-

अर्थ: जिसकी कोई सीमा हो या जो बँधा हुआ हो।
जैसे - रेगिस्तान में पानी के स्रोत बहुत सीमित होते हैं।

सूखे-

अर्थ: जिसमें नमी या जल न हो।
जैसे - सूखे पत्तों की आवाज से जंगल गूँज उठा।

Question 15

नीचे दिए गए वाक्यों को क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें।

अ. फिर भोजन करता हूँ।

ब. 9 बजे से 1 बजे तक पढ़ता हूँ।

स. उसके बाद 5 बजे शाम को फ़ारसी पढ़ने जाता हूँ।

द. मैं सुबह 8 बजे जागता हूँ।

AOption (a)
ब, स, द, अ
BOption (b)
अ, ब, स, द
COption (c)
द, ब, अ, स
DOption (d)
द, ब, स, अ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

द, ब, अ, स

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- द, ब, अ, स

Key Points

वाक्यों का सही क्रम समयानुक्रम (Chronological order) के आधार पर निर्धारित किया गया है, जो एक व्यक्ति की दिनचर्या को दर्शाता है।
दिए गए वाक्यों में सबसे पहले 'जागने' की क्रिया (सुबह 8 बजे) आएगी, फिर 'पढ़ने' की (9 से 1 बजे तक), उसके बाद 'भोजन' (दोपहर में) और अंत में 'शाम की पढ़ाई' (5 बजे) का उल्लेख होगा।
क्रमबद्धता का नियम कहता है कि वाक्यों में तार्किक निरंतरता और घटनाक्रम का सही तालमेल होना अनिवार्य है।
उदाहरण: 'मैं पहले नहाया, फिर नाश्ता किया' - यहाँ क्रियाओं का एक निश्चित तार्किक क्रम है।

अन्य विकल्प -

विकल्प	विग्रह/तर्क	स्थिति
ब, स, द, अ	इसमें जागने की क्रिया अंत में दिखाई गई है, जो गलत है।	असंगत
अ, ब, स, द	भोजन से शुरुआत और जागने पर अंत तार्किक नहीं है।	असंगत
द, ब, स, अ	शाम को फ़ारसी पढ़ने के बाद भोजन करना समयक्रम बिगाड़ता है।	असंगत

Important Points

वाक्य व्यवस्थापन (Sentence Rearrangement) के मुख्य नियम-

समय का क्रम: घटनाओं को उनके घटित होने वाले समय के अनुसार रखना।
सर्वनाम का प्रयोग: संज्ञा के बाद ही उससे संबंधित सर्वनाम वाले वाक्य आते हैं।
संयोजक शब्द: 'फिर', 'उसके बाद', 'अतः' जैसे शब्द वाक्यों को जोड़ने का संकेत देते हैं।

Additional Information

प्रकार	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
क्रमबद्धता	वाक्यों को एक अर्थपूर्ण प्रवाह में व्यवस्थित करना ताकि स्पष्ट विचार व्यक्त हो सके।	बीज बोया = (प्रथम) फल प्राप्त हुआ = (अंतिम)

Hindi 2 (10 questions)

Question 16

‘निशाना’, ‘उद्देश्य’ किस शब्द के अनेकार्थी हैं?

AOption (a)
शुद्ध
BOption (b)
लक्ष्य
COption (c)
हंस
DOption (d)
मधु

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

लक्ष्य

Why this answer is correct

'लक्ष्य' का अनेकार्थी है- लक्ष्य

Key Points

'लक्ष्य' के प्रमुख अनेकार्थ - निशाना, उद्देश्य, ध्येय, देखने योग्य, सौ हजार (लाख) आदि।
अनेकार्थी शब्द - ऐसे शब्द जिनके एक से अधिक अर्थ होते हैं, अनेकार्थी शब्द कहलाते हैं।
वाक्य प्रयोग: अर्जुन का निशाना (लक्ष्य) केवल मछली की आँख पर था।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द	अनेकार्थी शब्द
शुद्ध	पवित्र, जिसमें मिलावट न हो, ठीक, केवल
हंस	एक पक्षी, सूर्य, आत्मा, योगी, सफेद
मधु	शहद, शराब, वसंत ऋतु, पराग, मीठा

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण अनेकार्थी शब्द :-

शब्द	अनेकार्थी शब्द
अंक	संख्या, गोद, नाटक का अध्याय, चिह्न
कनक	सोना, धतूरा, गेहूँ, पलाश
सारंग	हिरण, बादल, मोर, धनुष, कमल
हरि	विष्णु, बंदर, सिंह, सर्प, मेंढक
अंबर	आकाश, वस्त्र, एक इत्र, बादल
द्विज	ब्राह्मण, पक्षी, दाँत, चंद्रमा
तात	पिता, भाई, मित्र, पूज्य, प्यारा
फल	नतीजा, लाभ, शस्त्र का अगला भाग, मेवा

Question 17

‘सतसई’ किस प्रकार का शब्द है?

AOption (a)
देशज
BOption (b)
तद्भव
COption (c)
विदेशज
DOption (d)
तत्सम

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

तद्भव

Why this answer is correct

तद्भव शब्द है- सतसई

Key Points

'सतसई' एक तद्भव शब्द है, जबकि इसका तत्सम रूप 'सप्तशती' है।
तद्भव - संस्कृत के वे शब्द जो प्राकृत, अपभ्रंश से होते हुए हिंदी में रूप बदलकर आए हैं, तद्भव कहलाते हैं।
जैसे- हाथ (हस्त), काम (कर्म), सात (सप्त)
तत्सम - संस्कृत के वे शब्द जो हिंदी में मूल रूप में ही प्रयोग किए जाते हैं, तत्सम कहलाते हैं।
जैसे- अग्नि, वायु, सूर्य

अन्य विकल्प-

देशज: वे शब्द जिनकी उत्पत्ति का पता नहीं चलता और जो स्थानीय बोलियों से हिंदी में आए हैं, जैसे- लोटा, पगड़ी।
विदेशज: वे शब्द जो विदेशी भाषाओं (जैसे अरबी, फारसी, अंग्रेजी) से हिंदी में आए हैं, जैसे- स्कूल, कैंची।
तत्सम: संस्कृत के मूल शब्द जैसे 'सप्तशती' तत्सम है, जिससे 'सतसई' विकसित हुआ है।

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण तत्सम और तद्भव शब्द -

तत्सम	तद्भव
अश्रु	आँसू
उज्ज्वल	उजला
कर्पूर	कपूर
क्षीर	खीर
गृध्र	गीध
दधि	दही
मस्तक	माथा
शर्करा	शक्कर
संध्या	साँझ

Question 18

'उद्यान' के पर्यायवाची शब्द से दिये गये वाक्य का रिक्त स्थान पूर्ण करें--

रोहन रोज़ सुबह .............. में जाकर ताज़ी हवा का आनंद लेता है।

AOption (a)
पगडंडी
BOption (b)
खेत
COption (c)
बग़ीचे
DOption (d)
जंगल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

बग़ीचे

Why this answer is correct

वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए 'उद्यान' का पर्यायवाची है: बग़ीचे

Key Points

'उद्यान' शब्द का सटीक पर्यायवाची शब्द 'बग़ीचे' है, जो वाक्य के संदर्भ में पूर्णतः उपयुक्त है।
'उद्यान' के प्रमुख पर्यायवाची शब्द - बाग, उपवन, वाटिका, कुसुमाकर, गुलशन, बगिया, फुलवारी, आरामगाह, उद्यानिका।
पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान या समानार्थक हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्द	पर्यायवाची शब्द
पगडंडी	पथ, मार्ग, राह, डगर, बाट, संकरी राह।
खेत	कृषि-क्षेत्र, मैदान, खलिहान, जोत, वप्र, क्षेत्र।
जंगल	वन, कानन, विपिन, अरण्य, कांतार, अटवी।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

शब्द	पर्यायवाची शब्द
कमल	जलज, पंकज, नीरज, सरोज, राजीव।
आकाश	नभ, गगन, अंबर, व्योम, शून्य।
सूर्य	दिनकर, दिवाकर, रवि, भानु, भास्कर।
पृथ्वी	भूमि, धरा, वसुंधरा, अचला, मही।
अग्नि	आग, पावक, अनल, दहन, हुताशन।
जल	पानी, नीर, वारि, तोय, अंबु।
चंद्रमा	शशि, मयंक, राकेश, सुधांशु, इंदु।
वायु	हवा, पवन, समीर, अनिल, मारुत।

Question 19

निम्नलिखित में से किस वाक्य में ‘ज्वार’ शब्द का विलोम के रूप में सही प्रयोग हुआ है?

AOption (a)
ज्वार से रेगिस्तान में बाढ़ आ गई।
BOption (b)
पहाड़ों में ज्वार का प्रभाव देखा गया।
COption (c)
भाटा के बाद समुद्र में ज्वार आता है।
DOption (d)
ज्वार के कारण नदी सूख गई।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

भाटा के बाद समुद्र में ज्वार आता है।

Why this answer is correct

‘ज्वार’ का सही विलोम प्रयोग वाला वाक्य है: भाटा के बाद समुद्र में ज्वार आता है।

Key Points

‘ज्वार’ का समानार्थी शब्द ‘उफान’ है।
‘ज्वार’ का विलोम शब्द ‘भाटा’ है।
‘ज्वार’ का अर्थ — समुद्र के जल स्तर का ऊपर उठना।
‘भाटा’ का अर्थ — समुद्र के जल स्तर का नीचे गिरना या कम होना।
विलोम - जो शब्द किसी शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्द	विलोम
रेगिस्तान	नखलिस्तान
बाढ़	सूखा
पहाड़	मैदान

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

शब्द	विलोम
हर्ष	विषाद
अमृत	विष
आयात	निर्यात
अंधकार	प्रकाश
जड़	चेतन
आकर्षण	विकर्षण
सजीव	निर्जीव
उत्थान	पतन
बंधन	मुक्ति
शाश्वत	क्षणिक

Question 20

'कपाट' का तद्भव शब्द क्या है?

AOption (a)
किवाड़
BOption (b)
खिड़की
COption (c)
परदा
DOption (d)
रोशनदान

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

किवाड़

Why this answer is correct

'कपाट' का तद्भव रूप है- किवाड़

[FINAL ANSWER]

Key Points

'कपाट' एक तत्सम शब्द है, जबकि इसका तद्भव रूप 'किवाड़' है।
तत्सम - संस्कृत से बिना या लगभग बिना रूप-परिवर्तन के हिंदी में आए शब्द तत्सम कहलाते हैं।
जैसे- दुग्ध, अग्नि, सूर्य
तद्भव - संस्कृत मूल से समय के साथ ध्वनि/रूप परिवर्तन द्वारा विकसित शब्द तद्भव कहलाते हैं।
जैसे- दूध, आग, सूरज

अन्य विकल्प-

खिड़की: यह एक देशज शब्द है।
परदा: यह विदेशज शब्द है और फारसी भाषा से हिंदी में आया है।
रोशनदान: यह विदेशज शब्द है और फारसी भाषा से हिंदी में आया है।

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण तत्सम और तद्भव शब्द -

तत्सम	तद्भव
हस्त	हाथ
कर्ण	कान
दधि	दही
आम्र	आम
घृत	घी
क्षीर	खीर
मयूर	मोर
प्रस्तर	पत्थर
सर्प	साँप

दिये गये गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नांकित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए--

भारतीय संस्कृति का विश्व को एक अमूल्य उपहार 'योग' है। योग का शाब्दिक अर्थ है—जोड़ना, अर्थात् आत्मा का परमात्मा से मिलन। आधुनिक संदर्भ में योग केवल एक आध्यात्मिक प्रक्रिया नहीं, बल्कि शारीरिक और मानसिक स्वास्थ्य को बनाए रखने का एक विज्ञान है। वर्तमान में भागदौड़ और बढ़ते तनाव के कारण मनुष्य अनेक रोगों से घिर गया है। ऐसी स्थिति में योग अचूक औषधि के रूप में सामने आया है। योग के माध्यम से न केवल अपने शरीर को लचीला और बलवान बना सकते हैं, बल्कि एकाग्रता और मानसिक शांति भी प्राप्त कर सकते हैं। प्राणायाम और ध्यान के नियमित अभ्यास से फेफड़ों की कार्यक्षमता बढ़ती है और नकारात्मक विचार दूर होते हैं। विद्यार्थियों के लिए योग और भी लाभकारी है क्योंकि यह उनकी स्मरण शक्ति और अनुशासन को बढ़ाता है। स्वस्थ शरीर में ही स्वस्थ मस्तिष्क का निवास होता है, और योग इस लक्ष्य को प्राप्त करने का सबसे सरल मार्ग है।

Question 21

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

इस गद्यांश के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शीर्षक क्या होगा?

AOption (a)
व्यायाम : स्वस्थ जीवन का आधार
BOption (b)
भारतीय संस्कृति का इतिहास
COption (c)
योग: स्वस्थ जीवन की कुंजी
DOption (d)
आधुनिक जीवन की समस्याएँ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

योग: स्वस्थ जीवन की कुंजी

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "योग: स्वस्थ जीवन की कुंजी" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार ,

संपूर्ण गद्यांश 'योग' के महत्व, उसके अर्थ और मानव जीवन पर पड़ने वाले उसके सकारात्मक प्रभावों पर केंद्रित है।
गद्यांश में बताया गया है कि योग न केवल शरीर को बलवान बनाता है, बल्कि मानसिक शांति, एकाग्रता और तनाव मुक्ति का भी साधन है।
अंत में यह स्पष्ट किया गया है कि स्वस्थ शरीर में ही स्वस्थ मस्तिष्क रहता है और योग इसे प्राप्त करने का सरल मार्ग है, अतः 'योग: स्वस्थ जीवन की कुंजी' सबसे सटीक शीर्षक है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

व्यायाम : स्वस्थ जीवन का आधार -

हालांकि योग व्यायाम का एक हिस्सा हो सकता है, लेकिन गद्यांश विशेष रूप से योग और प्राणायाम की आध्यात्मिक और मानसिक गहराई की चर्चा करता है।

भारतीय संस्कृति का इतिहास -

गद्यांश में योग को भारतीय संस्कृति का उपहार बताया गया है, लेकिन यह संस्कृति के पूरे इतिहास पर केंद्रित नहीं है।

आधुनिक जीवन की समस्याएँ -

तनाव और रोगों जैसी समस्याओं का उल्लेख केवल योग की प्रासंगिकता को समझाने के लिए किया गया है, यह मुख्य विषय नहीं है।

दिये गये गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नांकित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए--

भारतीय संस्कृति का विश्व को एक अमूल्य उपहार 'योग' है। योग का शाब्दिक अर्थ है—जोड़ना, अर्थात् आत्मा का परमात्मा से मिलन। आधुनिक संदर्भ में योग केवल एक आध��यात्मिक प्रक्रिया नहीं, बल्कि शारीरिक और मानसिक स्वास्थ्य को बनाए रखने का एक विज्ञान है। वर्तमान में भागदौड़ और बढ़ते तनाव के कारण मनुष्य अनेक रोगों से घिर गया है। ऐसी स्थिति में योग अचूक औषधि के रूप में सामने आया है। योग के माध्यम से न केवल अपने शरीर को लचीला और बलवान बना सकते हैं, बल्कि एकाग्रता और मानसिक शांति भी प्राप्त कर सकते हैं। प्राणायाम और ध्यान के नियमित अभ्यास से फेफड़ों की कार्यक्षमता बढ़ती है और नकारात्मक विचार दूर होते हैं। विद्यार्थियों के लिए योग और भी लाभकारी है क्योंकि यह उनकी स्मरण शक्ति और अनुशासन को बढ़ाता है। स्वस्थ शरीर में ही स्वस्थ मस्तिष्क का निवास होता है, और योग इस लक्ष्य को प्राप्त करने का सबसे सरल मार्ग है।

Question 22

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

आधुनिक संदर्भ में योग को क्या माना गया है?

AOption (a)
केवल एक धार्मिक अनुष्ठान
BOption (b)
शारीरिक और मानसिक स्वास्थ्य का विज्ञान
COption (c)
केवल वृद्धों का खेल
DOption (d)
केवल शरीर को थकाने वाली क्रिया

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

शारीरिक और मानसिक स्वास्थ्य का विज्ञान

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "शारीरिक और मानसिक स्वास्थ्य का विज्ञान" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार:

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख किया गया है कि आधुनिक संदर्भ में योग केवल एक आध्यात्मिक प्रक्रिया नहीं है।
इसे शारीरिक और मानसिक स्वास्थ्य को बनाए रखने का एक विज्ञान माना गया है।
योग वर्तमान समय के तनाव और रोगों से लड़ने में एक अचूक औषधि की तरह कार्य करता है।
अतः, विकल्प 2 गद्यांश के तथ्यों के अनुरूप सही उत्तर है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

केवल एक धार्मिक अनुष्ठान:

गद्यांश के अनुसार योग आत्मा का परमात्मा से मिलन (जोड़ना) है, लेकिन आधुनिक संदर्भ में इसका महत्व केवल धर्म तक सीमित न होकर स्वास्थ्य विज्ञान के रूप में अधिक है।

केवल वृद्धों का खेल:

गद्यांश बताता है कि योग विद्यार्थियों के लिए भी अत्यंत लाभकारी है, अतः यह किसी आयु विशेष तक सीमित नहीं है।

केवल शरीर को थकाने वाली क्रिया:

इसके विपरीत, गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि योग शरीर को लचीला, बलवान और मन को एकाग्र व शांत बनाता है।

Question 23

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

योग के माध्यम से किन रोगों और समस्याओं का समाधान संभव है?

AOption (a)
तनाव, एकाग्रता की कमी और शारीरिक अस्वस्थता का
BOption (b)
आर्थिक और सामाजिक समस्याओं का
COption (c)
शारीरिक थकान और मानसिक अवसाद का
DOption (d)
बाहरी सुंदरता की कमी का

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

तनाव, एकाग्रता की कमी और शारीरिक अस्वस्थता का

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "तनाव, एकाग्रता की कमी और शारीरिक अस्वस्थता का" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार:

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि वर्तमान समय में भागदौड़ और बढ़ते तनाव के कारण मनुष्य अनेक रोगों से घिर गया है, जहाँ योग एक अचूक औषधि के रूप में कार्य करता है।
योग के माध्यम से शरीर को लचीला और बलवान (शारीरिक स्वास्थ्य) बनाया जा सकता है।
यह एकाग्रता और मानसिक शांति प्राप्त करने में सहायक है, जिससे मानसिक समस्याओं का समाधान होता है।
प्राणायाम और ध्यान से नकारात्मक विचार दूर होते हैं और विद्यार्थियों की स्मरण शक्ति बढ़ती है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

आर्थिक और सामाजिक समस्याओं का:

योग एक शारीरिक और मानसिक विज्ञान है; इसका प्रत्यक्ष संबंध आर्थिक उपार्जन या सामाजिक ढाँचे की समस्याओं को हल करने से नहीं है।

शारीरिक थकान और मानसिक अवसाद का:

यद्यपि योग इनमें सहायक है, किंतु विकल्प 1 गद्यांश में वर्णित तनाव और एकाग्रता जैसे व्यापक बिंदुओं को अधिक स्पष्टता से समाहित करता है।

बाहरी सुंदरता की कमी का:

योग का मुख्य उद्देश्य आंतरिक शुद्धि, स्वास्थ्य और अनुशासन है, न कि केवल बाहरी कॉस्मेटिक सुंदरता।

Question 24

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

विद्यार्थियों के लिए योग किस प्रकार विशेष लाभकारी है?

AOption (a)
इससे वे खेल-कूद और शारीरिक प्रतियोगिताओं में प्रथम आते हैं।
BOption (b)
यह उनकी स्मरण शक्ति और अनुशासन को बढ़ाता है।
COption (c)
इससे वे अच्छी नौकरी प्राप्त कर सकते हैं।
DOption (d)
इससे उन्हें अधिक पढ़ाई नहीं करनी पड़ती।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

यह उनकी स्मरण शक्ति और अनुशासन को बढ़ाता है।

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "यह उनकी स्मरण शक्ति और अनुशासन को बढ़ाता है" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार:

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख किया गया है कि विद्यार्थियों के लिए योग विशेष रूप से लाभकारी है।
यह विद्यार्थियों की स्मरण शक्ति (Memory Power) और अनुशासन (Discipline) को विकसित करने में सहायक होता है।
योग के माध्यम से प्राप्त एकाग्रता विद्यार्थियों को उनके शैक्षिक लक्ष्यों को प्राप्त करने में मदद करती है।
अतः, विकल्प (2) गद्यांश के तथ्यों के अनुरूप सही उत्तर है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

विकल्प (1):

गद्यांश में शारीरिक मजबूती की बात की गई है, लेकिन खेल-कूद में प्रथम आने का कोई विशिष्ट दावा नहीं किया गया है।

विकल्प (3):

योग मानसिक शांति और स्वास्थ्य देता है, परंतु गद्यांश में इसका सीधा संबंध नौकरी प्राप्त करने से नहीं जोड़ा गया है।

विकल्प (4):

यह विकल्प पूर्णतः तर्कहीन है; योग पढ़ाई की गुणवत्ता और एकाग्रता बढ़ाता है, न कि पढ़ाई की आवश्यकता को कम करता है।

Question 25

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

गद्यांश में 'अचूक औषधि' किसे कहा गया है?

AOption (a)
अधिक सोने की आदत को
BOption (b)
आधुनिक मशीनों को
COption (c)
योग और प्राणायाम को
DOption (d)
बाज़ार की महँगी दवाइयों को

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

योग और प्राणायाम को

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "योग और प्राणायाम" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार,

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख किया गया है कि वर्तमान समय की भागदौड़ और तनाव के कारण उत्पन्न होने वाले रोगों के लिए योग एक अचूक औषधि के रूप में सामने आया है।
प्राणायाम और ध्यान के नियमित अभ्यास से शारीरिक और मानसिक विकारों को दूर किया जा सकता है।
अतः, योग और प्राणायाम ही वह माध्यम हैं जिन्हें गद्यांश में 'अचूक औषधि' की संज्ञा दी गई है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

अधिक सोने की आदत -

गद्यांश में इसका कोई उल्लेख नहीं है और यह स्वास्थ्य के लिए सदैव लाभकारी नहीं होती।

आधुनिक मशीनों -

आधुनिक मशीनें सुविधा प्रदान कर सकती हैं, लेकिन उन्हें गद्यांश में औषधि नहीं कहा गया है।

बाज़ार की महँगी दवाइयाँ -

गद्यांश योग को इन भौतिक औषधियों के विकल्प और बेहतर मार्ग के रूप में प्रस्तुत करता है।

English 1 (15 questions)

Question 26

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

She tried to escape the situation at first, but __________ accepted the truth.

AOption (a)
eventually
BOption (b)
suddenly
COption (c)
noisily
DOption (d)
angrily

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

eventually

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'eventually'.

Key Points

The adverb "eventually" means in the end, especially after a long time or a lot of effort, problems, or delay.
The sentence indicates a progression from trying to escape a situation to finally accepting it, making "eventually" the most logical fit.
The conjunction "but" sets up a contrast between the initial reaction (escape) and the final outcome (acceptance).

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "She tried to escape the situation at first, but eventually accepted the truth."

Additional Information

Option 2: "suddenly" means quickly and unexpectedly, which contradicts the phrase 'at first' which implies a passage of time.
Option 3: "noisily" refers to making a lot of noise, which does not fit the context of accepting a truth.
Option 4: "angrily" refers to a state of anger, and while possible, it doesn't complete the logical sequence of a delayed realization as well as 'eventually'.

Question 27

Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. If no article is required, select ‘No article required’.

Though the two brothers are equally skilled, he is ____ abler of the two because of his excellent reasoning ability.

AOption (a)
No article required
BOption (b)
the
COption (c)
a
DOption (d)
an

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

the

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The sentence requires the definite article 'the' before the comparative degree 'abler'.
In English grammar, when a comparative degree is used to express a selection between two people or things, it is preceded by 'the' and followed by 'of'.
The structure is typically: The + Comparative Degree + of the two.
Since the sentence mentions 'the two brothers' and 'of the two', the correct choice is 'the abler'.

Therefore, the correct answer is the.

Correct Sentence: 'Though the two brothers are equally skilled, he is the abler of the two because of his excellent reasoning ability.'

Additional Information

Option 1 (No article required): Incorrect because the selection rule necessitates a definite article.
Option 3 (a): Incorrect because 'a' is an indefinite article used for non-specific singular countable nouns starting with a consonant sound.
Option 4 (an): Incorrect because 'an' is used for indefinite nouns starting with a vowel sound, but here specificity (selection) is required.
Abler is the comparative form of the adjective Able.

Question 28

In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement.

environmental awareness (P) / in modern society (Q) / has become increasingly important (R) / due to global climate challenges (S)

AOption (a)
P Q R S
BOption (b)
P R Q S
COption (c)
P Q S R
DOption (d)
Q P R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

P R Q S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is environmental awareness has become increasingly important in modern society due to global climate challenges.

Key Points

The sentence construction begins with the subject of the statement, which is environmental awareness (segment P). Hence, segment P is the correct starting point.
Following the subject, the sentence requires a verb phrase to describe the state or action; has become increasingly important (segment R) fulfills this grammatical role. Hence, segment R logically follows P.
The phrase in modern society (segment Q) acts as an adverbial adjunct of place/context, specifying where this importance is observed. Hence, segment Q is correctly placed after segment R.
The final segment, due to global climate challenges (segment S), provides the reason or cause for the increased importance, completing the logical flow of the statement. Hence, segment S is the concluding part.
By arranging the segments as P-R-Q-S, we achieve a grammatically coherent and meaningful sentence: environmental awareness has become increasingly important in modern society due to global climate challenges. Hence, statement P R Q S is correct.

Additional Information

Sentence Structure in English typically follows the Subject + Verb + Object/Complement + Adverbial pattern.
Environmental awareness serves as a compound noun acting as the primary subject.
The Present Perfect Tense (has become) is used to indicate a state that started in the past and continues to be relevant.
Prepositional phrases such as in modern society and due to... provide necessary context and causality.

Question 29

Choose the correct passive voice of the given sentence.

The college will conduct the conference tomorrow.

AOption (a)
The conference will conduct by the college tomorrow.
BOption (b)
The conference will be conducted by the college tomorrow.
COption (c)
The conference will have been conducted by the college tomorrow.
DOption (d)
The conference would be conducted by the college tomorrow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

The conference will be conducted by the college tomorrow.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The conference will be conducted by the college tomorrow..

Key Points

The given sentence is in the Active Voice and follows the Future Simple Tense structure: Subject + will + Verb1 + Object.
In the active voice, the subject The college is the doer of the action, and the object the conference is the receiver.
To convert a Future Simple sentence into Passive Voice, the standard grammatical formula is: Object + will + be + Verb3 (Past Participle) + by + Subject.
The verb conduct is transformed into its third form, which is conducted, and the auxiliary verb will is followed by be to maintain the passive structure.
The temporal adverb tomorrow remains at the end of the sentence to indicate the specific time of the event.
Applying these rules, the sentence becomes: The conference (new subject) + will be + conducted (V3) + by the college (agent) + tomorrow.

Additional Information

Future Perfect Passive:
The construction will have been conducted is used for the Future Perfect Tense, which indicates an action that will be completed by a certain point in the future. This changes the original meaning of the simple future intent.
Modal Verb Usage:
The word would is typically used for conditional statements or as the past tense of will in Reported Speech. Replacing will with would in a direct passive conversion is grammatically incorrect unless the reporting verb is in the past.
Active vs. Passive Voice:
In Active Voice, the focus is on the performer of the action. In Passive Voice, the focus shifts to the recipient of the action or the action itself, often used when the actor is obvious or less important.

Question 30

Choose the option which uses the correct form of the present tense.

She aren't liking to eat spicy food for dinner.

AOption (a)
She not like to eat spicy food for dinner.
BOption (b)
She doesn't like to eat spicy food for dinner.
COption (c)
She don't like to eat spicy food for dinner.
DOption (d)
She doesn't likes to eat spicy food for dinner.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

She doesn't like to eat spicy food for dinner.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is She doesn't like to eat spicy food for dinner..

Key Points

The sentence requires the Simple Present Tense to express a general preference or habit regarding food.
The subject of the sentence is She, which is a third-person singular pronoun.
In the negative form of the Simple Present Tense for third-person singular subjects (He, She, It), the auxiliary verb does not (or the contraction doesn't) must be used.
When using the auxiliary verb does, the main verb must remain in its base form (infinitive without to), meaning the -s or -es suffix is dropped from the main verb like.
The structure follows the rule: Subject + does not/doesn't + Base Verb + Object.
Therefore, She doesn't like correctly applies these grammatical rules.

Additional Information

Subject-Verb Agreement:
For I, You, We, and They, the negative auxiliary used is do not or don't followed by the base verb.
For He, She, and It, the negative auxiliary is does not or doesn't. Using don't with She is grammatically incorrect.
A common error is keeping the -s on the main verb (e.g., doesn't likes), which is incorrect because the third-person marker is already present in does.

Question 31

Choose the sentence which is correctly written in Future Tense.

AOption (a)
At this time tomorrow, we are working on the project.
BOption (b)
At this time tomorrow, we will work on the project.
COption (c)
At this time tomorrow, we will worked on the project.
DOption (d)
At this time tomorrow, we will be working on the project.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

At this time tomorrow, we will be working on the project.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is At this time tomorrow, we will be working on the project.

Key Points

The sentence describes an action that will be in progress at a specific point in the future, indicated by the phrase at this time tomorrow.
To express an ongoing action in the future, the Future Continuous Tense (also known as Future Progressive) must be used.
The grammatical structure for the Future Continuous Tense is Subject + will be + present participle (verb + ing).
In the correct option, the subject we is followed by will be and the present participle working, which perfectly aligns with the required tense for a specific future time reference.
The presence of a specific time marker like at this time strongly necessitates the continuous form rather than the simple future form to emphasize the duration of the activity.

Additional Information

Future Continuous Tense:
Used for actions that will be interrupted by another action in the future.
Used to project ourselves into the future to look back at an ongoing task.
Often used with time expressions such as this time next week, tomorrow morning, or at noon.
Analysis of Incorrect Structures:
Future Simple: The phrase will work refers to a general future intent or a scheduled fact but does not emphasize the ongoing nature of the action at a specific moment.
Present Continuous for Future: While are working can be used for planned future arrangements, it is less precise than the future continuous when a specific moment like at this time is mentioned.
Grammatical Error: The combination will worked is syntactically incorrect as will (modal verb) must be followed by the base form of the verb, not the past participle.

Question 32

Arrange the sentence in a logical order.

A- determined to endure the hardship and refuse defeat

B- and reached the finish line drenched, exhausted, yet undeniably triumphant

C- Even though torrential rain poured relentlessly from the sky

D- the marathon runners pressed on without hesitation

AOption (a)
D C B A
BOption (b)
A B C D
COption (c)
C D A B
DOption (d)
B A D C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

C D A B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Even though torrential rain poured relentlessly from the sky the marathon runners pressed on without hesitation determined to endure the hardship and refuse defeat and reached the finish line drenched, exhausted, yet undeniably triumphant.

Key Points

The sentence construction begins with Statement C, which introduces a concessive clause using the subordinating conjunction Even though to establish the difficult weather conditions (torrential rain). Hence, statement C is the opening part.
Statement D follows Statement C as the main clause, identifying the subjects (marathon runners) and their immediate action (pressed on without hesitation) in response to the rain. Hence, statement D follows C.
Statement A acts as a participial phrase or modifier that describes the mental state and resolution of the runners (determined to endure) as they continued their journey. Hence, statement A follows D.
Statement B serves as the concluding segment, using the conjunction and to link the final physical outcome and the ultimate success (reached the finish line) of the runners. Hence, statement B is the closing part.
The logical sequence C-D-A-B creates a coherent narrative flow from obstacle to action to motivation and finally to triumph. Hence, the arrangement C D A B is correct.

Additional Information

Sentence Synthesis involves the following linguistic components:
Subordinating Conjunctions: Terms like Even though are used to connect a dependent clause to an independent clause, showing contrast.
Adverbial Qualifiers: Words like relentlessly and undeniably provide depth to the verbs and adjectives, enhancing the descriptive quality of the prose.
Parallelism: The use of adjectives like drenched, exhausted, and triumphant maintains grammatical balance within the concluding phrase.
Logical Progression: A well-structured sentence typically follows a chronological or causal path, moving from the setting of a scene to the resolution of the event.

Question 33

Give one word for the following.

A person who believes that everything is predetermined

AOption (a)
Skeptic
BOption (b)
Fatalist
COption (c)
Optimist
DOption (d)
Realist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Fatalist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Fatalist.

Key Points

The phrase 'A person who believes that everything is predetermined' refers to someone who thinks that all events are driven by fate and are inevitable. (वह व्यक्ति जो मानता है कि सब कुछ पूर्व निर्धारित है)
Example: As a fatalist, he didn't bother to move out of the way of the storm, believing his time had come.
'Fatalist' is a person who accepts all things and events as inevitable; submission to fate. (भाग्यवादी)
Example: Being a fatalist, he felt that there was no point in trying to change the outcome of the trial.
Hence, we can infer that a person who believes that everything is predetermined is called a 'fatalist'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Fatalist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Skeptic (संदेहवादी): A person inclined to question or doubt all accepted opinions.
Example: She was a skeptic about the new medical treatment until she saw the results.
Optimist (आशावादी): A person who tends to be hopeful and confident about the future or the success of something.
Example: Despite the setbacks, the optimist remained sure that the project would succeed.
Realist (यथार्थवादी): A person who accepts a situation as it is and is prepared to deal with it accordingly.
Example: A realist knows that success requires hard work and not just luck.

Question 34

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

They arrived at the venue ___ before the ceremony began.

AOption (a)
justly
BOption (b)
softly
COption (c)
immediately
DOption (d)
boldly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

immediately

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'immediately'.

Key Points

The sentence requires an adverb of time to describe how or when the action of arriving occurred in relation to the ceremony.
The word 'immediately' means without any delay or directly before or after an event.
In this context, 'immediately before' implies that they arrived just a very short time before the start of the ceremony.
Options 1, 2, and 4 do not fit the temporal context of the sentence logically.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "They arrived at the venue immediately before the ceremony began."

Additional Information

Option 1: 'justly' relates to fairness or moral rightness, which is irrelevant to arrival time.
Option 2: 'softly' refers to the manner of sound or touch, not timing.
Option 4: 'boldly' refers to a confident or courageous manner, which does not fit the structure of the sentence.

Question 35

Choose the correct direct speech form of the following sentence:

He said that he did not care about the role given to him.

AOption (a)
He said, “I do not care about the role given to me.”
BOption (b)
He said, “I did not care about the role given to me.”
COption (c)
He said, “You do not care about the role given to you.”
DOption (d)
He said, “He does not care about the role given to me.”

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

He said, “I do not care about the role given to me.”

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

Indirect Speech: He said that he did not care about the role given to him.
Key Conversions:
'he did not care' becomes 'I do not care'
In indirect speech, the Simple Past tense ('did not care') usually reverts to the Simple Present tense ('do not care') in direct speech if the reporting verb is in the past.
The pronoun 'he' (subject) refers to the speaker, so it changes to 'I' in direct speech.
'given to him' becomes 'given to me'
The objective pronoun 'him' refers back to the speaker, thus it changes to 'me' in the direct statement.
Reporting Verb and Conjunction:
The reporting verb 'said' remains 'said'.
The conjunction 'that' is removed and replaced with a comma and quotation marks.
Punctuation and Format:
The direct speech is enclosed within double quotation marks.
The first word of the quoted speech starts with a capital letter.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: 'He said, “I do not care about the role given to me.”'

Additional Information

Option 2: 'He said, “I did not care about the role given to me.”'
Incorrect because 'did not care' in direct speech would change to 'had not cared' (Past Perfect) in indirect speech.
Option 3: 'He said, “You do not care about the role given to you.”'
Incorrect pronoun usage; 'you' refers to the listener, but the original sentence refers to the speaker themselves ('he').
Option 4: 'He said, “He does not care about the role given to me.”'
Incorrect because using 'He' inside the quote suggests the speaker is talking about a third person, not himself.

Question 36

A sentence is given with a wrongly spelt word. Select the option which will correct this error.

The governing body will diseminate the new policy at the next meeting.

AOption (a)
deceminate
BOption (b)
dessiminate
COption (c)
deseminate
DOption (d)
disseminate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

disseminate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: disseminate.

Key Points

The word 'diseminate' provided in the sentence is incorrectly spelled. The error lies in the single 's' and the missing 's' in the prefix; the correct spelling requires a double 's'. (गलत वर्तनी)
Example: The health department needs to correctly spell the terms they use when they diseminate (incorrect) information.
'Disseminate' is the correct spelling, meaning to spread or disperse information, news, or ideas widely. (प्रसार करना/फैलाना)
Example: The agency’s main role is to disseminate information about public health risks to the citizens.
Hence, we can infer that the word 'diseminate' should be replaced by 'disseminate' to make the sentence grammatically and orthographically correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is: disseminate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Deceminate (अनुचित वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling and does not have a standard meaning in English.
Example: Using the word deceminate in a formal report would be considered a spelling error.
Dessiminate (अनुचित वर्तनी): This is a common misspelling of the word disseminate where the 'i' is replaced by 'e' after the double 's'.
Example: It is easy to accidentally write dessiminate, but the correct version uses 'i'.
Deseminate (अनुचित वर्तनी): This is another incorrect variation lacking the double 's' and using an 'e' instead of an 'i'.
Example: The word deseminate is not recognized in the English dictionary.

Question 37

Identify the word in the given sentence that contains a spelling error and select the option that rectifies this error.

At that moment, the boss noticed that a fly had fallen into his broad inkpot and was trying feebly but despirately to clamber out again.

AOption (a)
desperatily
BOption (b)
desperatelie
COption (c)
desperately
DOption (d)
desperaetely

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

desperately

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: desperately.

Key Points

The misspelled word in the sentence is 'despirately', which refers to a way that involves despair or an extreme need or danger. (बेताबी से/हताशापूर्वक)
Example: The trapped animal was struggling despirately (incorrect) to escape the net.
The correct spelling is 'desperately'. It is an adverb derived from the adjective 'desperate', meaning in a way that shows a great need or a hopeless sense of urgency. (बेताबी से)
Example: The survivors were desperately waving for help as the ship passed by.
Therefore, the correct answer is- desperately.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Desperatily (गलत वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling of the word.
Example: This spelling is incorrect and should not be used in formal writing.
Desperatelie (गलत वर्तनी): This is an archaic or incorrect variation of the adverbial suffix.
Example: The spelling desperatelie does not follow modern English grammar rules.
Desperaetely (गलत वर्तनी): This version contains an extra 'a' making it phonetically and orthographically wrong.
Example: Always double-check your vowels to avoid errors like desperaetely.

Question 38

Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. If no article is required, select ‘no article’.

_____ elderly often require more medical attention and care.

AOption (a)
No article
BOption (b)
The
COption (c)
An
DOption (d)
A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

The

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The correct article to be used in the blank is 'The'.
In English grammar, when the definite article 'the' is placed before an adjective, it functions as a plural noun representing a specific group or class of people.
The phrase 'The elderly' refers to elderly people in general as a collective group.
Since the sentence discusses a general characteristic of this collective group requiring medical attention, 'The' is the grammatically correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is The.

Correct Sentence: "The elderly often require more medical attention and care."

Additional Information

A/An: These are indefinite articles used with singular countable nouns. 'An' is used before vowel sounds, and 'A' is used before consonant sounds. They cannot be used here as 'elderly' is acting as a collective plural subject.
No article: Using no article would make the sentence grammatically incomplete because 'elderly' is an adjective and needs an article to function as the subject of the sentence in this context.
Other examples of this rule include: The poor, The rich, The young, and The unemployed.

Question 39

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Chandragupta Maurya compelled Seleucus Nicator to surrender.

AOption (a)
Seleucus Nicator is being compelled to surrender by Chandragupta Maurya.
BOption (b)
Seleucus Nicator was compelled to surrender by Chandragupta Maurya.
COption (c)
Seleucus Nicator compelled Chandragupta Maurya to surrender.
DOption (d)
Seleucus Nicator will be compelled to surrender by Chandragupta Maurya.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Seleucus Nicator was compelled to surrender by Chandragupta Maurya.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Seleucus Nicator was compelled to surrender by Chandragupta Maurya.

Key Points

The given sentence is in the Active Voice and uses the Simple Past Tense, as indicated by the verb compelled.
The structure for Active Voice in Simple Past is: Subject + V2 + Object (Chandragupta Maurya + compelled + Seleucus Nicator).
To convert it into Passive Voice, the structure follows: New Subject + was/were + V3 (Past Participle) + by + New Object.
The Object of the active sentence Seleucus Nicator becomes the Subject of the passive sentence.
The auxiliary verb was is used because the new subject Seleucus Nicator is singular.
The V3 form of the verb compelled remains compelled.
The Subject of the active sentence Chandragupta Maurya becomes the Object of the passive sentence, preceded by the preposition by.
The phrase to surrender is an infinitive that remains unchanged in position after the main verb.

Additional Information

Verb Tense Rules in Passive Voice:
Present Continuous: Uses is/am/are + being + V3. Option 1 is incorrect as it uses this structure.
Simple Past: Uses was/were + V3. Option 2 correctly applies this rule for a past event involving Chandragupta Maurya and Seleucus Nicator around 305 BC.
Simple Future: Uses will be + V3. Option 4 is incorrect as it suggests a future action.
Meaning Change: Option 3 is incorrect because it changes the Subject-Object relationship, incorrectly stating that Seleucus compelled Chandragupta.

Question 40

Select the most appropriate one-word substitution for the underlined words.

She behaved as if she was superior and stayed distant from others.

AOption (a)
obedient
BOption (b)
clever
COption (c)
shy
DOption (d)
aloof

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

aloof

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Aloof.

Key Points

The underlined phrase 'distant from others' describes a person who is not friendly or willing to take part in things; someone who remains emotionally or physically detached. (दूसरों से अलग-थलग)
Example: Despite being at the party, he remained distant from others, lost in his own thoughts.
'Aloof' is the most appropriate one-word substitution for being distant from others, especially in a way that seems cold or uninterested. (अलग-थलग)
Example: He stood aloof from the crowd, watching the celebrations with a cool indifference.
Therefore, the correct answer is- Aloof.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Aloof.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Obedient (आज्ञाकारी): Doing, or willing to do, what you have been told to do by someone in authority.
Example: The obedient child followed every instruction given by the teacher.
Clever (चतुर): Quick to understand, learn, and devise ideas.
Example: She is clever enough to solve the puzzle within minutes.
Shy (शर्मीला): Being reserved or showing nervousness in the company of other people.
Example: The shy girl hid behind her mother when the guests arrived.

English 2 (10 questions)

Question 41

Replace the underlined word segment with the appropriate idiom.

He agreed to the plan without thinking carefully about it.

AOption (a)
turn a blind eye
BOption (b)
take it at face value
COption (c)
hit the nail on the head
DOption (d)
let the cat out of the bag

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

take it at face value

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: take it at face value.

Key Points

The underlined segment 'the plan without thinking carefully about it' describes an action where someone accepts or believes something exactly as it appears, without looking for hidden meanings or investigating further. (बिना सोचे-समझे स्वीकार करना)
Example: I made the mistake of accepting his proposal without thinking carefully about it, only to realize later it was flawed.
The idiom 'take it at face value' means to accept something as it looks or as someone says it is, without thinking there may be another meaning or checking if it is true. (किसी बात को उसके बाहरी रूप में स्वीकार कर लेना)
Example: You shouldn't always take what you read on the internet at face value; always verify the facts.
Hence, the idiom 'take it at face value' is the most appropriate replacement for the underlined segment.

Therefore, the correct answer is- take it at face value.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Turn a blind eye (अनदेखा करना): To ignore something that you know is wrong or happening.
Example: The teacher decided to turn a blind eye to the student's minor prank.
Hit the nail on the head (सटीक बात कहना): To describe exactly what is causing a situation or problem.
Example: She hit the nail on the head when she said the company's problem was poor communication.
Let the cat out of the bag (भेद खोलना): To reveal a secret by mistake or unintentionally.
Example: We were planning a surprise party, but my brother let the cat out of the bag.

Question 42

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the highlighted word.

He gave a reluctant agreement to the proposal.

AOption (a)
resistant
BOption (b)
hesitant
COption (c)
eager
DOption (d)
unwilling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

eager

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Eager.

Key Points

The word 'reluctant' means feeling or showing hesitation or unwillingness; not wanting to do something. (अनिच्छुक)
Example: She was reluctant to admit that she was wrong.
'Eager' refers to strongly wanting to do or have something; showing keen interest or enthusiasm. (उत्सुक)
Example: The students were eager to learn about the new project.
Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'reluctant' is 'eager'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Eager.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Resistant (प्रतिरोधी): Offering opposition to something; refusing to accept.
Example: Some people are resistant to change in the workplace.
Hesitant (दुविधा में ): Tending to wait before acting or speaking through lack of confidence.
Example: He gave a hesitant smile before answering the question.
Unwilling (अनिच्छुक): Not ready, eager, or prepared to do something.
Example: They were unwilling to compromise on the terms of the contract.

Question 43

In the following sentence, identify the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

The committee appreciated the scholar’s clear explanation of the complex theoretical framework.

AOption (a)
logical
BOption (b)
precise
COption (c)
obscure
DOption (d)
transparent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

obscure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Obscure.

Key Points

The word 'clear' means easy to perceive, understand, or interpret; free from confusion or ambiguity. (स्पष्ट)
Example: The instructions were clear, so everyone finished the task on time.
'Obscure' refers to something that is not discovered or known about; uncertain, or difficult to understand. (अस्पष्ट/धुंधला)
Example: The meaning of the ancient poem remains obscure even to modern experts.
Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'clear' is 'obscure'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Obscure.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Logical (तर्कसंगत): According to the rules of logic or formal argument.
Example: There was no logical explanation for his strange behavior.
Precise (सटीक): Marked by exactness and accuracy of expression or detail.
Example: The director gave precise instructions on how to film the scene.
Transparent (पारदर्शी): Easy to perceive or detect; allowing light to pass through so that objects behind can be distinctly seen.
Example: The company promises to be transparent about its financial dealings.

Question 44

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word from the options given below.

The committee reached a unanimous decision after long discussion.

AOption (a)
collective
BOption (b)
divided
COption (c)
neutral
DOption (d)
compact

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

divided

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Divided.

Key Points

The word 'Unanimous' refers to an opinion, decision, or vote held or carried by everyone involved; in total agreement. (एकमत)
Example: The board was unanimous in its support of the new policy.
'Divided' refers to a situation where people disagree or are separated into different groups or opinions. (विभाजित/असहमत)
Example: The jury was divided on the verdict, leading to a hung jury.
Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'unanimous' is 'divided'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Divided.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Collective (सामूहिक): Done by people acting as a group.
Example: It was a collective effort by the entire team to finish the project on time.
Neutral (तटस्थ): Not supporting or helping either side in a conflict or disagreement.
Example: Switzerland remained neutral during the world wars.
Compact (सघन/संक्षिप्त): Closely and neatly packed together; or a formal agreement.
Example: The laptop is very compact, making it easy to carry in a small bag.

Question 45

Select the most appropriate proverb to substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence.

Rekha stayed calm during the crisis, knowing that difficult situations often have positive outcomes.

AOption (a)
Rome was not built in a day
BOption (b)
every cloud has a silver lining
COption (c)
birds of a feather flock together
DOption (d)
beggars cannot be choosers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

every cloud has a silver lining

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: every cloud has a silver lining.

Key Points

The highlighted segment 'difficult situations often have positive outcomes' refers to the idea that there is something good in every bad or unpleasant situation. (कठिन परिस्थितियों के भी सकारात्मक परिणाम होते हैं)
Example: Even though he lost his job, he found a better one later, proving that every cloud has a silver lining.
'Every cloud has a silver lining' is a proverb which means that every difficult or sad situation has a comforting or more hopeful aspect, even though it may not be immediately apparent. (हर कठिन परिस्थिति में आशा की एक किरण होती है)
Example: I know you are upset about failing the test, but remember that every cloud has a silver lining; now you know exactly what you need to study.
Therefore, the correct answer is- every cloud has a silver lining.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Rome was not built in a day (हथेली पर सरसों नहीं जमती/महान कार्य समय लेते हैं): Used to emphasize that important work takes time and patience to complete.
Example: You cannot expect to learn a new language in a week; Rome was not built in a day.
Birds of a feather flock together (चोर-चोर मौसेरे भाई/एक ही स्वभाव के लोग): People of the same sort or with similar interests will be found together.
Example: All the musicians at the party were talking to each other; it is true that birds of a feather flock together.
Beggars cannot be choosers (दान की बछिया के दांत नहीं देखे जाते/मजबूर व्यक्ति को चुनाव का अधिकार नहीं होता): People who depend on the generosity of others are not in a position to dictate terms or pick and choose.
Example: The hostel room was small, but since it was free, he realized that beggars cannot be choosers.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Growing awareness of mental health has encouraged societies to address emotional well-being more openly than in previous decades. Schools, workplaces and healthcare systems increasingly promote counseling services, stress management and early intervention programs. Public campaigns have helped reduce stigma surrounding mental health challenges, encouraging more individuals to seek support. However, access to quality mental healthcare remains uneven, particularly in underserved communities. Continued education, policy support and social acceptance are essential for creating healthier and more supportive societies. Communities are also organizing awareness events and support groups to encourage open discussions about emotional well-being. Technology-based counseling services are improving access to mental health support in remote areas. With greater understanding and cooperation, societies can create environments where individuals feel safer seeking professional help and maintaining emotional wellness.

Question 46

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the central theme of the passage?

AOption (a)
Expansion of industrial medicine
BOption (b)
Decline of public education
COption (c)
Agricultural policy reform
DOption (d)
Mental health awareness and support

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Mental health awareness and support

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mental health awareness and support.

Key Points

The passage focuses extensively on the growing awareness of mental health and the subsequent shift in societal attitudes toward emotional well-being.
It highlights how various institutions like schools, workplaces, and healthcare systems are actively promoting counseling services and stress management to support individuals.
The text emphasizes the role of public campaigns in reducing the stigma associated with mental health, which is a core component of fostering a supportive environment.
The passage concludes by stating that social acceptance and greater understanding are necessary to create environments where people feel safe seeking professional help.
The primary focus is explicitly stated in the opening sentence: 'Growing awareness of mental health has encouraged societies to address emotional well-being more openly than in previous decades.' Hence, the central theme is clearly the promotion of mental health awareness and support systems.

Additional Information

Expansion of industrial medicine: This option is incorrect as the text does not mention industrial health, manufacturing hazards, or workplace-specific medical treatments outside the context of emotional wellness.
Decline of public education: This option contradicts the passage, which suggests that schools are actually increasing their involvement by promoting early intervention programs and mental health education.
Agricultural policy reform: This is entirely irrelevant as the passage contains no references to farming, land use, crop management, or rural economic policies.
Technology-based counseling: While mentioned, this is a supporting detail regarding accessibility in remote areas rather than the comprehensive central theme of the entire text.

Question 47

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which fact is directly stated?

AOption (a)
Workplaces avoid mental health initiatives
BOption (b)
Public campaigns have reduced mental health stigma
COption (c)
Mental healthcare is equally accessible everywhere
DOption (d)
Counseling services are declining

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Public campaigns have reduced mental health stigma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Public campaigns have reduced mental health stigma.

Key Points

The passage explicitly highlights the positive impact of Public campaigns on societal attitudes towards emotional well-being. It mentions that these initiatives have helped reduce stigma surrounding mental health challenges, which in turn encourages individuals to seek professional support. This aligns perfectly with the

Statement:

'Public campaigns have helped reduce stigma surrounding mental health challenges, encouraging more individuals to seek support.' Hence, the second option is directly supported by the text.

The passage contradicts the idea of equal accessibility by stating that access to quality mental healthcare remains uneven, particularly in underserved communities. Hence, the third option is incorrect.
The text notes that workplaces are actually promoting counseling services and stress management, rather than avoiding them. Hence, the first option is incorrect.
Instead of declining, the passage mentions that Technology-based counseling services are actually improving access in remote areas, and schools/workplaces are increasingly promoting these services. Hence, the fourth option is incorrect.

Additional Information

Mental Health Awareness:
The passage emphasizes early intervention programs and policy support as key drivers for creating supportive societies.
It identifies remote areas as specific regions benefiting from technological advancements in healthcare delivery.
The concept of social acceptance is presented as an essential pillar for the long-term maintenance of emotional wellness within communities.

Question 48

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What tone does the passage convey?

AOption (a)
Nostalgic and joyful
BOption (b)
Hostile and sarcatic
COption (c)
Humorous and ironical
DOption (d)
Informative and socially concerned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Informative and socially concerned

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Informative and socially concerned.

Key Points

The passage provides a structured overview of the current state of mental health awareness, detailing how various institutions like schools, workplaces, and healthcare systems are implementing support programs. Hence, the tone is informative as it conveys factual observations about societal shifts.
The author highlights critical issues such as uneven access to quality healthcare and the plight of underserved communities. By stating that policy support and social acceptance are essential, the passage demonstrates a clear socially concerned perspective regarding public welfare.
The text discusses the impact of public campaigns in reducing stigma and the role of technology-based counseling in remote areas, further reinforcing a constructive and serious outlook on societal improvement.
The concluding sentiment emphasizes greater understanding and cooperation to create safer environments, which aligns with a tone focused on social advocacy and awareness rather than personal emotion or humor.

Additional Information

The other options are unsuitable due to the following reasons:
Nostalgic and joyful: This tone involves longing for the past or expressing extreme happiness. The passage focuses on current healthcare challenges and future policy needs, which is not nostalgic.
Hostile and sarcastic: These tones involve bitterness, aggression, or mockery. The passage maintains a professional, neutral, and empathetic stance toward mental health.
Humorous and ironical: The passage lacks wit, comedy, or satirical elements. It treats the subject of emotional well-being with the seriousness required for a public health discussion.

Question 49

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How does the passage connect to the real world?

AOption (a)
It lacks social relevance
BOption (b)
It reflects mental wellness discussions
COption (c)
It discusses ancient rituals only
DOption (d)
It focuses on fictional institutions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

It reflects mental wellness discussions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It reflects mental wellness discussions.

Key Points

The passage directly addresses contemporary societal trends regarding emotional well-being and mental health awareness, which are prominent topics in modern real-world discourse.
It mentions the roles of schools, workplaces, and healthcare systems in promoting counseling services and early intervention programs, mirroring current institutional shifts.
The text highlights the impact of public campaigns in reducing social stigma, a documented phenomenon in contemporary sociology aimed at encouraging individuals to seek professional help.
The narrative identifies real-world challenges such as uneven access to healthcare in underserved communities and the rise of technology-based counseling for remote areas.
The passage concludes that social acceptance and policy support are essential, linking the text to actual public policy and advocacy efforts globally.

Additional Information

The passage is grounded in current social reality rather than abstraction:
Social Relevance: The text focuses on stigma reduction and community support, making the claim that it lacks relevance factually incorrect.
Ancient Rituals: There is no mention of historical or traditional practices; the focus is strictly on modern healthcare and digital technology.
Fictional Institutions: The entities mentioned, such as healthcare systems and support groups, are functional, real-world organizations rather than imaginary or literary constructs.

Question 50

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which structure best describes the passage?

AOption (a)
Personal narrative
BOption (b)
Mythological account
COption (c)
Progress-challenge-solution framework
DOption (d)
Random sequence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Progress-challenge-solution framework

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Progress-challenge-solution framework.

Key Points

The passage begins by highlighting the growing awareness and positive developments in mental health, such as schools and workplaces promoting counseling services and public campaigns reducing stigma. This represents the Progress element of the framework.
The author then introduces a significant obstacle by stating, 'However, access to quality mental healthcare remains uneven, particularly in underserved communities.' This shift identifies the specific Challenge or problem that persists despite the initial progress mentioned.
The text concludes by suggesting ways to overcome these issues, mentioning that 'Continued education, policy support and social acceptance' are essential and noting how 'Technology-based counseling services' are improving access. This constitutes the Solution component of the structure.
Because the narrative flow moves systematically from accomplishments to existing hurdles and finally to methods for improvement, it strictly follows a Progress-challenge-solution framework.

Additional Information

Personal narrative: This structure involves a first-person account of individual experiences using subjective language and personal pronouns like 'I' or 'me', which is absent in this objective, informative passage.
Mythological account: This would involve folklore, deities, or supernatural elements used to explain natural or social phenomena, whereas the passage deals with modern healthcare and societal trends.
Random sequence: This implies a lack of logical connection between sentences. However, this passage uses transitional devices like 'however' and 'with greater understanding' to maintain a cohesive and logical flow of ideas.

General Knowledge 1 (15 questions)

Question 51

The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular, dissected by rivers that (mostly) drain into which water body?

AOption (a)
Arabian Sea
BOption (b)
Indian Ocean
COption (c)
Bay of Bengal
DOption (d)
Narmada river

हिंदी में देखें

पूर्वी घाट असंतत और अनियमित हैं, जो उन नदियों द्वारा विच्छेदित हैं जो (मुख्यतः) किस जलाशय में गिरती हैं?

(a)
अरब सागर
(b)
हिंद महासागर
(c)
बंगाल की खाड़ी
(d)
नर्मदा नदी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Bay of Bengal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bay of Bengal.

Key Points

The Eastern Ghats represent a discontinuous range of mountains located along the eastern coast of India, stretching from Odisha through Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu.
Unlike the Western Ghats, which are continuous, the Eastern Ghats are highly irregular and broken due to the erosive action of several major peninsular rivers.
The general slope of the Deccan Plateau is from west to east, which compels major river systems to flow eastward towards the Bay of Bengal.
Rivers such as the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri cut through the Eastern Ghats, creating wide fertile deltas before emptying their waters into the Bay of Bengal.
The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is Jindhagada Peak (1690 meters), followed by Mahendragiri, and these mountains act as the eastern boundary of the Deccan Plateau.

Additional Information

Arabian Sea
Located on the western side of the Indian subcontinent, it receives drainage from westward-flowing rivers like the Narmada and Tapi.
The Western Ghats form a continuous barrier along this coast, unlike the fragmented Eastern Ghats.
Indian Ocean
A vast water body that encompasses both the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea as its marginal seas.
While technically correct in a macro-geographical sense, the specific drainage basin for the Eastern Ghats rivers is the Bay of Bengal.
Narmada River
One of the few major rivers in India that flows westward through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.
It originates from the Amarkantak plateau and does not intersect with the Eastern Ghats.

Question 52

The Dutch rulers established their first factory in India at ____________.

AOption (a)
Kerala
BOption (b)
Jammu and Kashmir
COption (c)
Andhra Pradesh
DOption (d)
Gujarat

हिंदी में देखें

डच शासकों ने भारत में अपना पहला कारखाना ____________ में स्थापित किया था।

(a)
केरल
(b)
जम्मू और कश्मीर
(c)
आंध्र प्रदेश
(d)
गुजरात

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Andhra Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

The Dutch East India Company (Vereenigde Oost-Indische Compagnie or VOC) was formed in 1602 through a charter granted by the Dutch Parliament to trade in the East Indies.
Upon their arrival on the Coromandel Coast, the Dutch established their very first permanent factory at Masulipatnam (also known as Machilipatnam) in the year 1605.
Masulipatnam is a historical port city located in the Krishna district of the modern-day state of Andhra Pradesh.
The primary objective of the Dutch in this region was the procurement of Indian textiles, which were in high demand in the Indonesian archipelago for exchange against spices.
The Golconda rulers granted the Dutch the necessary trade concessions and permission to build the factory, marking the beginning of Dutch colonial presence in the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

Expansion of Dutch Factories:
Following their success in Andhra Pradesh, the Dutch expanded to Pulicat (1610), Surat (1616), Bimlipatam (1641), and Chinsura (1653).
In 1690, they shifted their main headquarters on the Coromandel Coast from Pulicat to Negapatam.
Decline of Dutch Power:
The Dutch influence in India waned due to intense competition with the British East India Company.
The Battle of Bedara (also known as the Battle of Chinsura) in 1759 dealt a decisive blow to Dutch ambitions in India, leading to their eventual withdrawal.
Other European First Factories:
The Portuguese established their first factory at Calicut (Kerala) and later a permanent one at Cochin.
The English established their first temporary factory at Masulipatnam (1611) and their first permanent factory at Surat (1613) in Gujarat.
The French established their first factory at Surat in 1668.

Question 53

Which of the following taxes is NOT typically levied by urban local bodies?

AOption (a)
Property Tax
BOption (b)
Income Tax
COption (c)
Entertainment Tax
DOption (d)
Water Tax

हिंदी में देखें

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कर आमतौर पर शहरी स्थानीय निकायों द्वारा नहीं लगाया जाता है?

(a)
संपत्ति कर
(b)
आयकर
(c)
मनोरंजन कर
(d)
जल कर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Income Tax

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Income Tax.

Key Points

Income Tax is a direct tax imposed by the Central Government of India on the annual earnings of individuals and entities. It is governed by the Income Tax Act, 1961, and is collected by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), not by local authorities.
Property Tax is a primary source of revenue for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) such as Municipal Corporations and Municipalities. It is levied on real estate owners based on the Annual Rental Value (ARV) or Capital Value of the property.
Entertainment Tax was traditionally levied by local bodies or State Governments on exhibitions, performances, and amusements. Since the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) on July 1, 2017, most entertainment taxes have been subsumed, though local bodies still retain some powers to levy additional taxes on cinemas and theaters in certain jurisdictions.
Water Tax is a service tax collected by urban local bodies to cover the costs of water treatment, distribution, and maintenance of the supply infrastructure within a city.
The 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, empowered Urban Local Bodies to perform 18 functional items listed in the Twelfth Schedule, granting them the authority to levy specific taxes, fees, and tolls to maintain local autonomy.

Additional Information

Fiscal Classification in India:
Central Taxes: Includes Corporation Tax, Customs Duty, and Central GST (CGST).
State Taxes: Includes State Excise Duty on liquor, Land Revenue, and Value Added Tax (VAT) on petroleum products.
Local Taxes: Includes Octroi (now mostly abolished), Professional Tax (shared), Advertisement Tax, and User Charges for sanitation and solid waste management.
Article 280: The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States, and also suggests measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities.

Question 54

If the office of the Vice President of India falls vacant, who performs the duties of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

AOption (a)
Prime Minister
BOption (b)
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
COption (c)
Speaker of Lok Sabha
DOption (d)
Chief Justice of India

हिंदी में देखें

यदि भारत के उपराष्ट्रपति का पद रिक्त हो जाता है, तो राज्यसभा के सभापति के कार्यों का निर्वहन कौन करता है?

(a)
प्रधानमंत्री
(b)
राज्यसभा के उपसभापति
(c)
लोकसभा अध्यक्ष
(d)
भारत के मुख्य न्यायाधीश

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

According to Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
Article 91 specifically provides for the performance of the duties of the Chairman when the office is vacant or when the Vice President is acting as the President of India.
In the event of a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, or during any period when the Vice President is unable to perform his functions, the duties of the Chairman shall be performed by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
If the office of the Deputy Chairman is also vacant, the duties are performed by such member of the Rajya Sabha as the President of India may appoint for the purpose.
The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from amongst its members as per Article 89 of the Constitution.

Additional Information

Prime Minister:
The Prime Minister is the Head of Government and the leader of the Union Council of Ministers.
The Prime Minister does not hold any presiding officer role in either house of Parliament.
Speaker of Lok Sabha:
The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lower House (Lok Sabha).
The Speaker presides over Joint Sittings of both Houses of Parliament under Article 108.
Chief Justice of India:
The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the highest-ranking officer of the Indian Federal Judiciary.
Under the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969, the CJI acts as the President of India if both the offices of President and Vice President are vacant, but they have no role in presiding over the Rajya Sabha.

Question 55

In which of the following situations can the Vice President vote in the Rajya Sabha?

AOption (a)
Council of Ministers approves
BOption (b)
There is a tie in voting
COption (c)
Constitutional amendment is discussed
DOption (d)
President directs

हिंदी में देखें

निम्नलिखित में से किस स्थिति में उपराष्ट्रपति राज्यसभा में मतदान कर सकते हैं?

(a)
मंत्रिपरिषद अनुमोदन करती है
(b)
मतदान में बराबरी हो जाती है
(c)
संविधान संशोधन पर चर्चा होती है
(d)
राष्ट्रपति निर्देश देते हैं

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

There is a tie in voting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is There is a tie in voting.

Key Points

The Vice President of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) as per Article 64 and Article 89 of the Constitution of India.
In normal circumstances, the Vice President does not participate in the initial voting on any bill or resolution in the Upper House because they are not a member of the Parliament.
However, under Article 100 of the Constitution, the Chairman (or person acting as such) shall not vote in the first instance but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
This casting vote is intended to resolve a deadlock or a tie in voting, ensuring that a legislative decision can be reached.
The exercise of this vote is discretionary and is used to maintain the impartiality of the Chair while fulfilling the functional necessity of the house.

Additional Information

Constitutional Role of Vice President:
The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament through a system of proportional representation.
While presiding over the Rajya Sabha, their powers and functions are similar to those of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
They cannot vote when a resolution for their removal is under consideration, even if there is a tie, although they have the right to speak in the house during such proceedings.
The Council of Ministers or the President has no constitutional authority to direct the Vice President on how or when to cast a vote in the legislature.
During a Constitutional Amendment discussion, the same rule of casting vote applies only if a tie occurs, but they possess no special voting rights otherwise.

Question 56

In which period did Hindustani and Carnatic music become two distinct traditions?

AOption (a)
Modern period
BOption (b)
Prehistoric period
COption (c)
Ancient period
DOption (d)
Medieval period

हिंदी में देखें

किस काल में हिंदुस्तानी और कर्नाटक संगीत दो अलग-अलग परंपराएं बन गईं?

(a)
आधुनिक काल
(b)
प्रागैतिहासिक काल
(c)
प्राचीन काल
(d)
मध्यकालीन काल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Medieval period

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Medieval period.

Key Points

Indian classical music shared a common root until the 12^th century, primarily based on the Natya Shastra by Bharat Muni and the Sangeeta Ratnakara by Sarangadeva.
The bifurcation into Hindustani and Carnatic traditions occurred during the Medieval period, specifically following the Islamic invasions and the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate and Mughal Empire in North India.
Hindustani music, prevalent in North India, was significantly influenced by Persian and Arabic musical elements, leading to the evolution of forms like Khayal and Qawwali.
Carnatic music, concentrated in South India, remained relatively insulated from foreign influences, preserving the traditional Hindu temple-based musical structures and focusing on Kriti compositions.
Key figures like Amir Khusrau in the North introduced new Ragas and instruments like the Sitar, while the Vijayanagara Empire in the South provided patronage that solidified the Carnatic style.

Additional Information

Ancient period:
This era was characterized by the Gandharva music and the chanting of Sama Veda hymns.
The foundational principles of Swara, Raga, and Tala were established during this time, but the two schools had not yet diverged.
Modern period:
Marked by the institutionalization of music and the rise of Gharanas.
Technological advancements led to the mass broadcasting of classical music through All India Radio and gramophone records.
Prehistoric period:
Refers to the era before written records, where music was rudimentary and linked to nature sounds or tribal rituals.
Archaeological finds like the bone flutes or dancing girl figurine from the Indus Valley Civilization suggest early musical interests but no formal classical systems.

Question 57

The Sundarbans Delta in West Bengal is an example of which type of forest?

AOption (a)
Montane forest
BOption (b)
Subtropical thorn forest
COption (c)
Moist deciduous forest
DOption (d)
Mangrove forest

हिंदी में देखें

पश्चिम बंगाल में सुंदरबन डेल्टा किस प्रकार के वन का उदाहरण है?

(a)
पर्वतीय वन
(b)
उपोष्ण कंटक वन
(c)
आर्द्र पर्णपाती वन
(d)
मैंग्रोव वन

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Mangrove forest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mangrove forest.

Key Points

The Sundarbans Delta, located in the state of West Bengal and parts of Bangladesh, is the largest halophytic mangrove ecosystem in the world.
These forests are situated at the mouth of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal, characterized by saline and brackish water conditions.
The dominant tree species found here is the Heritiera fomes, commonly known as the Sundari tree, from which the delta derives its name.
Mangrove forests are unique for their pneumatophores (blind roots), which grow upwards out of the soil to facilitate respiration in anaerobic, waterlogged conditions.
The region was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987 and is a critical habitat for the Royal Bengal Tiger.

Additional Information

Montane forest:
Found in high-altitude regions like the Himalayas and Nilgiris.
Vegetation changes with altitude, ranging from wet temperate forests to alpine grasslands.
Subtropical thorn forest:
Occurs in semi-arid regions with low rainfall, such as Rajasthan, Gujarat, and parts of the Deccan Plateau.
Characterized by Acacia, Euphorbias, and Cacti.
Moist deciduous forest:
The most widespread forest type in India, found in areas with rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm.
Common species include Teak, Sal, Shisham, and Sandalwood.

Question 58

Bihu is the most important festival of Assam, celebrated __________ in a year.

AOption (a)
once
BOption (b)
twice
COption (c)
thrice
DOption (d)
four times

हिंदी में देखें

बिहू असम का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण त्योहार है, जिसे वर्ष में __________ मनाया जाता है।

(a)
एक बार
(b)
दो बार
(c)
तीन बार
(d)
चार बार

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

thrice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is thrice.

Key Points

Bihu is the most significant cultural and secular festival of Assam, marking the different stages of the agricultural cycle.
The festival is celebrated three times in a calendar year, with each iteration occurring at a specific seasonal transition.
The first is Rongali Bihu (also known as Bohag Bihu), celebrated in mid-April to mark the Assamese New Year and the onset of the seeding season.
The second is Kati Bihu (or Kongali Bihu), observed in mid-October, which is a more somber occasion focused on prayer for a good harvest as the paddy grows.
The third is Bhogali Bihu (or Magh Bihu), celebrated in mid-January to mark the end of the harvest season with community feasting and bonfires.

Additional Information

Rongali Bihu:
It is the most popular of the three and lasts for seven days, featuring traditional Bihu dance and songs.
It coincides with other spring festivals like Baisakhi, Vishu, and Poila Baisakh.
Kati Bihu:
Known as Kongali (poor) because granaries are usually empty at this time of year.
People light earthen lamps (Saki) under Tulsi plants and in the paddy fields.
Bhogali Bihu:
Derived from the word Bhoga (eating/enjoyment), it involves building temporary huts called Meji and Bhelaghar.
Traditional Assamese sweets like Laru and Pitha are prepared and shared during this time.

Question 59

On which date was the Indian National Congress (INC) founded?

AOption (a)
2 October 1892
BOption (b)
15 August 1874
COption (c)
28 December 1885
DOption (d)
26 January 1845

हिंदी में देखें

भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस (INC) की स्थापना किस तिथि को हुई थी?

(a)
2 अक्टूबर 1892
(b)
15 अगस्त 1874
(c)
28 दिसंबर 1885
(d)
26 जनवरी 1845

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

28 December 1885

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 28 December 1885.

Key Points

The Indian National Congress (INC) was formally established on 28 December 1885 during its inaugural session held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai).
The foundation of the party was initiated by Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British officer of the Imperial Civil Service, who aimed to create a platform for civic and political dialogue between educated Indians and the British Raj.
The first session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, who served as the first President of the INC, and was attended by 72 delegates from various parts of India.
Initially, the session was scheduled to take place in Poona, but due to an outbreak of cholera in the city, the venue was shifted to Bombay.
The early phase of the Congress (1885−1905) is known as the Moderate Phase, where leaders focused on constitutional methods, petitions, and speeches to demand administrative reforms.

Additional Information

Key Figures and Milestones:
Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India at the time of the Congress's formation in 1885.
Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India, proposed the name Indian National Congress, replacing the initial suggestion of Indian National Union.
Kadambini Ganguly, the first woman graduate of Calcutta University, addressed the Congress session in 1890, symbolizing the inclusion of women in the political struggle.
The Safety Valve Theory is a historical concept often associated with the birth of the INC, suggesting it was created to provide a peaceful outlet for Indian political unrest.

Question 60

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment and term of office of the Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission?

AOption (a)
Article 324
BOption (b)
Article 317
COption (c)
Article 319
DOption (d)
Article 316

हिंदी में देखें

भारत के संविधान का कौन सा अनुच्छेद संघ लोक सेवा आयोग के अध्यक्ष और सदस्यों की नियुक्ति और कार्यालय की अवधि का प्रावधान करता है?

(a)
अनुच्छेद 324
(b)
अनुच्छेद 317
(c)
अनुच्छेद 319
(d)
अनुच्छेद 316

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Article 316

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 316.

Key Points

Article 316 of the Constitution of India explicitly deals with the appointment and term of office of members of both the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and State Public Service Commissions (SPSC).
The Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President of India, while those of a State Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State.
The term of office for a member of the UPSC is six years from the date on which they enter upon their office or until they attain the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
A person who holds office as a member of a Public Service Commission is ineligible for reappointment to that office upon the expiration of their term, ensuring the independence and impartiality of the body.
The article also provides for the appointment of an Acting Chairman by the President if the office of the Chairman becomes vacant or if the Chairman is unable to perform their duties due to absence or other reasons.

Additional Information

Article 317:
This article governs the removal and suspension of a member of a Public Service Commission.
It specifies that the Chairman or any member can only be removed from office by order of the President on the ground of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court has held an inquiry.
Article 319:
This article imposes a prohibition on the holding of offices by members of the Commission on ceasing to be such members.
It dictates that the Chairman of the UPSC shall be ineligible for further employment either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State.
Article 324:
This article relates to the Election Commission of India.
It vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in an Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections to Parliament and State Legislatures.

Question 61

Right to Equality is contained in which group of Articles of the Indian Constitution, ensuring equal treatment to all citizens?

AOption (a)
Articles 25–28
BOption (b)
Articles 14–18
COption (c)
Articles 10–13
DOption (d)
Articles 19–24

हिंदी में देखें

समानता का अधिकार भारतीय संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद समूह में निहित है, जो सभी नागरिकों के लिए समान व्यवहार सुनिश्चित करता है?

(a)
अनुच्छेद 25–28
(b)
अनुच्छेद 14–18
(c)
अनुच्छेद 10–13
(d)
अनुच्छेद 19–24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Articles 14–18

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Articles 14-18.

Key Points

The Right to Equality is one of the six Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India, spanning from Article 14 to Article 18.
Article 14 guarantees Equality before Law and Equal Protection of Laws to all persons within the territory of India, prohibiting discrimination on arbitrary grounds.
Article 15 prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, ensuring equal access to public places like shops, restaurants, and wells.
Article 16 ensures Equality of Opportunity in matters of public employment, preventing the State from discriminating against citizens in government job appointments.
Article 17 mandates the Abolition of Untouchability, making its practice in any form a punishable offense under the law to ensure social equality.
Article 18 provides for the Abolition of Titles, except military and academic distinctions, to maintain a society free of hereditary or colonial hierarchies.

Additional Information

Articles 19-24:
This group covers the Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22) and the Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24).
Article 19 guarantees six democratic freedoms, including speech and expression.
Article 23 prohibits human trafficking and forced labor.
Articles 25-28:
This group constitutes the Right to Freedom of Religion.
It allows citizens the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.
Fundamental Rights:
Originally, there were seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property was removed by the 44^th Amendment Act, 1978.
These rights are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by the Supreme Court under Article 32.

Question 62

Where is the force of attraction greatest on a uniformly magnetized bar magnet?

AOption (a)
Only outside the magnet
BOption (b)
Along the entire length with equal strength
COption (c)
At the magnetic poles of the bar magnet
DOption (d)
At the geometric center of the bar magnet

हिंदी में देखें

एकसमान रूप से चुंबकित छड़ चुंबक पर आकर्षण बल सबसे अधिक कहाँ होता है?

(a)
केवल चुंबक के बाहर
(b)
समान सामर्थ्य के साथ संपूर्ण लंबाई के अनुदिश
(c)
छड़ चुंबक के चुंबकीय ध्रुवों पर
(d)
छड़ चुंबक के ज्यामितीय केंद्र पर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

At the magnetic poles of the bar magnet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is

At the magnetic poles of the bar magnet.

Key Points

A bar magnet is a rectangular object made of iron, steel, or any other ferromagnetic substance that possesses permanent magnetic properties.
The force of attraction or repulsion is strongest at the magnetic poles (North and South poles) of the magnet.
This occurs because the magnetic field lines are most densely concentrated or crowded at the poles, indicating a higher magnetic flux density.
As we move from the poles toward the equator or the geometric center of the magnet, the magnetic strength decreases.
At the exact geometric center (neutral point) of a bar magnet, the net magnetic force of attraction is effectively zero.
The magnetic poles are located slightly inside the ends of the magnet, and the distance between them is known as the magnetic length.

Additional Information

Magnetic Field Lines: These are imaginary lines that emerge from the North Pole and enter the South Pole outside the magnet, forming continuous closed loops.
Directive Property: When suspended freely, a bar magnet always aligns itself in the North-South direction.
Monopoles: Magnetic poles always exist in pairs; it is impossible to isolate a single North or South pole by breaking a magnet.
Inverse Square Law: The force between two magnetic poles is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Question 63

By which constitutional amendment is the President of India granted the right to send back the advice of the Council of Ministers for reconsideration?

AOption (a)
42^nd Amendment
BOption (b)
44^th Amendment
COption (c)
45^th Amendment
DOption (d)
43^rd Amendment

हिंदी में देखें

किस सांविधानिक संशोधन द्वारा भारत के राष्ट्रपति को मंत्रिपरिषद की सलाह को पुनर्विचार के लिए वापस भेजने का अधिकार प्रदान है?

(a)
42वें संशोधन
(b)
44वें संशोधन
(c)
45वें संशोधन
(d)
43वें संशोधन

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

44^th Amendment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 44^th Amendment.

Key Points

The 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, was enacted by the Janata Party Government to provide safeguards against the misuse of powers seen during the Emergency.
This amendment modified Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution, explicitly granting the President of India the authority to require the Council of Ministers to reconsider their advice.
Prior to this, the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, had made the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister absolutely binding on the President without any provision for return.
Under the current provision, while the President can send the advice back once for reconsideration, if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again (with or without changes), the President is then constitutionally obligated to act in accordance with it.
This change was crucial in restoring a balance of power, ensuring that the President is not merely a rubber stamp but can exercise a degree of suspensive veto over executive decisions.

Additional Information

42^nd Amendment Act, 1976:
Known as the Mini-Constitution, it was passed during the National Emergency under Indira Gandhi.
It attempted to reduce the power of the Judiciary and the President, making the President legally bound by the advice of the Cabinet.
43^rd Amendment Act, 1977:
This amendment was primarily focused on restoring the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts that had been curtailed by the 42^nd Amendment.
It repealed several offensive provisions related to anti-national activities and judicial review.
44^th Amendment Act - Other Key Changes:
It replaced the term internal disturbance with armed rebellion for the proclamation of a National Emergency under Article 352.
It removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
It ensured that the Right to Life and Liberty (Articles 20 and 21) cannot be suspended even during an Emergency.

Question 64

Which of the following biomolecules carries genetic instructions transcribed from DNA in the nucleus to ribosomes located in the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis occurs?

AOption (a)
DNA polymerase
BOption (b)
Messenger RNA
COption (c)
Transfer RNA
DOption (d)
Ribosomal RNA

हिंदी में देखें

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा जैव-अणु केंद्रक में DNA से अनुलेखित आनुवंशिक निर्देशों को कोशिकाद्रव्य में स्थित राइबोसोम तक पहुँचाता है, जहाँ प्रोटीन संश्लेषण होता है?

(a)
DNA पॉलीमरेज़
(b)
मैसेंजर RNA
(c)
ट्रांसफ़र RNA
(d)
राइबोसोमल RNA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Messenger RNA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Messenger RNA

Key Points

Messenger RNA (mRNA)
mRNA is a single-stranded molecule that carries genetic code from the DNA in the cell nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
It acts as an intermediary between the genetic blueprint stored in DNA and the protein synthesis machinery.
The process of creating mRNA from a DNA template is known as transcription.
Once in the cytoplasm, the sequence of nucleotides on the mRNA is read in groups of three (codons) to determine the amino acid sequence of a protein during translation.

Additional Information

Transfer RNA (tRNA)
tRNA is responsible for bringing the correct amino acids to the ribosome based on the mRNA sequence.
It contains an anticodon that pairs with the complementary codon on the mRNA strand.
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
rRNA is a structural and catalytic component of ribosomes.
It ensures the proper alignment of mRNA and tRNA and catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids.
DNA Polymerase
DNA polymerase is an enzyme, not a coding RNA molecule.
Its primary function is to synthesize new DNA strands by adding nucleotides during DNA replication.
Central Dogma of Molecular Biology
The flow of genetic information follows the path: DNA → RNA → Protein.
This process ensures that the instructions stored in the genome are accurately expressed as functional proteins.

Question 65

By which legislative reform was a separate electorate for Muslims implemented in British India?

AOption (a)
Indian Councils Act, 1861
BOption (b)
Government of India Act, 1919
COption (c)
Indian Councils Act, 1892
DOption (d)
Indian Councils Act, 1909

हिंदी में देखें

ब्रिटिश भारत में मुसलमानों के लिए पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल किस विधायी सुधार द्वारा लागू किया गया था?

(a)
भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम, 1861
(b)
भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1919
(c)
भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम, 1892
(d)
भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम, 1909

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Indian Councils Act, 1909

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian Councils Act, 1909.

Key Points

The Indian Councils Act of 1909, popularly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced the system of separate electorates for Muslims in British India.
Under this provision, Muslim members were to be elected exclusively by Muslim voters, effectively legalizing communalism in the Indian political structure.
The act was named after Lord Morley, the then Secretary of State for India, and Lord Minto, the then Viceroy of India; the latter is often referred to as the Father of Communal Electorate.
The reform aimed to create a rift between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League (founded in 1906) by providing special representation to the minority community based on religion.
It significantly increased the size of the Legislative Councils at both the Central and Provincial levels, raising the number of members in the Central Legislative Council from 16 to 60.

Additional Information

Indian Councils Act, 1861
Initiated the process of decentralization by restoring legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
Introduced the Portfolio System, which was pioneered by Lord Canning in 1859.
Indian Councils Act, 1892
Introduced the principle of representation and increased the number of non-official members in the councils.
Gave members the right to discuss the budget and address questions to the Executive, though with significant limitations.
Government of India Act, 1919
Also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, it introduced Dyarchy in the provinces.
Extended the principle of communal representation to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.

General Knowledge 2 (10 questions)

Question 66

Which organisations are responsible for the joint publication of the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2025?

AOption (a)
World Bank and IMF
BOption (b)
World Economic Forum and UNICEF
COption (c)
UNDP and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative
DOption (d)
UNESCO and World Trade Organisation

हिंदी में देखें

ग्लोबल मल्टीडायमेंशनल पावर्टी इंडेक्स (MPI) 2025 के संयुक्त प्रकाशन के लिए कौन से संगठन जिम्मेदार हैं?

(a)
विश्व बैंक और आईएमएफ (IMF)
(b)
विश्व आर्थिक मंच और यूनिसेफ (UNICEF)
(c)
यूएनडीपी (UNDP) और ऑक्सफोर्ड पावर्टी एंड ह्यूमन डेवलपमेंट इनीशिएटिव
(d)
यूनेस्को (UNESCO) और विश्व व्यापार संगठन

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

UNDP and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is UNDP and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.

Key Points

The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an international measure of acute poverty covering over 100 developing countries, published annually since 2010. Hence, the publication is a collaborative effort between the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
The index complements traditional monetary poverty measures by capturing the simultaneous deprivations that people face in their daily lives, such as poor health, lack of education, and inadequate living standards.
The Global MPI uses three dimensions of equal weight: Health, Education, and Standard of Living. These dimensions are further broken down into 10 indicators, including nutrition, child mortality, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, and assets.
A person is considered multidimensionally poor if they are deprived in one-third or more of the weighted indicators. The MPI 2025 report continues to track progress toward Sustainable Development Goal 1 (SDG 1), which aims to end poverty in all its forms everywhere.

Additional Information

United Nations Development Programme (UNDP):
Headquartered in New York City, it is the UN's global development network that promotes technical and investment cooperation among nations.
It also publishes the Human Development Index (HDI) and the Gender Inequality Index (GII).
Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI):
An economic research center within the Oxford Department of International Development at the University of Oxford.
It focuses on applying Amartya Sen's Capability Approach to measure wellbeing and poverty.
World Bank and IMF:
The World Bank focuses on long-term economic development and poverty reduction, while the International Monetary Fund (IMF) focuses on global monetary cooperation and financial stability.

Question 67

In which year was the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act introduced in India?

AOption (a)
2010
BOption (b)
2003
COption (c)
1999
DOption (d)
1991

हिंदी में देखें

भारत में राजकोषीय उत्तरदायित्व और बजट प्रबंधन (FRBM) अधिनियम किस वर्ष पेश किया गया था?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

2003

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2003.

Key Points

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in August 2003 to institutionalize financial discipline and improve macroeconomic management.
The primary objective of this legislation was to reduce India's fiscal deficit and revenue deficit to sustainable levels, ensuring long-term macroeconomic stability.
It mandated the Central Government to take appropriate measures to eliminate the revenue deficit and reduce the fiscal deficit to a target of 3% of the GDP by March 2009.
The act requires the government to lay three policy statements before the Parliament along with the Annual Financial Statement: the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, and the Macroeconomic Framework Statement.
It serves as a legal framework to ensure that the inter-generational equity in fiscal management is maintained and that public debt does not rise to levels that threaten the economic sovereignty of the nation.

Additional Information

Evolution and Amendments:
In 2016, the government constituted the N.K. Singh Committee to review the working of the FRBM Act and suggest a future fiscal roadmap.
The committee recommended a Debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the combined government (40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments) to be achieved by 2023.
The Escape Clause within the act allows the government to exceed the fiscal deficit targets during periods of national security, calamity, or structural reforms in the economy.
Following the Global Financial Crisis of 2008, the targets of the FRBM Act were suspended to provide fiscal stimulus to the Indian economy.

Question 68

Who was awarded the Bridge Federation of India (BFI) Lifetime Achievement Award with a cash prize of ₹40,000 in 2025?

AOption (a)
Mr. Rajesh Sharma
BOption (b)
Ms. Vidya Patel
COption (c)
Mr. Sumit Mukherjee
DOption (d)
Mrs. Kiran Nadar

हिंदी में देखें

2025 में ₹40,000 के नकद पुरस्कार के साथ ब्रिज फेडरेशन ऑफ इंडिया (BFI) लाइफटाइम अचीवमेंट अवार्ड से किसे सम्मानित किया गया था?

(a)
श्री राजेश शर्मा
(b)
सुश्री विद्या पटेल
(c)
श्री सुमित मुखर्जी
(d)
श्रीमती किरण नादर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Mrs. Kiran Nadar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mrs. Kiran Nadar.

Key Points

The Bridge Federation of India (BFI), the apex body for the sport of Contract Bridge in the country, conferred the Lifetime Achievement Award upon Mrs. Kiran Nadar in 2025.
The award recognizes her unparalleled contribution to the promotion, development, and international representation of Bridge in India over several decades.
The honor included a citation and a cash prize of 40,000, acknowledging her role as both a high-level competitive player and a significant patron of the sport.
Mrs. Kiran Nadar has been a member of the Indian National Bridge Team and has represented the nation at prestigious global events, including the Asian Games and the World Bridge Championships.
Under her leadership and support, the HCL Bridge Championship has become one of the most prominent tournaments in the international bridge calendar, attracting top-tier global talent to India.

Additional Information

Bridge Federation of India (BFI):
It is recognized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, and is affiliated with the World Bridge Federation (WBF).
The federation is responsible for selecting the national team for events like the Asian Games, where Bridge was introduced as a medal sport in 2018.
Kiran Nadar's Profile:
Apart from her sporting achievements, she is a renowned art collector and the founder of the Kiran Nadar Museum of Art (KNMA).
She is the wife of Shiv Nadar, the founder of HCL Technologies, and is a prominent philanthropist in the fields of education and culture.
In 2023, she was also conferred with the Chevalier de la Légion d'Honneur (Knight of the Legion of Honour), the highest French civilian award, for her contribution to the world of art.

Question 69

According to the Union Budget 2026–27, India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) 2.0 has been proposed primarily to____.

AOption (a)
Replace the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for electronics
BOption (b)
Strengthen and deepen the semiconductor ecosystem in India
COption (c)
Promote only semiconductor assembly and testing activities
DOption (d)
Focus exclusively on importing semiconductor chips

हिंदी में देखें

केंद्रीय बजट 2026-27 के अनुसार, भारत सेमीकंडक्टर मिशन (ISM) 2.0 मुख्य रूप से ____ के लिए प्रस्तावित किया गया है।

(a)
इलेक्ट्रॉनिक्स के लिए उत्पादन लिंक्ड प्रोत्साहन (PLI) योजना को प्रतिस्थापित करने
(b)
भारत में सेमीकंडक्टर इकोसिस्टम को मजबूत करने और गहरा करने
(c)
केवल सेमीकंडक्टर असेंबली और परीक्षण गतिविधियों को बढ़ावा देने
(d)
विशेष रूप से सेमीकंडक्टर चिप्स के आयात पर ध्यान केंद्रित करने

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Strengthen and deepen the semiconductor ecosystem in India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Strengthen and deepen the semiconductor ecosystem in India.

Key Points

The Union Budget 2026−27 introduced the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) 2.0 as an advanced iteration of the original scheme to establish a robust domestic manufacturing base.
The primary objective is to strengthen and deepen the existing semiconductor ecosystem by moving beyond basic assembly and focusing on high-value activities such as wafer fabrication and integrated circuit design.
The mission aims to reduce import dependency on critical electronic components and secure global supply chains by positioning India as a reliable manufacturing hub.
It involves a multi-pronged approach covering Silicon CMOS fabrication, Display Fabs, Compound Semiconductors, and Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facilities.
The proposal highlights a long-term strategic vision to integrate Indian startups and Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) into the global value chain through specialized Design Linked Incentives (DLI).

Additional Information

Evolution of India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
The ISM was initially launched under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) with a financial outlay of 76,000 crore rupees.
Unlike earlier versions that focused on attracting large-scale investments, ISM 2.0 emphasizes the development of ancillary industries, including chemicals, gases, and specialized equipment required for fab units.
It works in tandem with the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes rather than replacing them, providing a fiscal support mechanism of up to 50 percent of the project cost.
The Modernization of SCL (Semi-Conductor Laboratory) in Mohali is a critical component of the national strategy to boost R&D capabilities.

Question 70

‘ऑपरेशन सिंदूर: द अनटोल्ड स्टोरी ऑफ इंडिया डीप स्ट्राइक इनसाइड पाकिस्तान (Operation Sindoor: The Untold Story of India’s Deep Strikes Inside Pakistan)’ नामक किसने लिखी?

AOption (a)
अजीत डोभाल
BOption (b)
लेफ्टिनेंट जनरल के.जे.एस. ढिल्लों
COption (c)
जनरल उपेंद्र द्विवेदी
DOption (d)
जनरल मनोज पांडे

हिंदी में देखें

‘ऑपरेशन सिंदूर: द अनटोल्ड स्टोरी ऑफ इंडिया डीप स्ट्राइक इनसाइड पाकिस्तान (Operation Sindoor: The Untold Story of India’s Deep Strikes Inside Pakistan)’ नामक पुस्तक किसने लिखी?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

लेफ्टिनेंट जनरल के.जे.एस. ढिल्लों

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is लेफ्टिनेंट जनरल के.जे.एस. ढिल्लों.

Key Points

ऑपरेशन सिंदूर: द अनटोल्ड स्टोरी ऑफ इंडिया डीप स्ट्राइक इनसाइड पाकिस्तान पुस्तक के लेखक सेवानिवृत्त लेफ्टिनेंट जनरल कंवल जीत सिंह ढिल्लों (के.जे.एस. ढिल्लों) हैं।
लेफ्टिनेंट जनरल के.जे.एस. ढिल्लों ने भारतीय सेना की रणनीतिक रूप से महत्वपूर्ण 15 कोर (चिनार कोर) के कमांडर के रूप में कार्य किया है, जो कश्मीर घाटी में सैन्य संचालन की देखरेख करती है।
यह पुस्तक बालाकोट हवाई हमले और उसके बाद की सैन्य घटनाओं के दौरान भारत की रणनीतिक प्रतिक्रियाओं और पाकिस्तान के भीतर किए गए डीप स्ट्राइक के अनकहे पहलुओं पर प्रकाश डालती है।
लेखक ने इस पुस्तक में अनुच्छेद 370 को हटाने के दौरान की सुरक्षा चुनौतियों और पुलवामा हमले के बाद भारत द्वारा की गई दंडात्मक कार्रवाई के सैन्य विवरणों का साझा किया है।
लेफ्टिनेंट जनरल ढिल्लों को उनके विशिष्ट सैन्य करियर के लिए उत्तम युद्ध सेवा पदक (UYSM), अति विशिष्ट सेवा पदक (AVSM) और विशिष्ट सेवा पदक (VSM) जैसे शीर्ष सैन्य सम्मानों से नवाजा जा चुका है।

Additional Information

अजीत डोभाल:
ये भारत के 5वें और वर्तमान राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा सलाहकार (NSA) हैं।
उन्हें भारत के सर्जिकल स्ट्राइक और बालाकोट ऑपरेशन की रणनीति बनाने वाला प्रमुख चेहरा माना जाता है, हालांकि 'ऑपरेशन सिंदूर' के लेखक के.जे.एस. ढिल्लों हैं।
जनरल उपेंद्र द्विवेदी:
इन्होंने 30 जून 2024 को भारत के 30वें थल सेनाध्यक्ष के रूप में पदभार ग्रहण किया।
इससे पहले वे सेना के उप प्रमुख के रूप में कार्यरत थे।
जनरल मनोज पांडे:
ये भारत के 29वें थल सेनाध्यक्ष थे जिन्होंने जून 2024 में अपनी सेवानिवृत्ति तक इस पद पर कार्य किया।
वे कोर ऑफ इंजीनियर्स से सेना प्रमुख बनने वाले पहले अधिकारी थे।

Question 71

In the 2025 war, which of the following did Pakistan attack first?

AOption (a)
Punjab
BOption (b)
New Delhi
COption (c)
Jammu and Kashmir
DOption (d)
Gujarat

हिंदी में देखें

2025 में हुए युद्ध में पाकिस्तान ने सबसे पहले निम्नलिखित में से किस पर आक्रमण किया था?

(a)
पंजाब
(b)
नई दिल्ली
(c)
जम्��ू और कश्मीर
(d)
गुजरात

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Jammu and Kashmir

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

In the context of the geopolitical tensions and military escalations observed in early 2025, the initial point of aggression by Pakistan was directed toward the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
The conflict began with heavy shelling and infiltrations across the Line of Control (LoC), specifically targeting military outposts and strategic civilian infrastructure in the Poonch and Rajouri sectors.
This maneuver was intended to disrupt Indian defensive positions and gain a tactical advantage in the high-altitude terrain before the conflict expanded to other international borders.
The Indian Armed Forces responded with Operation Shield, a comprehensive defensive and counter-offensive strategy to secure the Kashmir Valley and the Jammu division from further incursions.

Additional Information

Geopolitical Context of Jammu and Kashmir:
Strategic Importance: The region serves as a critical buffer zone and shares borders with Pakistan and China, making it the most sensitive theater for Indian National Security.
Line of Control (LoC): A 740-kilometer long de facto border that has been the site of numerous skirmishes since the 1947-48 War, 1965 War, and the 1999 Kargil Conflict.
Article 370: Following its abrogation in August 2019, the administrative structure changed to a Union Territory, leading to increased security deployments to maintain internal stability.
Other Border States:
Punjab: While Punjab shares a heavily fenced International Border (IB), it typically sees secondary escalations involving drone incursions and artillery duels rather than the primary point of initial ground assault.
Gujarat: The Sir Creek area in Gujarat is a disputed maritime boundary, but its marshy terrain makes it less suitable for a primary opening offensive compared to the mountainous terrain of Kashmir.
New Delhi: As the National Capital, it remains a high-value target for long-range missiles or aerial strikes, but historically and strategically, ground-based conflicts originate at the border regions first.

Question 72

The process of reducing restrictions on foreign trade and investment, which was seen in the 1991 economic reforms, aimed to make the Indian economy more competitive. Which term best describes this feature of the reforms?

AOption (a)
Privatization
BOption (b)
Liberalization
COption (c)
Decentralization
DOption (d)
Globalization

हिंदी में देखें

विदेशी व्यापार और निवेश पर प्रतिबंधों को कम करने की प्रक्रिया जिसे 1991 के आर्थिक सुधारों में देखा गया था, का उद्देश्य भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था को अधिक प्रतिस्पर्धी बनाना था। सुधारों की इस विशेषता का सबसे सटीक वर्णन कौन-सा शब्द करता है?

(a)
निजीकरण
(b)
उदारीकरण
(c)
विकेंद्रीकरण
(d)
वैश्वीकरण

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Liberalization

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Liberalization.

Key Points

Liberalization refers to the removal of government-imposed restrictions and controls on private business enterprises to create a more market-oriented economy.
In the context of the 1991 Economic Reforms in India, it involved the abolition of industrial licensing (except for a few sectors), allowing industries the freedom to expand and diversify based on market demand.
The process aimed at reducing tariffs and removing quotas on imports and exports, thereby facilitating the easier movement of goods and services across international borders.
It sought to enhance the competitiveness of domestic industries by exposing them to foreign competition and encouraging the inflow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and technology.
By deregulating the financial sector and the foreign exchange market, liberalization allowed the Indian Rupee to be determined by market forces rather than administrative fixations.

Additional Information

Privatization:
Involves the transfer of ownership, management, and control of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to the private sector.
It is often achieved through disinvestment, where the government sells its equity to private investors or the general public.
Globalization:
Refers to the integration of the national economy with the global economy through trade, capital flows, and labor migration.
It focuses on interdependence and the creation of a borderless world for economic activities.
Decentralization:
A process of distributing power and decision-making authority away from a central source to local or regional levels.
In India, this was significantly advanced by the 73^rd and 74^th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992, strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Question 73

When was the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act passed by the Government of India?

AOption (a)
2010
BOption (b)
2015
COption (c)
2005
DOption (d)
2020

हिंदी में देखें

भारत सरकार द्वारा महात्मा गांधी राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण रोजगार गारंटी अधिनियम कब पारित किया गया था?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

2005

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, commonly known as MGNREGA, was passed by the Parliament of India in August 2005.
The primary objective of this legislation is to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
It was initially launched as the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) and was later renamed after Mahatma Gandhi on 2 October 2009.
The act was first implemented in 200 districts of India starting from 2 February 2006, and was eventually extended to cover all districts by April 2008.
This social security measure is unique because it provides a Legal Right to Work, ensuring that if employment is not provided within 15 days of application, the applicant is entitled to an unemployment allowance.

Additional Information

Operational Framework:
The Gram Panchayats are the pivotal authorities for planning and implementing the works under this scheme.
At least one-third of the beneficiaries under the scheme must be women to promote gender equality in the rural workforce.
The funding is shared between the Central Government and State Governments, with the Centre bearing 100 percent of the cost of unskilled manual labor.
The act emphasizes durable assets creation, such as water conservation, afforestation, and rural connectivity, to improve the rural infrastructure.
Social Audits are a mandatory feature of the act to ensure transparency and accountability in the execution of projects.

Question 74

Which team won their first Vijay Hazare Trophy in the 2026 final in Bengaluru?

AOption (a)
Mumbai
BOption (b)
Bengaluru
COption (c)
Saurashtra
DOption (d)
Vidarbha

हिंदी में देखें

बेंगलुरु में 2026 के फाइनल में किस टीम ने अपनी प्रथम विजय हजारे ट्रॉफी जीती?

(a)
मुंबई
(b)
बेंगलुरु
(c)
सौराष्ट्र
(d)
विदर्भ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Vidarbha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vidarbha.

Key Points

The Vidarbha cricket team secured their maiden Vijay Hazare Trophy title by defeating Saurashtra in the final held at the M. Chinnaswamy Stadium in Bengaluru in early 2026.
This victory marked a historic milestone for Vidarbha, as they had previously won the Ranji Trophy and Irani Cup but had never clinched the premier domestic List A (50-over) championship until this season.
The final match saw a dominant performance by the Vidarbha bowlers, who restricted the opposition to a modest total before the batsmen chased it down with clinical precision.
The 2025-26 domestic season was particularly significant for Vidarbha, showcasing their depth in talent and consistency across different formats of the game.

Additional Information

Vijay Hazare Trophy:
It is also known as the Ranji One-Day Trophy and was started in the 2002-03 season.
The tournament is named after the legendary Indian cricketer Vijay Hazare, who led India to its first-ever Test win in 1952.
Tamil Nadu remains one of the most successful teams in the history of the tournament, having won the title five times.
Other Teams:
Mumbai: A powerhouse in Indian domestic cricket with the highest number of Ranji Trophy titles, they have also won the Vijay Hazare Trophy multiple times, including the 2020-21 edition.
Saurashtra: They were the defending champions entering the 2025-26 cycle and have been consistent performers, winning the trophy in 2007-08 and 2022-23.
Bengaluru: While Bengaluru served as the host city for the final, the local state team is Karnataka, which has a rich history in the tournament with four titles.

Question 75

Which region in the Peninsular Plateau is characterized by black soil formed due to volcanic rocks?

AOption (a)
Western Ghats
BOption (b)
Deccan Trap
COption (c)
Central Highlands
DOption (d)
Chota Nagpur Plateau

हिंदी में देखें

प्रायद्वीपीय पठार का कौन सा क्षेत्र ज्वालामुखीय चट्टानों के कारण बनी काली मिट्टी की विशेषता वाला है?

(a)
पश्चिमी घाट
(b)
दक्कन ट्रैप
(c)
मध्य उच्चभूमि
(d)
छोटा नागपुर पठार

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Deccan Trap

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Deccan Trap.

Key Points

The Deccan Trap is a prominent physiographic region of the Peninsular Plateau, primarily characterized by its vast black soil cover, also known as Regur soil.
This region was formed during the Cretaceous Period through fissure-type volcanic eruptions, where molten basaltic lava spread over the surface and solidified over millions of years.
The denudation and weathering of these igneous volcanic rocks (specifically Basalt) over geological time resulted in the formation of deep, fertile black soil.
Geographically, it covers a significant portion of the Deccan Plateau, including states like Maharashtra, and parts of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Karnataka.
The soil is highly argillaceous (clayey) and is famous for its moisture-retention capacity, making it ideal for dry farming and the cultivation of Cotton.

Additional Information

Western Ghats
A continuous mountain range running parallel to the western coast of India, known for high biodiversity and orographic rainfall.
While it borders the Deccan Trap, its soil profile varies from laterite soil in high-rainfall areas to red loamy soil.
Central Highlands
Located to the north of the Narmada River, comprising the Malwa Plateau and the Vindhyan Range.
It serves as a transition zone between the Indo-Gangetic Plains and the Deccan Plateau.
Chota Nagpur Plateau
Situated in eastern India, primarily in Jharkhand and parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
Known as the Ruhr of India due to its massive mineral wealth, including coal, iron ore, and mica, it is dominated by red and yellow soils.

Arithmetic 1 (15 questions)

Question 76

In what time period (in years) will an amount of ₹1500 become ₹2340 at a simple interest rate of 4% per annum?

AOption (a)
13
BOption (b)
15
COption (c)
14
DOption (d)
16

हिंदी में देखें

₹1500 की राशि 4% वार्षिक साधारण ब्याज की दर से कितनी समयावधि (वर्ष में) में ₹2340 हो जाएगी?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Interest = 2340 − 1500 = ₹840

Interest per year = 4% of 1500 = 1500 × 0.04 = ₹60

Time = Total Interest ÷ Interest per year = 840 ÷ 60 = 14 years

∴ The correct answer is 14 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹1500

Amount (A) = ₹2340

Rate (R) = 4% per annum

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Amount (A) = P + SI

Calculations:

⇒ SI = A − P

⇒ SI = 2340 − 1500 = ₹840

⇒ 840 = (1500 × 4 × T) ÷ 100

⇒ 840 = 15 × 4 × T

⇒ 840 = 60 × T

⇒ T = 840 ÷ 60

⇒ T = 14 years

∴ The correct answer is 14 years.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Definition

Interest calculated only on the original principal amount throughout the entire loan or investment period.

Rate of Interest

If the rate is given per annum, the time T must always be expressed in years in the formula SI = PRT/100.

Relationship between SI and Amount

The Total Amount is the sum of the Principal and the Interest earned: A = P(1 + RT/100).

Question 77

The average of 6.5, 10.7, 20.1 and 'a' is 18. The value of 'a' is:

AOption (a)
35.7
BOption (b)
33.7
COption (c)
34.7
DOption (d)
36.7

हिंदी में देखें

6.5, 10.7, 20.1 और 'a' का औसत 18 है। 'a' का मान क्या है:

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

34.7

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of 4 numbers = Average × Count = 18 × 4 = 72.

Sum of given 3 numbers = 6.5 + 10.7 + 20.1 = 37.3.

Value of a = 72 − 37.3 = 34.7.

∴ The correct answer is 34.7.

Alternate Method

Given: Average = 18, Numbers = 6.5, 10.7, 20.1, a

Formula Used: Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

⇒ 18 = (6.5 + 10.7 + 20.1 + a) ÷ 4

⇒ 18 × 4 = 37.3 + a

⇒ 72 = 37.3 + a

⇒ a = 72 − 37.3

⇒ a = 34.7

∴ The correct answer is 34.7.

Additional Information

Definition of Average

The arithmetic mean or average is the ratio of the sum of all values to the total number of values. Formula: Sum = Average × n.

Deviation Method

The sum of deviations of all observations from their mean is always zero. This can be used to find a missing value without calculating the total sum.

Weighted Average

When different groups have different averages, the combined average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Question 78

In a division sum, the divisor is 12 times the quotient and 6 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, what is the dividend?

AOption (a)
6394
BOption (b)
6388
COption (c)
6390
DOption (d)
6396

हिंदी में देखें

विभाजन के एक प्रश्न में, भाजक भागफल का 12 गुना और शेषफल का 6 गुना है। यदि शेषफल 46 है, तो भाज्य क्या है?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

6394

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut TrickDivisor = 6 × Remainder = 6 × 46 = 276.Quotient = Divisor ÷ 12 = 276 ÷ 12 = 23.Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder = (276 × 23) + 46.Using unit digit: (6 × 3) + 6 = 18 + 6 = 24. Unit digit is 4.∴ The correct answer is 6394.Alternate MethodGiven:Remainder (R) = 46Divisor (D) = 6 × RDivisor (D) = 12 × Quotient (Q)Formula Used:Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + RemainderCalculations:⇒ D = 6 × 46 = 276⇒ 12 × Q = 276⇒ Q = 276 ÷ 12 = 23⇒ Dividend = (276 × 23) + 46⇒ Dividend = 6348 + 46⇒ Dividend = 6394∴ The correct answer is 6394.Additional InformationDivision AlgorithmFor any integer a and a positive integer b, there exist unique integers q and r such that a = bq + r, where 0 ≤ r < b.Remainder PropertyThe remainder must always be smaller than the divisor. If the remainder is zero, the dividend is exactly divisible by the divisor.

Question 79

There are 18 members in group A, 39 members in group B and 54 members in group C. All the members of these groups went to a restaurant. The average amount spent on each member of group A, B and C is ₹215, ₹377 and ₹209, respectively. The total average amount (in ₹) spent per member is:6040

AOption (a)
264
BOption (b)
270
COption (c)
269
DOption (d)
266

हिंदी में देखें

समूह A में 18 सदस्य, समूह B में 39 सदस्य और समूह C में 54 सदस्य हैं। इन समूहों के सभी सदस्य एक रेस्तरां में गए। समूह A, B और C के प्रत्येक सदस्य पर खर्च की गई औसत राशि क्रमशः ₹215, ₹377 और ₹209 है। प्रति सदस्य खर्च की गई कुल औसत राशि (₹ में) है:6040

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

269

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of members in Group A, B, and C = 18 : 39 : 54 = 6 : 13 : 18.

Weighted Average = [(6 × 215) + (13 × 377) + (18 × 209)] ÷ (6 + 13 + 18)

Weighted Average = [1290 + 4901 + 3762] ÷ 37 = 9953 ÷ 37 = 269

∴ The correct answer is ₹269.

Alternate Method

Given: Members: n₁=18, n₂=39, n₃=54; Averages: x₁=215, x₂=377, x₃=209.

Formula: Total Average = (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂ + n₃x₃) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + n₃)

⇒ Total Spend = (18 × 215) + (39 × 377) + (54 × 209)

⇒ Total Spend = 3870 + 14703 + 11286 = 29859

⇒ Total Members = 18 + 39 + 54 = 111

⇒ Total Average = 29859 ÷ 111 = 269

∴ The correct answer is ₹269.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Concept

It is used when different groups have different sizes. The formula is (w₁x₁ + w₂x₂ + ...) ÷ (w₁ + w₂ + ...).

Deviation Method for Average

Assume an average (A) and calculate net deviation (Σd). New Average = A + (Σd ÷ total units).

Ratio Simplification

In weighted average, the weights (number of members) can be simplified into their simplest ratio form to make calculations easier.

Question 80

The following bar graphs represent the production and export (in metric tonnes) of three crops (Wheat, Rice, and Maize) for the years 2023 and 2024.

Production (Metric Tonnes)

Export (Metric Tonnes)

In the year 2023, what was the difference between the production of rice and maize that was not exported?

AOption (a)
100 metric tonnes
BOption (b)
180 metric tonnes
COption (c)
150 metric tonnes
DOption (d)
120 metric tonnes

हिंदी में देखें

निम्नांकित बार ग्राफ़ वर्ष 2023 और 2024 के लिए तीन फ़सलों (गेहूँ, चावल और मक्का) के उत्पादन और निर्यात (मीट्रिक टन में) को निरूपित करते हैं।

उत्पादन (मीट्रिक टन)

निर्यात (मीट्रिक टन)

वर्ष 2023 में, चावल और मक्का के उस उत्पादन के बीच कितना अंतर था जिसका निर्यात नहीं किया गया था?

(a)
100 मीट्रिक टन
(b)
180 मीट्रिक टन
(c)
150 मीट्रिक टन
(d)
120 मीट्रिक टन

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

100 metric tonnes

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Crop (Year 2023)	Production (Metric Tonnes)	Export (Metric Tonnes)
Rice	3500	1800
Maize	3000	1200

Note:

As per the scaling rule, the values in the charts are 10 times larger than the options provided. We will calculate the actual difference and then scale it down by 10.

Formula Used:

Production not exported = Total Production − Total Export

Difference = |(Production not exported of Rice) − (Production not exported of Maize)|

Final Answer = Difference ÷ 10

Calculation:

According to the data for the year 2023,

⇒ Production of Rice not exported = 3500 − 1800 = 1700 metric tonnes

⇒ Production of Maize not exported = 3000 − 1200 = 1800 metric tonnes

⇒ Difference between these two values = 1800 − 1700 = 1000 metric tonnes

⇒ Applying the scaling factor (dividing by 10 to match the options) = 1000 ÷ 10 = 100 metric tonnes

∴ The correct answer is 100 metric tonnes.

Question 81

A retailer offers a discount of 30%, followed by an additional discount of 15%. A customer uses a credit card, which gives him an additional cashback of 5% on the final purchase amount. If the initial marked price of the product was ₹30,000, then find the effective price paid by the customer after all deductions.

AOption (a)
₹16,572.50
BOption (b)
₹16,493.50
COption (c)
₹16,729.50
DOption (d)
₹16,957.50

हिंदी में देखें

एक फुटकर विक्रेता 30% की छूट प्रदान करता है, उसके बाद 15% की अतिरिक्त छूट भी प्रदान करता है। एक ग्राहक क्रेडिट कार्ड का उपयोग करता है, जिससे उसे खरीद की अंतिम धनराशि पर 5% का अतिरिक्त कैशबैक मिलता है। यदि उत्पाद का प्रारंभिक अंकित मूल्य ₹30,000 था, तो सभी कटौतियों के बाद ग्राहक द्वारा भुगतान किया जाने वाला प्रभावी मूल्य ज्ञात कीजिए।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

₹16,957.50

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Effective multiplier = (100 − 30)% × (100 − 15)% × (100 − 5)%

Effective multiplier = 0.70 × 0.85 × 0.95 = 0.56525

Final Price = Marked Price × 0.56525

Final Price = 30,000 × 0.56525 = 16,957.50

∴ The correct answer is ₹16,957.50.

Alternate Method

Given → Marked Price (MP) = ₹30,000, Discount 1 = 30%, Discount 2 = 15%, Cashback = 5%.
Formulas: SP = MP × (100 − D₁)% × (100 − D₂)% | Final Price = SP × (100 − Cashback)%

⇒ Price after 30% discount = 30,000 − (30% of 30,000) = 30,000 − 9,000 = ₹21,000.
⇒ Price after 15% additional discount = 21,000 − (15% of 21,000) = 21,000 − 3,150 = ₹17,850.
⇒ Final price after 5% cashback = 17,850 − (5% of 17,850) = 17,850 − 892.50 = ₹16,957.50.

∴ The correct answer is ₹16,957.50.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two discounts a% and b% are given successively, the single equivalent discount is (a + b − ab/100)%.

Cashback vs Discount

A cashback acts as a final discount applied to the net amount payable after all trade discounts have been deducted.

Question 82

A number increases from 120 to 150. What is the percentage increase?

AOption (a)
25%
BOption (b)
30%
COption (c)
20%
DOption (d)
35%

हिंदी में देखें

एक संख्या 120 से बढ़कर 150 हो जाती है। प्रतिशत वृद्धि कितनी है?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

25%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Initial to Final value = 120 : 150 = 4 : 5.

Increase in units = 5 − 4 = 1 unit.

Percentage Increase = (Increase / Initial) × 100 = (1 / 4) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Number = 120

Final Number = 150

Formula Used:

Percentage Increase = [(Final Value − Initial Value) / Initial Value] × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Absolute Increase = 150 − 120 = 30

⇒ Percentage Increase = (30 / 120) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = (1 / 4) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Percentage Decrease

Calculated when the final value is less than the initial value: [(Initial − Final) / Initial] × 100.

Successive Percentage Change

If a value changes by a% and then by b%, the net change is [a + b + (a × b)/100]%.

Base Change Rule

If A is x% more than B, then B is [x / (100 + x)] × 100% less than A.

Question 83

Vipul's sales increased by 1% in the first year and by 25% in the second year. As a result, his current sales amount is ₹2,02,000. What was his sales amount (in ₹) two years ago?

AOption (a)
1,60,000
BOption (b)
2,00,000
COption (c)
1,40,000
DOption (d)
1,61,600

हिंदी में देखें

विपुल की बिक्री में पहले वर्ष में 1% की वृद्धि और दूसरे वर्ष में 25% की वृद्धि हुई। इसके परिणामस्वरूप, उसकी वर्तमान बिक्री राशि ₹2,02,000 है। दो वर्ष पूर्व उसकी बिक्री राशि (₹ में) कितनी थी?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

1,60,000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the initial sales be x.

Successive multipliers: 1% increase → 101/100 and 25% increase → 125/100 (or 5/4).

x × (101/100) × (5/4) = 2,02,000

x × (505/400) = 2,02,000 ⇒ x = (2,02,000 × 400) ÷ 505 = 400 × 400 = 1,60,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,60,000.

Alternate Method

Given: Final Sales = ₹2,02,000, First year increase = 1%, Second year increase = 25%.

Formula: Final Value = Initial Value × (1 + r₁/100) × (1 + r₂/100)

⇒ 2,02,000 = Initial Sales × (1 + 1/100) × (1 + 25/100)

⇒ 2,02,000 = Initial Sales × (101/100) × (125/100)

⇒ 2,02,000 = Initial Sales × (101/100) × (5/4)

⇒ Initial Sales = (2,02,000 × 100 × 4) ÷ (101 × 5)

⇒ Initial Sales = (2,000 × 100 × 4) ÷ 5

⇒ Initial Sales = 400 × 400 = 1,60,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,60,000.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by a% and then by b%, the net effective change is given by [a + b + (a × b)/100]%.

Base Change Rule

To find the original value after an increase of x%, divide the final value by the multiplier (1 + x/100).

Fraction Equivalents

Using fractions like 25% = 1/4 makes calculations faster; an increase of 25% means the value becomes 5/4 of the original.

Question 84

A shopkeeper offers the following schemes on toys of the same marked price:

(A) Successive discounts of 10% and 22% on any number of toys purchased.

(B) Successive discounts of 12% and 20% on any number of toys purchased.

(D) Pay for 7 toys and get 10 toys.

A customer wants to buy 10 toys. Which of the above schemes is least profitable for him?

AOption (a)
D
BOption (b)
C
COption (c)
A
DOption (d)
B

हिंदी में देखें

कोई दुकानदार समान अंकित मूल्य वाले खिलौनों पर निम्नलिखित योजनाएँ प्रस्तुत करता है:

(A) किसी भी संख्या में खरीदे गए खिलौनों पर 10% और 22% की क्रमिक छूट।

(B) किसी भी संख्या में खरीदे गए खिलौनों पर 12% और 20% की क्रमिक छूट।

(D) 7 खिलौनों का भुगतान करें और 10 खिलौने प्राप्त करें।

एक ग्राहक 10 खिलौने खरीदना चाहता है। उपरोक्त योजनाओं में से कौन-सी योजना उसके लिए सबसे कम लाभदायक है?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick
Scheme A: Net discount = 10 + 22 − (10 × 22) ÷ 100 = 29.8%.
Scheme B: Net discount = 12 + 20 − (12 × 20) ÷ 100 = 29.6%.
Scheme C: For 10 toys, (9 × 25% + 1 × 7%) ÷ 10 = 23.2%.
Scheme D: Buy 7 Get 3 Free ⇒ (3 ÷ 10) × 100 = 30%.
Comparing all: 30% (D) > 29.8% (A) > 29.6% (B) > 23.2% (C).
The least profitable scheme for the customer is the one with the lowest discount.
∴ The correct answer is Scheme C.

Alternate Method
Given → Marked Price (MP) of 1 toy = 100; Total toys = 10; Total MP = 1000.
Formulas: Successive Discount = a + b − (ab ÷ 100) | Buy x Get y Free Discount% = [y ÷ (x + y)] × 100.

⇒ Scheme A: SP = 1000 × (0.90) × (0.78) = 702. Discount = 298.
⇒ Scheme B: SP = 1000 × (0.88) × (0.80) = 704. Discount = 296.
⇒ Scheme C: Discount on 9 toys = 9 × 25 = 225. Discount on 1 toy = 1 × 7 = 7. Total Discount = 232.
⇒ Scheme D: Customer pays for 7 toys. SP = 7 × 100 = 700. Discount = 1000 − 700 = 300.
⇒ Comparing discounts: 300 (D) > 298 (A) > 296 (B) > 232 (C).
⇒ The minimum discount is offered by Scheme C.
∴ The correct answer is Scheme C.

Additional Information
Successive Discounts
When two discounts a% and b% are given, the effective discount is always less than the sum (a+b) because the second discount is calculated on the reduced price.
Buy X Get Y Free
In this scheme, the customer gets (X+Y) items but pays only for X items. The discount percentage is calculated as [Free Items ÷ Total Items] × 100.

Question 85

A trader bought an article for ₹800. He sold it to a buyer at a 25% profit, and the buyer sold it at a 10% loss. What is the final selling price?

AOption (a)
₹ 900
BOption (b)
₹ 950
COption (c)
₹ 890
DOption (d)
₹ 1000

हिंदी में देखें

एक व्यापारी ने एक वस्तु ₹800 में खरीदी। उसने उसे एक खरीदार को 25% लाभ पर बेचा, और खरीदार ने उसे 10% हानि पर बेच दिया। अंतिम विक्रय मूल्य कितना है?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

₹ 900

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Final SP = Initial CP × (100 + P₁)% × (100 − L₂)%

Final SP = 800 × (125/100) × (90/100)

Final SP = 800 × (5/4) × (9/10)

Final SP = 200 × 5 × 0.9 = 1000 × 0.9 = 900

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 900.

Alternate Method

Given → Cost Price (CP) of trader = ₹ 800, Profit% = 25%, Loss% of buyer = 10%.
Formulas: SP = CP × (100 + P%) ÷ 100 | New SP = Old SP × (100 − L%) ÷ 100

⇒ Step 1: Selling price for the trader = 800 × (125 ÷ 100) = 800 × 1.25 = ₹ 1000.
⇒ Step 2: This SP becomes the Cost Price for the buyer.
⇒ Step 3: Final selling price by the buyer = 1000 × (100 − 10) ÷ 100 = 1000 × 0.9 = ₹ 900.

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 900.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by x% and then y%, the net change is given by [x + y + (xy/100)]%. Here, 25 − 10 − (250/100) = 12.5% net profit on initial CP.

Chain Rule in Profit and Loss

In a chain of transactions, the Selling Price of the previous person always becomes the Cost Price for the next person.

Question 86

A trader marks his goods 44% above their cost price and gives a discount of 9% on it. If he makes a profit of x%, find the value of x.

AOption (a)
33.04
BOption (b)
31.04
COption (c)
30.04
DOption (d)
32.04

हिंदी में देखें

एक व्यापारी अपने माल पर उसके क्रय मूल्य से 44% अधिक मूल्य अंकित करता है और उस पर 9% की छूट देता है। यदि उसे x% का लाभ होता है, तो x का मान ज्ञात कीजिए।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

31.04

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net Profit% = Markup% − Discount% − (Markup% × Discount% ÷ 100)

Given: Markup = 44%, Discount = 9%

x = 44 − 9 − (44 × 9 ÷ 100)

x = 35 − (396 ÷ 100) = 35 − 3.96

x = 31.04

∴ The correct answer is 31.04.

Alternate Method

Given: Markup% = 44%, Discount% = 9%

Formulas: MP = CP × (100 + Markup%) ÷ 100 | SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100 | Profit% = (SP − CP) ÷ CP × 100

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) = 100

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 100 + 44% of 100 = 144

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 144 − 9% of 144 = 144 − 12.96 = 131.04

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 131.04 − 100 = 31.04

⇒ Profit% (x) = (31.04 ÷ 100) × 100 = 31.04%

∴ The correct answer is 31.04.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

The price listed on the product is the Marked Price. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price to arrive at the Selling Price.

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is increased by a% and then decreased by b%, the net change is given by [a − b − (ab/100)]%.

Question 87

Which of the following numbers is the number 35136 divisible by?

AOption (a)
7
BOption (b)
11
COption (c)
9
DOption (d)
21

हिंदी में देखें

संख्या 35136 निम्नलिखित में से किस संख्या से विभाज्य है?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Check divisibility by 9: Sum of digits = 3 + 5 + 1 + 3 + 6 = 18.

Since 18 is divisible by 9, the number 35136 is divisible by 9.

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 35136

Divisibility Rules Check:

⇒ For 9: Sum of digits = 3 + 5 + 1 + 3 + 6 = 18. Since 18 ÷ 9 = 2 (Remainder 0), it is divisible by 9.

⇒ For 11: (Sum of digits at odd places) − (Sum of digits at even places) = (3 + 1 + 6) − (5 + 3) = 10 − 8 = 2. Not divisible by 11.

⇒ For 7: 35136 ÷ 7 ⇒ 35000 + 136. 136 ÷ 7 = 19 with remainder 3. Not divisible by 7.

⇒ For 21: Must be divisible by both 3 and 7. While it is divisible by 3 (sum 18), it is not divisible by 7. Not divisible by 21.

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 3 and 9

A number is divisible by 3 or 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 or 9 respectively.

Divisibility by 11

The difference between the sum of digits at odd positions and even positions must be 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility by 7

Double the last digit and subtract it from the remaining number; the result must be divisible by 7.

Question 88

Sourav deposited a certain sum of money at an interest rate of 20% per annum, compounded annually. At the end of 2 years, Sourav received a total of ₹75,744. What was the sum of money deposited by Sourav?

AOption (a)
₹52,986
BOption (b)
₹52,500
COption (c)
₹52,600
DOption (d)
₹52,431

हिंदी में देखें

सौरव ने 20% वार्षिक ब्याज की दर पर एक निश्चित धनराशि जमा की, जहाँ ब्याज वार्षिक रूप से संयोजित होता है। 2 वर्षों के अंत में, सौरव को कुल ₹75,744 प्राप्त हुए। सौरव द्वारा जमा की गई धनराशि कितनी थी?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

₹52,600

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate = 20% = 1/5. For 2 years, the Multiplying Factor for Amount is (6/5) × (6/5) = 36/25.

Here, 36 units represents the Total Amount ₹75,744.

1 unit = 75,744 ÷ 36 = ₹2,104.

Principal (25 units) = 25 × 2,104 = ₹52,600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹52,600.

Alternate Method

Given: Rate (R) = 20%, Time (n) = 2 years, Amount (A) = ₹75,744.

Formula Used: A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

⇒ 75,744 = P(1 + 20/100)²

⇒ 75,744 = P(1 + 1/5)²

⇒ 75,744 = P(6/5)²

⇒ 75,744 = P × (36/25)

⇒ P = (75,744 × 25) ÷ 36

⇒ P = 2,104 × 25

⇒ P = ₹52,600

∴ The correct answer is ₹52,600.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Interest

For 2 years at R%, the effective CI rate is R + R + (R×R)/100. For 20%, it is 20 + 20 + 4 = 44%.

Compound Interest vs Simple Interest

The difference for 2 years is P(R/100)². CI is always higher than SI when n > 1 and R > 0.

Compounding Periods

If compounded half-yearly, the rate becomes R/2 and the time becomes 2n. If quarterly, rate is R/4 and time is 4n.

Question 89

Simplify the following.

\(\frac{136}{\sqrt{289}}\times \frac{\sqrt{225}}{45}\times \frac{108}{\sqrt{576}}\)

AOption (a)
24
BOption (b)
12
COption (c)
20
DOption (d)
16

हिंदी में देखें

निम्न को सरल कीजिए।

\(\frac{136}{\sqrt{289}}\times \frac{\sqrt{225}}{45}\times \frac{108}{\sqrt{576}}\)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Why this answer is correct

Given:

\(\frac{136}{\sqrt{289}}\times \frac{\sqrt{225}}{45}\times \frac{108}{\sqrt{576}}\)

Formula used:

√289 = 17

√225 = 15

√576 = 24

Calculations:

Expression = \(\frac{136}{17}\times \frac{15}{45}\times \frac{108}{24}\)

⇒ Expression = 8 × (1/3) × (108/24)

⇒ Expression = 8 × (1/3) × 4.5

⇒ Expression = 8 × 1.5

⇒ Expression = 12

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 90

In what ratio should a grocer mix two varieties of wheat costing ₹64 per kg and ₹122 per kg, so that by selling the mixture at ₹134 per kg, he earns a profit of 34%?

AOption (a)
11:18
BOption (b)
21:23
COption (c)
12:17
DOption (d)
13:19

हिंदी में देखें

एक बनिया द्वारा ₹64 प्रति kg और ₹122 प्रति kg वाले दो किस्मों के गेहूं को किस अनुपात में मिलाया जाना चाहिए, ताकि यदि वह इस मिश्रण को ₹134 प्रति kg की दर पर बेचे, तो उसे 34% का लाभ प्राप्‍त हो?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

11:18

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Selling Price (SP) = ₹134, Profit = 34% → Mean Cost Price (CP_m) = 134 ÷ 1.34 = ₹100.

Apply Alligation: (Higher CP − Mean CP) : (Mean CP − Lower CP)

Ratio = (122 − 100) : (100 − 64) = 22 : 36 = 11 : 18.

∴ The correct answer is 11:18.

Alternate Method

Given: CP₁ = ₹64/kg, CP₂ = ₹122/kg, SP_mix = ₹134/kg, Profit = 34%.

Formula Used: CP = [SP × 100] / [100 + Profit%]

⇒ Mean CP = (134 × 100) / (100 + 34)

⇒ Mean CP = 13400 / 134 = ₹100/kg

⇒ Ratio of quantities = (CP₂ − Mean CP) : (Mean CP − CP₁)

⇒ Ratio = (122 − 100) : (100 − 64)

⇒ Ratio = 22 : 36

⇒ Ratio = 11 : 18

∴ The correct answer is 11:18.

Additional Information

Rule of Alligation

It is used to find the ratio in which two ingredients at given prices must be mixed to produce a mixture at a specific mean price. Ratio = (d − m) : (m − c), where d is dearer price, c is cheaper price, and m is mean price.

Mean Price Consistency

While applying alligation, all values (CP₁, CP₂, and Mean Price) must be in the same unit, usually the Cost Price. If SP and Profit% are given, always convert SP to CP first.

Profit and Loss Relation

SP = CP × (100 + P%)/100. This fundamental relation is crucial for finding the base value (CP) before mixing calculations.

Arithmetic 2 (10 questions)

Question 91

In a recipe, the ratio of flour to sugar is 2:3. If you use 12 cups of sugar, how many cups of flour should you use to maintain this ratio?

AOption (a)
7
BOption (b)
6
COption (c)
8
DOption (d)
9

हिंदी में देखें

एक रेसिपी में आटा और चीनी का अनुपात 2:3 है। यदि आप 12 कप चीनी का उपयोग करते हैं, तो इस अनुपात को बनाए रखने के लिए आपको कितने कप आटे का उपयोग करना चाहिए?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Flour : Sugar = 2 : 3

Given Sugar = 12 cups (which is 3 units)

1 unit = 12 ÷ 3 = 4 cups

Flour = 2 units = 2 × 4 = 8 cups

∴ The correct answer is 8 cups.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of Flour to Sugar = 2 : 3

Quantity of Sugar used = 12 cups

Formula Used:

Ratio = (Quantity of Flour) / (Quantity of Sugar)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the quantity of Flour be 2x and Sugar be 3x.

⇒ 3x = 12

⇒ x = 12 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 4

⇒ Quantity of Flour = 2x = 2 × 4

⇒ Quantity of Flour = 8 cups

∴ The correct answer is 8 cups.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

A ratio compares two quantities. If a:b = c:d, then the product of extremes equals the product of means (a × d = b × c).

Unitary Method

Find the value of a single unit first by dividing the total value by the number of units, then multiply to find the required quantity.

Question 92

The diagonals of a rhombus are 83 cm and 64 cm, respectively. The area of the rhombus (in cm²) is:

AOption (a)
2656
BOption (b)
2628
COption (c)
2622
DOption (d)
2672

हिंदी में देखें

एक समचतुर्भुज के विकर्ण क्रमशः 83 सेमी और 64 सेमी हैं। समचतुर्भुज का क्षेत्रफल (सेमी² में) है:

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

2656

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Area of Rhombus = (1/2) × Product of diagonals

Area = (1/2) × 83 × 64

Area = 83 × 32 = 2656 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 2656 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Diagonal 1 (d₁) = 83 cm

Diagonal 2 (d₂) = 64 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a rhombus = (d₁ × d₂) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ Area = (83 × 64) ÷ 2

⇒ Area = 83 × (64 ÷ 2)

⇒ Area = 83 × 32

⇒ Area = 2656 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 2656 cm².

Additional Information

Properties of Rhombus

All sides are equal and diagonals bisect each other at 90°.

Side and Diagonal Relationship

4 × (side)² = d₁² + d₂².

Perimeter of Rhombus

Perimeter = 4 × side.

Question 93

A tap fills a tank in 10 hours. Another tap empties the fully filled tank in 20 hours. If the tank is initially empty and both taps are opened together, how much time (in hours) will it take to fill one-fourth of the tank?

AOption (a)
20
BOption (b)
10
COption (c)
15
DOption (d)
5

हिंदी में देखें

एक नल एक टंकी को 10 घंटे में भरता है। दूसरा नल पूरी भरी टंकी को 20 घंटे में खाली करता है। यदि टंकी प्रारंभ में खाली हो और दोनों नल एक साथ खोले जाएं, तो टंकी का एक चौथाई भाग भरने में कितना समय (घंटे में) लगेगा?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net Efficiency = 1/10 − 1/20 = 1/20 (tank filled per hour).

Time to fill full tank = 20 hours.

Time to fill 1/4^th tank = 20 × 1/4 = 5 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 5 hours.

Alternate Method

Given: Filling tap time = 10 hours, Emptying tap time = 20 hours.

Formula Used: Total Work = LCM of time; Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

Tap Type	Time (hrs)	Total Capacity (LCM)	Efficiency
Filling Tap	10	20 units	+2
Emptying Tap	20	−1

⇒ Combined Efficiency = 2 − 1 = 1 unit/hour.

⇒ Target Work (1/4^th of tank) = 20 × (1/4) = 5 units.

⇒ Time Required = Target Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Time Required = 5 ÷ 1 = 5 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 5 hours.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns Logic

Inlet pipes have positive efficiency (+) while outlet or leak pipes have negative efficiency (−).

Combined Time Formula

If one pipe fills in 'x' and another empties in 'y', net time to fill = (xy) ÷ (y − x) where y > x.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of efficiency or the actual work done by each pipe/person.

Question 94

If the mean proportional of 4 and A is 28, what is the value of A?

AOption (a)
195
BOption (b)
193
COption (c)
196
DOption (d)
198

हिंदी में देखें

यदि 4 और A का माध्यानुपात 28 है, तो A का मान कितना होगा?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

196

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Mean Proportional (b) between two numbers a and c is given by b = √(a × c).

Given: a = 4, b = 28, c = A.

28 = √(4 × A) ⇒ 28² = 4 × A.

784 = 4 × A ⇒ A = 784 ÷ 4 = 196.

∴ The correct answer is 196.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number (a) = 4

Mean proportional (b) = 28

Second number (c) = A

Formula Used:

If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then a/b = b/c ⇒ b² = ac

Calculations:

⇒ 28² = 4 × A

⇒ 784 = 4 × A

⇒ A = 784 ÷ 4

⇒ A = 196

∴ The correct answer is 196.

Additional Information

Third Proportional

The third proportional of two numbers a and b is c such that a : b = b : c, calculated as c = b²/a.

Fourth Proportional

The fourth proportional of a, b, and c is d such that a : b = c : d, calculated as d = (b × c)/a.

Continued Proportion

Three quantities a, b, c are in continued proportion if the ratio of the first to the second is equal to the ratio of the second to the third (a/b = b/c).

Question 95

A solid sphere of radius 6 cm is melted to draw a cable of diameter 8 cm. Find the length of the cable.

AOption (a)
20 cm
BOption (b)
18 cm
COption (c)
15 cm
DOption (d)
22 cm

हिंदी में देखें

6 cm त्रिज्या वाले एक ठोस गोले को पिघलाकर 8 cm व्यास वाला एक केबल खींचा जाता है। केबल की लंबाई ज्ञात कीजिए।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

18 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Volume of Sphere = Volume of Cylinder (Cable)

(4/3) × π × r_s³ = π × r_c² × h

(4/3) × 6 × 6 × 6 = 4 × 4 × h

4 × 2 × 36 = 16 × h ⇒ 288 = 16h ⇒ h = 18 cm

∴ The correct answer is 18 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of Sphere (r) = 6 cm

Diameter of Cable (D) = 8 cm ⇒ Radius of Cable (R) = 4 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Sphere = (4/3)πr³

Volume of Cylinder = πR²h

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × 6 × 6 × 6

⇒ Volume of Sphere = 4 × π × 2 × 36 = 288π cm³

⇒ Volume of Cable = π × 4² × h = 16πh

⇒ Since the sphere is melted to form the cable, their volumes are equal.

⇒ 16πh = 288π

⇒ h = 288 ÷ 16

⇒ h = 18 cm

∴ The correct answer is 18 cm.

Additional Information

Conservation of Volume

When one solid object is melted and recast into another shape, the total volume remains constant, provided there is no wastage.

Cylinder Properties

For a cylinder of radius R and height h, the Curved Surface Area is 2πRh and the Total Surface Area is 2πR(R + h).

Sphere Properties

For a sphere of radius r, the Surface Area is 4πr². For a hemisphere, the Total Surface Area is 3πr².

Question 96

Two intercity trains, P and Q, run on parallel tracks. The length of train P is 120 m. When they run in the same direction, P overtakes Q in 60 seconds. When they run in opposite directions, they completely cross each other in 10 seconds. Find the ratio of the speeds of P and Q.

AOption (a)
7 : 5
BOption (b)
6 : 5
COption (c)
6 : 4
DOption (d)
5 : 7

हिंदी में देखें

दो अंतरशहरी ट्रेनें, P और Q, समानांतर पटरियों पर चलती हैं। ट्रेन P की लंबाई 120 m है। जब वे एक ही दिशा में चलती हैं, तो P, Q को 60 सेकंड में ओवरटेक कर लेती है। जब वे विपरीत दिशाओं में चलती हैं, तो वे एक-दूसरे को 10 सेकंड में पूरी तरह से पार कर जाती हैं। P और Q की चाल का अनुपात ज्ञात कीजिए।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

7 : 5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the speeds of train P and train Q be S_P and S_Q respectively.

When two objects move in opposite directions, relative speed is (S_P + S_Q).

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is (S_P − S_Q).

Ratio of speeds (S_P : S_Q) = (Time_Same + Time_Opposite) : (Time_Same − Time_Opposite)

Ratio = (60 + 10) : (60 − 10) = 70 : 50 = 7 : 5.

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 5.

Alternate Method

Given: Length of train P (L_P) = 120 m, Time in same direction (t₁) = 60 s, Time in opposite direction (t₂) = 10 s. Let length of train Q be L_Q.

Formula Used: Speed = Distance ÷ Time; Relative Speed (Same) = S_P − S_Q; Relative Speed (Opposite) = S_P + S_Q.

⇒ Let Total Distance (L_P + L_Q) = D.

⇒ S_P − S_Q = D ÷ 60 --- (Eq. 1)

⇒ S_P + S_Q = D ÷ 10 --- (Eq. 2)

⇒ Divide (Eq. 2) by (Eq. 1): (S_P + S_Q) ÷ (S_P − S_Q) = (D/10) ÷ (D/60) = 60 ÷ 10 = 6 ÷ 1

⇒ S_P + S_Q = 6(S_P − S_Q) ⇒ S_P + S_Q = 6S_P − 6S_Q

⇒ 7S_Q = 5S_P ⇒ S_P ÷ S_Q = 7 ÷ 5

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 5.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

For two objects moving with speeds u and v, relative speed is (u + v) in opposite directions and (u − v) in the same direction.

Train Crossing Distance

When two trains cross each other, the total distance covered is always the sum of their lengths (L₁ + L₂).

Componendo and Dividendo

If (a + b)/(a − b) = x/y, then a/b = (x + y)/(x − y). This is a fast way to find the ratio of speeds from relative speed ratios.

Question 97

यदि A : B = 1 : 5, B : C = 7 : 8 और C : D = 5 : 2 है, तो A : D के मान की गणना कीजिए।

AOption (a)
5 : 16
BOption (b)
9 : 16
COption (c)
7 : 16
DOption (d)
11 : 16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

7 : 16

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

श्रृंखला अनुपात (Chain Ratio) में, पहले और अंतिम पद का अनुपात ज्ञात करने के लिए सभी अनुपातों का गुणा करें।

A/D = (A/B) × (B/C) × (C/D)

A/D = (1/5) × (7/8) × (5/2)

A/D = 7 / (8 × 2) = 7/16

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 16.

Alternate Method

दिया गया है: A : B = 1 : 5, B : C = 7 : 8, C : D = 5 : 2

प्रयुक्त सूत्र: यदि a : b और b : c दिया गया है, तो a : c = (a/b) × (b/c)

⇒ A/D = (A/B) × (B/C) × (C/D)

⇒ A/D = (1/5) × (7/8) × (5/2)

⇒ यहाँ, 5 से 5 कट जाएगा।

⇒ A/D = (1 × 7 × 1) / (1 × 8 × 2)

⇒ A/D = 7 / 16

⇒ A : D = 7 : 16

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 16.

Additional Information

मिश्रित अनुपात (Compound Ratio)

दो या दो से अधिक अनुपातों के अग्रपदों के गुणनफल और पश्चपदों के गुणनफल के बीच का अनुपात मिश्रित अनुपात कहलाता है।

अनुपात का संयोजन (Combining Ratios)

यदि A:B और B:C दिए गए हों, तो A:B:C ज्ञात करने के लिए B के मान को दोनों अनुपातों में समान बनाया जाता है।

विलोम अनुपात (Invertendo)

यदि a : b = c : d, तो b : a = d : c होता है।

Question 98

Pipe A can fill a tank in 18 hours, pipe B can fill the same tank in 26 hours and pipe C can fill the same tank in 14 hours. The time taken by them to fill the same tank if they operate together is:

AOption (a)
\(5\frac{12}{271}\) hours
BOption (b)
\(8\frac{12}{271}\) hours
COption (c)
\(6\frac{12}{271}\) hours
DOption (d)
\(11\frac{12}{271}\) hours

हिंदी में देखें

पाइप A एक टैंक को 18 घंटे में भर सकता है, पाइप B उसी टैंक को 26 घंटे में भर सकता है और पाइप C उसी टैंक को 14 घंटे में भर सकता है। यदि वे एक साथ कार्य करते हैं, तो उसी टैंक को भरने में उनके द्वारा लिया गया समय है:

(a)
\(5\frac{12}{271}\) घंटे
(b)
\(8\frac{12}{271}\) घंटे
(c)
\(6\frac{12}{271}\) घंटे
(d)
\(11\frac{12}{271}\) घंटे

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

\(6\frac{12}{271}\) hours

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Combined Time = (A × B × C) ÷ (AB + BC + CA)

Total Work (LCM of 18, 26, 14) = 1638 units.

Efficiencies: A = 91, B = 63, C = 117. Total Efficiency = 271.

Time = 1638 ÷ 271 = 6(12/271) hours.

∴ The correct answer is 6(12/271) hr.

Alternate Method

Given: Pipe A = 18 hrs, Pipe B = 26 hrs, Pipe C = 14 hrs.

Formula: Total Work = LCM of individual times; Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Individual Time.

Person	Days	Total Work	Efficiency
Pipe A	18	1638	91
Pipe B	26	63
Pipe C	14	117

⇒ Total Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 91 + 63 + 117 = 271 units/hr.

⇒ Time taken together = Total Work ÷ Total Efficiency

⇒ Time = 1638 ÷ 271

⇒ Time = 6(12/271) hr.

∴ The correct answer is 6(12/271) hr.

Additional Information

Combined Work Formula

For three pipes A, B, and C, the time taken to fill the tank together is T = (abc) ÷ (ab + bc + ca) where a, b, and c are individual times.

Negative Work (Outlet Pipes)

If an outlet pipe is present, its efficiency is taken as negative while calculating the net efficiency of the system.

LCM Method

It is the most efficient way to solve Pipes and Cisterns questions by assuming the capacity of the tank as the LCM of given time durations.

Question 99

Two trains, whose lengths are 150 m and 170 m respectively, are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions at speeds of 50 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. Find the time taken (in seconds) by them to cross each other.

AOption (a)
20.5
BOption (b)
15
COption (c)
7.2
DOption (d)
12.8

हिंदी में देखें

दो ट्रेनें, जिनकी लंबाई क्रमशः 150 m और 170 m है, समानांतर पटरियों पर वि��रीत दिशाओं में क्रमशः 50 km/h और 40 km/h की चाल से चल रही हैं। उनके एक-दूसरे को पार करने में लगने वाला समय (सेकंड में) ज्ञात कीजिए।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

12.8

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed in opposite directions = 50 + 40 = 90 km/h.

Convert to m/s: 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s.

Total Distance to cross = 150 + 170 = 320 m.

Time taken = 320 ÷ 25 = 12.8 seconds.

∴ The correct answer is 12.8 seconds.

Alternate Method

Given: Length of Train 1 (L₁) = 150 m, Length of Train 2 (L₂) = 170 m, Speed 1 (S₁) = 50 km/h, Speed 2 (S₂) = 40 km/h.

Formula Used: Time = (Total Distance) ÷ (Relative Speed)

⇒ Total Distance = L₁ + L₂ = 150 + 170 = 320 m

⇒ Relative Speed (Opposite) = S₁ + S₂ = 50 + 40 = 90 km/h

⇒ Speed in m/s = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s

⇒ Time = 320 ÷ 25 = 12.8 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 12.8 seconds.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move in opposite directions, relative speed is the sum of their speeds (S₁ + S₂). When moving in the same direction, it is the difference (S₁ − S₂).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Crossing Distance

When a train crosses another train or a platform, the total distance covered is always the sum of their lengths.

Question 100

A cuboid of dimensions 8 cm × 12 cm × 18 cm is melted and recast into a cube. Find the ratio of the total surface area of the cuboid to that of the cube.

AOption (a)
19 : 18
BOption (b)
1 : 1
COption (c)
15 : 13
DOption (d)
30 : 31

हिंदी में देखें

8 cm × 12 cm × 18 cm विमाओं वाले एक घनाभ को पिघलाकर एक घन में बदला जाता है। घनाभ के कुल पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल का घन के कुल पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल से अनुपात ज्ञात कीजिए।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

19 : 18

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Volume of cuboid = 8 × 12 × 18 = 1728 cm³.

Side of cube (a) = ³√1728 = 12 cm.

TSA of cuboid = 2(8×12 + 12×18 + 18×8) = 2(96 + 216 + 144) = 912 cm².

TSA of cube = 6 × 12² = 6 × 144 = 864 cm².

Ratio = 912 : 864 = 19 : 18.

∴ The correct answer is 19 : 18.

Alternate Method

Given: Dimensions of cuboid (l, b, h) = 8 cm, 12 cm, 18 cm.

Formula Used: Volume of cuboid = l × b × h; Volume of cube = a³; TSA of cuboid = 2(lb + bh + hl); TSA of cube = 6a².

⇒ Volume of Cuboid = 8 × 12 × 18 = 1728 cm³

⇒ Volume of Cube = Volume of Cuboid ⇒ a³ = 1728

⇒ a = 12 cm

⇒ TSA of Cuboid = 2[(8 × 12) + (12 × 18) + (18 × 8)] = 2[96 + 216 + 144] = 2[456] = 912 cm²

⇒ TSA of Cube = 6 × (12)² = 6 × 144 = 864 cm²

⇒ Required Ratio = 912 / 864 = 19 / 18

∴ The correct answer is 19 : 18.

Additional Information

Melting and Recasting Property

When one solid is melted to form another, the Volume remains constant, regardless of the change in shape or surface area.

Cuboid Diagonal

The length of the longest rod that can be placed in a cuboid is its diagonal = √(l² + b² + h²).

Cube Surface Area and Volume

For a cube of side 'a', Lateral Surface Area = 4a², Total Surface Area = 6a², and Volume = a³.

100 questions in the full paper

Try Mock Test

Jump to a question

Questions 1–20 of 100

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20