Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial), 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 09 Jan, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Mohiniyattam.

Key Points

• Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Kerala and is traditionally performed exclusively by women.
• The term is derived from Mohini, a mythical enchantress avatar of Lord Vishnu, and Attam, which means dance in Malayalam.
• The dance is characterized by the Lasya style, emphasizing grace, elegance, and a feminine approach, rather than the vigorous movements seen in Kathakali.
• It features distinctive circular and oscillatory movements of the body, along with a rhythmic, graceful swaying of the torso known as Atavus.
• The performers typically wear a white or off-white (Kasavu) saree with a prominent gold-lacquered border, reflecting the traditional aesthetic of Kerala.
• The footwork is intentionally soft and gliding, synchronized with Sopana music, which is the traditional music of Kerala temples.

 Additional Information

• Odissi
• Originates from Odisha and is known for the Tribhanga posture, where the body bends at the neck, torso, and knees.
• Manipuri
• Hails from Manipur and often depicts the Ras Lila; dancers wear a unique stiff, barrel-shaped skirt called a Kumil.
• Kathak
• Originating from Northern India, it is famous for its intricate footwork (Tatkar), rapid spins known as Chakkars, and storytelling through Gharanas like Lucknow and Jaipur.

The correct answer is The Court held by a 3:2 majority that Talaq-e-Biddat is not an essential religious practice under Article 25, and its arbitrary nature violates Article 14, thereby rendering it unconstitutional..

Key Points

• The case of Shayara Bano v. Union of India was decided on August 22, 2017, by a 5-judge Constitution Bench. The court scrutinized the practice of Talaq-e-Biddat, where a husband could instantly divorce his wife by pronouncing 'talaq' three times.
• The majority verdict was delivered with a 3:2 ratio. Justices Rohinton Nariman and U.U. Lalit held the practice to be manifestly arbitrary, violating the right to equality under Article 14. Justice Kurian Joseph concurred, stating the practice is not an Essential Religious Practice in Islam as it goes against the tenets of the Holy Quran. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The verdict was not unanimous. The minority (then CJI J.S. Khehar and Justice S. Abdul Nazeer) opined that personal laws are protected under Article 25 and suggested that the Legislature should reform the law rather than the Judiciary striking it down. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The majority opinion effectively moved past the Narasu Appa Mali precedent, subjecting personal law practices to Part III of the Constitution. It rejected the idea that such practices are beyond judicial scrutiny under Article 13. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The court did not uphold the practice or merely ask for safeguards; it legally set aside and invalidated Talaq-e-Biddat, making it void in the eyes of the law. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Manifest Arbitrariness:
• This doctrine was used to expand the scope of Article 14, allowing the court to strike down laws that are capricious, irrational, or lack a determining principle.
• Legislative Impact:
• Following the judgment, the Parliament enacted the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019.
• The Act declared instant triple talaq a criminal offense, punishable by up to three years of imprisonment.
• Article 25:
• Protects the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion, but is subject to public order, morality, and health, as well as other provisions of Part III.

The correct answer is Deploying Legal Services Authority networks (at state, district, and taluka levels) to conduct awareness camps and extend legal aid, bridging gaps in knowledge and enabling effective access to social welfare entitlements..

Key Points

• The SARTHIE 1.0 initiative, representing Social Advancement and Rights through Humanitarian Interventions and Empowerment, is a joint venture between the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE) and the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
• The project aims to facilitate the delivery of social welfare benefits to marginalized communities, including Scheduled Castes, Transgender persons, Senior Citizens, and those affected by substance abuse.
• It leverages the hierarchical structure of NALSA, utilizing State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs), District Legal Services Authorities (DLSAs), and Taluka Legal Services Committees (TLSCs) to reach the last mile.
• The deployment of these networks allows for the organization of legal awareness camps, which educate vulnerable citizens about their constitutional rights and the specific criteria for government welfare schemes.
• This mechanism effectively bridges the information asymmetry that often prevents marginalized groups from accessing legal aid and administrative entitlements, ensuring pro-bono legal representation where necessary.

 Additional Information

• NALSA (National Legal Services Authority):
• Constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society.
• The Chief Justice of India serves as the Patron-in-Chief, ensuring high-level judicial commitment to Access to Justice.
• Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE):
• The nodal ministry responsible for the welfare of Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Persons with Disabilities, and Denotified Tribes.
• It oversees critical social frameworks like the SMILE (Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise) scheme and the PM-AJAY program.

The correct answer is It seeks to develop a common and comprehensive assessment framework that respects diverse learning outcomes while promoting holistic student development..

Key Points

• PARAKH was established as a constituent unit of the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) following the recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to set norms, standards, and guidelines for student assessment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The framework aims to bring equivalence across various state and central boards but does not mandate a single, identical test for all students, recognizing the diversity of regional education systems. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It emphasizes a shift from rote learning to competency-based assessment, incorporating the evaluation of cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains through 21st-century skills. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• PARAKH is intended to oversee and provide technical guidance for the National Achievement Survey (NAS) and State Achievement Surveys (SAS) rather than replacing them entirely. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Definition and Scope:
• The acronym stands for Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development.
• It serves as the Standard-Setting Body for the country, focusing on three major areas: setting norms, guiding achievement surveys, and improving board examinations.
• It facilitates the implementation of the 360-degree Holistic Progress Card, which tracks a child's progress through self, peer, and teacher assessments.
• The framework aligns Indian education with international benchmarks, such as the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA), to enhance global competitiveness.
• It addresses the problem of disparities in marking between different state boards, ensuring a more level playing field for students during higher education admissions.

The correct answer is The SCC represents the estimated economic damage from emitting one additional tonne of CO₂, and it is used in cost-benefit analyses of climate policies, incorporating intergenerational equity and discount rate assumptions.

Key Points

• The Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) is a comprehensive economic metric that estimates the monetary value of damages caused by the emission of one additional metric tonne of carbon dioxide (CO₂) into the atmosphere.
• It is a crucial tool for regulatory impact analysis, enabling governments to conduct cost-benefit analyses for policies aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
• The calculation of the SCC is performed using Integrated Assessment Models (IAMs), such as DICE, PAGE, and FUND, which link climate science with economic projections to estimate the net damages over time.
• Damages accounted for in the SCC include decreased agricultural yields, adverse effects on human health (such as heat-related illnesses), property damage from increased flooding or sea-level rise, and energy system disruptions.
• A defining feature of the SCC is the discount rate; a lower rate emphasizes intergenerational equity by placing higher value on preventing future climate impacts, resulting in a higher SCC.

 Additional Information

• Market Pricing vs. SCC:
• The SCC is different from the price of carbon credits in Emissions Trading Systems (ETS). Market prices are driven by demand-supply mechanisms and policy caps, whereas SCC reflects external social costs.
• The World Trade Organization (WTO) does not determine carbon prices; rather, they are set by regional jurisdictions like the European Union or individual national governments.
• Policy Frameworks:
• The Paris Agreement focuses on Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) and does not mandate a uniform global carbon tax to fund the Green Climate Fund.
• REDD+ Mechanisms (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation) specifically target forest conservation and carbon storage in developing countries, which is a narrower application than the global economic scope of the SCC.

The correct answer is Despite GST's objective of a unified tax, challenges like complex multiple tax rates, frequent rate revisions, and issues in input tax credit (ITC) reconciliation create compliance burdens and slow down the ease of doing business.

Key Points

• The Indian Goods and Services Tax (GST), introduced on 1st July 2017, operates under a multi-tier tax structure with four primary slabs: 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%. This complexity necessitates rigorous HSN (Harmonized System of Nomenclature) classification, which often leads to tax disputes and classification conflicts.
• A major structural bottleneck is the Input Tax Credit (ITC) mechanism, which requires invoice matching between the buyer and the seller. Delays or errors in filing GSTR-1 by suppliers can lead to credit blockage for recipients, severely impacting the working capital of small and medium enterprises (SMEs).
• The GST Council, the apex decision-making body, frequently updates tax rates and procedural rules to address revenue concerns or industry demands. While intended to be responsive, these frequent rate revisions increase compliance costs as businesses must constantly update their ERP systems and accounting software.
• The objective of a seamless national market is partially hindered by the exclusion of key sectors such as petroleum products, electricity, and alcohol for human consumption, which prevents businesses in these sectors from claiming credit on inputs, thereby maintaining the cascading effect of taxes.

 Additional Information

• Nature of GST:
• It is an indirect tax, meaning it is collected by an intermediary from the person who bears the ultimate economic burden of the tax.
• Unlike Direct Taxes (such as Income Tax or Corporate Tax), which are levied on income or wealth, GST is a destination-based consumption tax levied at every stage of the supply chain.
• GST Council and Constitutional Framework:
• Established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, the Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes representatives from all States and Union Territories.
• It embodies the principle of cooperative federalism, where the Center and States jointly decide on GST rates, exemptions, and administrative thresholds.
• Dual GST Model:
• India follows a Dual GST model comprising Central GST (CGST) and State GST (SGST) for intra-state trade, while Integrated GST (IGST) is levied on inter-state supplies and imports.

The correct answer is Balance of Payments crisis and fiscal deficits.

Key Points

• The New Economic Policy (NEP) was launched in July 1991 primarily as a response to a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis where foreign exchange reserves fell to a level barely sufficient to pay for two weeks of imports.
• During 1990-91, the fiscal deficit reached approximately 8.4% of the GDP, indicating that the government was spending far beyond its revenue, leading to an unsustainable debt trap.
• External factors like the Gulf War (1990-91) triggered a sharp increase in crude oil prices and led to a significant drop in remittances from Indian workers in the Middle East, further depleting foreign reserves.
• Domestic inflation soared to nearly 17%, causing a rise in the prices of essential commodities and putting immense pressure on the economy.
• To prevent a total economic collapse and avoid defaulting on international debt, the Government of India approached the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank for a loan of $7 billion.

 Additional Information

• The 1991 reforms were spearheaded by the then Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, introducing the LPG Model:
• Liberalization: Aimed at ending the License Raj by removing government restrictions and permits on private sector industries.
• Privatization: Focused on reducing the role of the public sector through disinvestment and opening sectors for private participation.
• Globalization: Involved the integration of the domestic economy with the world economy by reducing import duties and encouraging Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
• Economic conditions such as high agricultural output or low literacy were not the immediate triggers for the policy shift, although the NEP eventually aimed to address long-term structural productivity and human capital development.

The correct answer is Arunima Sinha.

Key Points

• Arunima Sinha is a former national-level volleyball player and a distinguished Indian mountaineer who became the world's first female amputee to climb Mount Everest.
• In April 2011, she suffered a life-altering accident when she was pushed out of a moving train by robbers, which led to the amputation of her left leg below the knee at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS).
• Her mountaineering journey began under the mentorship of Bachendri Pal at the Tata Steel Adventure Foundation in Jamshedpur.
• On May 21, 2013, she reached the summit of Mount Everest, the highest peak in the world, standing at 8,848.86 meters, using a prosthetic leg.
• She was honored with the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in 2015 and received the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award for her exceptional bravery and achievements.
• She has successfully conquered the Seven Summits, including Mount Kilimanjaro in Africa, Mount Elbrus in Europe, Mount Kosciuszko in Australia, Mount Aconcagua in South America, Mount Carstensz Pyramid in Indonesia, and Mount Vinson in Antarctica.

 Additional Information

• Bachendri Pal:
• In 1984, she created history by becoming the first Indian woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest.
• She led several expeditions, including the Pre-Everest Selection Camp for women and various river rafting missions.
• Santosh Yadav:
• She is the first woman in the world to scale Mount Everest twice, achieving this feat in 1992 and 1993.
• She was also the first woman to successfully climb the peak from the difficult Kangshung Face.
• Premlata Agarwal:
• In 2011, at the age of 48, she became the oldest Indian woman to scale Mount Everest.
• She is the first Indian woman to scale all the Seven Summits of the world, completing the feat in 2013.

The correct answer is It bypasses Pakistan to reach Afghanistan and Central Asia.

Key Points

• Chabahar Port, situated in the Sistan and Baluchestan province on Iran's southern coast, provides India with a direct sea-land access route to Afghanistan and the Central Asian Republics (CARs).
• The most significant strategic benefit is that it allows India to circumvent Pakistan, which has consistently denied India overland transit access across its territory for trade purposes.
• The port serves as a gateway to the Zaranj-Delaram Highway in Afghanistan, enabling the transport of goods to major Afghan cities like Kabul, Herat, and Kandahar via the Garland Highway.
• Geopolitically, Chabahar is seen as India's response to the China-developed Gwadar Port in Pakistan, which is part of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) and provides China with a foothold in the Arabian Sea.
• It strengthens India's role as a regional power by facilitating maritime security and ensuring a reliable supply chain that is not dependent on hostile neighbors.

 Additional Information

• International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC):
• Chabahar is a vital link in the INSTC, a 7,200-km multi-mode network involving India, Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia, aimed at reducing transit time by nearly 40 percent compared to the Suez Canal route.
• Shahid Beheshti Terminal:
• India's involvement specifically focuses on the development of the Shahid Beheshti Terminal under a 10-year bilateral agreement signed between India Port Global Limited (IPGL) and the Port and Maritime Organization of Iran.
• Strategic Proximity:
• While proximity to Mumbai is a logistical factor, the 'strategic' value lies in the connectivity and diplomatic leverage gained by engaging with Iran and Afghanistan.

The correct answer is Kerala - Complete ban on disposable plastic during games.

Key Points

• The 35th National Games were hosted by the state of Kerala from January 31 to February 14, 2015, spanning across seven different districts.
• A pioneering Green Protocol was established to ensure the event was a zero-waste initiative, making it the first of its kind in the history of Indian sports.
• The primary objective was a complete ban on disposable plastic, including the prohibition of plastic water bottles, disposable cutlery, and non-biodegradable packaging within the stadium premises and athlete villages.
• The execution of this protocol was managed by the Suchitwa Mission, which is the nodal agency for sanitation under the Government of Kerala.
• Volunteers and officials ensured that only reusable materials, such as stainless steel vessels and ceramic plates, were used to serve food and water to over 10,000 athletes and thousands of spectators.

 Additional Information

• 35th National Games Framework:
• Mascot: The official mascot was Ammu, a representation of the Great Hornbill, which is the state bird of Kerala.
• Competition: The event featured 33 sports disciplines, with the Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) finishing at the top of the medal tally.
• Environmental Impact: It is estimated that the Green Protocol prevented the generation of approximately 120 metric tonnes of plastic waste during the event.
• Long-term Legacy:
• The success of this model led to the Green Protocol becoming a standard practice for other major gatherings in Kerala, such as the Attukal Pongala festival and the School Kalolsavam.
• This initiative aligns with the broader goals of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, focusing on waste segregation and source reduction of pollutants.

The correct answer is Area from where goals can be legally scored.

Key Points

• In field hockey, the Shooting Circle, commonly referred to as the 'D' due to its semi-circular shape, is the most critical area for offensive play.
• The rules of the International Hockey Federation (FIH) stipulate that a goal can only be scored if the ball is touched by an attacker's stick while the ball is inside the Shooting Circle.
• If the ball is hit from outside the 'D' and enters the goal without being touched by an attacker inside the circle, it is awarded as a 15-meter hit to the defending team or a long corner depending on touches.
• The radius of the circle is 14.63 meters (16 yards) measured from the inner front corner of the goal posts to the outer edge of the circle line.
• Fouls committed by defenders within this zone lead to severe penalties, such as a penalty corner or a penalty stroke, depending on the severity and intentionality of the infraction.

 Additional Information

• Goalkeeper's Privileges:
• The goalkeeper is permitted to use their kickers, leg guards, and hand protectors to deflect the ball only while they are inside the 'D'.
• Once a goalkeeper moves outside the Shooting Circle, they lose their special privileges and must play the ball according to the same rules as field players.
• Field Dimensions and Lines:
• The straight line connecting the two arcs of the 'D' is 3.66 meters long and runs parallel to the goal line.
• A dotted line is marked 5 meters outside the shooting circle; during a free hit awarded within 5 meters of the circle, all players must be at least 5 meters away from the ball.
• The penalty spot is located 6.4 meters (7 yards) from the center of the goal line, situated within the 'D'.

The correct answer is Both 1 & 2.

Key Points

• Statement 1 addresses the Risk-Return Trade-off principle in finance. In the hierarchy of asset classes, Equity Stocks are considered high-risk because their value can fluctuate significantly due to Market Volatility, yet they historically offer higher Compounded Annual Growth Rates (CAGR) compared to low-risk assets like Government Bonds or Savings Accounts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 describes the Price Discovery Mechanism. On a Stock Exchange, the price of a share is not fixed but fluctuates based on the Equilibrium between the number of investors looking to buy (demand) and the number of investors looking to sell (supply). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Equities and Market Dynamics:
• Capital Appreciation: This refers to the increase in the share price over time, which is the primary source of high returns in Stock Markets.
• Systematic Risk: Also known as Market Risk, it refers to factors like Inflation, Interest Rate changes by the RBI, or geopolitical tensions that affect the entire market.
• Unsystematic Risk: This is specific to a company or industry, such as poor Corporate Governance or a strike within a specific firm.
• Market Sentiment: Factors such as Consumer Confidence, Quarterly Earnings, and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) inflows significantly influence the supply-demand balance.
• Liquidity: This represents how easily a stock can be bought or sold without affecting its price; high liquidity typically leads to more stable Price Discovery.

The correct answer is Increased patent filings and start-up ecosystem expansion.

Key Points

• India secured the 39th position among 133 economies in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2024, moving up from the 40th rank in 2023.
• The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) highlighted that India continues to lead the Lower-Middle-Income group and the Central and Southern Asia region in innovation performance.
• The most significant contribution to this upward trend stems from India's growth in Intangible Assets, particularly through a surge in resident patent filings and trademark applications.
• The expansion of the start-up ecosystem, supported by robust venture capital inflows and government programs like Startup India, has enhanced the country's Innovation Output.
• India ranks 4th globally in ICT services exports and maintains high scores in Science and Engineering graduates, which fuels the domestic innovation engine.

 Additional Information

• Global Innovation Index (GII):
• It is an annual ranking published by WIPO that serves as a global tool for policymakers to measure Innovation Input (institutions, human capital, infrastructure) and Innovation Output (knowledge, technology, creative outputs).
• India has climbed significantly from its 81st rank in 2015 to its current position within the top 40 nations globally.
• WIPO:
• A specialized agency of the United Nations headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, established in 1967 to promote the protection of Intellectual Property worldwide.
• Key Metrics:
• India ranks highly in indicators such as Domestic Market Scale and Global Brand Value, reflecting a maturing economic landscape driven by R&D investments and technological adoption.

The correct answer is Asarh - Bihar, Jharkhand, and Assam.

Key Points

• Erok Sim is the first agricultural festival in the Santhal calendar, specifically observed to mark the commencement of the sowing season.
• The festival takes place during the traditional month of Asarh, which typically falls between June and July, aligning with the arrival of the southwest monsoon in the Indian subcontinent.
• The name is derived from the Santali words Erok, meaning to sow, and Sim, meaning a fowl. It involves the ritualistic sacrifice of fowls to appease the Bonga (spirits) and deities for a successful harvest.
• The primary geographical regions for this celebration are Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, and West Bengal, along with significant Santhal settlements in Assam.
• The rituals are led by the Naeke (village priest) at the Jaher Than (sacred grove), where prayers are offered to Marang Buru and Jaher Era to protect the seeds from pests and drought.

 Additional Information

• The Santhal Tribe:
• They are one of the largest Munda-speaking ethnic groups in India, primarily concentrated in the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
• Their social structure is governed by the Manjhi-Pargana system, where the Manjhi serves as the village headman.
• Significance of Other Months:
• Bhadrapada: Often associated with the Karam festival, which is celebrated by various tribes across Central India and Chhattisgarh for fertility and prosperity.
• Pausha: Usually marks the Sohrai festival, the most important harvest festival for the Santhals, occurring after the winter paddy harvest.
• Jyeshtha: This month precedes the peak sowing period; while rituals like Rohini occur during this time in Jharkhand, they are distinct from the communal Erok Sim.

The correct answer is Up to 20 layers of paintings over time.

Key Points

• The Bhimbetka Rock Shelters, situated in the Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh, are renowned for the phenomenon of superimposition, where multiple layers of artwork exist on a single rock surface.
• Archaeologists have identified as many as 20 layers of paintings at certain sites, demonstrating a long-standing tradition where artists painted over existing works across different eras.
• This stratification highlights the continuity of painting practices and human occupation, spanning from the Upper Palaeolithic and Mesolithic periods through the Chalcolithic, Early Historic, and Medieval periods.
• The practice of painting over older images suggests that these specific shelters held lasting cultural or ritual significance, as later generations preferred these established sites over unoccupied rock faces.
• The layers allow researchers to trace the evolution of human psychology, social structures, and artistic techniques over a span of approximately 30,000 years.

 Additional Information

• Bhimbetka Discovery and Recognition:
• These caves were discovered in 1957 by the famous archaeologist Dr. V.S. Wakankar and were later declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2003.
• Pigments and Composition:
• The prehistoric artists used natural minerals such as haematite (iron oxide) for red, chalcedony for green, and limestone for white.
• These pigments were often mixed with water, animal fat, or plant resins, which helped the colors bond with the sandstone surfaces through a natural chemical reaction.
• Thematic Evolution:
• The earliest depictions focused on wild animals like gaurs, boars, and elephants, while later periods introduced domesticated animals, horse riders, and battle scenes.

The correct answer is It protected them from foreign competition but led to inefficiency..

Key Points

• India followed an Inward-Looking Trade Strategy, commonly known as Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI), from the beginning of the First Five-Year Plan until the 1991 Economic Reforms. The primary objective was to protect infant industries from established global giants.
• The policy utilized high import tariffs (often exceeding 100 percent) and quantitative restrictions or quotas to strictly limit the volume of imported goods, ensuring that the domestic market was reserved for Indian producers.
• While these measures allowed for a diversified industrial base, including the growth of heavy industries and consumer electronics, the total absence of foreign competition removed any incentive for domestic firms to upgrade their technology or improve product quality.
• This protectionist environment fostered a Seller's Market where consumers had limited choices and were forced to buy high-cost, low-quality goods, leading to systemic economic inefficiency and resource misallocation.
• Historically, this period was marked by the License-Permit Raj, where excessive government regulation and lack of market signals hindered the global competitiveness of Indian manufacturing.

 Additional Information

• The failure of the pre-1991 strategy eventually necessitated the New Economic Policy (NEP):
• Liberalization: The removal of the licensing system and reduction of import duties to expose domestic firms to international standards.
• Globalization: Integrating the Indian economy with the global market, which forced local industries to innovate and adopt modern management practices.
• Balance of Payments Crisis (1991): The inefficiency of the previous trade regime led to a severe crisis where India had barely enough foreign exchange reserves to pay for two weeks of imports, prompting IMF intervention.
• Export Competitiveness: Unlike the pre-1991 era, modern trade policy focuses on Export-Led Growth, emphasizing Special Economic Zones (SEZs) and the Make in India initiative.

The correct answer is Lord Cornwallis.

Key Points

• The Permanent Settlement, also known as the Zamindari System, was implemented by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 through the Permanent Settlement Act.
• It was first introduced in the provinces of Bengal and Bihar, and was later extended to Odisha and the Northern Circars.
• Under this system, Zamindars (landlords) were recognized as the absolute owners of the land as long as they paid a fixed land revenue to the British East India Company.
• The revenue amount was fixed permanently and could not be increased in the future; the government claimed 10/11th of the revenue, leaving 1/11th for the Zamindar as a commission.
• The Sunset Clause was a critical component, stating that if the revenue was not paid by sunset on the specified date, the Zamindari rights would be auctioned off by the state.
• While it provided a steady income for the Company, it led to the severe exploitation of ryots (peasants) and the eventual indebtedness of many agricultural households.

 Additional Information

• Lord Hastings:
• Served as the Governor-General of India from 1813 to 1823.
• He was instrumental in the Anglo-Nepalese War and the final suppression of the Pindaris and the Maratha Confederacy.
• Lord Wellesley:
• Governed from 1798 to 1805 and is best known for the Subsidiary Alliance system.
• This policy forced Indian rulers to maintain a British contingent in their states and accept a British Resident, effectively ending their independent foreign policy.
• Lord Curzon:
• He was the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905.
• His most controversial decision was the Partition of Bengal in 1905, which triggered the Swadeshi Movement across the country.

The correct answer is Offered full Dominion status with the right to secede from the Commonwealth only after the war..

Key Points

• The Cripps Mission was dispatched to India in March 1942 under the leadership of Sir Stafford Cripps to secure Indian cooperation for the British war effort during World War II.
• The primary offer was the grant of Dominion status to India once the war concluded, which fell short of the Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) demanded by the Indian National Congress since 1929.
• Indian leaders were highly critical of the fact that the right to secede from the British Commonwealth and the formation of a constituent assembly were deferred until after the cessation of hostilities. Hence, the proposal of full Dominion status with the right to secede only after the war is a correct reason for the criticism.
• The proposal also introduced a provincial veto, allowing provinces to opt-out of the Indian Union and form separate agreements with the British, which was perceived as a threat to national unity and a seed for partition. Hence, the proposal was viewed as a blow to Indian integrity.
• The Indian National Congress objected to the British retaining control over India's defense during the war period, arguing that without control over the military, any form of executive power was meaningless. Hence, the lack of immediate transfer of power was a major point of rejection.

 Additional Information

• Reactions of Major Political Entities:
• Mahatma Gandhi: Referred to the Cripps Mission proposals as a 'post-dated cheque on a crashing bank' due to the uncertainty of British victory and the delayed implementation of the promises.
• Muslim League: Rejected the proposals because they did not explicitly mention the creation of Pakistan or provide sufficient safeguards for the Muslim community through a single state structure.
• Princely States: The mission allowed the Princely States to nominate representatives to the constitution-making body, denying the subjects of those states the right to democratic representation.
• Consequences:
• The failure of the Cripps Mission led the Indian National Congress to pass the Quit India Resolution in August 1942 at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, launching a mass civil disobedience movement.

The correct answer is A-3, B-2, C-1.

Key Points

• In the Javelin Throw event at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, Neeraj Chopra scripted history by winning the Gold medal with a massive second-round throw of 87.58 meters. This achievement marked India first-ever Olympic gold medal in Track and Field and made him only the second Indian after Abhinav Bindra to win an individual gold. Hence, A matches with 3.
• In Boxing, Lovlina Borgohain secured the Bronze medal in the Women welterweight (64-69kg) category. She reached the semi-finals by defeating former world champion Nien-Chin Chen, becoming the third Indian boxer to win an Olympic medal after Vijender Singh and Mary Kom. Hence, B matches with 2.
• In Wrestling, Ravi Kumar Dahiya won the Silver medal in the Men 57kg Freestyle category. He displayed exceptional grit, particularly in the semi-final where he staged a dramatic comeback victory, before eventually losing to Zavur Uguev in the final bout. Hence, C matches with 1.

 Additional Information

• Tokyo 2020 Performance: India finished the Games with its best-ever haul of 7 medals.
• Mirabai Chanu: Won a Silver medal in Weightlifting (Women 49kg), opening India medal count on the very first day.
• PV Sindhu: Won the Bronze medal in Badminton, becoming the first Indian woman to win two individual Olympic medals.
• Indian Men Hockey Team: Secured the Bronze medal after 41 years by defeating Germany 5-4.
• Bajrang Punia: Clinched the Bronze medal in Wrestling (Men 65kg Freestyle) by defeating Daulet Niyazbekov.
• The Tokyo 2020 Olympics were held in 2021 due to the COVID-19 pandemic, and India finished at the 48th position in the medal tally.

The correct answer is Graham's Law.

Key Points

• Graham's Law of Effusion, formulated by the Scottish chemist Thomas Graham in 1848, states that the rate of diffusion or effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass or density.
• The mathematical representation of this principle is ( r \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{M}} ), where r is the rate of diffusion and M is the molar mass of the gas.
• Isotopes are atoms of the same chemical element that possess the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, resulting in distinct atomic weights.
• In the gaseous diffusion process, isotopes are converted into a gaseous compound; the molecules containing the lighter isotope travel at a slightly higher average velocity and pass through a porous barrier more rapidly than the heavier ones.
• This principle was historically critical during the Manhattan Project at the Oak Ridge facility to separate Uranium-235 from Uranium-238 using Uranium Hexafluoride (UF₆) gas for nuclear enrichment.

 Additional Information

• Gresham's Law:
• An economic principle stating that 'bad money drives out good'. It suggests that if two forms of commodity money are in circulation, the one with the higher intrinsic value will be hoarded while the cheaper one circulates.
• Faraday's Law:
• A core law of electromagnetism that quantifies how a changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force (EMF) in a conductor.
• Lenz's Law:
• A law used to determine the direction of induced current, stating it will always flow in a direction that creates a magnetic field opposing the change in magnetic flux that produced it.

Shortcut Trick

For any odd number of terms in a consecutive series, the Average is always the Middle Term.

Here, n = 5, so the 3^rd term = 35.

Since the common difference for odd numbers is 2, the next terms are 37 and 39.

Direct Formula: Largest Number = Average + (n − 1)

⇒ Largest Number = 35 + (5 − 1) = 35 + 4 = 39.

∴ The correct answer is 39.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of 5 consecutive odd numbers = 35.

Formula Used: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations.

Let the 5 consecutive odd numbers be x, (x + 2), (x + 4), (x + 6), and (x + 8).

⇒ Average = [x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8)] ÷ 5

⇒ 35 = (5x + 20) ÷ 5

⇒ 35 = x + 4

⇒ x = 35 − 4 = 31

⇒ Largest Number = x + 8 = 31 + 8

⇒ Largest Number = 39

∴ The correct answer is 39.

Additional Information

Average of Arithmetic Progression

For any series in AP, the average is always (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2.

Smallest Number Formula

The smallest number in a series of n consecutive odd/even numbers is Average − (n − 1).

Sum of First n Odd Numbers

The sum of the first n consecutive odd natural numbers starting from 1 is always n².

Shortcut Trick

Identify Pythagorean triplet: 60, 80, 100 (which is 3, 4, 5 × 20).

Perimeter of field = 60 + 80 + 100 = 240 m.

Fencing length required = Total perimeter − Gate = 240 − 5 = 235 m.

Total Cost = 235 m × ₹18/m = ₹4230.

Area of field = 1/2 × Base × Height = 1/2 × 60 × 80 = 2400 m².

∴ The correct answer is ₹4230 and 2400 m².

Alternate Method

Given: Sides of triangular field (a, b, c) = 60 m, 80 m, 100 m. Gate width = 5 m. Cost rate = ₹18 per m.

Formula Used:

1. Perimeter (P) = a + b + c
2. Area of right triangle = (1/2) × base × height
3. Cost = (P − gate) × rate

⇒ First, verify if it is a right-angled triangle:

⇒ 60² + 80² = 3600 + 6400 = 10000

⇒ 100² = 10000

⇒ Since 60² + 80² = 100², the triangle is right-angled.

⇒ Perimeter = 60 + 80 + 100 = 240 m

⇒ Effective fencing length = 240 − 5 = 235 m

⇒ Total cost = 235 × 18 = ₹4230

⇒ Area of field = (1/2) × 60 × 80 = 2400 m²

∴ The correct answer is ₹4230 and 2400 m².

Additional Information

Heron's Formula

For any triangle with sides a, b, and c, Area = √[s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)], where s is the semi-perimeter (a+b+c)/2.

Pythagorean Triplets

Sets of three integers (a, b, c) such that a² + b² = c². Common examples include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17).

Cost Calculation Rule

Total Cost of Fencing = (Perimeter − Sum of Gate Widths) × Rate per unit length.

Shortcut Trick

Use the Pythagorean triplet (7, 24, 25) to find slant height (l) = 25 m.

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = πrl = 22/7 × 7 × 25 = 550 m².

Total Cost = Area × Rate = 550 × 50 = 27500.

∴ The correct answer is ₹27500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) = 7 m

Height (h) = 24 m

Cost Rate = ₹50 per m²

Formula Used:

Slant height (l) = √(r² + h²)

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = πrl

Calculations:

⇒ l = √(7² + 24²)

⇒ l = √(49 + 576) = √625

⇒ l = 25 m

⇒ CSA of the conical tent = (22/7) × 7 × 25

⇒ CSA = 22 × 25 = 550 m²

⇒ Total cost to make the tent = CSA × 50

⇒ Total cost = 550 × 50 = 27500

∴ The correct answer is ₹27500.

Additional Information

Volume of a Cone

The amount of space occupied by the cone is given by V = (1/3) × πr²h.

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Cone

If the base is included, TSA = πrl + πr² = πr(l + r).

Pythagorean Triplets in Mensuration

Common triplets for (r, h, l) include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), and (7, 24, 25).

Shortcut Trick

The perpendicular from the center of a circle to a chord always bisects the chord.

Half-chord length = 8 ÷ 2 = 4 cm.

In the right-angled triangle formed, the radius is the hypotenuse.

Using the standard Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5):

Radius = 5 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of chord AB = 8 cm

Perpendicular distance (OM) from center O to AB = 3 cm

Formula Used:

In a circle, the perpendicular from the center to a chord bisects the chord: AM = MB = AB ÷ 2

Pythagoras Theorem: Radius² = (Perpendicular Distance)² + (Half-chord)²

Calculations:

⇒ Let O be the center and AB be the chord.

⇒ OM ⊥ AB, so AM = AB ÷ 2 = 8 ÷ 2 = 4 cm.

⇒ In right-angled triangle ΔOMA, by Pythagoras Theorem:

⇒ OA² = OM² + AM²

⇒ r² = 3² + 4²

⇒ r² = 9 + 16

⇒ r² = 25

⇒ r = √25

⇒ r = 5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Additional Information

Perpendicular Bisector Property

The perpendicular from the center of a circle to a chord bisects the chord, and conversely, the line joining the center to the midpoint of a chord is perpendicular to it.

Chord Length Formula

The length of a chord can be calculated as L = 2 × √(r² − d²), where r is the radius and d is the perpendicular distance from the center.

Pythagorean Triplets

Common integer sets satisfying a² + b² = c² include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), and (7, 24, 25).

Shortcut Trick

The radius (OT) is always perpendicular to the tangent (PT) at the point of contact, forming a right-angled triangle ΔOTP.

Given that the tangent length equals the radius (PT = OT), the triangle is an isosceles right-angled triangle.

In an isosceles right triangle, the two acute angles are always 45° each.

The required angle ∠TOP is one of these acute angles.

∴ The correct answer is 45°.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Radius of the circle = OT = r

⇒ Tangent segment = PT = r (given PT = OT)

⇒ Angle at tangency point ∠OTP = 90° (Property of tangents)

Formula Used:

⇒ In ΔOTP, tan(∠TOP) = Opposite / Adjacent = PT / OT

Calculations:

⇒ In ΔOTP, since ∠OTP = 90°, we apply trigonometric ratios.

⇒ tan(∠TOP) = PT / OT

⇒ tan(∠TOP) = r / r

⇒ tan(∠TOP) = 1

⇒ We know that tan(45°) = 1

⇒ ∴ ∠TOP = 45°

∴ The correct answer is 45°.

Additional Information

Tangent-Radius Theorem

The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact. This implies the angle between them is always 90°.

Isosceles Right Triangle Properties

In an isosceles right triangle with legs of length 'a', the hypotenuse is a√2 and the acute angles are 45° each.

Pythagoras Theorem in Circles

For a point P outside a circle with center O and tangent point T, the relationship is OP² = OT² + PT².

Shortcut Trick

Let the safety distance be x.

Equation: 3/5 × x² = 126.15

x² = 126.15 × 5 ÷ 3 = 42.05 × 5 = 210.25

Using the square root property for numbers ending in 0.25: √210.25 = 14.5 (since 14 × 15 = 210).

∴ The correct answer is 14.5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Three-fifths (3/5) of the square of a distance value is 126.15.

Formula Used:

Result = (3/5) × (Number)²

Calculations:

⇒ 3/5 × x² = 126.15

⇒ x² = 126.15 × (5 ÷ 3)

⇒ x² = 630.75 ÷ 3

⇒ x² = 210.25

⇒ x = √210.25

⇒ x = 14.5

∴ The correct answer is 14.5.

Additional Information

Square Root of Numbers ending in 5

To find the square of a number ending in 5, say n5, the result is [n × (n+1)] followed by 25. For example, 14.5² → 14 × 15 = 210, so 14.5² = 210.25.

Fraction-to-Decimal Conversion

Multiplying by 3/5 is equivalent to multiplying by 0.6. Conversely, dividing by 0.6 is the same as multiplying by 5/3.

Drone Safety Distance

In firmware programming, safety distances are often squared in proximity algorithms (like Euclidean distance) to avoid expensive square root operations in real-time loops.

Shortcut Trick

If the difference between a number and its reciprocal is k (x − 1/x = k),

then the sum of their squares (x² + 1/x²) is always k² + 2.

Given k = 3.

Result = 3² + 2 = 9 + 2 = 11.

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Alternate Method

Given:

The number is x.

The reciprocal of the number is 1/x.

The difference (x − 1/x) = 3.

Formula Used:

The algebraic identity: (a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ x − 1/x = 3

⇒ Square both sides: (x − 1/x)² = 3²

⇒ x² + (1/x)² − 2 × x × (1/x) = 9

⇒ x² + 1/x² − 2 = 9

⇒ x² + 1/x² = 9 + 2

⇒ x² + 1/x² = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Additional Information

Square of Sum Identity

If the sum is given as x + 1/x = k, then the sum of squares is x² + 1/x² = k² − 2.

Inter-relation between Squares

The identities are related by the formula: (x + 1/x)² − (x − 1/x)² = 4.

Cubic Identity

If x − 1/x = k, the difference of cubes is x³ − 1/x³ = k³ + 3k.

Shortcut Trick

When a sphere is exactly enclosed in a cube, the ratio of the Volume of the Sphere to the Volume of the Cube is always π/6.

Percentage of cube occupied by sphere = (π ÷ 6) × 100 ≈ (3.14159 ÷ 6) × 100 ≈ 52.36%.

Percentage of cube not occupied = 100% − 52.36% = 47.64% ≈ 47.6%.

This result is independent of the actual numerical value of the cube's edge.

∴ The correct answer is 47.6%.

Alternate Method

Given: Edge of the cube (a) = 6 cm.

Formula Used: Volume of cube = a³ | Volume of sphere = (4/3)πr³

⇒ Volume of the cube = 6³ = 216 cm³

⇒ Diameter of the sphere = Edge of the cube = 6 cm

⇒ Radius of the sphere (r) = 6 ÷ 2 = 3 cm

⇒ Volume of the sphere = (4/3) × π × (3)³ = (4/3) × π × 27 = 36π cm³

⇒ Taking π ≈ 3.14159, Volume of sphere ≈ 36 × 3.14159 ≈ 113.1 cm³

⇒ Volume not occupied = Volume of cube − Volume of sphere = 216 − 113.1 = 102.9 cm³

⇒ Percentage not occupied = (102.9 ÷ 216) × 100 ≈ 47.638%

∴ The correct answer is 47.6%.

Additional Information

Largest Sphere in a Cube

When the largest sphere is carved out of a cube of side a, the radius of the sphere is r = a/2.

Volume of Solids

The volume of a sphere is V = (4/3)πr³ and the volume of a cube is V = a³.

Surface Area Comparison

The surface area of the cube is 6a², while the surface area of the enclosed sphere is 4πr² = 4π(a/2)² = πa².

Shortcut Trick

For a regular pyramid, Lateral Surface Area (LSA) = 1/2 × Perimeter of base × Slant height.

Perimeter of square base = 4 × 6 = 24 cm.

Slant height (l) = 10 cm.

LSA = 1/2 × 24 × 10 = 120 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 120 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of the square base (a) = 6 cm

Slant height of the pyramid (l) = 10 cm

Formula Used:

Lateral Surface Area of a regular pyramid = 1/2 × P × l

Where P = Perimeter of the base and l = Slant height.

Calculations:

⇒ Perimeter of the square base = 4 × side

⇒ Perimeter (P) = 4 × 6 = 24 cm

⇒ Lateral Surface Area (LSA) = 1/2 × 24 × 10

⇒ LSA = 12 × 10

⇒ LSA = 120 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 120 cm².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Pyramid

TSA is the sum of the Lateral Surface Area and the Base Area. Formula: TSA = LSA + Base Area.

Volume of a Pyramid

The volume is calculated as one-third of the product of the base area and the vertical height (h). Formula: V = 1/3 × Base Area × h.

Slant Height vs Vertical Height

In a square pyramid, the relationship is l² = h² + (a/2)², where l is slant height, h is vertical height, and a is base side.

Shortcut Trick

In any circle, if the chord length is equal to the radius, the triangle formed by the center and the chord endpoints is always equilateral.

Here, Radius (OA) = Radius (OB) = Chord (AB) = 40 m.

All interior angles of an equilateral triangle are equal to 60°.

∴ The correct answer is 60°.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Radius (r) of the circular flight zone = 40 m

⇒ Straight-line distance (Chord AB) = 40 m

Method: Use the properties of triangles inscribed in a circle.

Calculations:

⇒ In ΔOAB, side OA and OB are radii of the circular zone.

⇒ OA = 40 m and OB = 40 m.

⇒ It is given that the distance between A and B (Chord AB) is 40 m.

⇒ Since OA = OB = AB = 40 m, the triangle OAB has all three sides equal.

⇒ A triangle with all three sides equal is an equilateral triangle.

⇒ The central angle ∠AOB must be 60° as every angle in an equilateral triangle is 60°.

∴ The correct answer is 60°.

Additional Information

Chord Length Formula

The length of a chord subtending a central angle θ is L = 2r × sin(θ/2). If L = r, then sin(θ/2) = 1/2, which means θ/2 = 30° or θ = 60°.

Sector Area

The area covered by the drone path (sector OAB) is calculated as: Area = (θ/360°) × πr².

Arc Length

The actual curved distance traveled by the drone along arc AB is s = r × θ (where θ is in radians), or s = (θ/360°) × 2πr.

Shortcut Trick

Use the direct formula for Simple Interest growth: Rate (R) = [(n − 1) / T] × 100

Here, the amount becomes n = 7 times in T = 20 years.

Rate (R) = [(7 − 1) / 20] × 100

Rate (R) = (6 / 20) × 100 = 6 × 5 = 30%

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Let the Principal (P) be ₹100.

Amount (A) after 20 years = 7 × 100 = ₹700.

Time (T) = 20 years.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Amount (A) − Principal (P)

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI = 700 − 100 = ₹600

⇒ 600 = (100 × R × 20) / 100

⇒ 600 = 20 × R

⇒ R = 600 / 20

⇒ R = 30%

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI) Formula

The basic formula is SI = (P × R × T) / 100, where P is Principal, R is Rate per annum, and T is Time in years.

Compound Interest (CI) Formula

For CI, Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)^T. CI is interest calculated on the initial principal and also on the accumulated interest of previous periods.

Rule of 72

A quick shortcut to estimate the number of years required to double the money at a given annual rate of interest: Time ≈ 72 / Rate%.

Shortcut Trick

For 3 years, use the multiplying factor ratio 3 : 3 : 1.

Step 1: 5% of 50,000 = 2,500

Step 2: 5% of 2,500 = 125

Step 3: 5% of 125 = 6.25

Total Compound Interest = (2,500 × 3) + (125 × 3) + (6.25 × 1) = 7,500 + 375 + 6.25 = 7,881.25.

∴ The correct answer is ₹7881.25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹50,000

Rate (R) = 5% per annum

Time (n) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

Compound Interest (CI) = A − P

Calculations:

⇒ A = 50000 × (1 + 5/100)³

⇒ A = 50000 × (105/100) × (105/100) × (105/100)

⇒ A = 50000 × (21/20) × (21/20) × (21/20)

⇒ A = 50000 × (9261 / 8000)

⇒ A = 6.25 × 9261

⇒ A = ₹57,881.25

⇒ CI = 57,881.25 − 50,000

⇒ CI = ₹7,881.25

∴ The correct answer is ₹7881.25.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Interest

For 3 years at rate R, the effective CI rate is 3R + 3R²/100 + R³/10000 %. For 5%, it is 15.7625%.

CI and SI Difference (2 Years)

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years is P(R/100)².

CI and SI Difference (3 Years)

The difference for 3 years is given by the formula D = [PR²(300 + R)] / 100³.

Shortcut Trick

For compounded half-yearly, effective rate (r) = 24% ÷ 2 = 12% and periods (n) = 1.5 × 2 = 3.

Use the Ratio Method for 3 periods → 3 : 3 : 1

Step 1: 85,000 × 12% = 10,200 | Step 2: 10,200 × 12% = 1,224 | Step 3: 1,224 × 12% = 146.88

Total CI = (10,200 × 3) + (1,224 × 3) + (146.88 × 1) = 30,600 + 3,672 + 146.88 = 34,418.88

∴ The correct answer is ₹34418.88.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹85,000

Annual Rate (R) = 24%

Time (T) = 1.5 years

Compounding frequency = Half-yearly

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ

Compound Interest (CI) = A − P

Calculations:

⇒ Half-yearly rate (r) = 24% ÷ 2 = 12%

⇒ Total periods (n) = 1.5 × 2 = 3

⇒ Amount (A) = 85,000 × (1 + 12/100)³

⇒ A = 85,000 × (1.12)³

⇒ A = 85,000 × 1.404928

⇒ A = ₹1,19,418.88

⇒ CI = A − P = 1,19,418.88 − 85,000

⇒ CI = ₹34,418.88

∴ The correct answer is ₹34418.88.

Additional Information

Effective Rate for Compounding

If interest is compounded quarterly, the rate becomes R/4 and the number of periods becomes 4T. If monthly, the rate is R/12 and periods are 12T.

CI vs SI Difference for 2 Years

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years is given by the formula: Difference = P(r/100)².

Successive Percentage Method

CI can also be calculated as the successive percentage increase on the principal. For two years at rate r%, the effective rate is r + r + (r×r)/100.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Efficiency of Ashutosh to Sonali = 3 : 1

Combined Efficiency of both = 3 + 1 = 4 units/day

Total Work = Combined Efficiency × Time = 4 × 15 days = 60 units

Days taken by Sonali alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of Sonali = 60 ÷ 1 = 60 days

∴ The correct answer is 60 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ashutosh is 3 times as efficient as Sonali.

Combined time to complete the work = 15 days.

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Efficiency of Sonali be 1 unit/day.

⇒ Then, Efficiency of Ashutosh = 3 × 1 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Combined Efficiency = 1 + 3 = 4 units/day.

⇒ Total Work = Combined Efficiency × Time taken together = 4 × 15 = 60 units.

⇒ Time taken by Sonali alone = Total Work ÷ Sonali's Efficiency

⇒ Time = 60 ÷ 1 = 60 days.

∴ The correct answer is 60 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

The Efficiency of a person is inversely proportional to the Time taken to complete the work. If the efficiency ratio is a : b, the time ratio is b : a.

Combined Work Formula

If A can do a work in 'x' days and B in 'y' days, they together can do it in (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the Work Done by each person, which is proportional to their Efficiency when they work for the same duration.

Shortcut Trick

Since ΔABC ∼ ΔDEF, their corresponding angles are equal: ∠A = ∠D, ∠B = ∠E, and ∠C = ∠F.

In isosceles ΔDEF, the non-equal angle ∠D = 70°, so the base angles ∠E and ∠F must be equal.

Base angles ∠E = ∠F = (180° − 70°) ÷ 2 = 110° ÷ 2 = 55°.

By similarity property, ∠ACB (∠C) = ∠DFE (∠F) = 55°.

∴ The correct answer is 55°.

Alternate Method

Given:

1. ΔABC ∼ ΔDEF
2. ΔDEF is isosceles with ∠EDF = 70° (non-equal angle).

Formula Used:

Sum of angles in a triangle = 180°

In similar triangles, ∠A = ∠D, ∠B = ∠E, ∠C = ∠F.

Calculations:

In ΔDEF, since it is isosceles and ∠D is the non-equal angle:

⇒ DE = DF (equal sides)

⇒ ∠DEF = ∠DFE (angles opposite to equal sides)

⇒ ∠EDF + ∠DEF + ∠DFE = 180°

⇒ 70° + 2 × ∠DFE = 180°

⇒ 2 × ∠DFE = 180° − 70°

⇒ 2 × ∠DFE = 110°

⇒ ∠DFE = 55°

Since ΔABC ∼ ΔDEF, corresponding angles are equal:

⇒ ∠ACB = ∠DFE

⇒ ∠ACB = 55°

∴ The correct answer is 55°.

Additional Information

Similarity Criteria (AAA)

If two triangles are similar, all three pairs of corresponding angles are equal, and the ratios of their corresponding sides are equal.

Isosceles Triangle Property

In an isosceles triangle, the angles opposite to the equal sides are always equal. If the vertex angle is θ, the base angles are (180° − θ) ÷ 2.

Angle Sum Property

The sum of the interior angles of any triangle is always 180°.

Shortcut Trick

Area of circle πr² = 5,544 ⇒ r² = 5544 × (7/22) = 1764.

Radius (r) = √1764 = 42 cm.

Side of square (a) = r ÷ 3 = 42 ÷ 3 = 14 cm.

Area of square = a² = 14² = 196 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 196 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the circle = 5,544 cm²

Side of the square (s) = (1/3) × Radius of the circle (r)

Value of π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Area of circle = πr²

Area of square = side²

Calculations:

⇒ (22/7) × r² = 5544

⇒ r² = (5544 × 7) ÷ 22

⇒ r² = 252 × 7

⇒ r² = 1764

⇒ r = √1764 = 42 cm

⇒ Side of square (s) = 42 ÷ 3 = 14 cm

⇒ Area of square = 14 × 14

⇒ Area of square = 196 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 196 cm².

Additional Information

Circle Properties

Area = πr² and Circumference = 2πr. The diameter is twice the radius (d = 2r).

Square Properties

Area = side² and Perimeter = 4 × side. The diagonal of a square is side × √2.

Perfect Squares to Remember

14² = 196, 42² = 1764. Knowing these squares helps in fast root extraction during exams.

Shortcut Trick

Convert all terms to a common base 9 to simplify the exponents.

Since 6561 = 9⁴ and 81 = 9², the expression becomes:

[9^{4 × (x/4)} × 9^2x+1] ÷ [9^2x × 9^x−1]

⇒ 9^{x + 2x + 1} ÷ 9^{2x + x − 1} = 9^3x+1 ÷ 9^3x−1 = 9^{(3x+1) − (3x−1)} = 9² = 81.

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Alternate Method

Given: [(6561)^x/4 × (9)^2x+1] / [81^x × 9^x−1]

Formula Used: (a^m)ⁿ = a^mn; a^m × aⁿ = a^m+n; a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^m−n

⇒ [(9⁴)^x/4 × 9^2x+1] / [(9²)^x × 9^x−1]

⇒ [9^x × 9^2x+1] / [9^2x × 9^x−1]

⇒ 9^{(x + 2x + 1)} / 9^{(2x + x − 1)}

⇒ 9^3x+1 / 9^3x−1

⇒ 9^{(3x + 1) − (3x − 1)}

⇒ 9^{3x + 1 − 3x + 1}

⇒ 9² = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Additional Information

Laws of Indices

When multiplying terms with the same base, add the powers: a^m × aⁿ = a^m+n. When dividing, subtract the powers: a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^m−n.

Power of a Power Rule

A base with an exponent raised to another exponent results in the multiplication of the exponents: (a^m)ⁿ = a^{m × n}.

Base Conversion Technique

Always try to express larger numbers like 6561 or 81 as powers of a smaller prime or common base (like 3 or 9) to simplify algebraic expressions.

Shortcut Trick

Factor out the common term p²q² from the expression: [7 − (3/2 + 5/3)] × p²q².

Simplify the fractional part: 7 − (9/6 + 10/6) = 7 − 19/6 = (42 − 19)/6 = 23/6.

Substitute the given values p = 1 and q = 3 ⇒ p²q² = 1² × 3² = 9.

Final Value = 23/6 × 9 = 23/2 × 3 = 69/2 = 34.5.

∴ The correct answer is 34.5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression: 7p²q² − [(3/2)p²q² + (5/3)p²q²]

Values: p = 1, q = 3

Step 1: Calculate the value of the common variable term p²q².

⇒ p²q² = (1)² × (3)² = 1 × 9 = 9.

Step 2: Calculate the sum of the two terms to be subtracted.

⇒ Sum = (3/2) × 9 + (5/3) × 9

⇒ Sum = 13.5 + 15 = 28.5.

Step 3: Calculate the value of the minuend (the term from which we subtract).

⇒ 7p²q² = 7 × 9 = 63.

Step 4: Perform the final subtraction.

⇒ Result = 63 − 28.5

⇒ Result = 34.5.

∴ The correct answer is 34.5.

Additional Information

Like Terms in Algebra

Terms that have the same variables raised to the same powers are called like terms. They can be added or subtracted by combining their numerical coefficients.

BODMAS Rule

Always solve the operations inside the Brackets first, then Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and finally Subtraction.

Substitution Method

Replacing variables with their specific numerical values helps in evaluating algebraic expressions into single numeric constants.

Shortcut Trick

Slope of line through (1.25, 2.5) and (3.25, 4.5) = (4.5 − 2.5) ÷ (3.25 − 1.25) = 1.

Slope of perpendicular line (m) = −1 ÷ 1 = −1.

Equation form: x + y = k. For point (2.25, 3.5), k = 2.25 + 3.5 = 5.75.

Convert to standard form: 4 × (x + y = 5.75) ⇒ 4x + 4y = 23.

∴ The correct answer is 4x + 4y = 23.

Alternate Method

Given:

Line L₁ passes through P₁(1.25, 2.5) and P₂(3.25, 4.5).

Required line L₂ passes through P₃(2.25, 3.5) and is perpendicular to L₁.

Formula Used:

Slope m = (y₂ − y₁) ÷ (x₂ − x₁)

For perpendicular lines: m₁ × m₂ = −1

Point-slope form: y − y₁ = m(x − x₁)

Calculations:

⇒ Slope of L₁ (m₁) = (4.5 − 2.5) ÷ (3.25 − 1.25)

⇒ m₁ = 2.0 ÷ 2.0 = 1

⇒ Slope of required line L₂ (m₂) = −1 ÷ m₁ = −1 ÷ 1 = −1

⇒ Equation of L₂ using (2.25, 3.5): y − 3.5 = −1 × (x − 2.25)

⇒ y − 3.5 = −x + 2.25

⇒ x + y = 3.5 + 2.25

⇒ x + y = 5.75

⇒ x + y = 23 ÷ 4

⇒ 4x + 4y = 23

∴ The correct answer is 4x + 4y = 23.

Additional Information

Slope-Intercept Form

The equation of a line can be written as y = mx + c, where m is the slope and c is the y-intercept.

Perpendicular Lines

Two lines with slopes m₁ and m₂ are perpendicular if the product of their slopes is −1 (m₁ × m₂ = −1).

Parallel Lines

Two lines are parallel if their slopes are equal (m₁ = m₂).

General Equation

The standard form of a linear equation is Ax + By = C, where the slope is given by −A ÷ B.

Shortcut Trick

Use the complementary angle identity: cos θ = sin(π/2 − θ).

Equate the given expression: sin(π/2 − θ) = sin(3π/4 − θ).

Since θ is an acute angle, apply the property sin A = sin B ⇒ A + B = π (as A = B leads to no solution).

(π/2 − θ) + (3π/4 − θ) = π

5π/4 − 2θ = π ⇒ 2θ = π/4 ⇒ θ = π/8.

∴ The correct answer is π/8.

Alternate Method

Given: cos θ = sin(3π/4 − θ), where θ is an acute angle.

Formula Used: sin(π − x) = sin x and cos x = sin(π/2 − x).

⇒ cos θ = sin(3π/4 − θ)

⇒ sin(π/2 − θ) = sin(3π/4 − θ)

⇒ Either π/2 − θ = 3π/4 − θ (which gives π/2 = 3π/4, impossible)

⇒ Or (π/2 − θ) + (3π/4 − θ) = π (since sin x = sin(π − x))

⇒ 2π/4 + 3π/4 − 2θ = π

⇒ 5π/4 − 2θ = π

⇒ 2θ = 5π/4 − π

⇒ 2θ = π/4

⇒ θ = π/8

∴ The correct answer is π/8.

Additional Information

Complementary Angle Relation

For any angle θ, sin θ = cos(90° − θ) and tan θ = cot(90° − θ).

General Solutions for Sine

If sin α = sin β, then the general solution is α = nπ + (−1)ⁿβ, where n is an integer.

Radian to Degree Conversion

To convert radians to degrees, multiply by 180/π. For example, π/8 radians = (π/8) × (180/π) = 22.5°.

 

All letters except H have positional values that are perfect squares. Thus, H is the odd letter in the group.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

According to the given information, when paper unfolded completely,

Number of holes = 8

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

<br>

UCOUWPI is coded as SAMSUNG →

Similarly,

let us find the code for MICROMAX:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

For PCD to SGI

<br>

Applying the same logic to BKS to find the missing term:

<br>

The resulting letters are EOX.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Here,

The words Uncle, Father, and Nephew belong to the same category of male relatives.

However, Niece is the only female relative among the given options.

Therefore, Niece is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Bodmas Rule:

 

Given equation: 20 + 5 × 3 ÷ 3 − 1 = 14

We need to find the correct interchange of two mathematical signs so that the equation becomes mathematically correct.

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) ÷ and ×

After interchange: 20 + 5 ÷ 3 × 3 − 1 = 14

⇒ 20 + 5 ÷ 3 × 3 − 1

⇒ 20 + 5 − 1

⇒ 20 + 5 − 1

⇒ 25 − 1 = 24

Since 24 ≠ 14, this option is incorrect.

Option 2) × and −

After interchange: 20 + 5 − 3 ÷ 3 × 1 = 14

⇒ 20 + 5 − 3 ÷ 3 × 1

⇒ 20 + 5 − 1

⇒ 20 + 5 − 1

⇒ 25 − 1 = 24

Since 24 ≠ 14, this option is incorrect.

Option 3) × and +

After interchange: 20 × 5 + 3 ÷ 3 − 1 = 14

⇒ 20 × 5 + 3 ÷ 3 − 1

⇒ 100 + 3 ÷ 3 − 1

⇒ 100 + 1 − 1

⇒ 100 + 1 − 1

⇒ 101 − 1 = 100

Since 100 ≠ 14, this option is incorrect.

Option 4) ÷ and +

After interchange: 20 ÷ 5 × 3 + 3 − 1 = 14

⇒ 20 ÷ 5 × 3 + 3 − 1

⇒ 4 × 3 + 3 − 1

⇒ 4 × 3 + 3 − 1

⇒ 12 + 3 − 1

⇒ 12 + 3 − 1

⇒ 15 − 1 = 14

Since 14 = 14, this option is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Bodmas Rule:

Given equation:

12 ÷ 4 + 2 − 6 × 3 = 3 ÷ 12 + 6 × 2 − 4

We need to find the interchange of signs and/or numbers that makes the equation mathematically correct.

Let's check each option one by one using BODMAS.

Option 1) × and −, 4 and 6

After interchange:

12 ÷ 6 + 2 × 4 − 3 = 3 ÷ 12 + 4 − 2 × 6

LHS = 12 ÷ 6 + 2 × 4 − 3

= 2 + 8 − 3

= 7

RHS = 3 ÷ 12 + 4 − 2 × 6

= 0.25 + 4 − 12

= -7.75

Since 7 ≠ -7.75, this option is incorrect.

Option 2) ÷ and +, 6 and 4

After interchange:

12 + 6 ÷ 2 − 4 × 3 = 3 + 12 ÷ 4 × 2 − 6

LHS = 12 + 6 ÷ 2 − 4 × 3

= 12 + 3 − 12

= 3

RHS = 3 + 12 ÷ 4 × 2 − 6

= 3 + 3 × 2 − 6

= 3 + 6 − 6

= 3

Since 3 = 3, this option is correct.

Option 3) × and ÷, 4 and 6

After interchange:

12 × 6 + 2 − 4 ÷ 3 = 3 × 12 + 4 ÷ 2 − 6

LHS = 12 × 6 + 2 − 4 ÷ 3

= 72 + 2 − 1.33

= 72.67 (approx)

RHS = 3 × 12 + 4 ÷ 2 − 6

= 36 + 2 − 6

= 32

Since 72.67 ≠ 32, this option is incorrect.

Option 4) − and +, 6 and 4

After interchange:

12 ÷ 6 − 2 + 4 × 3 = 3 ÷ 12 − 4 × 2 + 6

LHS = 12 ÷ 6 − 2 + 4 × 3

= 2 − 2 + 12

= 12

RHS = 3 ÷ 12 − 4 × 2 + 6

= 0.25 − 8 + 6

= -1.75

Since 12 ≠ -1.75, this option is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Triangles in the given figure,

There are 24 triangles present in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Family chart:

Family tree,

B is Mother of C.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: (10 C 4) A (4 C 4) B 6 = ?

<br>

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ (10 × 4) + (4 × 4) - 6 = ?

⇒ (10 × 4) + (4 × 4) - 6 = ?

⇒ 40 + (4 × 4) - 6 = ?

⇒ 40 + (4 × 4) - 6 = ?

⇒ 40 + 16 - 6 = ?

⇒ 40 + 16 - 6 = ?

⇒ 56 - 6 = ?

⇒ 50.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Triangles in the given figure,

There are 6 triangles present in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Here,

In figures 1, 3 and 4 small circles are diagonally adjacent to each other.

While,

In figure 2, both the circles are not adjacent to each other.

Therefore, figure 2 is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

1² + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2

2² + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5

3² + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10

4² + 1 = 16 + 1 = 17

5² + 1 = 25 + 1 = 26

6² + 1 = 36 + 1 = 37

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Sun is to Day → 

The Sun is the primary celestial body that is visible and provides light during the Day.

Simialrly,

Moon is to,

The Moon is the celestial body that is predominantly visible in the sky during the Night.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

121 = (11)²

256 = (16)²

484 = (22)²

625 = (25)²

342 is not a perfect square.

Therefore, the number that is not like the others is 342.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Word: CALCULATION

 

4th letter from left = C

Exactly two to the left of the 4th letter = A

3. The letter at the 2nd position from the left is A.

Therefore, the letter exactly two to the left of the 4th from the left is A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given expression: 20 $ 8 # 6

<br>

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 20 + 8 - 6

⇒ 20 + 8 - 6

⇒ 28 - 6

⇒ 22

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Forward Distance = 180 km | Forward Speed = 60 km/h

Return Distance = 180 km | Return Speed = 90 km/h

Formula Used:

Average Speed = (Total Distance) ÷ (Total Time)

⇒ Time taken for forward journey (T₁) = Distance ÷ Speed = 180 ÷ 60 = 3 hours

⇒ Time taken for return journey (T₂) = Distance ÷ Speed = 180 ÷ 90 = 2 hours

⇒ Total Time taken = T₁ + T₂ = 3 + 2 = 5 hours

⇒ Total Distance = 180 + 180 = 360 km

⇒ Average Speed = 360 ÷ 5 = 72 km/h

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family chart:

Family tree,

That boy is nephew of Tina.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Counting the cubes in each layer →

1st layer (top) = 1 + 1 = 2

2nd layer = 3 + 3 = 6

3rd layer = 6 + 6 = 12

4th layer (bottom) = 10 + 10 = 20

Total cubes in given figure = 2 + 6 + 12 + 20 = 40

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The pattern observed is: Number × (Number − 1).

Given

For 6 ⊕ = 30 →

6 × 5 = 30

For 7 ⊕ = 42 →

7 × 6 = 42

Similarly,

let's find the value for 5 ⊕:

5 × 4 = 20

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is: 1) entirely.

Key Points

• The word "entirely" means completely or wholly, without exception or condition. (पूरी तरह से)
• Example: She was entirely focused on her work and didn’t notice the time.
• In the given sentence, "She felt quite ill during dinnertime," the word "quite" refers to a degree that emphasizes the intensity of her illness. The word "entirely" is the most appropriate synonym for "quite" in this context.
• Example: The house was quite dark, meaning it was entirely without light.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 1) entirely.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Noticeably (स्पष्ट रूप से): Something that can be easily observed or noticed.
• Example: She was noticeably upset after hearing the news.
• Silently (चुपचाप): Without making any sound or speaking.
• Example: He sat silently in the corner, observing everyone.
• Immediately (तुरंत): At once, without any delay.
• Example: She called the doctor immediately after feeling unwell.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Cultivated.

Key Points

• The word "Fenced" means to enclose an area, typically with a barrier such as a fence, to protect or mark boundaries. (घेरना)
• Example: The farmer fenced the field to keep the animals out.
• The word "Ploughed" means to turn over the soil using a plough in preparation for planting crops. (जुताई करना)
• Example: The farmer ploughed the land to prepare it for sowing seeds.
• Here, "fenced and ploughed" together imply that the farmer has prepared and protected the land for agricultural purposes, which aligns with the word "Cultivated" (खेती करना).
• Example: The land was cultivated for growing wheat and vegetables.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Cultivated.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Bulldozed (बुलडोजर से गिराना): To demolish or clear an area using a bulldozer.
• Example: The old building was bulldozed to make way for a new shopping mall.
• Instilled (पैठ बनाना): To gradually establish an idea, feeling, or habit in someone's mind.
• Example: The teacher instilled a love for reading in her students.
• Withdrew (वापस लेना): To pull out or remove something from a particular place or situation.
• Example: He withdrew his money from the bank account.

The correct answer is: 2) Wordy.

Key Points

• The word "terse" refers to a style of speaking or writing that is brief and to the point. It often implies conciseness and clarity, but sometimes it can also sound curt or abrupt. (संक्षिप्त)
• Example: His terse reply made it clear he didn’t want to discuss the matter further.
• The word "wordy" means using or containing too many words, especially more than are necessary. It is the opposite of terse. (शब्दाडंबरपूर्ण)
• Example: The professor’s explanation was so wordy that the students found it hard to follow.
• Hence, the antonym of "terse" is "wordy."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 2) Wordy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Brief (संक्षिप्त): Short in duration or length and to the point.
• Example: The manager gave a brief overview of the project during the meeting.
• Concise (सारगर्भित): Giving a lot of information clearly and in a few words; brief but comprehensive.
• Example: Her concise explanation saved us a lot of time during the discussion.
• Short (छोटा): Having a small length, duration, or extent; not long.
• Example: I only have a short amount of time to finish this task.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. commendable.

Key Points

• The word "deplorable" means deserving strong condemnation; extremely bad or unacceptable. (निंदनीय)
• Example: The conditions in the refugee camp were deplorable, and immediate action was needed.
• "Commendable" refers to something that is worthy of praise or approval. (प्रशंसनीय)
• Example: Her selfless dedication to helping the poor is truly commendable.
• Hence, the word "commendable" is opposite in meaning to "deplorable".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. commendable.

---

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Miserable (दुखी या दयनीय): Very unhappy or uncomfortable.
• Example: After the failure of his business, he was left feeling miserable.
• Equitable (न्यायसंगत): Fair and impartial.
• Example: The judge made an equitable decision that satisfied both parties.
• Reprehensible (निंदनीय): Deserving blame or criticism.
• Example: His reprehensible behavior was condemned by everyone in the meeting.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Database.

Key Points

• The word "Database" refers to a structured collection of data that is stored and accessed electronically. (डाटाबेस का मतलब एक संरचित डेटा संग्रह है जिसे इलेक्ट्रॉनिक रूप से संग्रहीत और एक्सेस किया जा सकता है।)
• Example: The company's customer information is stored in a secure database.
• In the given context, "a large amount of information stored in a computer system" perfectly matches the definition of a database.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Database.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Disk Space (डिस्क स्पेस): The amount of storage capacity available on a computer's hard drive or other storage devices.
• Example: My laptop is running out of disk space because of the large number of files stored on it.
• RAM (रैम): Random Access Memory, a type of computer memory used for temporary storage of data while the computer is running.
• Example: Upgrading the RAM improved the performance of my computer.
• ROM (रोम): Read-Only Memory, a type of non-volatile memory used in computers and other devices to store firmware or essential data.
• Example: The operating system's startup instructions are stored in the computer's ROM.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Extempore.

Key Points

• The word "Extempore" refers to speaking or performing without prior preparation or rehearsal. (बिना तैयारी के)
• Example: The student delivered an extempore speech on the topic of environmental conservation.
• It is often used in the context of speeches, debates, or performances where spontaneity is key.
• Hindi Meaning: बिना पूर्व तैयारी के कुछ कहना या करना।

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Bamboozle (चकमा देना): To trick or deceive someone.
• Example: The salesman tried to bamboozle me into buying a fake product.
• Temporary (अस्थायी): Lasting for only a limited period of time; not permanent.
• Example: The company hired temporary workers for the holiday season.
• Blueprint (योजना): A detailed plan or design for a project or idea.
• Example: The architect prepared a blueprint for the new building.

The correct answer is He was listening to the news and found it very surprising..

Key Points

• The first option incorrectly uses the adverb much to modify the present participle surprising. While much can modify comparative adjectives, very is the standard intensifier for present participles acting as adjectives in the positive degree. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The second option correctly employs very to modify the present participle adjective surprising. Since surprising describes the quality of the news (the subject causing the emotion), the use of very is grammatically accurate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The third option uses the phrase much too, which indicates a degree of excess that often carries a negative connotation. It implies the surprise was beyond acceptable limits, which does not fit the standard descriptive tone of the sentence. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The fourth option uses the past participle surprised to describe the news (it). Since news is an inanimate object/information source, it cannot feel an emotion; it can only be surprising to others. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Distinction between Participle Adjectives:
• Present Participles (-ing): These function as active adjectives describing the effect or characteristic of a person, thing, or situation (e.g., an interesting book, a tiring day).
• Past Participles (-ed): These function as passive adjectives describing the feeling or emotion experienced by a person (e.g., an interested student, a tired worker).
• Intensifiers: Very vs. Much:
• Very: Used with adjectives and adverbs in the positive degree, as well as with present participles.
• Much: Primarily modifies comparative degree adjectives (e.g., much taller) or past participles used in a passive sense (e.g., much appreciated, much admired).

The correct answer is 'pause'.

 

Key Points

• The word "pause" refers to a brief stop or hesitation, often in speech or movement.
• The sentence implies that the quality of her voice caused people to listen attentively, so "pause" fits the context.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not convey the intended meaning:
• Option 2: paws refers to the feet of an animal, which is irrelevant here.
• Option 3: pours refers to pouring liquid, which does not fit the context.
• Option 4: pures is not a valid word in English.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The pause in her voice made everyone listen."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "paws" is incorrect as it refers to animal feet.
• Option 3: "pours" is incorrect because it describes the act of pouring, which is unrelated to the context.
• Option 4: "pures" is invalid because it is not an English word.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Compliment.

Key Points

• The word "Compliment" means to express praise, admiration, or approval for someone or something. (प्रशंसा करना)
• Example: She received a lot of compliments on her beautiful dress.
• The correct word here is "Compliment" because the question asks for a word that matches the clue "to praise". (प्रशंसा करना)
• Example: He complimented the chef for the delicious meal.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Compliment.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Complement (पूरक): Something that completes or goes well with something else.
• Example: The blue curtains complement the yellow walls beautifully.
• Complimentary (निःशुल्क): Something given for free or expressing praise.
• Example: The hotel offered complimentary breakfast to all its guests.
• Complyment (invalid word): This is a misspelling and does not exist in English vocabulary.

The correct answer is 'to prepare for'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "to prepare for" is the correct choice, as it indicates the purpose or activity the subject is getting ready for.
• The preposition "for" is used to express the intended purpose or goal of the preparation.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they either use inappropriate prepositions or suggest no substitution, which does not improve the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "She arrived early to prepare for the meeting."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "to prepare in" is incorrect because "in" does not convey the intended purpose of preparation.
• Option 3: "to prepare on" is incorrect because "on" is not appropriate for describing preparation for an event.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence is not grammatically correct and requires improvement.

The correct answer is 'Disappointed with'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "disappointed with" is the correct collocation when referring to dissatisfaction regarding a specific result or outcome.
• The prepositions "from" and "of" are incorrect in this context, as they do not align with standard usage.
• The preposition "at" is typically used when referring to disappointment with an event or situation, not an outcome.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "She was disappointed with the outcome of the interview."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Disappointed of" is incorrect because "disappointed" does not pair with "of" in standard English usage.
• Option 2: "Disappointed at" is incorrect in this context because it is typically used with events or general situations, not specific outcomes.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence contains a grammatical error.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• To convert to passive voice, the object ("the Happy Prince") becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The verb "asked" (simple past) becomes "was asked" in the passive voice.
• The agent ("by the little bird") is added after the verb in the passive sentence.
• The rest of the sentence ("about the cause of his grief") remains unchanged.
• Option 4 correctly uses the passive structure and maintains the original meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The Happy Prince was asked by the little bird about the cause of his grief."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect tense ("has been asked" is present perfect, not simple past).
• Option 2: Missing "about"—changes the meaning and makes the sentence incomplete.
• Option 3: Incorrect voice and meaning ("was asking" is past continuous, not passive).

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• To convert from passive to active voice, make the agent ("the government") the subject of the sentence.
• The passive sentence is: "A new policy is expected to be announced by the government soon."
• The structure "is expected to be announced by the government" becomes "the government is expected to announce" in the active voice.
• The rest of the sentence ("a new policy soon") remains unchanged.
• Option 4 correctly maintains the meaning, tense, and structure while converting to active voice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The government is expected to announce a new policy soon."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect tense (present continuous).
• Option 2: Incorrect tense (past passive construction).
• Option 3: Changes meaning to active expectation, not passive expectation.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• To convert from passive to active voice, make the original agent ("the trainer") the subject of the sentence.
• The passive sentence is: "The instructions have been clearly explained by the trainer."
• The verb form "have been explained" (present perfect passive) becomes "has explained" (present perfect active, singular subject "trainer").
• The adverb "clearly" stays between the auxiliary and main verb: "has clearly explained."
• The object "the instructions" follows the verb.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The trainer has clearly explained the instructions."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect verb form ("has explains").
• Option 2: Incorrect tense (present continuous).
• Option 3: Incorrect tense (simple past).

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Correct Indirect Speech: Ravi asked Seema who had been polishing his shoes the day before when he had been asleep.
• Key Conversions:
• Reporting Verb:
• "said to" is changed to "asked" for interrogative sentences.
• No 'that' after 'asked':
• When the question starts with a question word ("who"), "that" is not used.
• Tense and Time Change:
• "Was polishing" (past continuous) changes to "had been polishing" (past perfect continuous) in indirect speech.
• "Yesterday" changes to "the day before."
• Pronouns: "my" → "his"; "I" → "he".
• "when I was asleep" becomes "when he had been asleep" to reflect the sequence of past actions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: Ravi asked Seema who had been polishing his shoes the day before when he had been asleep.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect use of "that" after "asked."
• Option 3: "Yesterday" should be changed to "the day before" in indirect speech.
• Option 4: "When he was asleep" is grammatically possible, but "when he had been asleep" (as in Option 2) is often preferred to emphasize the sequence of past actions.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'through, for'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "smiled through her tears" is a commonly used expression that conveys someone smiling despite being emotional or upset.
• The preposition "for" is used to express gratitude towards someone or something, making "grateful for" the correct combination.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not form meaningful or grammatically appropriate expressions in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "She smiled through her tears, grateful for the support."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "into, to" is incorrect because "smiled into her tears" does not convey a meaningful expression, and "grateful to" is not the correct preposition in this context.
• Option 3: "behind, with" is incorrect because "smiled behind her tears" and "grateful with" do not fit the sentence meaningfully.
• Option 4: "over, towards" is incorrect because neither preposition pair forms a coherent sentence.

The correct answer is 'with'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "with" is used to indicate the cause or reason for someone's emotions or actions directed at another person or group.
• In this sentence, the teacher is expressing anger towards the students due to their indiscipline, which makes "with" the most suitable preposition.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not appropriately convey the intended meaning in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The teacher was furious with the students for their indiscipline."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "on" is incorrect because "furious on" is not a valid combination in English.
• Option 3: "for" is incorrect as it does not convey the intended emotional direction of being angry "with" someone.
• Option 4: "of" is incorrect because it fails to appropriately describe the subject's anger directed at another group.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Correct Direct Speech: The teacher said to the student, "These books are not needed right now."
• Key Conversions:
• Pronoun and Demonstrative Change:
• Indirect "those books" becomes direct "these books."
• Time Reference:
• Indirect "right then" becomes direct "right now."
• Tense Change:
• Indirect "were not needed" changes to direct "are not needed."
• Reporting Verb:
• "told the student" can be reported as "said to the student" in direct speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: The teacher said to the student, "These books are not needed right now."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Uses "these books" correctly but keeps "right then" instead of "right now."
• Option 3: Incorrect tense ("were not needed") and time reference ("right now").
• Option 4: Retains "those books" and "right then," which are used in indirect, not direct, speech.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The given sentence is asking for the correct spelling of a word that describes an essential quality or attribute of a good leader.
• The correct spelling of the word is 'characteristics'.
• 'Characteristics' is a noun that means 'distinguishing traits or qualities of a person, thing, or group.'

Correct Sentence: "One of the main characteristics of a good leader is integrity."

Additional Information

• Other options and their errors:
• Option 1: 'characteristicks' - Incorrect due to the addition of 'k' in 'ticks.'
• Option 2: 'caracteristics' - Incorrect due to the omission of 'h' in 'char.' The correct spelling starts with 'char.'
• Option 4: 'charactaristics' - Incorrect due to the misspelling of the vowel 'a' in 'tar.' The correct form is 'ter.'
• It is important to note the correct spelling and pronunciation of commonly used words to avoid errors in communication.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Concensus'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Consensus'.
• The word 'Consensus' is a noun which means 'general agreement or harmony'. (आम सहमति)
• For Example -
• The committee reached a consensus on the budget proposal.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Concensus'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Facsimile - an exact copy, especially of written or printed material (प्रतिलिपि)
• Harass - to bother or torment persistently (परेशान करना)
• Eloquent - fluent or persuasive in speaking or writing (प्रभावशाली)

The correct answer is 'causes'.

 

Key Points

• The subject "water" is singular, so the verb must be singular as well.
• "Causes" is the correct present tense, third person singular form to match the subject "water".
• The sentence refers to a general fact, so the simple present tense is appropriate.
• Other options ("is causing", "cause", "caused") do not fit the sentence structure and tense.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Sentence: One source of copper contamination is “black water,” a term describing water that causes visible discoloration from corroded pipes or other contaminants.

 

Additional Information

• Is causing: Incorrect, as the sentence requires a simple present tense verb.
• Cause: Incorrect, as it does not agree with the singular subject "water".
• Caused: Incorrect, as it is past tense and does not fit the present context.

The correct answer is 'constitute'.

 

Key Points

• The subject is "inadequate infrastructure and low public awareness," which is a compound (plural) subject.
• "Constitute" is the plural form of the verb, matching the plural subject.
• The sentence refers to a general present situation, so the simple present tense is appropriate.
• Other options ("constitutes", "constituted", "constituting") do not fit the subject-verb agreement or tense required in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Sentence: Yet in many developing regions, inadequate infrastructure and low public awareness constitute a formidable barrier to effective mitigation.

 

Additional Information

• Constitutes: Incorrect, as it is singular and does not agree with the plural subject.
• Constituted: Incorrect, as it is past tense.
• Constituting: Incorrect, as it is the participle form and does not fit as the main verb.

The correct answer is 'is'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase is "Perhaps most concerning _____ the chronic exposure risks..."
• The correct auxiliary verb is "is" to agree with the singular noun phrase "the chronic exposure risks."
• The structure "Perhaps most concerning is..." highlights what is most worrisome.
• Other options ("were", "was", "are") do not fit the present tense or singular agreement required here.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Sentence: Perhaps most concerning is the chronic exposure risks, particularly for children...

 

Additional Information

• Were: Incorrect, as it is past tense and plural.
• Was: Incorrect, as it is past tense and singular.
• Are: Incorrect, as it is present tense but plural.

The correct answer is 'stringent'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the need for strong enforcement of water quality standards and education to protect human health and ecosystems.
• "Stringent" means strict, precise, and rigorous, which fits the context of enforcement and regulation.
• Other options ("lenient", "fragile", "erratic") do not convey the intended meaning of strict or strong enforcement.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Sentence: Ensuring safe copper levels is not merely technical but a public health imperative, necessitating stringent enforcement of water quality standards and education to protect human health and ecosystems.

 

Additional Information

• Lenient: Incorrect, as it means permissive or not strict.
• Fragile: Incorrect, as it means easily broken or delicate, not relevant to enforcement.
• Erratic: Incorrect, as it means unpredictable or inconsistent.

The correct answer is 'longevity'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses how failing to maintain water infrastructure can compromise its long-term durability and lifespan.
• "Longevity" means the length of time that something lasts, making it the best fit in the context.
• Other options ("vicinity," "sanctity," "density") are unrelated to the idea of duration or lifespan.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Sentence: Failure to act may compromise the long-term longevity of water infrastructure.

 

Additional Information

• Vicinity: Incorrect, relates to location or area, not duration.
• Sanctity: Incorrect, refers to holiness or sacredness.
• Density: Incorrect, refers to concentration or compactness, not lifespan.

The correct answer is - The entire selection is deleted

Key Points

• Delete Key Functionality
• In MS Word, when a specific block of text, image, or object is highlighted, pressing the Delete key removes the entire selection from the document.
• This is a fundamental editing command designed to facilitate the quick removal of unwanted content.
• If no text is selected, the Delete key removes characters one by one to the right of the insertion point (cursor).
• Actions performed by the Delete key can be reversed using the Undo feature or the shortcut Ctrl + Z.

Additional Information

• Backspace Key
• The Backspace key differs from the Delete key as it normally removes characters to the left of the cursor.
• However, if text is selected, pressing Backspace will also result in the removal of the entire selection.
• Text Selection Shortcuts
• Double-clicking a word selects the whole word.
• Triple-clicking within a paragraph selects the entire paragraph.
• The keyboard shortcut Ctrl + A is used to select the entire document content at once.
• Difference between Delete and Cut
• Pressing Delete removes the content without moving it to the Clipboard.
• The Cut command (Ctrl + X) removes the selected text but stores it in the Clipboard so it can be Pasted (Ctrl + V) elsewhere.

The correct answer is - Double-click any Ribbon tab

Key Points

• Double-clicking
• In MS Word, double-clicking any of the active tabs (such as Home, Insert, or Page Layout) acts as a toggle to show or hide the Ribbon.
• When the Ribbon is minimized, only the tab names are visible to provide more screen space for the document.
• Performing this mouse action quickly restores the command groups and icons associated with each tab.

Additional Information

• Keyboard Shortcut
• The primary keyboard shortcut to collapse or expand the Ribbon in Microsoft Office applications is Ctrl + F1.
• Ribbon Display Options
• Located near the top-right corner (next to the Minimize/Close buttons), the Ribbon Display Options icon provides three settings:
• Auto-hide Ribbon: Hides the Ribbon completely until the top of the window is clicked.
• Show Tabs: Displays only the tab names (minimized state).
• Show Tabs and Commands: Keeps the entire Ribbon and all commands visible at all times.
• Context Menu
• Users can also right-click anywhere on the Ribbon or tabs and select or deselect Collapse the Ribbon to change its visibility.

The correct answer is - Transferring a file from a remote server or website to a local device

Key Points

• Downloading
• It is the process of receiving data or a file from a remote system, such as a web server, FTP server, or mail server, to a local device.
• The local device is typically a personal computer, smartphone, or tablet that initiates the request for the data.
• Commonly downloaded items include software applications, multimedia files (images, music, videos), and documents.
• The process requires an active internet connection or network link between the local and remote systems.

Additional Information

• Uploading
• This is the inverse of downloading, where a file is sent from a local device to a remote server.
• Examples include posting photos to social media or sending email attachments.
• Client-Server Model
• In internet usage, the user's device acts as the client, which requests services or data, and the remote computer acts as the server, which stores and provides that data.
• Protocols like HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) are used to manage these transfers.
• Bandwidth and Speed
• Download speed refers to how quickly data is transferred to the local device, usually measured in Mbps (Megabits per second).
• In many consumer internet plans, download speeds are intentionally higher than upload speeds because users typically consume more data than they create.
• Other Data Operations
• Writing data to a CD or DVD is known as burning, which is an offline storage process and distinct from internet-based downloading.

The correct answer is - The Web is extremely large and indexing depends on crawlers discovering

Key Points

• Web Scale and Discovery
• The World Wide Web is vast and constantly expanding, containing billions of interconnected documents, which makes exhaustive indexing a technical challenge.
• Search engines use automated scripts known as crawlers or spiders to follow links from one page to another to discover new content.
• If a web page is not linked from any other discovered page, or if it is behind a login, crawlers may never find it.
• Indexing is the process of storing and organizing the content found during crawling; a page must be indexed before it can appear in search results.

Additional Information

• Search Engine Algorithms
• Search engines use complex algorithms to determine which indexed pages are most relevant to a user's query.
• Algorithms rank pages based on factors like keywords, site authority, and user experience.
• The Deep Web
• The portion of the internet not indexed by standard search engines is known as the Deep Web.
• This includes private databases, paywalled content, and pages blocked by robots.txt files or no-index tags.
• Search Engine Optimization (SEO)
• SEO is the practice of improving a website to increase its visibility when people search for products or services.
• Proper sitemaps and internal linking help crawlers navigate and index a website more effectively.

The correct answer is - Dragging the fill handle while holding Ctrl

Key Points

• Fill Handle
• The fill handle is the small green square located in the bottom-right corner of the selected cell or range.
• When you hover over this handle, the mouse pointer changes to a thin black cross.
• Holding the Ctrl key while dragging the fill handle is a basic shortcut to copy the content of the cell to adjacent cells or to create a linear series.
• This action is part of the AutoFill feature in Microsoft Excel, designed to save time by duplicating data or formulas.

Additional Information

• Moving vs. Copying
• To move a cell's content, you simply drag the border of the cell to a new location without pressing any modifier keys.
• To copy a cell's content to a distant location using the mouse, you must hold the Ctrl key while dragging the cell border.
• Keyboard Shortcuts
• The most common way to copy and paste without using the mouse drag method is using Ctrl + C (Copy) and Ctrl + V (Paste).
• Right-Click Dragging
• If you drag the fill handle or the border using the right mouse button, a context menu appears upon release, offering options such as Copy Cells, Fill Series, or Fill Formatting Only.

The correct answer is - It allows building worksheets where changing input cells instantly updates results, supporting “what-if” analysis

Key Points

• Automatic Recalculation
• Excel features a powerful calculation engine that automatically updates the results of formulas and functions whenever the data in dependent cells is modified.
• This ensures that the information displayed is always current based on the most recent input data.
• It eliminates the risk of manual errors that would occur if users had to recalculate or re-type formulas every time a value changed.
• This functionality is the foundation for dynamic modeling within spreadsheets.
• What-if Analysis
• Understanding automatic recalculation is vital for "what-if" analysis, where users change input variables to observe different potential outcomes.
• It allows for rapid scenario testing and decision-making by providing instant feedback on how changes affect the final results.

Additional Information

• Calculation Options
• By default, Excel is set to Automatic Calculation, but users can switch to Manual Calculation mode.
• Manual mode is often used in very large, complex workbooks to prevent performance lags caused by constant recalculating during data entry.
• In manual mode, the user must press the F9 key to trigger a recalculation of the workbook.
• Cell Referencing
• Recalculation relies on cell references (like A1 or B2) instead of static numbers within formulas.
• Relative references change when a formula is moved, while absolute references (using the $ sign) remain fixed.
• Circular References
• A circular reference occurs when a formula refers back to its own cell, which can prevent automatic recalculation from functioning correctly unless iterative calculation is enabled.

The correct answer is - Gridlines

Key Points

• Gridlines
• Gridlines are the faint horizontal and vertical lines that appear on a worksheet to differentiate cells.
• They serve as a visual guide to help the user identify the boundaries of cells when viewing or editing data on the screen.
• By default, gridlines are non-printing elements; they are visible on the monitor but do not appear on the printed page unless the setting is specifically changed.
• Users can toggle the visibility of gridlines through the View tab or the Page Layout tab in spreadsheet software like Microsoft Excel.

Additional Information

• Page breaks
• These are dividers that break a worksheet into separate pages for printing.
• They help in defining the print area and determining how much data fits on a single physical sheet of paper.
• Headers and footers
• Headers are located at the top margin and footers are at the bottom margin of each printed page.
• They are used to display information such as page numbers, dates, or file names that need to repeat on every page.
• Hyperlinks
• These are clickable elements that direct the user to a web page, another file, or a specific location within the same workbook.
• They are generally used for navigation and external references.
• Borders
• Unlike gridlines, borders are manually applied lines that surround a cell or a range of cells.
• Borders are printable features used to highlight or group specific data for professional presentation.