Official Paper

Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 14 Oct 2022 Shift 1 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Awareness (20 questions)

1

When was NITI Aayog formed to replace the Planning Commission of India?

  1. ((a))

    May 2014

  2. ((b))

    April 2017

  3. ((c))

    May 2015

  4. ((d))

    January 2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

January 2015

The correct answer is January 2015.

Key Points

  • The full form of NITI Aayog is the National Institution for Transforming India.
  • It was established on 1 January 2015, by the NDA Government, to replace the Planning Commission.
  • It is a Non-constitutional and Non-Statutory body.
  • It serves as the apex Public Policy Think Tank and Nodal Agency of the Government of India.
  • Headquarter - New Delhi

Additional Information

  • Composition of NITI Aayog: 
  • Chairman: Narendra Modi (Prime Minister of India)
  • Governing Council: Chief Minister of all States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories.
  • Vice-chairperson : Suman Bery
  • Full-time Members: V.K. Saraswat, Ramesh Chand, V.K. Paul, Arvind Virmani
  • Ex-Officio Members: Amit Shah, Rajnath Singh, Nirmala Sitaraman, Narendra Singh Tomar.
  • Chief Executive Officer (CEO): B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
2

The word ‘budget’ is derived from the word ‘Bougette’. Bougette is a / an ______ word.

  1. ((a))

    German

  2. ((b))

    French

  3. ((c))

    Spanish

  4. ((d))

    Arabic

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

French

The correct answer is French.

Key Points

  • The French word Bougette means little bag.
  • A budget is a calculation plan for a defined period often one year or a month.
  • In India, the budget is prepared by the Ministry of Finance and the current Finance minister is Nirmala Sitaraman.
  • The first budget of India was submitted on 18 February 1860 by James Wilson.
  • P.C. Mahalanobis is known as the Father of the Indian Budget.
  • R.K. Shanmukham Chetty was the First Finance minister of Independent India.
3

The Dhamek stupa is located in which of the following states of India?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Dhamek Stupa is located at Sarnath near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh, India.
  • It was built by Emperor Ashoka.
  • Its shape is cylindrical and made up of red bricks and stones.
  • It is a place where Lord Buddha preached his 1st Sermon to his 5 disciples (Kaudinya, Assaji, Bhaddiya, Vappa, and Mahanama).

Additional Information

  • Madhya Pradesh:
  • The Sanchi Stupa is located in the Raisen district and is also a World Heritage site and the National Emblem of India.
  • The Bharhut Stupa is located in the Satna district.
  • Bihar:
  • ​Buddha attained enlightenment in Bodh Gaya under a Peepal tree and there is Bodhi Temple which is a World Heritage Site.
  • Barabar Caves are Buddhist caves constructed by Emperor Ashoka.
  • Nalanda University is the largest monastery in Buddism and was constructed by Kumar Gupta (Gupta Dynasty).
4

Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty as listed in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    To promote international peace and security

  2. ((b))

    To provide equal justice and free legal aid

  3. ((c))

    To preserve and value the rich heritage of our composite culture

  4. ((d))

    To promote cooperative societies

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To preserve and value the rich heritage of our composite culture

The correct answer is To preserve and value the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Key Points

  • Covered under Article 51-A and Part IV- A of the Indian Constitution.
  • Added to the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.
  • Added on the recommendation of the Swarn Singh Committee, 1976.
  • Originally there were 10 duties, but Art-51A(k) was added by 86th amendment Act, 2002.
  • Fundamental Duties have been borrowed from the Constitution of the USSR.

Eleven Fundamental Duties are as follows:

  • To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institution, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty unity and integrity of India.
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood.
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country.
  • To protect the natural environment including forests.
  • To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres.
  • To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the ages of 6 and 14 years.

Additional InformationCharacteristic features of Fundamental Duties:

  • Some of them are moral duties while others are civic duties.
  • The fundamental duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners.
  • The fundamental duties are non-justiciable.
  • There are no legal sanctions against the violation of fundamental duties.

Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties: This committee was formed in 1999 to point out the legal provisions for the enforcement of certain fundamental duties. These are as follows:

  • The Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act (1971) prevents disrespect to the Constitution of India, the National Flag, and the National Anthem.
  • The Wildlife Protection Act 1972 prohibits trade in rare and endangered species.
  • The Representation of People Act (1951) has provided for the disqualification of members of the Parliament.
5

Makar Sankranti is a festival dedicated to ______.

  1. ((a))

    Saturn

  2. ((b))

    Sun

  3. ((c))

    Stars

  4. ((d))

    Mars

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sun

The correct answer is Sun.

Key Points

  • In the Hindu calendar, Makar Sankranti falls in the month of Paush.
  • The festival of Makar Sankranti is celebrated in India as well as in the neighboring country Nepal.
  • In Tamil Nadu this festival is known as Pongal.
  • In Uttar Pradesh and Western Bihar this festival is known as Khichdi.
  • The organization of the world's largest bathing fair starts from this day on the banks of confluence of Ganga, Yamuna and Saraswati in Prayagraj.

Additional InformationMajor Festivals of India:

StateFestivals
Andra PradeshDeccan, Dussehra, Ugadi, Brahma-Mahotsav
Arunachal PradeshMayoko, Dri, Solang, Pongtu, Buri Boot,

Murung, Mopin, Losar, Reh, Monpa festivals
AasamBaishagu, Ambubachi, Dehing Patkai, Bhogali Bihu,
BiharChhath Puja, Bihul, Madhushravani
ChhatishgarhNagahi Dussehra, Magahi Purnima
GoaLaden, Mando, Sunburn Fest,
GujratKutch Utsav, Navratri, Janmashtami
HariyanaBaisakhi
Himanchal PradeshGochi Festival, Rakhdumani
JharkhandHoli, Rohini, Tusu, Karam Utsav
Jammu-kashmirmany fairs, Har Navami, Chhedi, Dosmache
KarnatakUgadi, Mysore Dussehra
KerelaVishu, Kerala Onam
Madhy PradeshKhajuraho Festival, Tejaji, Folk-Color Festival
MaharashtraGudi Padwa, Ganesh Utsav
MizoramChapcharkoti Festival
MeghalayaNongkrim, Sajibu, Changla, Cheiraoba Festival
ManipurChawang Kut, Yaoshang, Porag
NagalandHornbill, Motsu Festival
OrissaRath Yatra, Parab, Nukahai
PunjabLohadi, Baisakhi
RajasthanTeej, Bundi, Gangaur
SikkimLosar, Saga Dawa
Tamil NaduPongal, Natyanjali, Thaipusam, Festivals
TelanganaBonalu, Bathukamma
Tripurakharchi pooja
UttarakhandGanga Dussehra
Uttar PradeshRam Navami, Navratri Festival, Ganga Festival
West BengalDurga puja
6

As per the Union Budget 2022-23, ‘one class, one TV’ under the PM eVIDYA program is proposed to be expanded from 12 to ______ TV channels.

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    200

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    150

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

200

The correct answer is 200.

Key Points

  • PM e-Vidya is a comprehensive initiative launched that unifies all efforts related to digital education and enables multi-mode access to education.
  • This will benefit 25 crore schools going children across the country.
  • The number of TV channels will be increased from 12 to 200 TV channels.
  • This will enable all States to provide additional education in local languages for classes 1-12.

 Additional Information

Other Initiatives taken by the government to boost Online Education:

  • Operation Digital Board: To deliver smart classroom accommodations to all schools with secondary and senior secondary classes.
  • Shagun: To expand the school education system by creating a junction for all online portals and websites.
  • National Digital Library of India: To make digital educational resources available to all citizens of the country.
  • Shodhganga: To provide a digital repository for research scholars across Universities and Institutes.

Major Focus in Budget 2022-23:

  • PM GatiShakti: The seven engines that drive PM GatiShakti are Roads, Railways, Airports, Ports, Mass Transport, Waterways and Logistics Infrastructure.
  • Inclusive Development:
  • Productivity Enhancement and Investment, Sunrise opportunities, Energy Transition, and Climate Action.
  • Financing of investments
7

In December 2021, the EPFO has onboarded the employees of which of the following institutions under disinvestment?

  1. ((a))

    Central Electronics Ltd

  2. ((b))

    Allahabad Bank

  3. ((c))

    Air India

  4. ((d))

    PMC bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Air India

The correct answer is Air India.

Key Points

  • EPFO onboarded Air India for social security benefits.
  • The social security benefits will be provided to around 7,453 employees.
  • Air India as a government institution was covered under the PF Act of 1925 where the contributions to the provident fund were at 10% by the employer and 10% by the employees.

Additional Information

  • Central Electronics Limited is a Government of India Enterprise under the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR).
  • Allahabad Bank was an Indian nationalised bank with headquarter in Kolkata, founded in 1865 in Allahabad. It was merged with Indian Bank in 2020.
  • PMC (Punjab & Maharashtra Co-operative) Bank is a multi-state co-operative bank with headquarter in Mumbai, founded in 1984. It is regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
8

India’s first indigenously developed quadrivalent Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine developed by Serum Institute of India in partnership with Department of Biotechnology was launched in September 2022 for the prevention of which type of cancer?

  1. ((a))

    Thyroid Cancer

  2. ((b))

    Ovarian Cancer

  3. ((c))

    Colon Cancer

  4. ((d))

    Cervical Cancer

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cervical Cancer

The correct answer is Cervical Cancer.

Key Points

  • Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh  announces India's first indigenously developed vaccine, "CERVAVAC"  for the prevention of cervical cancer in September 2022.
  • The vaccine was launched by Home Minister Amit Shah at IIC Delhi on Jan 24 2023.

Additional Information

  • The CERVAVAC is an outcome of a partnership between SII, DBT and BIRAC along with the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
  • Cervical Cancer in India ranks as the second most frequent cancer among women between 15 and 44 years of age.
  • Cervical cancer is a malignant tumour of the lower most part of the uterus (womb) that can be prevented by PAP smear screening and a HPV vaccine.
TypeAbout
Thyroid CancerThyroid cancer is a growth of cells that starts from thyroid, a butterfly shaped gland located at the base of the neck.
Ovarian CancerOvarian cancer is a growth of cells that forms in ovaries.
Colon CancerColon or Colorectal cancer is a growth of cells that forms in the lower end of the digestive tract. Most of these cancers starts as non-cancerous growths called polyps.
9

In July 2022, where did the Ministry of life sciences successfully demonstrated 3 desalination plants based on the low temperature thermal desalination technology for conversion of sea water to potable water?

  1. ((a))

    Lakshadweep Islands

  2. ((b))

    Andaman Island

  3. ((c))

    Bhavani Island

  4. ((d))

    Nicobar Island

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lakshadweep Islands

The correct answer is Lakshadweep Islands.

​ 

Key Points

  • 3 desalination plants have been installed and demonstrated at Kawaratti, Agati and Minicoy Islands of Lakshadweep.
  • Each of these 3 plants has the capacity of 1 Lakh litre of potable water per day.
  • Lakshadweep has target to establishing 6 more LTTD plants at Amini, Chetlet, Kadmat, Androth, Kiltan and Kalpeni islands.

Additional Information

  • The desalination Plant is based on Low Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) technology.
  • The LTTD technology converts the salt or saline water into potable drinking water.
  • The LTTD technology was suitable for Lakshadweep islands, because there is a temperature difference of 15 degree Celsius between sea surface water and deep-sea water, as required by the technology.
10

Who among the following later came to be known as Sher Shah Suri?

  1. ((a))

    Aadil

  2. ((b))

    Nasir

  3. ((c))

    Salim

  4. ((d))

    Farid

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Farid

The correct answer is Farid.

Key Points

  • Previously Sher-shah Suri was known as Farid Kha.
  • In 1540 Sher-shah defeated Humayun in the Battle of Kanauj.
  • He was known for his contribution to public administration and the land revenue system.
  • Sher-shah introduced Rupee(Silver Coin) and Dam(Copper Coin).
  • Introduced Qabuliyat and Patta system.
  • Sher-shah introduced a postal system using horses.
  • Build Grand Trunk Road which connects Bengal in the east and Peshawar in the west.
  • Brahmajit Gaur a Brahmin was general of Sher-shah's army.
  • Sher-shah's tomb is located in Shasharam(Bihar).

Additional Information

  • Sher-shah established the second Afghan Empire in Delhi.
  • The period 1540 to 1555 is known as the Temporary Eclipse of the Mughal Empire.
  • Sher-shah renamed Din-panha to Shergarh.
  • Sher-shah died in an explosion in 1544 while he was raiding the Kalinjar Fort.

Sher Shah Suri and Grand Trunk Road - Observer Voice

11

Who among the following Viceroys of Portuguese India captured Goa in 1510?

  1. ((a))

    Afonso de Albuquerque

  2. ((b))

    Martim Alfonso de Sousa

  3. ((c))

    D Francisco de Almeida

  4. ((d))

    D Estevao da Gama

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Afonso de Albuquerque

The correct answer is Afonso de Albuquerque.

Key Points

  • He was the second governor of the Portuguese in India.
  • He is called the real founder of the Portuguese power in India.
  • In 1510 he defeated Adil Shah the sultan of Bijapur and captured Goa from him.
  • He built a fort in Coachin and made it headquarters.

Additional Information

  • The Portuguese were the first to come to India and the last one to leave India in 1961.
  • Vasco-Da-Gama was the first Portuguese who came to India for trading in 1498 in Calicut.
  • The first Portuguese governor was Francisco De-Almeida, who introduced the Blue Water Policy.
  • Chronology Shortcut:
PPortuguese(1498)
DDutch(1605)
EEngland(1608)
FFrench(1668)
12

In which year did the Suresh Tendulkar Committee submit its report?

  1. ((a))

    2008

  2. ((b))

    2010

  3. ((c))

    2007

  4. ((d))

    2009

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2009

The Suresh Tendulkar Committee submitted the report in 2009.

Key Points

  • Tendulkar Committee
  • This committee was set up in 2005 by the Planning Commission, and submitted the report in 2009 and chaired by Mr Suresh Tendulkar.
  • The main objective of this committee was to review the Estimate The Poverty In India methodology.
  • Currently, the poverty measurement in India is done based on the Tendulkar committee recommendations.
  • Other Committee which are also related to Poverty Estimation are
  • Ragarajan Committee.
  • Lakdawala Committee.
  • According to the Tendulkar Committee, 21.9% of the total population of India lives below the poverty line.
  • | Area | Per Capita Consumptions | | --- | --- | | Rural Areas | ₹27 per day (₹816 per month) | | Urban Areas | ₹33 per day (₹1000 per month) |
13

In September 2021, which of the following State Governments have launched T - FACE (Fabless Accelerator through Cloud Enablement), a virtual incubation platform for supporting start - ups in the very large - scale integration (VLSI) and fabless chip designing?

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Telangana

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

  • The Telangana government has launched the Startup Telangana Portal, a one-stop platform for the state's startup ecosystem.
  • It also launched T-FACE (Fabless Accelerator through Cloud Enablement), a virtual incubation platform for supporting startups in the VLSI (Very Large-Scale Integration) and fabless chip designing space.
  • Telangana aims to double its IT exports from Rs. 1.45 lakh crore to Rs. 3 lakh crore.
  • And also increase the number of IT jobs from around 6.28 lakh to over 10 lakh by 2025-26.

Additional Information

  • The Karnataka Startup Policy 2022 aims to set up a Rs 100-crore venture capital fund to support emerging innovative and deep-tech startups.
  • Tamil Nadu CM MK Stalin released the revamped ‘Tamil Nadu Startup and Innovation Policy 2023’, which has over 50 action points to help the state become a leading start-up ecosystem.
  • Andhra Pradesh's TARAMANDAL Wins Top Space Startup Award in 2023.
14

Under the amended RBI Act, the Monetary Policy Committee should meet how many times in a year, at the minimum?

  1. ((a))

    Four times

  2. ((b))

    Six times

  3. ((c))

    Thrice

  4. ((d))

    Twice

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four times

The correct answer is Four times.

Key Points

  • The meetings of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be held at least 4 times a year and it shall publish its decisions after each such meeting.
  • The Government, in consultation with RBI, has notified the inflation targetFour percent, Upper tolerance levelSix percent, Lower tolerance levelTwo percent.
  • According to the RBI Act, out of the six Members of the Monetary Policy Committee, three Members will be from the RBI and the other three Members of the MPC will be appointed by the Central Government.
  • The primary objective of the RBI’s monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the **objective of growth.**​

Additional Information

  • Monetary Policy Committee
  • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a committee constituted by the central government and headed by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • It was formed to fix the benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) to control inflation within the particular target level.
  • MPC was constituted under the Reserve Bank of India Act,1934.
  • MPC consists of the following six members.
  • ​RBI
  • The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in reference to the Reserve Bank of India Act,1934.
  • It is the central bank of India.
  • Shri Shaktikanta Das is the present Governor of RBI.
  • It is the regulator and supervisor of the Financial System of India.
  • RBI Regulation Act 1934
  • ​Reserve Bank of India Act,1934 is the legislative act under which the Reserve Bank of India was formed.
  • This act along with the Companies Act, which was amended in 1936, was meant to provide a framework for the supervision of the banking sector in India.
15

Who among the following was the Guru of Swami Vivekananda?

  1. ((a))

    Ramakrishna Paramahansa

  2. ((b))

    Mahavdev Govind Ranade

  3. ((c))

    Dayanand Saraswati

  4. ((d))

    Bal Shastri Jambhekar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ramakrishna Paramahansa

The correct answer is Ramakrishna Paramahansa.

Key Points

  • Swami Vivekananda received philosophical and social teachings from his spiritual teacher Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
  • He was the priest of Kali mandir in Calcutta.
  • He believed in the equality of all religions and emphasized Dhyana and Bhakti to attain Moksha.
  • After his demise, his chief disciple Swami Vivekananda popularized his ideas and founded the **Ramakrishna Math.**​

Additional Information

PersonalityAbout
Mahadev Govind Ranade- An Indian scholar, social reformer, judge, and author. - One of the founding members of the Indian National Congress party.
Dayanand Saraswati- Indian philosopher, social leader. - founder of the Arya Samaj.
Bal Shastri Jambhekar- Father of Marathi journalism. - Started the first Marathi newspaper in the language named 'Darpan'.
16

In 2021, the world's largest cricket stadium, Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad hosted its first international match as India played ______ in the third Test.

  1. ((a))

    South Africa

  2. ((b))

    Australia

  3. ((c))

    New Zealand

  4. ((d))

    England

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

England

The correct answer is England

In News

  • The Narendra Modi Stadium will host the final of the 2023 ICC World Cup.

Key Points

  • The Narendra Modi Stadium hosted the first Test match on February 24, 2021, with home side India taking on England.
  • it was also its first-ever day-night test game.
  • In 2022, the opening ceremony of the 36th National Games was held inside It.
  • It is located in Motera, Ahmedabad, Gujarat.

​​

17

Which state in India has the highest percent share of maize production to that of all India (million tonnes) in 2020-21?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Himachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Karnataka

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points 

  • States with the highest percent share of maize production in India, 2020-21 are:
  • ​Madhya Pradesh (24.7%)
  • Rajasthan (22.3%)
  • Karnataka (20.0%)
  • Andhra Pradesh (17.6%)
  • Uttar Pradesh (15.3%)
  • In the given question Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan are not available as an option, so Karnataka will be the right answer.

Important Points

  • ​ Maize is a staple food crop for millions of people around the world.
  • It is a good source of carbohydrates, protein, and dietary fiber.
  • India is the seventh-largest producer of maize in the world, accounting for about 2.2% of global production.
  • The average maize yield in India is around 2.5 tons per hectare.
  • Maize is grown in both kharif (summer monsoon) and rabi (winter) seasons in India.
  • The major maize varieties grown in India are Ganga-101, Deccan-102, and Prabhat.

Additional Information

  • The Government of India implements several schemes to promote the production and consumption of maize:
  • National Food Security Mission (NFSM): The NFSM provides financial assistance to farmers for the production of maize and other crops.
  • Maize Development Program (MDP): The MDP aims to increase the productivity of maize through the provision of inputs, training, and extension services to farmers.
  • Price Support Scheme (PSS): The PSS provides a minimum support price to farmers for their maize produce.
  • The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets.
18

In which year was the Rangarajan committee formed to focus on poverty estimation activities In India?

  1. ((a))

    2010

  2. ((b))

    2012

  3. ((c))

    2011

  4. ((d))

    2008

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2012

The correct answer is 2012.

Key Points

  • Formation Year: 2012
  • Chairman: Dr. C. Rangarajan
  • Objective: To review the methodology for poverty estimation and recommend changes, if necessary.
  • Recommendations accepted by the Government in 2014.

Important Points

  • Recommended updating the poverty line using the Tendulkar Committee methodology.
  • Suggested separate poverty lines for rural and urban areas.
  • The poverty line is estimated as Monthly Per Capita Expenditure of Rs. 1407 in urban areas and Rs. 972 in rural areas.
  • Advocated a more comprehensive and multidimensional approach to poverty measurement.
  • Emphasized the need to include health and education indicators in poverty estimation.
  • Proposed a higher poverty line, leading to an increase in the estimated number of poor in India.

Additional Information

  • Poverty committees formed in India:
  • Lakdawala Committee (1993) - President: D. T. Lakdawala
  • Tendulkar Committee (2005) - President: Suresh Tendulkar
  • Rangarajan Committee (2012) - President: C. Rangarajan
  • Arvind Subramanian Committee (2019) - President: Arvind Subramanian
19

Yamini Reddy, daughter of Raja Radha Reddy and Kaushalya Reddy is a ______ dancer.

  1. ((a))

    Manipuri

  2. ((b))

    Kuchipudi

  3. ((c))

    Bharatanatyam

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kuchipudi

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

In News

  • Yamini Reddy recently performed at the Nita Mukesh Ambani Cultural Centre in Mumbai on August 5.

Key Points

  • Kuchipudi is believed to have originated in the 17th century.
  • It is named after the village of Kuchipudi in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Kuchipudi was traditionally performed by male dancers, but today it is performed by both men and women.
  • The dance form is accompanied by a variety of musical instruments, including the veena, the mridangam, and the nattuvangam.
  • Some famous Kuchipudi dancers are Raja and Radha Reddy, Swapna Sundari, Vempati Chinna Satyam, and T. Krishnamacharyulu.

Important Points

  • Here are some of the important features of Kuchipudi dance:
  • Nritta (pure dance): This aspect of Kuchipudi dance focuses on the technical aspects of the dance, such as rhythm, footwork, and movement.
  • Nritya (expressive dance): This aspect of Kuchipudi dance focuses on the storytelling and expressive elements of the dance.
  • Natya (drama): This aspect of Kuchipudi dance focuses on the theatrical elements of the dance, such as acting, dialogue, and costumes.

Additional Information

  • Here is a list of the eight classical dance forms that got the status of shastriya dance:
  • Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu)
  • Kathak (Uttar Pradesh)
  • Kathakali (Kerala)
  • Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh)
  • Manipuri (Manipur)
  • Mohiniyattam (Kerala)
  • Odissi (Odisha)
  • Sattriya (Assam)
20

The Ganga, the Brahmaputra and their tributaries contribute in the formation of the Sundarban Delta. Which group of rivers do NOT contribute in the formation of the delta?

  1. ((a))

    Yamuna and Ghaghara

  2. ((b))

    Chambal and Betwa

  3. ((c))

    Gandak and Kosi

  4. ((d))

    Narmada and Tapi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Narmada and Tapi

The correct answer is Narmada and Tapi.

Key Points

  • East Flowing Rivers
  • The east-flowing rivers drain into the Bay of Bengal.
  • These rivers tend to form a delta on the eastern coast.
  • These rivers have a developed and large tributary system.
  • Eastern rivers flow through broken hills and are widened and flow with lesser velocity before draining into the sea.
  • So, they deposit sediments and silt before draining into the sea which forms a Delta.
  • The major east-flowing rivers are the Ganga, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Mahanadi, etc.

Additional Information

  • West Flowing Rivers-
  • The West-flowing rivers drain into the Arabian Sea.
  • These rivers form estuaries.
  • These rivers do not have a developed tributary system.
  • The west-flowing rivers flow through hard rocks on their way and are unable to collect silt.
  • These hard rocks prevent them from widening their mouths into the sea. Hence, they form estuaries.
  • The major west-flowing rivers are Narmada and Tapi.

Important Points 

  • Chambal, Betwa are tributaries of Yamuna.
  • Ghaghara, Yamuna, Gandhak and Kosi are tributaries of Ganga.

Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions)

21

What is the principal value of the amount of Rs. 9,261 payable in 3 years at the rate of 5% compound annual interest?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 8,739

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 9,739

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 8,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 9,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 8,000

Given:

Amount = Rs 9,261

Time = 3 years

Rate = 5% p.a.

Concept Used:

Amount = P[1+r100]t[1+\frac{r}{100}]^t

Calculation:

⇒ Putting the values in the formula,

⇒ 9261 = P[1+5100]3\left[1+\frac{5}{100}\right]^3

⇒ 9261 = P × 105100×105100×105100\frac{105}{100}\times \frac{105}{100}\times \frac{105}{100}

⇒ P = 9261×100×100×100105×105×105\frac{9261\times 100\times 100\times 100}{105\times 105\times 105} = Rs 8,000

Therefore, the principal amount is Rs 8,000.

22

The simplified form of 16+112+120+130\frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{{12}} + \frac{1}{{20}} + \frac{1}{{30}} is:

  1. ((a))

    14\frac{1}{4}

  2. ((b))

    13\frac{1}{3}

  3. ((c))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  4. ((d))

    15\frac{1}{5}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

13\frac{1}{3}

Given:

16+112+120+130\frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{{12}} + \frac{1}{{20}} + \frac{1}{{30}}

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 6, 12, 20 and 30 = 180

⇒ 16+112+120+130\frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{{12}} + \frac{1}{{20}} + \frac{1}{{30}} = 30+15+9+6180\frac{30+15+9+6}{180}

⇒ 30+15+9+6180\frac{30+15+9+6}{180} = 60180=13\frac{60}{180}=\frac{1}{3}

Therefore, the simplified value of the fraction is 13\frac{1}{3}.

23

The parallel sides of an isosceles trapezium are 20 cm and 34 cm. If the one of the non - parallel sides has length 25 cm, what is the area (in cm2) of the trapezium?

  1. ((a))

    729 cm2

  2. ((b))

    675 cm2

  3. ((c))

    648 cm2

  4. ((d))

    596 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

648 cm2

Given:

Parallel sides of isosceles trapezium = 20 cm and 34 cm

Non-parallel side length = 25 cm

Concept Used:

Area of Trapezium = 1/2 (a + b) × h, 

where a & b are the lengths of parallel sides, 

H is the perpendicular

Calculation:

Drawing perpendicular lines from opposite vertices on the opposite side, 

In Δ BQC, applying Pythagoras' theorem, 

⇒ BC2 = BQ2 + QC2

⇒ 25=  BQ2 +  72

⇒ BQ2 = 625 - 49 = 576

⇒ BQ = √576 = 24

Using the formula, 

⇒ 1/2 (20 + 34) × 24

⇒ 54 × 12 

⇒ 648

∴ The area of the Trapezium is 648cm2

24

Two circles touches each other externally at any point X. AB is the simple common tangent to both the circles touching the circles at point A and point B. If the radius of the circles are 16 cm and 4 cm, respectively, then the length of AB is:

  1. ((a))

    16 cm

  2. ((b))

    64 cm

  3. ((c))

    256 cm

  4. ((d))

    8 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16 cm

Given:

Two circles touch each other externally whose radius are 16 cm & 4 cm.

Concept used:

If two circles of radius r1 & r2 touch each other externally then the length of a simple common tangent is  2×r1r22× √{r_1 r_2} 

Calculation: 

The radius of the circles are 16 cm and 4 cm

Then, the simple common tangent AB is

⇒ 2×4×162× √{4× 16} 

⇒ 2 × √ 64

⇒ 16 

∴ The length of AB is 16 cm

25

The product of the two numbers is 800 and their HCF is 20. Find the LCM of the numbers.

  1. ((a))

    4.0

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

40

Given:

Product of two numbers = 800

HCF = 20

Concept Used:

HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers

Calculation:

⇒ Putting the values in the equation, we get

⇒ 20 × LCM = 800

⇒ LCM = 80020\frac{800}{20} = 40

Therefore, the LCM of the numbers is 40.

26

The square of the third proportional of 36 and 12 is ______.

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16

Shortcut Trick

Third Proportional of a and b is given by b2 ÷ a.

Here, a = 36 and b = 12.

Third Proportional = (12 × 12) ÷ 36 = 144 ÷ 36 = 4.

Square of the third proportional = 42 = 16.

∴ The correct answer is 16.

Alternate Method

Given: First number (a) = 36, Second number (b) = 12.

Formula Used: If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then a : b = b : c, where c is the third proportional.

⇒ 36 ÷ 12 = 12 ÷ x

⇒ 3 = 12 ÷ x

⇒ x = 12 ÷ 3 = 4

⇒ Required value = (Third Proportional)2

⇒ Required value = 42 = 16

∴ The correct answer is 16.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is √(a × b).

Fourth Proportional

If four numbers a, b, c, d are in proportion (a : b = c : d), then d = (b × c) ÷ a is the fourth proportional.

Duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is a2 : b2.

27

If (3x2+12x2)\left( {3{x^2} + \frac{1}{{2{x^2}}}} \right) = 2.5, what is the value of (27x6+18x6)\left( {27{x^6} + \frac{1}{{8{x^6}}}} \right)?

  1. ((a))

    5.125

  2. ((b))

    6.275

  3. ((c))

    3.325

  4. ((d))

    4.375

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4.375

Given:

3x2 + 1/ 2x2 = 2.5 

Formula used:

(a3 + b3) = (a + b)3 - 3ab(a + b)

Calculation:

⇒ (2.5)3 -  3×3x22x2×2.53\times \frac{3x^2}{2x^2}\times 2.5

⇒ 15.625 - 11.25

⇒ 4.375

∴ The answer is 4.375.

28

A solid sphere is cut through its centre into two equal parts. What is the total surface area of each part, if the radius of the sphere is 7 cm?

  1. ((a))

    154 cm2

  2. ((b))

    231 cm2

  3. ((c))

    462 cm2

  4. ((d))

    308 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

462 cm2

Given:

Radius of sphere = 7 cm

Concept Used:

Area of hemisphere = 3πr23\pi r^2

Calculation:

⇒ As sphere is cut into two halves, it becomes hemisphere.

⇒ Area of hemisphere = 3 × 227\frac{22}{7} × 7 × 7

⇒ Area of hemisphere = 66 × 7 = 462 cm2

Therefore, the total surface area of each part of the sphere is 462 cm2.

29

A shopkeeper sold an electric fan for Rs. 1,800 and gained a profit of Rs. 200 at 10% discount. What would have been his profit if no discount had been given?

  1. ((a))

    222922\frac{2}{9}%

  2. ((b))

    27%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25%

Given:

SP of an electric fan = Rs 1,800

Profit = Rs 200

Discount = 10%

Calculation:

⇒ Cost Price = 1800 – 200 = Rs 1,600

⇒ Let the printed value be x.

⇒ Selling Price = Printed Value – Discount

⇒ 1800 = x – 10% of x

⇒ 1800 = x – 10x100\frac{10x}{100} = 10xx10\frac{10x-x}{10} = 9x10\frac{9x}{10}

⇒ x = 1800×109=2000\frac{1800\times 10}{9}=2000

⇒ When no discount is given, Profit = Printed Value – Cost Price

⇒ Profit = 2000 – 1600 = Rs 400

⇒ Profit % = 4001600×100\frac{400}{1600}\times 100 = 25%

Therefore, the profit percentage when no discount is given is 25%.

30

In class 12, R has two language subjects and three science subjects. His average marks in the language subjects are 65 and his overall average marks are 72. What are his average marks in the science subjects?

  1. ((a))

    82.5

  2. ((b))

    76.67

  3. ((c))

    77.67

  4. ((d))

    79

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

76.67

Given:

Number of language subjects = 2

Number of science subjects = 3

Average marks in language subjects = 65

Overall average marks = 72

Concept Used:

Average = Sum of all observations / Total number of observations

Calculation:

⇒ Total marks in language subjects = 65 × 2 = 130

⇒ Let the total marks in science subjects be x.

⇒ Overall average = 130+x3+2=130+x5\frac{130+x}{3+2}=\frac{130+x}{5}

⇒ 72 × 5 = 130 + x

⇒ x = 360 – 130 = 230

⇒ Average marks in science subjects = 2303\frac{230}{3} = 76.67

Therefore, the average marks in science subject is 76.67.

31

3 men and 8 women can complete a work in 758\frac{{75}}{8} days, while 9 men and 12 women can complete it in 257\frac{{25}}{7} days. In how many days will 15 women complete it?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

20

Given:

3 Men and 8 Women take total 75/8 days to complete the task

9 Men and 12 Women take total 25/7 days to complete the task

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ (3M + 8W) × 75/8 = (9M + 12W) × 25/7

⇒ 225M8+75W=225M7+300W7\frac{225M}{8}+75W=\frac{225M}{7}+\frac{300W}{7}

⇒ 72 W = 9 M

⇒ M : W = 8:1

⇒ Total Work = [(9 × 8) + (12 × 1)] × 25/7

⇒ 84 × 25/7 = 300

⇒ 300 = 15 W

⇒ W = 20.

Therefore, 15 women will complete the work in 20 days.

32

​The present worth of Rs 2,652 payable in two equal half-yearly installments at 4% per annum simple interest is?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2,575

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2,435

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2,875

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2,654

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 2,575

Given:-

Present value =  2,652 Rs

<br>

Rate of interest = 4% 

<br>

The formula used:- 

<br>

Instalments (required sum ) 

<br>

= P.V. of Rs. due 6 months + P.V. of Rs. due 1 year hence two

<br>

Equal half-yearly instalments rate of interest first 6 month 

<br>

⇒ (r / 2) = 4 / 2 = 2 %

<br>

And the last 6-month rate of interest = 4 %

<br>

For Equal half-yearly instalments Present value

<br>

⇒ PV / 2 = 2652 / 2 =1326

<br>

Calculation:- 

Required sum

= P.V. of Rs. 1326 due 6 months + P.V. of Rs. 1326 due 1 year

<br>

Hence = 1326×100100+4×12\frac {1326 \times 100}{100+4\times\frac {1}{2} } + 1326×100100+4×1\frac {1326 \times 100}{100+4\times1 } 

<br>

⇒ (1326×100)(1102+1104)(1326\times100)(\frac {1}{102 } + \frac {1}{104} ) 

<br>

⇒ (1326×100×206)102×104\frac {(1326\times100\times206)}{102\times104}  

<br>

⇒ Rs. 2,575 ( Installments ) 

<br>

∴ The required value is 2575.

Alternate MethodFormula used:

PV = PV of 1326 for 6 months + PV of 1326 for 1 year

PV = A × 100100 + r × t+A × 100100 + r × t\frac{A \space \times \space 100} {100 \space + \space r \space \times \space t} + \frac{A \space \times \space 100} {100 \space + \space r \space \times \space t}

Calculation:

Since 2,652 is payable in two equal half-yearly instalments,

Amount (A) = 2652/2 = 1326

⇒ PV =  1326 × 100100 + 4 × 1/2+1326 × 100100 + 4 × 1\frac{1326 \space \times \space 100} {100 \space + \space 4 \space \times \space 1/2} + \frac{1326 \space \times \space 100} {100 \space + \space 4 \space \times \space 1}

⇒ 1300 + 1275

⇒ 2575

33

Evaluate the following expression in terms of trigonometric ratios.

cot2A(secA1)1+sinA\frac{{co{t^2}A\left( {secA - 1} \right)}}{{1 + sinA}}

  1. ((a))

    cot2A(1sinA)(1secA)\frac{{co{t^2}A\left( {1 - sinA} \right)}}{{\left( {1 - secA} \right)}}

  2. ((b))

    cot2A(1+sinA)(1secA)\frac{{co{t^2}A\left( {1 + sinA} \right)}}{{\left( {1 - secA} \right)}}

  3. ((c))

    sec2A(1sinA)(1+secA)\frac{{se{c^2}A\left( {1 - sinA} \right)}}{{\left( {1 + secA} \right)}}

  4. ((d))

    sec2A(1+sinA)(1secA)\frac{{se{c^2}A\left( {1 + sinA} \right)}}{{\left( {1 - secA} \right)}}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

sec2A(1sinA)(1+secA)\frac{{se{c^2}A\left( {1 - sinA} \right)}}{{\left( {1 + secA} \right)}}

Given:- 

<br>

 cot2A(secA1)1+sinA\frac{{co{t^2}A\left( {secA - 1} \right)}}{{1 + sinA}}

<br>

Formula used:-  

1 + tan2 A = Sec

<br>

Cot A = 1 / tanA ,

<br>

Sec A = 1 / Cos A

<br>

[ A2 -B2 = ( A+B )(A - B)]

<br>

cos2A + sin2A  =1 [ cosA =1 -  sin2A  , ⇒  cos2 A = (1 + sin A )( 1 - sin A ) ⇒ 1(1+SinA)1 \over (1+ Sin A) =(1SinA)Cos2A (1 - Sin A)\over Cos^2A ]

<br>

Calculation:-

<br>

⇒  cot2A(secA1)1+sinA\frac{{co{t^2}A\left( {secA - 1} \right)}}{{1 + sinA}}

<br>

(secA1)(1+sinA)tan2A\frac{{\left( {secA - 1} \right)}}{{(1 + sinA)ta{n^2}A }}                     [ ∵  cot A = 1 / tanA ]

<br>

⇒ (secA1)(1+sinA)(sec2A1)\frac{{\left( {secA - 1} \right)}}{{(1 + sinA)(se{c^2}A-1) }}                      [  ∵ 1 + tan2 A = Sec2 A   ⇒ tan2 A = Sec2 A  - 1 ]

<br>

⇒ (1)(1+sinA)(secA+1)\frac{{\left( 1 \right)}}{{(1 + sinA)(se{c}A+1) }}                 [ ∵ Sec2 A -1 = ( Sec A  + 1)(Sec A - 1) ]

   

<br>

⇒ (1SinA)(Cos2A)(1+SecA) (1 - Sin A)\over (Cos^2A)(1+Sec A)                   [ ∵  1(1+SinA)1 \over (1+ Sin A) (1SinA)Cos2A (1 - Sin A)\over Cos^2A  ]

<br>

⇒ sec2A(1sinA)(1+secA)\frac{{se{c^2}A\left( {1 - sinA} \right)}}{{\left( {1 + secA} \right)}}

<br>

∴ The required answer is sec2A(1sinA)(1+secA)\frac{{se{c^2}A\left( {1 - sinA} \right)}}{{\left( {1 + secA} \right)}}

<br>

Additional Information ⇒ cos2A + sin2A  = 1

<br>

⇒ cos2 A = 1 -  sin2A  ,

<br>

⇒ cos2 A = (1 + sin A )( 1 - sin A ) 

<br>

⇒ 1(1+SinA)1 \over (1+ Sin A) =(1SinA)Cos2A (1 - Sin A)\over Cos^2A

34

The value of x2+8x+162x2×x21x2+5x+4\frac{{{x^2} + 8x + 16}}{{2x - 2}} \times \frac{{{x^2} - 1}}{{{x^2} + 5x + 4}}, when x = 2022 is ______.

  1. ((a))

    1011

  2. ((b))

    1013

  3. ((c))

    1012

  4. ((d))

    1000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1013

Given:

x2+8x+162x2×x21x2+5x+4\frac{{{x^2} + 8x + 16}}{{2x - 2}} \times \frac{{{x^2} - 1}}{{{x^2} + 5x + 4}}

x = 2022

Calculation:

⇒ Factorizing by splitting the middle terms, we get

⇒ x2+8x+162x2×x21x2+5x+4\frac{{{x^2} + 8x + 16}}{{2x - 2}} \times \frac{{{x^2} - 1}}{{{x^2} + 5x + 4}} = x2+4x+4x+162x2×x21x2+x+4x+4\frac{{{x^2} + 4x+4x + 16}}{{2x - 2}} \times \frac{{{x^2} - 1}}{{{x^2} + x+4x + 4}}

⇒ x(x+4)+4(x+4)2x2×x21x(x+1)+4(x+1)\frac{{x(x+4)+4(x + 4)}}{{2x - 2}} \times \frac{{{x^2} - 1}}{{x(x+1)+4(x + 1)}}

⇒ (x+4)(x+4)2x2×(x+1)(x1)(x+1)(x+4)\frac{{(x+4)(x + 4)}}{{2x - 2}} \times \frac{{(x+1)(x-1)}}{{(x+1)(x + 4)}}

⇒ (x+4)(x+4)2(x1)×(x+1)(x1)(x+1)(x+4)\frac{{(x+4)(x + 4)}}{{2(x - 1)}} \times \frac{{(x+1)(x-1)}}{{(x+1)(x + 4)}}

⇒ Cancelling the terms, we get

⇒ (x+4)(x+4)2(x1)×(x+1)(x1)(x+1)(x+4)\frac{{(x+4)(x + 4)}}{{2(x - 1)}} \times \frac{{(x+1)(x-1)}}{{(x+1)(x + 4)}} = (x+4)2\frac{(x+4)}{2}

⇒ 2022+42\frac{2022+4}{2} = 1013

Therefore, the required value when x = 2022 is 1013.

35

The given table shows the production of four types of bikes by a company from the year 2011 to 2015. Study the table and answer the following question.

Year / Type20112012201320142015
A103214007891478545
B123515219381196654
C115213568521350210
D104515899511100112

Which type of bike has the minimum production in the year 2015?

  1. ((a))

    Type - D

  2. ((b))

    Type - C

  3. ((c))

    Type - A

  4. ((d))

    Type - B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Type - D

Given:

Year / Type20112012201320142015
A103214007891478545
B123515219381196654
C115213568521350210
D104515899511100112

 

Calculation:

⇒ Bike production of type A in 2015 = 545

⇒ Bike production of type B in 2015 = 654

⇒ Bike production of type C in 2015 = 210

⇒ Bike production of type D in 2015 = 112

Therefore, Bike of Type D has the minimum production in the year 2015.

36

A dealer cheats by 15% at purchasing and 10% at selling. What percent profit does he gain?

  1. ((a))

    27.5% profit

  2. ((b))

    26% profit

  3. ((c))

    26.5% profit

  4. ((d))

    25% profit

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

26.5% profit

Given:

A Dealer cheats  by Purchasing an item =15%

A Dealer sells  an item = 10% 

Formula:

Selling Price =\(\frac{(100+Gain%)}{100} \times 100\)

Profit  = Selling Price - Cost Price

Profit% = ProfitCostPrice×100\frac{Profit}{Cost Price} \times 100

Calculation:

Let the Cost price be Rs.100

New price = (100+15)100×100\frac{(100+15)}{100} \times 100

⇒ (115)100×100\frac{(115)}{100} \times 100

⇒ Rs.115

He gains again 10% more on New Price

Selling Price = 115 +115 of 10%

⇒ 115 + 11.5

⇒ 126.5

Profit =  126.5  - 100

⇒ 26.5

Profit% = 26.5100×100\frac{26.5}{100} \times 100

Profit% =  26.5%

Therefore, the percentage profit gain he got is 26.5%.

Alternate MethodBy observing the question we can understand that he gets two successive gains of 15% and 10%.

First, gain 15% he gets at purchasing and 2nd 10% he gets at selling.

So, Total gain = 15 + 10 + 15 × 10/100 = 26.5%

37

A man spends 78% of his monthly income and saves Rs. 1,100. What is his monthly income?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 11,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 78,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 7,800

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 5,000

Given:

Savings = Rs 1,100

Expenditure = 78% of income

Calculation:

⇒ Let the monthly income be Rs x.

⇒ Expenditure = 78% of x

⇒ Expenditure = 78100\frac{78}{100}  × x = 39x50\frac{39x}{50}

⇒ Income = Expenditure + Savings

⇒ x = 39x50\frac{39x}{50} + 1100

⇒ x – 39x50\frac{39x}{50} = 1100

⇒ 50x39x50\frac{50x-39x}{50} = 1100

⇒ 11x = 1100 × 50

⇒ x = 1100×5011\frac{1100\times 50}{11} = Rs 5,000

Therefore, the monthly income of a man is Rs 5,000.

38

Rupa sells a computer to Shilpa at 20% loss. Shilpa sells it to Neelima at 20% profit. If Neelima pays Rs. 24,000 for it, then how much did Rupa pay for it?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 30,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 25,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 35,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 20,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 25,000

Given:

Rupa sells a computer to Shilpa at = 20% loss

Shilpa sells it to Neelima at = 20% profit

Paid amount by Neelima = Rs 24,000

Calculation:

⇒ Selling price of computer for Shilpa = Rs 24,000

⇒ Cost price of computer for Shilpa = 24000100+20×100\frac{24000}{100+20}\times 100 = Rs 20,000

⇒ Selling price of computer for Rupa = Rs 20,000

⇒ Cost price of computer for Rupa = 2000010020×100\frac{20000}{100-20}\times 100 = Rs 25,000

Therefore, the amount Rupa paid for the computer is Rs 25,000.

39

Amit and Beenu can cover a 400 m race in 44 seconds and 50 seconds, respectively. When Amit finished the race, then Beenu is at what distance from the finishing line?

  1. ((a))

    50 m

  2. ((b))

    52 m

  3. ((c))

    48 m

  4. ((d))

    45 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

48 m

Given:

Time taken by Amit to cover 400 m race = 44 seconds

Time taken by Beenu to cover 400 m race = 50 seconds

Calculation:

⇒ Distance covered by Beenu in 1 second = 40050\frac{400}{50} = 8 m

⇒ Distance covered by Beenu in 44 seconds = 8 × 44 = 352 m

⇒ Difference between the distance of Amit and Beenu after completion = 400 – 352 = 48 m

Therefore, When Amit finished the race, Beenu is 48 m behind the finishing line.

40

A is twice as good a workman as B, and together they finish a work in 14 days. In how many days can the work be done by each separately?

  1. ((a))

    A = 21, B = 42

  2. ((b))

    A = 42, B = 21

  3. ((c))

    A = 26, B = 52

  4. ((d))

    A = 52, B = 26

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A = 21, B = 42

Given:

A is Twice as good as B

Let 'B' one day be x then A one day be 2x

A+B can complete the work = 14 days

Formula:

Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

A+B one day work = 114\frac{1}{14}

A+B one day work = A's one day work + B's one day work

⇒ 114=x+2x\frac{1}{14} = x+2x

⇒ 3x=1143x = \frac{1}{14}

⇒ x=142x = \frac{1}{42}

⇒ 2x=142×22x = \frac{1}{42} \times 2

121\frac{1}{21} 

A one day work = 121\frac{1}{21}

A can complete the work in 21days

B one day work = 142\frac{1}{42}

B can complete the work in 42 days

∴ The Correct Answer is A = 21days and B = 42days

General Intelligence (25 questions)

41

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

160 – 32 × 3 + 26 ÷ 17 = 24

  1. ((a))

    – and +

  2. ((b))

    × and –

  3. ((c))
    • and ×
  4. ((d))

    ÷ and –

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

÷ and –

Given equation,

160 – 32 × 3 + 26 ÷ 17 = 24

By using the BODMAS rule and checking the options,

1. – and +

⇒160 + 32 × 3  26 ÷ 17 = 24

⇒160 + 32 × 3 – 1.53 = 24

⇒160 + 96 – 1.53 = 24

⇒256 – 1.53 = 24

⇒254.47 ≠ 24

2. × and –

⇒160 × 32  3 + 26 ÷ 17 = 24

⇒160 × 32 – 3 + 1.53 = 24

⇒5120 – 3 + 1.53 = 24

⇒5117 + 1.53 = 24

⇒5118.53 ≠ 24

3. + and ×

⇒160 – 32 + 3 × 26 ÷ 17 = 24

⇒160 – 32 + 3 × 1.53 = 24

⇒160 – 32 + 4.59 = 24

⇒128 + 4.59 = 24

132.59 ≠ 24

4. ÷ and –

⇒160 ÷ 32 × 3 + 26  17 = 24

⇒5 × 3 + 26 – 17 = 24

⇒15 + 26 – 17 = 24

⇒41 – 17 = 24

24 = 24 

Hence, the correct answer is '÷ and –'.

42

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figure that can replace the question mark is shown below:

The logic here follows is, "the figure inscribed in the square is rotating in an anti-clockwise direction and the square and the right-angled triangle is revolving around in a successive pattern."

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

43

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question. The numbers in different sections indicate the number of persons.

How many Indians are there in total?

  1. ((a))

    46

  2. ((b))

    49

  3. ((c))

    33

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

49

Given,

  • No. of Sports persons only = 35
  • No of male persons only = 40
  • No. of Indians only = 20
  • No. of Male sports persons = 5
  • No. of India sports persons = 10
  • No. of male Indian persons = 3
  • No. of Indian, male sports persons = 16
  • No. of total Indian = No. of Indian persons + No. of Indian sports persons + No. of Indian, male sports persons+ No. of male Indian persons
  • No. of total Indian = 20 + 10 + 16 + 3
  • No. of total Indian = 49

Hence, the correct answer is 49.

44

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

JOB : RMZ :: TOM : HMO :: NOT : ?

  1. ((a))

    NMH

  2. ((b))

    NNH

  3. ((c))

    MMH

  4. ((d))

    NMG

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NMH

The position of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The logic followed here in the pattern is shown below:

The code for a letter cluster is the opposite letter in the analogy of the English alphabet series and adding one to its place value.

JOB : RMZ

J(10) opposite place value is (Q)17 + 1 = 18, place value of 18 is R.

O(15) opposite place value is (L)12 + 1 = 13, the place value of 13 is M.

B(2) opposite place value is (Y)25 + 1 = 26 , place value of 26 is Z

TOM : HMO

T(20) opposite place value is (G)7 + 1 = 8 , place value of 8 is H

O(15) opposite place value is (L)12 + 1 = 13, place value of 13 is M

M(13) opposite place value is (N)14 + 1 = 15 , place value of 15 is O

Similarly, NOT is written as NMH.

N(14) opposite place value is (M)13 + 1 = 14, place value of 14 is N

O(15) opposite place value is (L)12 + 1 = 13, place value of 13 is M

T(20) opposite place value is (G)7 + 1 = 8, place value of 8 is H

Hence, the correct answer is 'NMH'

45

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

ABCD, BCDE, ?, DEFG, EFGH

  1. ((a))

    CDEF

  2. ((b))

    CBGH

  3. ((c))

    CDFE

  4. ((d))

    CBDE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CDEF

The logic here followed is as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is 'CDEF'

46

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.

NRPAT : CKETI :: HENTO : WXCMD :: PODSA : ?

  1. ((a))

    EPSHE

  2. ((b))

    HSPLE

  3. ((c))

    EHSLP

  4. ((d))

    HSECH

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

EHSLP

According to the English alphabets and their positional values:

<br>

The pattern followed in the given codes is:

  Alphabets at odd places are increased to 15 positional values.

  Alphabets at even places are increased to 19 positional values.

<br>

<br>

Similarly,

Hence the correct answer is option 3)

47

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

‘A * B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.

If P + Q + R − S ÷ T * U, the how is T related to Q?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Brother’s son

  3. ((c))

    Son’s son

  4. ((d))

    Son

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Son’s son

Decoding the given information,

Symbol÷*+
MeaningFatherBrotherMotherSister

 

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols

 P + Q means P is the mother of Q

Q + R means Q is the mother of R

R − S means R is the sister of S

S ÷ T means S is the father of T

T * U means T is the brother of U

According to the family tree, T is the grandson of Q i.e T is Q's son's son.

Hence, the correct answer is "Son's son"

48

Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?

  1. Sovereignty
  2. Sociability
  3. Socialistic
  4. Soteriology
  5. Southeaster
  1. ((a))

    5, 2, 3, 1, 4

  2. ((b))

    5, 2, 4, 1, 3

  3. ((c))

    5, 2, 1, 3, 4

  4. ((d))

    2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2, 3, 4, 5, 1

As per the English dictionary, the sequence followed is shown below:

  1. Sociability
  2. Socialistic
  3. Soteriology
  4. Southeaster
  5. Sovereignty

Hence the correct answer is 'option 4'

49

Based on the position in the English alphabetical order, three of the following letter - clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter - cluster.

  1. ((a))

    SUZY

  2. ((b))

    MPUT

  3. ((c))

    PRWV

  4. ((d))

    QSXW

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

MPUT

The position of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

Here, in the given letter clusters between the 1st and 2nd letter, there is a difference of 2 and between the 3rd and 4th the difference is 5 and between the 4th and 5th, there is a difference of 1.

By checking the options,

  1. SUZY ⇒  S(19)+2\frac{+2}{ } U(21) +5\frac{+5}{ } Z(26) 1\frac{-1}{ } Y(25)
  2. MPUT ⇒ M(13) +3\frac{+3}{}  P(16) +5\frac{+5 } { } U(21) 1\frac{-1} {} T(20)
  3. PRWV ⇒ P(16) +2\frac{+2} { } R(18) +5\frac{+5 } { } W(23) 1\frac{-1} {} V(22) 4. QSXW ⇒ Q(17) +2\frac{+2} { } S(19) +5\frac{+5} { } X(24) 1\frac{-1} { } W(23)

Option 2 doesn't follow the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'MPUT'

50

In a certain code language, ‘ALLOW’ is written as ‘YSNPC’ and ‘UNION’ is written as ‘PSKRW’. How will ‘VOICE’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    SXGKG

  2. ((b))

    XSKGG

  3. ((c))

    GGKYS

  4. ((d))

    GGKSX

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

GGKSX

The position of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The code for the word 'ALLOW' is 'YSNPC'

In the same way, the word UNION is coded as PSKRW

Similarly, VOICE will be coded as GGKSX

Hence, the correct answer is 'GGKSX'

51

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E. g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / deleting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed).

(68, 15, 204)

(20, 67, 268)

  1. ((a))

    (38, 72, 385)

  2. ((b))

    (41, 75, 515)

  3. ((c))

    (65, 27, 351)

  4. ((d))

    (54, 89, 438)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(65, 27, 351)

The logic here is as follows:

(3rd number ÷ 1st number) × 5 = 2nd number

By, checking the options,

1. (38, 72, 385)

⇒ (385 ÷ 38) × 5 = 72

⇒ 10.13 × 5 = 72

50.65 ≠ 72

2. (41, 75, 515)

⇒ (515 ÷ 41) × 5 = 72

⇒ 12.56 × 5 = 72

62.8 ≠ 72

3. (65, 27, 351)

⇒ (351 ÷ 65) × 5 = 72

⇒ 14.4 × 5 = 72

72 = 72

4. (54, 89, 438)

⇒ (438 ÷ 54) × 5 = 72

⇒ 8.11 × 5 = 72

⇒ 40.55 ≠ 72

Hence, the correct answer is (65, 27, 351).

52

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

2, 6, 17, 53, 156, ?

  1. ((a))

    493

  2. ((b))

    466

  3. ((c))

    472

  4. ((d))

    480

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

472

The logic here follows is:

Hence, the correct answer is 472.

53

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The mirror image for the following figure is shown below,

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

54

Six letters S, T, U, V, W and X are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the given figures. Find the letter on the face opposite to W.

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    X

  4. ((d))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

U

Given,

  • If one of the numbers is common in both the dice, then the remaining place surfaces of both dice are opposite to each other.

As we know the given letters are, S, T, U, V, W, X, and the letter 'X' is common In both the dice. So T is opposite to X.

And W & S is opposite to U & V respectivley.

Hence, the correct answer is U

55

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figure that can replace the question mark in the given pattern is shown below,

Here, the shape inside a square is moving in a clockwise direction and one side of the line is drawn alternatively.

Hence the correct answer is option1.

56

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table facing the centre of the table. Some of them are sitting at the corners, while some are sitting at the exact centre of the sides.

A sits at the centre of one of the sides. B sits second to the right of A. Only three people sit between B and C. F is neither an immediate neighbour of C nor B. E sits third to the right of F. G is an immediate neighbour of A. H sits second to the right of D.

Who sits third to the left of G?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    H

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C

Given,

  • A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table facing the centre of the table.
  • A sits at the centre of one of the sides.
  • B sits second to the right of A.
  • Only three people sit between B and C.

  • F is neither an immediate neighbour of C nor B
  • E sits third to the right of F
  • G is an immediate neighbour of A
  • H sits second to the right of D.

According to the arrangement, C is sitting to the left of G.

Hence, the correct answer is 'C'.

57

Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In the first row, J, K, L and M are seated and all of them are facing the south. In the second row, E, F, G and H are seated and all of them are facing the north. Thus, each person faces another person from the other row. G is sitting third to the left of E. The one facing H is sitting to the immediate right of J. K is sitting third to the right of J. L is sitting in front of F, Who amongst the following faces E?

  1. ((a))

    L

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    J

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

J

Given, 

Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each.

In the first row, J, K, L, and M are seated and all of them are facing south.

In the second row, E, F, G and H are seated and all of them are facing north.

 

  • G is sitting third to the left of E
  • The one facing H is sitting to the immediate right of J

 

 OR   

                               

  • K is sitting third to the right of J [ fig. a follows]
  • L is sitting in front of F.

According to the arrangement, J faces E.

Hence, the correct answer is "J".

58

Which two groups of numbers should be interchanged to balance the given equation?

284 ÷ 6 + 144 × 4 − 326 ÷ 163 × 125 = 27 × 25 + 30 × 4

  1. ((a))

    (284 and 326), and (6 and 4)

  2. ((b))

    (6 and 4), and (27 and 30)

  3. ((c))

    (284 and 144), and (25 and 30)

  4. ((d))

    (284 and 144), and (25 and 4)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(284 and 144), and (25 and 30)

Given equation, 

284 ÷ 6 + 144 × 4 − 326 ÷ 163 × 125 = 27 × 25 + 30 × 4

By checking the given options,

  1. (284 and 326) and (6 and 4)

326 ÷ 4 + 144 × 6 − 284 ÷ 163 × 125 = 27 × 25 + 30 × 4

⇒81.5 + 144 × 6 − 1.74 × 125 = 27 × 25 + 30 × 4

⇒81.5 + 576 − 217.79 = 675 + 120

⇒630.33 − 2177.5 = 795

⇒ −1547.17 ≠ 795

2. (6 and 4), and (27 and 30)

⇒284 ÷ 4 + 144 × 6 − 326 ÷ 163 × 125 = 30 × 25 + 27 × 4

⇒71 + 144 × 6 − 2 × 125 = 30 × 25 + 27 × 4

⇒71 + 864 − 250 = 750 + 108

⇒935 − 250 = 858

685 ≠ 858

3. (284 and 144), and (25 and 30)

144 ÷ 6 + 284 × 4 − 326 ÷ 163 × 125 = 27 × 30 + 25 × 4

⇒24 + 284 × 4 − 2 × 125 = 27 × 30 + 25 × 4

⇒24 + 1136 − 250 = 810 + 100

⇒1160 − 250 = 910

910 = 910

4. (284 and 144), and (25 and 4)

⇒144 ÷ 6 + 284 × 4 − 326 ÷ 163 × 125 = 27 × 4 + 30 × 25

⇒24 + 284 × 4 − 2 × 125 = 27 × 4 + 30 × 25

⇒24 + 1136 − 250 = 108 + 750

⇒1160 − 250 = 858

910 ≠ 858

Hence, the correct answer is (284 and 144), and (25 and 30).

59

Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All buses are trucks.

All motorbikes are trucks.

All cars are trucks.

Conclusions:

I. Some trucks are motorbikes.

II. Some cars are motorbikes.

III. Some trucks are buses.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusions II and III follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusions I and II follow

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusions I and III follow

  4. ((d))

    All the conclusions follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only conclusions I and III follow

Statements:

All buses are trucks.

All motorbikes are trucks.

All cars are trucks.

Venn Diagram:

Conclusions:

I. Some trucks are motorbikes ⇒ True → All motorbikes are trucks, is a definite relation

II. Some cars are motorbikes ⇒ False → No direct relation

III. Some trucks are buses ⇒ True → All buses are trucks, is a definite relation

Hence, the correct answer is 'only conclusions I & III follow'.

60

In a certain code language, 'THINK' is written as '208181411' and 'DECIDE' is written as '410318410'. How will 'IMPLEMENT' be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    91316121351420

  2. ((b))

    181316121013101420

  3. ((c))

    1813161213101420

  4. ((d))

    913161251351420

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

181316121013101420

The position of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The logic that followed here in the code is, "The letters follow the place value according to the English alphabet series, and the place value of a vowel is doubled."

In the word, THINK it is coded as 208181411 where

T=20, H=8, I(9×2)=18, N=14, K=11

In the same way, DECIDE is coded as 410318410 where

D=4, E(5×2)=10, C=3, I(9×2)=18, D=4, E(5×2)=10

Similarly, IMPLEMENT will be coded as 

I(9×2)=18, M=13, P=16, L=12, E(5×2)=10, M=13, E(5×2)=10, N=14, T=20

IMPLEMENT is coded as 181316121013101420

Hence, the correct answer is '181316121013101420'.

61

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.

T G _ W U G R _ V G R _ W _ R W

  1. ((a))

    R W W G

  2. ((b))

    V R G W

  3. ((c))

    W R V G

  4. ((d))

    R W V G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

R W W G

Given,

T G _ W U G R _ V G R _ W _ R W

The sequence that follows here is G R W and the next letter is changing according to the sequence of the English alphabet letters.

By checking the options,

  1. R W W G

T G R W U G R W V G R W W G R W → The option follows the pattern, 

  1. V R G W

T G V W U G R R V G R G W W R W → This option doesn't follow the pattern.

  1. W R V G

T G W W U G R R V G R V W G R W → This option doesn't follow the pattern.

  1. R W V G

T G R W U G R W V G R V W G R W → This option doesn't follow the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'R W W G'.

62

A % B means ‘A is the son of B’.

A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

A & B means ‘A is the brother of B’.

A @ B means ‘A is the sister of B’.

If W @ Q % R & S & T, then how is W related to T?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Son’s son

  3. ((c))

    Brother’s daughter

  4. ((d))

    Aunt

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Brother’s daughter

Decoding the symbols,

Symbol%#&@
MeaningSonDaughterBrotherSister

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols

W @ Q ⇒ W is the sister of Q

Q % R ⇒ Q is the son of R

R & S ⇒ R is the brother of S

S & T ⇒ S is the brother of T

According to the family tree, W is the niece of T, OR W is T's brother's daughter.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Brother's Daughter'

63

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose the figure that would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

After unfolding the cut piece of paper step by step, then the paper will be closely be the same as,

 ⇒  

 ⇒ 

Hence, the correct answer is 'option 3'.

64

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

[154\frac{1}{{54}}] : [167\frac{1}{{67}}] :: [168\frac{1}{{68}}] : ? :: [146\frac{1}{{46}}] : [159\frac{1}{{59}}]

  1. ((a))

    [185\frac{1}{{85}}]

  2. ((b))

    [177\frac{1}{{77}}]

  3. ((c))

    [183\frac{1}{{83}}]

  4. ((d))

    [181\frac{1}{{81}}]

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

[181\frac{1}{{81}}]

The logic followed here is:

The difference of the second and first-term denominators is 13, similarly fourth and third, fifth and sixth is related to each other in the same way.

[154\frac{1}{{54}}] : [167\frac{1}{{67}}] ⇒ 67 - 54 = 13

[146\frac{1}{{46}}] : [159\frac{1}{{59}}] ⇒ 59 - 46 = 13

By checking the options,

1. [185\frac{1}{{85}}]

[168\frac{1}{{68}}] : [185\frac{1}{{85}}] ⇒ 85 - 68 = 17 , 17≠13

2. [177\frac{1}{{77}}]

[168\frac{1}{{68}}] : [177\frac{1}{{77}}] ⇒77 - 68 = 9, 9≠13

3. [183\frac{1}{{83}}]

[168\frac{1}{{68}}] : [183\frac{1}{{83}}] ⇒ 83 - 68 = 15, 15≠13

4. [181\frac{1}{{81}}]

[168\frac{1}{{68}}] : [181\frac{1}{{81}}] ⇒ 81 - 68 = 13, 13=13

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

65

Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the following series.

69, 73, 67, 75, ?, ?, 63, 79, 61

  1. ((a))

    65, 79

  2. ((b))

    65, 76

  3. ((c))

    60, 75

  4. ((d))

    65, 77

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

65, 77

The logic followed here in the pattern is as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is '65,77'

English Language (25 questions)

66

Select the most appropriate synonym of the highlighted word in the following sentence.

Mary’s apathy towards studies is a matter of concern for her parents.

  1. ((a))

    Disgrace

  2. ((b))

    Disappointment

  3. ((c))

    Dishonesty

  4. ((d))

    Disinterest

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Disinterest

The correct answer is "Disinterest". 

Key Points

  • Apathy means a lack of interest in something.
  • Example: Tony has an apathy towards Chinese cuisine.
  • Disinterest means without having any interest or enthusiasm.
  • Example: Ann is disinterested to go to the theatre now.
  • Therefore the appropriate option that would substitute "apathy" is "Disinterest".

Additional Information

  • Disgrace - embarrassment 
  • Example: Gina felt disgraced when her teacher scolded her.
  • Disappointment - displeasure
  • Example: Mark was disappointed when he didn't get the job.
  • Dishonesty - being untruthful. 
  • Example: Tom showed dishonesty to his parents by hiding his progress card.
67

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Due to their recent illness, they have become ______.

  1. ((a))

    wink

  2. ((b))

    wick

  3. ((c))

    week

  4. ((d))

    weak

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

weak

The correct answer is "Weak".

Key Points

  • Weak means lack of strength. 
  • ​Example: Mary was weak after running for an hour.
  • ​Therefore, the appropriate option is "Weak".

Additional Information

  • Wink - the act of closing and opening one eye quickly.
  • Example: John winked at a girl.
  • Wick - the middle string in the candle that burns. 
  • Example: The wick of the candle is broken.
  • Week - a period of seven days.
  • Example: Molly has taken the week off.
68

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Try whatever you want, / but you should never / get the job unless I allow it.

  1. ((a))

    get the job unless I allow it

  2. ((b))

    Try whatever you want

  3. ((c))

    No error

  4. ((d))

    but you should never

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

but you should never

The correct answer is "but you should never".

Key Points

  • "Should" is a verb used to indicate an order, an obligation or an action that must be completed.
  • Example: The students should be on time for the classes.
  • "Would" is used to discuss a possible or imagined situation
  • Example: would like to have a cold coffee.
  • Here, getting a job is a possible situation.
  • Therefore, the appropriate sentence is "Try whatever you want, but you would never get the job unless I allow it".

Additional Information

  • Let's see the difference between should, would and could.
VerbsUsageExampleMeaning
Shouldaction is ought to happen.Andy should complete the work within an hourAndy must complete the work within an hour.
Wouldaction is possible or imagined.Andy would complete the work within an hourAndy is willing to complete the work if everything is in the right condition.
Couldaction is possible.Andy could complete the work within an hour.There is a possibility for Andy to complete the work within an hour.
69

Select the most appropriate homonym to fill in the blank.

A huge ______ will be erected outdoors for the birthday celebrations.

  1. ((a))

    tenth

  2. ((b))

    tent

  3. ((c))

    dent

  4. ((d))

    tend

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

tent

The correct answer is "tent".

Key Points

  • A tent means a shelter made up of a sheet and is supported by frames or poles. 
  • Example: We need twenty tents for the camp.
  • Therefore, the appropriate option is "Tent".

Additional Information

  • Tenth - indicates the number ten.
  • Example: I bagged the tenth rank in the National Olympiad.
  • Dent -  damage in a flat surface caused due to a hit. 
  • Example: The accident has caused a dent in your car.
  • Tend - a tendency. 
  • Example: Jeff tends to be short-tempered nowadays.
70

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I began to think of my duty. Should I fight for my rights or go back ______ India?

  1. ((a))

    on

  2. ((b))

    to

  3. ((c))

    with

  4. ((d))

    for

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

to

The correct answer is "To".

Key Points

  • "To" is a preposition used to show the direction of an action
  • Example: The neighbours are moving back to their old house.
  • Therefore, the appropriate option is "To".

Additional Information

  • On - indicates an object kept above something.
  • Example: The book is on the table.
  • With - denotes a company.
  • Example: Tim is with Tom.
  • For - used to give reasons. 
  • Example: I need a lakh for my business.
71

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

A sanctuary can be ______ as a place where humans are passive and the rest of nature is dynamic and vibrant.

  1. ((a))

    demonstrated

  2. ((b))

    envisioned

  3. ((c))

    considered

  4. ((d))

    used

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

envisioned

The correct answer is "envisioned".

Key Points

  • Envisioned means to imagine the future.
  • Example: Gill envisioned his house when he was fifteen.
  • Therefore, the appropriate option is "Envisioned".

Additional Information

  • Demonstrated - to show in action.
  • Example: The worker demonstrated how the machines worked.
  • Considered - taken into account.
  • Example: The client has considered our business proposal.
  • Used - to put into action.
  • Example: Lilly has used all the glue for her craft.
72

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Play devil's advocate

  1. ((a))

    To argue the opposite, just for the sake of argument

  2. ((b))

    Influenced by the devil

  3. ((c))

    Arguing in favour of the right

  4. ((d))

    A good advocate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To argue the opposite, just for the sake of argument

The correct answer is "to argue the opposite, just for the sake of argument".

Key Points

  • The meaning of the idiom "Play devil's advocate" is to argue the opposite, just for the sake of argument.
  • Play devil's advocate - to pretend to argue an agreement even though he likes to have a good discussion about it.
  • Example: Rimmy played the devil's advocate to win the debate competition.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at some idioms beginning with "play".
IdiomMeaningExample
Play it by earTo go with the flow instead of planning in advanceMark decided to play his college life by ear.
Play (something) down.To show something less important than it really is.The doctor played the patient's condition down to the family.
Play alongcooperateMy teammates have always played along with my ideas.
73

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

A good / the best / of a man / book / is / friend

  1. ((a))

    A good book friend is the best of a man.

  2. ((b))

    Friend is the best a good book of a man.

  3. ((c))

    A good book is the best friend of a man.

  4. ((d))

    The best of a man is a good friend book.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A good book is the best friend of a man.

The correct answer is "A good book is the best friend of man".

Key Points

  • "A good" is the first part as it is an adjective and will be followed by a noun.
  • "Book" is the next part as it aptly suits the first phrase.
  • A "verb" should come next and "is" is the next part of the sentence.
  • "The best" is the next section as there is a noun suitable to be described.
  • "Friend" comes next as it is perfect with the previous phrase.
  • "Of a man" comes finally as it gives meaning to the other parts and makes it a complete sentence.

Additional Information

  • A grammatically correct sentence will be in the Subject-Predicate-Object (SPO) format.
  • The Subject will mostly be a noun or a pronoun.
  • ​Example: Ram wakes early.
  • The Predicate is the verb of the sentence.
  • Example: Ben drinks water.
  • An Object is affected by the verb and tells the sufferer of the action
  • Example: Tim wants a car.
74

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Pungent

  2. ((b))

    Smelly

  3. ((c))

    Aerosal

  4. ((d))

    Carbonated

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Aerosal

The correct answer is "Aerosal".

Key Points

  • The correct spelling of the word is "Aerosol".
  • "Aerosol" means "suspending liquid or solid particles into gas". 
  • ​Example: Jeff grabbed a can of aerosol before leaving the lab.
  • Therefore the appropriate answer is "Aerosal".

Additional Information

  • Let's see the basic sounds of "A".
  • Long a - the same sound as pronouncing the letter "A".
  • Example: came yesterday.
  • Short a (1) - pronounced in the front lower part of the mouth with a relaxed tongue.
  • Example: Answer this question.
  • Short a (2) - sounds like a short "o".
  • Example: Rima talks to her mother.
75

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It is very difficult to find a true and honest politician who works for the welfare of the people in the current era.

B. As this is a service - oriented profession and those who want to make money should not enter politics.

C. These political leaders should study the lives of true democratic leaders who left the world without possessing even a single bedroom house after holding high offices.

D. Politics has become a profit yielding business and some millionaires are entering politics for making more and more money.

  1. ((a))

    C A D B

  2. ((b))

    B C D A

  3. ((c))

    A C B D

  4. ((d))

    A B C D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A B C D

The correct answer is "ABCD".

Key Points

  • Sentence A is the first sentence as it introduces the conflict of the stanza.
  • Sentence B comes next as it describes the qualities of a politician.
  • Sentence C is the third sentence as the sentence talks about the predecessors of these politicians.
  • Sentence D comes last as it shows the current scenario of politics.

Additional Information

  • The stanza can be rewritten as follows
  • It is very difficult to find a true and honest politician who works for the welfare of the people in the current era. As this is a service-oriented profession and those who want to make money should not enter politics. These political leaders should study the lives of true democratic leaders who left the world without possessing even a single-bedroom house after holding high offices. Politics has become a profit-yielding business and some millionaires are entering politics for making more and more money.
76

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A soldier who fights for the sake of money

  1. ((a))

    Marine

  2. ((b))

    Mercenary

  3. ((c))

    Nationalist

  4. ((d))

    Patriot

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mercenary

The correct answer is "Mercenary".

Key Points

  • "Mercenary" means a person who is concerned only about money
  • Example: The government official is a mercenary.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "Mercenary".

Additional Information

  • Marine - associated with the sea.
  • Example: Ron wants to be a marine officer once he grows.
  • Nationalist - a person who believes that his country is the best.
  • Example: Mr Green always praises his country. He is a Nationalist.
  • Patriot - a person who is devoted to his country. 
  • Example: Jim fought for the country's freedom. He is a true patriot.
77

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Peevish

  1. ((a))

    Shy

  2. ((b))

    Sleepy

  3. ((c))

    Mild tempered

  4. ((d))

    Bad tempered

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bad tempered

The correct answer is "Bad tempered".

Key Points

  • Peevish means easily irritated by unimportant things. 
  • ​Example: Don't pull pranks against Nick, he is peevish.
  • Therefore the appropriate answer is "Bad tempered".

Additional Information

  • Timid - shy and nervous.
  • Example: Martin is too timid to address a gathering.
  • Drowsy - sleepy.
  • Example: Gina felt drowsy after the day's work.
  • Calm - mild-tempered.
  • Example: Will always stays calm during all the situations.
78

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Comely

  1. ((a))

    Prudent

  2. ((b))

    Cruel

  3. ((c))

    Nosey

  4. ((d))

    Pretty

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pretty

The correct answer is "Pretty".

Key Points

  • "Comely" means a woman who is pleasant to look at.
  • ExampleRita looks comely always.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "pretty".

Additional Information

  • Prudent - careful when making decisions.
  • Example: Walter is always prudent while taking financial decisions.
  • Cruel - unkind.
  • Example: It is cruel to ill treat street dogs.
  • Nosey - one who interferes in other people's business. 
  • Example: No one likes John because he is too nosey.
79

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

They fought a courageous battle.

  1. ((a))

    valiant

  2. ((b))

    timid

  3. ((c))

    encourage

  4. ((d))

    cowardly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

valiant

The correct answer is "valiant".

Key Points

  • Courageous means brave.
  • Example: Lion is a courageous animal.
  • Valiant means showing courage and determination.
  • Example: Mary showed valiance while quitting her job to start a business.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "valiant".

Additional Information

  • Timid - shy and nervous.
  • Example: Laura is basically a timid person.
  • Encourage - to make someone feel hopeful and confident.
  • Example: I always encourage Barry to start something on his own.
  • Cowardly - not brave. 
  • Example: Acting cowardly will not help in any situation.
80

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

It’s a fact that we need to preserve various plants and animals for sustaining the balance of ecosystem on this planet.

  1. ((a))

    species

  2. ((b))

    natural elements

  3. ((c))

    flora and fauna

  4. ((d))

    non - human beings

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

flora and fauna

The correct answer is "flora and fauna".

Key Points

  • Flora and Fauna mean plants and animals.
  • Example: India is diverse in its flora and fauna.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "Flora and fauna".

Additional Information

  • Species - animals or plants belonging to a common category.
  • Example: Leopard and tiger belong to the cat species.
  • Natural elements - elements produced by nature.
  • Example: All the natural elements are being polluted.
  • Non-human beings - living beings other than humans. 
  • Example: Jellyfishes are fascinating non-human beings.
81

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word

  1. ((a))

    Humongous

  2. ((b))

    Sacriledge

  3. ((c))

    Acrimonious

  4. ((d))

    Reservoir

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sacriledge

The correct answer is "Sacriledge". 

Key Points

  • The correct spelling of the word is "Sacrilege".
  • Sacrilege means treating a holy place without respect.
  • Example: People are making temples sacrilege by throwing waste.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "Sacriledge".

Additional Information

  • Let's see some words ending with "-dge".
WordMeaningExample
acknowledgeto give recognization.The police officer was acknowledged for his sincerity.
dislodgeto move from its former positionThe sofa was dislodged facing the TV.
grudgea feeling of anger or dislikeI will always have a grudge towards Mark because he insulted me in public.
budgeto moveJim did not budge from his decision despite getting persistent convictions.
82

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Myself baked / this cake / today.

  1. ((a))

    this cake

  2. ((b))

    No error

  3. ((c))

    Myself baked

  4. ((d))

    today

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Myself baked

The correct answer is "Myself baked".

Key Points

  • The correct sentence is "I baked this cake today".
  • "I" and "myself" are both pronouns used to reflect the speaker.
  • "Myself" is the reflexive form of "I" and is used to show emphasis
  • Example: I completed the work all by myself.
  • It is better not to use "Myself" when "I" or "Me" can be used in that situation.
  • "I" is the subject pronoun and refers to the actor of the action. 
  • Example: I completed my target of 1000 steps today.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "Myself baked".

Additional Information

  • Let's look into some personal pronouns.
  • "I, you, he, she, it, we, they, me, him, her, us, and them" are personal pronouns.
  • They are used to denote the speaker of the action and help in avoiding the repetition of proper nouns
  • Example: Johny has gone to the library as he wants to see if the school magazine has published his article.
83

In the following questions a statement has been given with highlighted text. Select the options that can replace the text with correct idiom or phrase.

He is facing the consequences of his corrupt practices.

  1. ((a))

    Beat around the bush

  2. ((b))

    Facing the music

  3. ((c))

    Your guess is as good as mine

  4. ((d))

    Break new ground

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Facing the music

The correct answer is "Facing the music". 

Key Points

  • The idiom which means "facing the consequences" is "facing the music".
  • Facing the music - to accept the consequences of one's actions. 
  • Example: Tim is facing the music of his procrastination.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Let's see some other idioms.
IdiomMeaningExample
Beat around the bushnot coming to the matter that must be discussedJulie was beating around the bush as she was hesitant.
Your guess is as good as mineused to denote when one doesn't know the answer to a questionMy friend told that my guess was as good as his when the teacher questioned.
Break new groundto do something in a different wayThe Chairman broke new ground for the inter-college meet.
84

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Swami is looking forward to go back to college.

  1. ((a))

    for going back to college

  2. ((b))

    to going back to college

  3. ((c))

    No substitution required

  4. ((d))

    going back to college

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

to going back to college

The correct answer is "to going back to college". 

Key Points

  • "To go back to college" is in the simple present tense.
  • The simple present tense is used to denote facts and decisions.
  • Example: I eat biscuits.
  • "To going back to college" is in the present continuous tense.
  • The Present Continuous tense shows that the action is going on.
  • Example: Martha is dancing gracefully.
  • As Swami going to college is a continuous and regular process, present continuous is suitable.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "to going back to college".

Additional Information

  • The present tense is divided into simple, continuous, perfect and perfect continuous.
TenseUsageExample
Simple Presentdenotes facts and present actionsSahil drinks water
Present Continuousdenotes that the action is going onSahil is drinking water
Present Perfectdenotes that the action has begun in the past but has influence in the presentSahil has drunk water
Present Perfect Continuousdenotes that the action has begun in the past but is going on in the presentSahil has been drinking water
85

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Fill up again

  1. ((a))

    Replenish

  2. ((b))

    Repot

  3. ((c))

    Reprehend

  4. ((d))

    Repine

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Replenish

The correct answer is "Replenish".

Key Points

  • Replenish means to make something full again.
  • Example: The committee replenished the jug with fruit juices.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "Replenish".

Additional Information

  • Repot - to plant in another pot.
  • Example: The students were asked to repot all the herbs.
  • Reprehend - criticize 
  • Example: The reporter reprehended the actor with his questions.
  • Repine - feel sad and complain about something
  • Example: The teachers repined about the new Headmaster to the Principal.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

With Siya’s next step she was standing (1) ______ a lake, and the candlelight shone brightly on the water. She was walking through the mountains, (2) ______ lonely crags, where the candlelight was reflected in the eyes of the creatures of the high snows. She (3) ______ a chariot being pulled. She could hear the (4) ______ of water as it splashed and sang its way into a small (5) ______.

86

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. ((a))

    before

  2. ((b))

    at

  3. ((c))

    along

  4. ((d))

    by

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

by

The correct answer is "by".

Key Points

  • "By" is a preposition which means "near" .
  • Example: Tina was waiting for her friend by the canteen.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "By".

Additional Information

  • Before - in front of someone or something.
  • Example: I came here before you.
  • At - used to show the exact place.
  • Example: Ron will be waiting at the bus stop.
  • Along - in the same direction. 
  • Example: Mary was cycling along the river.
87

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. ((a))

    into

  2. ((b))

    upon

  3. ((c))

    on

  4. ((d))

    through

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

through

The correct answer is "through".

Key Points

  • "Through" is used to denote "from one side to the other".
  • Example: Tony passed through the tunnel.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "through".

Additional Information

  • Into - towards the inside of an object.
  • Example: The rabbit climbed into its hole.
  • Upon - formal way of saying "on".
  • Example: The labourer kept a sack upon his back.
  • On - above something 
  • Example: The students sat on the benches.
88

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. ((a))

    grimaced

  2. ((b))

    piqued

  3. ((c))

    ogled

  4. ((d))

    glimpsed

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

glimpsed

The correct answer is "glimpsed".

Key Points

  • "Glimpse" means "to have a quick look at someone or something".
  • Example: I was able to see only a glimpse of the cells through the microscope.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "Glimpsed".

Additional Information

  • Grimaced - to show an expression of dislike and pain.
  • Example: Martha grimaced when she had to eat the tablets.
  • Piqued - feeling of excitement after wounding one's pride.
  • Example: John felt piqued after winning the debate against Walter.
  • Ogled - to look at a person in a flirtatious manner. 
  • Example: Jim ogled his friend.
89

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. ((a))

    scream

  2. ((b))

    whimper

  3. ((c))

    chuckle

  4. ((d))

    gust

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

chuckle

The correct answer is "chuckle".

Key Points

  • "Chuckle" means to laugh in a silent manner.
  • Example: The students chuckled when the teacher made a mistake.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "Chuckle".

Additional Information

  • Scream - to shout loudly
  • Example: Harry screamed with excitement upon seeing all the gifts.
  • Whimper - to cry with the fear of pain.
  • Example: Mon whimpered after she broke her mother's cutlery.
  • Gust - a sudden, strong and short wind. 
  • Example: The gust took my cap along with it.
90

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. ((a))

    utensil

  2. ((b))

    well

  3. ((c))

    brook

  4. ((d))

    cauldron

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

brook

The correct answer is "brook".

Key Points

  • "Brook" means a small flowing water body.
  • Example: I want to see the brook behind the hills.
  • Therefore, the appropriate answer is "Brook".

Additional Information

  • Utensil - a vessel.
  • Example: My mother wants to buy some new utensils for the party.
  • Well - a structure that stores underground water.
  • Example: The village well looks empty because of the lack of rain.
  • Cauldron - a large container used for cooking.
  • Example: Jimmy made soup in a cauldron.

Computer Fundamentals (10 questions)

91

Which of the following is not a function in MS - Excel 2010?

  1. ((a))

    Max()

  2. ((b))

    Sum()

  3. ((c))

    Average()

  4. ((d))

    Avg()

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Avg()

The correct answer is Avg()

Key Points

  • Excel have many predefined functions to perform the arithmetic calculations such as SUM, MAX, AVERAGE etc.
  • It does not have a function called AVG(). Hence option 4 is correct.
  • To calculate the average of the numbers, Excel provides the AVERAGE function.
  • Its syntax is AVERAGE(number1, number2,...).
  • For example, if there are 10 numbers between A1 and A10, then AVERAGE(A1:A10) gives the average of it.

Additional Information

  • To calculate the aggregate values in the cell, use the SUM function.
  • Write the sum function in the formula bar as =SUM(value1, value2). Here values indicate the reference of the cell.
  • MAX() returns the largest of all in the series or range.
  • Its syntax is MAX(number1, number2,...).
92

In MS - Word 2010, the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + X is used to ______.

  1. ((a))

    bold the highlighted selection

  2. ((b))

    cut the selected items to the clipboard

  3. ((c))

    select all the text

  4. ((d))

    open the options

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

cut the selected items to the clipboard

The correct answer is cut the selected items to the clipboard

Key Points

  • Word provides the cut option to remove something from the document and temporarily store it in the clipboard to use when needed.
  • It can be anything like text, image, table etc.​
  • ​To cut something in the document, select it and right-click. You can see the cut option.
  • You can also use Ctrl + X shortcut to cut the content. Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • To make the text thicker, you can use the Bold option that is located in the Home tab > Font group > 'B' sign.
  • You can use Ctrl + B shortcut to make the text bold.
  • Use Ctrl + A shortcut to select all the text and any other content in the document.
93

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts can be used to show or hide the Bookmarks bar in Google Chrome?

  1. ((a))

    Alt + Ctrl + K

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Shift + C

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + Shift + K

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Shift + B

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + Shift + B

The correct answer is Ctrl + Shift + B

Key Points

  • Google Chrome is one of the web browsers that lets you access information or request any resource to the web server on the internet.
  • You have the option to pin a webpage or any website which you visit frequently, you can use the bookmark option.
  • To bookmark a webpage, click the star mark located at the right-most in the URL. If the star mark turns blue, that means the webpage is bookmarked.
  • Use Ctrl + D to bookmark a page.
  • These bookmarked web pages are located below the URL bar. 
  • To show/hide the bookmark, use Ctrl + Shift + B shortcut. Hence option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + Shift + C opens the developer tools in the inspect element mode that lets you view the HTML code of the webpage.
  • You can quickly activate a google search using Ctrl + K shortcut.
94

In MS - Excel 2010, ______ operation is used on data tables for displaying only the rows that meet certain conditions and the other rows gets hidden.

  1. ((a))

    CHART

  2. ((b))

    SORT

  3. ((c))

    TABLE

  4. ((d))

    FILTER

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

FILTER

The correct answer is FILTER

Key Points

  • When you have a large amount of data in a worksheet, to deduce the data to see what is required, we use the Filter option.
  • The filter displays only the rows that meet the specified given conditions. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • To use the filter option, go to the Data tab > Sort & Filter group > Filter command.

Additional Information

  • Charts let the users visually analyze large data through the graphs such as Pie charts, Radar, Line graphs etc.
  • Sorting rearranges the values or data so that the user can fetch the required value quickly. You can sort a table or one or more columns of data.
  • Go to the Home tab > Sort & Filter to sort the data.
  • A Table allows you to arrange the data in a grid order or a row-column order to make it easy to analyze.
  • You can insert a table from the Home tab > Format as a Table option. You will find a few table formats to insert.
95

In MS - Excel 2010 ______ is used in finding text within the sheet.

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + F

  2. ((b))

    Alt + R

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + T

  4. ((d))

    Alt + F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + F

The correct answer is Ctrl + F

Key Points

  • Searching is a difficult task in the worksheet when the data is massive.
  • To make this easier, Excel provides a shortcut. Use Ctrl + F to quickly find what you wanted. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • When you click, a dialogue box appears to take the value you want to search.

  • There is some text in the cells, and I used Ctrl + F shortcut to find the text 'search'. This highlighted the cell that contained the input text.

Additional Information

  • Alt + R shortcut opens the review tab that provides tools for spell check, tracking changes, adding and showing comments to the notes, etc.
  • Ctrl + T shortcut opens the create table dialogue box.
  • Alt + F shortcut opens the File tab that saves, opens and creates a new worksheet.
96

In Gmail, what do you use when you receive a message and want to send the message to someone not on the To or Cc lines?

  1. ((a))

    Show original

  2. ((b))

    Report Spam

  3. ((c))

    Forward

  4. ((d))

    Print

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Forward

The correct answer is Forward

Key Points

  • Email is a messaging service used for the exchange of messages between users over the internet.
  • When you receive a mail and you want to send that to the users who have not received it or are not on the Cc field, use Forward to send emails to them. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • The emails you receive will be stored in the inbox folder and from there you can forward the emails. To forward, go to the email > click 3 dots on the right > click Forward.

Additional Information

  • Using Show original option, you have the option to view the headers in a new window like message ID, created at, from, to etc and you can also download it.
  • Emails that do not have an authorized sender are treated as spam and you can report it to the concerned email service provider.
  • ​To report spam email, go to the mail > click 3 dots on the right side > click report spam.
  • You can print the email you received. To print, go to the mail > click 3 dots > click the print option.
97

Internet Explorer is a web browsing software developed in the year 1995 by ______.

  1. ((a))

    Microsoft

  2. ((b))

    Google

  3. ((c))

    Mozilla

  4. ((d))

    Yahoo

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microsoft

The correct answer is Microsoft

Key Points

  • A web browser acts like an interface between the user and the server that helps the user fulfil the request by displaying the information the user had requested.
  • The user requests some information and it is received by the server. Then the server authenticates the client and responds back with the information.
  • This happens using the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
  • Internet Explorer is one of the web browsers developed by Microsoft in 1995. Hence option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Some of the most popular web browsers are Chrome developed by Google, Edge developed by Microsoft and Firefox developed by Mozilla and Yahoo.
98

The arrangement of data in rows and columns in MS - Word 2010 is called a ______.

  1. ((a))

    Cell

  2. ((b))

    Column

  3. ((c))

    table

  4. ((d))

    row

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

table

The correct answer is Table.

Key Points

  • A table is used to categorise the data so that it is easy to understand.
  • MS Word provides tables to arrange and analyze the data in an effective way in the form of rows and columns. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • To insert a table in Word, go to the Insert tab > Tables group > Table. You will see a dynamic table interface that lets you pick the rows and columns visually.

Additional Information

  • A cell is the smallest unit in Microsoft Excel that stores any data type like text, numbers, date and time, alphanumeric etc. 
  • A cell is referenced by its row and column coordinates.
  • To insert a larger table, go to the Insert tab > Tables group > Insert table option.
  • This opens a dialog box asking how many rows and columns.
99

Which of the following keyboard shortcut key in MS - Word 2010 is used to change the paragraph spacing to 1.5 - line spacing?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + 3

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + 2

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + 5

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + 5

The correct answer is Ctrl + 5

Key Points

  • Paragraph spacing in Word displays the text or paragraph clearly without coming too close to your screen and allows better readability.
  • To change the paragraph spacing in the document, select the paragraph, go to the Home tab >  Paragraph group > Line and Paragraph spacing.
  • In the dropdown menu, you will see different spacing levels and you can pick the required spacing.
  • You can also use shortcuts for paragraph spacing. For 1.5 spacing, use Ctrl + 5 shortcut. Hence option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • To apply single spacing to the paragraph, use Ctrl + 1 shortcut.
  • For double spacing, use Ctrl + 2 shortcut.

100

______ shortcut key is used in MS - Excel 2010 to go to the data tab.

  1. ((a))

    ALT + N

  2. ((b))

    ALT + F

  3. ((c))

    ALT + I

  4. ((d))

    ALT + A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ALT + A

The correct answer is ALT + A

Key Points

  • The Data tab on the ribbon allows you to import the data from the local drive or web, import text/CSV data, establish connections, etc.
  • This tab also supports data validation, converts text to columns, sorting, filter etc.
  • Use ALT + A shortcut to quickly go to the Data tab. Hence option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • The shortcut ALT + N opens the Insert tab in the ribbon.
  • ALT + F opens the file tab in the ribbon.

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