Official Paper

Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial) 12 Oct 2022 Shift 2 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Awareness (20 questions)

1

_______ rejected the superstitious beliefs in Hinduism and gave the slogan ‘Go back to Vedas’.

  1. ((a))

    Swami Sahajanand

  2. ((b))

    Atma Ram Pandurang

  3. ((c))

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

  4. ((d))

    Swami Dayananda Sarasvati

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Swami Dayananda Sarasvati

The correct answer is Swami Dayananda Sarasvati.

Key Points

  • Born Mul Shankar Tiwari, Dayananda was a reformer of the Hindu religion .
  • He studied Sanskrit and the Vedas in his childhood.
  • He spent 25 years as a wandering ascetic and travelled to the Himalayas and other religious places in northern India. He was seeking the truth about life and gave up all material goods in this holy pursuit.
  • He founded the Arya Samaj on April 7, 1875. In this reform movement, he stressed on One God and rejected idol worship. He also supported the extolled position of priests in Hinduism.
  • He gave the slogan 'Back to Vedas'.
  • He also established Vedic schools for the education of girls and boys of all castes. The students of these schools were given free books, clothing, lodging and food, and were taught the Vedas and other ancient writings.
  • Dayananda Saraswati was poisoned during his stay at the palace of the Maharaja of Jodhpur, Jaswant Singh II, and died on 30 October 1883.
2

Who among the following is the constitutional head of the Union executive?

  1. ((a))

    The President

  2. ((b))

    The Prime Minister

  3. ((c))

    The Vice President

  4. ((d))

    The Chief Justice

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The President

The correct answer is The President.

Key Points

  • President
  • The head of state of the Republic of India is the president.
  • The president serves as the titular leader of the executive branch, the nation's first citizen, and the supreme commander of the Indian Armed Forces.
  • The 15th and current president is Droupadi Murmu, who took office on July 25, 2022.
  • The position of president was established on January 26, 1950, when India became a republic after obtaining independence on August 15, 1947, when its constitution took effect.

Additional Information

  • The legislative assemblies of each of India's states and territories, as well as both chambers of the Indian Parliament, which were all chosen directly by the people, are used to elect the president in an indirect manner.
  • With a few exceptions, Article 53 of the Indian Constitution states that the president may exercise their powers directly or through a subordinate authority.
  • In practise, however, the prime minister a subordinate authority exercises all of the president's executive powers while receiving advice from the Cabinet Ministers.
3

Lavani is a popular dance of which state?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Haryana

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points 

  • Lavani is a famous folk dance form of Maharashtra State.
  • Lavani is a combination of traditional song and dance, which is particularly performed to the beats of the Dholki, a percussion instrument.
  • Lavani is noted for its powerful rhythm.
  • Lavani has contributed substantially to the development of Marathi folk theatre.
  • In Maharashtra and southern Madhya Pradesh, it is performed by female performers wearing nine-yard-long sarees.
  • The songs are sung in a quick tempo.
  • The lavani dance originated in Maharashtra in the 18th and 19th centuries.
  • Lavani dancers were patronized by Maratha Lords and Kings.
  • Lavani dance was generally performed by Dhangars or Shepherd living in Solapur, Maharashtra
  • Traditionally, this genre of folk dance deals with different and varied subject matters such as society, religion, and politics.
  • The songs in 'Lavani' are mostly erotic in sentiment and the dialogues tend to be pungent in socio-political satire.
  • Originally, it was used as a form of entertainment and morale booster to the tired soldiers.

Maharashtra Lavani Dance For Party in Kondhwa Budruk, Pune | ID: 13915313948

Additional InformationOther folk dances:

DanceState
Vilasini Natyam, Bhamakalpam, Veeranatyam, Dappu, Tappeta GulluAndhra Pradesh
Jata-Jatin, Bakho-Bakhain, PanwariyaBihar
Gumura Dannce, Ruk Mar Nacha, Goti Pua, Odissi, Danda Nacha, Tiger dance, Dalkhai, Dhap, Ghumra, Karma nach, Keisabadi.Odisha
Jhumar, Daph, Phag, Loor, Dhamal, Gugga, KhorHaryana
Nautanki, Raslila, Kajri, Jhora, ChappeliUttar Pradesh
4

Profits and dividends accrued from public sector enterprises are a part of _______.

  1. ((a))

    non-tax revenue

  2. ((b))

    capital revenue

  3. ((c))

    tax revenue

  4. ((d))

    gross revenue

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

non-tax revenue

The correct answer is Non-tax revenue.

Key Points

  • Profits and dividends accrued from public sector enterprises are a part of Non-Tax Revenue of the government.
  • Non-tax revenue includes all the revenue that the government generates outside of taxes.
  • This includes earnings from public sector enterprises and profits from various public services, fines and penalties, escheats, grants and aid, special assessments, and interest income, amongst others.
  • The profit and dividends obtained by the government from its ownership of companies (public sector enterprises) form a significant part of this kind of revenue.
5

Who among the following kings founded the Nalanda Mahavihara?

  1. ((a))

    Samudragupta

  2. ((b))

    Kumargupta I

  3. ((c))

    Chandragupta I

  4. ((d))

    Kumargupta II

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kumargupta I

The correct answer is Kumargupta I.

Key Points

  • The Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara was founded in the 5th century.
  • It was founded by Kumargupta I of the Gupta Dynasty.
  • It was patronized by various rulers including King Harshavardhana of Kannauj and the Pala rulers.
  • It is located in the state of Bihar, in north-eastern India.
  • It includes stupas, shrines, viharas, and important artwork in stucco, stone, and metal.
  • Nalanda stands out as the most ancient university in the Indian Subcontinent.
  • The Archaeological Survey of India carried out systematic excavations for about 20 years, starting in around 1915-1916.
6

Which is the the first State in the country to embark on Beyond Visual Line of Sight (BVLoS) flights to deliver a payload comprising vaccines, with the launch of "Medicine from the Sky" project in September 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Telangana

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points 

  • The Telangana government has been granted conditional exemption by the Ministry of Civil Aviation and the Directorate General of Civil Aviation to conduct experimental Beyond Visual Line of Sight (BVLOS) drone flights for vaccine delivery.
  • The Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS) Rules have been waived.
  • This exemption is subject to strict adherence to the ministry's conditions and directions or exemptions.
  • According to the Civil Aviation Ministry, this exemption will be valid for one year from the date of SOP approval or until further orders, whichever comes first.
  • Telangana's government was granted conditional exemption to conduct experimental delivery of Covid-19 vaccines using drones within Visual Line of Sight (VLOS) range.
  • The maximum permitted height for drone operations is 400 feet above ground level, which is one of the conditions for the government of Telangana to conduct experimental BVLOS drone flights for vaccine delivery (AGL).
  • It also recommends setting aside 15% of the flight time for energy reserves.

Additional Information 

  • To ensure smooth coordination with ATC, the Telangana Government will station a Single Point Coordinator (SPC) at Shamshabad ATC for the duration of the trial flights.
  • The UAV will cover more ground during a single flight since they are more economical and efficient because there are fewer takeoff and landing phases.
  • Because some or all of the missions may be automated, BVLOS flights require less human participation. They might also make it simpler to enter dangerous or remote regions.
  • A drone can travel over much longer distances because to its BVLOS capabilities.
  • Because the pilot may only be monitoring potential obstructions via a remote video feed or, in the case of automated flights, there may be no human observation at all, these operations raise significant safety issues.
7

The Wangala festival is mainly celebrated by which tribe?

  1. ((a))

    Tharu

  2. ((b))

    Munda

  3. ((c))

    Garo

  4. ((d))

    Bheel

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Garo

The correct answer is Garo.

Key Points

  • Wangala festival is celebrated in Meghalaya.
  • It is also known as the "100 Drum Festival".
  • The festival is practised by the Garo tribe.
  • It is celebrated in the honour of Misi Saljong, the Great River.
8

In 2022, in which of the following states did the government announce a scheme to set up four science parks and 14 district skill parks for young entrepreneurs to start ventures?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Announcing the Kerala Budget 2022-23, finance minister KN Balagopal announced that Rs 1,000 crore will be earmarked for four science parks with advanced research facilities that will be set up across Kerala.
  • The minister also said that these science parks will follow a public-private partnership model.
  • The finance minister KN Balagopal said that Rs 350 crores will be allocated for skill parks that will be set up in all 14 districts of Kerala for skill development. The skill park will be set up with private companies in a **50:50 model.**​

Additional Information

Kerala:

  • Kerala is a state in the southwest corner of India.
  • It is surrounded by the sea on one side and hills on the other.
  • A number of spices like pepper, cloves, and cardamoms are grown on the hills.
  • It is spices that made this region an attractive place for traders.
  • Jewish and Arab traders were the first to come here.
  • The Apostle of Christ, St. Thomas is believed to have come here nearly 2000 years ago and he is credited with bringing Christianity to India.
  • Many Arab traders also came and settled down here.
  • Ibn Battuta, who travelled here a little less than 700 years ago, wrote a travelogue in which he describes the lives of Muslims and says that they were a highly respected community.
  • The Portuguese discovered the sea route to India from Europe when Vasco da Gama landed with his ship here.
  • Because of all these various historical influences, people in Kerala practice different religions such as Judaism, Islam, Christianity, Hinduism, and Buddhism.
  • The fishing nets used here look exactly like the Chinese fishing nets and are called cheena-vala.
  • Even the utensil used for frying is called the cheenachatti, and it is believed that the word cheen could have come from China.
  • The fertile land and climate are suited to growing rice and a majority of people here eat rice, fish, and vegetables.
9

The _______ Five-Year Plan was terminated by the new Janata Party government one year before its completion.

  1. ((a))

    seventh

  2. ((b))

    fifth

  3. ((c))

    fourth

  4. ((d))

    sixth

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

fifth

The correct answer is Fifth.

Key Points

  • ​When Morar Ji Desai became the First Janta Prime Minister of India on 24 Mar 1977.
  • The fifth plan was terminated by the Janta Government in 1977-78 and they launched their own sixth plan for the period 1978-83 and called it the” rolling plan”.

Fifth Five-Year Plan: 

  • The period of the fifth five-year plan was 1974 to 1978.
  • The  Draft of the fifth plan was prepared and launched by D.P. Dhar in the backdrop of an economic crisis arising out of run-away inflation fuelled by a hike in oil prices and the failure of the Government takeover of the wholesale trade in wheat.
  • The targeted growth rate was 4.4% but the actual growth achieved was 4.8%
  • The main Objectives of the fifth five-year plan are:
  • The removal of poverty
  • Economic Independence​

Additional Information

  • List of the Five Year Plans of India:
PlansDuration
First Five-Year Plan1951- 56
Second Five-Year Plan1956-61
Third Five-Year Plan1961-66
Plan Holidays1966-69
Fourth Five-Year Plan1969-74
Fifth Five-Year Plan1974-78
Rolling Plan1978-80
Sixth Five-Year Plan1980-85
Seventh five Year Plan1985-90
Annual Plans1990-91 1991-92
Eight Five Year Plan1992-97
Ninth Five-Year Plan1997-02
Tenth Five-Year Plan2002-07
Eleventh Five-Year Plan2007-12
Twelfth Five-Year Plan2012-17
10

As per 2011 census, which of the following States/Union Territories has the highest density of population?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    National capital territory of Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Chandigarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

National capital territory of Delhi

The correct answer is National capital territory of Delhi.

Key Points 

  • The density of population is defined as the number of persons per square kilometer(sq.km.).
  • The population density of India in 2011 was 382 per sq. km.
  • As per Census 2011, Bihar is the most densely populated State in India.
  • While the National Capital Region area of Delhi possessed the highest population density in 2011 among the states of India having a statistic of 11,297 per square Kilometer.
  • The state of Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest record of population density having just 17 per sq. km.
  • Andaman is the lowest population density in Union Territory having a density of 43 persons per sq.Km.

Additional Information

  • Other union territorys' population density:
  • Lakshadweep - 2,149 people per square km
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli - 700 persons per square km
  • Daman and Diu - 2,191 persons per square km
  • Chandigarh - 9,258 people per square km
  • Puducherry - 2,547 person per square km

 

KEY POINT OF CENSUS OF INDIA 2011

  • Total Population of India – 1,21,08,54,977
  • Sex Ratio (females per 1000 males) – 943
  • Density – 382 persons per sq. km
  • Infant Mortality Rate (2006) – 57 per 1000 live births
  • Maternal Mortality Rate – 407 per lakh live births
  • Literacy Rate of the country – 74.04 %
  • Highest literacy – Kerela (94%)
  • Lowest literacy – Bihar ( 61.8%)
  • Highest female literacy – Kerela (92.1 %)
  • Lowest female literacy – Bihar (51.5%)
  • Highest Population – Uttar Pradesh (19,98,12,341)
  • Lowest Population – Sikkim ( 6,10,577)
  • Highest Population Density – Bihar (1106)
  • Lowest Population Density – Arunachal Pradesh (17)
  • Highest Sex Ratio – Kerela (1084)
  • State having lowest Sex Ratio – Haryana (879)
  • Life Expectancy at Birth – 63.5 years, Male – 62.6 years and Female – 64.2 years.
  • Decadal growth rate in Population – 17.7%
  • Highest SC population is in UP.
  • Lowest SC population is in Nagaland.
  • Highest ST population is in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Lowest ST population is in Punjab.
11

What is the full form of NFWP, launched by Central Government of India on 14 November 2004?

  1. ((a))

    National Food and Wheat Processing

  2. ((b))

    National Food for Work Programme

  3. ((c))

    National Forest for Wildlife Protection

  4. ((d))

    National Federation for Work and Progress

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

National Food for Work Programme

The correct answer is National Food for Work Programme.

Key Points

  • The National Food for Work Programme (NFWP) was launched in India in 2004.
  • It was a component of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) later renamed as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
  • The NFWP aimed to provide food security to rural populations by offering employment opportunities in labour-intensive projects.
  • Workers participating in the NFWP received food grains as remuneration for their work.
  • The NFWP was integrated into the broader framework of the MGNREGS, expanding the scope and coverage of the employment guarantee program.​

Additional Information

  • Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
  • The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) is a social security and employment guarantee program in India.
  • It was enacted in 2005 under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA).
  • The program provides a legal guarantee for 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to rural households.
  • MGNREGS focuses on labour-intensive projects such as road construction, water conservation, and irrigation to create employment opportunities and improve rural infrastructure.
  • The scheme ensures timely payment of wages, provides social security provisions, and promotes transparency through mandatory public disclosure of information.
12

What is the distance between the rail tracks in a broad gauge?

  1. ((a))

    1.76 m

  2. ((b))

    1.59 m

  3. ((c))

    1.79 m

  4. ((d))

    1.67 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1.67 m

The correct answer is 1.67 m.

Key Points

Broad Gauge

  • The distance between rails in broad gauge is 1.676 m (5 ft 6 in).
  • It would not be wrong to say that a standard gauge or any gauge wider than 1.435 m (4 ft 8½ in) is called a broad gauge.
  • The first railway line built in India was a broad gauge line from Bori Bunder (now Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus) to Thane in 1853.
  • Broad gauge railways are also used at ports for cranes etc.
  • This gives better stability and at the same time, they are much better than thinner gauges.

Thus, the correct answer is 1.676 meters.

Additional Information

  • The gauge of a railway track:
  • The apparent minimum vertical distance between the inner sides of two tracks is called a railway gauge.
  • That is, the distance between two tracks on a railway route is called a railway gauge.
  • About sixty percent of the world's railways use a standard gauge.
  • There are 4 types of railway gauges used in India - Broad gauge, meter gauge, narrow gauge, and standard gauge.
13

Elephantiasis is also known as lymphatic filariasis, it’s caused by parasitic worms, and can spread from person to person through _______

  1. ((a))

    Reptiles

  2. ((b))

    Virus

  3. ((c))

    Mosquitoes

  4. ((d))

    Protozoa

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mosquitoes

The correct answer is Mosquitoes.

Key Points

  • Elephantiasis, or lymphatic filariasis, is a painful and disfiguring condition. Infection with parasitic nematodes (roundworms) of the family Filariodidea is transmitted through mosquito bites.
  • Mosquito-transmitted larvae land on the skin and can then enter the body. The larvae subsequently travel to lymphatic arteries, where they mature into adult worms, thus perpetuating the transmission cycle.
  • The main symptom of elephantiasis is gross enlargement and swelling of an area of the body because of the accumulation of fluid. The arms and legs are the areas most often affected. An entire arm or leg may swell to several times its normal size resembling the thick, round appearance of an elephant's leg.
  • Parasitic worms, commonly known as helminths, are huge macroparasites with adults visible to the human eye.
  • Many of them are soil-transmitted intestinal worms that infect the gastrointestinal tract.

Additional Information

  • Bacteria are single-celled organisms with a small size. Bacteria can be found practically everywhere on the globe and are essential to its ecosystems.
  • Protozoa are microscopic unicellular eukaryotes with a complex internal structure and a wide range of metabolic functions.
  • A virus is a type of infectious microorganism that consists of a nucleic acid segment (DNA or RNA) encased in a protein coat.
14

Rajya Sabha passed _______ on 2 December 2021, which provides for surveillance, inspection, operation and maintenance of dams, for prevention of dam failure related disaster, and also makes provision for institutional mechanisms to ensure their safe functioning.

  1. ((a))

    National Dam Safety Bill (2020)

  2. ((b))

    Dams Bill (2021)

  3. ((c))

    National Dam Bill (2020)

  4. ((d))

    Dam Safety Bill (2019)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dam Safety Bill (2019)

The correct answer is Dam Safety Bill(2019).

Key Points

  • Parliament has passed the Dam Safety Bill, 2019 with the Rajya Sabha approving it on 2 December 2021.
  • The House also approved the amendments moved by the government to the bill.
  • The bill provides for surveillance, inspection, operation, and maintenance of the specified dam for the prevention of dam failure-related disasters and for an institutional mechanism to ensure their safe functioning.

Additional Information

  • The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019 was was introduced in parliament in 2021. which prohibits commercial surrogacy and constitutes the National Surrogacy Board and State Surrogacy Boards to regulate surrogacy.
  • The National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (Amendment) Bill, 2021 was introduced in parliament in December 2021.
  • It Declares six new institutes as institutions of national importance and sets up a Council to coordinate the activities of the national institutes of pharmaceutical education and research.
15

Who among the following travellers to India was a Portuguese?

  1. ((a))

    Duarte Barbosa

  2. ((b))

    Francois Bernier

  3. ((c))

    Nicolo de Conti

  4. ((d))

    Marco Polo

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Duarte Barbosa

The correct answer is Duarte Barbosa.

Key Points

  • Duarte Barbosa
  • He was a Portuguese writer and officer from Portuguese India.
  • He was a Christian pastor and scrivener in a feitoria in Kochi.
  • His Book of Duarte Barbosa is one of the earliest examples of Portuguese travel literature.​

Additional Information

  • Niccolao Manucci
  • ​He was a Venetian writer, doctor, and traveller.
  • He wrote a first-hand account of the Mughal Empire.
  • He is famous for his work "Storia do Mogor", an account of Mughal history and life.
  • Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
  • He was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveller.
  • He is best known for his 1666 discovery or purchase of the 116-carat Tavernier Blue diamond.
  • Francois Bernier
  • ​He was a French physician and traveller.
  • He wrote Travels in the Mughal Empire which is about the reigns of Dara Shikoh and Aurangzeb.
16

From which of the following Viceroys of India did Hume obtain permission for the first session of the Indian National Congress?

  1. ((a))

    Lord Curzon

  2. ((b))

    Lord Ripon

  3. ((c))

    Lord Dufferin

  4. ((d))

    Lord Elgin

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lord Dufferin

Allan Octavian Hume established the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1885 during the viceregal term of 3) Lord Dufferin.

Therefore, Hume obtained permission for the first session of INC from Lord Dufferin.

Additional Information

  • Lord Curzon: He served as the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905. This is after the establishment of INC. His tenure is notable for the partition of Bengal in 1905 into East Bengal and West Bengal, which caused a major stir in Indian politics.
  • Lord Ripon: His term was from 1880 to 1884 which was just before the INC was established. He is remembered for the Ilbert Bill controversy and his implementation of local self-government.
  • Lord Elgin: There were two Lord Elgins, James Bruce, 8th Earl of Elgin (Viceroy from 1862 to 1863) and Victor Bruce, 9th Earl of Elgin (Viceroy from 1894 to 1899). Both served their terms outside the period of the INC's formation.
17

Speculative demand for money and interest rate have _______.

  1. ((a))

    direct relation

  2. ((b))

    constant relation

  3. ((c))

    no relation

  4. ((d))

    inverse relation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

inverse relation

The correct answer is inverse relation.

  • Speculative demand for money and interest rates share an inverse relationship. As interest rates rise, speculative demand for money falls, and vice versa.
  • This is because when interest rates are high, people expect them to drop in the future and prefer to invest in bonds to earn high interest, reducing their demand for holding money.
  • Conversely, when interest rates are low, people predict a rise and prefer to hold money with the expectation of investing in bonds at higher future interest rates, leading to an increase in speculative demand for money.

 Additional Information

  • A direct relationship would mean that as interest rates increase, speculative demand for money would also increase. This is not consistent with the actual economic behavior observed.
  • A constant relationship would suggest that changes in interest rates have no effect on the speculative demand for money, which contradicts established economic theory and practice.
  • No relationship would mean interest rate fluctuations do not impact speculative demand for money. However, empirical evidence and economic theory both establish a clear, inverse relationship between the two.
18

The 2022 elections in Manipur were held in _______ phases.

  1. ((a))

    two

  2. ((b))

    five

  3. ((c))

    four

  4. ((d))

    three

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

two

The 2022 elections in Manipur were held in two phases.

Additional InformationManipur is a state in Northeast India, with the city of Imphal as its capital.

19

The transition season from hot rainy season to dry winter conditions in India takes place in _______ with the monsoons withdrawing from the Northern Plains and entering the south part of the country.

  1. ((a))

    March - May

  2. ((b))

    June - July

  3. ((c))

    October - November

  4. ((d))

    January - February

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

October - November

The correct answer is October- Novenmber.

The transition season from the hot rainy season to dry winter conditions in India occurs during October - November.

  1. This is the period known as the "Retreating Monsoon" or "Post-Monsoon" period.
  2. During this transition, monsoons retreat from the Northern plains and move towards the southern part of the country.
  3. As the monsoons withdraw, the weather changes from rainy conditions to the onset of the dry winter season.

Additional Information

  • March - May is typically considered pre-monsoon or summer period in India.
  • June - July is when the Southwest monsoon sets in, marking the start of the rainy season.
  • In January - February, most parts of the country typically experience winter conditions
20

Which state launched the Khel Nursery Scheme 2022-23 to establish sports nurseries in government, private educational institutions, and private sports institutions?

  1. ((a))

    Haryana

  2. ((b))

    Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Manipur

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haryana

The correct answer is Haryana​.

Key Points

  • Haryana’s Minister of State for Sports and Youth Affairs, Sandeep Singh launched ‘Khel Nursery Scheme 2022-23’ to promote sports in the state.
  • The scheme promotes sports nurseries that will be started in government, private educational institutions, and private sports institutions.
  • The sports nurseries are being opened for the sports included in the Olympic, Asian, and Commonwealth Games.

Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions)

21

During a journey of 100 km, a driver drives the first 50 km at a speed of 50 km/h, the next 25 km at 50 km/h and the remaining 25 km at a speed of 25 km/h. Determine the average speed.

  1. ((a))

    50 km/h

  2. ((b))

    43 km/h

  3. ((c))

    40 km/h

  4. ((d))

    33.33 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

40 km/h

GIVEN:

Total distance is 100 km 

covers first 50 km at 50 km/h 

next time 25 km at 50km/h 

remaining 25 km at 25 km/h 

FORMULA USED:

Time = Distance/Speed

Average speed =Total distance travelled/Total time taken 

CALCULATION:

Time taken to cover first 50 km = 50/50 = 1 hr

Time taken to cover next 25 km =  25/50 = 1/2 hr 

Time taken  to cover the remaining distance = 25/25 = 1hr

Total time taken = ( 1 +1/2 + 1) = 5/2 hr or 2.5 hr

Total distance travelled is 100km 

Average speed =\ 100/2.5 = 40 km/h 

Hence, Average speed is 40km/h .

22

If sin θ + cos θ = K and sec θ + cosec θ = m, find the value of m(K2 − 1).

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    2M

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    2K

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2K

GIVEN:

sinθ\theta + cosθ\theta = k 

secθ\theta+ cosecθ\theta= m 

FORMULA USED:

sin2 θ\theta + cos2 θ\theta = 1 

( sinθ\theta + cosθ\theta )2 = sin2 θ\theta + cos2 θ\theta  + 2 sinθ\theta + cos θ\theta 

sinθ\theta =  1/cosecθ\theta  

secθ\theta = 1/cosθ\theta

CALCULATION:

Here, we have 

k = ( sinθ\theta + cos θ\theta ) 

Now, K2 - 1 = ( sinθ\theta  + cos θ\theta)2 - 1  

⇒ sin2θ\theta + cos2θ\theta  + 2 sinθ\theta cosθ\theta - 1 

⇒ 1 + 2 sinθ\theta cosθ\theta - 1  = 2 sinθ\thetacosθ\theta 

Also, m = secθ\theta + cosecθ\theta 

So,

m ( K2 - 1 ) =  ( secθ\theta + cosecθ\theta ) ( 2 sinθ\theta cosθ\theta

⇒ secθ\theta × 2 sinθ\theta cosθ\theta + cosecθ\theta × 2 sinθ\theta cosθ\theta

⇒ 1/cosθ\theta × 2 sinθ\theta  cosθ\theta + 1/sinθ\theta × 2 sinθ\theta cosθ\theta    .................... [ secθ\theta = 1/cosθ\theta and cosecθ\theta  = 1/ sinθ\theta ] 

⇒ 2 sinθ\theta + 2 cosθ\theta  = 2 ( sinθ\theta + cosθ\theta)  = 2 K   ........................[ As, k = ( sinθ\theta  + cosθ\theta ) 

Hence, the required value is 2K .

23

The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by five students - V, W, X, Y and Z - in five subjects.

Subjects →MathsPhysicsChemistryBotanyHindi
Maximum Marks →300300200100100
Students ↓
V60809010095
W9070807040
X7090958075
Y8060709580
Z9050808585

The Chemistry marks of obtained by student W is how much more/less than Chemistry marks of obtained by student Y?

  1. ((a))

    20 more

  2. ((b))

    25 less

  3. ((c))

    30 less

  4. ((d))

    15 more

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 more

GIVEN:

Percentage of marks obtained by 5 students in 5 subjects

CALCULATION:

Maximum marks in Chemistry = 200

Percentage score by W in chemistry = 80%

Marks of W in chemistry = 80/100 × 200 = 160 

Percentage score  by Y in chemistry = 70%

Marks of Y in chemistry = 70/100 × 200 = 140 

Difference in marks = ( 160 - 140) = 20 

Hence, W obtained 20 marks more than Y in chemistry .

24

Find the least number which is exactly divisible by 42, 56, 62 and 70.

  1. ((a))

    27010

  2. ((b))

    26040

  3. ((c))

    26082

  4. ((d))

    26096

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

26040

GIVEN:

Four numbers 42 , 56 , 62 and 70 divides a number 

CONCEPT USED:

Least number exactly divisible by given numbers = L.C.M of given numbers

CALCULATION:

L.C.M of 42, 56 , 62 and 70  = 26040 

Hence, the required number is 26040 .

25

Find the simplest value of 6.251.961.1\frac{6.25 - 1.96}{1.1}.

  1. ((a))

    3.8

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    2.9

  4. ((d))

    3.9

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3.9

GIVEN:

6.251.961.16.25 -1.96 \over1.1

CALCULATION:

(6.25 - 1.96)/1.1 = 4.29/1.1 

⇒ 4.29/1.1 = 3.9 

Hence, the required value is 3.9 .

26

At a workplace, one man alone can complete a work in 32 days. If the entire staff, i.e. 6 women and 4 men can complete the work in 6 days, how many days will one woman alone take to complete the entire work?

  1. ((a))

    244

  2. ((b))

    86

  3. ((c))

    154

  4. ((d))

    144

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

144

GIVEN:

1 man completes the work in 32 days 

6women and 4 men complete the same work in 6 days 

FORMULA USED:

Total unit of work = Efficiency × No. of days 

CALCULATION:

Here, we have 

1 man do the complete work in 32 days 

Total unit of work = 1m × 32 days  

Now,same work is done by 6 women and 4 men in 6 days 

So, equate the total unit of work, as it is same in both the cases

⇒ 1m × 32 days = ( 6w + 4m) × 6 days 

⇒ 32m = 36 w + 24m 

⇒  8m =  36 w 

⇒ 1m = 9/2 w 

Now, let 1 woman complete the whole work in x days 

Again ,equate the total unit of work done 

⇒ 1m × 32 days = 1w × x days 

⇒ 9/2w × 32 = 1w × x  ...........  [1m = 9/2w]

⇒ x = 144 

Hence, woman takes 144 days to complete the whole work .

27

What is the total surface area of a cone having a height of 12 cm and a slant height of 13 cm?

(Take π = 3.14)

  1. ((a))

    264.71 cm2

  2. ((b))

    282.6 cm2

  3. ((c))

    292.4 cm2

  4. ((d))

    136.36 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

282.6 cm2

GIVEN:

Height = 12 cm

Slant height = 13 cm

FORMULA USED:

r = l2h2\sqrt {l^2 - h^2 } 

Total Surface Area = π\pi r ( l + r) 

Where, r = radius , l = slant height , h= height 

CALCULATION:

Here, we have 

h = 12 cm , l = 13 cm

r = 132122\sqrt { 13^2 - 12^2 } 

r = 169144\sqrt {169 - 144 }  = 25\sqrt {25} = 5 

Total Surface area of a cone = π\pi r ( l + r)  

⇒ 3.14 × 5 ( 13 + 5) = 15.7 × 18 =  282.6 cm2 .

Hence, the required total surface area of a cone is 282.6 cm2 .

28

A can complete a task in 24 days and B can complete the same task in 36 days. They start working together but A works only for 4 days. The remaining work is completed by B. If the contract to complete the work is for ₹4,800, then what is B's share (in ₹)?

  1. ((a))

    4,400

  2. ((b))

    2,400

  3. ((c))

    4,000

  4. ((d))

    3,600

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4,000

GIVEN:

A do the work in 24 days

B do the work in 36 days 

Contract to complete the work is Rs4,800

FORMULA USED:

Efficiency = Total unit/No. of days 

CALCULATION:

Let us assume the total work to be 72 unit 

( you can assume any no. but for the sake of calculation it is advised to take the L.C.M. of the given numbers. Here, LC.M. of 24 and 36 is 72 )

Now,

Efficiency of A = 72/24 = 3 unit/day 

Efficiency of B = 72/ 36 = 2 unit/day 

Work done by A in 4 days =  3 × 4 = 12 unit 

Remaining work done by B  = ( 72 - 12 ) = 60 unit 

Work done by A : B = 12 : 60  = 1 : 5

Also,  total contract to complete the work is 4,800 

B's share = 5/6 × 4800 = 4,000 

Hence, B's share is Rs4,000 .

29

The sum of the coefficients of x4 y2 and x2 y4 in the product of (-3xy2 + 1) and 7x3 - 5x2 y - 2y3 + 3xy2 + 2x - 5 is _______.

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    -30

  4. ((d))

    -28

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

-30

GIVEN:

( - 3 x y2 + 1 )  and 7x3 - 5x2 y - 2y3 + 3xy2 + 2x - 5

CALCULATION:

Product of ( - 3xy2 + 1 ) and 7x3 - 5x2 y - 2y3 + 3xy2 + 2x - 5 

⇒ -21x4 y2 + 15x3 y3 + 6 x y4 - 9 x2 y4 - 6 x2 y2 + 15 x y2 + 7x3 - 5 x2 y - 2y3 + 3x y2 + 2x - 5 

Now,

Coefficients of x4 y and x2 y4 

⇒ -21 x4 y2  and - 9 x2 y4 =  ( - 21 - 9 ) = - 30 .

Hence, the required coefficient is - 30.

30

Shyamal takes a loan from Shubham for 2 years at the rate of 8% per annum on simple interest and after 2 years he gave back Rs  41,296 to Shubham and completed the payment of his loan. Find the interest paid by Shyamal.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 5,680

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5,696

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 5,690

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 5,699

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 5,696

GIVEN:

Amount = Rs41,296 

Time = 2 years 

Rate = 8%

FORMULA USED:

S.I. = ( P × R × T ) /100 

A = S.I. + P 

Where,

S.I. = Simple Interest, R = Rate of interest ,P = Principal

T = Time , A = Amount

CALCULATION:

Let the principal be P 

Here, we have R = 8% and T = 2 years

Amount = S.I. + P 

⇒41296 = S.I. + P 

S.I. = ( 41296 - P) ............. ( 1) 

Now,

S.I. = ( P × R × T) /100 

41296 - P = ( P × 8 × 2 ) /100  .............. {from ( i) }

⇒41296 - P = 16P/100 

⇒4129600 - 100 P = 16P 

⇒ 4129600 = 116P 

⇒ 4129600/116 = P 

P = Rs 35,600 

Now, Interest = Amount - Principal = ( 41296 - 35600 ) = Rs5,696 

Hence, the interest paid by Shyamal is Rs5,696 .

31

A man increases his speed to 11/6 times of his original speed. By doing this he reaches his office 20 minutes before the usual time. Find the time he usually takes.

  1. ((a))

    40 minutes

  2. ((b))

    44 minutes

  3. ((c))

    25 minutes

  4. ((d))

    42 minutes

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

44 minutes

GIVEN:

Man speed increases to 11/6 times his original speed 

Difference in time before and after increasing speed is 20 min

FORMULA USED:

Distance = Speed × Time 

CALCULATION :

Let the distance be d 

Let the original speed be 6x

New speed = 11/6 × 6x = 11x 

Now, according to the given question we have

d/6x - d/11x = 20 

⇒ ( 11d - 6d) /66x = 20 

⇒ 5d/66x = 20 

⇒ 5d = 1320x  ⇔ d = 264x 

Now, original time = distance/ original speed 

⇒ d/6x = 264x/6x = 44  minutes ......[d = 264x]

Hence, original time taken is 44 minutes .

32

The area of a sector of a circle of radius 18 cm is 54π cm2. Find the length of the corresponding arc of the sector.

  1. ((a))

    8π cm

  2. ((b))

    5π cm

  3. ((c))

    7π cm

  4. ((d))

    6π cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6π cm

GIVEN:

Area is 54 π\pi cm2

Radius is 18 cm 

FORMULA USED:

A = ( l × r ) /2 

Where, A = Area , l = length of the arc , r = radius 

CALCULATION:

Here, we have 

A = 54 π\pi  , r = 18

A = ( l × r ) /2

⇒ 54 π\pi  = ( l × 18) /2 

⇒ l = 6 π\pi

Hence, the required length of the arc is 6 π\pi cm .

33

Which of the following is the smallest fraction?

  1. ((a))

    1215\frac{12}{15}

  2. ((b))

    712\frac{7}{12}

  3. ((c))

    47\frac{4}{7}

  4. ((d))

    1116\frac{11}{16}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

47\frac{4}{7}

Solution:

12/15 =  0.8

7/12 = 0.58 

4/7 = 0.57 

11/16 = 0.68 

So, it is clearly visible that 0.57 is the smallest value among the given fractions.

⇒ 4/7 = 0.57 

4/7 is the smallest fraction.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

34

In an election contested by two candidates, one candidate got 26% of the total votes casted and lost by 2280 votes. Find the total number of votes casted.

  1. ((a))

    4780

  2. ((b))

    4250

  3. ((c))

    4750

  4. ((d))

    4080

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4750

Given:

election contested by two candidates

one candidate got 26% of the total votes and lost by 2280 votes

Calculation:

Total casted votes are 100%.

Out of 100%, one candidate got 26%

Other candidate got, 

⇒ 100% - 26% = 74%

Difference between their % is, 

⇒ 74% - 26% = 48%

According to the question, 

⇒ 48% = 2280

⇒ 1% = 2280/48 = 95/2

Total votes = 100% = 100 × 95/2 = 4750

∴ The total number of votes casted is 4750

35

What will be the simple to compound interest (compounded annually) ratio on two identical funds put in a bank at an interest rate of 8% (per annum) for three years?

  1. ((a))

    3 ∶ 4

  2. ((b))

    1875 ∶  2029

  3. ((c))

    3  ∶ 5

  4. ((d))

    243  ∶ 342

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1875 ∶  2029

GIVEN:

Rate = 8%

Time = 3 years

FORMULA USED:

S.I. = ( P × R × T) /100 

A = P × (1+R/100)t( 1 + R/100 ) ^t 

C.I. = A - P 

Where,

S.I. = Simple Interest

P = Principal 

R = Rate of interest

T = Time 

C.I. = Compound Interest 

A = Amount 

CALCULATION:

Let the Principal be P for both S.I. and C.I. as it is identical in both 

Rate = 8% and Time = 3 years 

S.I. = ( P × 8 × 3 ) /100 =  24P/100 

Now,

A = P × (1+8/100)3 ( 1 + 8 /100 ) ^3  = P × 27/25 × 27/25 × 27/25  = 19683P/15625

C.I. =  (A - P)  = ( 19683P/15625 - P) = 4058P/15625 

Now, required ratio of S.I. and C.I. 

S.I. : C.I.  =  24P/100 : 4058P/15625 

⇒ 3 : 2029/625 = 1875 : 2029 

Hence, the required ratio of S.I. and C.I. is 1875 : 2029 .

36

If the sum of all the prime numbers is ‘x’ and that of all the odd prime numbers is ‘y’, then what is the value of x - y?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    ∞ 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2

Given:

Sum of all the prime numbers = x 

Sum of all the odd prime numbers = y

Concept Used:

All prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7,...

Solution:

Except 2, all prime numbers are odd.

x = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ....

y = 3 + 5 + 7 + ....

x - y = (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ...) - ( 3 + 5 + 7 + ...)

x - y = 2

Hence, the correct option is 3.

37

If 2x5x2+10x5\frac{2x}{5x^2 + 10x - 5} = 1, then find the value of (x1xx-\frac{1}{x})

  1. ((a))

    85\frac{-8}{5}

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    52\frac{5}{2}

  4. ((d))

    -1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

85\frac{-8}{5}

GIVEN:

2x5x2+10x52x \over5x^2 + 10x -5 = 1 

CALCULATION:

Here, we have 

2x5x2+10x52x \over 5x^2 + 10x - 5 = 1 

⇒2x  = 5x2 + 10x - 5 

⇒ 5x2 + 8x - 5 = 0 

Now, on  dividing  the equation by x , we get

⇒ 5x + 8 - 5/x = 0 

⇒ 5x - 5/x =  - 8

⇒ 5( x - 1/x) = -8

⇒ ( x -1/x ) = -8/5 

Hence, the value of the equation ( x - 1/x) is -8/5 .

38

A cone has base radius 8 cm and vertical height 15 cm. What is its total surface area (in cm2, rounded off to the nearest integer)? (Take π = 227\frac{22}{7})

  1. ((a))

    578

  2. ((b))

    629

  3. ((c))

    721

  4. ((d))

    427

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

629

GIVEN:

The radius of the cone is 8 cm 

The height of the cone is 15 cm 

FORMULA USED:

l = r2+h2\sqrt{r^2 + h^2} 

Total surface area of a cone = π r( l +r) 

Where, l = slant height, r = radius of cone and h = height of the cone 

CALCULATION:

Here, we have r = 8 cm , height = 15cm

l = r2+h2\sqrt{r^2 + h^2} 

⇒ 82+152\sqrt{8^2 + 15^2 }  =  64+225\sqrt {64 + 225 } = 289\sqrt{ 289 }  = 17 cm 

Now, Total surface area = π r (l + r) 

⇒ 22/7 × 8 × ( 17 + 8 )                            (π = 22 /7) 

⇒ 176 /7 × 25 = 4400/7 = 628.57 ~ 629  ( rounded off to the nearest integer ) 

Hence, the Total surface area of a cone is 629 cm2 .

39

Gita bought two dresses for ₹2,800 each. If she sells one at a profit of 10%, then at what profit percentage she should sell the other dress to make a profit of 15% on the whole?

  1. ((a))

    5%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    10%

  4. ((d))

    15%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20%

GIVEN:

Cost price of each dress is Rs2800 

Sells one at a profit of 10%

Profit on whole is 15%

FORMULA USED:

S.P. =  ( 100 + P%) /100 × C.P. 

Profit = ( S.P. - C.P.) 

Profit% = ( Profit/C.P.) × 100 

Where, S.P. = Selling price , C.P. = Cost price and p% = profit percent

CALCULATION:

Here, we have C.P. of one dress is Rs2800 and p% = 10%

S.P. of one dress = ( 100 + 10 ) /100 × 2800 =  Rs3080 

Now, according to the question there is 15% profit on whole

Total C.P. = ( 2800 + 2800 ) = Rs5600 , p% = 15%

⇒S.P. on whole  = ( 100 + 15) /100 × 5600 = Rs6440 

S.P. of other dress should be = ( 6440 - 3080 ) = Rs3360 

C.P. of other dress = Rs2800 

Profit = ( S.P. - C.P.) = ( 3360 - 2800) = Rs560 

 Profit% = ( Profit/C.P.) 

⇒ 560/2800 × 100 =  20%

Hence, Gita should sell the other dress at 20% profit .

40

Kalpana receives 25% discount on the purchase of an oven marked for Rs. 3,600. She receives an additional 2% discount for paying cash. How much does she pay for the oven?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2,708

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2,646

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2,520

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2,545

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 2,646

GIVEN:

Marked price is Rs.3600

Discount = 25%

Additional discount = 2% on paying cash

FORMULA USED:

S.P. = M.P. × ( 100 - d%)/100 

Where, S.P. = Selling Price , M.P. = Marked Price and d% = discount in percentage

CALCULATION:

Here, we have M.P. = Rs3600 and d% = 25%

S.P. = M.P.× ( 100 - d%) /100 

⇒ 3600 × ( 100 - 25) /100  = Rs2700 

Now,  additional discount of 2% is given on cash ( i.e. on Selling Price) 

New Selling price = 2700 - 2700 × 2/100 = ( 2700 - 54)  = Rs2646 .

Hence, she pays Rs2646 on oven .

General Intelligence (25 questions)

41

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Explanation : 

In the given series the outer square

is decreasing ,the triangle

is rotating with angle of 900 ,the circle

is changing their position one circle is overlapping the other and the star

is becoming narrow.

Therefore the complete pattern will be :

Hence, The correct answer is option 2.

42

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figure that will replace the question mark in the following figure series is:

Step I: In the Top 2 columns - The symbols are getting shifted to the next row.

Step II: In the Bottom 2 column - The symbols are getting shifted to the previous row.

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

43

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Explanation : 

The mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is as shown below :

Hence, Option 1 is the correct answer.

44

Select the option that is related to the fourth number in the same way as the first number is related to the second number and the fifth number is related to the sixth number.

74 : 37 :: ? : 26 :: 148 : 74

  1. ((a))

    74

  2. ((b))

    68

  3. ((c))

    84

  4. ((d))

    52

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

52

Logic : First number ÷ 2 = Second number 

74 : 37 → 74  ÷ 2 = 37 

And

148 : 74 → 148  ÷ 2 = 74 

Similarly,

52 : 26 → 52 ÷ 2 = 26 

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

45

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

GARNISH : RAGHSIN :: DOLEFUL : LODLUFE :: ABOLISH : ?

  1. ((a))

    BOLISHA

  2. ((b))

    HSILOBA

  3. ((c))

    OBAHSIL

  4. ((d))

    LOBAHSIL

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

OBAHSIL

The pattern followed here is:

GARNISH : RAGHSIN 

for, DOLEFUL : LODLUFE 

Similarly, for ABOLISH

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

46

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.

WXYZ _ WXY _ Z _ XX _ ZWW

  1. ((a))

    WYWZ

  2. ((b))

    ZYWY

  3. ((c))

    ZYYZ

  4. ((d))

    WZZW

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ZYWY

Given : WXYZ _ WXY _ Z _ XX _ ZWW

We put all the options in blank area and check who create particular pattern 

  1. WXYZ W - WXY Y Z- W XX Z Z-WW
  2. WXYZ Z - WXY Y Z - W XX Y  Z- WW
  • A particular pattern is repeating
  1. WXYZ Z - WXY Y Z- Y  XX Z  Z- WW
  2. WXYZ W - WXY Z  Z- Z XX Y Z- WW

Option 2 give the correct pattern 

Hence," ZYWY" is the correct answer.

47

A is the mother of C. D and E are the brothers of G. G is the father of C. H is the son of E. How is H related to A?

  1. ((a))

    Husband’s brother’s son

  2. ((b))

    Brother

  3. ((c))

    Son

  4. ((d))

    Father

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Husband’s brother’s son

Preparing the family tree by using the following symbols : 

According to the given 

H is Husband’s brother’s son to A

Hence, Option 1 is the correct answer.

48

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

25, 36, 48, 61, 75, ?

  1. ((a))

    86

  2. ((b))

    94

  3. ((c))

    81

  4. ((d))

    90

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

90

The logic followed here is :

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

49

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(8, 32, 68)

(5, 20, 44)

  1. ((a))

    (11, 42, 164)

  2. ((b))

    (4, 16, 36)

  3. ((c))

    (9, 20, 44)

  4. ((d))

    (7, 28, 58)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(4, 16, 36)

Logic : First number × 4 = second number × 2 + 4 = Third number

In (8,32,68) → 8 × 4  = 32 × 2 = 64 + 4 = 68 

 In (5,20,44 ) → 5 × 4 = 20 × 2 = 40 + 4 = 44 

Similarly, 

Only Option 2 follows the pattern 

(4,16,36) → 4 × 4 = 16 × 2 = 32 + 4 = 36 

Hence, "(4, 16, 36)" is the correct answer.

50

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

255 * 376 * 94 * 502 * 388 = 638 * 268

  1. ((a))

    ×, ÷, +, −, +

  2. ((b))

    +, ÷, ×, +, −

  3. ((c))

    ÷, ×, +, −, −

  4. ((d))

    ×, ÷, −, +, +

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

×, ÷, −, +, +

Bodmas Table:

Given equation : 255 * 376 * 94 * 502 * 388 = 638 * 268

1. ×, ÷, +, −, +

255 × 376 ÷ 94 + 502 − 388 = 638 + 268

255 × 4 + 502 - 388 = 906

1020 + 502 - 388 = 906 

1522 - 388 = 906 

1134 ≠ 906 (LHS ≠ RHS )

 

2.+, ÷, ×, +, −

255 + 376 ÷ 94 × 502  + 388 = 638 − 268

255 + 4 × 502 + 388 = 370

255 + 2008 + 388 = 370 

2651 ≠ 370 (LHS ≠ RHS )

 

3. ÷, ×, +, −, −

255 ÷ 376 × 94 + 502 − 388 = 638 − 268

0.678 × 94 + 502 − 388 = 638 − 268

63.75 + 502 - 388 = 370 

565.75 - 388 = 370 

177.75 ≠ 370 (LHS ≠ RHS )

 

4. ×, ÷, −, +, +

255 × 376 ÷ 94 − 502 + 388 = 638 + 268 

255 × 4 − 502 + 388 = 906

1020 - 502 + 388 = 906 

1408 - 502 =906

906 = 906 ( LHS = RHS) 

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

51

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the parent of B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If G @ H & N # K % Y, then how is G related to Y?

  1. ((a))

    Father-in-law

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Mother's Brother

  4. ((d))

    Father's father

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Father-in-law

SYMBOL@&#%
MEANINGHUSBANDPARENTBROTHERWIFE

Given expression : G @ H & N # K % Y

After substituion family tree will be 

G is father-in-law to Y

Hence, Option 1 is the correct answer.

52

Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?)in the following series.

76, 55, 97, 99, 118, 143, ?, ?

  1. ((a))

    140, 187

  2. ((b))

    139, 180

  3. ((c))

    141, 165

  4. ((d))

    139, 187

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

139, 187

The logic followed here is : 

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

53

Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight row facing north. Only two people sit to the left of E. Only three people sit between E and C. B sits second to the right of A. B is not an immediate neighbour of C. D sits to the immediate right of G. Who sits at the middle of the row?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

According to the given information,

  • All are facing north
  • Only two people sit to the left of E
  • Only three people sit between E and C.

  • B sits second to the right of A.
  • B is not an immediate neighbour of C

  • D sits to the immediate right of G.

B sits at the middle of the row.

Hence, Option 1 is the correct answer.

54

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term.

GRAB : JVFH :: BUST : EYXZ :: DIPS : ?

  1. ((a))

    HNUY

  2. ((b))

    GMTZ

  3. ((c))

    GMUY

  4. ((d))

    GNVZ

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

GMUY

Table of english alphabet positional value 

GRAB : JVFH

BUST : EVXZ

Similarly,

DIPS : GMUY

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

55

In a code language, ‘close the window’ is coded as ‘ja pa la’, ‘window is opened’ is coded as ‘ma du la’, ‘door is strong’ is coded as ‘na ta ma’. What is the code for the word ‘opened’?

  1. ((a))

    la

  2. ((b))

    pa

  3. ((c))

    ma

  4. ((d))

    du

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

du

Explanation :

Opened is coded as du 

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

56

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose the figure that would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Explanation : When the paper is unfolded it will appear like 

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

57

Which of the following options represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in the English dictionary?

  1. Insolent
  2. Insert
  3. Insect
  4. Inscribe
  5. Inshore
  1. ((a))

    2, 3, 5, 1, 4

  2. ((b))

    4, 2, 3, 5, 1

  3. ((c))

    4, 3, 2, 5, 1

  4. ((d))

    3, 2, 4, 5, 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4, 3, 2, 5, 1

The dictionary order is ,

  1. Inscribe 

3.Insect

  1. Insert
  2. Inshore
  3. Insolent 

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

58

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions. The numbers in different sections indicate the number of people who like different food items. How many people do NOT prefer bread? 

  1. ((a))

    43

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    151

  4. ((d))

    186

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

186

According to the given information, people who don't have bread 

⇒ 87 + 34 + 65 = 186 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

59

In a certain code language, 'VITAL' is coded as K49W and 'WOMAN' is coded as M51X. How will 'POWER' be coded in that language?

  1. ((a))

    Q72M

  2. ((b))

    Q62Q

  3. ((c))

    M78S

  4. ((d))

    M60S

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Q62Q

Alphabet and their positional value:

VITAL' is coded as K49W 

Sum of the place value of VITAL - 15 → (22 + 9 + 20 + 1 + 12) - 15 = 64 - 15 = 49.

'WOMAN' is coded as M51X

Sum of the place value of WOMAN - 15 → (23 + 15 + 13 + 1 + 14) - 15 = 66 - 15 = 51.

Similarly, 

POWER is coded as Q62Q

Sum of the place value of POWER - 15 → (16 + 15 + 23 + 4 + 18) - 15 = 77 - 15 = 62.

Hence, Option 2 is the correct answer.

60

Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All capsicums are chilies.

All chilies are cucumbers.

All cucumbers are gourds.

Conclusions:

I. Some cucumbers are capsicums.

II. All gourds are capsicums.

III. All chilies are gourds.

  1. ((a))

    All the conclusions follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusions I and II follow

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusions II and III follow

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusions I and III follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only conclusions I and III follow

The least possible venn diagram is 

Conclusions:

I. Some cucumbers are capsicums 

True ( as shown in the above diagram that cucumbers are included in capsicum )

II. All gourds are capsicums

False ( because all cucumbers are gourds, the conclusion is possible but not definitely true.)

III. All chilies are gourds.

True ( as shown in the figure above )

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

61

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

36 × 4 ÷ 2 + 20 – 54 = 22

  1. ((a))

    × and -

  2. ((b))
    • and ×
  3. ((c))

    ÷ and ×

  4. ((d))
    • and ÷
Show Answer
Answer: ((b))
  • and ×

Explanation :

BODMAS Table

1. × and -

Given equation :36 × 4 ÷ 2 + 20 – 54 = 22

After interchanging we get , By BODMAS rule

  • 36 - 4 ÷ 2 + 20 × 54 = 22
  • 36 - 2 + 1080 = 22
  • 1116- 2 = 22
  • 1114 ≠ 22 ( L.H.S ≠ R.H.S )

 2. + and ×

Given equation :36 × 4 ÷ 2 + 20 – 54 = 22

After interchanging we get , By BODMAS rule

  • 36 + 4 ÷ 2 × 20 – 54 = 22
  • 36 + 2 × 20 - 54 = 22
  • 36 + 40 - 54 = 22
  • 76 - 54 = 22
  • 22= 22( L.H.S = R.H.S ) 3.  ÷ and ×

Given equation :36 × 4 ÷ 2 + 20 – 54 = 22

After interchanging we get , By BODMAS rule

  • 36 ÷ 4 × 2 + 20 – 54 = 22
  • 9 × 2+ 20 - 54 = 22
  • 18 +20 - 54 = 22
  • ​38 - 54 = 22
  • 16 ≠ 22 ( L.H.S ≠ R.H.S ) 4. - and ÷

Given equation :36 × 4 ÷ 2 + 20 – 54 = 22

After interchanging we get , By BODMAS rule

  • 36 × 4 - 2 + 20 ÷ 54 = 22
  • 144 - 2 + 0.37 = 22
  • 142.37 ≠ 22( L.H.S ≠ R.H.S )

Hence, Option 2 is the correct answer.

62

Based on the position in the English alphabetical order, three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.

  1. ((a))

    LTPR

  2. ((b))

    SBWY

  3. ((c))

    VDZB

  4. ((d))

    FNJL

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

SBWY

Table of english alphabet series

The logic followed here is :

1.LTPR

  1. SBWY

  1. VDZB

  1. FNJL

Option 2 doesn't follow the pattern 

Hence, "SBWY" is the correct answer.

63

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

DINS , GLQV, JOTY, ?, PUZE

  1. ((a))

    RWMB

  2. ((b))

    WBMR

  3. ((c))

    WBPQ

  4. ((d))

    MRWB

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

MRWB

According to the english alphabet series and its positional value :

The logic followed here is :

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

64

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table, facing towards the centre of the table. Some of them are sitting at the corners while some are sitting at the exact centre of the sides. G is sitting at a corner. B is second to the left of G. D is an immediate neighbour of B and G. H is third to the left of B. Exactly two people are sitting between E and B. C doesn’t sit at any of the corners. A is to the immediate right of E. What is the position of F?

  1. ((a))

    Third to the right of D

  2. ((b))

    Immediate left of H

  3. ((c))

    Fourth to the left of E

  4. ((d))

    Third to the left of D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Third to the left of D

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table, facing towards the centre of the table.

Some of them are sitting at the corners while some are sitting at the exact centre of the sides.

  1. G is sitting at a corner.​
  • B is second to the left of G.
  •       2. D is an immediate neighbor of B and G, and H is third to the left of B

    3. Exactly two people are sitting between E and B, C doesn’t sit at any of the corners.

    4.  A is to the immediate right of E.

 

So, the Position of F is Third to the left of D.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

65

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Explanation : When the paper is unfolded it will appear like 

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

English Language (25 questions)

66

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Competence is such a thing that is developed by hard work only.

  1. ((a))

    Ability

  2. ((b))

    Non-competent

  3. ((c))

    Incompetence

  4. ((d))

    Potential

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Incompetence

The correct answer is Incompetence.

Key Points

  • Antonym refers to words of opposite meaning.
  • Competence” means the ability to do something skilfully or having expertise in something.
  • Example- He was taking computer classes regularly to improve his competence in computing.
  • Incompetence” would be the right antonym for it, as “incompetence” means a lack of skill for something.
  • Example- His incompetence in computers is preventing his growth.

Therefore, The correct answer is Incompetence.

Additional Information

  • Ability” refers to the power to do something.
  • Example- Being old, he has lost his ability to walk fast.
  • There was no word as “non-competence”.
  • "Potential" refers to the capacity to do something great in future.
  • Example- As a future researcher in medical science, he has much potential.
67

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

General

  1. ((a))

    Limited

  2. ((b))

    Particular

  3. ((c))

    Famous

  4. ((d))

    Widespread

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Particular

The correct answer is Particular.

Key Points

  • Antonym refers to words of opposite meaning.
  • General” means common.
  • Example- He should visit the general store where he can get everything.
  • Particular” would be the right antonym, as “particular” means specific.
  • Example- He should visit that particular mobile shop as it’s the only shop in the locality that offers mobile servicing.

Therefore, The correct answer is Particular.

Additional Information

  • Limited” means restricted or a fixed amount of something.
  • Example- They have a limited edition of this book series.
  • Famous” means popular or well-known.
  • **Example-**He is very famous as a neurosurgeon throughout Kolkata.
  • “Widespread” refers to something spread over a large area.
  • Example- It was a difficult task for the fire workers to bring the widespread forest fire to bring under control.
68

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Could you tell me what time is it now?

  1. ((a))

    what time it is now?

  2. ((b))

    No substitution required

  3. ((c))

    how much time now?

  4. ((d))

    what time was it now?

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

what time it is now?

The correct answer is What time it is now?

Key Points

  • According to the rules of English grammar, the subordinate clause should always be a statement sentence.
  • The above sentence, “…What time is it now,” has the structure of a question sentence evident from the subject preceded by the verb.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence should be, “Could you tell me what time it is now?”

Additional Information

  • Some more examples of such clauses include:
  • He asked me how he should write his resignation letter.
  • He asked me why I did not finish the job on time.
69

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Whoever is the bravest / shall claimed the throne / and become the ruler.

  1. ((a))

    and become the ruler

  2. ((b))

    Whoever is the bravest

  3. ((c))

    shall claimed the throne

  4. ((d))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

shall claimed the throne

The correct answer is Shall claimed the throne.

Key Points

  • The correct sentence will be, “Whoever is the bravest shall claim the throne and become the ruler”.
  • According to the rules of English grammar, in a sentence**, a modal auxiliary is always followed by the main form, i.e., the present form of the verb**.
  • “Shall” is a modal auxiliary. That is why it should be followed by the present form of the main verb.
  • The present form of “claimed” is “claim”.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence will be, “Whoever is the bravest shall claim the throne and become the ruler.

Additional Information

  • Some other examples of modal auxiliaries and their usage are as follows.
  • Will- He will go there tomorrow.
  • Should- You should always listen to your parents.
70

Select the most appropriate idiom or phrase to complete the given sentence.

It is easier to learn how a machine works from pictures rather than descriptions, since ________.

  1. ((a))

    its face is a picture

  2. ((b))

    it is pretty as a picture

  3. ((c))

    it takes a picture

  4. ((d))

    a picture paints a thousand words

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

a picture paints a thousand words

The correct answer is A picture paints a thousand words.

Key Points

  • Idiom refers to a group of words which evoke a different meaning, different from its normal syntactical meaning.
  • A picture paints a thousand words” means it is easy to describe something by showing pictures rather than only talking about itself.
  • **Hence the complete sentence will be, “It is easier to learn how a machine works from pictures rather than descriptions, since a picture paints a thousand words.”**​

Additional Information

  • Some other examples of similar idioms include-
  • “Draw a picture”, means “explaining something in very simple terms”.
  • Example- Do I have to draw a picture of your errors, and only then will you understand?
  • Get the picture” means “to understand something”.
  • Example- After I described everything, now are you able to get the picture?
71

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an INCORRECTLY spelt word.

The heinous crime committed in broad daylight / shocked everyone in the visinity and intimidated / the elderly people, particularly those who were / in the habit of going for evening walks to the community park.

  1. ((a))

    in the habit of going for evening walks to the community park

  2. ((b))

    The heinous crime committed in broad daylight

  3. ((c))

    the elderly people particularly those who were

  4. ((d))

    shocked everyone in the visinity and intimidated

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

shocked everyone in the visinity and intimidated

The correct answer is Shocked everyone in the visinity and intimidated.

Key Point

  • The word with the incorrect spelling is visinity.
  • The correct spelling will be vicinity.
  • Therefore, the complete sentence will be, “The heinous crime committed in broad daylight shocked everyone in the vicinity and intimidated the elderly people, particularly those who were in the habit of going for evening walks to the community park.”

Additional Information

  • Vicinity means an area of something.
  • Example- There is no nearby hospital in the vicinity of this colony.
72

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Ria is/the most/intelligent between/all of us.

  1. ((a))

    the most

  2. ((b))

    Ria is

  3. ((c))

    intelligent between

  4. ((d))

    all of us

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

intelligent between

The correct answer is Intelligent between.

Key Points

  • Between is used to refer to two things.
  • Example- You have to choose between these two colours.
  • Among is used to refer to more than two things.
  • Example- Among all the mountains in the world, Mt. Everest is the highest.
  • Here in the above sentence, more than two things are referred.
  • Therefore, the right word will be “among.”
  • Therefore, the correct sentence will be, Ria is the most intelligent among all of us.
73

Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (S1 and S6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

S1. He charged three pies per question

A. till the other had spoken

B. and never opened his mouth

C. for at least ten minutes

D. which provided him enough stuff

S6. for a dozen answers and advices.

  1. ((a))

    DACB

  2. ((b))

    ABCD

  3. ((c))

    BACD

  4. ((d))

    ADCB

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BACD

The correct answer is BACD.

Key Points

  • After S1, “B” will be there as it refers to the second action, “opening of mouth”.
  • B” will be followed by “A” as “Arefers to the time of the second action.
  • A” will be followed by “C” which refers to the exact amount of time.
  • C” will be followed by “D” which describes the ultimate effect or result.
  • Therefore, the complete sentence will be, “He charged three pies per question and never opened his mouth till the other had spoken for at least ten minutes which provided him enough stuff for a dozen answers and advices.”
74

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Tangible

  2. ((b))

    Wholesome

  3. ((c))

    Novice

  4. ((d))

    Colum

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Colum

The correct answer is Colum.

Key Points

  • The correctly spelt word will be Column.
  • Column refers to a vertical structure, an upright construction which is typically cylindrical.
  • Example- The columns of the temple were beautifully decorated with intricate sculptures.

Therefore, The correct answer is Colum.

Additional Information

  • Tangible means which can be seen or touched.
  • Example- To disqualify him, we need tangible proof of his crime.
  • Wholesome refers to a quality of something, which is good for the body and mind.
  • Example- The food they provided at the ceremony was very wholesome.
  • Novice means new learner or who doesn’t have any prior experience.
  • Example- He is a novice in the field of cooking.
75

Select the idiom that can substitute the underlined group of words.

My old phone finally stopped working.

  1. ((a))

    Hit the hay

  2. ((b))

    Came up swinging

  3. ((c))

    Broke a leg

  4. ((d))

    Gave up the ghost

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gave up the ghost

The correct answer is Gave up the ghost.

Key Points

  • In the context of the above sentence, “gave up the ghost” will be the suitable idiom as it means “stop working”.
  • ​Example- The computer suddenly gave up the ghost yesterday.

Additional Information

  • Hit the hay” means to go to bed.
  • Example- It is time for you to hit the hay.
  • Came up swinging” means to react to someone or something in a violent manner.
  • Example- People came up swinging towards the poor thief.
  • Broke a leg” means to wish someone luck.
  • Example- Go and break a leg in the examination.
76

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

He felt awkward when the teacher asked him a question.

  1. ((a))

    uncomfortable

  2. ((b))

    easy

  3. ((c))

    relaxed

  4. ((d))

    convenient

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

uncomfortable

The correct answer is Uncomfortable.

Key Points

  • Synonym refers to words of similar meaning.
  • Awkward means feeling uneasy or not very comfortable due to certain situations.
  • Therefore, “Uncomfortable” will be the perfect synonym for it as it means lack of comfort or easiness.
  • Example- The very presence of him in the room made me uncomfortable.

Therefore, the correct answer is Uncomfortable.

Additional Information

  • “Easy” means “very comforting or lack of obstacles”.
  • Example- He thinks math is an easy subject.
  • “Relaxed” refers to a “comfortable, stressless situation”.
  • Example- He replied to all the questions of the interviewee in a relaxed manner.
  • “Convenient” means “without creating any obstacles or problems”.  
  • Example- You can go there either by bus or by cab, whatever is convenient.
77

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Strident

  1. ((a))

    Noiseless

  2. ((b))

    Monumental

  3. ((c))

    Clamorous

  4. ((d))

    Notorious

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Noiseless

The correct answer is Noiseless.

Key Points

  • Antonym refers to words of opposite meaning.
  • “Strident” means “noisy or loud”.
  • Example- His singing in a strident voice does nothing but irritates me.
  • Therefore, the proper antonym will be, “Noiseless,” as it means “lack of noise or sound.”
  • Example- He walks in a noiseless manner, even on the wooden floor.

Therefore, the correct answer is Noiseless.

Additional Information

  • “Monumental” means “having immense importance”.
  • Example- He received a monumental award for his research last year.
  • “Clamorous” means “noisy”.
  • Example- The clamorous cacophony of the passing by vehicles makes it impossible for me to concentrate on my study.
  • “Notorious” means “known for bad quality”.
  • Example- Rahim is ill-famed in his locality for his notorious behaviour.
78

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Being humane with enemies is a rare quality.

  1. ((a))

    Womanish

  2. ((b))

    Barbaric

  3. ((c))

    Interesting​

  4. ((d))

    Manly

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Barbaric

The correct answer is Barbaric.

Key Points

  • Antonym refers to words of opposite meaning.
  • “Humane” means “being kind, sympathetic, showing compassion etc.”.
  • Example- His humane nature sometimes puts him in danger.
  • Therefore, the proper antonym will be, “Barbaric”, which means rudeness or cruelness.
  • Example- He was quite barbaric towards the street dog.

Therefore, the correct answer is Barbaric.

Additional Information

  • “Womanish” refers to “the characteristics of a woman”.
  • Example- She is very fond of womanish things.
  • “Interesting” means “something that creates curiosity or interest in something”.
  • Example- It’s interesting to see him doing one after another experiment with great skill and comfort.
  • “Manly” refers to the “characteristics of a man”.
  • Example- Though he is just eight years old, he always tries to make a manly appearance.
79

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Though for many the artifact did not fetch any value, it was precious for the artist.

  1. ((a))

    Rare

  2. ((b))

    Worthless

  3. ((c))

    Modern

  4. ((d))

    Costly

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Worthless

The correct answer is Worthless.

Key Points

  • Antonym refers to words of opposite meaning.
  • “Precious” means “something which has a value or which is of great importance”.
  • Example- Diamond is a precious stone.
  • Therefore, the proper antonym will be, “Worthless”, which means “lack of value, or something priceless.”
  • Example- His all efforts to win the competition became worthless as he could not finish the assignment by the deadline.

Therefore, the correct answer is Worthless.

Additional Information

  • “Rare” means “exceptional”.
  • Example- His absence in class is a rare incident.
  • “Modern” means “present”.
  • Example- Modern art is too complex to understand.
  • “Costly” means “something that has a high price”.
  • Example- Silver ornaments have become quite costly these days.
80

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

I could not find him nowhere.

  1. ((a))

    find him somewhere

  2. ((b))

    find him anywhere

  3. ((c))

    find him everywhere

  4. ((d))

    No substitution

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

find him anywhere

The correct answer is Find him anywhere.

Key Points

  • “Nowhere” means “no places”.
  • Example- The books are nowhere to be found.
  • In a sentence, double negative refers to a positive sense of the meaning as one negative cancels out the other negative.
  • The meaning of the above sentence, if explained, is “There is not a place where I could not find him”. In other words, it means “I could find him everywhere”.
  • Therefore, the correct fit for the blanks will be “find him anywhere”, as “anywhere” means any place.
  • Therefore, the complete sentence will be “I could not find him anywhere”.
  • One another example of anywhere is, You should have a car so that you can travel anywhere.

Additional Information

  • Everywhere” refers to “every place”.
  • Example- Whether it’s a hill or sea beach, you will find this particular plant everywhere in India.
  • “Somewhere” refers to “an unidentified place” or “a place that is not specifically mentioned”.
  • Example- You will find it somewhere in the market.
81

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Changing frequently

  1. ((a))

    Contiguous

  2. ((b))

    Fickle

  3. ((c))

    Flake

  4. ((d))

    Certain

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fickle

The correct answer is Fickle.

Key Points

  • Fickle” refers to something which is not stabled or changes very rapidly.
  • Example- He is so fickle-minded that it’s impossible to trust him fully.
  • Therefore, "Fickle" is the right word.

Additional Information

  • Contiguous” means “touching each other”.
  • Example- Though the two states appear to be contiguous, they are quite different in terms of culture.
  • Flake” means a part of something that has been peeled off.
  • Example- He was so hungry that he doesn’t leave a single flake of the muffins on the plate.
  • Certain” means “to be sure of something”.
  • Example- I am certain that he is not going to turn up in the meeting.
82

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

No sooner the villagers saw the tiger, than they ran away.

  1. ((a))

    No sooner did the villagers see

  2. ((b))

    No sooner did the villagers saw

  3. ((c))

    As soon as the villagers saw

  4. ((d))

    No sooner had the villagers seen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No sooner did the villagers see

The correct answer is No sooner did the villagers see.

Key Points

  • According to the rules of English grammar,No sooner” is immediately followed by a verb.
  • The complete sentence would be, “No sooner did the villagers see the tiger, than they ran away”.
  • Here, the usage of past tense in both of the sentences refers to the two actions which happened in the past.
  • Therefore, the complete sentence will be, "No sooner did the villagers see the tiger, than they ran away."

Additional Information

  • No sooner did the villagers saw” is grammatically incorrect as “did” should be followed by the present form of the verb.
  • As soon as the villagers saw” can be an option, but in that case, the sentence structure will get changed.
  • It will be “As soon as the villagers saw the tiger, they ran away.”
  • No sooner had the villagers seen” is also appropriate in this context as it clearly distinguishes the time of the two actions.
  • The first part is in the past perfect tense, which means that the villagers had seen the tiger first, and after that, they ran away, which is denoted by the past tense.
83

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

These words of comfort, uttered with cheering tones, and accompanied with a look of inexpressible tenderness and _______, brought back peace for a while to her troubled spirit. They communicated together, and on parting, the magnanimous woman once more embraced her young friend; then stretching her hand toward heaven, said, “Be tranquil, Maria! by tomorrow morning we are there, and all our sorrows stay here behind us.”

  1. ((a))

    anxiety

  2. ((b))

    serenity

  3. ((c))

    disruption

  4. ((d))

    agitation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

serenity

The correct answer is Serenity.

Key Points

  • Serenity” refers to a peaceful or calm state.
  • Example- The temple complex with trees and ponds looks like an oasis of serenity amidst the hustle and bustle of the city.
  • Here, in this context, “serenity” is the perfect fit as it refers to the calmness or peaceful nature of the look.
  • Therefore, the complete sentence will be, “These words of comfort, uttered with cheering tones, and accompanied with a look of inexpressible tenderness and serenity brought back peace for a while to her troubled spirit.”

Additional Information

  • “Anxiety” refers to the feeling of restlessness, fear or uneasiness.
  • Example- His continuous to and fro in the room before the exam, was evidence of his exam anxiety.
  • Disruption” means to hamper the normal flow of something.
  • Example- I don’t like any disruption while I am studying.
  • Agitation” refers to unstableness or restlessness.
  • Example- He was doing to and fro in the room with agitation.
84

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The boy was ________ to work as a printer’s apprentice at a young age

  1. ((a))

    impelled

  2. ((b))

    compelled

  3. ((c))

    deprived

  4. ((d))

    justified

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

compelled

The correct answer is Compelled.

Key Points

  • Compelled” means “being forced to do something.”
  • Here, the boy was forced to work as a printer’s apprentice, therefore, “compelled” is the right word.
  • Therefore, the complete sentence is “The boy was compelled to work as a printer’s apprentice at a young age”.

Additional Information

  • Impelled” means to force someone to do something by making him/her understand the necessity of doing so.”
  • Compel and impel seems to have the same meaning, but they are different.
  • To compel someone means to force him to do something by terrorising or blackmailing him or her.
  • Example- He was compelled to give him all the money otherwise he was going to suffer heavily.
  • To impel someone means to pursue someone to do something on moral or ethical grounds.
  • Example- The doctor impelled him to quit smoking.
  • Deprived” means lacking something of importance.
  • Example- He was deprived of parental love from a very early age.
  • Justified” means “to prove something as right.”
  • Example- His action towards his servant is not justified.
85

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Not quite coinciding with a central position

  1. ((a))

    Off-break

  2. ((b))

    Off-chance

  3. ((c))

    Off-centre

  4. ((d))

    Off-beat

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Off-centre

The correct answer is Off-centre.

Key Points

  • Off-centre” refers to a position, not at the centre of something.
  • Example- The off-centre position of the pillar made the structure look awkward.

Therefore, the correct answer is Off-centre.

Additional Information

  • Off-break” is a manner of bowling in cricket.
  • Example- He is quite an expert at off-break bowling.
  • Off-chance” means the rare possibility of something happening.
  • Example- I wrote him a letter on the off-chance that he might reply.
  • Off-beat” means unconventional or unusual.
  • Example- I prefer to travel to the off-beat corner of the world.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Each one of us is naturally a (1) _______ of a family that includes father, mother, brothers and sisters. Then there are other (2) _______ such as grand-parents, aunts, uncles, cousins, nephews, nieces etc. These relationships are a reality of our life for each one of us. Then we also have friends and colleagues (3) ______ whom we frequently interact. We have teachers (4) _______ enable us to learn and understand various things in life. We have recognised and identified these individuals, that we feel, understand us, have (5) _______ interests or tastes and we have an affinity for them.

86

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. ((a))

    part

  2. ((b))

    segment

  3. ((c))

    division

  4. ((d))

    category

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

part

The correct answer is Part.

Key Points

  • “ Part” means a section of something, which, when combined with others, will make the whole thing.
  • Here, the passage speaks of people who join with other people to form a family.
  • Hence, “part” is the appropriate word.
  • One other example of “part” is, Now, he is a part of the Indian cricket team.
  • Therefore, the completer sentence will be, “Each one of us is naturally a part of a family that includes father, mother, brothers and sisters.

Additional Information

  • Segment” refers to the part of the same size that makes a whole thing.
  • Example- I need two small segments of your clothes.
  • Division” refers to the process of separating something.
  • Example- The division of the country into two, India and Pakistan, gave rise to many political problems.
  • Category” refers to dividing something into different types based on its characteristics.
  • Example- Before venturing into the fieldwork, you should know the different categories of the plants available in the forest; otherwise, you will always be at risk of touching something or eating something dangerous.
87

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. ((a))

    affiliations

  2. ((b))

    groups

  3. ((c))

    associations

  4. ((d))

    relations

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

relations

The correct answer is Relation.

Key Points

  • Relation” refers to the ways in which a person is connected to another person.
  • Here, as the sentence describes how different family members are connected to each other,relation” is the perfect fit.
  • Therefore, the complete sentence will be “Then there are other relations such as grand-parents, aunts, uncles, cousins, nephews, nieces etc.”

Additional Information

  • Affiliations” refers to an official connection to something or someone.
  • Example- His affiliation with the local political party made it easier for him to get his work done.
  • “Groups” refers to a gathering of people of the same characteristics or of people of the same intention.
  • Example- A group of students approached the principal for permission for the college fest.
  • Associations” refer to the connection between two persons or things.
  • Example- His close association with the company manager made his colleagues jealous.
88

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. ((a))

    of

  2. ((b))

    from

  3. ((c))

    out of

  4. ((d))

    with

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

with

The correct answer is With.

Key Points

  • The complete sentence will be “Then we also have friends and colleagues with whom we frequently interact”.
  • Some other examples include-
  • Yesterday, he went to the book fair with his friends.
  • You need to mix yellow with red to get the green colour.

Additional Information

  • The usage of the following preposition are as follows-
  • Of- Rama was the king of Ajodhya.
  • From- He is from Europe.
  • Out of- They started to rescue people out of the debris.
89

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. ((a))

    who

  2. ((b))

    whose

  3. ((c))

    whichever

  4. ((d))

    whom

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

who

The correct answer is Who.

Key Points

  • Who” is a relative pronoun used to refer to the precedent noun.
  • Here in this context, ‘who” refers to the teacher.
  • Hence, the complete sentence will be, “We have teachers who enable us to learn and understand various things in life”.

Additional Information

  • The usage of the following relative pronoun are as follows-
  • Whose- Let me know whose pen it is.
  • Whichever- You can buy the dresses whichever you like.
  • Whom- I don’t know whom I should approach to solve this problem.
90

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. ((a))

    parallel

  2. ((b))

    adjacent

  3. ((c))

    same

  4. ((d))

    similar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

similar

The correct answer is Similar.

Key Points

  • Similar” means of the almost same nature but not completely identical.
  • Example- His handwriting is similar to his mother’s.
  • In the context of the above sentence, as it speaks of almost identical things, “similar” is the most appropriate.
  • Hence the full sentence will be  “**We have recognised and identified these individuals, that we feel, understand us, have similar interests or tastes, and we have an affinity for them.”**​

Additional Information

  • Parallel” refers to a side-by-side position of two things between which the distance is always constant.
  • Example- My first drawing lesson was to draw parallel lines.
  • Adjacent” means next.
  • Example- We booked two adjacent rooms in the hotel for our five days trip.
  • “Same” means no difference, completely identical.
  • Example- I brought the same dress as his.

Computer Fundamentals (10 questions)

91

Which of the following features in MS-Word 2010 can be used to draw a straight line across the selected texts in a document?

  1. ((a))

    Strikethrough

  2. ((b))

    Eraser

  3. ((c))

    Format Painter

  4. ((d))

    Replace

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Strikethrough

The correct answer is Strikethrough.

Key Points

  • A Strikethrough is a line drawn across the text selected in a cell in the document. It indicates the edits or completed tasks in a list. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • To strikethrough the text:
  • Select the text, and go to the Home tab.
  • Click the strikethrough option in the Font group.
  • You can also select the text and click Ctrl + Shift + F shortcut to open the dialog box.

     

 

Additional Information

  • The format painter in Word allows you to apply the same formatting like font size, font color, and style, border style to all the text in the document just by copying.
  • You can find the Format painter tool in the Home tab > Clipboard group.
  • The Replace tool helps you to replace the text with another text in the document. To do that, go to the Home tab > Editing > Find & Select > Replace.
  • Also, you can use Ctrl + H shortcut to replace it.
92

Which of the following shortcut key is used in MS-Word 2010 to apply double spacing to the paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + 1

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + 2

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + 5

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl + 2

The correct answer is Ctrl + 2.

Key Points

  • Double spacing adds more white space between each line of text in the document. MS Word provides a few ways to add double spacing in the document.
  • You can double space a part of or all the document. To double space the entire document in MS Word 2010, go to the Home tab > Styles group > right-click Normal > Modify.
  • Under formatting, click the double space.
  • If you want to double space a part of the text, select the text, go to the Home tab > Paragraph group > Line and Paragraph Spacing.

       

  • The Ctrl + 2 shortcut also adds a double space to the paragraph. Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • In the newer versions of MS Word, for double spacing the entire document, go to Design > Paragraph Spacing and choose Double.
  • For double spacing a part of the document in newer versions of MS Word, it is same as how it is done in MS Word 2010.
  • Ctrl + 1 shortcut applies a single spacing to the paragraph.
  • Ctrl + 5 shortcut applies 1.5-line spacing to the paragraph.
93

Unhide option is present in _______ tab in MS-Excel 2010 ribbon bar.

  1. ((a))

    View

  2. ((b))

    File

  3. ((c))

    Data

  4. ((d))

    Insert

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

View

The correct answer is View.

Key Points

  • MS Excel allows you to hide any worksheet from the view. Hiding the worksheet also hides the values in that worksheet but the values still can be referenced to other worksheets.
  • To hide or unhide a worksheet, go to View tab > Window group > Hide/Unhide. Hence option 1 is correct.

       

Additional Information

  • The File tab is the leftmost tab in the ribbon that helps you manage functions like opening, saving, printing, sharing, etc.
  • The Data tab allows you to import the data from the local drive or web, import text/CSV data, establish connections, etc.
  • The Insert tab allows you to add shapes, pictures, SmartArt graphics, tables, etc that enhance the appearance of the worksheet.
94

In MS Word 2010, if you press the Tab key within a table, the cursor moves to the next _______ of the table.

  1. ((a))

    Row

  2. ((b))

    Line

  3. ((c))

    Cell

  4. ((d))

    Data

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cell

The correct answer is Cell.

Key Points

  • A Table is a grid view of data arranged in rows and columns format.
  • You can move the cursor in the tables with the help of shortcuts. 
  • Pressing Tab shortcut moves the cursor to the next cell in a row of a table. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Pressing Shift + Tab moves the cursor to the previous cell in a row.
  • To move to the previous row, press the down arrow whereas to move to the previous row, click the up arrow.

Additional Information

  • By using the arrow keys and clicking Alt + End, the cursor will move to the last cell in a row and Alt + Home takes you to the first cell in a row.
  • Press Right and Left arrows to move to the next and previous columns respectively.
  • Pressing Tab at the last cell of the table automatically creates a new row.
95

Which of the following is a valid email address?

  1. ((a))
  2. ((b))
  3. ((c))
  4. ((d))

    @domainname.com

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is [email protected]

Key Points

  • Email is a messaging service used for the exchange of messages between users over the internet. 
  • The email services examples are Gmail from Google, Yahoo, Outlook from Microsoft, etc.
  • A valid email address consists of three parts: username and domain name and an extension, where the username is the user's name and the domain name is the name of the email service provider, for example, gmail.com, where .com is the domain extension.
  • The format of a valid email address looks like [email protected], where '@' is used as a separator for the username and domain name. 
  • Always domain names come after @ symbol. Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Email offers users to send messages to all users in the organization or users can send messages privately to a few users using Cc and Bcc respectively.
  • Cc means Carbon Copy, it allows the user to send an email to other users apart from the recipient, and add other user emails in the Cc block. It helps other users to have a copy of the email.
  • Bcc stands for Blind Carbon Copy. Adding someone's email in Bcc makes it hidden. It helps you share the email copy securely with someone without other recipients knowing it.
96

Which of the following effects is not available in the MS Word 2010 font dialog box?

  1. ((a))

    Subscript

  2. ((b))

    Italic

  3. ((c))

    Fancy

  4. ((d))

    Bold

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fancy

The correct answer is Fancy.

Key Points

  • Font group in the Home tab gives many options to change the appearance of the document like changing the font colour, font size, making the text bold or italic etc.
  • It provides subscripts and superscripts and you can also apply effects like glow, and shadow to the text from this group.
  • Fancy is neither a tool in the font group nor a tab in MS Word. Hence option 3 is correct.

       

Additional Information

  • Subscripts and Superscripts are the values or text that you add above or below the text. They typically appear as a footer or mathematical notation in the document. For example, Xis a subscript whereas X2 is a superscript.
  • Italic is a font style that slants the text to the right and Bold makes the text thicker.
97

_______ shortcut key is used to move to the previous sheet in MS Excel 2010.

  1. ((a))

    Alt + PageUp

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + PageDown

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + PageUp

  4. ((d))

    Alt + PageDown

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + PageUp

The correct answer is Ctrl + PageUp.

Key Points

  • Excel allows users to move quickly between the worksheets rather than scrolling through irrelevant sheets.
  • You can hold the Ctrl key and scroll the mouse to move between sheets.
  • There are a few shortcuts to move between the sheets. Ctrl + Page Down moves to the next sheet.
  • ​Ctrl + Page up moves to the previous sheet. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • In addition to the above shortcut, you can also use Ctrl + Tab for moving to the next sheet and Ctrl + Shift + Tab for the previous sheet.

Additional Information

  • Alt + Page up shortcut moves one screen to the left in a worksheet.
  • Alt + Page Down shortcut moves one screen to the right in a worksheet.
98

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to display non-editable HTML source code for the current page in Chrome browser?

  1. ((a))

    ALT + U

  2. ((b))

    ALT + S

  3. ((c))

    CTRL + U

  4. ((d))

    CTRL + S

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CTRL + U

The correct answer is CTRL + U.

Key Points

  • A Source code is a programming instruction written by the programmer in any editor or IDE to produce a desired output.
  • This source code is written in any Markup language like HTML or programming language like Java etc and saved in a .class file on the computer.
  • You can view the source code of any website by using CTRL + U shortcut. Hence option 3 is correct.

       

  • For example, in a website what a user sees is a clean User Interface (UI) on the browser, but the source code shows the raw code that was written to build the website.

Additional Information

  • You can try to make changes to the website using a source code, but these changes are not sent to the browser i.e., only you can view the changes, once you reload the page, all the changes will be lost.
  • Many websites have put copyright to the source code so, tampering with the source code is considered illegal work.
  • Web browsers provide Inspect element option for the developers to inspect the changes done to a code using a shortcut Ctrl + Shift + I, this opens the developer tools.
99

Consider the following statement about EXACT() function of MS-Excel 2010:

P: It compares two text strings and returns TRUE if they are exactly the same.

Q: It compares two text strings and returns 1 if they are not exactly the same.

R: It compares two text strings and returns FALSE if they are not exactly the same.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true

  1. ((a))

    All P, Q, R

  2. ((b))

    Only P

  3. ((c))

    Only P and R

  4. ((d))

    Only P and Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only P and R

The correct answer is Only P and R.

Key Points

  • EXACT function in Excel compares two strings and returns TRUE if they are exactly the same, FALSE if they are not. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • ​This function is a case sensitive, but ignore the formatting difference between the two cells.
  • Its syntax is EXACT(text1, text2). Both the texts are required.
  • If there are any extra spaces, trailing or leading space between the alphabets in the text, this function returns False.

Additional Information

  • For example, if the string 1 is macOS and the second string is mac OS, EXACT() function returns False because of the space in string 2.
  • It also returns False when you compare macOS and macOS because it is case-sensitive.
100

Which of the following type of Internet service does not require cable or phone lines?

  1. ((a))

    DSL

  2. ((b))

    Satellite

  3. ((c))

    Dial up

  4. ((d))

    Cable

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Satellite

The correct answer is Satellite.

Key Points

  • The internet is a service that retrieves the requested information from the user. It can be text, images, etc.
  • There are different types of the internet for different purposes such as Dial-Up connection, DSL, Satellite, Broadband, wired, etc.
  • The Satellite type of internet connection is offered in rural locations where a broadband connection is not provided yet.
  • This type of connection uses a satellite and it does not require any cables. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The Internet Service Provider or ISP sends the satellite into orbit around the earth. Then the ISP relies on a signal routed through satellites and a receiver at your home receives that signal.

Additional Information

  • A Dial-Up connection is established between the computer and the ISP using a modem. The users need to link their phone line to their computer to access the internet because, for the internet, users need to dial a phone number.
  • DSL or Digital Subscriber Line is a communication medium that receives data through a copper telephone landline. It is a form of broadband and so no need to dial a number.
  • A Broadband is high-speed internet access provided through a cable or telephone and is faster than a dial-up connection. Unlike traditional cable connections, in broadband, users can use both the internet and telephone simultaneously.
  • A Cable internet connection is a form of modem that provides faster internet. It uses a cable modem to provide an internet connection and operates over cable TV lines.

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