Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 9 Dec 2020 Shift 3)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

Which of the following books is NOT written by great scholarly Bhavabhuti?

  1. ((a))

    Uttararāmacarita 

  2. ((b))

    Malatimadhava

  3. ((c))

    Ramcharitam

  4. ((d))

    Mahaviracharita

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ramcharitam

The correct answer is Ramcharitam.

  • Ramcharitam is NOT written by great scholarly Bhavabhuti.

Key Points

  • Ramcharitam is written by Sandhyakar Nandi.
  • It is written in the Sanskrit language.
  • Released during the Pala Empire the work narrates the story of the Ramayana and the Pala king Ramapala.

Additional Information

  • Bhavabhuti:
  • He was a Sanskrit poet.
  • His notable writings include Uttararāmacarita, Malatimadhava, and Mahaviracharita.
  • Uttararāmacarita:
  • It describes the Later Deeds of Lord Rama after the killing of Ravana and continues the story of Rama from his coronation to the expulsion of Sita and their final reunion.
  • Malatimadhava:
  • It is a complex love story of Malati and Madhava.
  • The Mahāvīracarita tells about the Rāma’s battle with Rāvaṇa.
2

The Sanchi Stupa was discovered by ______ in 1818.

  1. ((a))

    James Prinsep

  2. ((b))

    John Marshall 

  3. ((c))

    James Burgess

  4. ((d))

    Sir Henry Taylor 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sir Henry Taylor 

The correct answer is Sir Henry Taylor.

  • The Sanchi Stupa was discovered by Sir Henry Taylor in 1818.

Key Points

  • The Sanchi was discovered in the year 1818 by  Taylor and an archaeological museum was established in 1919 by Sir John Marshall.
  • Great Stupa, the most noteworthy of the structures at the historic site of Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh state, India.
  • It is one of the oldest Buddhist monuments in the country and the largest stupa at the site.
  • Although Buddha never visited the site during any of his former lives or during his earthly existence, the religious nature of this shrine is obvious.
  • The chamber of relics of Stupa 1 contained the remains of Shariputra, a disciple of Shakyamuni who died six months before his master, he is especially venerated by the occupants of the 'small vehicle' or Hinayana.
  • Having remained a principal centre of Buddhism in medieval India following the spread of Hinduism, Sanchi bears unique witness as a major Buddhist sanctuary to the period from the 3rd century BC to the 1st century AD.
3

Who among the following treats diseases of the respiratory system?

  1. ((a))

    Hematologist

  2. ((b))

    Pulmonologist

  3. ((c))

    Dermatologist

  4. ((d))

    Anesthesiologist

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Pulmonologist

The correct answer is Pulmonologist.

  • A Pulmonologist treats diseases of the respiratory system.

Key Points

  • A Pulmonologists works on the respiratory system and diseases that affect it.
  • He focuses on parts of the respiratory system like the Mouth and Nose, Sinuses, Throat (pharynx), Voicebox (larynx), windpipe (trachea), Bronchial tubes, Lungs, and things inside them like bronchioles and alveoli, Diaphragm.
  • The disease of the respiratory system is Asthma, Lung cancer, Emphysema, Cystic fibrosis, Tuberculosis, Bronchiectasis, and Pneumonia.
  • Human Respiratory System
  • The overall passage of air in humans is as follows: Nostrils–Pharynx–Larynx–Trachea–Bronchi– Bronchioles – Alveoli–Cells–Blood.

Additional Information

  • Haematologists deal with the diagnosis, treatment and overall management of people with blood disorders.
  • A dermatologist deals with conditions involving the skin, hair, and nails.
  • An anesthesiologist is a doctor who gives a patient anesthesia so they do not feel pain when they are undergoing surgery.
4

The Constituent Assembly of India was formed in _______. 

  1. ((a))

    1947

  2. ((b))

    1948

  3. ((c))

    1946

  4. ((d))

    1945

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1946

The correct answer is 1946.

  • The Constituent Assembly of India was formed in 1946.

Key Points

  • Constituent Assembly
  • Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 first proposed the constituent assembly.
  • Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
  • After the partition of India, the number of members of the Constituent Assembly came to 299, of whom 284 were actually present on the 26 November 1949 and signed on the final approved Constitution of India Assembly, which had been elected for undivided India.
  • It held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, and reassembled on August 14, 1947, as the sovereign Constituent Assembly for the dominion of India.
  • The Constituent Assembly finalized the Constitution in two years, eleven months, and eighteen days.
  • Objective Resolution was moved in the first session of the Constituent Assembly i.e. on 13 December 1946 by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Additional Information

    • Dr. Sachidanand Sinha was the first President of the Constituent Assembly.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the President of the Assembly.
  • B.N. Rao was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor of the Assembly.
5

As on August 2020, the Government of India does NOT announce the Minimum Support Price for which of the following crops?

  1. ((a))

    Groundnut

  2. ((b))

    Paddy

  3. ((c))

    Flax seeds

  4. ((d))

    Ragi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Flax seeds

The correct answer is Flax seeds.

  • As of August 2020, the Government of India did not announce the Minimum Support Price for Flax seeds.

Key Points

  • Minimum Support Price (MSP):
  • Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a guarantee of a minimum price for the agricultural produce in India.
  • It is announced by the Government of India at the beginning of every sowing season for some crops to protect the producers against acute fall in price during bumper production years.
  • The crops include wheat, paddy, bajra, barley, jowar, ragi, and maize, arhar/tur, gram, urad, moong, and lentil and rapeseed/mustard, groundnut, soybean, toria, sesamum, safflower seed, sunflower seed, and nigerseed.
  • It does not include flax seeds.
6

_____ is related to football.

  1. ((a))

    Ranji Trophy

  2. ((b))

    Santosh Trophy

  3. ((c))

    Duleep Trophy

  4. ((d))

    Irani Cup

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Santosh Trophy

The correct answer is Santosh Trophy.

  • Santosh Trophy is related to football.

Key Points

  • The apex institution of football is the ‘Federation of International Football Association’ (FIFA), which was formed by seven countries on May 21, 1904.
  • The headquarters of FIFA is in Zurich (Switzerland).
  • Football was included as a competitive game in Olympic Games officially in 1908.
  • India took part in the World Olympic Football Competition in 1948 in London.
  • The first World Cup was organized in Uruguay in 1930.
  • In India, Indian Football Association (IFA) organizes National Football Championship.
  • The trophy awarded in their competition is called Santosh Trophy.
  • Other trophies associated with football are Subroto Cup, Sanjay Gold Cup, Vittal Trophy, and Todd Memorial Trophy.

Additional Information

  • Ranji Trophy, Duleep Trophy, and Irani Cup are related to cricket.
7

In the context of Interim Government (1946) of India, who among the following was holding the portfolio of 'Finance'? 

  1. ((a))

    Jogendra Nath Mandal

  2. ((b))

    Liaquat Ali Khan

  3. ((c))

    John Mathai

  4. ((d))

    Jagjivan Ram

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Liaquat Ali Khan

The correct answer is Liaquat Ali Khan.

  • In the context of the Interim Government (1946) of India Liaquat Ali Khan was holding the portfolio of 'Finance'.

Key Points

  • Interim Government
  • The interim Government was headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
  • The Constituent Assembly began its session on 9th December 1946 AD.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected its President.

Additional Information

  • The Cabinet of the Interim Government of India composed of the following members:
  • Commander-in-Chief was Sir Claude Auchinleck.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru was Vice President and also in charge of External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Home Affairs, Information, and Broadcasting
  • Rajendra Prasad held the portfolio of Agriculture and Food
  • Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar held the portfolio of Commerce
  • Baldev Singh was the Defence Minister
  • Liaquat Ali Khan was the Finance Minister.
  • C Rajagopalachari was the Education and Arts Minister
  • Jagjivan Ram held the Labour Ministry
  • Jogendra Nath Mandal was the Law Minister
  • Abdur Rab Nishtar held the portfolio of Railways and Communications, Post and Air.
  • C H Bhabha held the portfolio of  Works, Mines, and Power.
8

S. Jaishankar is the author of which of the following books?

  1. ((a))

    Kashmir’s untold story: Declassification

  2. ((b))

    Making of New India

  3. ((c))

    The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World

  4. ((d))

    Sapiens - A Brief History of Humankind

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World

The correct answer is The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World.

  • S. Jaishankar is the author of The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World.

Key Points

  • The book The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World is written by S. Jaishankar.
  • It was published in the year 2020.
  • The books analyze the emerging global order, the rise of China and its attendant consequences, nationalism, and its discontents, and also talks about strategies of the Mahabharata as a prism to evaluate Indian strategy.

Additional Information

  • Kashmir’s untold story: Declassification was written by Iqbal Chand Malhotra and Maroof Raza.
  • Making of New India: Transformation Under Modi Government was authored by Bibek Debroy, Dr. Anirban Ganguly, and Shri Kishore Desai.
  • Sapiens - A Brief History of Humankind was written by Noah Harari.
9

The Index of Industrial Production is computed and published by the Central Statistical Organisation on a _____ basis. 

  1. ((a))

    monthly

  2. ((b))

    half-yearly

  3. ((c))

    quarterly

  4. ((d))

    yearly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

monthly

The correct answer is monthly.

  • The Index of Industrial Production is computed and published by the Central Statistical Organisation on a monthly basis.

Key Points

  • The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index that shows the growth rates in different industry groups of the economy in a stipulated period of time.
  • It is computed and published by the Central Statistical Office (CSO) on a monthly basis.
  • ​IIP is an indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classified under,
  • Broad sectors, namely, Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity and Use-based sectors, namely Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and Intermediate Goods.

Additional Information

  • The current base year for IIP figures is calculated considering 2011-12.
10

Which of the following industrial cities is in Rajasthan?

  1. ((a))

    Bhagalpur 

  2. ((b))

    Bhabua 

  3. ((c))

    Bellary

  4. ((d))

    Beawar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Beawar

The correct answer is Beawar.

  • Beawar is an industrial city in Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Beawar is famous for its various industries.
  • Industries like mineral-based, machine-based, machine tools and accessories, pre-stressed concrete pipes, textiles, wooden furniture, and asbestos cement pipes.
  • It is the largest producer of cement in the North-India.
  • The district has reserves of important minerals like feldspar, quartz, asbestos, soapstone, magnesite, limestone, mica, emerald, granite, and calcite.

Additional Information

  • Bhagalpur in Bihar is famous for silk and silk products.
  • Bhabua is in Bihar.
  • Bellary in Karnataka is famous for Bellary Fort.
11

_____ Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the names of the states and their territorial jurisdiction. 

  1. ((a))

    First

  2. ((b))

    Second

  3. ((c))

    Third

  4. ((d))

    Fourth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

First

The correct answer is First.

  • The First Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the names of the states and their territorial jurisdiction.

Key Points

  • First Schedule: 
  • It deals with:
  • Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction.
  • Names of the Union Territories and their extent.
  • It covers articles 1-4.
  • Articles 1 to 4 under Part-I of the Constitution deal with the Union and its territory.

Additional Information

  • The second schedule deals with the
  • Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges.
  • The third schedule deals with the
  • Forms of Oaths or Affirmations.
  • The fourth schedule deals with the
  • Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
12

Which among the following is NOT a tennis grand slam tournament?

  1. ((a))

    US Open

  2. ((b))

    South African Open 

  3. ((c))

    French Open

  4. ((d))

    Wimbledon

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

South African Open 

The correct answer is South African Open.

  • South African Open is not a tennis grand slam tournament.

Key Points

Grand SlamDurationCourt Type
Australian openMid-JanuaryHard Court
French OpenMay&JuneClay
WimbledonJune-JulyGrass
US OpenAugust-SeptemberHard Court

Additional Information

  • Terminologies used in Tennis are 
  • Service, Grandslam, Advantage, Deuce, Game Point, Breakpoint, Smash, Shot, Grass Court. Break, Drop shot, Netplay, Baseline, etc.
  • Trophies in tennis are
  • Edgbaston Cup, U. Thant Cup, Wightman Cup, Davis Cup**.**
13

According to which article of the Constitution of India, shall the state not deny to any person, equality before the law or equal protection of the laws?

  1. ((a))

    Article 44

  2. ((b))

    Article 32 

  3. ((c))

    Article 16 

  4. ((d))

    Article 14

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Article 14

The correct answer is Article 14.

  • Article 14 of the Constitution of India, deals with equality before the law or equal protection of the laws.

Key Points

  • Fundamental Rights:
  • The Fundamental Rights have been described in Articles 12-35, Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Right to Property, Article 31 was deleted from the list of Fundamental Act, 1978.
  • It is made a constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
  • Article 14 states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • It is available to both citizens and foreigners.

Additional Information

  • Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
  • Article 32 deals with the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
  • Article 44 notifies o secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country.
14

Who among the following was the leader of 'Paika Rebellion' of 1817? 

  1. ((a))

    Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara 

  2. ((b))

    Veer Surendra Sai 

  3. ((c))

    Baba Ram Singh 

  4. ((d))

    Tirath Singh 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara 

The correct answer is Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara.

  • Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara was the leader of 'Paika Rebellion' of 1817.

Key Points

  • The rebellion took place due to the British' improper handling of the revenue system in 1803.
  • Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara was the military chief of the King of Khurda.
  • Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara was also called as Paika Bakshi.
  • It is also known as The first war of independence.**

Additional Information

  • Veer Surendra Sai was a freedom fighter from Odisha.
  • Veer Surendra Sai, Jharsuguda airport of Odisha is named after him.
  • Tirath Singh was the Khasi Chief of the Syiemlieh clan and a freedom fighter.
15

Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) is a defined area of ______ km2 around the Taj Mahal to protect the monument from pollution.

  1. ((a))

    10,400 

  2. ((b))

    12,700

  3. ((c))

    10,200 

  4. ((d))

    12,000 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10,400 

The correct answer is 10,400.

  • Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) is a defined area of 10,400 km2 around the Taj Mahal to protect the monument from pollution.

Key Points

  • Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 the Central Government has constituted the Taj Trapezium Zone Pollution (Prevention and Control) authority in 1998.
  • It is a defined area of 10,400 sq km around the Taj Mahal to protect the monument from pollution and its harmful effects.
  • It looks like a trapezium from above hence it is named so.
  • The TTZ has a total of three World Heritage Sites i.e.
  • the Taj Mahal, Agra Fort, and Fatehpur Sikri.

Additional Information

  • Taj Mahal:
  • Shahjahan constructed the Taj Mahal at Agra in 1632 AD-1653 AD to perpetuate the memory of his beloved wife Mumtaj Mahal.
  • Her original name was Arzumand Bano.**
  • Shah Jahan also constructed The Red Fort and the Jama Masjid.
16

The Economic Survey of 2019-20 revolves around the theme of enabling markets, promoting 'pro-business' policies and strengthening _____ in the economy. 

  1. ((a))

    reputation 

  2. ((b))

    capital 

  3. ((c))

    zeal 

  4. ((d))

    trust 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

trust 

The correct answer is trust.

  • The Economic Survey of 2019-20 revolves around the theme of enabling markets, promoting 'pro-business policies, and strengthening trust in the economy.

Key Points

  • The Economic survey 2019-20, tabled by Union Minister for Finance And Corporate Affairs, Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman.
  • The survey maintains a balanced optimistic stance and makes an attempt to put to rest any skepticism about the benefits accruing from a market economy, both in economic thinking and policy-making.

Additional Information

  • Elaborating on India's historical dominance on the global economy, the Survey lays stress on the importance of bringing an openness in the market that leads to wealth creation, in turn, boosting the economic activity through increased investment
  • The Survey cover also conveys a synthesis of the 'Old' and 'New' with the lavender of the new Rs. 100 notes coming together with the older one.
17

______ is the concentration of a toxin at successively higher levels in a food chain. 

  1. ((a))

    Biodillution 

  2. ((b))

    Biosynthesis

  3. ((c))

    Biomagnification

  4. ((d))

    Biosolution 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Biomagnification

The correct answer is Biomagnification.

  • Biomagnification is the concentration of a toxin at successively higher levels in a food chain.

Key Points

  • Biomagnification is the trophic enrichment of contaminants within food webs and progressive increase in chemical concentrations with increasing animal trophic status.
  • Biomagnification occurs when organisms like zooplankton feed upon the contaminated phytoplankton and in turn absorb Persistent Organic Pollutants (DDT) into their own tissues at a higher concentration.
  • The more contaminated phytoplankton zooplankton eats, the more will be the contamination at upper trophic levels.
18

Who among the following is a Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awardee for the year 2020? 

  1. ((a))

    Virat Kohli 

  2. ((b))

    Bajrang Punia 

  3. ((c))

    Manika Batra

  4. ((d))

    Deepa Malik 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Manika Batra

The correct answer is Manika Batra.

  • Manika Batra received a Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awardee for the year 2020.

Key Points

  • Manika Batra is a Table tennis player.
  • Manika  Batra won four medals in Gold Coast 2018 Commonwealth games.
  • A total of 5 players received Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award they are Rohit, wrestler Vinesh Phogat, women's hockey captain Rani Rampal, table tennis star Manika Batra and para-athlete Mariyappan Thangavelu.

Important Points

  • Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award:
  • The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is India’s highest honour given for achievement in sports.
  • The award was instituted in the year 1991- 92 and was awarded by the Government of India.
  • Terminologies related to Table Tennis:
  • Volley, Late service, Half volley, Backhand, Drive spin, Chop, and topspin.

Additional Information

  • Virat Kohli received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 2018.
  • He is associated with cricket.
  • Bajrang Punia received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 2019.
  • He is associated with wrestling
  • Deepa Malik received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 2017.
  • She is associated with athletics(discus throw).
19

Who among the following is best known for his market regulation policy?

  1. ((a))

    Nasiruddin Mahmud 

  2. ((b))

    Razia Sultan 

  3. ((c))

    Iltutmish 

  4. ((d))

    Alauddin Khalji 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Alauddin Khalji 

The correct answer is Alauddin Khalji.

  • Alauddin Khalji is best known for its market regulation policy.

Key Points

  • Administrative Reforms during Alauddin Khilji:
  • He was the first sultan to have a permanent army.
  • He introduced the system of Dagh (the branding of a horse) and Chehra (the descriptive role of soldiers).
  • The post of a special officer called Mustakharaj was created for the purpose of collecting revenue.
  • Alauddin attempted to fix the cost of all commodities. For this purpose, he set up three markets in Delhi.
  • He established the market control department under a minister called diwan-i-riyasat.
  • He measured the cultivable land and fixed the land revenue, Bishwa was declared to be the standard of measurement.

Additional Information

  • Razia Sultan 
  • She was the first and last Muslim woman ruler of Medieval India.
  • Iltutmish 
  • He introduced the silver coin (tanka) and the copper coin (jital).
  • He also started the Iqta-dar system in Delhi Sultanate.
  • Nasir ud din Mahmud Shah
  • He was the eighth sultan of the Mamluk Sultanate.
  • He was a son of Shams ud Din Iltutmish.
20

The Ganapati festival was introduced by _____ in 1893.

  1. ((a))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

  2. ((b))

    Chandrasekhar Azad 

  3. ((c))

    Lala Lajpat Rai 

  4. ((d))

    Bipin Chandra Pal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

The correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

  • The Ganapati festival was introduced by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1893.

Key Points

  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
  • He launched two newspapers–the Kesari (in Marathi) and the Maratha (in English).
  • He organized Ganpati Festival in 1893 AD and Shivaji Festival in 1895 AD.
  • He was deported to Mandalay Jail for writing seditious articles.
  • He started the Home Rule League in 1916 AD.
  • He asserted: Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.
  • He was awarded the title of Lokmanya.
  • He was called ‘Bal’, Lala Lajpat Rai was called ‘Lal’ and Bipin Chandra Pal was called ‘Pal’.
  • He was a part of the trio of ‘Lal-Bal- Pal’ and the extremist group.
  • He wrote the books The Arctic Home of Vedas and Gita Rahasya.**

Additional Information

  • Chandrasekhar Azad and Sachindra Sanyal founded Hindustan Republican Association.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai founded the National School at Lahore.
  • He was called the Punjab Kesari.**
  • He was the editor of newspapers like *Bande Matram, The Punjab, and The People.*
21

Which of the following places is also known as 'Cape Comorin'? 

  1. ((a))

    Konkan Coast 

  2. ((b))

    Khajuraho 

  3. ((c))

    Gulf of Khambat 

  4. ((d))

    Kanyakumari

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kanyakumari

The correct answer is Kanyakumari.

  • Kanyakumari is also known as 'Cape Comorin'.

Key Points

  • Kanyakumari is located at the southern tip of the Cardamom Hills.
  • Cape means the land infiltrated into the sea and Comorin is the former name of the Kanyakumari.
  • During the British Rule, sailors and traders used the word Cape to mention the identical landmark of Comorin.

Additional Information

  • Konkan Coast
  • It is the coastal plain of western India, lying between the Arabian Sea (west) and the Western Ghats (east).
  • The plain stretches approximately 330 miles (530 km) from the Daman Ganga River north of Mumbai (Bombay) to the Terekhol River between Maharashtra and Goa states and Daman and Diu union territory in the south. The Konkan includes the regions of Thane, Greater Mumbai, Raigarh, and Ratnagiri.
  • Khajuraho
  • It is one of the most popular tourist spots in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is famous for its ancient temples that depict some of the finest art in the world.
  • It is built between 950-1050 AD by the Chandela Dynasty, these temples depict various forms like meditation, spiritual teachings, kinship, wrestling, royalty, and most significantly, erotic art.
  • Gulf of Khambhat
  • It is also known as the Gulf of Cambay, is a bay on the Arabian Sea coast of India, bordering the state of Gujarat right north of the city of Mumbai.
22

Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of the image of an object formed by a plane mirror? 

  1. ((a))

    Erect

  2. ((b))

    Laterally inverted 

  3. ((c))

    Real 

  4. ((d))

    Virtual 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Real 

The correct answer is Real.

Key Points

  • Reflection From Plane Mirror
  • A plane mirror always forms a virtual and laterally inverted image.
  • The size of the image is equal to that of the object.
  • The distance of the image from the mirror is equal to the distance of the object from the mirror.
  • If an object moves towards (or away from) a plane mirror with speed u, relative to the object, the image moves towards (or away) with a speed of 2u.
  • If a plane mirror is rotated by an angle θ, keeping the incident ray fixed, the reflected ray is rotated by an angle of 2θ.
  • To see his full image in a plane mirror, a person requires a mirror of at least half of his height.
23

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    Junagarh Fort - Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Mehrangarh Fort - Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Raigad Fort - Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Asirgarh Fort - Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Junagarh Fort - Karnataka

The correct answer is Junagarh Fort - Karnataka.

Key Points

  • Junagarh Fort is located in Bikaner, Rajasthan.
  • Junagarh fort was built on the ruins of an old fort built in 1478 by Rao Bika.
  • Rao Bika was the second son of Maharaja Rao Jodha.
  • Jodhpur was the city founded by Maharaja Rao Jodha.

Additional Information

  • Mehrangarh Fort is in Rajasthan.
  • It was built by Rao Jodha
  • Raigad Fort is in Maharashtra.
  • Raigad Fort was built by Chhatrapati Shivaji
  • Asirgarh Fort is in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Asirgarh Fort was built by ​Asa Ahir.
24

______ is a festival for the worship of food grains in Western Odisha. 

  1. ((a))

    Sonam Lhosar

  2. ((b))

    Pongal 

  3. ((c))

    Onam 

  4. ((d))

    Nuakhai

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nuakhai

The correct answer is Nuakhai.

  • Nuakhai is a festival for the worship of food grains in Western Odisha.

Key Points

  • Nuakhai:
  • Nuakhai Juhar is celebrated in Odisha to welcome the new crop of the season.
  • The festival is also called Nuakhai Parab or Nuakahi Bhetghat.**
  • The word Nuakhai is a combination of two words, 'nua' meaning new and 'khai' means eat, which thus signifies "eating of new rice".

Additional Information

  • Sonam Lhosar is celebrated in Nepal and Sikkim.
  • It marks the new moon during the month of Magh in the Bikram Sambat calendar.
  • Pongal is the harvest festival of Tamil Nadu.
  • Onam is the harvest festival of Kerala.
25

Which of the following festivals celebrated by the Aao people of Nagaland signifies community intimacy?

  1. ((a))

    Hojagiri

  2. ((b))

    Moatsii

  3. ((c))

    Ganta Mridangam

  4. ((d))

    Sangrai

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Moatsii

The correct answer is Moatsii.

  • Moatsii festival celebrated by the Aao people of Nagaland signifies community intimacy.

Key Points

  • The festival is locally known as Moatsu.
  • The festival is linked to agricultural practices.
  • It is celebrated after cleaning the field and sowing seeds.
  • It is in the first week of May.
  • People of the Aao tribe light a fire called sangpangtu and the men and women sit around it dressed in their best of their attires which is followed by exuberant songs and dances.

Additional Information

  • Hojagiri is a festival of Tripura.
  • Sangrai dance is a dance of Mog tribal community of Tripura.
26

Which of the following caves contains an inscription of King Kharavela?

  1. ((a))

    Rosaigumpha

  2. ((b))

    Hathigumpha 

  3. ((c))

    Ranigumpha 

  4. ((d))

    Sarpagumpha 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Hathigumpha 

The correct answer is Hathigumpha.

  • Hathigumpha caves contain an inscription of King Kharavela.

Key Points

  • The Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela, the third ruler of the dynasty, gives information about the Cheti Dynasty.
  • Kharavela pushed his kingdom up to the Godavari in the south and recovered the Jain image from Magadha.
  • He was a follower of Jainism.
  • He constructed residential caves for Jain monks on the Udayagiri Hill near Bhubaneswar, Odisha.

Additional Information

  • Caves of Udaigiri:
  • There are a total of 18 caves at this site.
  • Ranigumpha is a double-storeyed monastery.
  • SarpaGumpha is a small cave with adornment above the entrance.
27

Which of the following hill stations is located in the Dhauladhar Range? 

  1. ((a))

    Dalhousie 

  2. ((b))

    Kalimpong

  3. ((c))

    Gulmarg 

  4. ((d))

    Nainital 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dalhousie 

The correct answer is Dalhousie.

  • Dalhousie is located in the Dhauladhar Range.

Key Points

  • Dhauladhar range:
  • It is a part of the lesser Himalayas.
  • It rises north of Kangra and Mandi in Himachal Pradesh and ends near Badrinath, Uttarakhand.
  • Its Elevation ranges widely from 3,500 m to nearly 6,000 metres.
  • Hanuman Tibba is the highest peak.

Additional Information

  • North to south arrangements of ranges:
  • Karakoram Range
  • Ladakh Range
  • Zanskar Range
  • Pir Panjal Range
  • Dhauladhar Range
  • Trick to remember: {KLZPD}
28

With reference to the 'Discus Throw' event, what is the weight of a metal disc for women?

  1. ((a))

    2.5 kg 

  2. ((b))

    1 kg

  3. ((c))

    3 kg

  4. ((d))

    2 kg 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 kg

The correct answer is 1 kg.

  • With reference to the 'Discus Throw' event, the weight of a metal disc for women is 1 kg.

Key Points

  • Discus throw comes under Track and Field Throwing Events.
  • Athletes throw or discus throw is a metal disc weighing 2kg for men, 1kg for women.
  • It is 22cm in diameter for men, and 18cm for women.
  • The discus must be thrown from a circle 2.5 metres in diameter and should fall within a 40° sector marked on the ground from the centre of the circle.
29

The name of Begum Akhtar is mainly associated with which of the following? 

  1. ((a))

    Dhrupad 

  2. ((b))

    Thumri 

  3. ((c))

    Hori 

  4. ((d))

    Tappa 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Thumri 

The correct answer is Thumri.

  • Begum Akhtar is mainly associated with Thumri.

Key Points

  • Thumri:
  • Thumri originated in the Eastern part of Uttar Pradesh, mainly in Lucknow and Benares, in the 18th century AD.
  • It is influenced by Hori, kajri and Dadra.
  • Thumri is a romantic and erotic style of singing and is also called ‘the lyric of Indian classical music.
  • The song compositions are mostly of love, separation, and devotion.
  • Its most distinctive feature is the erotic subject matter picturesquely describing the various episodes from the lives of Lord Krishna and Radha.
  • Thumri is usually performed as the last item of a Khayal concert.
  • There are three main gharanas of thumriBenares, Lucknow, and Patiala.
  • Begum Akhtar, Gauhar Jan, Shobha Gurtu, Noor Jehan, and Prabha Atre are associated with Thumri.

Additional Information

  • Madhu Bhatt Tailang is associated with Dhrupad.
  • Pt. Laxmanrao Pandit, Vidushi Meeta Pandit, Pandita Malini Rajurkar, Shashwati Mandal, and Shanno Khurana are associated with Tappa.
30

Bhadravati, situated in Karnataka, is primarily famous for its ______. 

  1. ((a))

    oil field

  2. ((b))

    iron and steel plant 

  3. ((c))

    cotton textile mill 

  4. ((d))

    nuclear power station 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

iron and steel plant 

The correct answer is iron and steel plant.

  • Bhadravati, situated in Karnataka, is primarily famous for its iron and steel plant.

Key Points

  • The city of Bhadravati lies along the Bhadra River which is near the Baba Budan Hills.
  • It is rich in minerals like iron, manganese, and limestone deposits.
  • The Bhadra hydropower project is also located here which has made the city an ideal location for steelmaking and other industrial enterprises.

Additional Information

  • Digboi, Assam is famous for oil fields.
  • Ahmedabad, Gujarat is famous for its cotton textile mill.
  • Tarapur, Maharashtra is famous for its nuclear power station.
31

Who among the following is the first woman to be appointed as the Director General of Bureau of Civil Aviation Security? 

  1. ((a))

    Usha Padhee 

  2. ((b))

    Durga Shakti Nagpal

  3. ((c))

    Aruna Sundararajan

  4. ((d))

    Archana Ramasundaram 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Usha Padhee 

The correct answer is Usha Padhee.

  • Usha Padhee is the first woman to be appointed as the Director-General of the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security.

Key Points

  • Usha Padhee is an officer of the 1996 batch of the IAS from the Odisha cadre.
  • She replaced IPS officer Rakesh Asthana.
  • Earlier Usha Padhee served as the Joint Secretary of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

Additional Information 

  • Durga Shakti Nagpal busted UP's Sand Mafia.
  • Aruna Sundararajan is the current Telecom Secretary and Chairman of the Telecom Commission.
  • Archana Ramasundaram was the first woman police officer of India to lead a central paramilitary force.
32

Which of the following words is related to monuments built with large stones or containing them?

  1. ((a))

    Copper Age

  2. ((b))

    Megalithic period

  3. ((c))

    Mesolithic period

  4. ((d))

    Palaeolithic period

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Megalithic period

The correct answer is the Megalithic period.

  • The megalithic period is related to monuments built with large stones or containing them.

Key Points

  • Megaliths :
  • Megaliths were constructed either as burial sites or commemorative memorials.
  • People in South India buried their dead with tools, weapons, potteries, etc. Such graves were encircled by a big piece of stone.
  • Hence, these structures are called Megaliths.

Additional Information

  • Chalcolithic age:
  • It is also known as the Chalcolithic age.
  • It was the first metal age that saw the use of copper along with the stone.
  • Copper and its alloys were used to make various equipment like knives, axes, fishing hooks, chisels, pins, and rods
  • Mesolithic period:
  • It is also known as Middle Stone Age.
  • It is dated approximately from 10,000 BCE to 8,000 BCE.
  • It is a transition stage from Paleolithic (Old Stone Age) to  Neolithic (New Stone Age).
  • People of this age used chipped and polished stone tools.
  • Palaeolithic period:
  • It is also known as Old Stone Age.
  • This age gives evidence of tool construction.
  • People of this age used roughly chipped stone tools.
33

Which of the following rivers originate from the Vindhya Range? 

  1. ((a))

    Betwa

  2. ((b))

    Kaveri 

  3. ((c))

    Chenab 

  4. ((d))

    Gomati

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Betwa

The correct answer is Betwa.

  • Betwa originates from the Vindhya Range.

Key Points

  • Vindhya Range
  • The elevation of the Vindhyan Range is 300 to 650 m.
  • Vindhya Range is mostly composed of horizontally bedded sedimentary rocks of ancient age.
  • It acts as a watershed between the Ganga system and the river systems of South India.
  • Rivers like Chambal, Betwa, and Ken rise from Vindhya Range.
  • The Betwa river is a tributary of Yamuna.
  • Betwa river flows in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information 

  • Kaveri originates in Brahmgiri Range in Western Ghats.
  • Harangi, Hemavati, Arkavati,  Kabini River, and Noyyal River are tributaries.
  • Chenab originates from Bara Lacha Pass.
  • Gomati river originates from Gomat Taal.

34

Which of the following was a major event of the year 1919?

  1. ((a))

    Passing of the Rowlatt Act 

  2. ((b))

    Formation of Swaraj Party

  3. ((c))

    Signing of Gandhi-Irwin Pact

  4. ((d))

    Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Passing of the Rowlatt Act 

The correct answer is the Passing of the Rowlatt Act.

  • The passing of the Rowlatt Act was a major event of the year 1919.

Key Points

  • ​​Rowlatt Act (1919):
  • It was passed during the time of Lord Chelmsford.
  • In 1919 a Sedition Committee headed by justice Rowlatt led to the Rowlatt Act.
  • It was passed during the time of Lord Chelmsford.
  • ​​Rowlatt Act authorized the government to imprison any person without trial and conviction by the Court of Law for 2 years.
  • The law also enabled the government to suspend the right of Habeas Corpus which had been the foundation of civil liberties in Britain.
  • To protest the arrest of Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal many people gathered at Jallianwala Bagh and General Reginald Dyer ordered indiscriminate heavy firing on them which led to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13th April 1919 AD).
  • Mahatma Gandhi returned the Kaisar-i-Hind title as a protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
  • Rabindranath Tagore returned ‘Knighthood’.

Additional Information

  • The Formation of the Swaraj Party took place in the year 1923.
  • Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5th March 1931 AD.
  • The Launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement took place in 1920.
35

The India-Sri Lanka Commercial Free Trade Agreement was signed in ______.

  1. ((a))

    1998 

  2. ((b))

    2005

  3. ((c))

    2015

  4. ((d))

    2000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1998 

The correct answer is 1998.

  • The India-Sri Lanka Commercial-Free Trade Agreement was signed in 1998.

Key Points

  • The commercial relations between Sri Lanka and India has marked a historical milestone when it was signed the India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA) on 28th December 1998, as the 01st bilateral free trade agreement of Sri Lanka.
  • The ISFTA entered into force with effect from 01st March 2000.
  • The ISFTA is now in full implementation as both sides have completed their phasing out commitments under the respective Tariff Liberalization Programme (TLP).

Additional Information

  • In 2011-12, India’s imports from Sri Lanka went up by almost 45% to cross US$ 720 million, making Sri Lanka the largest source of merchandise from the South Asian region for India.
  • This is a big jump from US$ 45 million imports in 2000-01 when Sri Lanka occupied 4th rank as an import source for India in the region.
36

As of August 2023, which of the following is not a state political party

  1. ((a))

    All India Trinamool Congress

  2. ((b))

    Communist Party of India (ML)

  3. ((c))

    Communist Party of India

  4. ((d))

    Aam Aadmi Party

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Aam Aadmi Party

The correct answer is Aam Aadmi Party.

  • As of August 2023, Aam Aadmi Party is a National political party.

Key Points

  • Political parties are of two types: 
  • National Party
  • State Party/ Regional Party
  • Conditions for Recognition as a State Party:
  • If the party secures six percent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state concerned; and if it wins 2 seats in the assembly of the state concerned; or
  • If it secures six percent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; and if it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or
  • If the party wins three percent of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state concerned or 3 seats in the assembly, whichever is more; or
  • If the party wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned
  • Aam Aadmi Party is a National party with the symbol of a broomstick.

Additional Information

Name of the Party (Abbreviation)Symbol Reserved
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)Elephant
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)Lotus
Communist Party of India (CPIM)Ears of Corn and Sickle
Aam Aadmi PartyBroom
Indian National Congress (INC)Hand
National People's PartyBook
37

With reference to the investment schemes of India, what does the second 'P' stand for in 'PPF'? 

  1. ((a))

    Prudent

  2. ((b))

    Programme

  3. ((c))

    Provident

  4. ((d))

    Price 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Provident

The correct answer is Provident.

  • The second 'P' stands for Provident in 'PPF'.

Key Points

  • Public Provident Fund (PPF):
  • It was introduced in India in the year 1968.
  • The objective of PPF is to mobilize small savings in the form of investment with a return on it.
  • It is a scheme regulated by the Government of India.
  • It has a lock-in period of 15 years.
38

Which of the following was set up in 2005 through a notification on recommendations of the Rangarajan Commission?

  1. ((a))

    Finance Commission

  2. ((b))

    Food Corporation of India

  3. ((c))

    NITI Aayog 

  4. ((d))

    National Statistical Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

National Statistical Commission

The correct answer is National Statistical Commission.

  • National Statistical Commission was set up in 2005 through a notification on recommendations of the Rangarajan Commission.

Key Points

  • National Statistical Commission was set up by the Government in January 2000 under the Chairmanship of Dr. C. Rangarajan.
  • The function of the commission is to review the statistical system and the entire extent of Official Statistics in the country.
  • It was set up in 2005 on recommendations of the Rangarajan Commission.
  • The Rangarajan Commission submitted its report to the Government in August 2001.
  • It comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation.
  • The commission constitutes of a part-time Chairperson, 4 part-time Members, and an ex-officio Member, each having specialization and experience in specified statistical fields.

Additional Information

  • Finance Commission comes under Article 280.
  • It is a quasi-judicial body.
  • Food Corporation of India is a statutory body set up in the year 1965 under the Food Corporations Act 1964.
  • NITI Aayog was established replacing the Planning Commission in the year 2015.
39

Who among the following built the city of Tughlaqabad?

  1. ((a))

    Tughluq Khan

  2. ((b))

    Muhammad bin Tughlaq

  3. ((c))

    Firuz Shah Tughlaq 

  4. ((d))

    Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq 

The correct answer is Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.

  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq built the city of Tughlaqabad.

Key Points

  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq:
  • He was also known as Ghazi Malik.
  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty.
  • This dynasty was also known as the dynasty of the Qaraunah Turks.
  • He was the first sultan of Delhi who took up the title of Ghazi or slayer of the infidels.
  • He made policies for the Construction of canals and the formulation of a famine.
  • He started the barter system or sharing of crops.
  • He built the city of Tughlaqabad near Delhi and made it his capital.

Additional Information

  • Mohammad Bin Tughlaq was the son of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
  • He set up a new department of agriculture called Diwan-i-Kohi.
  • Firoz Shah Tughalq built and repaired the most extensive canal irrigation systems.
40

Hindustani Socialist Republican Association was established in 1928, in ______. 

  1. ((a))

    Delhi 

  2. ((b))

    Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Madras

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Delhi 

Hindustani Socialist Republican Association was established in 1928, in Delhi.

Key Points

  • Hindustan Socialist Republican Association(HSRA) was a revolutionary organization that was established in 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla in New Delhi.
  • Its founders were Chandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh,  Ashfaqulla Khan, Sukhdev Thapar, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee.
  • The revolutionary activities of HSRA were:
  • Kakori Conspiracy was a train robbery.
  • The killing of John Saunders.
  • Central Assembly Bombing Case.
41

Which among the following is a semiconductor? 

  1. ((a))

    Mercury 

  2. ((b))

    Germanium 

  3. ((c))

    Aluminium 

  4. ((d))

    Nickel 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Germanium 

The correct answer is Germanium.

  • Germanium is a semiconductor.

Key Points

  • Semiconductor:
  • The substances, in which electric conduction is not possible at a low temperature but on increasing the temperature, electric conduction becomes possible, are called the semiconductors.
  • Germanium and silicon are the two important semiconductors.
  • A pure semiconductor is called an intrinsic semiconductor and to increase its conductivity a chemical process is performed on it which is called Doping.
  • An impure semiconductor is called an extrinsic semiconductor.

Additional Information

  • Mercury is used in thermometers.
  • Aluminum is used to manufacture cans, foils, kitchen utensils, window frames, and aeroplane parts.
  • Nickel is used in alloying elements, coatings, and batteries.
42

In ______, the first Republic India banknotes were issued in the denominations of ₹2, ₹5, ₹10 and ₹100.

  1. ((a))

    1950 

  2. ((b))

    1951

  3. ((c))

    1949

  4. ((d))

    1952

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1950 

The correct answer is 1950.

  • In 1950, the first Republic India banknotes were issued in the denominations of ₹2, ₹5, ₹10, and ₹100.

Key Points

  • In 1950, the first Republic India banknotes were issued in the denominations of Rs. 2510, and 100.
  • Currently, the Finance Ministry issues currency notes and coins of rupee one, all other currency notes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
  • RBI was established on the basis of the Hilton Young Commission recommendation in April 1935 with the enactment of the RBI Act, 1934.
  • Its first Indian Governor was C.D. Deshmukh.

Additional Information

  • Oudh Commercial Bank was the first complete Commercial Bank of India.
  • ​The Imperial Bank was established in the year 1921 by merging three main Presidency Banks.
  • It was later rechristened as State Bank of India in 1955.
  • The Nationalization of Banks was done in 1969.
43

The famous Kesavananda Bharati (1973) case was associated with which of the following issues?

  1. ((a))

    Appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court

  2. ((b))

    Creation of Goa as a State

  3. ((c))

    Amenability of the Preamble 

  4. ((d))

    Abolition of Directive Principles of State Policy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Amenability of the Preamble 

The correct answer is Amenability of the Preamble.

  • The famous Kesavananda Bharati (1973) case was associated with Amenability of the Preamble.

Key Points

  • Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru and Ors v State of Kerala Case, 1973:
  • Kesavananda Bharati challenged the Kerala land reforms legislation in 1970.
  • The land reforms case imposed restrictions on the management of religious property.
  • Under Article 26 the case was challenged.
  • The verdict:
  • Any provision of the Indian Constitution can be amended by the Parliament in order to accomplish its socio-economic obligations that were guaranteed to the citizens as mentioned in the Preamble, provided that such amendment did not change the basic structure of the constitution.
  • The preamble is a part of the constitution and can be amended by the Parliament under Article 368.

Additional Information

  • Golaknath Case, 1967:
  • The preamble was not a part of the constitution.
  • The Preamble:
  • It is a borrowed feature from the Constitution of the USA.
  • The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
  • The Preamble has been amended only once, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which added three new words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
  • The Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.
44

______ of a country is a systematic statement of all economic transactions of a country with the rest of the world during a specific period typically a year. 

  1. ((a))

    Balance of Payment

  2. ((b))

    Reverse Repo Rate 

  3. ((c))

    Gross Primary Deficit 

  4. ((d))

    Gross Fiscal Deficit 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Balance of Payment

The correct answer is the Balance of Payment.

  • Balance of Payment of a country is a systematic statement of all economic transactions of a country with the rest of the world during a specific period typically a year.

Key Points

  • Balance of Payment(BoP) is the difference between the value of goods exported and the value of goods imported per annum.
  • Services are not included in BoP.
  • BoP is divided into the current account and capital account.
  • Under the current account, transactions are classified into merchandise (exports and imports) and invisible.
  • The main component of capital account includes foreign investment, loans, and banking capital.

Additional Information

  • Reverse Repo Rate 
  • ​It is the rate, at which banks park short-term excess liquidity with the RBI.
  • Gross Primary Deficit
  • It is a Gross Fiscal Deficit with fewer interest payments.
  • Gross fiscal deficit
  • It is the excess of total expenditure including loans net of recovery over revenue receipts and non-debt capital receipts.
45

Who among the following was awarded the Danny Kaye Humanitarian Award for 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Arjun Rampal

  2. ((b))

    Priyanka Chopra

  3. ((c))

    Madhuri Dixit

  4. ((d))

    Amitabh Bachchan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Priyanka Chopra

The correct answer is Priyanka Chopra.

  • Priyanka Chopra was awarded the Danny Kaye Humanitarian Award for 2019.

Key Points

  • The award is named after Danny Kaye who was an American actor and philanthropist and UNICEF's first Goodwill Ambassador.
  • The award is given by UNICEF.
  • Priyanka, who has been a UNICEF Goodwill Ambassador.
  • She was given the award in the year 2019 for her contribution to social causes and for being a voice for children's education.
  • She is also part of United Nation's global "Girl Up" Campaign

Additional Information

  • UNICEF is United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.
  • It was founded on 11 December 1946.
  • Its headquarters are in New York.
  • Henrietta H. Foreis the current head.
46

Which of the following passes joins the Jammu Division with the Kashmir Valley? 

  1. ((a))

    Bomdila 

  2. ((b))

    Jelep

  3. ((c))

    Diphu

  4. ((d))

    Banihal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Banihal

The correct answer is Banihal.

  • Banihal pass joins the Jammu Division with the Kashmir Valley.

Key Points

  • Banihal Pass is located in the Pir Panjal Range.
  • It connects the Jammu Division with the Kashmir Valley.
  • Banihal in Kashmiri means “blizzard”.
  • Passes in Kashmir Zoji La, Burzila, Pensi La, and Pir-Panjal Pass.

Additional Information

  • Bomdi-La connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa.
  • Jelep La connects Sikkim with Lhasa.
  • Diphu Pass is located on the disputed tripoint borders of India, China, and Myanmar.
47

The 'Nine Degree Channel' is associated with which of the following? 

  1. ((a))

    Indo-China Border 

  2. ((b))

    Coastal Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Lakshadweep Island

  4. ((d))

    Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lakshadweep Island

The correct answer is Lakshadweep Island.

  • The 'Nine Degree Channel' is associated with Lakshadweep Island.

Key Points

  • Minicoy Island is separated from the Lakshadweep by Nine degrees Channel.
  • The Union Territory of Lakshadweep is formed by islands like Kalpeni and Suheli Par, and Maliku Atoll and Amindivi.
  • It is so named because it lies on the 9-degree line of Latitude to the north of the equator.

Additional Information

  • The Ten-degree channel separates the Andaman group from Nicobar.
  • Duncan passage lies between South Andaman and Little Andaman group.
  • Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
  • Coastal Plains and Islands of India
48

Which gas is used in electrically controlled advertisement signboards so as to enable readability of its contents during the night?

  1. ((a))

    Neon

  2. ((b))

    Helium 

  3. ((c))

    Krypton

  4. ((d))

    Nitrogen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neon

The correct answer is Neon.

  • Neon is used in electrically controlled advertisement signboards so as to enable the readability of its contents during the night.

Key Points

  • Working of Neon Lights:
  • Neon light contains a small amount of neon gas under low pressure.
  • Electricity provides energy to remove electrons away from neon atoms and ionize them.
  • Ions are attracted to the terminals of the lamp. Hence, completing the electric circuit.
  • Light is produced when neon atoms gain enough energy to become excited.
  • When the atom returns to a lower energy state, it releases light.
  • Neon:
  • Symbol: Ne
  • Atomic number: 10
  • Atomic mass: 20 u

Additional Information

  • Inert Gases:
  • They belong to the 18th group of Periodic Table. For example, He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn.
  • Except for Rn, all inert gases are present in the atmosphere.
  • Argon is used in Arc. welding and electric bulbs.
  • Helium is light and non-inflammable so, used in the balloon, weather indicator, etc.
49

Prime Minister Narendra Modi took part in the 2019 BRICS Summit held at: 

  1. ((a))

    Bishkek

  2. ((b))

    Brasilia

  3. ((c))

    Bangkok

  4. ((d))

    Osaka

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Brasilia

The correct answer is Brasilia.

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi took part in the 2019 BRICS Summit held in Brasilia.

Key Points

  • It was the 11th BRICS summit.
  • It was held in Brasilia, Brazil.
  • The theme of the 11th BRICS summit was "Economic Growth for an Innovative Future.”
  • BRICS:
  • BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s emerging economies Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
  • The countries in BRICS account for about 40% of the world’s population and about 30% of the GDP.
  • The first BRIC Summit took place in 2009 in Russia.
  • South Africa joined the BRIC in December 2010.
  • Hence, it became BRICS.

Additional Information

  • Bishkek is the capital of Kyrgyzstan.
  • Bangkok is the capital of Thailand.
  • Osaka is a city in Japan.
50

Rashtriya Ekta Diwas in India is dedicated to _______. 

  1. ((a))

    Indira Gandhi 

  2. ((b))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

  3. ((c))

    Zakir Hussain 

  4. ((d))

    Atal Bihari Vajpayee 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

  • Rashtriya Ekta Diwas in India is dedicated to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

  • Rashtriya Ekta Diwas is also known as the National Unity Day.
  • It is celebrated on 31 October.
  • The day is celebrated to pay tribute to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and his efforts to form a United India.
  • The main objective of shaping the Indian States into sizeable or viable administrative units was sought to be achieved by a threefold process of integration known as the ‘Patel Scheme’.
  • 216 states were merged into respective Provinces, geographically connected to them.
  • These merged states were included in the territories of the States in Part B in the First Schedule of the Constitution.
  • 61 states were converted into centrally administered areas and were included in Part C of the First Schedule of the Constitution.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Home Minister of India.

Additional Information

  • Indira Gandhi's birth anniversary i.e. November 19 is celebrated as National Integration Day.
  • It is also known as Quami Ekta Divas.
  • Zakir Hussain was the third president of India.
  • Atal Bihari Vajpayee's birthday i.e December 25 is celebrated as Good Governance Day.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the option figure that is related to the third figure in the same way as the second figure is related to the first figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The given analogy:

<br>

In figure 1, the arrow and the circle are concentric and there is a shaded rhombus. In figure 2, the rightmost shape in the first figure i.e. circle moves at the leftmost position encircling the shaded shape i.e. the rhombus and the arrow moves to the rightmost position and shaded shape converted to  unshaded shape. 

Similarly, in the answer figure, the triangle will surround the star and the pentagon will move to the rightmost position as shown below:

Hence, the option figure (2) is the answer figure.

52

Select the option that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

6, 11, 33, 65, 141, ?

  1. ((a))

    278

  2. ((b))

    281

  3. ((c))

    321

  4. ((d))

    192

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

281

The given series: 6, 11, 33, 65, 141, ?

It is an alternate series as shown below:

6 × 2 - 1 = 11

11 × 2 + 11 = 33

33 ​× 2 - 1 = 65

65 ​× 2 + 11 = 141

141 ​× 2 - 1 = 281

Hence, 281 will be the next term in the series.

53

Select the option figure that is related to the third figure in the same way as the second figure is related to the first figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The given figure: 

<br>

The right image is upside down rotated version of the first image.

Hence, the Option figure (3) is the answer figure.

54

Three of the following four figures are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:- The second shape is the water image of the first shape.

The above logic is followed by all options except option(1)

<br>

Hence, the option figure (1) is the answer figure.

55

Three of the following four figures are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B

The given image series:

<br> <br>

Except for figure B, all other figures have closed shapes. Figure B has an open shape.

Hence, figure B is different from other three.

56

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The given series:

<br> <br>

<br>

In the first figure, the first triangle is shaded, in the second figure, the second triangle is shaded, in the third figure, the third triangle is shaded. Similarly, in the fourth figure, the fourth triangle will be shaded. Also, the position of the square and the circle will be reversed and they will be in the larger 'star' as shown below.

Hence, the option figure (3) is the answer figure.

57

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern is+ 

 

Hence, the option figure (3) will complete the given figure.

58

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    Carton

  2. ((b))

    Kit

  3. ((c))

    Sack

  4. ((d))

    Drawer

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Drawer

Carton, kit, and sack are used to carry things from one place to the other. A drawer is used to keep things organized and it is often attached to a piece of furniture.

Hence, 'drawer' is different from the other three.

59

Select the option that can be replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

2, 56, 91, 136, 176, 212, ?

  1. ((a))

    257

  2. ((b))

    252

  3. ((c))

    260

  4. ((d))

    275

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

257

The given number series: 2, 56, 91, 136, 176, 212, ?

The pattern used in the number series is shown below:

Hence, 257 is the next term in the given number series.

60

A shopkeeper bought 10 pieces of a type of refrigerator, each at Rs.27,000. He sold 5 pieces at 20%, 3 at 10%, and rest at 5% more than the price he bought them at. What was the net profit (in Rs) for the shopkeeper on the whole transaction?

  1. ((a))

    27,000

  2. ((b))

    41,960

  3. ((c))

    37,800

  4. ((d))

    35,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

37,800

Cost price of each refrigerator = Rs. 27000

Selling price of the 5 refrigerators sold at 20% profit = 5 × 27000 × 1.2 = Rs. 162000

Selling price of the 3 refrigerators sold at 10% profit = 3 × 27000 × 1.1 = Rs. 89100

Selling price of the 2 refrigerators sold at 5 % profit = 2 × 27000 × 1.05 = Rs. 56700

Total selling price = Rs. 307800

Total cost price = 10 × 27000 = Rs. 270000

Profit = Rs. 307800 - Rs. 270000 = Rs. 37800

Hence, the net profit is Rs. 37800.

61

Select the options figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The given shape:

<br> <br>

Clearly, the above shape is hidden in the image given below:

Hence, option figure (1) is the answer figure.

62

Two different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are marked as∶ 'Yes', 'No', 'If', 'It', 'In' and 'Is'. Select the word on the face opposite to the face showing 'Yes'.

  1. ((a))

    In

  2. ((b))

    It

  3. ((c))

    No

  4. ((d))

    Is

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

In

The given positions of the dice:

<br>

Clearly, 'if', 'it', 'No', and 'is' are adjacent to 'Yes'. Implies, 'In' is opposite 'Yes'.

Hence, 'In' is opposite 'Yes' in the given dice.

63

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is allowed)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The given image:

<br>

Clearly, the given shape is hidden in the image shown below:

 

Hence, the third figure is the answer figure.

64

An open dice is given below. Find the sum obtained by adding the faces 3 and 4 to the opposite sides of faces 3 and 4.

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15

The given figure:

From the above, we can conclude that 

2 is the opposite of 4

3 is the opposite of 6

1 is the opposite of 5

The Sum = The sum obtained by adding the faces 3 and 4 to the opposite side of face 3 is 6 and the opposite side of face 4 is 2.

The sum = 3 + 4 + 6 + 2 = 15

Hence, The correct answer is "Option (3)".

65

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

3 - 36 × 9 ÷ 3 + 12 = 3

  1. ((a))

    × and -

  2. ((b))
    • and ÷
  3. ((c))

    ÷ and × 

  4. ((d))

    ÷ and -

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

÷ and × 

The given equation: 3 - 36 × 9 ÷ 3 + 12 = 3

On interchanging × and -,

we get:

L.H.S = 3× 36 - 9 ÷ 3 + 12 

⇒ 108 - 3 + 12

⇒ 117 ≠ R.H.S

On interchanging + and ÷,

we get:

L.H.S = 3 - 36 × 9 + 3 ÷ 12

⇒ 3 - 324 + 0.25

⇒ 320.75 ≠ R.H.S

On interchanging ÷ and -,

we get:

L.H.S = 3 ÷ 36 × 9 - 3 + 12 = 3

⇒ 0.75 + 9 

⇒ 9.75 ≠ R.H.S

On interchanging ÷ and ×,

we get:

L.H.S. = 3 - 36 ÷ 9 × 3 + 12 

⇒ 3 - 12 + 12

⇒ 3 = 3 (R.H.S.)

Hence, we need to interchange the positions of ÷ and × to make the equation correct.

66

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

61221
194985
34?
  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

The given matrix:

61221
194985
34?

The logic is as follows:

Column 1: 6 × 3 + 1 = 19

Column 2: 12 × 4 + 1 = 49

Similarly,

Column 3:

(21 × ?) + 1 = 85

(21 × ?)  = 84

? = 4

Hence, '4' will replace the question mark in the given matrix.

67

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Lawless ∶ Delinquent ∶∶ Juvenile ∶ ?

  1. ((a))

    Resourceful

  2. ((b))

    Mature

  3. ((c))

    Intelligent

  4. ((d))

    Childish

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Childish

Both lawless and delinquent mean the person who breaks the law. Similarly, both juvenile and childish mean young people who are not adults.

Hence, 'childish' is related to 'juvenile' the same way 'delinquent' is related to 'lawless'.

68

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

Hence, the option figure (1) will complete the figure.

69

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

If we place a mirror to the right of the given image then all the words and boxes will be rotated by 180 degrees on its vertical axis as shown below:

Hence, the option figure (3) is the mirror image of the given figure.

70

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

When we will open the folded paper we will get:

Hence,  option figure (3) is the answer figure.

71

In a certain code language, 'CHART' is written as 'TRACH' and 'CLOSE' is written as 'ESOCL'. How will 'WORLD' be written in the same code language?

  1. ((a))

    DLROW

  2. ((b))

    DLRWD

  3. ((c))

    DLRWO

  4. ((d))

    OLRDW

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

DLRWO

To form the code of the word, the letters of the word are rearranged in a certain order shown below:

Similarly, for the word 'WORLD':

 

Hence, DLRWO is the code for the word WORLD.

72

Select the option in which the two numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given number-pair.

14 ∶ 45

  1. ((a))

    99 ∶ 63

  2. ((b))

    26 ∶ 80

  3. ((c))

    15 ∶ 44

  4. ((d))

    17 ∶ 54 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

17 ∶ 54 

The logic is as:

14 : 45,

14 × 3 + 3 = 45

Similarly,

17 × 3 + 3 = 51 + 3 = 54

Hence, 17 : 54 is similar to 14 : 45

73

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship among the following classes.

Information, News, History

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both news and history are part of information. Also, at times there is news about history. Thus, the 'news' circle and the 'history circle will intersect each other. The 'information' circle will completely encircle the other two circles as shown below.

Hence, the option figure (4) illustrates the relationship between information, news, and history.

74

Select the figures that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The image is rotated by 90 degrees in the clockwise direction to get the next image. Thus, in the fourth image the arrow would be facing the east direction as shown below.

<br>

Hence, the option figure (1) will be the next figure in the given image series.

75

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship among the following classes.

Paper, Craft, Art

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both art and craft is done using paper. Also, at times both art and craft are required to complete the project. Hence, all three circles will intersect with each other as shown below:

Hence, the option figure (2) best illustrates the relationship between art, craft and paper.

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

In a division action, the divisor is 32 times the quotient and 12 times the remainder. If the remainder is 56, what will the dividend be?

  1. ((a))

    14,168

  2. ((b))

    13,496

  3. ((c))

    13,446

  4. ((d))

    14,112

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14,168

Given:

Divisor = 32 × Quotient

Divisor = 12 × Reminder

Formula:

Remainder formula:

Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder

Calculation:

Remainder = 56

Divisor = 56 × 12 = 672

Quotient = 672/32 = 21

Dividend = 21 × 672 + 56 = 14168

∴ Dividend is 14168 when remainder is 56.

77

The value of 113÷335of5656×23+(0.91ˉ÷0.82)×2111\dfrac{1}{3} \div 3\dfrac{3}{5} of \dfrac{5}{6}-\dfrac{5}{6}\times \dfrac{2}{3} + (0.9\bar1 \div 0.\overline{82}) \times \dfrac{2}{11} is∶

  1. ((a))

    445\dfrac{4}{45}

  2. ((b))

    730\dfrac{7}{30}

  3. ((c))

    15\dfrac{1}{5}

  4. ((d))

    115\dfrac{1}{15}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

445\dfrac{4}{45}

Given:

113÷335of5656×23+(0.91ˉ÷0.82)×2111\dfrac{1}{3} \div 3\dfrac{3}{5} of \dfrac{5}{6}-\dfrac{5}{6}\times \dfrac{2}{3} + (0.9\bar1 \div 0.\overline{82}) \times \dfrac{2}{11}

Concept:

Calculation:

0.91̅  = (91 - 9)/90 = 82/90

0.̅8̅2 = (82 - 0)/99 = 82/99

Expression becomes,

⇒ ? = 4/3 ÷ 18/5 × 5/6 - 5/6 × 2/3 + (82/90 ÷ 82/99) × 2/11

⇒ ? = 4/3 ÷ 3 - 5/6 × 2/3 + 99/90 × 2/11

⇒ ? = 4/9 - 5/6 × 2/3 + 99/90 × 2/11

⇒ ? = 4/9 - 5/9 + 9/45

⇒ ? = 9/45 - 1/9

∴ ? = 4/45

78

The speed of a boat in still water is 30 km / h. It goes 60 km in the opposite direction of the current of the stream and returns to the starting point in the direction of the current of the stream. In this entire journey, it has taken 4 hours 10 minutes. How much time (in hours) will it take to cover a distance of 136.8 km towards the flow of the water stream?

  1. ((a))

    2.4

  2. ((b))

    3.8

  3. ((c))

    4.2

  4. ((d))

    3.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3.8

Given:

Speed of boat in still water = 30kmph

Formula:

Downstream speed = Speed of boat + speed of stream

Upstream speed = Speed of boat - Speed of stream

Speed = Distance/time

Calculation:

Total time = 4 hours and 10 min = 25/6 hours

Let speed of stream be a kmph.

Downstream speed = 30 + a

Upstream speed = 30 - a

But,

⇒ 60/(30 + a) + 60/(30 - a) = 25/6

⇒ 12/(30 + a) + 12/(30 - a) = 5/6

⇒ 12(30 + a + 30 - a)/(302 - a2) = 5/6

⇒ 12 × 60 × 6 = 5(900 - a2)

⇒ 4320/5 = 900 - a2

⇒ 864 = 900 - a2

⇒ a2 = 36

a = 6, -6 (speed can never be negative)

⇒ a = 6 kmph

Speed of stream is 6 kmph.

Downstream speed = 30 + 6 = 36kmph

∴ Required time = 136.8/36 = 3.8 hours

79

The average weight of students in a class is 49kg. Five new students are admitted in the class whose weights are 45 kg, 46.8 kg, 47.4 kg, 54.2 kg and 63.6 kg. Now, the average weight of all the students in the class is 50 kg. The number of students in the class in the beginning was:

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

7

Given:

Average weight of class = 49kg

New average weight of all students in a class = 50kg

Formula:

Average weight of n students = Total weight of n students/n

Calculation:

Let original number of students in a class be n.

Original total weight of a class = n × 49 = 49n kg

New total weight of a class = 49n + 45 + 46.8 + 47.4 + 54.2 + 63.6 = 49n + 257

Total new number of students in a class = n + 5

New total weight of a class = 50(n + 5) = 50n + 250

Then,

⇒ 49n + 257 = 50n + 250

⇒ n = 7

∴ There are 7 students in a class in the beginning.

80

An article marked at Rs.560 is sold at 20% discount. If there is a profit of 40%, then what is the cost price (in Rs) of the article?

  1. ((a))

    320

  2. ((b))

    400

  3. ((c))

    350

  4. ((d))

    280

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

320

Given:

Marked price of an article = Rs.560

Discount percentage = 20%

Profit percentage = 40%

Formula:

Selling price = Marked price × (100 - discount %)/100

Profit % = (SP - CP)/CP × 100

Calculation:

Selling price = 560 × (100 - 20)/100 = Rs.448

Then,

⇒ 40 = (448 - CP)/CP × 100

⇒ CP = 320

∴ Cost price of an article is Rs.320.

Shortcut Trick

Selling price = cost price × (100 + profit %)/100

Here,

∴ Cost price of an article = 448 × 100/(100 + 40) = Rs.320

81

Apoorv bought 26 kg of apples for Rs.2,340. He sold them at a profit equal to the selling price of 6 kg of apples. The selling price of apples per kg, was:

  1. ((a))

    Rs.110

  2. ((b))

    Rs.105

  3. ((c))

    Rs.117

  4. ((d))

    Rs.112

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs.117

Given:

Cost price of 26kg apples = Rs.2340

Formula:

Profit = Selling price - cost price

Calculation:

Cost price of 26 kg apples = Rs.2340

Let selling price of 1 kg apple be Rs.a.

Selling price of 6kg apples = Rs.6a

Profit after selling 26kg apples = Rs.6a

Selling price of 26kg apples = Rs.26a

Then,

⇒ 6a = 26a - 2340

⇒ a = 117

∴ Selling price of 1 kg apple is Rs.117.

82

If the radius of a right circular cone is decreased by 20% and its height is increased by 60%, then its volume:

  1. ((a))

    increases by 2.4%

  2. ((b))

    increases by 4.2%

  3. ((c))

    decreases by 2.5%

  4. ((d))

    decreases by 4%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

increases by 2.4%

Given:

Radius of cone decreased by = 20%

Height of cone increased by = 60%

Formula:

Volume of cone = 1/3 × πr2h

where r = radius of cone and h = height of cone

Calculation:

Let r and h be the radius and height of cone respectively.

Original volume of cone = 1/3 × πr2h

New radius of cone = r - r × 20/100 = 4r/5

New height of cone = h + h × 60/100 = 8h/5

New volume of cone = 1/3 × π(4r/5)2(8h/5) = 1/3 × πr2h × 128/125

% Increase in volume of cone = (1/3 × πr2h × 128/125 - 1/3 × πr2h)/1/3 × πr2h × 100 = (128/125 - 1) × 100 = 2.4%

∴ Volume of cone is increased by 2.4% than original volume of cone.

Alternate Method As we know that constant cannot be changed so Radius and height are variable so they can be changed

Radius decreased = 20% = -1/5,

height increased = 60% = + 3/5

Old volumeNew volume
(radius) 54
(radius) 54
(height) 58
125128

Change in volume 128 - 125 = 3

Percentage change in volume = (3/125) × 100 = 2.4%

83

A certain amounts to Rs.6,655 at 10%p.a. in 3 years. The same sum will amount to Rs.x at double the earlier rate in 2122\dfrac{1}{2} years and if the interest is compounded annually in both cases. What is the value of x?

  1. ((a))

    7,200

  2. ((b))

    7,920

  3. ((c))

    7,500

  4. ((d))

    8,640

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7,920

Given:

Amount = Rs.6655

Rate of interest = 10%

Time = 3 years

Formula:

Let P = Principal, R = rate of interest and N = time period

Compound interest (calculated annually) = P(1 + R/100)N - P

Amount = P(1 + R/100)N

Calculation:

⇒ 6655 = P(1 + 10/100)3

⇒ P = 5000

Sum invested is Rs.5000.

New rate of interest when sum amounts to Rs.x = 10 × 2 = 20% per annum

Time period when sum amounts to Rs.x = 2.5 years

⇒ x = 5000(1 + 20/100)2(1 + 0.5 × 20/100) = Rs.7920

∴ Value of x is Rs.7920

84

A certain sum amounts to Rs. 12,672 after 4 years and to Rs. 15,744 after 8 years at the same rate percent p.a. at simple interest. The simple interest on the same sum at 10% p.a. for 3133\dfrac{1}{3} years will be∶

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 3,350

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 3,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 3,240

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 3,200

Given:

Amount after 4 years = Rs. 12672

Amount after 8 years = Rs. 15744

Formula:

Let P = Principal, R = rate of interest and N = time period

Simple interest = PNR/100

Amount = P + PNR/100

Calculation:

Let rate of interest and principal be R% and Rs.P respectively.

⇒ 12672 = P + PR × 4/100    ----(1)

⇒ 15744 = P + PR × 8/100   ----(2)

Subtract (1) from (2),

⇒ 3072 = PR × 4/100

⇒ PR = 76800

Add (1) and (2),

⇒ 28416 = 2P + 76800 × 12/100

⇒ P = Rs.9600

∴ Simple interest at 10% for 10/3 years = 9600 × 10/100 × 10/3 = Rs.3200

Alternate Method4 years = Rs. 12672

8 years = Rs. 15744

8 - 4 = 15744 - 12672

4 years = Rs 3072

3072 is interest of 4 years

Amount = Principle + Interest

P = 12672 - 3072 = Rs 9600

According to question 

SI = PRT/100 = 9600 × 10 × (10/3)/100

⇒ Rs 3200

85

The income of A is 125% more than the income of B, and the income of C is 60% less than the total income of A and B. By what percentage is the income of C less than of A (correct to one decimal place)?

  1. ((a))

    46.9

  2. ((b))

    73.1

  3. ((c))

    40.8

  4. ((d))

    42.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

42.2

Given:

⇒ A = B + B × 125/100

⇒ C = (A + B) - (A + B) × 60/100

Calculation:

⇒ A = 225B/100 = 9B/4

⇒ B = 4A/9

⇒ C = (A + B)40/100 = 2(A + B)/5

⇒ C = 2(A + 4A/9)/5 = 26A/45

Let N be the percentage by which C is less than of A.

⇒ C = A - A × N/100

⇒ C =  A × (100 - N)/100

⇒ 100C = 100A - AN

⇒ N = (A - C) × 100/A

⇒ N = (A - 26A/45) × 100/A = 42.22%

∴ Required percentage = 42.2%

Alternate Method Income of A is 125% more than B i.e 125/100 = +5/4

Income of C is 60% less than B

A : B = 9 : 4 = 90 : 40

Let income of A and B be 90u, 40u respectively

A + B = 130u 

Income of C 60% less means he has (100% - 60%) = 40%

C = 130u × 40/100 = 52u

Income of C is less than A  by 90u - 52u = 38u

 ⇒ 38/90 × 100 = 42.22%

86

Remu gives 10% of an amount to Sushma, 20% of the remaining to Rekha, 50% of the remaining to Surbhi, and 40% of the remaining to Avni. Now, if a sum of Rs.2,700 is left with her, then the amount paid to Avni is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs.1,500

  2. ((b))

    Rs.2,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs.1,200

  4. ((d))

    Rs.1,800

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs.1,800

Shortcut Trick Let total amount Remu has 100u

Displaying Image_20231027_1018489181509083175943239.jpg

Remaining amount is 21.6u

21.6u = 2700

1u = 125

Avni paid to 40% of Remaining amount i.e 36u

36u of 40% = 125 × 36 × 2/5 =  Rs 1800 

Alternate MethodGiven:

Sum remained left with Remu = Rs.2700

Calculation:

Let initial amount Remu had be Rs.A.

Amount given to Sushma = A × 10/100 = Rs.A/10

Remaining amount = A - A/10 = Rs.9A/10

Amount given to Rekha = (9A/10) × 20/100 = Rs.9A/50

Remaining amount = 9A/10 - 9A/50 = Rs.18A/25

Amount given to Surbhi = 18A/25 × 50/100 = Rs.18A/50

Remaining amount = 18A/25 - 18A/50 = Rs.18A/50

Amount given to Avni = 18A/50 × 40/100 = Rs.18A/125

Remaining amount = 18A/50 - 18A/125 = Rs.54A/250

But,

⇒ 54A/250 = 2700

⇒ A = 12500

Remu had Rs.12500 initially with her.

∴ Amount given to Avni = 12500 × 18/125 = Rs.1800

87

A and B together can do a certain work in 20 days, B and C together can do it in 30 days, and C and A together can do it in 24 days, B alone will complete 23\dfrac{2}{3} part of the same work is∶

  1. ((a))

    20 days

  2. ((b))

    16 days

  3. ((c))

    24 days

  4. ((d))

    32 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

32 days

Shortcut Trick LCM(20, 30, 24) = 120 Let work is 120u

DaysWorkEfficiency
(A+B) 206
(B+C) 301204
(C+A) 245

Total efficiency 2(A + B + C) = 15u

A + B + C = 7.5u

A = A + B + C - (B+C) = 7.5 - 4 = 3.5u

By same process Efficiency of B = 2.5u, C = 1.5u

B alone can complete = (120 × 2/3)/2.5 = 32 days

Given:

⇒ 1/A + 1/B = 1/20

⇒ 1/B + 1/C = 1/30

⇒ 1/A + 1/C = 1/24

Calculation:

Solving,

⇒ 1/A - 1/C = 1/20 - 1/30 = 1/60

⇒ 1/A + 1/C = 1/24

Solving,

⇒ 2/A = 1/60 + 1/24 = 7/120

⇒ 1/A = 7/240

Then,

⇒ 1/B = 1/20 - 7/240 = 1/48

B's 1 days work = 1/48

B alone can complete the work in 48 days.

∴ Time taken by B to complete 2/3rd work = 2/3 × 48 = 32 days

Alternate Method

 Total work = LCM of 20, 30 and 24 = 120

In 1 day (A + B) can do 120/20 = 6 units work

In 1 day (B + C) can do 120/30 = 4 units work

In 1 day (A + C) can do 120/24 = 5 units work

In 1 day (A + C + B + C + C + A) = 2(A + B + C) can do 15 unit work

⇒ In 1 day (A + B + C) can do 15/2 = 7.5 units work

⇒ In 1 day B alone can do (A + B + C) - (A + C) = 7.5 - 5 = 2.5 units work

B alone can complete the work in 120/2.5 = 48 days

B alone can do 2/3rd part of the work in 48 × 2/3 = 32 days

∴ B alone will complete 2/3 part of the same work in 32 days.

88

A sum of Rs.23,808 is divided between A, B, C and D such that the ratio of the shares of A and B is 8 ∶ 9, that of B and C is 3 ∶ 5, and that of C and D is 1 ∶ 2. What is the shares of B? 

  1. ((a))

    Rs.3,456

  2. ((b))

    Rs.3,264

  3. ((c))

    Rs.3,072

  4. ((d))

    Rs.3,546

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs.3,456

Given:

Total amount = Rs.23808

A : B = 8 : 9

B : C = 3 : 5

C : D = 1 : 2

Calculation:

Let shares of A and B be Rs.8a and Rs.9a respectively.

Share of C = 5/3 × 9a = Rs.15a

Share of D = 2 × 15a = Rs.30a

⇒ 8a + 9a + 15a + 30a = 23808

⇒ a = 384

∴ Share of B = 9 × 384 = Rs.3456

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount = Rs.23808

⇒ A : B = 8 : 9

⇒ B : C = 3 : 5

⇒ C : D = 1 : 2

Calculation:

⇒ A : B = 8 : 9

⇒ B : C = 3 : 5 = 3 × 3 : 5 × 3 = 9 : 15

⇒ A : B : C = 8 : 9 : 15

⇒ C : D = 1 : 2 = 15 : 30

⇒ A : B : C : D = 8 : 9 : 15 : 30

∴ Share of B = 9/62 × 23808 = Rs.3456

89

The diameter of a circular garden is 140 m. Its area is equal to a rectangular field whose sides are in the ratio 11 ∶ 7. The perimeter (in m) of the rectangular field is (take π = 227\dfrac{22}{7})∶

  1. ((a))

    360√ 2

  2. ((b))

    180√ 2

  3. ((c))

    120√ 2

  4. ((d))

    270√ 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

360√ 2

Given:

Diameter of garden = 140m

Ratio of sides of rectangular field = 11 : 7

Formula:

Area of circle = πr2

Area of rectangle = length × breadth

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(length + breadth)

Calculation:

Radius of circular garden = 140/2 = 70m

Area of circular garden = 22/7 × 70 × 70 = 15400 sq.m

Area of rectangular field = 15400 sq.m

But,

⇒ Length : breadth = 11 : 7

⇒ 15400 = length × breadth

⇒ 15400 = length × 7length/11

⇒ Length = 110√2 cm

Breadth = 7/11 × 110√2 = 70√2 m

∴ Perimeter of rectangular field = 2(110√2 + 70√2) = 360√2 m

90

Let x be the greatest number of 4 digits which, when divided by 16, 28, 40 and 48, leaves remainder 11 in each case. What is the sum of the digit of x?

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    13

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

14

Given:

Four digit greatest number = x

Formula:

Dividend = divisor × quotient + remainder

Calculation:

LCM of 16, 28, 40 and 48

⇒ 16 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2

⇒ 28 = 7 × 2 × 2

⇒ 40 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5

⇒ 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3

LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 7 × 5 × 3 = 1680

When, 9999/1680 = 5 and remainder = 1599

Required four digit number = (9999 - 1599) + 11 = 8411

∴ Sum of digits of number = 8 + 4 + 1 + 1 = 14

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

What is the maximum height of a row in MS Excel 2010?

  1. ((a))

    255 points 

  2. ((b))

    100 points

  3. ((c))

    409 points 

  4. ((d))

    128 points 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

409 points 

The correct answer is 409 points.

Key Points

  • Rows can have a maximum height of 409 points.
  • This number represents how many one-seventy seconds of an inch the row can hold.
  • The default size of an Excel row is 15, which correlates to 20 pixels or about one-fifth of an inch.

Important Points

Worksheet and workbook specifications and limits:

  • Total number of rows and columns on a worksheet - 1,048,576 rows by 16,384 columns
  • Column width - 255 characters
  • Page breaks - 1,026 horizontal and vertical
  • Row height - 409 points
92

Pick the odd one out. 

  1. ((a))

    Internet Explorer 

  2. ((b))

    Safari 

  3. ((c))

    Mozilla 

  4. ((d))

    File Explorer 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

File Explorer 

The correct answer is File Explorer.

Key Points

  • Internet Explorer is the browser to surf the internet.
  • Similarly, Safari and Mozilla are also the browsers to surf the internet.
  • File Explorer is the application through which we can access the files which are already stored in our hard disk or memory.

Additional Information 

  • Internet Explorer is the browser of Microsoft company.
  • Safari is the browser of Apple company.
  • Mozilla is the browser of Mozilla Corporation.
93

In MS Excel 2010, a cell may display '______' if that cell contains a number or a date and the width of its column cannot display all the characters that its format requires. 

  1. ((a))

    ##### 

  2. ((b))

    **### 

  3. ((c))
  4. ((d))

    $

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

##### 

The correct answer is #####.

Key Points

  • If Microsoft Excel displays ##### in a cell after you apply number formatting to it, the cell probably isn't wide enough to display the data.
  • To expand the column width, double-click the right boundary of the column that contains the cells with the ##### error.
  • This automatically resizes the column to fit the number.

Additional Information

  • If your spreadsheet displays asterisks or pounds signs in a cell instead of data, this is usually because the column is not wide enough to display the value you've entered.
  • Lotus 1-2-3 displays asterisks ( *** ) when a column is too narrow.
  • Excel displays pound signs ( ### ).
94

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to run Spelling and Grammar Check in MS Word 2010? 

  1. ((a))

    F2

  2. ((b))

    F7 

  3. ((c))

    F1

  4. ((d))

    F9

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

F7 

The correct answer is F7.

Key Points

  • Open the document you want to check for spelling or grammar mistakes, and then press F7.
  • You can also use the ribbon to start the check.
  • Press Alt+R to open the Review tab, and then press C, 1 to select the Check Document option.

Additional Information

  • F2 is the shortcut key to move text in MS word.
  • F1 is the shortcut key to display the Word Help window.
  • F9 is the shortcut key to update all the field codes in the current selection
95

What is the value of the following MS Excel formula?

=SUMSQ(1, 2, 3, 4)

  1. ((a))

    10 

  2. ((b))

    34

  3. ((c))

    30 

  4. ((d))

    24 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

30 

The correct answer is 30.

Key Points

  • The 'SUMSQ' is the formula to sum the squares of the given numbers.
  • Here, sum of squares of (1, 2, 3, 4) is 1+4+9+16 = 30

Additional Information

  • CONCATENATE is one of the easiest to learn but most powerful formulas when conducting data analysis.
  • COUNTA identifies whether a cell is empty or not.
  • DAYS is exactly what it implies. This function determines the number of calendar days between two dates.
  • SUMIFS is one of the “must-know” formulas for a data analyst.
96

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used for closing an MS Word 2010 document? 

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + E 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + W 

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + N 

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + O

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl + W 

The correct answer is Ctrl + W.

Key Points

  • To quickly close the current application, press Alt+F4.
  • This works on the desktop and even in new Windows 8-style applications.
  • To quickly close the current browser tab or document, press Ctrl+W.
  • This will often close the current window if there are no other tabs open.

Additional Information

Important Shortcut keys used in MS Word:

  • Cut the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+X
  • Copy the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+C
  • Paste the contents of the Clipboard -Ctrl+V
  • Increase the font size by 1 point.- Ctrl+]
  • Center the text - Ctrl+E
  • Align the text to the left - Ctrl+L
97

Match the following domain name extensions with their respective definitions.

  1. .gov    A) Government agencies

  2. .org    B) Network organisations

  3. .edu   C) Non-profit organisations

  4. .net    D) Educational organisations

  1. ((a))

    1 - A, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - B 

  2. ((b))

    1 - D, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - B 

  3. ((c))

    1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - B 

  4. ((d))

    1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - B 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - B 

The correct answer is 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - B.

Key Points

  • .gov: This domain is derived from the word "government" and is used by governmental organizations. It is restricted for governmental use, which means organizations must meet specific criteria to use this domain extension. It is often used by government agencies, departments, programs, cities, counties, towns, and native sovereign nations. The .gov domain lends a level of authority and legitimacy to websites, as it verifies that the site is indeed run by an official government organization.
  • .org: This domain extension stands for "organization," and it is typically used by not-for-profit organizations. However, it is not restricted and can be registered by anyone. Originally, it was created for charities, non-profit organizations, trade groups, and community groups. Nowadays, there are many for-profit businesses using .org domains, especially if their desired .com domains are taken.
  • .edu: This top-level domain is derived from the word "education" and is primarily used by institutions of higher learning like universities, colleges, and research institutes. In the United States, the use of this domain is limited to post-secondary institutions that are institutionally accredited, i.e., the accreditation comes directly from regional or national accrediting agencies recognized by the U.S. Department of Education.
  • .net: This domain extension originates from the word "network." It was designed originally for organizations directly involved in the infrastructure of the Internet, such as Internet Service Providers or other types of networking companies. However, restrictions have been removed, and now anyone can register a .net domain name. Despite this, some companies involved in networking still use this domain extension, but its use has branched out widely among various types of entities.
98

The option of Spell Check can be selected from the _____ tab in MS Excel 2007.

  1. ((a))

    Review 

  2. ((b))

    Help 

  3. ((c))

    Formula

  4. ((d))

    File

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Review 

The correct answer is Review.

Key Points

  • The option of Spell Check can be selected from the review tab in MS Excel 2007.
  • The easiest way to apply a Spelling check is to press the keyboard of F7.
  • Press the F7 keyboard, then the Spelling and Grammar dialog box pops us to check your text.

Additional Information

Some important shortcuts used in MS Excel:

  • Ctrl + N Create a new workbook.
  • Ctrl + O Open an existing workbook.
  • Ctrl + S Save the active workbook.
  • F12 Save the active workbook under a new name, displays the Save as dialog box.
  • Ctrl + W Close the active workbook.
  • Ctrl + C Copy the contents of the selected cells to Clipboard.
  • Ctrl + X Cut the contents of the selected cells to Clipboard.
  • Ctrl + V Insert the contents of the Clipboard into the selected cell(s).
99

In MS Word, Ctrl + R is used to align the text to the ______ of the screen.

  1. ((a))

    left 

  2. ((b))

    right 

  3. ((c))

    top 

  4. ((d))

    bottom

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

right 

The correct answer is right.

Key Points

  • In MS Word, Ctrl + R is used to align the text to the right of the screen.
  • Ctrl + L - Align selected paragraph to the left.
  • Ctrl + E - Align selected text or line to the centre.

Additional Information

Important Shortcut keys used in MS Word:

  • Cut the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+X
  • Copy the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+C
  • Paste the contents of the Clipboard -Ctrl+V
  • Increase the font size by 1 point.- Ctrl+]
  • Center the text - Ctrl+E
  • Align the text to the left - Ctrl+L
100

To add a watermark in MS Word 2010 document, one has to click on the '' tab and then select the 'Watermark' option provided in the '' group. 

  1. ((a))

    Page Layout, Page Background

  2. ((b))

    View, Page Background

  3. ((c))

    Layout, Page Background

  4. ((d))

    Insert, Page Background

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Page Layout, Page Background

The correct answer is Page Layout, Page Background.

Key Points  Watermark 

  • It is an image or text that appears behind the main text of the document.
  • It is usually a lighter shade than that of the text so the document can be read easily.
  • It is used to show the purpose of the document.​
  • Page Layout tab → Page Background group → Watermark
  • It is a faded image or text, that sits across the contents of a document.
  • Watermarks can be used to indicate what stage the document is in, draft, confidential, final copy, etc.
  • marca de agua en Microsoft Word

Additional Information Insert a watermark:

  • On the Design tab, select Watermark.
  • Choose a pre-configured watermark, like DRAFT, CONFIDENTIAL, or DO NOT COPY.
  • For placing a logo or image, Select Watermark > Custom Watermark > Picture watermark > Select Picture.
  • On the same menu, you can create a custom text watermark.

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