Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 7 Dec 2020 Shift 3)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has set _____ per quintal minimum support price (MSP) for paddy with A grade for marketing season 2020 - 2021.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,868

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,888

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2,150

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2,640

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 1,888

The correct answer is Rs. 1,888.

Key Points

  • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has set Rs. 1,888 per quintal minimum support price (MSP) for paddy with an A grade for marketing season 2020 - 2021.
  • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the increase in the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for all mandated Rabi crops for marketing season 2021-22.
  • This increase in MSP is in line with the recommendations of the Swaminathan Commission.
  • Currently, MSP for 23 crops is recommended by CACP, which comprise seven kinds of cereal (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley, and ragi), five pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), seven oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soybean, sesamum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and four commercial crops

Additional Information

MSPs of some important crops in India:

CropsMSP
Paddy1888
Maize1850
Wheat1975
Jute4225
2

The first session of the Indian National Congress was held at _____ in 1885.

  1. ((a))

    Bombay (Now Mumbai)

  2. ((b))

    Allahabad (Now Prayagraj)

  3. ((c))

    Calcutta (Now Kolkata)

  4. ((d))

    Madras (Now Chennai)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bombay (Now Mumbai)

The correct answer is Bombay (Now Mumbai).

Key Points

  • The Indian National Congress conducted its first session in Bombay from 28 to 31 December 1885 at the initiative of retired Civil Service officer Allan Octavian Hume.
  • In 1883, Hume had outlined his idea for a body representing Indian interests in an open letter to graduates of the University of Calcutta.

Important Points

About Indian National Congress:

  • Founder - Allan Octavian Hume
  • Viceroy - Lord Dufferin
  • Founder Members - 72
  • First President - Womesh Chandra Benerjee
  • Former Name - Indian Association

Additional Information

  • The congress word was given by Dadabai Narojee.
  • The First Muslim President of Congress was Badruddin Tayyib Ji.
3

The Gandhara School of Art was influenced by ______ art.

  1. ((a))

    Korean and Mongolian

  2. ((b))

    Persian and Turkish

  3. ((c))

    Greek and Roman

  4. ((d))

    Chinese and Japanese

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Greek and Roman

The correct answer is Greek and Roman.

Key Points

  • Gandhara School was based on Greek-Roman norms encapsulating foreign techniques and an alien spirit.
  • It is also known as the Graeco-Buddhist School of art.
  • The foreign influence is evident from the sculptures of Buddha in which bear resemblance to the Greek sculptures.
  • Grey sandstone (Blue-grey Mica schist to be precise) is used in Gandhara School of Art.

Additional Information

  • The Bamyan Buddha of Afghanistan was the example of the Gandhara School.
  • Marble was NOT used in Gandhara art.
  • Terracotta was used rarely.
  • Bimaran Casket has yielded the earliest specimen of the Gandhara Art.
4

Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities as a/an ______.

  1. ((a))

    order

  2. ((b))

    species

  3. ((c))

    family

  4. ((d))

    class

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

species

The correct answer is Species.

Key Points

  • Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities as a/an species.
  • Taxonomy is the process of naming and classifying things such as animals and plants into groups within a larger system, according to their similarities and differences.
  • Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities as species because each genus has only a specific epithet representing different organisms.

Additional Information

  • Genealogy is the study of the family.
  • There are eight distinct taxonomic categories: Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species.
  • With each step down in classification, organisms are split into more and more specific groups.
5

As on June 2020, in which of the following places of India are coins minted by the Government of India?

  1. ((a))

    Alipore

  2. ((b))

    Cuttack

  3. ((c))

    Indore

  4. ((d))

    Gurugram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alipore

The correct answer is Alipore.

Key Points

  • The Alipore Mint was opened by the Finance Minister of Government of India Shree C. D. Deshmukh on 19 March 1952.
  • The full operation for the coinage and preparation of medals, decorations, and badges started in Alipore Mint from this date.
  • In addition to the production of coins for domestic use also produces coins for other nations.

Additional Information

  • Coins are minted at the four India Government Mints at Mumbai, Alipore(Kolkata), Saifabad(Hyderabad), Cherlapally (Hyderabad), and NOIDA (UP).
  • The coins are issued for circulation only through the Reserve Bank in terms of the RBI Act.
6

As of 2020, which of the following is a non-BJP ruled state?

  1. ((a))

    Uttarakhand

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Yeduguri Sandinti Jaganmohan Reddy (born 21 December 1972) also known as Y. S. Jagan or simply Jagan, is an Indian politician serving as the 17th and current Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh since 2019.
  • He is also the founder and president of the YSR Congress Party (YSRCP).
  • YSRCP stands for  Yuvajana Sramika Rythu Congress Party.

Additional Information

  • Chief Minister of Uttrakhand - Tirath Singh Rawat (BJP)
  • Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh - Shivraj Singh Chauhan (BJP)
  • Chief Minister of Karnataka - B. S. Yediyurappa (BJP)
7

With reference to human physiology, which of the following lobes is mainly concerned with visual information?

  1. ((a))

    Occipital

  2. ((b))

    Temporal

  3. ((c))

    Parietal

  4. ((d))

    Frontal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Occipital

The correct answer is Occipital.

Key Points

  • The occipital lobe is the visual processing area of the brain.
  • It is associated with visuospatial processing, distance and depth perception, colour determination, object and face recognition, and memory formation.
  • Each side of your brain contains four lobes.
  • The frontal lobe is important for cognitive functions and control of voluntary movement or activity.
  • The parietal lobe processes information about temperature, taste, touch, and movement, while the occipital lobe is primarily responsible for vision.

Additional Information

  • The temporal lobes are also believed to play an important role in processing affect/emotions, language, and certain aspects of visual perception.
  • The frontal lobe is the part of the brain that controls important cognitive skills in humans, such as emotional expression, problem-solving, memory, language, judgment, and sexual behaviours.
  • The parietal lobe is one of the major lobes in the brain, roughly located at the upper back area in the skull.
8

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

  1. ((a))

    Mirza Mohammad Qasim : Shahjahan Nama

  2. ((b))

    Abul Fazl : Akbarnama

  3. ((c))

    Gulbadan Begum : Humayun Nama

  4. ((d))

    Abdul Hamid Lahori : Padshahnama

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mirza Mohammad Qasim : Shahjahan Nama

The correct answer is Mirza Mohammad Qasim: Shahjahan Nama.

Key Points

  • Under the patronage of the Samanid dynasty, Hakīm Abul-Qāsim Firdawsī Tūsī (Ferdowsi) began his epic poem in 977, taking thirty-three years to complete it.
  • The Shahjahan Nama was written at a time when modern Persian had started to flourish and the structures and standards for the language were being set. This work was primarily written by Inayat Khan.
  • Akbarnama was written by Abul Fazl.
  • Humayun Nama was written by Humayun's sister Gulbadan Begum.
  • Padshahnama was written by Abdul Hamid Lohri.

Additional Information

  • The Shahnama is a long epic poem written by the Persian poet Ferdowsi between c. 977 and 1010 CE
  • It is the national epic of Greater Iran.
  • Consisting of some 50,000 "distichs" or couplets, the Shahnameh is one of the world's longest epic poems.
9

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    Tamaasha – Uttarakhand

  2. ((b))

    Maach – Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Mudiyettu – Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Bhavai – Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamaasha – Uttarakhand

The correct answer is Tamaasha - Uttarakhand.

Key Points

  • Tamasha is a traditional form of Marathi theatre, often with singing and dancing, widely performed by local or travelling theatre groups within the state of Maharashtra, India.
  • In Maharashtra, the Kolhati groups are traditionally associated with the performance of Tamasha.

Additional Information

Some important dances of other states:

StatesDances
Madhya Pradesh- Jawara - Matki - Aada - Khada Nach
Kerala- Kathakali - Mohiniattam - Thullal
Gujarat- Garbha - Deep
10

 In the context of tennis, what is the nationality of Steffi Graf?

  1. ((a))

    Canada

  2. ((b))

    Australia

  3. ((c))

    Germany

  4. ((d))

    USA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Germany

The correct answer is Germany.

Key Points

  • Stefanie Maria "Steffi" Graf (born 14 June 1969) is a German former professional tennis player.
  • She was ranked world No. 1 for a record 377 weeks (more than 7 years) and won 22 Grand Slam singles titles, which ranks second since the introduction of the Open Era in 1968 and third all-time behind Margaret Court and Serena Williams.
  • Graf was ranked world No. 1 by the Women's Tennis Association (WTA) for a record 377 total weeksthe longest period for which any player, male or female, has held the number-one ranking since the WTA and the Association of Tennis Professionals began issuing rankings.

Additional Information

  • The headquarters of the Women's Tennis Association is St. Petersburg, Florida, United States.
  • The headquarters of The International Tennis Federation (ITF) is in London, England.
  • The President of the International Tennis Federation is David Haggerty.
11

As of August 2020, how many classical dance forms exist in India?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

  • The Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on eight Indian classical dance styles:
  • Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu)
  • Kathak (North, West and Central India)
  • Kathakali (Kerala)
  • Kuchipudi (Andhra)
  • Odissi (Odisha)
  • Manipuri (Manipur)
  • Mohiniyattam (Kerala)
  • Sattriya(Assam)

Additional Information

  • All classical dances of India have roots in Hindu arts and religious practices.
  • The headquarters of Sangeet Natak Akademi is in New Delhi.
  • It was founded in 1953.
12

In which year did PV Sindhu for the first time break into the top 20 of Badminton World Federation Ranking for women?

  1. ((a))

    2013

  2. ((b))

    2010

  3. ((c))

    2012

  4. ((d))

    2011

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2012

The correct answer is 2012.

Key Points

  • In 2012 PV Sindhu for the first time break into the top 20 of Badminton World Federation Ranking for women.
  • Sindhu was only 17 years old when she broke into the top 20 Badminton World Federation world ranking in September 2012.
  • She is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic silver medal.

Additional Information

  • The highest governing body of Tennis is International Tennis Federation.
  • The headquarters of the International Tennis Federation is in London, United Kingdom.
  • The President of the International Tennis Federation is David Haggerty.
13

Part XVII of the Constitution of India deals with the official language in Articles 343 to ______. 

  1. ((a))

    352

  2. ((b))

    349

  3. ((c))

    351

  4. ((d))

    356

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

351

The correct answer is 351.

Key Points

  • Part XVII is a compilation of laws pertaining to the constitution of India as a country and the union of states that it is made of.
  • This part of the constitution consists of Articles on Official Language.
  • Chapter 1 covers Articles 343 and 344 and settles for two official languages of India - Hindi, written in Devanagari script, and English.
  • Chapter 2 covers articles 345–347 and writes that the regions of India are eligible to use any of the official languages of India for official purposes.
  • Chapter 3 covers articles 348 and 349 and writes that the official language of the Supreme Court of India, the High Courts of India.
  • Chapter 4 covers articles 350, 350A, 350B, and 351.

Additional Information

Some important parts of the Indian Constitution:

PartDescription
Part XIVUPSC and SPSC
Part XVElection Commission
Part XVIIOfficial Language
Part XXAmendment of the Constitution
14

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Consumer Price Index?

  1. ((a))

    It measures the average change in the sale price of goods and services either as they leave the place of production or as they enter the place of production.

  2. ((b))

    It is used to monitor changes in the cost of living over time.

  3. ((c))

    It is used to monitor the cost of the goods and services bought by producers and firms.

  4. ((d))

    It reflects the price of all the goods and services produced domestically.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It is used to monitor changes in the cost of living over time.

The correct answer is It is used to monitor changes in the cost of living over time.

Key Points

  • The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food, and medical care.
  • It is calculated by taking price changes for each item in the predetermined basket of goods and averaging them.
  • The current Consumer Price Index of India is 156.60.
  • A CPI is a statistical estimate constructed using the prices of a sample of representative items whose prices are collected periodically.

Additional Information

  • Consumer Price Index in India is published monthly by the Central Statistical Organization (CSO).
  • The Headquarters of the Central Statistical Organization is in New Delhi.
  • The Central Statistical Organization was established in 1951.
  • The government announced that the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) will be merged with the Central Statistics Office to form the National Statistical Office (NSO).
15

Which of the following Land Revenue Systems was introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820?

  1. ((a))

    Zamindari

  2. ((b))

    Mahalwari 

  3. ((c))

    Ryotwari 

  4. ((d))

    Zabti 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ryotwari 

The correct answer is Ryotwari.

Key Points

  • The Ryotwari system is associated with the name of Thomas Munro, who was appointed Governor of Madras in May 1820.
  • Subsequently, the Ryotwari system was extended to the Bombay area.
  • Munro gradually reduced the rate of taxation from one-half to one-third of the gross produce, even then an excessive tax.

Important Points

  • Under the Mahalwari system, the land revenue was collected from the farmers by the village headmen on behalf of the whole village.
  • Under the Ryotwari system, the land revenue was paid by the farmers directly to the state.
  • Zamindari system was started by the Imperialist East India Company in 1793.
16

Which of the following is a clause on the Indian bank notes?

  1. ((a))

    I promise to extend 

  2. ((b))

    I promise to talk 

  3. ((c))

    I am the money of India 

  4. ((d))

    I promise to pay the bearer

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

I promise to pay the bearer

The correct answer is 'I promise to pay the bearer'.

Key Points

  • Every banknote issued by the Reserve Bank of India shall be legal tender at any place in India in payment or on account of the amount expressed therein.
  • It shall be guaranteed by the Central Government, subject to provisions of sub-section (2) Section 26 of the RBI Act.
  • The clause written of Indian notes is 'I promise to pay the bearer'.

Additional Information

  • Motifs on Indian currency notes:
  • Twenty rupee - Ellora Caves
  • Fifty rupee - Hampi
  • Hundred rupee - Rani ki vav
  • Two hundred - Sanchi Stupa
  • Five hundred -  Red fort
17

In 1932, the British Prime Minister ______ announced the Communal Award which provided for separate electorates for the ‘Depressed Classes’, the Muslims, the Europeans, the Sikhs, the Anglo-Indians and the Indian-based Christians. 

  1. ((a))

    Bonar Law

  2. ((b))

    Ramsay MacDonald

  3. ((c))

    Stanley Baldwin

  4. ((d))

    Clement Attlee

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ramsay MacDonald

The correct answer is Ramsay MacDonald.

Key Points

  • The British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald, announced the Communal Award which provided for separate electorates for the 'Depressed Classes', the Muslims, the Europeans, the Sikhs, the Anglo-Indians, and the Indian-based Christians.
  • The Communal Award, announced by Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932.
  • The Communal Award was basically a proposal on minority representation.

Additional Information

  • Poona Pact, (September 24, 1932), an agreement between Hindu leaders in India granting new rights to Dalits (low-caste Hindu groups then often labeled “untouchables”).
  • Dalit leaders, especially Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar, supported the proposal, believing it would allow Dalits to advance their interests.
18

In India, the Attorney General is appointed by the _____. 

  1. ((a))

    Prime Minister

  2. ((b))

    Finance Minister

  3. ((c))

    Chief Justice of India

  4. ((d))

    President

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

President

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

  • In India, the Attorney General is appointed by the President.
  • The following are the qualifications required to be appointed as the attorney general of India:
  • He/She should be a citizen of India.
  • He/She must have either completed 5 years in the High Court of any Indian state as a judge or 10 years in High Court as an advocate
  • He/She may be an eminent jurist too, in the eye of the President

Additional Information

  • 1st Attorney General of India was Motilal C. Setalvad.
  • The current Attorney General of India is R. Venkataramani.
  • The constitution of India does not provide any fixed tenure to the Attorney General of India.
  • The Attorney General of India can be removed by the president at any time.
19

Who among the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize in Literature 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Peter Handke

  2. ((b))

    Kazuo Ishiguro

  3. ((c))

    Alice Munro

  4. ((d))

    Bob Dylan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Peter Handke

The correct answer is Peter Handke.

Key Points

  • Austrian author Peter Handke has won the 2019 Nobel Prize in Literature.
  • Peter Handke was awarded "for an influential work that with linguistic ingenuity has explored the periphery and the specificity of human experience."
  • The prize money of a noble prize winner is 10 million US dollars.
  • Nobel Prize is given in SIX fields.

Additional Information

Noble Prize winner 2020:

FieldWinner
Physics- Roger Penrose - Reinhard Genzel - Andrea Ghez
Chemistry- Emmanuelle Charpentier - Jennifer A. Doudna
Literature- Louise Glück
Peace- World Food Programme (WFP)
Economics- Paul R. Milgrom - Robert B. Wilson
20

The Cellular Jail, which is famous for its unique architecture, is located in _____. 

  1. ((a))

    Daman

  2. ((b))

    Port Blair

  3. ((c))

    Puducherry

  4. ((d))

    Kavaratti

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Port Blair

The correct answer is Port Blair.

Key Points

  • Cellular Jail is situated on South Andaman Island, one of 572 islands forming the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands in India.
  • The cellular jail was built by the British in 1906.
  • Freedom fighters such as Fazl-e-Haq Khairabadi, Yogendra Shukla, Batukeshwar Dutt, Babarao Savarkar, Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Bhai Parmanand, Sohan Singh, Subodh Roy and Trailokyanath Chakravarty, etc were kept in Cellular Jail.

Additional Information

Some islands were renamed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi:

  • Ross Island was renamed Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island
  • Neil Island was renamed Shaheed Island
  • Havelock Island was renamed Swaraj Island.
21

The Nagarhole National Park is located in _____.

  1. ((a))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Goa

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Karnataka

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • Nagarhole National Park is a national park located in Kodagu district and Mysore district in Karnataka, India.
  • It is one of India's premier Tiger Reserves along with the adjoining Bandipur Tiger Reserve and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • This park was declared the thirty-sevenths Project Tiger, Tiger reserves of India in 1999.
  • It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

Additional Information

National Parks of other States:

StateNational Park
Arunachal Pradesh- Namdapha National Park. - Mouling National Park.
Tamil Nadu- Anamalai Tiger Reserve - Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve
Goa- Mollem National Park - Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary
22

With reference to the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals, which of the following pairs is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Life Below Water - Goal 15

  2. ((b))

    Climate Action - Goal 13

  3. ((c))

    Clean Water and Sanitation - Goal 5

  4. ((d))

    Affordable and Clean Energy - Goal 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Climate Action - Goal 13

The correct answer is Climate Action - Goal 13.

Key Points

  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a "blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all".
  • The SDGs were set in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by the year 2030.
  • They are included in a UN Resolution called the 2030 Agenda or what is colloquially known as Agenda 2030.
  • The 17 SDGs are (1) No Poverty, (2) Zero Hunger, (3) Good Health and Well-being, (4) Quality Education, (5) Gender Equality, (6) Clean Water and Sanitation, (7) Affordable and Clean Energy, (8) Decent Work and Economic Growth, (9) Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure, (10) Reducing Inequality, (11) Sustainable Cities and Communities, (12) Responsible Consumption and Production, (13) Climate Action, (14) Life Below Water, (15) Life On Land, (16) Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions, (17) Partnerships for the Goals.

Additional Information

  • The headquarters of United Nation - New York.
  • President of United Nation -  Volkan Bozkır.
23

Which of the following was NOT commissioned by Emperor Shah Jahan?

  1. ((a))

    Shahajahanabad, Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Red Fort, Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Jama Masjid, Delhi

  4. ((d))

    Humayun's Tomb, Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Humayun's Tomb, Delhi

The correct answer is Humayun's Tomb, Delhi.

Key Points

  • Humayun's tomb is the tomb of the Mughal Emperor Humayun in Delhi, India.
  • The tomb was commissioned by Humayun's first wife and chief consort, Empress Bega Begum (also known as Haji Begum)  in 1558, and designed by Mirak Mirza Ghiyas and his son, Sayyid Muhammad.

Additional Information

  • Old Delhi or Purani Dilli is an area part of the greater city of Delhi, India. It was founded as a walled city named Shahjahanabad in 1639 when Shah Jahan decided to shift the Mughal capital from Agra.
  • The Red Fort is a historic fort in the city of Delhi in India that served as the main residence of the Mughal Emperors. Emperor Shah Jahan commissioned the construction of the Red Fort on 12 May 1638, when he decided to shift his capital from Agra to Delhi.
  • Emperor Shahjahan built Jama Masjid at the cost of Rs. 10 crores and it can be called the replica of Moti Masjid in Agra.
24

Who was the ‘Man of the Match’ at the 1983 Men’s World Cup Cricket Final?

  1. ((a))

    K Srikanth

  2. ((b))

    Madan Lal

  3. ((c))

    Kapil Dev

  4. ((d))

    Mohinder Amarnath

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mohinder Amarnath

The correct answer is Mohinder Amarnath.

Key Points

  • Mohinder Amarnath was the Man of the Match in the semifinal against England and in the final against the West Indies.
  • In finals, Mohinder Amarnath (46 from 92 balls, 4 fours, 1 six) picked up the man-of-the-match award for his all-round performance, which includes 3 wickets.

Additional Information

  • The final of the World Cup was played at Lord's.
  • The final was won by India by 43 runs.
  • Mohinder Amarnath was the Man of the Series of World Cup 1983.
25

Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports is located in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Jhansi

  2. ((b))

    Patiala

  3. ((c))

    Imphal

  4. ((d))

    Guwahati

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Patiala

The correct answer is Patiala.

Key Points

  • Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports commonly known as National Institute of Sports (NIS), is the Academic Wing of the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and Asia's largest Sports Institute located in the city of Patiala.
  • Founded on 7 May 1961, the Institute was renamed Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports in January 1973.

Additional Information

  • It is merged with the Sports Authority of India in 1987.
  • Spread over 268 acres, NIS is housed in the Old Moti Bagh Palace of the erstwhile royal family of Patiala State, which was purchased by the Government of India after Indian Independence.
26

How many atoms are there in a methane molecule?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

  • The chemical formula of Methane is CH4.
  • This formula contains one atom of carbon and four atoms of Hydrogen.
  • Total atoms in Methane are 5.

Additional Information

  • The atomic mass of Carbon is 12.
  • The atomic mass of Hydrogen is 1.
  • The atomic mass of Methane is 12+4=16.
27

As of August 2020, contributions made to the National Pension Scheme are eligible for additional tax deduction up to _____.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 62,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 40,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 65,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 50,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 50,000

The correct answer is Rs. 50,000.

Key Points

  • Income Tax Deductions under Sec 80 CCD(1B) - Payment of income tax is essential for every citizen of India who has an income tax liability, as per the rules and regulations of the Income Tax Act 1961.
  • But this does not mean that you have to pay tax on the entire income that you have earned in a given financial year.
  • Contribution towards the NPS tier 1 account allows you to claim an exclusive deduction of ₹50,000 under Section 80CCD (1B).

Additional Information

NPS stands for National Pension System.

Benefits of NPS-

  • It is voluntary - A Subscriber can contribute at any point of time in a Financial Year and also change the amount he wants to set aside and save every year.
  • It is flexible - Subscribers can choose their own investment options and pension fund and see their money grow.
28

The terms Veld, Downs, Pampas are related with ______. 

  1. ((a))

    types of clouds 

  2. ((b))

    grasslands

  3. ((c))

    commercial agriculture 

  4. ((d))

    canyons

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

grasslands

The correct answer is grasslands.

Key Points

  • Natural grasslands, also known as Campos, llanos, pampas, plains, prairie, steppe, and veld, are frequently associated with semi-permanent high air pressure systems and high amounts of solar radiation.
  • Annual precipitation typically ranges from 160 to 1700 mm with distinct wet and dry seasons.

Additional Information

Ten Basic types of Clouds:

  • Cirrus (Ci), Cirrocumulus (Cc), and Cirrostratus (Cs) are high-level clouds
  • Altocumulus (Ac), Altostratus (As), and Nimbostratus (Ns) are mid-level clouds They are composed primarily of water droplets.
  • Cumulus (Cu), Stratocumulus (Sc), Stratus (St), and Cumulonimbus (Cb) are low clouds composed of water droplets.
29

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    Gulf - A large inlet from the ocean into the landmass

  2. ((b))

    Isthmus - A narrow piece of land connecting two larger areas

  3. ((c))

    Archipelago - A chain of islands 

  4. ((d))

    Barchan - A strip of land sloping gently towards the sea

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Barchan - A strip of land sloping gently towards the sea

The correct answer is Barchan - A strip of land sloping gently towards the sea.

Key Points

  • Barchan means a crescent-shaped shifting sand dune, as found in the deserts of Turkestan.
  • Gulf means a large inlet from the ocean into the landmass.
  • Isthmus is a narrow piece of land connecting two larger areas.
  • An archipelago is a chain of islands.
30

Who among the following kings was given the title of 'Andhra Bhoja'?

  1. ((a))

    Aliya Rama Raya

  2. ((b))

    Vira Narasimha Raya

  3. ((c))

    Krishnadeva Raya

  4. ((d))

    Rama Raya

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Krishnadeva Raya

The correct answer is Krishnadeva Raya.

Key Points

  • Krishnadeva Raya was also known as Andhra Bhoja.
  • He authored a book named Amuktamalyada and Jambavati Kalyanam.
  • The group of poets named 'Ashtadiggajas' in his court.
  • Krishna Deva Raya was an emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire who reigned from 1509-1529 CE.

Additional Information

  • He is the third ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty.
  • Presiding over the empire at its zenith, lie is regarded as an icon by many Indians.
  • Krishna Deva Raya earned the titles Kannada Raj a Rama Ramana (lit, "Lord of the Kannada Empire"), Andhra Bhoja, and Moom Rayara Ganda ("King of three Kings").
  • The emperor obliged and composed Amuktamalyada which is one of the most famous poetic works in the entire Telugu literature.
  • Tenali Raman, Famous funny poet who was the courtier of Krishnadeva Raya
31

Who among the following is the author of the book 'You Can Win'?

  1. ((a))

    Rohini Mundra

  2. ((b))

    Shiv Khera

  3. ((c))

    Sandeep Maheshwari

  4. ((d))

    Dipa Karmakar 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Shiv Khera

The correct answer is Shiv Khera.

Key Points

  • Shiv Khera is an Indian author, activist, and motivational speaker.
  • He launched a movement against caste-based reservation in India, founded an organization called Country First Foundation, and started the Bhartiya Rashtravadi Samanta Party.
  • In 2004, he lost in a bid as an independent candidate for the South Delhi constituency in India's general election.
  • He also filed several public interest lawsuits in the Indian Supreme Court and unsuccessfully contested the country's 2009 general election.

Additional Information

Some important books written by other authors:

AuthorBooks
Rohini Mundra- The 1% Club: 7 Hacks to an Xtraordinary Life
Dipa Karmakar- Dipa Karmakar: The Small Wonder
32

In which year did the Government of India launch the Antyodaya Anna Yojana?

  1. ((a))

    1995

  2. ((b))

    2000

  3. ((c))

    2005

  4. ((d))

    1998

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2000

The correct answer is 2000.

Key Points

  • In order to make TPDS more focused and targeted towards this category of population, the "Antyodaya Anna Yojana” (AAY) was launched in December 2000 for one crore poorest of the poor families.
  • Antyodaya Anna Yojana involved identification of one crore poorest of the poor families from amongst the number of BPL families covered under TPDS within the States and providing them food grains at a highly subsidized rate of Rs.2/- per kg. for wheat and Rs.3/- per kg for rice.
  • Antyodaya anna yojana was launched to help the poorest of the poor.
  • It is implemented for providing rice and wheat at a low rate through the public distribution system.
  • Antyodaya anna yojana launched on 25th December 2000.
  • Launched by the former Indian prime minister A. B Vajpayee.
  • Introduced during the 9th five-year planning in India.
33

Which of the following ports is situated in the State of Gujarat?

  1. ((a))

    Panambur

  2. ((b))

    Haldia

  3. ((c))

    Paradip

  4. ((d))

    Hazira

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Hazira

The correct answer is Hazira.

Key Points

  • Hazira Port or Surat Port, is a deep-water liquefied natural gas (LNG) terminal and multi-cargo deep-water port about 20 miles southwest of Surat, India built by Hazira Port Private Limited (HPPL).
  • The LNG facility is operational, while the cargo port is under development.
  • It is a joint venture between Shell Gas B.V (Shell) and Total Gaz Electricité Holdings France (Total).
  • Shell holds 74% in the venture, with Total holds the remainder.

Additional Information

  • There are currently 13 major seaports in India.
  • Sagar Mala Project was started to modernize the traditional seaport.
  • Most Ancient port - Chennai
  • Riverine port - Kolkata
  • Perl port of India - Tuticorin
34

Who among the following is the creator of the character 'Sherlock Holmes'?

  1. ((a))

    Walt Disney

  2. ((b))

    Alice Munro

  3. ((c))

    Federico Pedrocchi

  4. ((d))

    Arthur Conan Doyle

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Arthur Conan Doyle

The correct answer is Arthur Conan Doyle.

Key Points

  • Sherlock Holmes, a fictional character created by the Scottish writer Arthur Conan Doyle.
  • The prototype for the modern mastermind detective.
  • Holmes first appeared in Conan Doyle's A Study in Scarlet, published in Beeton's Christmas Annual of 1887.

Additional Information

  • Sir Arthur Ignatius Conan Doyle KStJ DL (22 May 1859 – 7 July 1930) was a British writer and physician.
  • Alice Ann Munro is a Canadian short-story writer who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2013.
35

The famous anthology of poems ‘Madhushala' is written by ______. 

  1. ((a))

    Kusumagraj

  2. ((b))

    Kannadasan

  3. ((c))

    Harivansh Rai Bachchan

  4. ((d))

    Mahasweta Devi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Harivansh Rai Bachchan

The correct answer is Harivansh Rai Bachchan.

Key Points

  • Madhushala is a book of 135 "quatrains": verses of four lines by Hindi poet and writer Harivansh Rai Bachchan (1907–2003).
  • The highly metaphorical work is still celebrated for its deeply Sufi incantations and philosophical undertones and is an important work in the Chhayavaad (Neo-romanticism) literary movement of early 20th century Hindi literature.
  • All the rubaaiaa (the plural for rubaai) end in the word madhushala.

Additional Information

Some important works of other authors:

AuthorBooks
Kusumagraj- Pravasi Pakshi - Patheya - Vaishnav
Kannadasan- Life Lessons - Cheraman Kadali
Mahasweta Devi- Mother of 1084 - Breast stories
36

With reference to the Union Budget 2020 - 2021, which of the following is NOT a component of Aspirational India?

  1. ((a))

    Agriculture, irrigation and rural development

  2. ((b))

    Good diplomatic relationship with neighbouring countries

  3. ((c))

    Wellness, water and sanitation

  4. ((d))

    Education and skills

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Good diplomatic relationship with neighbouring countries

The correct answer is Good diplomatic relationship with neighbouring countries.

Key Points

  • FM Nirmala Sitharaman elaborated that under the Aspirational India theme, the budget will cover rural, water and sanitation, and education.
  • Three components of Aspirational India:
  • Agriculture, Irrigation, and Rural Development.
  • Wellness, Water, and Sanitation.
  • Education and Skills.

Additional Information

  • There are a total of 112 Aspirational District will be covered for AYUSHMAAN Treatment.
  • The main theme of Budget 2020-2021 is
  • Aspirational India
  • Caring Society
  • Economic Development for all
37

In the context of the Banking Sector in India, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? 

  1. ((a))

    The Indian law legalises the use of Rupee as a medium of exchange.

  2. ((b))

    Livestock may also be a form of collateral.

  3. ((c))

    Credit always pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.

  4. ((d))

    The RBI issues currency on behalf of the Central Government.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Credit always pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.

The correct answer is Credit always pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.

Key Points

  • A debt trap is a situation when credit pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.
  • Technically, a debt trap is a situation where you're forced to take fresh loans to repay your existing debt obligations.
  • Dept trap is not considered in terms of Banking terms.

Additional Information

  • Repo rate -  It is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds.
  • Reverse Repo rate - It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India borrows funds from the commercial banks in the country.
38

Morphine can be extracted from :

  1. ((a))

    tobacco 

  2. ((b))

    alcohol 

  3. ((c))

    cannabis

  4. ((d))

    opium 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

opium 

The correct answer is Opium.

Key Points

  • Morphine is one of the many, and pharmacologically most important, opium poppy alkaloids (Papaver somniferum).
  • Most of the alkaloid is in poppy milk - opium.
  • It is a dried and properly processed juice with precut immature poppy-heads.
  • It induces euphoria, somnolence, has an analgesic effect.

Additional Information

  • Morphine is a pain medication of the opiate family that is found naturally in a dark brown, resinous form from the poppy plant.
  • It can be taken orally or injected; it is also often smoked.
39

When burnt in air, a magnesium strip burns with a bright _____ flame.

  1. ((a))

    Green

  2. ((b))

    White

  3. ((c))

    Red

  4. ((d))

    Blue

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

White

The correct answer is White.

Key Points

  • When burnt in the air, a magnesium strip burns with a bright white flame and formed white ash — MgO.
  • However, if the magnesium is not removed from the flame, then it still burns in the flame, not nearly so well (it sputters), and above it the flame is yellow-orange.
  • It happens because when magnesium ribbons burn in the presence of air they undergo an oxidation reaction to form magnesium oxide.
  • This change proceeds with the evolution of heat and light due to which we see the dazzling white flame.

Additional Information

Color of the flame of several elements:

  • Arsenic - Blue
  • Strontium - Crimson
  • Tellurium - Pale green
  • Thallium - Bright green
  • Zinc Blue-green to pale green
40

With reference to the first cabinet of independent India, which pair is included in the following?

  1. ((a))

    Rajkumari Amrat Kaur - Education

  2. ((b))

    Molana Abdul Kalam Azad - Finance

  3. ((c))

    Shyama Prasad Mukherjee - Industries and Supplies

  4. ((d))

    Rajendra Prasad - Commerce

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shyama Prasad Mukherjee - Industries and Supplies

The correct answer is Shyama Prasad Mukherjee - Industries and Supplies.

Key Points

  • After independence, on 15 August 1947, Jawaharlal Nehru assumed office as the first Prime Minister of India and chose fifteen ministers to form the First Nehru ministry.
  • There were members from Hindu, Muslim, Christian, Sikh, and Parsi communities represented in India's first ministry.
  • There were two members from the Dalit community represented as well.
  • Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was the only female Cabinet minister.

Additional Information

The cabinet of the first government was:

PortfolioMinister
Deputy Prime MinisterSardar Vallabai Patel
Minister of LawB. R. Ambedkar
Minister of DefenceBaldev Singh
Minister of EducationMaulana Abul Kalam Azad
Minister of Industries and SuppliesShyama Prasad Mukherjee
41

As of August 2020, who amongst the following is the Chief Minister of Nagaland?

  1. ((a))

    Prem Singh Tamang 

  2. ((b))

    Biplab Kumar Dev

  3. ((c))

    Zoramthanga 

  4. ((d))

    Neiphiu Rio

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neiphiu Rio

The correct answer is Neiphiu Rio.

Key Points

  • Neiphiu Rio (born 11 November 1950) is an Indian politician who is the current Chief Minister of Nagaland.
  • Rio has also served as Chief Minister for three separate terms (2002–07, 2007–12 and 2012–14), making him the only Nagaland Chief Minister to have served three consecutive terms.
  • He was a Member of Parliament from Nagaland in Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

  • Governor of Nagaland - RN Ravi
  • Literacy rate of Nagaland - 79.55%
  • Sex Ratio of Nagaland - 931
  • National Parks in Nagaland -  Ntangki National Park, Fakim Wildlife Sanctuary, Puliebadze Wildlife Sanctuary, etc.
42

The 'Mariana Trench' is in the ______.

  1. ((a))

    North Atlantic Ocean

  2. ((b))

    South Atlantic Ocean

  3. ((c))

    Pacific Ocean

  4. ((d))

    Indian Ocean

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pacific Ocean

The correct answer is Pacific Ocean.

Key Points

  • The Mariana Trench or Marianas Trench is located in the western Pacific Ocean about 200 kilometres (124 mi) east of the Mariana Islands
  • It is the deepest oceanic trench on Earth.
  • It is crescent-shaped and measures about 2,550 km (1,580 mi) in length and 69 km (43 mi) in width.
  • The maximum known depth is 10,984 metres (36,037 ft) (± 25 metres [82 ft]) (6.825 miles) at the southern end of a small slot-shaped valley in its floor known as the Challenger Deep.

Additional Information

  • Deepest trench of Atlantic Ocean - Puerto Rico trench.
  • Deepest trench of Indian Ocean -  Java Trench
  • Deepest trench of Artic Ocean - Eurasian Basin
43

River Banas is a tributary of the ______ river. 

  1. ((a))

    Indus 

  2. ((b))

    Chambal 

  3. ((c))

    Brahmaputra 

  4. ((d))

    Damodar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chambal 

The correct answer is Chambal.

Key Points

  • The Banas is a river that lies entirely within the state of Rajasthan in western India.
  • It is a tributary of the Chambal River, itself a tributary of the Yamuna, which in turn merges into the Ganga.
  • The Banas is approximately 512 kilometres in length.

Additional Information

  • Banas river originated from Veron ka Math.
  • Chambal river originated from Janapav.
  • Chambal river meets Yamuna river at Etawah district.
44

Which of the following two highest-ranking feudal lords was given the title of 'Mirza Raja' by Aurangzeb?

  1. ((a))

    Ratan Singh and Uday Singh II

  2. ((b))

    Jai Singh and Jaswant Singh

  3. ((c))

    Man Singh Tomar and Rana Kumbha

  4. ((d))

    Govind Chauhan and Rana Hammir

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jai Singh and Jaswant Singh

The correct answer is Jai Singh and Jaswant Singh.

Key Points

  • The title mirza raja was accorded to the two highest-ranking nobles Jai Singh and Jaswant Singh by the Mughal emperor.
  • Maharaja Jai Singh (15 July 1611 – 28 August 1667) was a senior general ("Mirza Raja") of the Mughal Empire and the Raja of the Kingdom of Amber (later called Jaipur).
  • His predecessor was Raja Bhau Singh who ruled 1614-1621.
  • Jaswant Singh Rathore (26 December 1626[1] – 28 December 1678) was a Maharaja of Marwar in the present-day Indian state of Rajasthan.
  • His father was Maharaja Gaj Singh. He was a distinguished man of letters and author of "Siddhant-Bodh", "Anand Vilas" and "Bhasa-Bhusan"

Additional Information

  • Aurangzeb adopted the title of 'Alamgir'.
  • He had been called the 'Zindapir'.
  • He forbade the music in the court.
  • He abolished the Jharoka Darshan.
  • He also reintroduced the Jaziya tax.
  • Tomb of Rabia Durrani or Bibi ka Makbara is situated in Aurangabad.
45

Which of the following is a Statutory Body?

  1. ((a))

    CAG

  2. ((b))

    Finance Commission

  3. ((c))

    UPSC

  4. ((d))

    NHRC

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

NHRC

The correct answer is NHRC.

Key Points

  • The National Human Rights Commission of India is a Statutory public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993.
  • It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Additional Information

  • CAG or Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a Constitutional body.
  • CAG is also known as the watchdog of Public Purse.
  • Finance Commission is the Constitutional Body.
  • Finance Commission comes under Article 280.
  • Union Public Service Commission is a Constitutional Body, it is also known as the watchdog of Merit System.
  • Union Public Service Commission comes under Article 315 - 323.
46

In August 2020, ______ was appointed as the Governor of Meghalaya.

  1. ((a))

    Vajubhai Vala 

  2. ((b))

    Kalraj Mishra 

  3. ((c))

    Satya Pal Malik 

  4. ((d))

    Ramesh Vyas

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Satya Pal Malik 

The correct answer Satya Pal Malik.

Key Points

  • Satya Pal Malik (born 24 July 1946) is an Indian politician serving as the 21st and current Governor of Meghalaya.
  • He was the 18th Governor of Goa, appointed by President Ram Nath Kovind on 25 October 2019.
  • He assumed the position on 3 November 2019.
  • Malik was also the last Governor of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • He was the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir from August 2018 to October 2019, and it was during his tenure that the constitutional decision to abrogate Article 370, which gave special status to J&K, was taken on 5 August 2019.

Additional Information

  • Chief Minister of Meghalaya - Conrad Sangma
  • Literacy rate of Meghalaya - 74.43 %
  • Sex Ratio of Meghalaya - 989
  • National Parks / Wildlife Sanctuaries in Meghalaya - Balpakram National Park, Siju Bird Sanctuary, Baghmara Reserve Forest, etc.
47

In July 2020, who among the following launched the ‘Pravasi Rojgar App’ to help workers in finding jobs?

  1. ((a))

    Prakash Jha

  2. ((b))

    Anurag Kashyap

  3. ((c))

    Sonu Sood

  4. ((d))

    Ranbir Kapoor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sonu Sood

The correct answer is Sonu Sood.

Key Points

  • Sonu Sood launched Pravasi Rojgar app to help migrants find job opportunities to help workers.
  • Pravasi Rojgar App can be availed by migrant workers and skilled workers only.
  • Through the Pravasi, Rojgar App to seek the right employment opportunities for migrant workers in different parts of the country will be supported by community outreach in villages.

Additional Information

  • Sonu Sood (born 30 July 1973) is an Indian actor, producer, model, and philanthropist who works predominantly in Hindi, Telugu, and Tamil films.
  • In 2009, he received the Andhra Pradesh State Nandi Award for Best Villain.
48

The term 'Tripitakas' in Buddhism mean three:

  1. ((a))

    baskets

  2. ((b))

    houses

  3. ((c))

    roads

  4. ((d))

    trees

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

baskets

The correct answer is Baskets.

Key Points

  • Tripiṭaka is a Sanskrit word meaning Three Baskets.
  • It is the traditional term used by Buddhist traditions to describe their various canons of scriptures.
  • The expression Three Baskets originally referred to three receptacles containing the scrolls on which the Buddhist scriptures were originally preserved.

Additional Information

Some important terms used in Buddhism are:

  • Buddha. - Buddha means `an enlightened person.
  • Dhamma. - The truth about what life is really life.
  • Sangha. - The community of Buddhists.
49

Which of the following musicians belonged to the state of Assam?

  1. ((a))

    Anuradha Paudwal

  2. ((b))

    Bhupen Hazarika

  3. ((c))

    Hariharan

  4. ((d))

    Manna Dey

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bhupen Hazarika

The correct answer is Bhupen Hazarika.

Key Points

  • Bhupen Hazarika (8 September 1926 – 5 November 2011) was an Indian playback singer, lyricist, musician, poet, and filmmaker from Assam, widely known as Xudha kontho.
  • His songs, written and sung mainly in the Assamese language by himself, are marked by humanity and universal brotherhood and have been translated and sung in many languages, most notably in Bengali and Hindi.

Additional Information

  • Anuradha Paudwal (born 27 October 1954) is an Indian playback singer who works predominantly in Bollywood.
  • Hariharan (born 3 April 1955) is an Indian playback, bhajan, and ghazal singer from Trivandrum, whose songs have been featured mainly in Tamil and Hindi.
  • Prabodh Chandra Dey (1 May 1919 − 24 October 2013), known by his stage name Manna Dey, was an internationally acclaimed Indian playback singer, music director, musician, and Indian classical vocalist.
50

The Shore Temple, which is a UNESCO Heritage Site, is located in the state of ______. 

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka 

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • The Shore Temple is so named because it overlooks the shore of the Bay of Bengal.
  • It is located near Chennai in Tamil Nadu.
  • It is a structural temple, built with blocks of granite, dating back to the 8th century AD.
  • At the time of its creation, the site was a busy port during the reign of Narasimhavarman II of the Pallava dynasty.

Additional Information

  • About Tamil Nadu (as of May 2022)
  • Chief Minister - M. K. Stalin
  • Literacy Rate - 80.33%
  • Sex Ratio - 996
  • National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries of Tamil Nadu - Anamalai Tiger Reserve, Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary, etc.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The given figure is a part of-

The solid lines shows the given figure.

Thus, the given figure is embedded in Figure 1 of the given options.

52

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a vertical mirror is placed to the right of the figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The mirror image of the given figure when a vertical mirror is placed to the right of the figure will appear as-

Thus, Figure 2 of the given options is the exact mirror image of the given figure.

53

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

On unfolding, the paper will appear as-

Thus, Figure 2 of the given options shows its exact appearance after unfolding.

54

Which option figure will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

On completion, the given pattern will appear as-

Thus, Figure 1 of the given options will complete the given pattern.

55

Three of the following four figures are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Option1: 1 Triangle, 1 quadrilateral, 1 pentagon, 1 hexagon

Option2: 1 Triangle, 1 quadrilateral, 1 pentagon, 1 hexagon

Option3: 1 Triangle, 1 quadrilateral, 1 pentagon, 1 hexagon

Option4: 1 Triangle, 2 quadrilaterals, 1 pentagon

Therefore, clearly Figure 4 of the given options is different than the other three.

56

Which option figure will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

The pattern in central circle is- Counting in clockwise direction,every third sector is shaded in successive steps.

And the pattern in the outer circles is- Counting in clockwise direction every third small circle is shaded in successive steps.

Thus, Figure 2 of the given options will replace the question mark.

57

Three different positions of the same non-standard dice are shown. Which number will be on the face opposite to the face with the number '6'?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

From first and third positions, it is clear that-

'1' is opposite to '3', as (2,5) is common to both of them.

And from second and third position, rotating clockwise from one common face we get

(3-6-4) and (3-5-2) now, we get the opposite pairs are as (6-5), (4-2) and the remaining (3-1).

Therefore, '5' is opposite to '6'.

58

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the number of the following set.

(3, 7, 58)

  1. ((a))

    (7, 5, 39)

  2. ((b))

    (3, 2, 13)

  3. ((c))

    (6, 4, 53)

  4. ((d))

    (8, 7, 112)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(3, 2, 13)

The logic followed here is: (

3, 7, 58) is related as → 32 + 72 = 9 + 49 = 58

Applying same logic in all other options,

Option1: (7, 5, 39) → 72 + 52 = 49 + 25 = 74 ≠ 39

Option2: (3, 2, 13) → 32 + 22 =  9 + 4 = 13 = 13 

Option3: (6, 4, 53) → 62 + 42 = 36 + 16 = 52 ≠ 53

Option4. (8, 7, 112) →  82 + 72 = 64 + 49 = 113 ≠ 112

Thus, (3, 2, 13) is related in the same way as (3, 7, 58).

59

Which option figure will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The given pattern will be completed as follows-

Thus, Figure 2 of the given options will replace the question mark and complete the given pattern.

60

Select the option that is related to figures C in the same way as figure B is related to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

The shaded portion of the figure A becomes unshaded in figure B and unshaded portion of the figure A becomes shaded in figure B.

Thus, figure 3 of the given options is related to figures C in the same way as figure B is related to figure A.

61

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

7, 16, 28, 40, ?, 72, 88, 106, 126

  1. ((a))

    60

  2. ((b))

    56

  3. ((c))

    52

  4. ((d))

    54

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

54

Prime Numbers: 2, 3, 5 , 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67..

The logic followed here is:

 

 

Starting from the first prime number, sum of two alternate prime numbers gives the numbers of the given series.

That is,

2 + 5 = 7, 5 + 11 = 16, 11 + 17 = 28, 17 + 23 = 40, 23 + 31 = 54, 31 + 41 = 72, 41 + 47 = 88, 47 + 59 = 106, 59 + 67 = 126

Hence, 54 will replace the question mark.

62

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

11, 15, 23, ?, 71, 135, 263, 519

  1. ((a))

    39

  2. ((b))

    43

  3. ((c))

    27

  4. ((d))

    57

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

39

The pattern followed here is-

 

Thus, 39 will replace the question mark.

63

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Amphibian, Monkey, Frog

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Frogs are classified as amphibians while monkeys are classified as mammals.

Therefore all frogs are represented inside the circle amphibians and monkeys are shown differently.

Based on these, the representation of Amphibian, Monkey, Frog should be-

Hence, the figure in option 2 is the correct answer.

64

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    Disseminate

  2. ((b))

    Congregate

  3. ((c))

    Disperse

  4. ((d))

    Scatter

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Congregate

The logic followed here is: Disseminate, disperse and scatter are synonyms of each other having a common meaning- 'to spread'

But, congregate is the antonym of all these words as it means- 'to gather or assemble'

Therefore, Congregate is the odd one out.

65

In the Venn diagram given below, the 'rectangle' represents 'Male Cricketers', the 'triangle' represents 'Indian', and the 'circle' represents 'Engineers'. The numbers given in the diagram represent number of persons of that particular category.

What is the count of Indian Male Cricketers who are NOT Engineers?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7

From the given information,

ShapeRepresentation
RectangleMale Cricketers
TriangleIndian
CircleEngineers
<br>

Thus, Indian Male Cricketers who are NOT Engineers is represented by → Numbers common to triangle and rectangle but not included in circle.

Numbers common to triangle and rectangle → 6 And 7 and out of these '7' is not included in circle.

Hence, number of Indian Male Cricketers who are NOT Engineers = 7.

66

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

4751 : 8998 :: 5236 : ?

  1. ((a))

    9999

  2. ((b))

    8998

  3. ((c))

    8888

  4. ((d))

    9879

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8888

The logic followed here is:

Sum of digits of 4751 = 4 + 7 + 5 + 1 = 17 And 17 × 2 = 34

Sum of digits of 8998 = 8 + 9 + 9 + 8 = 34 

Similarly,

Sum of digits of 5236 = 5 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 16 And 16 × 2 = 32

Now,

Option1: Sum of digits of 9999 = 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 = 36 ≠ 32

Option2: Sum of digits of 8998 = 8 + 9 + 9 + 8 = 34 ≠ 32

Option3: Sum of digits of 8888 = 8 + 8 + 8 + 8 = 32 = 32

Option4: Sum of digits of 9879 = 9 + 8 + 7 + 9 = 33 ≠ 32

Hence, 8888 is related to 5236 in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

67

'Ammeter' is related to 'Current' in the same way as 'Anemometer' is related to '_____'.

  1. ((a))

    Wind Speed

  2. ((b))

    Voltage

  3. ((c))

    Light

  4. ((d))

    Blood Pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wind Speed

The logic followed here is: Ammeter is an instrument used to measure electric current.

By the same logic,

Anemometer is an instrument used to measure wind speed and direction.

Thus, 'Anemometer' is related to 'Wind Speed' in the same way as Ammeter' is related to 'Current'.

68

Which option figure will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

The central square is rotating at 45° in every successive step.

The position of other shapes is moving and rotating clockwise 90° at each step and every shape in upper left and lower right quadrant is always solid.

Thus, figure 3 of the given options will replace the question mark in the given series.

69

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The solid lines show the embedded figure-

Thus, the given figure is embedded in figure 4 of the given options.

70

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

570 × 8 - 240 + 75 ÷ 15 = 79

  1. ((a))

    ÷ and -

  2. ((b))
    • and - 
  3. ((c))
    • and × 
  4. ((d))

    × and ÷ 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

÷ and -

Given Equation:  570 × 8 - 240 + 75 ÷ 15 = 79 

CONCEPT:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question by putting combination of signs given in each option, as per the order given below,

Step - 1 - Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first,

Step - 2 - Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' should be solved next,

Step - 3 - Then, the parts of the equation containing 'Division' and 'Multiplication' operations are solved,

Step - 4 - And lastly, the parts of the equation that contains 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

So, on using BODMAS and solving each option, 

Option1: ÷ and -

On interchanging these signs, the given equation becomes- 570 × 8 ÷ 240 + 75 - 15 = 79

Solving LHS of the equation,

570 × 8 ÷ 240 + 75 - 15

= 570 × 1/30 + 75 - 15

= 19 + 75 - 15

= 94 - 15

=79 = 79, This satisfies the equation.

Option2. + and - 

On interchanging these signs, the given equation becomes- 570 × 8 + 240 - 75 ÷ 15 = 79 

Solving LHS of the equation,

570 × 8 + 240 - 75 ÷ 15 

= 570 × 8 + 240 - 5

= 4560 + 240 - 5

= 4800 - 5

= 4795 ≠ 79 , This does not satisfy the equation.

Option3. + and × 

On interchanging these signs, the given equation becomes- 570 + 8 - 240 × 75 ÷ 15 = 79 

Solving LHS of the equation,

570 + 8 - 240 × 75 ÷ 15

= 570 + 8 - 240 × 5

= 570 + 8 - 1200

= 578 - 1200

= - 622 ≠ 79, This does not satisfy the equation.

Option4. × and ÷ 

On interchanging these signs, the given equation becomes- 570 ÷ 8 - 240 + 75 × 15 = 79 

Solving LHS of the equation,

570 ÷ 8 - 240 + 75 × 15 

= 71.25 - 240 + 75 × 15 

= 71.25 - 240 + 1125

= 1196.25 - 240

= 956.25 ≠ 79, This does not satisfy the equation.

Hence, ÷ and - should be interchanged to make the given equation correct.

71

Three of the following four figures are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Option1: No. of solid shapes = 6,  No. of hollow shapes = 4

Option2: No. of solid shapes = 7,  No. of hollow shapes = 3

Option3: No. of solid shapes = 6,  No. of hollow shapes = 4

Option4: No. of solid shapes = 6,  No. of hollow shapes = 4

Therefore, figure 2 of the given options is different than the other figures.

72

In a code language, MARKET is written as GVPIZN. How will RETAIL be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    ORZGUI

  2. ((b))

    ORZGVI

  3. ((c))

    ORBGVI

  4. ((d))

    ORBGUI

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ORZGVI

The pattern followed here is:

Reverse alphabets are written,

Similarly,

Hence, RETAIL will be written as ORZGVI.

73

A retailer sells 2 products A and B to a customer. On product A he makes a profit of 20% on his cost price of Rs.80, while on product B he incurs a loss of 20% on his cost price as he sold it at Rs.80. Overall, what is the amount of profit or loss that he makes on these two products ?

  1. ((a))

    Loss of Rs.16

  2. ((b))

    Loss of Rs.4

  3. ((c))

    No profit or no loss

  4. ((d))

    Profit of Rs.16

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Loss of Rs.4

Product A                                                   

CP = Rs.80                                                  

Profit = 20 %                                               

                         

20 × 80 = (SP - 80) × 100                            

1600 = 100SP - 8000                                     

100SP = 1600 + 8000                                         

SP = 9600 ÷ 100 = Rs.96                                

Product B

SP = Rs.80

Loss = 20%

20CP = 100CP - 8000

20 × CP = (CP - 80) × 100     

80CP = 8000  

CP = 8000 ÷ 80 = Rs.100

Total CP = CP of Product A + CP of Product B

= Rs.80 + Rs.100

= Rs.180

Total SP = SP of Product A + SP of Product B

= Rs.96 + Rs.80

= Rs.176

Overall Loss = Total CP - Total SP

= Rs.180 - Rs.176

= Rs.4

Hence, the retailer makes overall loss of Rs.4

74

Three different positions of the same non-standard dice are shown. Which letter will be on the face opposite to the face with the letter 'M'? 

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    L

  4. ((d))

    J

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

L

From position first and third position, it is clear that-

'K' is opposite to 'O', as ( J and L ) is common to both of them.

And from second position, 'N' and 'O' can't be opposite to 'M' as they are adjacent to 'M'.

So, either 'J' or 'L' can be opposite to 'M'.

Now, assuming 'L' is opposite to 'N' in second position.

And on rotating second position such that 'O' is at the top, third position can't be obtained as 'M' would be on the front face.

Thus, 'L' is not opposite to 'N' but 'J' is opposite to 'N'.    

And 'L' is on the face opposite to 'M'.

Hence, 'L' is opposite to 'M'.

75

Select the option that is related to figure C in the same way as figure B is related to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

The shaded portion of diagonal shapes in figure A is interchanged and figure B is obtained.

The shaded pattern of the circle in A  is interchanged with the shaded pattern of Square.

The same pattern is observed with the star symbol.

So, by the same logic, the shaded portion of diagonal shapes in figure C should be interchanged to obtain the next figure.

 

Thus, figure 4 of the given options is related to figure C in the same way as figure B is related to figure A.

Mistake Points

Option 3 and option 4 seems similar to students but on close observation, you can notice that the bottom left shaded star have different number of vertices ie; 5 and 6.

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

A person loses 20%, when he sells a watch for Rs. 2,300. What is his profit percentage if he sells it for Rs. 3,231.50?

  1. ((a))

    10.8

  2. ((b))

    15.2

  3. ((c))

    12.8

  4. ((d))

    12.4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12.4

Given:

Loss Percentage = 20%

Initial Selling Price = Rs. 2,300

New Selling Price = Rs. 3,231.50

Shortcut Trick 20% = 1/5

⇒ 4 = 2300

⇒ 1 = 575

⇒ 5 = 2300 + 575 = 2875

⇒ Profit = SP - CP = 3231.50 - 2875 = 356.5

⇒ Profit% = (356.5/2875) × 100 = 12.4

∴ The Profit% when the watch is sold at Rs. 3,231.50 is 12.4%

Alternate Method

Formula Used:

Loss% = {(CP – SP)/CP} × 100

Profit% = {(SP – CP)/CP} × 100  

where SP = Selling Price and CP = Cost Price

Calculation:

Loss% = {(CP – SP)/CP} × 100

⇒ 20 = (CP – 2300)/CP × 100

⇒ 20/100 × CP = CP – 2,300

⇒ 80/100 × CP = 2,300

⇒ CP = (2300 × 100)/80

⇒ CP = 2875

So, Cost Price of the watch is Rs. 2,875

New Selling Price is Rs. 3,231.50

So, Profit% = {(SP – CP)/CP} × 100

⇒ {(3231.50 – 2875)/2875} × 100

⇒ (356.5/2875) × 100

⇒ 12.4

∴ The Profit% when the watch is sold at Rs. 3,231.50 is 12.4%

 

Alternate Method

Let the CP of watch be x

As, there is 20% loss. So, 80% of x = 2300

⇒ x = 2300 × 100/80

⇒ x = 2875

Now, New SP = Rs. 3231.5

So, SP/CP = 3231.5/2875

⇒ SP/CP = 1.124

Here, the Selling Price is 1.124 times of Cost Price. So, SP is 12.4% more than CP.

∴ The Profit% when the watch is sold at Rs.3,231.50 is 12.4%

77

The perimeter of a circular fields is 1012 m. The area of this field is equal to a rectangular garden whose sides are in the ratio 14 ∶ 11. The longer side of the garden is∶ (Take π =227\dfrac{22}{7})

  1. ((a))

    294 m

  2. ((b))

    322 m

  3. ((c))

    308 m

  4. ((d))

    336 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

322 m

Given:

The perimeter of circular fields is 1012 m.

The ratio of the sides of the rectangular garden is 14 ∶ 11

The area of this field is equal to a rectangular garden.

Formula used:

The perimeter of a circle = 2πr

Area of a circle = πr2

Area of a rectangle = length × breadth

Calculation:

The perimeter of the circular field is 1012 m.

So, we can say 2πr = 1012 m

⇒ 2 × 22/7 × r = 1012 m

⇒ r = (23 × 7) m

Now, the area of the circular field = πr2

⇒ πr2 = 22/7 × (23 × 7)2 m2

⇒ (22 × 23 × 23 × 7) m2

Let the length of the rectangular garden be 14x and breadth be 11x

So, the area of a rectangular garden is 14x × 11x

Now, the area of this field is equal to the rectangular garden

⇒ 14 × 11 × x2 = (22 × 23 × 23 × 7) m2

⇒ x2 = (23 × 23) m2

⇒ x = 23 m

Now, the longer side of the length of the rectangular park is (23 × 14) m

⇒ 322 m

The longer side of the rectangular park is 322 m.

78

An article is sold by giving a discount of 30% on its marked price. If there is a gain of 20%, and the cost price of the article is Rs.840, then the marked price of the article is∶ 

  1. ((a))

    Rs.1,440

  2. ((b))

    Rs.1,240

  3. ((c))

    Rs.1,260

  4. ((d))

    Rs.1,460

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs.1,440

Given:

Discount on MRP is 30% and shopkeeper gain 20%.

C.P = Rs.840

Shortcut Trick 30% = 3/10 & 20% = 1/5

Let's assume the MP of the article is 10x.

⇒ SP = 10x - 3x = 7x

⇒ CP = 840 = (7x) × 5/6 

⇒ x = 144

⇒ 10x = 1440

∴ The value of the marked price of the article is Rs. 1440.

Alternate Method

Formula Used:

Discount % = (M.R.P – S.P)/M.R.P × 100

Profit % = (S.P – C.P)/C.P × 100

Where, M.R.P = Marked price, S.P = Selling Price, C.P = Cost Price

Calculation:

Let marked price be Rs. 100x then Discount be Rs. 30x.

According to the question:

S.P is 100x – 30x = 70x

Profit % = (S.P – C.P)/C.P × 100

⇒ 20 = (70x – 840)/840 × 100

⇒ 70x = 1008

S.P is 1008 then marked price,

⇒ [(1008/70x) × 100x]

⇒ 1440

The value of the marked price of the article is Rs. 1440.

79

Train A travelling at 55 km/h takes 21 seconds to cross completely train B travelling at 53 km/h in the opposite direction. The length of train A is 2.5 times the length of train B. Train A passes a bridge in 72 seconds. What is the length (in m) of the bridge?

  1. ((a))

    650

  2. ((b))

    600

  3. ((c))

    550

  4. ((d))

    575

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

650

Given:

The speed of train A is 55 km/h

The speed of train B is 53 km/h

The length of train A is 2.5 times the length of train B

Train A cross-train B completely in a 21 second 

Train A cross the bridge in 72 sec

Concept:

Time = Distance/Speed

When the object moves in the opposite direction then the relative speed of the object sum up of both object speed.

Calculation:

Let, the length of train B be x

Let the length of the bridge = D

Then the length of train A will be 2.5x

Total distance covered by train A = x + 2.5x

Speed to cover distance = (55 + 53) km/h

⇒ (55 + 53) × 5/18 = 30 m/s

Time to cross train B = Total length of train cover by A/Relative speed of train A with respect to train B

⇒ 21sec = (x + 2.5x)/30 m/s

⇒ 630 = 3.5x

⇒ 630/3.5 = x

⇒ 180 = x

The length of train B is 180 m

Then, the length of train A will be 450 m

Train A takes 72 sec to cross the bridge

Time to cross bridge by train A = (Length of train A + Length of bridge)/speed of train A

⇒ 72sec = (450 + D)/(55 × 5/18) m/s

⇒ 72/18 = (450 + D)/(55 × 5)

⇒ 4 = (450 + D)/275

⇒ 275 × 4 = 450 + D

⇒ 1100 – 450 = D

⇒ 650 = D

The length of bridge is 650 m

80

Savita decides to donate 8% of her monthly income to a charitable trust. On the day of donation, she changes her decision and donates Rs.2,880 which is 20% Is less than the amount already set aside for charity. What is his monthly income (in Rs)?

  1. ((a))

    Rs.36,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs.48,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs.45,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs.40,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs.45,000

Given: 

Savita donates 80% of 8% of Total income 

Shortcut Trick 8% - (8% × 20%) = 2880

⇒ 6.4% = 2880

⇒ 1% = 450

⇒ 100% = 45,000

∴ The income of Savita is Rs 45,000

Alternate Method

Calculation: 

Let the total income be x 

Savita donates = 2880 

⇒ 80/100 × 8/100 × x = 2880 

⇒ x = 2880 × 100 × 100/(8 × 80) = 45,000 

∴ The income of Savita is Rs 45,000

81

Let x be the least number between 1400 and 1800, which when divided by 5, 6, 8, 9 and 12, the remainder in each case is 3. When x is divided by 11, the remainder is∶ 

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

Given:

x be the least number between 1400 and 1800

Concept used:

Required number = (LCM of 5, 6, 8, 9 and 12) + 3

Calculation:

Factor of 5 = 1 × 5

⇒ Factor of 6 = 2 × 3

⇒ Factor of 8 = 2 × 2 × 2 

⇒ Factor of 9 = 3 × 3

⇒ Factor of 12 = 2 × 2 × 3

⇒ LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 360

x be the least number between 1400 and 1800 so,

number x = 360 × 4 + 3 = 1443

When number x is divided by 11 remainder is = 1443/11 = 2

∴ number x is divided by 11 remainder is 2.

82

The value of 78÷423;of 114114×115+(0.53÷0.58ˉ)×234\frac{7}{8} \div 4\frac{2}{3};of \ 1\frac{1}{4} - 1\frac{1}{4} \times 1\frac{1}{5} + (0.\overline{53}\div 0.5\bar{8}) \times 2\frac{3}{4} is∶

  1. ((a))

    1720\dfrac{17}{20}

  2. ((b))

    278\dfrac{27}{8}

  3. ((c))

    2320\dfrac{23}{20}

  4. ((d))

    75\dfrac{7}{5}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2320\dfrac{23}{20}

Given:

78÷423;of 114114×115+(0.53÷0.58ˉ)×234\frac{7}{8} \div 4\frac{2}{3};of \ 1\frac{1}{4} - 1\frac{1}{4} \times 1\frac{1}{5} + (0.\overline{53}\div 0.5\bar{8}) \times 2\frac{3}{4}

Concept Used:

Calculation:

78÷423;of 114114×115+(0.53÷0.58ˉ)×234\frac{7}{8} \div 4\frac{2}{3};of \ 1\frac{1}{4} - 1\frac{1}{4} \times 1\frac{1}{5} + (0.\overline{53}\div 0.5\bar{8}) \times 2\frac{3}{4}

⇒ 78÷143;of 5454×65+(5399÷58590)×114\frac{7}{8} \div \frac{14}{3};of\ \frac{ 5}{4} - \frac{5}{4} \times \frac{6}{5} + (\frac{53}{99} \div \frac{58 - 5}{90}) \times \frac{11}{4}

⇒ 7/8 ÷ 14/3 of 5/4 – 5/4 × 6/5 + 10/11 × 11/4

⇒ 7/8 ÷ 14/3 × 5/4 – 5/4 × 6/5 + 10/11 × 11/4

⇒ 7/8 ÷ 35/6 – 5/4 × 6/5 + 10/11 × 11/4

⇒ 3/20 – 3/2 + 5/2

⇒ 23/20

 The value of  78÷423;of 114114×115+(0.53÷0.58ˉ)×234\frac{7}{8} \div 4\frac{2}{3};of \ 1\frac{1}{4} - 1\frac{1}{4} \times 1\frac{1}{5} + (0.\overline{53}\div 0.5\bar{8}) \times 2\frac{3}{4} is 23/20.

83

Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 10 hours and 131313\frac{1}{3} hours, respectively. Pipe C is an emptying pipe. When all three pipes are opened together, the tanks is filled in 8 hours. Pipe C alone can empty 60% part of the tank in:

  1. ((a))

    12 hours

  2. ((b))

    15 hours

  3. ((c))

    9 hours

  4. ((d))

    10 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 hours

Given:

Time taken by Pipe A is 10 hours

Time taken by Pipe B is 131313\frac{1}{3}= (40/3) hours

Time taken by all pipe (A, B, C) together is 8 hours 

Concept Used:

When two pipes A and B can fill the tank in x, y hours respectively.

There is also an outlet pipe C. If all three pipes opened simultaneously tank will fill in z hours,

then the time taken by Pipe C to empty the full tank is given by

Time taken by Pipe C = (X × Y × Z)/(XZ + YZ - XY)

Calculation:

Let time taken by Pipe A, B and Pipe (A, B, C) together be denoted by X, Y and and Z respectively.

⇒ Time taken by Pipe C = [10 × (40/3) × 8]/[(10 × 8) + (40/3 × 8) - (10 × 40/3)]

⇒ Time taken by pipe C = (3200/3)/(160/3)

⇒ Time taken by Pipe C = 20 hours 

Time taken by Pipe C to empty 60% of the tank will be 60% of 20 hours

⇒ 60% of 20 hours

⇒ (60/100) × 20

⇒ 60/5

⇒ 12 hours

 The time taken by Pipe C to empty 60% of tank is 12 hours.

84

A sum of Rs.8,000 amounts to Rs.13,824 in 3 years at R% p.a., interest compound annually. What will it amount to in 1141\dfrac{1}{4} years at the same rate, if the interest is compounded half-yearly?

  1. ((a))

    Rs.10,648

  2. ((b))

    Rs.10,148

  3. ((c))

    Rs.10,164

  4. ((d))

    Rs.10,872

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs.10,164

Given:

The principal is Rs. 8,000

The amount after 3 years compounded annually at R% p.a. is Rs. 13,824

Formula used:

Amount = Principal (1 + Rate/100)time

Calculations:

The principal is Rs. 8,000

The amount after 3 years compounded annually at R% p.a. is Rs. 13,824

Amount = Principal (1 + Rate/100)time

⇒ 13824 = 8000 (1 + R/100)3

⇒ 13824/8000 = (1 + R/100)3 

⇒ 1382480003\sqrt[3]{{\frac{{13824}}{{8000}}}} = 1 + (R/100)

⇒ 24/20 = 1 + R/100

⇒ 24/20 – 1 = R/100

⇒ R = 4/20 × 100

⇒ R = 20%

The compound interest when rate is compounded half-yearly for 114\frac{1}{4} years

First, Amount for 1 year

⇒ Time = 2 × 1 = 2 years

⇒ Rate = 20/2 = 10%

Amount = Principal (1 + Rate/100)time

⇒ Amount = 8000 (1+ 10/100)2

⇒ Amount = 8000 × (11/10) × (11/10)

⇒ Amount = 9680

Now, Simple Interest for 1/4 year

⇒ Time = 6 Months = 1 Year

⇒ 1/4 Year = 3 Months = 1/2 Year (Compounded half yearly)

⇒ Rate = 20/2 = 10%

Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

⇒ Simple interest = (9680 × (1/2) × 10)/100

⇒ Simple interest = 484

⇒ Total amount = Amount (1 year) + Simple interest (1/4 year)

⇒ Total amount = 9680 + 484

⇒ Total amount = 10164

The total amount received after 114\frac{1}{4} years compounded half-yearly is Rs. 10,164

Alternate Method

 AmountPrincipal3\sqrt[3]{{\frac{{Amount}}{{Principal}}}} = 1 + (R/100) 

⇒ 1382480003\sqrt[3]{{\frac{{13824}}{{8000}}}} = 1 + (R/100)

⇒ 24/20 = 1 + R/100

⇒ R = 20%

The compound interest can also find by successive method.

Rate for compounded half-yearly is R/2 = 10%

⇒ Rate for 2 year is = 10 + 10 + (10 × 10)/100 = 21%

⇒ Rate for 2 year is 21%

And,

⇒ Rate for 1/4 years is (1/4) × 20 = 5%

⇒ Final rate = 21 + 5 + (21 × 5)/100 = 27.05%

⇒ Amount = 127.05% of 8000

⇒ Amount = 10164

∴ The total amount received after 114\frac{1}{4} years compounded half-yearly is Rs. 10,164

85

In a division action, the divisor is 8 times the quotient and 9 times the remainder. If the remainder is 24, what will the dividend be?

  1. ((a))

    5,858

  2. ((b))

    5,820

  3. ((c))

    5,856

  4. ((d))

    5,824

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5,856

Given 

Remainder = 24 

Formula Used 

Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder 

Calculation 

Divisor = 9 × 24 = 216 

Quotient = Divisor/8 = 216/8 = 27 

Dividend = 216 × 27 + 24 = 5856 

∴ The required answer is 5,856

86

A certain sum amounts to Rs. 5808 after 2 years and to Rs. 7,320 after 5 years at the same rate percent per annum at simple interest. What will be the simple interest on a sum of Rs. 8,500 for 4234\dfrac{2}{3} years at the same rate?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 4,352

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 4,165

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 5,440

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 4,760

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 4,165

Given:

Amounts after 2 years = Rs. 5808

Amounts after 5 years = Rs. 7320

Rate of interest is same in both cases.

Formula used:

P = A – S.I

A = P + S.I

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

R = (S.I × 100)/(P × T)

Where P = Principal, A = Amount, S.I = Simple Interest,

R = Rate of interest, T = Time period

Calculation:

Amounts after 5 years - Amounts after 2 years = 7320 - 5808

⇒ (P + S.I5) - (P + S.I2) = 1512

⇒ P + (P × R × 5)/100 - P - (P × R × 2)/100 = 1512

⇒ [(P × R)/100](5 - 2) = 1512

⇒ (P × R × 3)/100 = 1512

⇒ (P × R × 2)/100 = 1512 × (2/3)

⇒ (P × R × 2)/100 = 1008

Interest in 2 years = Rs. 1008

Interest in 1 year = Rs. (1008/2)

⇒ Rs. 504

Principal = Amount – S.I

⇒ Rs. 5808 - Rs. 1008

⇒ Rs. 4800

R = (S.I × 100)/(P × T)

⇒ (504 × 100)/(4800 × 1)

⇒ 504/48

⇒ 21/2%

Now P = 8500, R = 21/2%, T = 4234\frac{2}{3} years = 14/3 years

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ [8500 × (21/2) × (14/3)]/100

⇒ (8500 × 21 × 14)/(100 × 2 × 3)

⇒ (85 × 21 × 14)/6

⇒ 4165

∴ The simple interest on a sum of Rs.8,500 for 4234\frac{2}{3} years at the rate of (21/2)% will be Rs. 4165.

Alternate Method

Amounts after 2 years = Rs. 5808

And Amounts after 5 years = Rs. 7320

Then Interest in 3 years = Amounts after 5 years - Amounts after 2 years

⇒ Rs. 7320 – Rs. 5808

⇒ Rs. 1512

Interest in 1 year = Rs. (1512/3)

⇒ Rs. 504

Interest in 2 years = Rs. (504 × 2)

⇒ Rs. 1008

Principal = Amount – S.I

⇒ Rs. 5808 - Rs. 1008

⇒ Rs. 4800

R = (S.I × 100)/(P × T)

⇒ (504 × 100)/(4800 × 1)

⇒ 504/48

⇒ 21/2%

Now P = 8500, R = 21/2%, T = 4234\frac{2}{3} years = 14/3 years

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ [8500 × (21/2) × (14/3)]/100

⇒ (8500 × 21 × 14)/(100 × 2 × 3)

⇒ (85 × 21 × 14)/6

⇒ 4165

∴ The simple interest on a sum of Rs.8,500 for 4234\frac{2}{3} years at the rate of (21/2)% will be Rs. 4165.

87

A sum of Rs. x is divided between A, B and C such that the ratio of the shares of A and B is 3 ∶ 5, and that of B and C is 4 ∶ 7. If the difference between the shares of A and C is Rs. 2001, then the value of x is∶  

  1. ((a))

    5,481

  2. ((b))

    5,742

  3. ((c))

    5,655

  4. ((d))

    5,829

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5,829

Given:

The sum divided among A, B and C is Rs. x

The ratio of the share of A and B is 3 : 5

The ratio of the share of B and C is 4 : 7

And the difference between shares of A and C is Rs. 2,001.

Shortcut Trick

ABC
3R5R-
-4R7R
12R20R35R

⇒ A - C = 35R - 12R = 23R

⇒ 23R = 2001

⇒ R = 87

⇒ x = 12R + 20R + 35R = 67R = 67 × 87 = 5829

∴ The value of x is 5,829.

Alternate Method

Calculation:

Ratio of A, B and C = 3 : 5 ∷ 4 : 7

⇒ (3 × 4) : (5 × 4) : (5 × 7)

⇒ 12 : 20 : 35

Let the shares be 12x, 20x and 35x respectively.

Total shares = 67x

Share of C – Share of A = 2,001

⇒ (35/67)x – (12/67)x = 2,001

⇒ (35x – 12x)/67 = 2001

⇒ 23x = 2001 × 67

⇒ x = 5,829

∴ The value of x is 5,829.

88

The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 3432 cm2 and the radius of its base is 26 cm. Its volume (in cm3) is∶ (Take π = 227\dfrac{22}{7})

  1. ((a))

    29744

  2. ((b))

    22308

  3. ((c))

    59488

  4. ((d))

    44616

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

44616

Given:

The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 3432 cm2 

The radius of its base is 26 cm

The value of π is 22/7

Formula Used:

Surface Area of a Right cylinder = 2πrh

Volume of a Right cylinder = πr2h

Where, r = radius of cylinder and h = height of cylinder 

Calculation:

Surface Area of a Right cylinder = 2πrh

⇒ 3432 = 2 × 22/7 × 26 × h

⇒ h = 7 × 3

⇒ 21

We know that, Volume of a Right cylinder = πr2h

⇒ Volume of a Right cylinder = 22/7 × 26 × 26 × 21

⇒ 22 × 676 × 3

⇒ 44616

∴ The volume of a right circular cylinder is 44616 cm2.

89

The average weight of a certain number of persons in a group is 78 kg. If 4 persons having average weight 80.75 kg leaves the group, the average weight of the remaining persons becomes 77.725 kg. The number of persons initially is:

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    46

  4. ((d))

    34

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

44

Given:

Average weight of number of person = 78 kg.

Average weight of remaining persons = 77.725 kg.

Concept Used:

Average weight of number of person - Average weight of 4 persons = Average weight of remaining persons

Calculation:

Let the number of persons be x.

then, Total weight of number of person = (78x)

Total weight of remaining persons = 77.725 (x – 4)

Average weight of 4 person = 80.75 × 4 = 323 kg

Average weight of number of person - Average weight of 4 persons = Average weight of remaining persons

⇒ 78x – 323 = 77.725(x - 4)

⇒ 78x – 323 = 77.725x – 310.9

⇒ 78x – 77.725x = 323 – 310.9

⇒ 0.275x = 12.1

⇒ x = 12.1/0.275

⇒ x = 44

∴ The number of persons initially is 44.

90

The income of x is 80% more than of y, and the income of z is 60% of the total income of x and y. By how much percentage the income of z is less than the income of x  (correct to one decimal place)?

  1. ((a))

    6.3%

  2. ((b))

    7.1%

  3. ((c))

    7.3%

  4. ((d))

    6.7%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6.7%

Given:

Income of x = 80% more than of y

Income of z = 60% of the total income of x and y

Concept used:

Percentage of income of z is less than income of x,

⇒ [(x – z)/x] × 100

Calculation:

Let the income of y be 100 and income of x be 180 respectively(80% more than y).

And the income of z is 168 that is 60% of the total income of x and y

Percentage of income of z is less than income of x,

⇒ [(180 - 168)/180] × 100

⇒ [12/180] × 100

⇒ 6.7%

∴ Income of z is 6.7% less than the income of x .

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts opens the FIND and REPLACE (or REPLACE) dialogue box in MS Word? 

  1. ((a))

    CTRL + R 

  2. ((b))

    CTRL + H

  3. ((c))

    ALT + H 

  4. ((d))

    ALT + R 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CTRL + H

The correct answer is CTRL + H.

Key Points

  • CTRL + H shortcut opens the FIND and REPLACE (or REPLACE) dialogue box in MS Word

Additional Information

Open a document.Ctrl+O
Create a new document.Ctrl+N
Save the document.Ctrl+S
Close the document.Ctrl+W
Cut the selected content to the Clipboard.Ctrl+X
Copy the selected content to the Clipboard.Ctrl+C
Paste the contents of the Clipboard.Ctrl+V
Select all document content.Ctrl+A
Apply bold formatting to the text.Ctrl+B
Apply italic formatting to text.Ctrl+I
Apply underline formatting to text.Ctrl+U
Decrease the font size by 1 point.Ctrl+[
Increase the font size by 1 point.Ctrl+]
Center the text.Ctrl+E
Align the text to the left.Ctrl+L
Align the text to the right.Ctrl+R
Cancel a command.Esc
Undo the previous action.Ctrl+Z
Redo the previous action, if possible.Ctrl+Y
Adjust the zoom magnification.Alt+W, Q, then tab in Zoom dialogue box to the value you want.
Split the document window.Ctrl+Alt+S
Remove the document window split.Alt+Shift+C or Ctrl+Alt+S

Source:- https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/topic/keyboard-shortcuts-in-word-95ef89dd-7142-4b50-afb2-f762f663ceb2

92

When you enter a value in an MS Excel cell and press SHIFT + ENTER keys, what will happen? 

  1. ((a))

    The cursor (selection box) will move to the upper cell

  2. ((b))

    The cursor (selection box) will move to the lower cell 

  3. ((c))

    The cursor (selection box) will move to the right cell

  4. ((d))

    The cursor (selection box) will move to the left cell

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The cursor (selection box) will move to the upper cell

The correct answer is the cursor (selection box) will move to the upper cell.

Key Points

  • When you enter a value in an MS Excel cell and press SHIFT + ENTER keys the cursor (selection box) will move to the upper cell.

Additional Information

  • When you enter a value in an Excel cell and press the ENTER key the cursor (selection box) will move to the lower cell.
  • The cursor (selection box) will move to the upper cell when we press the up arrow.
  • The cursor (selection box) will move to the lower cell when we press the down arrow or Enter.
  • The cursor (selection box) will move to the right cell when we press the right arrow.
  • The cursor (selection box) will move to the left cell when we press the left arrow.
93

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE? 

(i) In MS Word, a table can have one cell.

(ii) In MS Word, the font size of a text cannot be less than 8.

  1. ((a))

    Neither i nor ii

  2. ((b))

    Both i and ii

  3. ((c))

    Only i

  4. ((d))

    Only ii

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only ii

The correct answer is Only ii.

Key Points

  • In MS Word, a table can have one cell.
  • In MS Word, the font size of a text can be as low as 1.
  • Hence, statement (ii) is False

Additional Information

  • The minimum number of rows a table an MS-Word document can have is 1 row
  • The minimum number of columns a table an MS-Word document can have is 1 column.
  • The smallest font offered by MS Word in the home tab is 8 but it can be reduced to 1 by typing 1 in the font box.
94

All the Excel functions are stored in _____ under the Formulas tab.

  1. ((a))

    AutoSum

  2. ((b))

    Styles

  3. ((c))

    Formula bar

  4. ((d))

    Function Library

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Function Library

The correct answer is the Functions library.

Key Points

  • All the Excel functions are stored in the functions library under the Formulas tab.

Additional Information

  • A function is a predefined formula that performs calculations using specific values in a particular order.
  • AutoSum is a function that automatically enters a formula (that uses the SUM function) to sum the numbers.
  • The formula bar can be used to edit the content of any cell and can be expanded to show multiple lines for the same formula.

95

The ______ provides high-speed internet access. 

  1. ((a))

    dial-up

  2. ((b))

    TCP

  3. ((c))

    ISP

  4. ((d))

    broadband

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

broadband

The correct answer is Broadband.

Key Points

  • The broadband provides high-speed internet access.

Additional Information

  • Broadband is the transmission of wide bandwidth data over a high-speed internet connection.
  • A dial-up connection uses a standard phone line and analog modem to access the Internet. It is very slow.
  • The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a communications standard that allows programs and devices to exchange messages over a network.
  • An Internet service provider (ISP) is a company that provides access to the Internet and other related services.
96

What will be the result of the following MS Excel formula?

=SUM(8/4/2, 1-2/2)

  1. ((a))

    3.5

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    0.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

  • The result of the MS Excel formula =SUM(8/4/2, 1-2/2) is 1.

Additional Information

  • 8/4/2 will be equal to 1 and 1-2/2 will be equal to 0.
  • The sum function will add both 1 and 0 giving the result 1.
  • A function is a predefined formula that performs calculations using specific values in a particular order.
  • How to Write Formulas in Excel
  • All Excel formulas start with an equal (=) sign.
  • The answer to the formula is displayed in the cell into which the formula is entered.
  • Cells are referenced in a formula by their column-row identifier.
  • The symbols for addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division are: + - * /
  • We do not have to enter capital letters in the formula, They will be capitalized automatically.
97

With respect to the internet, what is the full-form of FTP?

  1. ((a))

    Fast Transmission Protocol 

  2. ((b))

    First Telecommunication Protocol 

  3. ((c))

    Fast Telecommunication Protocol 

  4. ((d))

    File Transfer Protocol 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

File Transfer Protocol 

The correct answer is File Transfer Protocol.

Key Points

  • File Transfer Protocol is the full form of FTP.

Additional Information

  • A protocol is a set of rules or procedures for transmitting data between electronic devices, such as computers.
  • The protocol that is used for transferring both text and binary files over the Internet is called File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
98

What is the minimum number of columns that a table in MS Word can have? 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

  • The minimum number of columns that a table in MS Word can have is 1.

Additional Information

  • The minimum number of rows a table an MS-Word document can have is 1 row
  • The minimum number of columns a table an MS-Word document can have is 1 column.
99

Which of the following components of an MS Excel worksheet displays the contents of the selected cell? 

  1. ((a))

    Status bar

  2. ((b))

    Title bar 

  3. ((c))

    Formula bar 

  4. ((d))

    Name box 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Formula bar 

The correct answer is the Formula bar.

Key Points

  • Formula bar displays the contents of the selected cell in an MS Excel worksheet.

Additional Information

  • The formula bar can be used to edit the content of any cell and can be expanded to show multiple lines for the same formula.
  • The title bar displays the title of the window and It includes the close, minimize, and maximize buttons.
  • A status bar is located at the bottom of Internet browser and application windows. It displays the current state of the web page or application.
  • The name box in the worksheet displays the address of the selected cell.
100

Which of the following stores the cut or copied texts in MS Word? 

  1. ((a))

    Table 

  2. ((b))

    Footer

  3. ((c))

    Clipboard

  4. ((d))

    Header

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Clipboard

The correct answer is Clipboard.

Key Points

  • Clipboard stores the cut or copied texts in MS Word.

Additional Information

  • The Office Clipboard stores text and graphics that you copy or cut from anywhere, and it lets you paste the stored items into any other Office file.
  • A header is the top margin of each page.
  • footer is the bottom margin of each page.

Source:- https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/use-the-office-clipboard-028903c7-66ea-4eb0-b0a1-bacdb952e3a1#:~:text=The%20Office%20Clipboard%20stores%20text,into%20any%20other%20Office%20file.

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