Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 7 Dec 2020 Shift 1)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

As per the Union Budget 2020-21, TDS at the rate of ______ is levied on e-commerce transactions.

  1. ((a))

    3%

  2. ((b))

    1%

  3. ((c))

    2.5%

  4. ((d))

    0.25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1%

The correct answer is 1%.

Key Points

  • As per the Union Budget 2020-21, TDS at the rate of 1%is levied on e-commerce transactions. 
  • The government proposed a new levy of one per cent TDS (tax deducted at source) on e-commerce transactions, a move that could increase the burden on sellers on such platforms.
  • The main purpose of Govt. is to increase tax payer’s base and eventually collect taxes which will result in the development of the economy as a whole.
  • In Budget 2020, Govt. has taken many steps for widening and deepening the tax base.
  • One step is the insertion of section 194-O of Income-tax Act, 1961 requiring e-commerce operators to deduct TDS from payments made to e-Commerce participants.
  • The same is applicable from 01/10/2020.

Additional Information

  • Budget and Constitutional Provisions
  • According to Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Budget of a year is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement (AFS).
  • It is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government in a financial year (which begins on 01 April of the current year and ends on 31 March of the following year). In addition to it, the Budget contains:
  • Estimates of revenue and capital receipts,
  • Ways and means to raise the revenue,
  • Estimates of expenditure,
  • Details of the actual receipts and expenditure of the closing financial year and the reasons for any deficit or surplus in that year, and
  • The economic and financial policy of the coming year, i.e., taxation proposals, prospects of revenue, spending programme and introduction of new schemes/projects.
2

'Akela' is a fictional character in the children's story book ______.

  1. ((a))

    The Jungle Book

  2. ((b))

    The Adventures of Tom Sawyer

  3. ((c))

    The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn

  4. ((d))

    Alice's Adventures in Wonderland

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Jungle Book

The correct answer is The Jungle Book.

Key Points

  • 'Akela' is a fictional character in the children's storybook The Jungle Book. 
  • Akela (Akelā also called The Lone Wolf or Big Wolf) is a fictional character in Rudyard Kipling's stories.
  • The Jungle Book, a collection of stories by Rudyard Kipling, published in 1894.
  • The Second Jungle Book, published in 1895, contains stories linked by poems.
  • The stories tell mostly of Mowgli, an Indian boy who is raised by wolves and learns self-sufficiency and wisdom from the jungle animals.
  • It is at such a meeting that the pack adopts the lost child Mowgli and Akela becomes one of Mowgli's mentors.

Additional Information

  • The Adventures of Tom Sawyer
  • The Adventures of Tom Sawyer is an 1876 novel by Mark Twain about a boy growing up along the Mississippi River.
  • It is set in the 1840s in the town of St. Petersburg, which is based on Hannibal, Missouri, where Twain lived as a boy.
  • The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn
  • Adventures of Huckleberry Finn is a novel by Mark Twain, which was first published in the United Kingdom in December 1884 and in the United States in February 1885.
  • Alice's Adventures in Wonderland
  • Alice's Adventures in Wonderland is an 1865 novel by English author Lewis Carroll.
  • It tells of a young girl named Alice, who falls through a rabbit hole into a subterranean fantasy world populated by peculiar, anthropomorphic creatures.
  • It is considered to be one of the best examples of the literary nonsense genre.
3

In which of the following years was the Family Courts Act enacted?

  1. ((a))

    1948

  2. ((b))

    1984

  3. ((c))

    1964

  4. ((d))

    2004

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1984

The correct answer is 1984.

Key Points

  • In 1984 years was the Family Courts Act enacted.
  • The family courts in India have established India under Section 3 of the Family Courts Act, 1984.
  • The main goal of this act was to establish family courts for secure and speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
  • This act contains 6 chapters and 23 sections.
  • The act was enacted with the main aim of establishment of family courts for rapid and safe settlement in the disputes arising in family and marriage and the matters related therewith.
  • The main aim of the Family Courts Act, 1984 was to provide quick and less expensive relief to the parties in a less formal way with the least technicalities.
  • The object of the establishment of these courts was to promote reconciliation between the parties and reach a stage of the agreement.

Additional Information 

  • Family courts were first established in the United States in 1910 when they were called domestic relations courts.
  • According to Section 3 of this act, the State government, after consultation with the High Court shall establish the Family Court in every area of the state where the population is exceeding 1 million or in the area where the State government deem necessary.
  • The provisions related to the appointment of judges in the Family court are dealt with under Section 4 of the Family Courts Act, 1984.
4

The ______ in Punjab is held to commemorate the warriors who laid down their lives in the battle between Guru Gobind Singh and the Mughals.

  1. ((a))

    Rauza Sharif Urs

  2. ((b))

    Hola Mohalla

  3. ((c))

    Maghi Mela

  4. ((d))

    Jor Mela

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Maghi Mela

The correct answer is Maghi Mela.

Key Points

  • The Maghi Mela in Punjab is held to commemorate the warriors who laid down their lives in the battle between Guru Gobind Singh and the Mughals. 
  • Maghi Mela is held in Muktsar, Punjab every year in January or in the month of Magh according to the Nanakshahi calendar.
  • Nanakshahi calendar was designed by Sikh scholar Pal Singh Purewal to replace the Bikrami calendar, to work out the **dates of Gur Purab and other festivals.**​
  • Maghi is the occasion when Sikhs commemorate the sacrifice of forty Sikhs, who fought for Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
  • The day of Maghi is observed to honor the heroic fight of the Chali Mukte, or the Forty Liberated Ones, who sacrificed their own lives defending an attack by the Mughal imperial army marching in pursuit of Guru Gobind Singh.
  • Bathing in a river in the early hours on Maghi is important.

Additional Information

  • Historical Background:
  • The battle took place near a pool of water, Khidrane di Dhab, on 29th December 1705.
  • The bodies were cremated the following day, the first of Magh (hence the name of the festival), which now falls usually on the 13th of January.
  • Following the custom of the Sikhs to observe their anniversaries of happy and tragic events alike, Maghi is celebrated with end-to-end recitals of the Guru Granth Sahib and religious divans in almost all gurdwaras.
5

The Rohtas Fort is located in present day ______.

  1. ((a))

    Nepal

  2. ((b))

    Bangladesh

  3. ((c))

    Pakistan

  4. ((d))

    India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pakistan

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

  • The Rohtas Fort is located in present-day Pakistan. 
  • Rohtas Fort is a 16th-century fortress located near the city of Jehlum in the Pakistani province of Punjab.
  • The fortress was built by Raja Todar Mal on the orders of Sher Shah Suri.
  • Sher Sha Suri, the founder of the Suri dynasty, commenced the construction of Rohtas Fort in 1541.
  • Rohtas Fort was inscribed by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site in 1997 for being an "exceptional example of the Muslim military architecture of Central and South Asia.
  • The Rohtas Fort has the following 12 gates.
  • The fort was also designed to suppress the local Gakhar tribes of the Potohar region.

Additional Information

  • Agra Fort
  • Near the gardens of Taj Mahal stands the important 16th-century Mughal monument known as the Red Fort of Agra.
  • This powerful fortress of red sandstone encompasses within its 2.5-km-long enclosure walls, the imperial city of the Mughal rulers.
  • The forbidding exteriors of this fort hide an inner paradise.
  • Red Fort
  • Red fort fuses architectural styles of the Timurids and the Persians.
  • Red Fort has many structures that serve as fine examples of Islamic architectural style and Mughal architecture,
  • Built By: Shah Jahan
  • Architect: Ustad Ahmad Lahauri
  • Architectural styles: Mughal, Indo-Islamic
  • Current Status: UNESCO World Heritage Site On the Banks of River Yamuna,
  • The Red Fort is known for its gardens and a water channel called The Stream of Paradise.
6

By which Constitutional Amendment Act, the voting age of Indian citizens has been reduced from 21 years to 18 years?

  1. ((a))

    Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1989

  2. ((b))

    Constitution (Sixty-second Amendment) Act, 1989

  3. ((c))

    Constitution (Sixty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1990

  4. ((d))

    Constitution (Sixty-third Amendment) Act, 1989

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1989

The correct answer is Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1989.

Key Points

  • By Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1989 Constitutional Amendment Act, the voting age of Indian citizens has been reduced from 21 years to 18 years.
  • The 61st Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.
  • This was done by amending Article 326 of the Constitution, which concerns to elections to the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies.
  • The Indian constitution adopts the Universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies.
  • Every citizen who is or above 18 years of age has a right to vote without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, etc.
  • The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the Parliament in the year 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988.

Additional Information

  • Constitution (Sixty-second Amendment) Act, 1989
  • The Sixty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Sixty-second Amendment) Act, 1989, extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and representation of the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years, i.e. up to 26 January 2000.
  • Constitution (Sixty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1990
  • Article 356 amended to permit President's rule up to three years and six months in the state of Punjab.
  • Constitution (Sixty-third Amendment) Act, 1989
  • Emergency powers applicable to State of Punjab, accorded in Article 359A as per amendment 59 repealed.
7

The Census of India 2011 was the ______ national census after Independence.

  1. ((a))

    seventh

  2. ((b))

    ninth

  3. ((c))

    eleventh

  4. ((d))

    fifteenth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

seventh

The correct answer is seventh.

Key Points

  • Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of the country since 1872 and the 7th after Independence.
  • This census was conducted in two phases which are as follows:
  • House listing :
  • The first phase was conducted between April and September across the country, in 2010 depending on the convenience of different states/UTs.
  • Population enumeration :
  • The second phase began all over the country from February 9, 2011, and continued up to February 28, 2011.
  • Information for National Population Register (NPR) was also collected in the first phase, which will be used to issue a 12-digit unique identification number to all registered Indian residents by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI).
  • The second population enumeration phase was conducted between 9 and 28 February 2011.

Additional Information

  • The first complete census of India was conducted in 1830 by Henry Walter in Dacca (now Dhaka).
  • In this census the statistics of the population with sex, broad age group, and the houses with their amenities were collected.
  • Second Census was conducted in 1836-37 by Fort St.George according to the government website of Census India.
  • In this census, the main emphasis was not only laid on complete coverage but also on the classification of demographic, economic and social characteristic took in the entire continent of British India (except Kashmir).
  • The next census will happen in the year 2021.

Important Points

  • Census 2021
  • The Census 2021 will be conducted in 18 languages out of the 22 scheduled languages (under 8th schedule) and English, while Census 2011 was in 16 of the 22 scheduled languages declared at that time.
  • It also will introduce a code directory to streamline the process
  • The option of “Other” under the gender category will be changed to “Third Gender”.
  • There were roughly 5 lakh people under the "other" category in 2011.
  • For the first time in the 140 year history of the census in India, data is proposed to be collected through a mobile app by enumerators and they will receive an additional payment as an incentive.
  • The Census data would be available by the year 2024-25 as the entire process would be conducted digitally and data crunching would be quicker.
  • Data from the Census 2011 is still being released. E.g.: The dataset on migration was published recently.
8

Who was the head coach of the Mumbai Indians IPL cricket team in 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Shane Bond

  2. ((b))

    James Pamment

  3. ((c))

    Robin Singh

  4. ((d))

    Mahela Jayawardene

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mahela Jayawardene

The correct answer is Mahela Jayawardene.

Key Points

  • Mahela Jayawardene was the head coach of the Mumbai Indians IPL cricket team in 2019.
  • The 2019 season was the 12th season for the Indian Premier League franchise Mumbai Indians.
  • Mumbai Indians defeated the Chennai Super Kings by 1 run to win the final for their fourth title.
  • Head coach Mahela Jayawardena reveals the secret behind Mumbai Indians' success.
  • The 2019 season of the Indian Premier League, also known as IPL 12, was the twelfth season of the IPL.
  • David Warner won the Orange Cap for the leading run-scorer of the tournament with 692 runs.

Additional Information

  • Key Facts:-
  • Mumbai Indian holds the record of winning IPL maximum no. of times with 4 titles.
  • Virat Kohli holds the record of scoring most runs in IPL history. He has scored 5412 runs.
  • Rohit Sharma holds the record of winning most titles. He has won the IPL titles 5 times. 4 times for Mumbai Indians and once for the Deccan Chargers.
  • Chennai Super Kings holds the record of featuring in most finals with 8 finals.
9

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    Proteins help build and repair tissues in the human body.

  2. ((b))

    Extra fat in the human body is stored under the skin.

  3. ((c))

    Deficiency of iodine in the human body causes anaemia.

  4. ((d))

    The human body needs minerals in small quantities.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Deficiency of iodine in the human body causes anaemia.

The correct answer is Deficiency of iodine in the human body causes anaemia.

Key Points

  • Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of thyroid enlargement and goitre.
  • Iodine is a trace element that is found naturally in foods, is added to various foods, and is available in supplement form.
  • Iodine deficiency is most catastrophic to the developing brain.
  • It helps make our thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which play a role in protein manufacturing, the overall function of our metabolism, and the conversion to usable bodily substances, per the National Academy of Medicine, formerly called the Institute of Medicine.
  • It may result in metabolic problems such as goitre, sometimes as an endemic goitre as well as congenital iodine deficiency syndrome due to untreated congenital hypothyroidism, which results in developmental delays and other health problems.
  • Iodine deficiency is an important global health issue, especially for fertile and pregnant women.

Additional Information

  • Iron deficiency is a common cause of too few healthy red blood cells in the body (anaemia).
  • iron-deficiency anaemia may leave you tired and short of breath.
  • Iron deficiency anaemia is caused by lack of iron, often because of blood loss or pregnancy.
  • Night blindness, also known as nyctalopia, is a condition that means your eyes are unable to adapt to low-light conditions.
  • This means that simple everyday activities, such as driving in the dark or popping to the bathroom during the night, become a lot more difficult.
10

A football stadium named after Bhaichung Bhutia has been built near his birthplace in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Manipur

  2. ((b))

    Sikkim

  3. ((c))

    Nagaland

  4. ((d))

    Meghalaya

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sikkim

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

  • A football stadium named after Bhaichung Bhutia has been built near his birthplace in Sikkim.
  • Baichung Bhutia is a former Indian professional footballer who played as a striker.
  • He is often nicknamed the Sikkimese Sniper because of his shooting skills in football.
  • He is also India's second-youngest international goal scorer after Jerry Zirsanga when he scored his first goal against Uzbekistan in the 1995 Nehru cup at the age of 18 years 90 days.
  • In August 2011, Bhutia announced his retirement from international football.
  • Bhutia is known for winning the reality television programme Jhalak Dikhhla Jaa, which caused much controversy with his then-club Mohun Bagan.
  • Bhutia, who has a football stadium named after him in honour of his contribution to Indian football has also won many awards, such as the Arjuna Award and the Padma Shri.
11

Which of the following organisations/agencies does NOT operate a 'Payment Bank' in India as of August 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Fino

  2. ((b))

    Wipro

  3. ((c))

    India Post

  4. ((d))

    Jio

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Wipro

The correct answer is Wipro.

Key Points

  • The Payments Bank will be registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013.
  • It is governed by the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, RBI Act, 1934, Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, other relevant Statutes and Directives.
  • These banks can accept a restricted deposit, which is currently limited to 100,000 per customer and may be increased further.
  • Payments banks can issue ATM cards or debit cards and provide online or mobile banking.
  • Bharti Airtel launched India's first payments bank named Airtel Payments Bank in March 2017.
  • Paytm Payments Bank, India Post Payments Bank, Fino Payments Bank, and Aditya Birla Payments Bank have also launched services.

Additional Information

  • The following is the list of active payments banks:
  • Airtel Payments Bank
  • India Post Payments Bank
  • Fino Payments Bank
  • Jio Payments Bank
  • Paytm Payments Bank
  • NSDL Payments Bank
12

Which of the following is the mausoleum of Bahaduddinbhai Hasainbhai in Junagadh?

  1. ((a))

    Chini Ka Rauza

  2. ((b))

    Chausath Khamba

  3. ((c))

    Gol Gumbaz

  4. ((d))

    Mahabat Maqbara

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mahabat Maqbara

The correct answer is Mahabat Maqbara .

Key Points

  • Mahabat Maqbara and Bahauddin Maqbra are mausoleums in Junagadh, Gujarat, India.
  • They were completed in 1892 and 1896 respectively and are dedicated to Mahabat Khan II, the Nawab of Junagadh State, and his minister Bahauddin Hussain Bhar respectively.
  • The construction of the Mahabat Maqbara was started in 1878 by Nawab Mahabat Khan II (1851–82) and ended in 1892 during the reign of Nawab Bahadur Khan III (1882–92).
  • Mohabbat Maqbara is once a palace used by the Nawabs of Junagadh as their home and was built in 1892.
  • Mohabbat Maqbara Palace is also called the Mosque of Bahaduddinbhai Hasainbhai and is one of the most important historical monuments in Junagadh.

Additional Information

  • Mahabat Maqbara is one of the major tourist attractions in Gujarat and especially in Junagadh.
  • The architecture of the tomb is a blend of Hindu, Islamic and European architectures.
  • Bahauddin Makbara was constructed by Sheikh Bahauddin with his own funds during the period A.D 1891-1896.
  • The monument is located inside the city in a very busy area.
13

The Adichanallur archaeological site is located in the state of ______.

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • The Adichanallur archaeological site is located in the state of Tamil Nadu.
  • Adichanallur is an archaeological site in the Thoothukudi district in Tamil Nadu.
  • India has been the site of a number of very important archaeological finds.
  • Korkai, the capital of the Early Pandyan Kingdom, is located about 15 km from Adichanallur.

Additional Information

  • The history of India begins with the birth of the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC), also known as the Harappan Civilization.
  • It flourished around 2,500 BC, in the western part of South Asia, in contemporary Pakistan and Western India.
  • The Indus Valley was home to the largest of the four ancient urban civilizations of Egypt, Mesopotamia, India, and China.
  • In the 1920s, the Archaeological Department of India carried out excavations in the Indus valley wherein the ruins of the two old cities, viz. Mohenjodaro and Harappa were unearthed.
  • In 1924, John Marshall, Director-General of the ASI, announced the discovery of a new civilization in the Indus valley to the world.
14

The ______ was/were founded by Sir William Jones in 1784.

  1. ((a))

    Calcutta Madrasas

  2. ((b))

    Sanskrit College at Banaras

  3. ((c))

    Asiatic Society of Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Fort William College

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Asiatic Society of Bengal

The correct answer is the Asiatic Society of Bengal.

Key Points

  • The Asiatic Society of Bengal was/were founded by Sir William Jones in 1784.
  • It was founded by the philologist William Jones on 15 January 1784 in a meeting presided over by Justice Robert Chambers in Calcutta, the then capital of the British Raj.
  • The Asiatic Society of India was formed mainly with an objective to initiate and enlighten the oriental knowledge available in history, scriptures, or regional texts in India or the Indian subcontinent.
  • The Asiatic Society is an organization founded during the British Raj in India to enhance and further the cause of "Oriental research", in this case, research into India and the surrounding regions.
  • In 1825, the society was renamed "The Asiatic Society".
  • In 1832 the name was changed to "The Asiatic Society of Bengal" and again in 1936 it was renamed  "The Royal Asiatic Society of Bengal".
  • Sir William Jones British Orientalist and jurist who did much to encourage interest in Oriental studies in the West.

Additional Information

  • Sanskrit College at Banaras
  • In 1791 Jonathan Duncan started the Sanskrit College at Benares to promote the study of Hindu laws and philosophy in Banaras.
  • In 1958 the Sanskrit College became a university and in 1974 the name was changed to Sampurnanand Sanskrit University.
  • Calcutta Madrasas
  • In 1781, Warren Hastings founded the Madarasa Aliya or Calcutta Madarasa.
  • Warren Hastings supported the establishment of Asiatic society, (which later became Asiatic Society) in 1784 by Sir William Jones under the chairmanship of Sir Robert Chambers
  • Fort William College
  • Fort William College was an academy of oriental studies and a centre of learning, founded on 10 July 1800 by Lord Wellesley, then Governor-General of British India, located within the Fort William complex in Calcutta.
15

Which of the following statements about clayey soil is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    Clay soil is used to make pots and toys.

  2. ((b))

    Clayey soil cannot hold water for long periods.

  3. ((c))

    There is very little empty space between particles of clay soil.

  4. ((d))

    Clay soil is also called fuller's earth.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Clayey soil cannot hold water for long periods.

The correct answer is Clay soil cannot hold water for long periods.

Key Points

  • Clay soil is soil that is comprised of very fine mineral particles and not much organic material.
  • Clay is the smallest particle amongst the other two types of soil.
  • The particles in this soil are tightly packed together with each other with very little or no airspace.
  • This soil has very good water storage qualities and makes it hard for moisture and air to penetrate into it.
  • It is very sticky to the touch when wet, but smooth when dried.
  • Clay is the densest and heaviest type of soil which that not drain well or provide space for plant roots to flourish.
  • Clay can be used to make pots, pipes, and other useful objects that can be used for household purposes.
  • Clay is used for manufacturing ceramic tiles as well that can be used for counters, floors, and walls.

Additional Information

  • Soil is a natural resource that can be categorised into different soil types, each with distinct characteristics that provide growing benefits and limitations.
  • Soil can be categorised into sand, clay, silt, peat, chalk and loam types of soil based on the dominating size of the particles within a soil.
  • Soil is classified into four types:
  • Sandy soil
  • Silt Soil
  • Clay Soil
  • Loamy Soil
16

______ is a disease that generally develops in the lungs with symptoms such as fever, cough, chest pain and weight loss.

  1. ((a))

    Malaria

  2. ((b))

    Dengue

  3. ((c))

    Elephantiasis

  4. ((d))

    Tuberculosis

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tuberculosis

The correct answer is Tuberculosis.

Key Points

  • Tuberculosis is a disease that generally develops in the lungs with symptoms such as fever, cough, chest pain, and weight loss.
  • Tuberculosis (TB) is a contagious infection that usually attacks your lungs.
  • It can also spread to other parts of your body, like your brain and spine.
  • Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease usually caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB) bacteria.
  • The classic symptoms of active TB are a chronic cough with blood-containing mucus, fever, night sweats, and weight loss.
  • Tuberculosis is spread from one person to the next through the air when people who have active TB in their lungs cough, spit, speak, or sneeze.

Additional Information

  • The World Health Organization (WHO) declared TB a "global health emergency" in 1993.
  • In 2006, the Stop TB Partnership developed a Global Plan to Stop Tuberculosis that aimed to save 14 million lives between its launch and 2015.
  • Tuberculosis prevention and control efforts rely primarily on the vaccination of infants and the detection and appropriate treatment of active cases.
  • The only available vaccine as of 2011 is Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG).
  • Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis.
  • ​About Malaria:
  • Caused by a parasite that commonly infects a certain type of mosquito which feeds on humans.
  • Spread: Female Anopheles mosquitoes deposit parasite sporozoites into the skin of a human host.
  • World Malaria Day 2020 is being celebrated by the World Health Organisation (WHO) on April 25 with the theme ‘Zero malaria starts with me’.
17

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    Tsunamis are rare in the Indian Ocean as compared to the Pacific Ocean.

  2. ((b))

    Warm ocean currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes.

  3. ((c))

    The Burma tectonic plate went under the India tectonic plate causing the tsunami in 2004.

  4. ((d))

    Tides are lowest on full moon and new moon days.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tsunamis are rare in the Indian Ocean as compared to the Pacific Ocean.

The correct answer is Tsunamis are rare in the Indian Ocean as compared to the Pacific Ocean.

Key Points

  • Tsunamis are rare in the Indian Ocean as the seismic activity is less as compared to the Pacific.
  • The tsunami that ravaged the south and southeast Asian coasts in December 2004, is the most devastating tsunami in the last several hundred years.
  • The warm ocean currents originate near the equator and move towards the poles.
  • The cold current carries water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes.
  • For example, the Labrador Ocean current is a cold current while the Gulf Stream is a warm current.
  • On December 26, 2004, a large portion of the boundary between the Burma Plate and the Indian Plate slipped, causing the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami.
  • This megathrust earthquake had an estimated moment magnitude of 9.1–9.3 Mw.
  • The phases of the moon also affect tides.
  • When the moon is at its full or new moon phase, high tides are at their highest, while low tides are lower than usual.
18

Who among the following industrialists has served as an MP in the Rajya Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    Azim Premji

  2. ((b))

    Gopichand Hinduja

  3. ((c))

    Vijay Mallya

  4. ((d))

    Adi Godrej

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vijay Mallya

The correct answer is Vijay Mallya.

Key Points

  • Vijay Vittal Mallya (born 18 December 1955) is an Indian businessman and former Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha).
  • He is the subject of an extradition effort by the Indian Government to return him from the UK to face charges of financial crimes in India.
  • Mallya is a former owner of the Royal Challengers Bangalore cricket team.
  • The son of a businessman, he is the ex-chairman of United Spirits, the largest spirits company in India, and continues to serve as chairman of United Breweries Group, an Indian conglomerate with interests including beverage alcohol, aviation infrastructure, real estate, and fertilizer.
  • He has been the chairman of Sanofi India (previously known as Hoechst AG and Aventis) and the chairman of Bayer CropScience in India for over 20 years, and the chairman of several other companies.
  • Mallya was also the founder and former owner of defunct Kingfisher Airlines and former co-owner of the Force India Formula One team before it went into administration.

Additional Information

  • Azim Premji
  • Azim Hashim Premji is an Indian business tycoon, investor, engineer, and philanthropist, who was the chairman of Wipro Limited.
  • Premji remains a non-executive member of the board and founder chairman.
  • He is informally known as the Czar of the Indian IT Industry.
  • Gopichand Hinduja
  • Gopichand Parmanand Hinduja is an Indian-born British billionaire businessman, the co-chairman of the Hinduja Group.
  • As of May 2020, together with his brother Srichand, he is the UK's, second-richest man.
  • Since the 1990s, he has been consistently ranked among the UK and Asia's wealthiest people.
  • Adi Godrej
  • Adi Burjorji Godrej is an Indian billionaire industrialist and businessman, head of the Godrej family, and chairman of the Godrej Group.
  • As of October 2020, he has a net worth of US$2.3 billion.
19

Gandhiji requested Indians to observe ______ as a day of non-violent opposition to the Rowlatt Act.

  1. ((a))

    9 August 1920

  2. ((b))

    19 March 1920

  3. ((c))

    26 September 1919

  4. ((d))

    6 April 1919

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6 April 1919

The correct answer is 6 April 1919.

Key Points

  • Gandhiji requested Indians to observe 6 April 1919 as a day of non-violent opposition to the Rowlatt Act.
  • The Rowlatt Act was the popular name for the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919 passed by the British Indian government.
  • This Act was termed the ‘Black Act’ by the Indian public because of its unjust and restrictive nature.
  • The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council on 18th March 1919.
  • It basically extended the emergency provisions imposed by the 1915 Defence of India Act that was passed during the First World War.
  • This act which gave the police huge powers was opposed by the people.
  • The Act was described as “No Dalil, No Vakil, No Appeal”.
  • In March 1922, the Rowlatt Act and 22 other acts were repealed by the government.

Additional Information

  • In 1919, Gandhi launched Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act passed by the British which restricted the freedom of expression and strengthened police power.
  • All Indian leaders opposed the act.
  • While the government was adamant about passing the bill, Gandhi thought that constitutional measures would be in vain and so he proposed a nationwide hartal in protest.
20

Who among the following cricketers has NEVER received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?

  1. ((a))

    Virat Kohli

  2. ((b))

    Sachin Tendulkar

  3. ((c))

    Shikhar Dhawan

  4. ((d))

    MS Dhoni

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shikhar Dhawan

The correct answer is Shikhar Dhawan.

Key Points

  • Shikhar Dhawan cricketers have NEVER received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.
  • Sachin Tendulkar was the first cricketer and the eighth sportsperson to receive the prestigious Khel Ratna Award.
  • The Master Blaster scored 7,929 international runs at an average of 44.
  • His highest score back then was 179 and he registered 20 international centuries – 10 each in Test and ODI cricket.
  • MS Dhoni took 10 years after Sachin Tendulkar for a cricketer to win the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.
  • It is was none other than the legendary Indian skipper MS Dhoni who was bestowed with this honour.
  • Virat Kohli, 11 years after MS Dhoni receiving the honour, was awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna. 
  • By the end of 2017, Virat Kohli played a stunning 320 international games. He scored 16,254 international runs including a high score of 243 and 52 centuries, all at an average of nearly 55.
  • Rohit has become just the fourth cricketer who will be conferred the prestigious award after Sachin Tendulkar (1997-98), MS Dhoni (2007), and Virat Kohli (2018).

Additional Information

  • The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna, officially known as Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in Sports and Games, is the highest sporting honour of the Republic of India.
  • Instituted in 1991/92, the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is the highest sporting honour in India.
  • Vishwanathan Anand was the first to receive the award in the year it was instituted for his achievements in Chess.
  • Since then, 45 sportspeople from the country received this honour for achievements in various sports.
  • There is a tedious selection process for the same.
  • Out of the 45 sportspeople who received this award till date, only four of them are cricketers.
21

Which of the following is a form of music usually associated with Sufism?

  1. ((a))

    Qawwali

  2. ((b))

    Thumri

  3. ((c))

    Khayal

  4. ((d))

    Ghazal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Qawwali

The correct answer is Qawwali.

Key Points

  • Qawwali is a form of music usually associated with Sufism.
  • Sufi music is the devotional music of the Sufis, inspired by the works of Sufi poets, like Rumi, Hafiz, Bulleh Shah, Amir Khusrow and Khwaja Ghulam Farid.
  • Qawwali is the best-known form of Sufi music and is most commonly found in the Sufi culture in South Asia.
  • Sufi love songs are often performed as ghazals and Kafi, a solo genre accompanied by percussion and harmonium, using a repertoire of songs by Sufi poets.
  • The roots can largely be found in Persia, parts of the Arabic world, Pakistan and India.
  • Current Sufi orders include Alians, Bektashi Order, Mevlevi Order, Ba 'Alawiyya, Chishti Order, Jerrahi, Naqshbandi, Mujaddidi, Ni'matullāhī, Qadiriyya, Qalandariyya, Sarwari Qadiriyya, Shadhiliyya, Suhrawardiyya, Saifiah (Naqshbandiah), and Uwaisi.

Additional Information

  • Thumri :
  • Thumri is a vocal genre or style of Indian music.
  • The term "thumri" is derived from the Hindi verb thumakna, which means "to walk with dancing steps so as to make the ankle-bells tinkle."
  • A ghazal is mainly a poetic form than a musical form, but it is more song-like than the thumri.
  • Khayal :
  • The origins of khayal are often associated with the famous musician Amir Khusrau.
  • The sultans of Jaunpur—notably Mohammad Sharqi and Hussain Sarqi, who were contemporaries of the Mughal emperor Babur—were patrons of musicians who developed khayal.
  • Ghazal
  • A ghazal is a form of amatory poem or ode, originating in Arabic poetry.
  • A ghazal may be understood as a poetic expression of both the pain of loss or separation and the beauty of love in spite of that pain.
  • The ghazal form is ancient, tracing its origins to 7th-century Arabic poetry.
22

Which of the following does NOT form part of the fiscal policy of a country?

  1. ((a))

    Investment or disinvestment strategies

  2. ((b))

    Tax policy

  3. ((c))

    Supply of money in the economy

  4. ((d))

    Debt or surplus management

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Supply of money in the economy

The correct answer is Supply of money in the economy.

Key Points

  • The supply of money in the economy does not form part of the fiscal policy of a country.
  • Fiscal policy is the use of government revenue collection (mainly taxes but also non-tax revenues such as divestment, loans) and expenditure (spending) to influence the economy.
  • The above objectives are met in the following ways:
  • Consumption Control – This way, the ratio of savings to income is raised.
  • Raising the rate of investment.
  • Taxation, infrastructure development.
  • Imposition of progressive taxes.
  • Exemption from the taxes provided to the vulnerable classes.
  • Heavy taxation on luxury goods.
  • Discouraging unearned income.
  • Fiscal and monetary policy are the key strategies used by a country's government and central bank to advance its economic objectives.

Additional Information

  • Fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – Total receipts excluding borrowings
  • This implies that fiscal policy is used to stabilize the economy over the course of the business cycle.
  • In India, Fiscal Policy is formulated by the Ministry of Finance.
  • Fiscal policy is playing an important role in the economic and social front of a country.
  • Traditionally, fiscal policy is concerned with the determination of state income and expenditure policy.

Important Points

  • Contractionary monetary policy occurs when a nation's central bank raises interest rates and decreases the money supply.
  • It's done to prevent inflation.
  • The long-term impact of inflation can be more damaging to the standard of living than a recession.
  • Expansionary monetary policy boosts economic growth by lowering interest rates.
  • It's effective in adding more liquidity in a recession.
  • The benefit of monetary policy is that it works faster than fiscal policy.
  • The Federal Reserve votes to raise or lower rates at its regular Federal Open Market Committee meeting.
  • It takes about six months for the added liquidity to work its way through the economy.
23

Section 43 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 allows for temporary registration of a vehicle for a period NOT exceeding ______.

  1. ((a))

    6 months

  2. ((b))

    12 months

  3. ((c))

    1 month

  4. ((d))

    2 months

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1 month

The correct answer is 1 month.

Key Points

  • Section 43 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 allows for temporary registration of a vehicle for a period NOT exceeding 1 month.
  • A registration made under this section shall be valid only for a period not exceeding one month.
  • And shall not be renewable: Provided that where a motor vehicle so registered is a chassis to which a body has not been attached and the same is detained in a workshop beyond the said period of one month for being.
  • Within this period, the vehicle should be registered with a permanent number.

Additional Information

  • In section 40 the owner of a motor vehicle may apply to any registering authority or other prescribed authority to have the vehicle temporarily registered in the prescribed manner and for the issue in the prescribed manner of a temporary certificate of registration and a temporary registration mark.
  • Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
  • The Act came into force on 1 July 1989.
  • It replaced Motor Vehicles Act, 1939 which earlier replaced the first such enactment Motor Vehicles Act, 1914.
  • The act is amended by The Motor Vehicles act, 2019.
24

Which of the following was NOT an intermediary appointed by the British to collect land revenue from the people of India?

  1. ((a))

    Zamindar

  2. ((b))

    Mahalwari

  3. ((c))

    Ryotwari

  4. ((d))

    Kumaramatya

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kumaramatya

The correct answer is Kumaramatya.

Key Points

  • Kumaramatya was NOT an intermediary appointed by the British to collect land revenue from the people of India.
  • Land revenue was one of the major sources of income for Britishers in India.
  • So its policies were aimed at getting maximum income from the land without caring about its consequences on cultivators and peasants.
  • There were broadly three types of land revenue policies in existence during the British rule in India.
  • Before independence, there were three major types of land tenure systems prevailing in the country:
  • The Zamindari System
  • The Mahalwari System
  • The Ryotwari System
  • The basic difference in these systems was regarding the mode of payment of land revenue.

Additional Information

  • The Zamindari System :
  • The zamindari system was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 through Permanent Settlement that fixed the land rights of the members in perpetuity without any provision for fixed rent or occupancy right for actual cultivators.
  • It was introduced in the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and Varanasi.
  • Ryotwari System :
  • Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820.
  • Major areas of introduction include Madras, Bombay, parts of Assam and Coorgh provinces of British India.
  • In Ryotwari System the ownership rights were handed over to the peasants.
  • British Government collected taxes directly from the peasants.
  • The revenue rates of the Ryotwari System were 50% where the lands were dry and 60% in irrigated land.
  • Mahalwari System :
  • Mahalwari system was introduced in 1833 during the period of William Bentick.
  • It was introduced in Central Province**, North-West Frontier, Agra, Punjab, Gangetic Valley, etc of British India.**
  • The Mahalwari system had many provisions of both the Zamindari System and Ryotwari System.
  • In this system, the land was divided into Mahals.
  • Each Mahal comprises one or more villages.
  • Ownership rights were vested with the peasants.
  • The villages committee was held responsible for the collection of the taxes.
25

Which of the following is an ancient Indian book on surgery?

  1. ((a))

    Susruta Samhita

  2. ((b))

    Arthashastra

  3. ((c))

    Manusmriti

  4. ((d))

    Charak Samhita

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Susruta Samhita

The correct answer is Susruta Samhita.

Key Points

  • Susruta Samhita is an ancient Indian book on surgery.
  • The Sushruta Samhita is an ancient Sanskrit text on medicine and surgery, and one of the most important such treatises on this subject to survive from the ancient world.
  • The Sushruta and Charaka texts differ in one major aspect, with Sushruta Samhita providing the foundation of surgery, while Charaka Samhita being primarily a foundation of medicine.
  • It is one of the two foundational Hindu texts on the medical profession that have survived from ancient India.
  • The Sushruta Samhita was composed after Charaka Samhita, and except for some topics and their emphasis, both discuss many similar subjects such as General Principles, Pathology, Diagnosis, Anatomy, Sensorial Prognosis, Therapeutics, Pharmaceutics and Toxicology.

Additional Information​​

List -1 (Author)List -2 (Book)
A. Kautilya2. Arthashastra
B. Panini1. Ashtadhyayi
C. Kamandaka4. Nitisara
D. Kalidas3. Kumarasambhava

​​​

Important Points ​​

  • Kalidasa
  • He was a Classical Sanskrit author who is often considered ancient India's greatest playwright and dramatist.
  • His plays and poetry are primarily based on the Vedas, the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, and the Puranas.
  • His surviving works consist of three plays, two epic poems, and two shorter poems.
  • Panini
  • He was an ancient Sanskrit philologist, grammarian, and revered scholar in ancient India.
  • Since the discovery and publication of his work by European scholars in the nineteenth century, Pāṇini has been considered the "first descriptive linguist", and even labelled the father of linguistics”.
26

In ancient India, the leader of merchant caravans was called ______.

  1. ((a))

    Maha-danda-nayaka

  2. ((b))

    Sandhi-vigrahika

  3. ((c))

    Prathama-kulika

  4. ((d))

    Sarthavaha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sarthavaha

The correct answer is Sarthavaha.

Key Points

  • ADMINISTRATION IN Ancient India:
  • Some posts were made hereditary.
  • This meant that the son got a particular post after the death of this father.
  • Let us take the example of poet Harisena.
  • He was a Maha-danda-nayaka (Chief Judicial Officer) and his father held the same post.
  • There were many instances when a single person held many posts.
  • Let us take the example of Harisena once again.
  • He also held the posts of Kumar-amatya (important minister) and Sandhi-vigrahika (minister of war and peace).
  • Many important men exercised authority in local administration.
  • Some examples of such persons are; the nagara-shreshthi (chief banker or merchant), sarthavaha (leader of the merchant caravan), and the heads of the kayasthas (scribes).
  • These policies appear quite effective in keeping control over the kingdom to a certain extent.
  • But, gradually, the local satraps grew in power and eventually set up their own independent kingdoms.
27

Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for false evidence during judicial proceedings?

  1. ((a))

    268

  2. ((b))

    193

  3. ((c))

    147

  4. ((d))

    223

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

193

The correct answer is 193.

Key Points

  • 193 Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for false evidence during judicial proceedings.
  • Punishment for false evidence
  • Whoever intentionally gives false evidence in any stage of a judicial proceeding, or fabri­cates false evidence for the purpose of being used in any stage of a judicial proceeding, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine, and whoever intentionally gives or fabricates false evidence in any other case, shall be punished with imprisonment of either de­scription for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.

Additional Information

  • Indian Penal Code
  • The objective of this Act is to provide a general penal code for India.
  • Though not the initial objective, the Act does not repeal the penal laws which were in force at the time of coming into force in India.
  • Enacted by: Imperial Legislative Council
  • Enacted: 6 October 1860
  • Committee report: First Law Commission
  • Commenced: 1 January 1862
28

Who among the following governors of Goa was the first to take oath in Konkani language?

  1. ((a))

    Satya Pal Malik

  2. ((b))

    Bhagat Singh Koshyari

  3. ((c))

    Mridula Sinha

  4. ((d))

    Margaret Alva

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bhagat Singh Koshyari

The correct answer is Bhagat Singh Koshyari.

Key Points

  • Bhagat Singh Koshyari governors of Goa was the first to take oath in the Konkani language.
  • Maharashtra Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari was sworn in as the Governor of Goa at a simple ceremony hosted at the Raj Bhavan.
  • Koshyari, who succeeds Satya Pal Malik, will hold additional charge as the Governor of Goa.
  • Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawant and Leader of Opposition in Assembly Digambar Kamat were among those present on the occasion.
  • Bhagat Singh Koshyari is an Indian politician serving as the 22nd and current Governor of Maharashtra and 19th and current Governor of Goa (additional charge).
  • An RSS veteran, Koshyari served as National Vice-President of BJP and the party's 1st State president for Uttarakhand.
  • He also served as 2nd Chief Minister of Uttarakhand (formerly Uttaranchal) from 2001 to 2002 and thereafter, he was the leader of the opposition in the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly from 2002 to 2003.

Additional Information

  • Satya Pal Malik :
  • Satya Pal Malik is an Indian politician serving as the 21st and current Governor of Meghalaya.
  • He was the 18th Governor of Goa, appointed by President Ram Nath Kovind on 25 October 2019.
  • Margaret Alva :
  • Margaret Alva is an Indian politician who was the governor of the Indian state of Rajasthan until the end of her tenure in August 2014.
  • she had previously been governor of Uttarakhand.
  • She took over in Rajasthan from the Punjab governor, Shivraj Patil, who had been holding an additional charge of that state.
  • Mridula Sinha :
  • Mridula Sinha was an Indian writer and politician who served as Governor of Goa from August 2014 to October 2019.
  • She was the first woman Governor of Goa.
  • Mridula Sinha was also a former president of BJP Mahila Morcha.
  • She was awarded India's fourth-highest civilian award the Padma Shri posthumously in 2021.
29

Which of the following was a slogan given by Swami Vivekananda?

  1. ((a))

    Give me blood and I will give you freedom

  2. ((b))

    Karo Ya Maro

  3. ((c))

    Inquilab Zindabad

  4. ((d))

    Arise, awake and stop not till the goal is reached

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Arise, awake and stop not till the goal is reached

The correct answer is to Arise, awake, and stop not till the goal is reached.

Key Points

  • Arise, awake and stop not till the goal is reached was a slogan given by Swami Vivekananda.
  • Arise, awake, and stop not till the goal is reached is a slogan popularized in the late 19th century by Indian Hindu monk Swami Vivekananda.
  • It was his message to the world to get out of their hypnotized state of mind.
  • "Arise" was meant as a passionate call for national awakening to obtain political freedom for the country from colonialism, and to not "stop" until the "goal" was achieved.
  • The sloka was meant as a call to his countrymen to awaken their "sleeping soul" and propagate the message of peace and blessings given by the "ancient Mother" to the world.
  • "Awake" also denotes the awakening of one's real nature and the consequent ushering in of prosperity.

Additional Information

  • Inqilab Zindabad
  • This slogan was coined by the Urdu poet, Indian freedom fighter, and socialist Maulana Hasrat Mohani in 1921.
  • It was popularized by Bhagat Singh (1907–1931) during the late 1920s through his speeches and writings.
  • Karo Ya Maro
  • The slogan 'do or die' associated with Mahatma Gandhi.
  • This slogan came into existence during the Quit India Movement initiated by Gandhiji.
  • The slogan was officially launched by the Indian National Congress (INC) led by Mahatma Gandhi on 9 August 1942.
  • The movement gave the slogans 'Quit India' or 'Bharat Chodo'.
  • Give me blood and I will give you freedom
  • “Give me blood and I will give you freedom!” One of Bose most quoted lines is from a speech that Bose delivered to the soldiers of the Indian National Army that he commanded along with Mohan Singh
30

The British reversed the partition of Bengal in ______.

  1. ((a))

    1909

  2. ((b))

    1913

  3. ((c))

    1911

  4. ((d))

    1905

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1911

The correct answer is 1911.

Key Points 

  • Reunited Bengal (1911)
  • The authorities, not able to end the protests, assented to reversing the partition.
  • King George announced in December 1911 that eastern Bengal would be assimilated into the Bengal Presidency.
  • Districts, where Bengali was spoken, were once again unified, and Assam, Bihar, and Orissa were separated.

Additional Information​​ ​​

S.noYearEvent
11905Partition of Bengal
21907Split in Congress
31919Rowlatt Satyagrah
  • The Surat Split was the splitting of the Indian National Congress into two groups - the Extremists and the Moderates - at the Surat session in 1907.
  • Ras Bihari Ghosh presided over the Surat session of the Indian National Congress in 1907.
  • In 1905 (Banaras Session of the INC): Gokhale was the President and for the first time, he had a discussion over ‘Swaraj’.
  • In 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji (who was the President of the INC session at Calcutta), and in his Presidential address, used the word Swaraj.
  • Thus, the word, ‘Swaraj’ wasn’t untouchable to them, but they were reluctant to pass the resolution over ‘Swaraj’.​
31

As per the Union Budget 2020-21, a Super Senior Citizen with net income up to ₹______ is exempt from Income Tax.

  1. ((a))

    7 lakhs

  2. ((b))

    7.5 lakhs

  3. ((c))

    5 lakhs

  4. ((d))

    5.5 lakhs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 lakhs

The correct answer is 5 lakhs.

Key Points

  • As per the Union Budget 2020-21, a Super Senior Citizen with net income up to 5 lakhs is exempt from Income Tax.
  • A very senior citizen enjoys an even higher exemption limit of Rs 5 lakh.
  • The tax liabilities for senior citizens are calculated on the basis of their salary, house rent, and fixed allowances, alongside other income sources.
Income Tax SlabsRate of Tax
For individuals with an income of up to ₹5 LakhNot applicable
For individuals with income ranging between ₹5 Lakh and ₹10 Lakh20%
For individuals with income exceeding ₹10 Lakh30%
  • There is an additional 4% health and education cess applicable over these tax slabs for super senior citizens.
  • Additionally, super-senior citizens with an income exceeding Rs. 50 Lakh per annum will also have to pay a surcharge over their applicable tax rates.
  • The surcharge is as follows:
  • Surcharge for individuals with a total annual income between Rs. 50 Lakh and Rs. 1 Crore - 10% of their income tax.
  • Surcharge for individuals with an annual income exceeding Rs. 1 Crore - 15% of their income tax.

Additional Information

  • Infrastructure in Budget 2021-2022:
  • Urban Infrastructure:
  • Expansion of metro rail network and augmentation of city bus service.
  • ‘MetroLite’ and ‘MetroNeo’ technologies will be used to provide metro rail systems at a much lesser cost with similar experience.
  • Power Infrastructure:
  • A comprehensive National Hydrogen Energy Mission 2021-22 to be launched.
  • Rs. 3,05,984 crore over 5 years for a revamped, reforms-based, and result-linked new power distribution sector scheme.
  • Ports, Shipping, Waterways:
  • Rs. 2,000 crores worth 7 projects to be offered in Public-Private Partnership (PPP)-mode in Financial Year (FY) 2021-22 for the operation of major ports.
  • Petroleum & Natural Gas:
  • Extension of Ujjwala Scheme to cover 1 crore more beneficiaries.
  • A new gas pipeline project in Jammu & Kashmir.
  • An independent Gas Transport System Operator to be set up for facilitation and coordination of booking of common carrier capacity in all-natural gas pipelines on a non-discriminatory open access basis.​
32

Bagurumba is a group dance performed by the ______ community.

  1. ((a))

    Majhi

  2. ((b))

    Bodo

  3. ((c))

    Rathawa

  4. ((d))

    Varli

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bodo

The correct answer is Bodo.

Key Points

  • Bagurumba is a group dance performed by the Bodo community.
  • Bagurumba is a folk dance of the indigenous Bodo tribe in Assam and Northeast India.
  • It is a traditional dance that is traditionally inherent to one generation to other generations.
  • The Bodo women perform the Bagurumba dance with their colorful dokhna, jwmgra (fasra), and aronai.
  • The dance is also called the "butterfly dance" due to its motion that resembles butterflies.
  • The Bagurumba dance is usually performed during the Bwishagu festival of the Bodos in the Bishuba Sankranti or in Mid-April.
  • The Bwishagu festival begins with the worship of cows and then the young people bow down to their parents and other elders in the house.

Additional Information

  • The origin of the Bagurumba may be found in the original naturalistic beliefs of the Bodo tribes, as it's few songs are just simple images of nature.
  • This dance is an amalgamation of rhythm and vivacity.
  • More folk dances of Assam Bihu dance, Bhortal Dance, Jhumur Dance.
  • Kalbelia dance
  • Kalbelia dance is a folk dance of the Rajasthan state of India. Also, known as It is well known as the 'Sapera Dance' or 'Snake Charmer Dance'.
  • It is mainly performed by a Rajasthani tribe called 'Kalbelia'.
  • It is listed under UNESCO's representative list of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity from the year 2010.
  • The Mudiyettu, the ritual dance-drama annually performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala, is more than 250 years old.
  • This art form involves elaborate drawings on floors, masks made of areca nut fronds, and the playing of drums.
  • What was once well patronized, now has only three traditional families of regular performers.
  • The Chhau dance, known for its crafted masks and mock combat movements, is prevalent in the tribal parts of Orissa, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
  • The economic backwardness of the area, an extensive survey by the Sangeet Natak Akademi reveals, has had a negative impact on the artists of the Chhau and their art. Similarly, the Kalbeli community of snake charmers from Rajasthan is also impacted.
33

As of September 2020, the rate of interest under the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) announced by the Government of India is capped at ______ for banks and financial institutions.

  1. ((a))

    6.75%

  2. ((b))

    8.75%

  3. ((c))

    7.25%

  4. ((d))

    9.25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

9.25%

The correct answer is  9.25%.

Key Points

  • As of September 2020, the rate of interest under the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) announced by the Government of India is capped at 9.25% for banks and financial institutions.
  • The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) was unveiled as part of the Rs 20 lakh crore comprehensive package announced by the Finance Ministry on 13/05/2020, to aid the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector in view of the economic distress caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • ECGLS was introduced by the government to mitigate the economic distress faced by micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) because of the COVID-19 pandemic by providing them additional funding of up to Rs 3 lakh crore in the form of a fully guaranteed emergency credit line.
  • The revised operational guidelines for ECLGS 3.0 will be issued by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.
  • The scheme was expanded to cover 26 distressed sectors through ECLGS 2.0 and was extended till March 31, 2021.

Additional Information

  • Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme 
  • The Union Cabinet approved the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme in May 2020 and allowed additional funding of up to Rs.3 lakh crores to different sectors, especially Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and MUDRA borrowers.
  • The scheme is a part of the AtmaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan which was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to make India a self-dependent country.
  • Under the ECLGS, all loans sanctioned under the Guaranteed Emergency Credit Line (GECL) facility will be provided with additional credit. However, there are two specifications:
  • The scheme would be applicable for loans sanctioned from the date of announcement of the scheme to October 31, 2020, OR
  • Till an amount of Rs. 3 lakh crores is sanctioned under GECL (whichever happens first)
34

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for decrease in atmospheric ozone.

  2. ((b))

    Ozone is a deadly poison.

  3. ((c))

    Ozone is a molecule formed by two atoms of oxygen.

  4. ((d))

    Ozone shields the surface of Earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ozone is a molecule formed by two atoms of oxygen.

The correct answer is Ozone is a molecule formed by two atoms of oxygen.

Key Points

  • Ozone is a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms, often referenced as O3.
  • Ozone is formed when heat and sunlight cause chemical reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOX ) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC), which are also known as Hydrocarbons.
  • Most ozone found in our atmosphere is formed by an interaction between oxygen molecules and ultraviolet radiation emitted by the sun.
  • It has a bent shape and the angle between three oxygen atoms is 116.8.
  • Ozone in the upper atmosphere forms an important barrier against solar radiation.

Additional Information

  • Stratospheric ozone is good ozone.
  • Ground-level ozone is bad ozone.
  • Ozone harms human health and the environment when it forms close to the ground.
  • The most significant things that cause ground-level ozone to form are:
  • NOX and VOCs (from mobile source emissions and industrial processes )
  • UV radiation (from sunlight)

35

Chopad (also known as Chaupar or Chausar) was an ancient Indian ______.

  1. ((a))

    warfare tactic

  2. ((b))

    board game

  3. ((c))

    adventure sport

  4. ((d))

    weapon

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

board game

The correct answer is board game.

Key Points

  • Chopad (also known as Chaupar or Chausar) was an ancient Indian board game.
  • The board is made of wool or cloth, with wooden pawns and seven cowry shells to be used to determine each player's move, although others distinguish chaupur from pachisi by the use of three four-sided long dice.
  • A chopat 'board' is traditionally an embroidered cloth in the shape of a cross.
  • Each arm of the cross is divided into three columns and each column is divided into eight squares.
  • The “men” or pieces (Sogthi)are usually made of wood.
  • Each player has four men, although variants exist using 8 men each.
  • It is similar in some ways to Pachisi, Parcheesi and Ludo.
  • Chopat is claimed to be a variation of the game of dice played in the epic poem Mahabharata between Yudhishthira and Duryodhan.
  • The most ancient game of India, Chausar was invented by Shiva and was first played between Shiva and Parvati.
36

______ in India can be classified as rural or urban.

  1. ((a))

    Private commercial banks

  2. ((b))

    Public commercial banks

  3. ((c))

    Development banks

  4. ((d))

    Co-operative banks

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Co-operative banks

The correct answer is Co-operative banks.

Key Points

  • Co-Operative Banks are small financial institutions that offer lending facilities to small businesses in both urban and non-urban regions.
  • These are monitored and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and come under the Banking Regulations Act, 1949 as well as the banking laws act, 1965.
  • These Banks have been opened with the motto of ‘no-profit-no-loss’ and thus, do not seek profitable ventures and customers only.
  • Farmers can avail of agricultural loans on minimum interest rates from the Co-operative Banks.
  • Providing easy and accessible loans and credit benefits in the rural areas with scarce banking facilities.
  • The annual profit earned is spent on financial reserves and required resources and a part of it is distributed among the Co-operative members, as per the prescribed limitations.
  • It has also been advised that a special committee must be assigned only to monitor the proper functioning of these financial entities.

Additional Information 

  • Private commercial banks
  • Private Sector Commercial Banking is a category of banking that aims to provide privileged services to its customers.
  • Private Sector Commercial Banks are financial institutions that primarily owned and operated by high-net-worth private individuals and business organizations.
  • Public commercial banks
  • These banks are those financial institutions that have at least 51% of their ownership being held by the central government.
  • The management control is also in the hands of the union government.
  • State Bank of India, PNB, Bank of India are some examples.
  • Development banks
  • Development banks are specialized financial institutions.
  • They provide medium and long-term finance to the industrial and agricultural sectors.
  • They provide finance to both the private and public sectors.
37

The grape vine is an example of _______.

  1. ((a))

    Shrub

  2. ((b))

    Herb

  3. ((c))

    Creeper

  4. ((d))

    Climber

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Climber

The correct answer is Climber.

Key Points

  • The grapevine is a stem- tendril climbing plant that grows upwards with vigorous overhanging (cascading) growth.
  • New shoots may grow 1 - 4 metres every year.
  • It is usually cultivated as a shaped shrub with a growth height of 10 metres or more, depending on the pruning technique.
  • It climbs up the tree by curling up its stems and forming spiral structures that grant them support to remain on the tree for a long time.
  • These types of plants are called Bines. Bines have rough stems and downward-pointing bristles to aid their grip on the stem of the host plant.
  • They get their nutrition, food and nourishment from the host plant by special tendrils growing from their stems which go inside the body of the host plant and extract all the nutrition and food from it.
38

Which of the following committees of the Constituent Assembly was NOT chaired by Rajendra Prasad?

  1. ((a))

    Union Powers Committee

  2. ((b))

    Committee on the Rules of Procedure

  3. ((c))

    Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag

  4. ((d))

    Finance and Staff Committee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Union Powers Committee

The correct answer is Union Powers Committee.

Key Points

  • Union Powers Committee of the Constituent Assembly was NOT chaired by Rajendra Prasad.
  • In 1946, the Constituent Assembly met for the first time in New Delhi in the Constitution Hall which is currently known as the Central Hall of Parliament House.
  • The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution-making.
  • Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees.
  • The names of the major committees and their chairmen are given below: 
  • Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
  • Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
  • Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel
  • Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  • Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel.
  • Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasa
  • States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
  • Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Additional Information

  • Dr. B R Ambedkar is the chief architect of the Constitution of India.
  • As per Article 395, the Government of India Act of 1935 and the Indian Independence Act of 1947 got repealed with the beginning of the Constitution of India.
  • The Constituent Assembly selected 22 committees to deal with diverse tasks of Constitution-making.
  • Drafting committee members :
  • Chairman – Dr. BR Ambedkar
  • Members:
  • N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
  • Muhammad Saadullah
  • Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
  • KM Munshi
  • BL Mittar substituted by N Madhava Rao following his resignation on health issues
  • Dr. DP Khaitan (died in 1948 and was substituted by TT Krishnamachari)
39

Vini Mahajan was the first female chief secretary of the state of ______.

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Tripura

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Punjab

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

  • Vini Mahajan was the first female chief secretary of the state of Punjab.
  • Vini Mahajan has served in the office of former Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh from 2005-2012 and handled matters relating to Finance, Industry and Commerce, Telecom, and IT.
  • The Punjab government-appointed 1987-batch Punjab cadre IAS officer Vini Mahajan as the new Chief Secretary, replacing Karan Avtar Singh.
  • She is the youngest of all six colleagues and retires in October 2024.
  • She has received the National Literacy Award for best performance in India.
  • She became the 1st woman officer to be posted as Deputy Commissioner(DC) in Punjab in 1995, where she took charge as DC in Ropar & served as the 1st Director Disinvestment.
  • She has also participated in the global response through the G-20 mechanism.

Additional Information

  • The chief secretary of the state 
  • The post of Chief Secretary (Mukhya Sachiv) is the senior-most position held in the civil services of the states and union territories of India.
  • The position is a cadre post for the Indian Administrative Service.
  • The Chief Secretary is usually the senior-most IAS officer of the senior-most batch in the state.
  • The appointee for the office is approved by the state Chief Minister, based on the appointee's ability and strong confidence with him or her.
40

The ______ temple in Nepal is also known as the 'Monkey Temple'.

  1. ((a))

    Pashupatinath

  2. ((b))

    Buddasubba

  3. ((c))

    Swayambhunath

  4. ((d))

    Barashetra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swayambhunath

The correct answer is Swayambhunath.

Key Points

  • The Swayambhunath temple in Nepal is also known as the 'Monkey Temple.
  • Swayambhu is an ancient religious complex atop a hill in the Kathmandu Valley, west of Kathmandu city.
  • The stupa has stood as a hallmark of faith and harmony for centuries with Hindu temples and deities incorporated in this Buddhist site.
  • This stupa is the oldest of its kind in Nepal and has numerous shrines and monasteries on its premises.
  • It was built by King Manadeva and by the 13th century.
  • The Swayambunath complex suffered damage in the April 2015 Nepal earthquake.
  • There are holy monkeys living in the northwest parts of the temple.

Additional Information

  • Pashupatinath Temple
  • The Pashupatinath Temple (Nepali: पशुपतिनाथ मन्दिर) is a famous and sacred Hindu temple complex that is located on the banks of the Bagmati River, approximately 5 km north-east of Kathmandu in the eastern part of Kathmandu Valley, the capital of Nepal.
  • The temple serves as the seat of Pashupatinath.
  • Barashetra Temple
  • This is another famous temple in Nepal.
  • Located at the confluence of the Koka and Koshi rivers, the temple is believed to be the place where Lord Bishnu took the form of a half-lion man to kill Hiranya Kashyap, in order to end his evil reign
  • Buddasubba Temple
  • Temple is located in Dharan about 136 mi (or 220 km) east of the country's capital city.
  • The site is located on the top of the seuti river bank, to a small distance east of the Dantakali temple.
  • According to myth, a Subba hunter Budha Subba and his sister used to play and hunt on the hill with a slingshot.
41

With which of the following games/sports is R Praggnanandhaa associated?

  1. ((a))

    Chess

  2. ((b))

    Poker

  3. ((c))

    Table tennis

  4. ((d))

    Squash

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chess

The correct answer is Chess.

Key Points

  • R Praggnanandhaa associated is with Chess Games/Sports.
  • Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa (born 10 August 2005) is an Indian chess player.
  • Today, 14-year-old R Praggnanandhaa from Chennai has emerged as the world’s best chess player in the Under-18 category.
  • A chess prodigy, he is the fourth-youngest person ever to achieve the title of Grandmaster (GM), behind Sergey Karjakin, Gukesh D and Javokhir Sindarov
  • Praggnanandhaa won the World Youth Chess Championships Under-8 title in 2013, earning him the title of FIDE Master at the age of 7.
  • On 12 October 2019, he won the World Youth Championships in the Under 18 section with a score of 9/11.
  • In December 2019, he became the second-youngest person to be rated 2600 Elo.
  • Before becoming the Under-18 world champion, Praggnanandhaa won the Under-8 category title and was also declared the youngest international master.

Additional Information 

  • Hanuma Vihari :
  • He is an Indian international cricketer.
  • He represents Andhra Pradesh in Indian domestic cricket.
  • A right-handed batsman and occasional right-arm off-break bowler.
  • He was a member of the India Under-19 cricket team that won the 2012 ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup in Australia.
  • HS Prannoy :
  • Prannoy Haseena Sunil Kumar, also known as Prannoy H. S.
  • He is an Indian badminton player and currently trains at the Gopichand Badminton Academy in Hyderabad.
  • Kumar originally hails from Thiruvananthapuram and is the Indian number 2 in badminton.
  • He studied at Kendriya Vidyalaya Akkulam.
  • Krishna B Pathak :
  • He is an Indian field hockey player who plays as a goalkeeper for the Indian national team.
  • He was part of the Indian junior team that won the 2016 Men's Hockey Junior World Cup in Lucknow.
  • He was then selected in the India A team for the 2017 Men's Australian Hockey League.
  • Saketh Myneni :
  • He is an Indian professional tennis player.
  • He is conferred with the prestigious Arjuna Award in 2017 and represents India in Davis Cup.
  • He won a Gold medal in Mixed doubles and a Silver medal in Men's doubles event at Incheon Asian Games 2014.
42

'Duns' are longitudinal valleys between the ______ and the Shiwaliks.

  1. ((a))

    Greater Himalayas

  2. ((b))

    Ganga-Brahmaputra Plains

  3. ((c))

    Lesser Himalayas

  4. ((d))

    Western Plains

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lesser Himalayas

The correct answer is Lesser Himalayas.

Key Points

  • 'Duns' are longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks.
  • Dun is a local word for valley, particularly an open valley in the Sivaliks or between the Sivaliks and higher Himalayan foothills.
  • Other valleys in this region have names like Patli Dun, Kotli Dun, Pinjore Dun in Himachal.
  • The longitudinal valley is longitudinal valleys between the lesser Himalayas and Shivalik are known as 'duns' in the west and 'duars' in the east.
  • Unlike typical river valleys, duns have a structural origin and are covered with boulders and gravel originating from the erosion of the Himalayas and the Shiwalik uplands.
  • Major duns found in the region are Dehra, Kothri, Chaukham, Patli and Kota.

Additional Information 

  • A longitudinal valley is an elongated valley found between two almost-parallel mountain chains in geologically young fold mountains, such as the Alps, Carpathians, Andes, or the highlands of Central Asia.
  • They are often occupied and shaped by a subsequent stream.
  • Duns are longitudinal valleys created when the Eurasian plate and the Indian plate collided as a result of folding.
  • Among lesser Himalayas and Shivalik, they are formed.
  • The valleys are accumulated with coarse alluvium passed down by Himalayan rivers.
43

What was the most popular source of drinking water, as per the Census of India 2011, reported by more than 41% households?

  1. ((a))

    River

  2. ((b))

    Tap

  3. ((c))

    Well

  4. ((d))

    Hand pump/Tube well

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Hand pump/Tube well

The correct answer is Hand pump/Tube well.

Key Points  

  • The census 2001 collected data on amenities and assets available to each household in the country.
  • Highlight from the data collected are as follows:
  • 74 million (38.5%) households, out of 192 million households in the country have only one dwelling room for living.
  • Drinking water facility is available within the premise to 75 million (39.0%) households only.
  • 32 million (16.7%) households have to fetch drinking water from sources that are at least 500 meters away in the case of towns.
  • Hand pump/Tube well is the most popular source of drinking water reported to be used by 79 million (41.2%) households.
  • Electricity as the source of lighting is available to 107 million (55.8%) households.
  • Only 69 million households (36.1%) have bathrooms within the house.
  • 123 million (64.0%) households do not have a latrine within the house.
  • Firewood is still the most used source of fuel for cooking reported by 101 million (52.5%) households in the country.
  • LPG as fuel for cooking is used by 34 million (17.5%) households.
  • Availability of assets portrays a varied picture. Whereas 67 million (35.1%) households have Radio or Transistor, Television is available to 61 million (31.6%) households in the country.

Additional Information

  • Census is nothing but a process of collecting, compiling, analyzing, evaluating, publishing, and disseminating statistical data regarding the population.
  • It covers demographic, social, and economic data and is provided as of a particular date.
  • Census operations started in India long back during the period of the Maurya dynasty.
  • It was systematized during the years 1865 to 1872.
  • it has been conducted uninterruptedly from the year 1881 being a trustworthy resource of information.
  • As per the 2011 Census, Nagaland states has recorded a decrease in population.
  • Nagaland is the only Indian state which has a negative growth rate of -0.58% in census 2011.
  • The growth rate of the Indian population was 17.69% between 2001 to 2011.
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli is growing at a rate of 55.88% annually.
  • The second-fastest growth is recorded in Daman & Diu at 53.76% in census 2011.
  • India has 641,000 inhabited villages and 72.2 per cent of the total population reside in these rural areas.
44

Which of the following cities lies on the banks of the river Brahmaputra?

  1. ((a))

    Cuttack

  2. ((b))

    Guwahati

  3. ((c))

    Patna

  4. ((d))

    Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Guwahati

The correct answer is Guwahati.

Key Points

  • Guwahati cities lie on the banks of the river Brahmaputra. 
  • It flows along southern Tibet to break through the Himalayas in great gorges and into Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The Brahmaputra is an important river for irrigation and transportation in the region.

Additional Information

  • Cuttack
  • Cuttack is the former capital and the second-largest city in the Indian state of Odisha.
  • It is the headquarters of the Cuttack district.
  • Patna
  • Patna is the capital and largest city of the state of Bihar in India.
  • It had an estimated city population of 2.48 million in 2021, making it the 19th largest city in India.
  • Covering 250 square kilometres (97 sq mi) and over 2.5 million people, its urban agglomeration is the 18th largest in India.
  • Delhi
  • ​Delhi officially the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, is a city and a union territory of India containing New Delhi, the capital of India.
  • It is bordered by the state of Haryana on three sides and by Uttar Pradesh to the east.
45

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    The Himalayan Mountains lie to the south-east of India.

  2. ((b))

    Bay of Bengal lies to the north-west of India.

  3. ((c))

    Arabian Sea lies to the south-west of India.

  4. ((d))

    The Indian Ocean lies to the north-east of India.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Arabian Sea lies to the south-west of India.

The correct answer is the Arabian Sea lies to the southwest of India.

Key Points

  • The Arabian Sea lies to the South-West of India.
  • The Arabian Sea is a region of the northern Indian Ocean bounded on the northeast and east by the Indian Peninsula on the west by Somalia and the Arabian Peninsula, on the north by Pakistan and Iran, and on the south by the Maldives. 
  • Its total area is 3,862,000 km2 and its maximum depth is 4,652 meters.
  • The Arabian Sea has been crossed by many important marine trade routes since the 3rd or 2nd millennium BCE.
  • The biggest river flowing into the sea is the Indus River.
  • The countries with coastlines on the Arabian Sea are Yemen, Oman, Pakistan, Iran, India, and the Maldives.

Additional Information 

  • The Himalayas is a mountain range in South and East Asia separating the plains of the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau.
  • The range has many of Earth's highest peaks, including the highest, Mount Everest, at the border between Nepal and China.
  • The Bay of Bengal, the largest bay in the world, is a sea that is part of the northeastern Indian Ocean.
  • This sea has played a pivotal role in the histories of the nations that surround it, including India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Indonesia.
  • The Indian Ocean is bound on the north by Asia, including the country of India for which it's named, on the west by Africa, and on the east by Indonesia and Australia.
  • It extends southward to the continent of Antarctica.
  • South of the equator, the Indian Ocean circulates in a counter-clockwise direction.
46

As per the Macro-Economic Framework Statement 2020-21, milk production in India grew ______ in 2018-19 over the previous year.

  1. ((a))

    6.50%

  2. ((b))

    0.50%

  3. ((c))

    2.50%

  4. ((d))

    10.50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6.50%

The correct answer is 6.50%.

Key Points

  • As per the Macro-Economic Framework Statement 2020-21, milk production in India grew 6.50% in 2018-19 over the previous year.
  • India has transformed from a country of acute milk shortage to the world’s leading milk producer.
  • This phenomenal success is attributed to a Government initiative known as Operation Flood (1970–1996) and its intense focus on dairy development activities.
  • Production of milk is subject to seasonal fluctuations — animals, particularly buffaloes, produce more during winter spring and less in the summer.
  • In order to cope with this fluctuation, the farmers usually convert the surplus milk of the “flush” season (winter) into skimmed milk powder (SMP) and ghee/butter for reconstitution in the “lean” months (summer).
  • Dairy is currently the top-ranking commodity in India, with the value of output almost equal to the combined output value of rice and wheat.
  • Despite the importance of the dairy sector in overall GDP, it receives less government budgeting than the agriculture sector.

Additional Information

  • Short-Term Measure :
  • The government should consider the temporary procurement of milk, directly by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB).
  • NDDB may create a buffer stock of processed dairy products like skimmed milk powder (SMP) and butter.
  • Also, state governments may consider distributing these dairy products in Mid-May Meal, when schools reopen.
  • In this way, the crisis in the dairy sector and nutritional security both can be addressed.
  • Long-Term Measures :
  • Increasing Productivity: There is a need to increase the productivity of animals, better health care and breeding facilities and management of dairy animals. This can reduce the cost of milk production.
  • Also, milk production and productivity can be enhanced by ensuring the availability of veterinary services, artificial insemination (AI), feed and farmer education.
  • The Government and dairy industry can play a vital role in this direction.
47

As of September 2020, which of the following is the most recent award given to film actress Kangana Ranaut?

  1. ((a))

    IIFA Award for Best Actress

  2. ((b))

    National Film Award for Best Actress

  3. ((c))

    Padma Shri

  4. ((d))

    CNN-IBN Indian of the Year Special Achievement

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Padma Shri

The correct answer is Padma Shri.

Key Points

  • As of September 2020, Padma Shri is the most recent award given to film actress Kangana Ranaut. 
  • Kangana Ranaut is an Indian actress who appears predominantly in Hindi films.
  • She has received several awards, including the Padma Shri, fourth highest civilian award in the Republic of India, four National Film Awards, four Filmfare Awards, three International Indian Film Academy Awards, and one award each from the Screen, Zee Cine, and Producers Guild award ceremony.
  • In 2021, Ranaut won another National Film Award for Best Actress at the 67th National Film Awards for her performance in the 2019 Hindi period drama film Manikarnika: The Queen of Jhansi.
  • In 2020, She won Padma Shri for the Hindi sports drama film Panga.
  • This was Ranaut's 3rd win in the best actress category and overall her 4th National Award.

Additional Information

  • Panga is a 2020 Indian Hindi-language sports film directed and co-written by Ashwiny Iyer Tiwari and produced by Fox Star Studios, based on a script written by her and Nikhil Mehrotra, with Nitesh Tiwari providing additional script inputs.
  • IIFA Awards 2019:
  • Ranveer Singh wins the best actor for Padmaavat, Alia Bhatt bags best actress for Raazi.
  • National Film Award for Best Actress
  • The National Film Award for Best Actress is an honour presented annually at the National Film Awards of India since 1968 to an actress for the best performance in a leading role within the Indian film industry.
  • The National Film Awards were called the "State Awards for Films" when established in 1954.
  • The State Awards instituted the "Best Actress" category in 1968 as the "Urvashi Award for the Best Actress"; in 1975, the "Urvashi Award" was renamed as the "Rajat Kamal Award for the Best Actress".
  • CNN-IBN Indian of the Year Special Achievement
  • ​The year 2006 saw the introduction of the CNN-NEWS18 Indian of the Year. '
  • The initiative recognizes the Indian(s) whose contribution to the country in a calendar year has strengthened the foundation of our society and has helped build Brand India in the process.
  • Having seen nine editions since its inception, the CNN-NEWS18 Indian of the Year has cemented its position as the biggest awards in the domain of News television and an institution of impeccable credibility.
48

Unregulated Deposit Schemes were banned in India by the 'Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, ______'.

  1. ((a))

    2016

  2. ((b))

    2018

  3. ((c))

    2019

  4. ((d))

    2017

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2019

The correct answer is 2019.

Key Points

  • Unregulated Deposit Schemes were banned in India by the 'Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019'.
  • Parliament has passed the Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Bill, 2019, which seeks to put in place a mechanism by which poor depositors will get back their hard-earned money.
  • The Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Finance, Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman, on July 19, 2019.
  • It also seeks to amend three laws, i.e., the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, and the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002.
  • Unregulated Deposit Scheme:
  • The Bill bans unregulated deposit schemes. A deposit-taking scheme is defined as unregulated if it is taken for a business purpose and is not registered with the regulators.

Additional Information

  • Competent Authority:
  • The Bill provides for the appointment of one or more government officers, not below the rank of Secretary to the state or central government, as the Competent Authority.
  • The Competent Authority will have powers similar to those vested in a civil court.
  • The Competent Authority may:
  • provisionally attach the property of the deposit taker, as well as all deposits received
  • summon and examine any person it considers necessary for the purpose of obtaining evidence
  • orders the production of records and evidence
  • The Bill will help to tackle the menace of illicit deposit-taking activities (Ponzi Schemes/Chit Funds) in the country, which at present are exploiting regulatory gaps and lack of strict administrative measures to dupe people of their savings.
49

The Ficus religiosa is commonly known as the ______ tree in India.

  1. ((a))

    Babool

  2. ((b))

    Sal

  3. ((c))

    Peepal

  4. ((d))

    Neem

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Peepal

The correct answer is Peepal.

Key Points

  • The Ficus religiosa is commonly known as the Peepal tree in India. 
  • The peepal tree is known by its botanical name as Ficus religiosa.
  • It is also called a sacred fig tree in Indian culture because of several religious and cultural practices related to it.
  • India has a long culture of considering various trees and animals as sacred because of religious principles and practices.
  • One such principle suggests that the peepal tree is the residence of gods and hence should be protected.
  • One other aspect linked with the peepal tree is that Lord Buddha attained enlightenment while meditating under the shade of a peepal tree and hence, it is also considered as sacred for Buddhists.
  • For all such practices prevalent in India people are encouraged to plant peepal trees which ultimately helps in increasing the green cover and the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere but also helps in conservation as these trees become home for several birds and insects species.
  • This is the tree under which Gautama Buddha is believed to have attained enlightenment.

Additional Information

  • Babool
  • The traditional toothbrush for Indians, Babul knew as Kikar or Vachellia Nilotica or Acacia Nilotica is quite a common tree in these parts of the country.
  • A thorny tree, Babul shoots up to a height of 12 meters and flaunts small yellow round nectar- fewer flowers.
  • Sal
  • Sal is also known as Shorea robusta, is an imperative non-timber forest product that spreads across 10 million in India covering almost 14% of the total forest area of the country.
  • It has an eminent role in the economics of some Indian states i.e. Jharkhand, Orissa, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Neem
  • ​Azadirachta indica, commonly known as neem, nimtree, or Indian lilac, is a tree in the mahogany family Meliaceae.
  • It is one of two species in the genus Azadirachta, and is native to the Indian subcontinent.
50

The inaugural train under the 'Kisan Rail' scheme announced in the Union Budget 2020-21 ran between ______.

  1. ((a))

    Bihar and Telangana

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra and Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Chhattisgarh and Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka and Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Maharashtra and Bihar

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Bihar.

Key Points

  • The inaugural train under the 'Kisan Rail' scheme announced in the Union Budget 2020-21 ran between Maharashtra and Bihar.
  • The Indian Railways has introduced the first “Kisan Rail” from Devlali (Maharashtra) to Danapur (Bihar).
  • Kisan Rails are the first-ever multi-commodity trains.
  • These trains with refrigerated coaches will help in bringing perishable agricultural products like vegetables, fruits to the market in a short period of time.
  • These will ensure that agro-products reach from one corner to another corner of the country.
  • These trains are a step towards realizing the goal of doubling farmers’ incomes by 2022.
  • These are expected to be a great help to the farmers, as freight of these trains will be charged as per the parcel tariff of normal trains.

Additional Information

  • Recently, the Prime Minister has flagged off the 100th “Kisan Rail” service from Sangola in Solapur district of Maharashtra to Shalimar in West Bengal via video-conferencing.
  • In August 2020, the first ‘Kisan Rail’ dedicated to agriculture and farmers was begun to connect farmers and markets across the country.
  • The government has invested crores of rupees in modernizing the country’s supply chain, of which the Kisan Rail service is a new experiment.
  • Significance:
  • This experiment will prove especially beneficial for the country’s 80% small and marginal farmers.
  • The service would transform the economics of Indian agriculture while strengthening the country’s cold supply chain.
  • The lack of cold storage facilities had often resulted in losses for farmers.
  • Indian farmers can now transport their produce to far-flung places within the country as well as gain access to international markets.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Of the four words given, three have a certain type of similarity and one is odd. Select that odd option.

  1. ((a))

    Seizure

  2. ((b))

    Convulsion

  3. ((c))

    Calm

  4. ((d))

    Cramp

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Calm

Seizure, convulsion and cramp are involuntary disturbances in our body.

While calm is free from disturbances.

Thus calm is the odd one out.

Hence, Calm is the correct answer.

52

Which figure will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Group of symbols are rotating clockwise

Within the group, the first symbol is replaced by the second one and the second one is replaced by the third one.

After completion of 1 rotation, in the next figure, a new symbol replaces the third symbol.

53

The difference between simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 732. Find the sum.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 72,300

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 70,320

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 73,200

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 70,230

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 73,200

Formula:

For 2 years 

C.I. - S.I. = P( R21002R^2 \over 100^2)

Where,

C.I. = compound interest

S.I. = simple interest

R = rate%

P = principal sum

Given:

C.I. - S.I. = 732

Rate = 10%

Time = 2 years

Calculation:

732 = P ( 10×10100×10010 ×10 \over 100 × 100)

732 = P/100

P = 73200

Hence, 73200 is the correct answer.

54

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(4, 19, 41)

  1. ((a))

    (8, 67, 137)

  2. ((b))

    (5, 22, 47)

  3. ((c))

    (11, 124, 215)

  4. ((d))

    (6, 39, 75)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(8, 67, 137)

The pattern followed here is:

squaring the 1st number then add 3 to it, we get the 2nd number.

Multiply the 2nd number with 2 then add 3 to it, we get the 3rd number.

42+34^2 + 3

= 16 + 3

= 19

and 19 × 2 + 3

= 38 + 3

= 41

Only option 1 follows this pattern.

82+38^2 + 3

= 64 + 3

= 67

and 67 × 2 + 3

= 134 + 3

= 137

Hence, (8, 67, 137) is the correct answer.

55

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

When the question figure is merged with the figure in option 1, the complete pattern can be seen as.

Hence, the figure in option (1) will be the correct answer.

56

Read the below statements disregarding commonly known facts, and then from the given four options, identify the Venn diagram that correctly represents the statements.

Statements:

  1. Some markers (M) are Boards (B).
  2. All the Boards (B) are Printers (P).
  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The least overlapping Venn diagram of both the combined statement is shown below:

Hence, figure in option 2 is the correct answer.

Mistake Points

 It seems that option 4 also satisfy the given statement but it is not correct.

We can't say that 'All board are marker' or 'All printer are marker' as these are not a definite case.

57

Which figure will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The pattern followed here is:

From figure 1 to figure 2 and from figure 3 to figure 4, we observe that,

Top left and bottom left element remain in the same position.

Middle left element goes to centre position.

Centre element goes to middle bottom postion.

Middle bottom element goes to Middle left position.

Hence, the figure in option 3 is the correct answer.

58

if SEIZURE is coded as 8231592 and HARMONY is coded as 1919144132, then how will PRODUCE be coded?

  1. ((a))

    1194235242

  2. ((b))

    11122234569

  3. ((c))

    11912236245

  4. ((d))

    1194232425

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1194235242

The pattern followed here is:

Consonants are coded by reverse positional value and vowels are written in alphabetical order as shown below:

Code for vowels:

 

Similarly,

Hence, 1194235242 is the correct answer.

59

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

1, 5, 10, 27, 58, 153, 340, ?

  1. ((a))

    803

  2. ((b))

    830

  3. ((c))

    903

  4. ((d))

    930

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

903

The pattern followed here is:

Sequence of Differences

4

5  = 4 x 2  - 3

17 = 5 x 3  + 2

31 = 17 x 2 - 3

95 = 31 x 3 + 2

187 = 95 x 2 - 3

x = 187 x 3 + 2

⇒ x = 561 + 2

x = 563

alternate Sequence (x 2 -  3) and (x 3  + 2)

? = 340 + x

= 340 + 563

= 903

missing number is 903

Hence, 903 is the correct answer.

60

Three of the following four figures are alike in a certain way and the one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

option 1, option 3 and option 4 contains the mirror image of the figure.

While in option 2 it is exactly same not the mirror image.

Hence, the figure in option 2 is the correct answer.

61

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure that is embedded in the question figure is the option 2.

Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

62

Four different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the letter on the face opposite to the showing 'B'.

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E

Concept:

The 3 adjacent faces of the dice which we see will never be the opposite among them.

In figure 1, Adjacent of B is D, F

In figure 2, Adjacent of B is C, D.

In figure 4, Adjacent of B is A, C.

This will never be the opposite of B.

Only remaining alphabet is E, which becomes the opposite of B.

Hence, E is the correct answer.

63

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Men, Pharmacists, Brothers

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logical Venn representation is shown as:

All brothers are men but pharmacists may be men or women.

And, Some Men and Brothers are Pharmacists.

Hence, the figure in option 3 is the correct answer.

64

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

15 ∶ 90 ∶∶ 18 ∶ ?

  1. ((a))

    126

  2. ((b))

    146

  3. ((c))

    164

  4. ((d))

    261

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

126

The logic followed here is:

90 is completely divisible by 15.

Similarly, Only 126 is completely divisible by 18.

Hence, 126 is the correct answer.

65

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure that is embedded in the question figure is the option ‘3’ figure.

Hence, the figure in option 2 is the correct answer.

66

Select the option that is related to figure C in the same way as figure B is relate to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is :

Figure B is the mirror image of figure A.

Similarly, figure in option 2 is the mirror image of figure C.

Hence, the figure in option 2 is the correct answer.

67

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

When the folded paper is opened, the cuts will appear as follows:

Hence, the figure in option 1 is the correct answer.

68

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

3, 7, 18, 40, 75, 127, 198, 292, 415, 569, ?

  1. ((a))

    706

  2. ((b))

    860

  3. ((c))

    806

  4. ((d))

    760

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

760

The pattern followed here is :

Hence, 760 is the correct answer.

69

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Insects : Entomology :: Rocks : ?

  1. ((a))

    Topology

  2. ((b))

    Lithology

  3. ((c))

    Cytology

  4. ((d))

    Odontology

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lithology

The logic followed here is:

Entomology is the study of insects.

Similarly,

Lithology is the study of rock formation and characteristics.

Hence, Lithology is the correct answer.

70

Select the option that is related to figure C in the same way as figure B is related to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic here is:

The top-left element rotated by 180°.

The top-right element rotated by 90º in a clockwise direction.

The centre element rotated by 90º in an anti-clockwise direction.

The bottom-left element rotated by 90º in a clockwise direction.

The bottom-right element remains the same.

Hence, the figure in option 3 is the correct answer.

71

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed to the right side of it.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The mirror image of the question figure is as follows:

Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

72

In the given figure is folded to form a cube, which letter will come opposite to 'E'?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    Z

  4. ((d))

    O

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

U

CONCEPT :

Types of figure generally given in the exams.

The clearly seen alternate position of the open dice becomes the opposite pair after folding and the two remaining faces also become opposite to each other.

Here, In every figure:

A is opposite to C.

B is opposite to D.

Thus the remaining, E is opposite to F.

EXPLANATION :

The alternate position of faces becomes opposite to each other, as shown below:

Opposite pairs are (A-O), (I-Z) and (E-U).

The letter opposite to E is U.

CONCLUSION :

Hence, U is the correct answer.

73

Three of the following four figures are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic here is:

In option 1, option 2 and option 3 the arrow head and triangle is on the same side of the line.

While in option 4, both are opposite to the line.

Thus option 4 is the odd one out.

Hence, the figure in option 4 is the correct answer.

74

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

176 - 16 + 33 × 6 ÷ 200 = 9

  1. ((a))
    • and ÷
  2. ((b))
    • and ÷
  3. ((c))

    ÷ and ×

  4. ((d))
    • and ×
Show Answer
Answer: ((b))
  • and ÷

Given equation : 176 - 16 + 33 × 6 ÷ 200 = 9

Checking with the options

option 1) + and ÷

176 - 16 ÷ 33 × 6 + 200

= 176 - 0.48 × 6 + 200

= 176 - 2.88 + 200

= 373.12

option 2) - and ÷

176 ÷ 16 + 33 × 6 - 200

= 11 + 198 - 200

= 9

option 3) ÷ and ×

176 - 16 + 33 ÷ 6 × 200

= 176 - 16 + 5.5 × 200

= 176 - 16 + 1100

= 1260

option 4) + and ×

176 - 16 × 33 + 6 ÷ 200

= 176 - 16 × 33 + 0.03

= 176 - 528 + 0.03

= - 351.97

Hence, the correct answer is - and ÷ .

75

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

When the question figure is merged with the figure in option 3, the complete pattern can be seen as:

Hence, the figure in option (3) is the correct answer.

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

A loan is to be returned in two equal annual instalments. If the rate of interest is 10% p.a., compounded yearly, and each instalment is Rs. 3,872, then the total interest charged in this instalment scheme is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,024

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,020

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 980

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1,050

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1,024

Given:

Rate of interest, R = 10%

Annual installment, x = Rs. 3872

Total number of installments, N = 2

Formula used:

P = [x/(1 + R/100)] + [x/(1 + R/100)2] +.....+ [x/(1 + R/100)n]

where,

P = Principal borrowed, x = Annual Installments, R = Rate of Interest

Calculation:

Since, Total number of installments is 2.

Value of 2 installments = 2 × Rs. 3872 = Rs. 7744

Now,

P = [x/(1 + R/100)] + [x/(1 + R/100)2]

⇒ P = [3872/(1 + 10/100)] + [3872/(1 + 10/100)2]

⇒ P = [3872/(11/10)] + [3872/(11/10)2]

⇒ P = [(3872 × 10)/11] + [(3872 × 100)/121]

⇒ P = 3520 + 3200 = Rs. 6720

Total interest charged = Value of 2 installments - Principal borrowed

⇒ Total interest charged = Rs. 7744 - Rs. 6720 = Rs. 1024

∴ The total interest charged in this installment scheme is Rs. 1024.

77

A and B started simultaneously towards each other from places X and Y, respectively. After meeting at point M on the way, A and B took 3.2 hours and 7.2 hours, to reach Y and X, respectively. Then how much time (in hours) they take to reach point M?

  1. ((a))

    4.8

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4.8

Given:

A and B are moving towards each other from places X and Y

After meeting at point M they reach each other's starting points X and Y in 3.2 hours and 7.2 hours.

Formula:

S1 : S2 = √(T2/T1)

S1 = Speed of car A, S2 = Speed of car B

T1 = Time taken by car A to cover distance

T2 = Time taken by car B to  cover distance 

Concept:

In relative speed when both objects come to each other their speed becomes the sum of their speed. 

Calculation:

Let T be the time taken by them to reach point M.

S1 : S2 = √(7.2/3.2) = 3 : 2

Let the ratio constant be x

then S1 = 3x and S2 = 2x

So, T = {(2x × 7.2) + (3x × 3.2)}/(3x + 2x) hours

⇒ T = (14.4x + 9.6x)/5x hours

⇒ T = 24x/5x = 4.8 hours

∴ The time taken by them to reach point M was 4.8 hours.

78

The average of 14 numbers is 73.5. If two numbers 60 and 63 are replaced by 58 and 70 and one more number x is included, then the average of the numbers now increases by 1.5. What is the value of x?

  1. ((a))

    91

  2. ((b))

    85

  3. ((c))

    88

  4. ((d))

    82

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

91

Given:

The average of 14 numbers is 73.5

60 and 63 were replaced by 58 and 70

Calculation:

Sum of all terms = Average of terms × Number of terms 

Sum of 14 terms = 14 × 73.5 

Sum of 14 numbers after replacing the two-digit = 14 × 73.5 + (58 +70) – (60 +63)

Average = sum of all numbers/Total numbers

⇒ 75 = (14 × 73.5 + 128 – 123 + x)/15

⇒ 75 = (1034 + x)/15

⇒ 1125 = 1034 + x

⇒ 91 = x

The value of x is 91

Shortcut Trick

Let x = t + 73.5

Increasing average =  ((58 +70) – (60 +63) + t)/Number of terms 

⇒ 1.5 = (5 + t)/15

⇒ 22.5 = 5 + t

⇒ 17.5 = t

x = 17.5 + 73.5 = 91

∴ The value of x is 91

79

The income of A is 60% more than the income of B, and the income of C is 45% less than the income of A and B. By what percentage is C's income less than that of income of A?

  1. ((a))

    11.225

  2. ((b))

    11.88

  3. ((c))

    10.5

  4. ((d))

    10.625

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10.625

Given:

The income of A = 60% more than the income of B.

The income of C = 45% less than the income of (A + B).

Formula used:

Percentage = {(Final value - Initial value)/Initial value} × 100

Calculation:

Let the income of B be 100.

So, income of A = 100 + (100 × 60/100) = 160

Income of A + B = 100 + 160 = 260

And, income of C = 260 - (260 × 45/100)

⇒ Income of C = 260 - 117 = 143

Required percentage difference = {(160 - 143)/160} × 100

⇒ 170/16 = 10.625%

∴ C's income is 10.625% less than that of income of A.

Shortcut Trick Let income of B = 100%

A ∶ B ∶ C = 160 ∶ 100 ∶ 143

Required percentage = [(160 - 143)/160] × 100 = 170/16 = 10.625%

∴ C's income is 10.625% less than that of incoe of A

80

A certain number of students from school A appeared in an examination and 65% of them passed. 100% more students than those in school A, appeared in the same examination from school B. If 75% of the total students who appeared from schools A and B passed, then what is the percentage of students who failed from school B?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20

Given:

Percentage of passing students in school A = 65%

Percentage of passing students in schools A and B = 75%

Compared to school B 100% more students appeared in school A.

Calculation:

Let the number of students in school A is Y and the number of passing student in school B is P%

Percentage of passing students in school A = Y × 65%

Percentage of passing student in school A = Y × (65/100)

Total number of students in school B = 2Y

Percentage of passing students in school B = 2Y × P%

Percentage of the total number of passing students in schools A and B = (Y + 2Y) × 75%

⇒ Y × 65% + 2Y × P% = (Y+ 2Y) × 75%

⇒ Y × (65/100) + 2Y × (P/100) = (3Y) × (75/100)

⇒ 2Y × (P/100) = (225Y/100) – (65Y/100)

⇒ 2Y × (P/100) = (160Y/100)

⇒ 2Y × (P/100) = (160Y/100)

⇒ (P/100) = (80/100)

⇒ P = 80

Percentage of failed student in school B = 100% – 80%

Percentage of failed students in school B = 20%

The percentage of failed students in school B is 20%

Alternate Method 

Let the Total number of student in school A is 100 and the failed student in school B is Q%

Percentage of Failed students in school A = 100 × 35%

Percentage of Failed student in school A = 100 × (35/100)

Percentage of Failed student in school A = 35

100% more students than those in school A, appeared in the same examination from school B.

⇒ Total number of student in school B = 100 × (200/100)

⇒ Total number of students in school B = 200

⇒ Total number of students in schools A and B = (100 + 200)

⇒ Total number of students in schools A and B = 300

Total number of students who failed in schools A and B = 300 × 25%

⇒ 100 × 35% + 200 × Q% = 300 × 25%

⇒ 100 × (35/100) + 200 × (Q/100) = 300 × (25/100)

⇒ 35 + 2 × Q = 75

⇒ 2Q = 40

⇒ Q = 20

∴ The percentage of students who failed in school B is 20%

Shortcut Trick Let total students in school A be 100

Apassed = 65% of 100 = 65

Btotal = 200% of 100 = 200

(A + B)passed = 75% of (A + B)total = 75% of 300 = 225

Bpassed = 225 - 65 = 160

Bfailed = [(200 -160)/200] × 100 = 20%

81

The rate of interest on a sum for the first 3 years is 8% p.a., for the next 4 years it is 10% p.a., and for the period beyond 7 years, it is 16% p.a. If a person gets Rs. 11,340 simple interest after 10 years, how much money did he invest?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 11,150

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 12,140

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 10,140

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 10,125

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 10,125

Given:

The rate of interest on a sum for the first 3 years is 8% p.a.

For the next 4 years, it is 10% p.a.

For the period beyond 7 years, it is 16% p.a.

A person gets Rs. 11340 simple interest after 10 years.

Concept used:

For simple interest, the rate of interest will always be the same every year.

The principal will always be considered as 100%

Formula used:

S.I = PRT/100

Where S.I is Simple interest, P is Principal, T is time period

Calculation:

The overall rate of interest for the first 3 years at 8% = (3 × 8)% = 24%

The overall rate of interest for the next 4 years at 10% = (4 × 10)% = 40%

Now, according to the question the person invested his principal for 10 years.

So, for the remaining 3 years, the rate of interest will be 16% per annum.

Then, his rate of interest for 3 years will be (16 × 3)% = 48%

Total interest will be received for 10 years is (24% + 40% + 48%) = 112% of the principal.

So, 112% = 11340

⇒ 100% = 11340/112 × 100

⇒ 10125

He invested Rs. 10125 for 10 years.

Shortcut Trick SI = PRT/100

11340 = P × [(8% × 3) + (10% × 4) + (16% × 3)]

⇒ 11340 × 100 = P × 112

⇒ P = Rs. 10125

82

The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1320 cm2 and the radius of its base is 10.5 cm. The volume (in cm3) of the cylinder is: (Take π=227\pi = \frac{{22}}{7})

  1. ((a))

    6930

  2. ((b))

    6908

  3. ((c))

    6798

  4. ((d))

    6732

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6930

Given:

The curved surface area of right circular cylinder is 1320 cm2

Radius of the base is 10.5 cm

Formula used:

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh

Volume of the cylinder = πr2h

Where r = radius, h = height

Calculations:

Curved surface area of cylinder is 2πrh

⇒ 2πrh = 1320

⇒ 2 × (22/7) × 10.5 × h = 1320

⇒ h = (1320 × 7)/(2 × 22 × 10.5) = 20 cm

Height of the cylinder = 20 cm

Volume of the cylinder = πr2h

⇒ (22/7) × 10.5 × 10.5 × 20

⇒ 48510/7 = 6930 cm3

∴ The volume of the cylinder is 6930 cm3

 

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh

⇒ 2πrh = 1320

⇒ πrh = 1320/2 = 660

Volume of the cylinder = πr2h

⇒ (πrh) × r

⇒ 660 × 10.5 = 6930 cm3

∴ The volume of the cylinder is 6930 cm3

83

A sum of Rs. 16,380 is divided among A, B, C, and D such that the ratio of the shares of A and B is 1 ∶ 3, that B and C is 2 ∶ 5, and C and D is 2 ∶ 3. The share (in Rs.) of C is:

  1. ((a))

    5,400

  2. ((b))

    8,100

  3. ((c))

    6,300

  4. ((d))

    4,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5,400

Given:

Amount divided among A, B, C, and D = Rs.16,380

A : B = 1 : 3, B : C = 2 : 5, and C : D = 2 : 3

Calculation:

Step 1  

ABCD
13
25
23

Step 2

ABCD
1333
2255
2223

Step 3

A : B : C : D = (1 × 2 × 2) : (3 × 2 × 2) : (3 × 5 × 2) : (3 × 5 × 3)

⇒ A : B : C : D = 4 : 12 : 30 : 45

Now, (4 + 12 + 30 + 45)R = 16,380

⇒ 91R = 16380

⇒ R = 180 

⇒ 30R = 180 × 30 = Rs. 5400

∴ The share of C is Rs. 5400.

Shortcut Trick

ABCD
1333
2255
2223

∴ A ∶ B ∶ C ∶ D = 4 ∶ 12 ∶ 30 ∶ 45

C's share = [16380/91] × 30 = Rs. 5400

84

Let x be the least number of 4-digits which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 27 leaves, in each case, a remainder 7. What is the sum of the digits of x?

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    17

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16

Given:

 x is the least number of 4 digits.

The remainder is 7 in each case when x is divided by 12, 15, 20 27.

Concept: 

The least number that is divisible by all given numbers will be the LCM of given numbers.

Calculation:

L.C.M of 12, 15, 20 27 = 540

In each case, the remainder is 7

x = 540k + 7, Where k is a natural number

Put k = 1,2,3,4,..............

When k = 1,

x = 540 × 1 + 7

⇒ x = 547

When k = 2,

x = 540 × 2 + 7

⇒ x = 1080 + 7

⇒ x = 1087

Which is the least 4-digit number which leaves 7 as the remainder in each case when divided by 12, 15, 20, and 27..

Sum of digits of x = 1 + 0 + 8 + 7

⇒ Sum of digits of x = 16

∴ The sum of digits of the number is 16.

85

Find the value:

 (0.58÷0.53)×533+1021÷1114\left( {0.5\overline 8 \div 0.\overline {53} } \right) \times \frac{5}{{33}} + \frac{{10}}{{21}} \div 1\frac{1}{{14}} of 5353×110\frac{5}{3} - \frac{5}{3} \times \frac{1}{{10}} = ?

  1. ((a))

    1330\frac{{13}}{{30}}

  2. ((b))

    35\frac{{3}}{{5}}

  3. ((c))

    310\frac{{3}}{{10}}

  4. ((d))

    415\frac{{4}}{{15}}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

415\frac{{4}}{{15}}

Given:

(0.58÷0.53)×533+1021÷1114\left( {0.5\overline 8 ÷ 0.\overline {53} } \right) × \frac{5}{{33}} + \frac{{10}}{{21}} ÷ 1\frac{1}{{14}} of 5353×110\frac{5}{3} - \frac{5}{3} × \frac{1}{{10}} 

Concept used:

Solution:

 (0.58÷0.53)×533+1021÷1114\left( {0.5\overline 8 ÷ 0.\overline {53} } \right) × \frac{5}{{33}} + \frac{{10}}{{21}} ÷ 1\frac{1}{{14}} of 5353×110\frac{5}{3} - \frac{5}{3} × \frac{1}{{10}}

⇒ {(58 - 5)/90 ÷ (53/99)} × (5/33) + (10/21) ÷ (15/14) × (5/3) - (1/6)

⇒ {(53/90) ÷ (53/99)} × (5/33) + (10/21) × (14/15) × (5/3) - (1/6)

⇒ (11/10) × (5/33) + (2/3) × (2/5) - (1/6)

⇒ 1/6 + 4/15 - 1/6

⇒ 4/15

415\frac{{4}}{{15}} is the value of (0.58÷0.53)×533+1021÷1114\left( {0.5\overline 8 ÷ 0.\overline {53} } \right) × \frac{5}{{33}} + \frac{{10}}{{21}} ÷ 1\frac{1}{{14}} of 5353×110\frac{5}{3} - \frac{5}{3} \times \frac{1}{{10}}.

86

The marked price of an article is Rs. 240. It is sold by giving a discount of 10% on the marked price. If the profit is 8%, then what is the cost price of the article?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 175

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 210

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 180

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 200

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 200

Given:

Marked Price of the article, MP = Rs. 240

Discount% = 10, Profit% = 8

Formula Used:

Discount% = {(MP – SP)/MP} × 100

Profit% = {(SP – CP)/CP} × 100 

where, MP = Marked Price, SP = Selling Price and CP = Cost Price

Calculation:

Here, Discount% = {(MP – SP)/MP} × 100

⇒ 10 = {(240 – SP)/240} × 100

⇒ 10/100 × 240 = 240 – SP

⇒ 24 = 240 – SP

⇒ SP = 240 – 24 = 216

Now, Profit% = {(SP – CP)/CP} × 100

⇒ 8 = {(216 – CP)/CP} × 100

⇒ (8/100) × CP = 216 – CP

⇒ CP + (8/100) × CP = 216

⇒ (108/100) × CP = 216

⇒ CP = 216 × 100/108 = 200

∴ The cost price of the article is Rs. 200

Shortcut Trick

Here, MP = 240, and discount is 10%

So, SP = 90% of 240

⇒ SP = 90/100 × 240 = 216

Now, Profit is 8%

So, SP/CP = 108/100

⇒ CP = 216 × 100/108 = 200

The cost price of the article is Rs. 200

87

A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days and 15 days, respectively. They work together for 4 days. The remaining work is completed by C alone in 12 days. C alone will complete 49\frac{4}{9} part of the original work in:

  1. ((a))

    24 days

  2. ((b))

    12 days

  3. ((c))

    20 days

  4. ((d))

    16 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

16 days

Given:

Time taken by A to complete the work is 10 days.

Time taken by B to complete the work is 15 days.

Time taken by C to complete remaining work is 12 days.

Concept Used:

Time taken = (Total work done)/(Efficiency)

Calculation:

Let the work done by A, B and C be in Units.

Total Work done by (A + B) = L.C.M of (10, 15) 

⇒ 30 Units

Now,

Efficiency of A = Total Work/Time taken

⇒ 30/10 =  3 units per day

Efficiency of B = Total Work/Time taken

⇒ 30/15 =  2 units per day

Total Work done by (A + B) in 4 days = (Sum of efficiency of A and B) × 4

⇒ (3 + 2) × 4 = 20 units

Remaining Work = (30 - 20) = 10 units

Efficiency of C for completing remaining work = 10/12

⇒ (5/6) unit per day

Then,

Time taken by C to complete (4/9) part of original work = 30 × (4/9) × (6/5)

⇒ 16 days

∴ Time taken by C to complete (4/9) part of original work is 16 days.

Shortcut Trick 

EfficiencyDaysTotal work
3A1030
2B15

(A + B) = 4 × 5 = 20

Efficiency of C = (30 - 20)/12 = 10/12 = 5/6

Time taken by C to complete (4/9) part of original work = [30 × (4/9)]/(5/6)

⇒ 30 × (4/9) × (6/5) = 16 days

88

Roshan bought 36 kg sugar for Rs. 1,620. He sold it at a profit equal to the selling price of 6 kg of it. Then what is the selling price of per kg sugar?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 51

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 50

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 54

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 52

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 54

Given:

C.P. of 36 kg sugar = 1620

Profit = S.P. of 6 kg sugar

C.P. = Cost price,  S.P. = Selling price

Calculation:

Here Quantity of sold sugar = Quantity of sugar bought - profitable sugar

⇒ Quantity of sold sugar = (36 - 6) kg

⇒ Quantity of sold sugar = 30 kg

So after selling 30 kg of sugar we get C.P. of 36 kg

So, 36 × C.P. = 30 × S.P.

⇒ Rs.  1620 = 30 × S.P.

⇒ S.P. = Rs. 1620/30 = Rs. 54

∴ Roshan's selling price per kg is Rs. 54.

89

In a division sum, the divisor is 18 times the quotient and 9 times the remainder. If the remainder is 26, then the dividend is:

  1. ((a))

    3055

  2. ((b))

    3072

  3. ((c))

    3068

  4. ((d))

    3042

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3068

Given:

Divisor is 18 times of quotient and 9 times the remainder

Remainder is 26

Formula used:

Dividend = Divisor(D) × Quotient(Q) + Remainder

Calculation:

If D = 18Q, R = 26

Dividend = Divisor(D) × Quotient(Q) + Remainder

⇒ 18Q × Q + 26      ----(1)

If D = 9 × 26, R = 26 

Dividend = Divisor(D) × Quotient(Q) + Remainder

⇒ 9 × 26 × Q + 26      ----(2)

Compare equation (1) and (2)

⇒ 18Q × Q + 26 = 9 × 26 × Q + 26 

⇒ 18Q2 = 9 × 26 × Q

⇒ Q = 13

Put the value of Q in equation (2)

Dividend = 9 × 26 × 13 + 26

⇒ 26(117 + 1)

⇒ 3068

The dividend is 3068

90

The perimeter of a rhombus is 148 cm and one of its diagonals is 70 cm. Its area is equal to the area of a rectangle whose sides are in ratio 7 ∶ 3. The longer side of the rectangle is:

  1. ((a))

    7107\sqrt {10} cm

  2. ((b))

    858\sqrt {5} cm

  3. ((c))

    454\sqrt {5} cm

  4. ((d))

    141014\sqrt {10} cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

141014\sqrt {10} cm

Given:

The perimeter of a rhombus = 148 cm

One diagonal = 70 cm

The ratio of sides of rectangle = 7 : 3

Concept used:

The diagonals of a rhombus are intersected each other at right angle.

Formula Used: 

Area of Rhombus = 1/2 × d×  d2

where,

d1, dare diagonals of the rhombus.

Calculation:

In right-angle triangle  ΔAOB,

⇒ AB2 = AO+ OB2

⇒ (37)= (35)2 + OB2

⇒ OB2 =1369 - 1225 = 144

⇒ OB = 12

AC = 2 × OB =2 × 12 = 24 cm

Area of rhombus = 1/2 × 24 × 70 = 840

Now, Area of rhombus = Area of rectangle

Let the side of rectangle be 7x and 3x respectively.

⇒ 7x × 3x = 840

⇒ x2 = 40

⇒ x = 2√10

Longer side of rectangle = 7x = 7 × 2√10 = 14√10

∴ Longer side of rectangle is 14√10 cm.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to activate a browser tab to the left of the current tab in a Chrome browser?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + Page up

  2. ((b))

    Alt + Page down

  3. ((c))

    Alt + Left arrow

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Right arrow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + Page up

The correct answer is Ctrl + Page up.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + Page up shortcut is used to activate a browser tab to the left of the current tab in a Chrome browser.

Additional Information

ActionShortcut
Open a new windowCtrl + n
Open a new window in Incognito modeCtrl + Shift + n
Open a new tab, and jump to itCtrl + t
Reopen previously closed tabs in the order they were closedCtrl + Shift + t
Jump to the next open tabCtrl + Tab or Ctrl + PgDn
Jump to the previous open tabCtrl + Shift + Tab or Ctrl + PgUp
Jump to a specific tabCtrl + 1 through Ctrl + 8
Jump to the rightmost tabCtrl + 9
Open your home page in the current tabAlt + Home
Open the previous page from your browsing history in the current tabAlt + Left arrow
Open the next page from your browsing history in the current tabAlt + Right arrow
Close the current tabCtrl + w or Ctrl + F4
Close the current windowCtrl + Shift + w or Alt + F4
Minimize the current windowAlt + Space then n
Maximize the current windowAlt + Space then x
Quit Google ChromeAlt + f then x

Source:-https://support.google.com/chrome/answer/157179?co=GENIE.Platform%3DDesktop&hl=en#zippy=%2Ctab-and-window-shortcuts

92

What will be the result of the following MS Excel formula?

= EVEN(3) + ODD(8)

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

13

The correct answer is 13.

Key Points

  • The answer of the formula = EVEN(3) + ODD(8) in excel is 13.

Additional Information

  • The EVEN function rounds a positive number up to the nearest even integer i.e. 3 will become 4.
  • The ODD function rounds a positive number up to the nearest odd integer i.e. 8 will become 9.
  • Hence, 9+4= 13.
  • A function is a predefined formula that performs calculations using specific values in a particular order.
  • How to Write Formulas in Excel
  • All Excel formulas start with an equal (=) sign.
  • The answer to the formula is displayed in the cell into which the formula is entered.
  • Cells are referenced in a formula by their column-row identifier.
  • The symbols for addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division are: + - * /
  • We do not have to enter capital letters in the formula, They will be capitalized automatically.
93

Consider a formula "= B2 + 4" in cell A1. If cell A1 is copied and pasted into D4, then what will be the formula in D4?

  1. ((a))

    = B4 + 7

  2. ((b))

    = D4 + 4

  3. ((c))

    = E5 + 4

  4. ((d))

    = B2 + 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

= E5 + 4

The correct answer is = E5 + 4.

Key Points

  • If a formula = B2 + 4 is in cell A1 then cell A1 is copied into D4, then the formula in D4 will be = E5 + 4.

Additional Information

  • How to Write Formulas in Excel
  • All Excel formulas start with an equal (=) sign.
  • The answer to the formula is displayed in the cell into which the formula is entered.
  • Cells are referenced in a formula by their column-row identifier.
  • The symbols for addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division are: + - * /
  • We do not have to enter capital letters in the formula, They will be capitalized automatically.
94

In MS Excel, the 'Zoom' option appears in the:

  1. ((a))

    title bar

  2. ((b))

    formula bar

  3. ((c))

    status bar

  4. ((d))

    horizontal scroll bar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

status bar

The correct answer is the Status bar.

Key Points

  • In MS Excel, the 'Zoom' option appears in the Status bar.

Additional Information

  • The minus and plus symbols are there in the status bar. which are used to quickly zoom the document.
  • The Status Bar is the area at the bottom in Excel where various information about the current mode or any special keys that are engaged can be seen.
  • The formula bar can be used to edit the content of any cell and can be expanded to show multiple lines for the same formula. It displays the contents of the cell.
  • The title bar displays the title of the window and It includes the close, minimize, and maximize buttons.
95

Which of the following appears as a part of the 'Paragraph' command group within the Home menu in recent versions of MS Word, such as Word 2016?

  1. ((a))

    Copy

  2. ((b))

    Replace

  3. ((c))

    Bullets

  4. ((d))

    Format Painter

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bullets

The correct answer is Bullets.

Key Points

  • "Bullets" appears as a part of the 'Paragraph' command group within the Home menu in recent versions of MS Word, such as Word 2016.

Additional Information

  • A bullet is an asterisk, black dot, circle, or another mark found before the text.
  • They are utilized to identify key items or denote significance.
  • Paragraph group
  • Add bullets
  • Add numbers
  • Apply indents
  • Sort paragraphs
  • Show the paragraph mark
  • Align paragraphs
  • Adjust line spacing
  • Change the background color
  • Add borders.
96

State whether the following statements related to MS Word are true or false?

(i) In Landscape orientation, the height of a page is larger than its width.

(ii) In Portrait orientation, the width of a page is larger than its height.

  1. ((a))

    (i) True, (ii) False

  2. ((b))

    (i) False, (ii) False

  3. ((c))

    (i) False, (ii) True

  4. ((d))

    (i) True, (ii) True

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(i) False, (ii) False

The correct answer is (i) False, (ii) False

Key Points

  • In Landscape orientation, the width of a page is larger than its height.
  • In Portrait orientation, the height of a page is larger than its width.
  • Hence, both the above statements are False.
97

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts can be used to insert a hyperlink in an MS Word document?

  1. ((a))

    Alt + K

  2. ((b))

    Alt + L

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + K

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + L

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + K

The correct answer is Ctrl + K.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + K is used to insert a hyperlink in an MS Word document.

Additional Information

  • A hyperlink is a word, phrase, or image that you can click on to jump to a new document or a new section within the current document.
Open a document.Ctrl+O
Create a new document.Ctrl+N
Save the document.Ctrl+S
Close the document.Ctrl+W
Cut the selected content to the Clipboard.Ctrl+X
Copy the selected content to the Clipboard.Ctrl+C
Paste the contents of the Clipboard.Ctrl+V
Select all document content.Ctrl+A
Apply bold formatting to the text.Ctrl+B
Apply italic formatting to text.Ctrl+I
Apply underline formatting to text.Ctrl+U
Decrease the font size by 1 point.Ctrl+[
Increase the font size by 1 point.Ctrl+]
Centre the text.Ctrl+E
Align the text to the left.Ctrl+L
Align the text to the right.Ctrl+R
Cancel a command.Esc
Undo the previous action.Ctrl+Z
Redo the previous action, if possible.Ctrl+Y
Adjust the zoom magnification.Alt+W, Q, then tab in Zoom dialogue box to the value you want.
Split the document window.Ctrl+Alt+S
Remove the document window split.Alt+Shift+C or Ctrl+Alt+S

Source:- [https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/keyboard-shortcuts-in-apps-139014e7-177b-d1f3-eb2e-7298b2599a34#bkmk_wor

d](https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/keyboard-shortcuts-in-apps-139014e7-177b-d1f3-eb2e-7298b2599a34#bkmk_word)

98

Which of the following notations is generally used to represent an IP address in an understandable format?

  1. ((a))

    Binary notation

  2. ((b))

    Hexadecimal notation

  3. ((c))

    Octal notation

  4. ((d))

    Dotted-decimal notation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dotted-decimal notation

The correct answer is Dotted-decimal notation.

Key Points

  • An IP address is often represented in the dotted-decimal format.

Additional Information

  • An IP address (internet protocol address) is a numerical representation and is a unique identification of a specific interface on the network.
  • There are two versions of IP.
  • IPv4 addresses are 32-bits long. They are expressed in the dotted-decimal format.
  • IPv6 addresses are 128-bits. They are expressed in the dotted-hexadecimal format
99

While printing an MS Word document, we can set the number of copies to be printed. By default, you will have ______ copy/copies of the document.

  1. ((a))

    one

  2. ((b))

    two

  3. ((c))

    three

  4. ((d))

    eight

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

one

The correct answer is One.

Key Points

  • While printing an MS Word document, we can set the number of copies to be printed.
  • By default, we will have one copy of the document.
100

Which of the following protocols pulls messages from the email server?

  1. ((a))

    HTTP

  2. ((b))

    POP

  3. ((c))

    SMTP

  4. ((d))

    Both, SMTP and POP

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

POP

The correct answer is POP.

Key Points

  • The post office protocol (POP) is a commonly used message request protocol for transferring messages from an e-mail server to an e-mail client.

Additional Information

  • A protocol is a set of rules or procedures for transmitting data between electronic devices, such as computers. 
  • Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a protocol for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML.
  • Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a method to transfer mail from one user to anotherSMTP is a push protocol and is used to send mail.
  • POP or IMAP (internet message access protocol) is used to retrieve those emails at the receiver’s side.

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