Delhi Police Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 3 Dec 2020 Shift 1)

The correct answer is 2024.

• As of July 2020, the Government of India set the target of doubling farmers’ income by 2024.

Key Points

• The NDA government in the first term had set out the target to double the farmers’ income by 2022.
• Steps were taken by the government to increase the income
• improvement in crop productivity
• improvement in livestock productivity
• resource use efficiency or savings in the cost of production
• increase in the cropping intensity
• diversification towards high-value crops
• improvement in real prices received by farmers
• The shift from farm to non-farm occupations.
• Importance of Agriculture:
• Contribution to GDP(About one-fifth)
• Contribution to Employment: Agriculture provides livelihood to more than half of the population (about 60 percent).
• Contribution to Trade
• It is also an important source of raw material for a vast segment of the industry.

The correct answer is Harmonium.

• Tulsidas Borkar is associated with Harmonium.

Key Points

• He was the recipient of the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
• He was also the recipient of Bal Gandharva Gaurav Puraskar.
• Harmonium:
• Harmonium usually belongs to the family of free-reed aerophones.
• The instrument is a small, tabletop size organ that has bellows at the back that is pumped by one hand while the other hand plays the keyboard.

Additional Information

• Ustaad Bismillah Khan was associated with Shehnai.
• Shehnai the wind instrument is believed to have been introduced in India by the Muslims.
• Shehnai is the predominant double-reed wind instrument used in North Indian music.
• Zakir Hussain is associated with Tabla.
• Tabla is the most popular pair of drums in the Indian Sub-continent.
• Tabla is a pair of drums that consists of a small right-hand drum called Dayan and a larger metal one called bayan
• Hariprasad Chaurasia is a maestro of flute.

The correct answer is Article 61.

• Article 61 of the Constitution of India provides the procedure for the impeachment of the President.

Key Points

• Impeachment of the President:
• Under Article 61, the President can be impeached from office for “violation of the Constitution”.
• The impeachment can be initiated by either House of Parliament.
• The resolution must be moved after at least 14 days notice in writing signed by not less than 1/4 of total members of the House and passed by two-thirds of the total membership.

Additional Information

• Article 78 deals with the duty of the Prime Minister to:
• To communicate to the President, for all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
• To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the
  

President may call for.

• Article 73 states that 
• The executive power of the Union shall extend to the matters with respect to which Parliament has the power to make laws.
• Article 88 states that
• Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

• Gol Gumbaz, the tomb of Adil Shah, is situated in Karnataka.

Key Points

• Gol Gumbaz is situated in Bijapur, Karnataka.
• Gol Gumbaz built by Mohammad Adil Shah is the largest masonry dome in the world.

Important Points

• Adil Shahis of Bijapur (1490 AD-1686 AD)
• It was founded by Yusuf Adil Shah.
• It was annexed by Aurangzeb.
• Mohammed Adil Shah was the seventh ruler of Bijapur.
• The greatest ruler of the kingdom was Ibrahim Adil Shah.
• He introduced Dakini in place of the Persian language.

Additional Information

• Adil Shahis belonged to the Bahamani Kingdom.
• Bahamani Kingdom
• The Bahamani kingdom of Deccan was founded by Hasan Gangu.
• The capital was Gulbarga.
• Hasan Gangu took the title of Alauddin Hasan Bahaman Shah and became the first king of Bahaman in 1347 AD.

The correct answer is Prithvirajsing Roopun.

• The National Assembly of the Republic of Mauritius had unanimously elected Prithvirajsing Roopun as the President of Mauritius in December 2019.

Key Points

• The National Assembly of the Republic of Mauritius has unanimously elected Prithvirajsing Roopun, as the new President of the island nation.
• He was the former arts and culture minister of the country.
• In Mauritius, Prime Minister is head of government and holds most political power while the president is head of state and has no executive role, and is considered a guardian of the constitution.

Important Points

• Prime Minister in India:
• Prime Minister is the head of the government while the President is the head of the State of the Republic of India.
• Article 75 says that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President.
• Oath, Term, and Salary
• The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the President.​

Additional Information

• Ameenah Gurib-Fakim was the 6th President of Mauritius from 2015 to 2018.
• Rajkeswur Purryag served as 5th President of Mauritius from 2012 to May 2015.
• Pravind Kumar Jugnauth is the current Prime Minister of Mauritius.

The correct answer is Babur.

Key Points

• The Battle of Khanwa was fought on March 16, 1527, between the Mughal forces of Babur and the Rajput Confederacy led by Rana Sanga.
• The battle was fought near the town of Khanwa, about 60 kilometres west of Agra.
• The Mughals were victorious in the battle, which was a major turning point in the Mughal conquest of India.
• The victory consolidated Babur's rule in northern India and paved the way for the Mughals to become the dominant power in the region for centuries to come.
• Rana Sanga was a powerful Rajput ruler who had united the Rajputs against the Mughals.
• He was a skilled general and had a large army, but he was ultimately defeated by Babur's superior artillery and tactics.
• The Battle of Khanwa was a costly victory for the Mughals, but it was a decisive one.
• It ensured that the Mughals would become the dominant power in northern India, and it had a profound impact on the course of Indian history.

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Key Points 

• Abdul Ghaffar Khan was born in 1890, in Utmanzai, India and died on  Jan. 20, 1988, in Peshawar, Pakistan.
• He was closely identified with Gandhi because of his non-violence principles and he is known in India as the 'Frontier Gandhi'.
• He was the foremost 20th-century leader of the Pashtuns (Pakhtuns, or Pathans; a Muslim ethnic group of Pakistan).
• In 1921 he was elected president of a district Khilafat committee in his native North-West Frontier Province.
• He was staunchly opposed to the two-nation theory. Eventually, his voice was simply ignored and the NWFP was made to merge with
  

Pakistan.

• Throughout his life, he never lost faith in his non-violent methods or the compatibility of Islam and non-violence.
• He recognised it as a jihad struggle with only the enemy holding swords.

Important Points 

• He was also known as Bacha Khan.
• Under the leadership of Abdul Gaffar Khan, popularly known as The Frontier Gandhi, the Pathans organized the society of Khudai Khidmatgars (servants of God) known popularly as Red Shirts.
• He was the second foreigner to receive the Bharat Ratna in 1987.
• The first was Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhiu, better known as Mother Teresa in 1980, and Nelson Mandela in 1990.

Additional Information

• Sachindra Sanyal and Chandrashekhar Azad founded the Hindustan Republican Association in 1924.
• Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Independence of India League.
• Jawaharlal Nehru is also known as Chacha
• Bhagat Singh was known as Sahid-e-Azam.

The correct answer is Article 323A.

• Article 323A deals with the Administrative Tribunal in India.

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIVA to the Constitution.
• This Part is entitled ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles.
• Article 323A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
• The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) Prohibition and certiorari are both issued against court or Tribunals exercising judicial or quasi-judicial powers.

Additional Information

• Article 271 in The Constitution Of India 1949 says
• Surcharge on certain duties and taxes for purposes of the Union Notwithstanding anything in Articles 269 and 270, Parliament may at any time increase any of the duties or taxes referred in those articles.
• Article 290(a) in The Constitution Of India 1949 says
• In the case of a charge on the Consolidated Fund of India, the court or Commission serves any of the separate needs of a State, or the person has served wholly or in part in connection with the affairs of a State.
• Article 307 of the Constitution of India deals with
• The Appointment of authority for carrying out the purposes of articles 301 to 304 Important Schedules of the Indian Constitution is as follows:
• 6th Schedule: Administration of Tribal Areas of North-Eastern States.
• 7th Schedule: Distribution of power between the Union and the State Government (Union List, State List and Concurrent List).
• 8th Schedule: Description of 22 languages recognized by the constitution.
• 9th Schedule: Validation of certain Acts and Regulations.
• 10th Schedule: Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection (Anti-defection Law introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act).

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

• Dumhal is a famous folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

• The Dumhal dance is the popular folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir.
• This dance is only performed by the men of the Wattal tribe of the region.
• It is presented on specific auspicious occasions in the tribe.
• The songs on which the dancers perform are folk songs that are sung by them in chorus.
• Rauf, Hikat, Mandjas, Kud Dandi Nach, and Damali are some other folk dances of Jammu and Kashmir

Additional Information

• Pandav Nritya, Bhotia Dance, and Cholia Dance are the folk dances of Uttarakhand.
• Saila Dance, Karma Dance, Sua Nacha, Pandavani, and Panthi Dance are the folk dances of Chhattisgarh.
• Jawara, Matki, Aada, Khada Nach, Phulpati and Grida Dance are the folk dances of Madhya Pradesh.

The correct answer is the hydrologic cycle.

• The water cycle is also called the hydrologic cycle.

Key Points

• The water cycle is also called the hydrologic cycle, a cycle that involves the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system.
• The processes involved in the water cycle are evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, and runoff.
• The main factors affecting evaporation are temperature, humidity, wind speed, and solar radiation.
• The direct measurement of evaporation, though desirable, is difficult and possible only at point locations.

The correct answer is Sofia Kenin.

• Sofia Kenin won the women's singles title at the Australian Open.

Key Points

• Sofia Kenin won her first Grand Slam title, defeating Garbiñe Muguruza in the final.
• She became the first American woman other than Serena Williams to win the Australian Open women's singles title since Jennifer Capriati in 2002.
• Sports term associated with Tennis is Volley, Late service, Half volley, Backhand, Drive spin, Chop, etc.
• The 8 major Major Tennis Tournaments are:-
• Wimbledon, US Open, Australian Open, French Open, Summer Games Tennis Tournament, BNP Paribas Open, WTP Finals, ATP Finals.

Additional Information

• Novak Djokovic won his eighth Australian Open and 17^th Grand Slam singles title.
• Garbine Muguruza is a Spanish tennis player who had won two Grand Slam tournaments (Roland Garros 2016 and Wimbledon 2017), five WTA singles titles (Monterrey 2018, Cincinnati 2017, Beijing 2015, and Hobart 2014), and five WTA doubles titles.
• Simona Halep is a Romanian professional tennis player and has won two grand slam titles.
• Serena Jameka Williams is an American professional tennis player and has won 23 Grand Slam singles titles.

The correct answer is Haryana.

• Haryana is having the lowest sex ratio in India according to the 2011 census.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 census:
• The state has the lowest sex ratio—Haryana (879) ​
• India accounts for a meagre 2.4 per cent of the world surface area of 135.79 million sq km.
• India supports 17.5 per cent of the World Population.
• Life Expectancy at Birth — 63.5 years, Male —62.6 years, Female — 64.2 years
• The first census was undertaken in 1872 but a systematic program of Population Census started in 1881.
• The highest Death Rate among states is in Odisha — 98 per thousand.
• The lowest Death Rate among states is in Kerala — 16 per thousand.
• The decadal growth rate in Population — 17.7%
• The state has the lowest population decadal growth rate — Nagaland (–0.6%)
• Four cities having the highest population in India are Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, and Chennai respectively.

Additional Information 

• Andhra Pradesh was the first state to prepare a population policy.
• Highest Scheduled Caste population is in Uttar Pradesh.
• Highest Scheduled Tribe Population is in  Madhya Pradesh.
• Lowest Scheduled Caste Population is in Nagaland.
• Lowest Scheduled Tribe Population is in  Punjab.

The correct answer is Oxygen.

Important Points

• Oxygen is necessary for combustion.

Key Points

• Oxygen (O₂)
• It was discovered by K. Scheele.
• It is non-combustible but helps in combustion.

Additional Information

• Carbon Monoxide (CO) is formed by incomplete combustion.
• It is a colourless, odourless gas.
• Hydrogen is the lightest gas.
• Hydrogen is the only atom in which neutrons are not present.
• Elements have the following order of abundance in the human body: Oxygen > carbon > hydrogen > nitrogen.

The correct answer is 1999-2000.

• Seed Crop Insurance began in India in the year 1999-2000.

Key Points

• Seed Crop Insurance (PSSCI) was introduced in Kharif 2000 season.
• It was introduced as a Pilot Scheme.
• It was introduced in 11 States to provide financial security & income stability to the Seed Growers in the event of failure of the seed crop.
• Another objective of the scheme 
• To provide stability to the infrastructure established by the State-owned Seed Corporations and State Farms and to give a boost to the modern seed industry by bringing it under scientific principles.
• The seed-producing organizations, under Govt. or private control, producing certain classes of seed for identified Crops, States and Areas were eligible.
• Agriculture and Five Year Plans
• The highest outlay on agriculture was during the First Plan, it was 31%.
• Agriculture and allied sectors contribute nearly 18% of national income (GNI of India), while about 60% of the population is dependent on agriculture for their livelihood.

The correct answer is Kristalina Georgieva.

• Kristalina Georgieva was selected as the IMF’s Managing Director by the Executive Board of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in September 2019.

Key Points

• Ms. Georgieva succeeded Christine Lagarde, is the first person from an emerging market economy to lead the IMF since its inception in 1944.
• Kristalina Georgieva is the first person from an emerging market economy to lead the IMF.
• The term of IMF Managing Director and Chair of the Executive Board is of five-years.
• Kristalina Georgieva is from Bulgaria.
• She has been the Chief Executive Officer of the World Bank since January 2017.

Additional Information

• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• Founded in 1945
• Managing Director: Kristalina Georgieva
• Headquarters is in Washington, U.S
• Gita Gopinath is the Chief Economist.

The correct answer is Sana Marin.

• The World's youngest serving Prime Minister is Sana Marin.

Key Points

• The World's youngest serving Prime Minister is Sana Marin.
• Sanna Marin is a politician who has been the Prime Minister of Finland since 10 December 2019.
• At 35, she is the youngest female state leader and Finland's youngest-ever prime minister.

Additional Information​

• Katri Kulmuni is a Finland politician and former leader of the Centre Party of Finland.
• Li Sigrid Andersson is a Finland politician and she is the leader of the Left Alliance, a Member of the Finnish Parliament.
• Maria Ohisalo is the minister of interior in Finland and a member of the Green League.

Important Points

• Prime Minister is the head of the government while President is the head of the State of the Republic of India.
• Article 75 says that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President.
• The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
• However, this does not mean that the President can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time.

The correct answer is Baseball.

• Baseball is the National Game of the US.

Key Points

• It is also the National Game of the Cuba and Dominican Republic.
• Terms used in Baseball are Pinching, Home Run, Base Runner, Throw, Perfect Game, Strike, Putout, etc.
• International Baseball Federation is located in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• It was Founded in 1938.
• It current President is Riccardo Fraccari.

Additional Information

• No country has Tennis as its national sport.
• The terminology used in Tennis is Service, Grandslam, Advantage, Deuce, Game Point, Breakpoint; Smash, Shot, Grass Court. Break, Drop shot, Netplay, Baseline, etc.
• Basketball is the national sport of Lithuania.
• The terminology used in basketball is Free Throw, Technical Foul, Common Foul, Under Head, Overhead, etc
• Golf is the national sport of Scotland.

The correct answer is Operation Greens.

• Operation Greens scheme announced by the Government of India to boost production and processing of tomatoes, onions and potatoes as part of an objective to check price volatility in these items.

Key Points

• The government in the year 2018 approved guidelines for the Rs 500 crore 'Operation Greens'.
• The program will boost the production and processing of tomato, onion, and potato as part of an objective to check price volatility in these three key kitchen staples.
• The Ministry of Food Processing Industries under Union Minister Harsimrat Kaur Badal passed the guidelines.

The correct answer is 2.

• The pH of the acidic solution is 2.

Key Points

• It is a measure of acidity or the basicity of a solution.
• It is defined as the negative logarithm of the concentration in (mol/L) of hydrogen ions that it contains.
• It is seven for a neutral solution, greater than seven for the basic solution, and less than seven for the acidic solution.
• The pH scale ranges from 0 (strongly acidic) to 14 (strongly basic or alkaline).
• A pH of 7.0 in the middle of this scale is neutral.

Additional Information

• The pH scale, otherwise known as the acid-base scale.
• The pH of blood tells it is acidic.
• Changes to blood pH can signal underlying medical issues.
• Litmus is a water-soluble mixture of different dyes extracted from lichens and it is one of the oldest forms of pH indicator.
• The main use of litmus is to test whether a solution is acidic or basic.
• Light Blue litmus paper turns red under acidic conditions and red litmus paper turns blue under basic or alkaline conditions.

The correct answer is the US, Canada, Mexico.

• FIFA world cup 2026 will be held in the US, Canada, Mexico.

Key Points

• The 2026 FIFA World Cup will be the 23^rd FIFA World Cup tournament and it will be hosted in Canada, Mexico, and the United States.
• The first football club in the world ‘Sheffield Football Club’ was founded in the year 1857 in England.
• The first football club of India, named 'Calcutta FC', was founded in 1872.
• The apex institution of football is ‘Federation of International formed by seven countries on May 21, 1904.
• The headquarters of FIFA is in Zürich, Switzerland.

Additional Information

• Football was included as a competitive game in Olympic Games officially in 1908.
• India took part in the World Olympic Football Competition in 1948 in London.
• The first World Cup was organized at Monte (Uruguay) in 1930.
• In India, Indian Football Association (IFA) organizes National Football Championship. 
• The trophy awarded in their competition is called Santosh Trophy.

The correct answer is Manjira.

• Singur Dam has been built on the river Manjira.

Key Points

• The river is also called Manjara.
• It originates in the Balaghat range of hills in Maharashtra and enters Karnataka before entering the state of Telangana.
• Singur dam was built in the year 1989.
• It was built for hydroelectric and irrigational purposes.
• Manjira River is the tributary of the river Godavari.

Additional Information

• Godavari river originates from Triambak Sahyadri near Nashik, Maharashtra.
• The Rigvedic name of Jhelum was Vitasta.
• Sardar Sarovar Dam, Omkareshwar Dam, and Bargi Dam are on the Narmada river.
• Krishna Raja Sagara Dam, Kallanai Dam, Mettur Dam, and Kabini Dam are on the Kaveri river.

The correct answer is from 1658 to 1707 AD.

• Aurangzeb ruled the Mughal empire from 1658 to 1707 AD.

Key Points

• Aurangzeb (1658 AD-1707 AD):
• Aurangzeb defeated Dara at Dharmat (1658 AD), Samugarh (1658 AD), and Deorai, in which Samugarh was the decisive one and Deorai was the last one.
• After the victory, Aurangzeb was crowned at Delhi under the title Alamgir. He died in February 1707 in Ahmadnagar.
• Aurangzeb captured Guru Teg Bahadur, the 9th Guru of Sikhs in 1675 AD and executed him when he refused to embrace Islam.
• The 10th and last Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh, son of Guru Teg Bahadur, organized his followers into a community of warriors called Khalsa to fight against the Muslims.
• Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was the most powerful Maratha king and an arch-enemy of Aurangzeb.
• The Mughal conquests reached a climax during Aurangzeb’s reign as Bijapur and Golconda were annexed in 1686 AD and 1687 AD, respectively.
• Under him, the Mughal empire reached its greatest extent and the largest single-state ever known in India.
• He forbade the inscription of Kalma on the coins, also forbade sati and Jharokha-darshan.
• He ended the celebration of Navroz and, in 1679 AD, reimposed Jizya.

Additional Information

• Aurangzeb was initiated into the Naqshbandiya order.
• The only monument associated with Aurangzeb is Bibi ka Maqbara, which is the tomb of his wife Rabbia-ud-Daura, in Aurangabad.

The correct answer is Kandla.

• Kandla Port has been renamed as Deendayal Port.

Key Points

• Asia’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was set up in Kandla, India in 1965.
• Kandla in Gujarat is a tidal port.
• It has been made into a free trade zone.
• Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya was the leader of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh from 1953 to 1968.

Additional Information 

• Ports in India:
• India has about 190 ports, with 13 major and the rest intermediate and minor.
• The largest port of India is Jawaharlal Nehru Port in Mumbai.
• The largest natural port is in Vishakhapatnam.
• Mumbai Port is the busiest port in India.
• Large ports are maintained by the Central Government whereas small ports are included in the concurrent list and are managed by the State Government.
• Tuticorin is an artificial deep-sea dock and is also known as VO Chidambaranar Port.
• Ennore Port is also known as Kamarajar Port Limited.

The correct answer is Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy.

• Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy:
• The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
• They embody the concept of a welfare state.
• These are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• They are non-justifiable.
• They apply to both Union and State Governments and all other authorities coming under the definition of ‘State’.

Additional Information

• Part II of the Constitution of India deals with Citizenship in Articles 5-11.
• Part III of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Rights in Articles 12-35.
• Part IV A of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Duties in Article 51A.
• In 1976, the FDs of citizens were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act on the basis of the Swaran Singh Committee Report

The correct answer is Mohammad Iqbal.

• Mohammad Iqbal is the writer of the song “Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara”.

Key Points

• The song was written in the Urdu language.
• It is also referred to as “Tarana -e -Hind”.
• It was originally was published in the weekly journal Ittihad on August 16, 1904.

Additional Information

• National Anthem:-
• The song Jana-Gana-Mana, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950.
• It was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress.
• Rabindranath Tagore had published it in ‘Tatvabodhini’ in 1912 with the title ‘Bharat Bhagya Vidhata’ and translated it into English in 1919 with the title ‘Morning song of India’.
• The credit of composing the present tune (music) of our national anthem goes to Captain Ram Singh Thakur (an I.N.A. sepoy).
• National Song:-
• The song ‘Vande Mataram’ was composed in Sanskrit by Bankim Chandra Chatterji.
• It has an equal status with Jana-Gana-Mana.
• The first political occasion when it was sung was at the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress.
• The song was published in the novel ‘Anandmath’, authored by Bankim Chandra Chatterji, and was adopted as the National Song on 24 January 1950.

The correct answer is Bernardine Evaristo.

• Margaret Atwood and Bernardine Evaristo were named the joint winners of the 2019 Booker Prize.

Key Points

• Margaret  Atwood won the award for her writing The Testaments.
• She is from Canada.
• Bernardine Evaristo won the award for her book Girl, Woman, Other.
• ​She is from London.
• MAN BOOKER PRIZE:
• The Man Booker Prize for Fiction is a literary prize awarded each year for the best novel originally written in English and published in the UK in the year of the prize, regardless of the nationality of their author.
• The novel must be an original work in English (not a translation) and must not be self-published.
• Prior to 2014, eligibility for the award was restricted to citizens of the Commonwealth of Nations, Ireland, or Zimbabwe.

Additional Information

• Sir V.S. Naipaul won the award for his novel In a Free State in 1971.
• Salman Rushdie won the award for his novel Midnight's Children won in 1981.
• Arundhati Roy won the Booker Prize in 1997 for her first novel The God of Small Things.

The correct answer is Virat Kohli.

• Virat Kohli was named as the captain of Cricket Australia's Test team of the decade in December 2019.

Key Points

• Virat Kohli is the current captain of the Indian cricket team.
• Virat Kohli awards and achievements
• He has won Padma Shri in 2017.
• Wisden Cricketers of the Year 2019
• ICC ODI Team of the Year
• Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna 2018
• Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy 2018

Additional Information

• Mahendra Singh Dhoni was chosen as the leader of its ODI team of the decade. 
• He captained India to two World titles i.e. in 2007 and 2011.
• Dale Steyn is a South African player.
• Alastair Cook is an English cricketer.
• Steve Smith is an Australian cricketer.

The correct answer is General Ayub Khan.

• General Ayub Khan bestowed upon Milkha Singh the title of the ‘Flying Sikh’.

Key Points

• Gen Ayub Khan was Pakistan's second president.
• Milkha Singh became the first Indian male to reach the final of an Olympic athletics event when he placed fourth in the 400-meter race at the 1960 Olympic Games in Rome.
• He won both the 200-meter and 400-meter races in the 1958 Asian Games.
• Milkha Singh was awarded the Padma Shri in 1959.
• He also served as the director of sports in Punjab.
• The Race of My Life is his autobiography co-written by his daughter Sonia Sanwalka, was published in 2013.

The correct answer is Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

• G.K Gokhale founded servants of the Indian Society.

Key Points

• Gandhiji regarded him as his political guru.
• He was the President of the Banaras Session of INC, 1905, supported the Swadeshi Movement.
• He was the founder of the Servants of Indian Society in 1905.
• The INC took up the Swadeshi call in the Benares Session, 1905 AD presided by G.K. Gokhale and supported the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement of Bengal nationalism spearheaded by Trio of Lal-Bal- Pal (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal).

Additional Information

• Dadabhai Naoroji:-
• Also known as the "Grand Old Man of India" and "Unofficial Ambassador of India".
• Motilal Nehru:-
• Formed the Congress-Khilafat Swarajaya Party with Das as the president and Nehru as one of the secretaries.
• Lala Lajpat Rai:-
• He was popularly known as Punjab Kesari.
• Tilak took the Swadesi movement to different parts of India, especially in Pune and Bombay.
• Ajit Singh and Lala Lajpat Rai spread the Swadeshi message in Punjab and other parts of Northern India.
• Syed Haider Raza set up to agenda in Delhi.
• Chidambaram Pillai took the movement to Madras Presidency

The correct answer is 1949.

• RBI was nationalized in the year 1949.

Key Points

• ​Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• RBI was set up on the basis of the Hilton Young Commission recommendation in April 1935, with the enactment of the RBI Act, 1934.
• It was nationalized on the basis of the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948.
• Its first Governor was C.D. Deshmukh.
• The headquarters of RBI is in Mumbai.
• Current governor of RBI is Shaktikanta Das.

Additional Information

• Quantitative/General Credit Control
• The quantitative credit control consists of:
• Bank Rate:
• It is also called the rediscount rate. It is the rate, at which the RBI gives finance to commercial banks.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
• The RBI (Amendment) Bill, 2006, empowers RBI to prescribe CRR–Cash that banks deposit with the RBI without any floor rate or ceiling rate.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• It is the ratio of a liquid asset, which all commercial banks have to keep in the form of cash, gold, and unencumbered approved securities equal to not more than 40% of their total demand and time deposit liabilities (ranges is 25‑40%).
• Repo Rate:
• It is the rate, at which RBI lends short-term money to the bank against securities.
• Reverse Repo Rate:
• It is the rate, at which banks park short-term excess liquidity with the RBI.
• Open Market Operations (OMOs):
• Under OMOs, the RBI sells G-securities in the market.
• Quantitative credit controls are used to control the volume of credit and indirectly to control the inflationary and deflationary pressures caused by expansion and contraction of credit.

The correct answer is four.

• As per its preamble, RBI CANNOT have more than four deputy governors.

Key Points

• Current governor of RBI is Shaktikanta Das.
• ​Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• RBI was set up on the basis of the Hilton Young Commission recommendation in April 1935, with the enactment of the RBI Act, 1934.
• Its first Governor was C.D. Deshmukh.
• The headquarters of RBI is in Mumbai.

Additional Information

• Quantitative/General Credit Control
• Quantitative credit controls are used to control the volume of credit and indirectly to control the inflationary and deflationary pressures caused by expansion and contraction of credit.
• The quantitative credit control consists of:
• Bank Rate:
• It is also called the rediscount rate. It is the rate, at which the RBI gives finance to commercial banks.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
• The RBI (Amendment) Bill, 2006, empowers RBI to prescribe CRR–Cash that banks deposits with the RBI without any floor rate or ceiling rate.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• It is the ratio of a liquid asset, which all commercial banks have to keep in the form of cash, gold and unencumbered approved securities equal to not more than 40% of their total demand and time deposit liabilities (ranges is 25‑40%).
• Repo Rate:
• It is the rate, at which RBI lends short-term money to the bank against securities.
• Reverse Repo Rate:
• It is the rate, at which banks park short-term excess liquidity with the RBI.
• Open Market Operations (OMOs):
• Under OMOs, the RBI sells G-securities in the market.

The correct answer is Rs. 5 lakh.

• The amount of Rs. 5 lakh of annual health cover available to a family under the Ayushman Bharat Scheme of the Government of India.

Key Points

• Ayushman Bharat:
• Ayushman Bharat is a health protection Insurance scheme to provide health insurance to citizens.
• It provides insurance coverage of up to Rs.5 lakh on a family floater basis to beneficiaries every year in order to receive primary, secondary, and tertiary healthcare services.
• The scheme was earlier known as AB-NHPS as it is an initiative under the existing National Health Protection Scheme (NHPS).
• Currently, the scheme is known as Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY).

Additional Information

• Features and benefits of the scheme:
• A cover of up to Rs.5 lakh for the beneficiary family every year.
• The scheme can be utilized to get primary, secondary, and tertiary healthcare services.
• It can be availed at any government hospital or empanelled private hospital.
• The eligibility of beneficiaries targeted the poor deprived rural families and identified occupational category of urban workers families based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.
• An Ayushman Bharat National Health Protection Mission will be established for effective coordination between the Central and state governments.
• The scheme covers about 40% of the country’s population.
• The cost incurred during the pre and post-hospitalization period will be covered.
• The insurance provides a cashless hospitalization facility.
• Daycare treatment expenses are also covered by the scheme.

The correct answer is Odissi.

• The noted dancer Ranjana Gauhar is an exponent of the Odissi dance style.

Key Points

• Ranjana Gauhar was honored with the Padmashree Award in 2003 for her outstanding services in the field of Odissi Dance.
• She is also a winner of the National Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
• Odissi:
• Odissi is one of the famous classical Indian dances from the Odisha state.
• The rulers of this region built magnificent temples, which became the center of art and culture.
• It was around these temples that Odissi, one of India’s scintillating dance-forms was born, nurtured, and nourished.
• The Mahari's, who were originally temple dancers, came to be employed in royal courts, which resulted in the degeneration of the art form.
• Around this time, a class of boys called gotipuas was trained in art.
• Facial expressions, hand gestures, and body movements are used to suggest a certain feeling, an emotion, or one of the nine rasas.

Additional Information

• Kathak is the classical dance of Uttar Pradesh.
• Kathak is said to be derived from the word ‘katha’, meaning ‘the art of storytelling.
• Bharatnatyam is the classical dance of Tamil Nadu.
• The Bharatnatyam dance flourished in the Hindu temples of South India.
• Kuchipudi is the classical dance of Andhra Pradesh.
• It derives its name from the Kuchipudi village of Andhra Pradesh.

The correct answer is The eye lens focuses light on the retina.

• The eye lens focuses light on the retina is a correct statement about the human eye.

Key Points

• Human Eye:
• The human eye is more or less like a photographic camera.
• The eyeball is almost spherical in shape having a diameter of about 2.3 cm.
• The front transparent part of the eye is called the cornea which serves as the window of the eye for light.
• Behind the cornea, is a circular diaphragm called iris with a hole in its center. The hole is called the pupil of the eye.
• The function of the iris is to control and regulate the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil.
• When the intensity of light is high, the pupil contracts and vice versa.
• Behind the pupil, is a double convex lens, called the eye lens.
• Ciliary muscles adjust the focal length of the eye lens.
• When the ciliary muscles are relaxed, the eye lens becomes thin. Its focal length increases and converging power decreases.
• When the ciliary muscles are tense, converging power increases, as focal length decreases.
• Behind the eye lens, there is a screen called the retina on which an image of the object is formed.
• In the retina, there are light-sensitive cells in the form of rods and cones.
• The rod-type cells respond to the intensity of light and cone type cells respond to the colour of light.
• The image of any object seen persists on the retina for 1/16^th of a second, even after the removal of the object, it is called persistence of vision.

The correct answer is the Swelling of thyroid glands.

• The swelling of thyroid glands is a symptom of iodine deficiency in the body.

Key Points

• Thyroid Gland:
• The hormones secreted by it are Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine.
• Iodine is secreted in more quantity.

Important Points

• Functions of Thyroxin
• It controls the water balance of the body in coordination with the hormones of the pituitary gland.
• The normal function of reproductive organs depends on the activeness of the thyroid gland.
• It is necessary for the normal growth of the body particularly for the development of bones, hair, etc.
• It increases the speed of cellular respiration.
• Iodine-131 is employed to study the structure and activity of the thyroid gland.

Additional Information

• Convulsion is a medical anomaly in which nerve cell activity in the brain is disrupted, causing muscles to involuntarily contract and spasm.
• Deficiency of Vitamin-A causes Night blindness.

The correct answer is laterally inverted.

• The image formed in a plane mirror is laterally inverted.

Key Points

• The image is virtual and laterally inverted.
• The size of the image is equal to that of the object.
• The distance of the image from the mirror is equal to the distance of the object from the mirror.
• If an object moves towards (or away from) a plane mirror with speed u, relative to the object, the image moves towards (or away) with a speed of 2u.
• If a plane mirror is rotated by an angle θ, keeping the incident ray fixed, the reflected ray is rotated by an angle 2θ.

Additional Information

• To see his full image in a plane mirror, a person requires a mirror of at least half of his height.
• The total number of images formed by two plane mirrors inclined an angle ‘X’

 $A= {360 \over X}-1$

• Where X is the angle between mirrors
• The image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual, erect, and diminished.
• Spherical mirrors are the mirrors in which the reflecting surface side is spherical.
• There are two types of spherical mirrors: 
• convex mirror
• concave mirror

The correct answer is Second.

Key Points

• India becomes second-largest market for Green Bonds with $10.3 billion transactions.
• The economic survey highlighted that India has the second largest emerging green bond market after China.
• The SBI entered the market with an US$650 million Certified Climate Bond.

Additional Information

• Green bonds:-
• They are debt securities issued by financial, non-financial or public entities where the proceeds are used to finance 100 per cent green projects and assets.

The correct answer is ​Government of India.

Key Points

• Based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), the Department of Agriculture and Co-operation and Farmers Welfare, Government of India, declares Minimum Support Price (MSP) for 23 crops before the sowing season.
• The idea behind MSP is to give guaranteed price and assured market to the farmers and protect them from the price fluctuations and market imperfections. The guaranteed price and assured market are expected to encourage higher investment and in adoption of modern farming practices. Further, with the globalization resulting in freer trade in agricultural commodities, it is very important to protect the farmers and their interest.
• The evaluation study on MSP was carried out by the erstwhile Programme Evaluation Organization (PEO), now the Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office(DMEO), on a request received from the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.
• The study was designed with an objective to explore the effectiveness of MSP and to ascertain if the intended benefits have reached the farmers after such a long period of implementation.

Additional Information

• The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
• It came into existence in January 1965.
• Currently, the Commission comprises a Chairman, Member Secretary, one Member (Official) and two Members (Non-Official).
• The non-official members are representatives of the farming community and usually have an active association with the farming community.
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs headed by the Prime Minister announces the MSP twice in a limited year, once for Kharif crop and once for Rabi crop.

The correct answer is 1540.

• The Battle of Kanauj was fought between Sher Shah Suri and Humayun in 1540.

Key Points

• Humayun was defeated by Sher Shah in the Battle of Kannauj (Bilgrama) 1540 AD and had to flee.
• He wandered in Sindh during the reign of  Shah Hussain Arghuna and then reached the Iranian Court.
• Humayun was the son of Babur and ascended the throne in 1530 AD.
• His succession was challenged by his brothers Kamran, Hindal, and Askari along with the Afghans.
• His first campaign was against Kalinjar.

Additional Information

• Battle of Chausa (1539 AD) was fought between Sher Shah and Humayun’s army.
• Humayun was badly defeated and escaped.
• Humayun sister, Gulbadan Begum wrote his biography Humayunama.
• Sher Shah Suri's real name was Farid.
• He joined the Babar Khan Lohani’s service and then was appointed as the Deputy Governor of Bihar.
• He defeated the Rajput forces of Marwar in the Battle of Samel (1544 AD).

The correct answer is Shimla.

• ICAR-Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI) is located in Shimla.
• Shimla is the capital of Himachal Pradesh.
• ICAR-Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI) comes under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture, and Farmers Welfare.
• ICAR has its headquarters in New Delhi.
• Round Revolution was related to Potato.
• Potato Festival is celebrated in Sweden.
• Thiruvananthapuram is the capital of Kerala.
• Lucknow is the capital of Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is Kerala.

• Onam festival is primarily celebrated in Kerala.

Key Points

• This festival marks the end of monsoons and welcoming the harvest season.
• It is celebrated for 10 days during the Malayalam month of Chingam.
• The history of the Onam festival dates back to the Sangam period.
• This festival commemorates the arrival of Asura King Mahabali’s annual visit from Pataal lok.
• Various events like Tripunithura Athachamayam, Pookalam: The Floral Decorations & Arrangement, Pulikali: The Grand Tiger Dance, and Vallamkali: The Snake Boat Race are done during this festival.

Additional Information

• Pongal and Thaipusam are celebrated in Tamil Nadu.
• Bonalu and Bathukamma are celebrated in Telangana.
• Mysore Dasara and Ugadi are celebrated in Karnataka.

The correct answer is 11.

• 11 fundamental duties are provided by Part IVA of the Constitution of India.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties:
• In 1976, the FDs of citizens were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act on the basis of the Swaran Singh Committee Report.
• List of Fundamental Duties:
• According to Article 51A, of Part IV A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India;
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
• To defend the country and render national service, when called upon to do so;
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures;
• To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
• To strive for excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
• To strive toward excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement, and
• To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 to 14 years.
• This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

• Telangana does not share its boundary with Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Telangana shares its boundary with Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Maharashtra.
• It does not share its boundary with Odisha.

Additional Information

• Telangana
• Capital: Hyderabad
• Governor: Tamilisai Soundararajan
• Chief Minister: K. Chandrashekar Rao
• On 2 June 2014, Telangana was made a new 29^th state after separating from Andhra Pradesh, with the city of Hyderabad as its capital.

The correct answer is Haripura.

• Subhas Chandra Bose was elected President of Haripura Congress Session in 1938.

Key Points

• Subhash Chandra Bose:
• He founded the Independence for India League with Jawaharlal Nehru.
• He was elected as the President of INC at its Haripura Session (1938) and Tripuri Session (1939) but resigned from Tripuri due to differences with Gandhiji.
• He founded the Forward Bloc (1939) at Calcutta.
• He took the charge of Indian Army (Azad Hind Fauj) in 1943 in Singapore and set up an Indian Provisional government there.
• He addressed Mahatma Gandhi as the Father of the Nation.
• He gave the famous slogans–Dilli Chalo and Jai Hind.
• The "An Indian Pilgrim" was his autobiography.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• The territorial jurisdiction extends to territorial water up to 12 nautical miles from the nearest point of the baseline.
• Beyond territorial waters, there is the Contiguous Zone which extends up to 24 nautical miles.
• And beyond that up to 200 nautical miles, there is the Exclusive Economic Zone of India.

Additional Information

• Territorial waters are the area of the sea immediately adjacent to the shores of a state and subject to the territorial jurisdiction of that state.
• They are thus to be distinguished on the one hand from the high seas, which are common to all countries, and on the other from internal or inland waters, such as lakes wholly surrounded by the national territory or certain bays or estuaries.

The correct answer is Subhas Chandra Bose.

• Subhas Chandra Bose founded the Forward Bloc in 1939.

Key Points

• Subhash Chandra Bose
• He founded the Independence for India League with Jawaharlal Nehru.
• He was elected as the President of INC at its Haripura Session (1938) and Tripuri Session (1939) but resigned from Tripuri due to differences with Gandhiji.
• He founded the Forward Bloc (1939) at Calcutta.
• He took the charge of Indian Army (Azad Hind Fauj) in 1943 in Singapore and set up an Indian Provisional government there.
• He addressed Mahatma Gandhi as the Father of the Nation.
• He gave the famous slogans–Dilli Chalo and Jai Hind.
• An Indian Pilgrim - An Unfinished Autobiography

 was his autobiography.

The correct answer is Formation of Gram Panchayats.

Key Points

• Article 40 of the Constitution which states one of the Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
• The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.

Additional Information

• Some of the important article related to the Directive Principle of State Policy are
• Article 38: To Promote the welfare of people by securing social order permeated by justice-social, economic and political -to minimize inequalities in income status, facilities, and opportunities.
• Article 40: Organisation of village Panchayat.
• Article 41: To secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
• Article 44: Uniform Civil code for the Citizen.
• Article 46: Promotion of economic interests of Scheduled caste, Scheduled Tribe, and other sections.
• Article 50: Separation of Judiciary from Executive.
• Article 51: Promotion of international peace and secure it.

The correct answer is Thumri.

• The renowned classical singer Girija Devi was an exponent of Thumri Classical music.

Key Points

• Girija Devi was a Banaras gharana singer.
• There are 10 main forms of styles of singing and compositions: Dhrupad, Dhamar, Hori, Khayal, Tappa, Chaturanga, Ragasagar, Tarana, Sargam and Thumri. Nowadays, Ghazals have become very popular as the ‘light classical’ form of music.

Important Points

• Thumri:
• Thumri originated in the Eastern part of Uttar Pradesh, mainly in Lucknow and Banaras, around the 18th century AD.
• It is believed to have been influenced by hori, kajri, and Dadra.
• Thumri is supposed to be a romantic and erotic style of singing and is also called ‘the lyric of Indian classical music’.
• The song compositions are mostly of love, separation, and devotion.
• Its most distinctive feature is the erotic subject matter picturesquely portraying the various episodes from the lives of Lord Krishna and Radha.
• Thumri is usually performed as the last item of a Khayal concert.
• There are three main gharanas of thumri–Benares, Lucknow, and Patiala.

Additional Information

• Tarana is a style consisting of peculiar syllables woven into rhythmical patterns as a song.
• Khayal literally means ‘a stray thought’, ‘a lyric’, and ‘an imagination.
• This is the most prominent genre of Hindustani vocal music depicting a romantic style of singing.
• Dhrupad is essentially a poetic form incorporated into an extended presentation style marked by a precise and orderly elaboration of a raga.

The correct answer is Malala Yousafzai.

• Malala Yousafzai is the author of the book ‘We Are Displaced: My Journey and Stories from Refugee Girls Around the World’.

Key Points

• The book is based on her life and how she got displaced from Pakistan.
• She was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 for her fight for the right of every child to receive an education.

The correct answer is elections.

• Part XV of the Constitution of India deals with elections.

Key Points

• Part XV of elections contains following  
• Art. 324
• ​Superintendence, direction, and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission.
• Art. 325
• ​No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
• Art. 326
• Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
• Art. 329
• Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.

Additional Information

• Part XVII contains
• Articles 343-351 Official languages.
• Part XX  contains
• Article 368 Amendment of the Constitution.
• Part XVIII contains
• Article 352-360 Emergency Provisions.

Given equation : 40 × 5 - 30 + 24 ÷ 6 = 181

Going with the options we check the values

option 1) 5 and 6

40 × 6 - 30 + 24 ÷ 5

= 40 × 6 - 30 + 4.8

= 240 - 30 + 4.8

= 244.8 - 30

= 214.8

option 2 ) 40 and 30

30 × 5 - 40 + 24 ÷ 6

= 30 × 5 - 40 + 4

= 150 - 40 + 4

= 154 - 40

= 114

option 3) 30 and 24

40 × 5 - 24 + 30 ÷ 6

= 40 × 5 - 24 + 5

= 200 - 24 + 5

= 205 - 24

= 181

option 4) 24 and 6

40 × 5 - 30 + 6 ÷ 24

=40 × 5 - 30 + 0.25

= 200 - 30 + 0.25

= 200.25 - 30

= 170.25

Hence, the answer is 30 and 24.

The logic followed here is:

$8^3 - 8 = 504$ ,

Similarly, $9^3 - 9 = 720$

Hence, the correct answer is 720.

The logic followed here is:

In the given pair of figure, the number of sides and the number of figures increased by 1.

In the Question figure, 2 squares ( 4 sides) becomes 3 pentagons ( 5 sides).

Hence, the figure in option 1 is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to figure 2,

The inside figure (enclosed) becomes the outer one and the outside figure goes inside.

The figure also rotated one places in an anti-clockwise direction.

Hence, the figure in option 1 is correct.

The figure that is embedded in the question figure is option (3) figure.

Hence, the figure in option (3) is the correct answer.

Note: Option 1 looks also the same but the upper U shaped figure in question is a little longer than option 1.

Formula:

Average Speed = Total Distance/Total Time 

Given:

Distance = 210km

Time =3 hr 30 min =  3 + 30/60 hr = 7/2 hr

Calculation:

average speed = 210 ÷ (7/2)

average speed = (210 × 2)÷7

average speed = 60 kmph

Hence, 60 is the correct answer.

The logic here is:

In question figure 1, 3 and 4 the top and the bottom figures are exactly similar to each other. There is no need to rotate the top figure to obtain the bottom figure.

While in question figure 2 the bottom figure is obtained by rotating the top figure by 180°.

Hence, the figure in option 4 is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is :

The Star symbol is rotated in a clockwise direction and 1 square box is added to it in each next step.

Hence, the figure in option (3) is the correct answer.

When the question figure is merged with the figure in option 2, the complete pattern can be seen as:

Hence, figure in option (2) is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Multiply the 1st and 2nd column and double the result.

17 × 8 = 136 and 136 × 2 = 272

9 × 12 = 108 and 108 × 2 = 216

16 × 9 = 144 and 144 × 2 = 288.

Hence, 288 is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

20 × 2 + 1 = 41

41 × 2 + 2 = 84

84 × 2 + 3 = 171

171 × 2 + 4 = 346

346 × 2 + 5 = 697

Hence, 697 is the correct answer.

When the folded paper is opened, the cuts will appear as follows:

Hence, the figure in option 1 is the correct answer.

The shaded portion in the figure shown below represents diabetic patients who are NEITHER government employees NOR driver.

Hence, 30 is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is :

18 × 1 = 18

18 + 2 = 20

20 × 3 = 60

60 + 4 = 64

64 × 5 = 320

Hence, 320 is the correct answer.

The Venn diagram representation of Boys, Males, Human beings is shown below,

Hence, (Boys, Males, Human beings) is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is :

Top left and top right element exchange their position in each next step.

center element's colour inversion takes place in each next step.

Bottom left element's colour inversion takes place in each next step.

Bottom right element no change.

Hence, figure in option 4 is the correct answer.

The figure that is embedded in the question figure is the option ‘1’ figure.

Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

When the question figure is merged with the figure in option 2, the complete pattern can be seen as:

Hence, the figure in option 2 is the correct answer.

The mirror image of the question figure is as follows:

Hence, option (4) is the correct answer.

A cook works in the kitchen to make food.

Similarly, farmer works in the field to produce crops.

Hence, field is the correct answer.

Concept:

Choose any two dices with one face common in the figures,

Then write it in clockwise order starting from the common face then positional value becomes the opposite face.

In figure 1 and figure 2, face 3 is common, so we can write,

(3-6-5) and (3-1-2) in sequential order, therefore we can say that the opposite faces are (6-1), (5-2) and the remaining (3-4).

Opposite of 1 is 6.

Hence, 6 is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

The first two letters are reverse positional of each other.

The 3rd letter is obtained by shifting the 2nd letter to 5 places.

Option 4 does not follow the pattern.

Hence, KQU is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 2, option 3, option 4 have five figures.

Option 1 has six figures/ line.

Option 1 is the odd one.

Hence, the figure in option 1 is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is TUJVSG.

CONCEPT :

Types of figure generally given in the exams.

The clearly seen alternate position of the open dice becomes the opposite pair after folding and the two remaining faces also become opposite to each other.

Here, In every figure:

A is opposite to C.

B is opposite to D.

Thus the remaining, E is opposite to F.

EXPLANATION :

The alternate position of faces becomes opposite to each other, as shown below:

The opposite pairs are (6-1), (3-5), and (4-2).

The face opposite to the face having the number 6 is 1.

CONCLUSION :

Hence, the correct answer is 1.

Given:

x = 18% of z, y = 30 % of z

Calculation:

x = z × 18%

⇒ x = z × (18/100)

⇒ x/z = 18/100 ⇒ x : z = 18 : 100      ----(1)

⇒ y = z × 30%

⇒ y = z × (30/100)

⇒ y/z = 30/100 ⇒ y : z = 30 : 100      ----(2)

From equation (1) and (2)

⇒ x : y : z = 18 : 30 : 100

⇒ Percentage of y with respect to x = (30/18) × 100

⇒ (10/6) × 100

⇒ 166.67 ≈ 167

∴ The percentage of y with respect to x is 167%.

Shortcut Trick:

The Percentage value of x and y is given with respect to z so that we can find a direct percentage from a given value of x and y

⇒ x : y = 18 : 30

⇒ Percentage of y with respect to x = (30/18) × 100

⇒ Percentage of y with respect to x = 166.7 ≈ 167

∴ The percentage of y with respect to x is 167%

Given:

The least common multiple (L.C.M) of the two numbers is 252 

The highest common factor (H.C.F) of them is 12. 

The difference between the numbers is 48

Formula used:

1^st number × 2^nd number = L.C.M × H.C.F

(x + y)² = (x – y)² + 4xy

Calculation:

Let the 1^st number be x and the 2^nd number be y

The difference between the numbers is 48

So, x – y = 48

And, x × y = 252 × 12

Now, (x + y)² = (x – y)² + 4xy

⇒ (x + y)² = 48² + 4 × 252 × 12

⇒ (x + y)² = 14400 ⇒ (x + y) = 120

∴ The sum of the two numbers is 120

 

Let the numbers be x and (x + 48)

Now, x(x + 48) = 252 × 12

⇒ x² + 48x – 3024 = 0

⇒ x² + 84x – 36x + 3024 = 0

⇒ x (x + 84) – 36 (x + 84) = 0

⇒ (x + 84) (x – 36) = 0

⇒ x = - 84, 36

As x is a positive number

So, the value of x is 36

Then, the other number will be (36 + 48) = 84

So, the sum = (36 + 84) = 120

∴ The sum of the two numbers is 120

Given:

An amount of Rs. 2,21,000 among three partners A, B and C

The amount removed from A, B, and C is Rs. 2,000, Rs. 3,000, and Rs. 4,000 respectively.

The ratio of divided sums is 11:18:24

Calculations:

Let the amount received by A be 11x

Let the amount received by B be 18x

Let the amount received by C be 24x

The total removed amount from A, B, and C is

⇒ 2000 + 3000 + 4000 = 9000

The total amount received by A, B, and C is

⇒ 221000 – 9000 = 212000

The total ratio of the amount is

⇒ 11x + 18x + 24x = 53x

According to the question, we have

⇒ 53x = 212000

⇒ x = 212000/53 ⇒ x = 4000

Amount received by B is 18x = 18 × 4000 = 72000

The total amount received by B is 72000 + 3000 = 75000

∴ The total amount received by B is Rs. 75,000

Alternate Method

The total amount received by A is 11x + 2000

The total amount received by B is 18x + 3000

The total amount received by C is 24x + 4000

According to the question, we have

⇒ A + B + C = 221000

⇒ (11x + 2000) + (18x + 3000) + (24x + 4000) = 221000

⇒ 53x + 9000 = 221000

⇒ 53x = 212000

⇒ x = 4000

The total amount received by B is 18x + 3000

⇒ 18 × 4000 + 3000

⇒ 75000

∴ The total amount received by B is Rs. 75,000

Given:

Dimensions of rectangular sheet = 28 cm × 16 cm

Length of the square = 3 cm

Formula:

The volume of Box = l × b × h

where, l, b, h = Length, breadth, and height of the box respectively  

Calculation:

l = 28 − 2(3)

⇒ 28 - 6 = 22 cm

b = 16 - 2(3) = 16 - 6

⇒ b = 10 cm

h = 3 cm

Volume of box = 22 × 10 × 3

 ∴ The volume of the box is 660 cm³.

Given:

The marked price of a shirt is Rs. 1,824

Discount percentage = 18%

Profit percentage = 14%

Formula:

S.P. = M.P. - M.P. × D%

S.P. = C.P. + C.P. × P%

Where, S.P. = Selling Price, M.P. = Marked Price, C.P. = Cost Price, D% = Discount percent, P% = Profit percent

Calculation:

S.P. = (1824 - 1824 × 18/100)

⇒ 1824 - 328.32

⇒ Rs. 1495.68

Now 1495.68 = C.P. + C.P. × 14/100

⇒ 1495.68 = C.P.(1 + 14/100)

⇒ 1495.68 = C.P. × 114/100

⇒ C.P. = 1495.68 × 100/114

⇒ C.P. = Rs. 1312

∴ The cost price of the shirt is Rs. 1312.

Shortcut Trick

A direct relation between MP & CP is given below.

$\frac {MP}{CP}$ = \(\frac {100 + P%}{100 - D%}\)

$\frac {1824}{CP}$ = \(\frac {100+14%}{100-18%}\)

1824/C.P. = 114/82

C.P. = 1824 × 82/114 = 1824 × 41/57

C.P. = 32 × 41 = Rs.1,312

Hence, the cost price of the shirt is Rs. 1,312.

Given:

Compound Interest, C.I. = Rs. 9,095

Rate of Interest, R = 15 percent

Time = $2\frac{2}{3}{\rm{;Years}}$

Formula Used:

When interest is compounded annually but the time is in fraction (suppose time = ${\rm{n}}\frac{{\rm{a}}}{{\rm{b}}}$ years), then,

${\rm{A}} = {\rm{P}}{\left( {1 + \frac{{\rm{R}}}{{100}}} \right)^{\rm{n}}}\left( {\frac{{100 + \left( {\frac{{\rm{a}}}{{\rm{b}}}} \right) × {\rm{R}}}}{{100}}{\rm{;}}} \right)$

where A = Amount, P = Principal, R = Rate of Interest, n = Whole part of Time

a, b = Numerator and Denominator of the fraction part of the time.

Calculation:

Let the Principal be P.

So, Amount, 

${\rm{A}} = {\rm{P}}{\left( {1 + \frac{{\rm{R}}}{{100}}} \right)^{\rm{n}}}\left( {\frac{{100 + \left( {\frac{{\rm{a}}}{{\rm{b}}}} \right) × {\rm{R}}}}{{100}}{\rm{;}}} \right)$

$\Rightarrow {\rm{A}} = {\rm{P}}{\left( {1 + \frac{{15}}{{100}}} \right)^2}\left( {\frac{{100 + \left( {\frac{2}{3}} \right) × 15}}{{100}}{\rm{;}}} \right)$

⇒ A = P × (115/100)² × (110/100)

⇒ A = P × (23/20) × (23/20) × (11/10)

⇒ A = P × (529/400) × (11/10)

Now, Compound Interest = Amount – Principal

⇒ 9,095 = P × (529/400) × (11/10) – P

⇒ 9,095 = P × {(529 × 11)/(400 × 10) – 1}

⇒ 9,095 = P × {(5819/4000) – 1}

⇒ 9,095 = P × (5819 – 4000)/4000

⇒ 9,095 = P × 1819/4000

⇒ P = 9,095 × 4000/1819

⇒ P = 20,000

∴ The Principal is Rs. 20,000

Important Points

Observe that the time is given in fraction and the interest is compounded yearly. So, use the correct formula.

Mistake Points 

Do not use the formula ${\rm{A}} = {\rm{P}}{\left( {1 + \frac{{\rm{R}}}{{100}}} \right)^{\rm{n}}}$ by putting ${\rm{n}} = 2\frac{2}{3}{\rm{;years;}}$ as here, the time is given in fraction but the interest is compounded yearly. Using the normal formula will give us the wrong result.

Given:

The difference of squares of two consecutive even numbers is 84.

Concept used:

If 'a' is an even number, then a and (a + 2) are two consecutive even numbers.

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²

Calculation:

Let the numbers be 'a' and (a + 2)

⇒ (a + 2)² – a² = 84

⇒ a² + 4a + 4 – a² = 84

⇒ 4a + 4 = 84

⇒ 4a = 84 – 4 ⇒ 4a = 80

⇒ a = 80/4 ⇒ a = 20

And (a + 2) = 20 + 2 = 22

The product = a(a + 2) 

⇒ 20 × 22 = 440

∴ The product of two consecutive even numbers is 440

Alternate Method

The difference between the squares of two consecutive even numbers is 84

Let the number be a and (a + 2)

⇒ (a + 2)² – a² = 84

Put the value of a = 20, 22, 24, 26….

When we subtract two even numbers, the result is always an even number so we choose an even number in the hit and try method.

Hit and try method, put a = 20

⇒ (a + 2)² – a² = 84

⇒ (20 + 2)² – (20)² = 84

⇒ (22)² – (20)² = 84

⇒ 484 – 400 = 84

Value a = 20 is satisfied

⇒ The product of two consecutive even numbers = a(a + 2)

⇒ 20 × 22 = 440

∴ The product of two consecutive even numbers is 440

Given:

Total time = 15 years

Total Simple Interest = Rs. 43,800

The rate for the first 4 years is 5%

The rate for the next 8 years is 4%

The rate for the remaining 3 years is 7%

Concept used:

S.I. = (P × R × T)/100

Where, S.I. = Simple Interest, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time

Calculation:

Let the sum be Rs. P

Total S.I. = S.I. for first 4 years + S.I. for next 8 years + S.I. for remaining 3 years

⇒ 43800 = (P × 5 × 4)/100 + (P × 4 × 8)/100 + (P × 7 × 3)/100

⇒ 43800 = 20P/100 + 32P/100 + 21P/100

⇒ 43800 = 73P/100

⇒ 600 = P/100 ⇒ 60000 = P 

∴ The sum is Rs. 60,000.

Given:

A boat can go 5 km upstream and $7\frac{1}{2};$km downstream in 45 minutes.

It can go 5 km downstream and 2.5 km upstream in 25 minutes.

Formula used:

Time = Distance/ Speed

Calculation:

Let the speed of the boat upstream be U

and the speed of the boat in downstream be D

A boat can go 5 km upstream and $7\frac{1}{2}$ km downstream in 45 minutes

Time = 45 × 1/60 hr ⇒ Time = 3/4 hrs

5/U + 15/2D = 3/4

⇒ (15 U + 10 D)/2DU = 3/4

⇒ 60 U + 40 D = 6DU       ----(1)

It can go 5 km downstream and 2.5 km upstream in 25 minutes.

Time = 25/60 hr ⇒ Time = 5/12 hrs

5/D + 2.5/U = 5/12

⇒ 60 U + 30 D = 5 DU      ----(2)

By solving equations (1) and (2) we get U = 10 km/hr 

Now, the Time taken to cover 12 km upstream,

⇒ 12/10 = 0.12 hr

⇒ 0.12 × 60 minutes = 72 minutes

∴ 72 minutes is the total time taken to go 12 km upstream.

Shortcut Trick

According to the question, 

17 C.P - 17 S.P = 5 C.P

12 C.P = 17 S.P

12 C.P = 840   (Selling price of 17 balls)

∴ C.P = 70

Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 70

Alternate Method

Given:

On selling 17 balls at Rs. 840, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls

Formula used:

Loss = C.P - S.P

Where, C.P = Cost price, S.P = Selling price

Calculation:

Let the cost price of a ball be Rs.x

So, the cost price of 5 balls = Rs.5x

⇒ Loss = 5x

The cost price of 17 balls = Rs.17x

Now, the equation is :

17x - 840 = 5x     (∵ S.P is given Rs.840)

12x = 840 ⇒ x = 70

∴ The cost price of a ball is Rs. 70.

Shortcut Trick

 

Let the initial population of bacteria be x,

 

X × 11/10 × 108/100 × 9/10 = 21384

 

On solving, X = 20000

 

Hence, the correct answer is 20000

 

Alternate Method

Given:  

The population of bacteria increased by 10% in 1^st year, 8% in 2^nd year and decreased by10% in 3^rd year

The number of bacteria present is 21384

Calculation:

Let the  total number of bacteria be x

In the first year,

⇒ x(1 + 10/100) = 11x/10

In the second year,

⇒ (11x/10) × (1 + 8/100) = (11x/10) × (108/100)

In the third year,

⇒ (11x/10) × (108/100) × (1 – 10/100)        (∵ Decreased by 10 %)

⇒ (11x/10) × (108/100) × (90/100)

Now,

⇒ (11x/10) × (108/100) × (90/100) = 21384

⇒ (11x/10) × (27/25)  × (9/10) = 21384

⇒ (11x) × 27 × 9 = 21384 × 10 × 10 × 25

On solving, x = 20,000

∴ The total number of bacteria present initially was 20000

Hint

In these types of questions, we need not follow the pattern of the question i.e. we are free to choose 10%, 10%, 8% or 10%, 8%, 10%, or as per our convenience.

Given:

25 women can do a piece of work in 60 days.

Formula Used:

M₁D₁H₁/W₁ = M₂D₂H₂/W₂

Where, M = No. of workers, D = No. of days, H = No. of hours, W = Amount of work done

Calculation:

Let 15 more women join the work after x days.

⇒ 25 × 60 = 25 × x + 40 × (45 - x)

⇒ 1500 = 25x + 40 × 45 - 40x

⇒ 15x = 1800 - 1500

⇒ 15x = 300

⇒ x = 20

∴ The 15 more women should join the work after 20 days.

Given:

The diagonal of the rectangle = √31 cm

Area = 25 sq. cm

Formula used:

Area of the rectangle = length × breadth

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(length + breadth)

Diagonal = √(length)² + (breadth)² \()

a² + b² = (a+b)² - 2ab

Calculation:

Let the length of the rectangle be l and the breadth be b.

Area = 25

⇒ lb = 25 -------(1)

Diagonal = √31

⇒ √(l² + b²) = √31

⇒ l² + b² = 31

⇒ (l + b)2  = (l + b)² + 2lb = 31 + 2 × 25   

⇒ (l + b)² = 81

⇒ (l + b) = 9

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(l + b)

 ⇒ 2 × 9 = 18 cm

∴ The perimeter of the rectangle is 18 cm.

Given:

Batch A consists of 44 students and Batch B consists of 56 students.

The average weight of batch A is 43 kg and batch B is 39 kg.

Calculation:

Let the average of the whole class be x.

⇒ x = (44 × 43 + 56 × 39/(44 + 56)

⇒ x = (1892 + 2184)/100

⇒ x = 4076/100

⇒ x = 40.76

∴ The average weight of the whole class is 40.76 kg.

Alternate Method

Let the average weight of the whole class be 40 kg.​

The average weight of batch A is exceeded by (43 - 40) = 3 kg

The total weight of batch A is exceeded by (44 × 3) = 132 kg

The average weight of batch B is inferior by (40 - 39) = 1 kg

The total weight of batch B is inferior by (56 × 1) = 56 kg

The total weight of the whole class is exceeded by (132 - 56) = 76 kg

The average of the whole class is exceeded by 76/100 = 0.76 kg

Required average = 40 + 0.76 

⇒ Average = 40.76

∴ The average weight of the whole class is 40.76 kg.

Concept Used:

We know that 1 litre = 1000 ml

Calculation:

5 litre = 5 × 1000 ml

⇒ 5 litre = 5000 ml

A decimal fraction of 195 ml in 5000 ml,

⇒ 195/5000 = 0.039

∴ The correct answer is 0.039

The correct answer is CTRL + V.

Key Points

• CTRL + V is a direct shortcut to paste in MS-Word.

Additional Information

The correct answer is the Name box.

Key Points

• The name box in the worksheet displays the address of the selected cell.

Additional Information

• The formula bar can be used to edit the content of any cell and can be expanded to show multiple lines for the same formula. It displays the content of the cell.
• The title bar displays the title of the window and It includes the close, minimize, and maximize buttons.
• A status bar is located at the bottom of Internet browser and application windows. It displays the current state of the web page or application.

The correct answer is Triple left clicks.

Key Points

• Three left clicks anywhere in the paragraph are used to select the whole paragraph.

Additional Information

• Other ways to select text
• To select a single word, quickly left double-click that word.
• To select a line of text, place your cursor at the start of the line, and press the Shift + down arrow.
• To select a paragraph, place your cursor at the start of the paragraph, and press Ctrl + Shift + down arrow.
• CTRL+ A to select all.

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

• The smallest number of rows that a table in MS-Word can have is 1.

Additional Information

• The minimum number of rows a table an MS-Word document can have is 1 row.
• The minimum number of columns a table an MS-Word document can have is 1 column.

The correct answer is FTP.

Key Points

• The protocol that is used for transferring both text and binary files over the Internet is File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

Additional Information

• A protocol is a set of rules or procedures for transmitting data between electronic devices, such as computers.
• The post office protocol (POP) is a commonly used message request protocol on the Internet for transferring messages from an e-mail server to an e-mail client.
• Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a protocol for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML.
• Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is a secure version of the HTTP protocol that uses encryption and authentication.

The correct answer is text, files, as well as images.

Key Points

• An email can contain text, files, as well as images.

Additional Information

• E-mail is defined as the transmission of messages on the Internet.
• An e-mail may contain text, files, images, or other attachments.

The correct answer is 0.

Key Points

• The answer of the formula = 8/4/2 - 2/2  in excel is 0.

​

Additional Information

• Simple rules of mathematics are followed.
• How to Write Formulas in Excel
• All Excel formulas start with an equal (=) sign.
• The answer to the formula is displayed in the cell into which the formula is entered.
• Cells are referenced in a formula by their column-row identifier.
• The symbols for addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division are: + - * /
• We do not have to enter capital letters in the formula, They will be capitalized automatically.

The correct answer is 32 bits.

Key Points

• An IP version 4 address is 32 bits long.

Additional Information

• An IP address (internet protocol address) is a numerical representation and is a unique identification of a specific interface on the network.
• There are two versions of IP.
• IPv4 addresses are 32-bits long. They are expressed in decimal.
• IPv6 addresses are 128-bits. They are expressed in hexadecimal

The correct answer is The cursor (selection box) will move to the lower cell.

Key Points

• When you enter a value in an Excel cell and press the ENTER key the cursor (selection box) will move to the lower cell.

Additional Information

• The cursor (selection box) will move to the upper cell when we press the up arrow.
• The cursor (selection box) will move to the lower cell when we press the down arrow or Enter.
• The cursor (selection box) will move to the right cell when we press the right arrow.
• The cursor (selection box) will move to the left cell when we press the left arrow.

The correct answer is Only i.

Key Points

• In MS-Word, a word can have both lower-case and upper-case letters. Hence statement first is correct.
• In MS Word, the first word of a paragraph can be made bold.
• Hence, the second statement is wrong.