Delhi Police Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 27 Nov 2020 Shift 3)

The correct answer is music and art.

• 'Samaveda’ is considered to be one of the primary sources of Indian music and art.

Key Points

Sama Veda

• Sama Veda derives its roots from 'saman' which means melodies. It is a collection of melodies.
• The Sama Veda (book of chants) had 1549 hymns.
• All hymns (excluding 75) were taken from the Rig Veda.
• The hymns of the Sama Veda were recited by Udgatri at the Soma sacrifice.
• This Veda is important for Indian music.
• It contains Dhrupad Raga.

Additional Information

• Vedic literature comprises four literary productions.
• They are The Samhitas or Vedas, The Brahamans, The Aranyakas, and The Upanishads.
• The most important of Vedic Literature is Vedas.
• The word Veda comes from the word Vid, which means to know or knowledge.
• Vedic texts are divided between Sruti (based on hearing) and Smriti (based on memory).
• There are four vedas - Rig Veda, Sama Veda, Yajur Veda, and Atharva Veda.
• The first three are jointly called Vedatrayi (a trio of Vedas)

Rig Veda

• The oldest Veda is the Rigveda (collection of hymns) and one of the oldest religious texts in the world.
• This is also known as 'the first testament of mankind'.
• It has 1028 hymns called ‘Suktas’ and is a collection of 10 books called ‘Mandalas.’
• The six mandalas (from 2^nd to 7^th Mandalas) are the oldest and shortest Mandalas are called Gotra/ Vamsha Mandalas (Kula Granth) and also called family books
• Each of which is ascribed to a particular family of Rishi Gritsamad, Visvamitra Vamadeva, Atri, Bharadwaj, Vashisth.
• 8^th Mandala is ascribed to Kanvas and Angiras.
• 9^th Mandala is the compilation of Soma hymns.
• The 3^rd Mandala contains the Gayatri Mantra, which was compiled in the praise of Sun God Savitri
• Saraswathi is the deity river in the Rig Veda.
• The first and tenth Mandalas are said to have been added later.

Yajur Veda

• The Yajur Veda (book of sacrificial prayers) is a ritual Veda.
• The two texts of Yajur Veda are Shukla (white or bright) and Krishna (black or dark).
• Shukla Yajurveda has arranged and clear verses.
• Krishna Yajurveda has an un-arranged, unclear, motley collection of verses.

​Atharva Veda

• Atharva Veda is a book of magical formulae.
• It contains charms and spells to ward off evils and diseases.

The correct answer is Lahore.

• Jahangir was buried in Lahore.
• The tomb is located across the River Ravi in Shahdara Bagh, northwest of the Walled City of Lahore in Punjab province in Pakistan.

Key Points

Jahangir (AD 1605 - 1627)

• In 1605, Prince Salim succeeded with the title Jahangir (Conqueror of World) when he assumed the throne after the death of Akbar.
• He issued 12 ordinances.
• He is known for his strict administration of justice.
• He established Zanjir-i-Adil (chain of justice) at Agra for the seekers of royal justice.
• He was the eldest son of Akbar was born at Fatehpur Sikri near Agra in 1569.
• In 1611, he married Mehr-un-Nisa whom he gave the title of Nur Jahan (light of the world).
• He defeated and imprisoned his son, Khusrau Mirza.
• He also beheaded Guru Arjun, the 5^th Sikh Guru and one of the supporters of Khusrau Mirza.
• Captain Hawkins (1608-1611) and Sir Thomas Roe (1615-1616) visited Jahangir's court.
• Production of Tobacco started in his reign.
• He wrote his autobiography Tuzuk-i-Jahangir.
• He died in 1627.

Additional Information

• Babur was buried at Aram Bagh in Agra and later his body was taken to Kabul and his tomb is at Kabul.
• Humayun was buried in Delhi.
• Akbar was buried at Sikandara near Agra.
• Shahjahan was buried at Taj Mahal (Agra) besides his loving life Mumtaz Mahal.
• Aurangzeb was buried at Khuldabad (Daulatabad).

The correct answer is Assam.

• Digboi Oil Refinery, commissioned on 11th December 1901, is India's oldest operating refinery and one of the oldest operating refineries in the world. It is located in Assam.

Key Points

Assam

• Kamarupa is the old name of Assam.
• Dispur is the capital of Assam.
• Assam is known as the 'Tea Garden of India'.
• Assam is the leading producer of tea in India.
• Assam is known as the 'Gateway to the North Eastern States of India'.
• Assam shares international boundaries with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
• Guwahati is known as the 'light of the east'.
• Guwahati High court is the largest jurisdiction in terms of states (4 states).
• Jorhat is the cultural capital of Assam.
• The Brahmaputra is known as Sorrow of Assam.
• Manas National Park is famous for Royal Bengal Tigers.
• Kaziranga National Park is famous for its one-horned rhinoceros.
• Orang National Park is known as the Mini Kaziranga.
• Dibru Saikhova in Assam is the smallest biosphere reserve in India.
• Majuli Island is the biggest riverine island in the world is situated in the river Brahmaputra.
• Bhupen Hazarika Bridge or Dhola Sadiya bridge is the longest bridge in India, over the River Lohit, in Assam.

Additional Information

Gujarat

• Gandhinagar is the capital of Gujarat.
• Gujarat is known as 'the Land of Legends'.
• Gujarat has the longest coastline in India.
• Kandla is the first Special Economic Zone in India.
• The first four-lane Express Highway in India was established in Gujarat (Ahmedabad to Vadodara). It is known as National Expressway 1 or MahatmaGandhi Expressway 1.
• Largest Oil Refinery in India - Jamnagar Oil Refinery (Reliance).
• The Gir National Park in Gujarat is famous for Asiatic Lions.
• Ran of Kutch is the largest biosphere in India
• The tallest statue in the world - Sardar Vallabhai Patel (182 meters) known as the Statue of Unity in Vadodara on the banks of the Narmada river in Gujarat.
• The first Railway Univesity in India is in Vadodara.
• Judicial Capital of Gujarat - Ahmedabad

Odisha

• The old name of Odhisa was Kalinga.
• The tagline of Odhisa is "The soul of Incredible India".
• Bhubaneswar is the capital of Odhisa and known as the 'Temple city' and 'Cathedral city of India'.
• Rourkela is the industrial capital of Odhisa.
• Cuttack is the cultural capital of Odhisa.
• The high court of Odhisa is situated in Cuttack
• Konark Sun Temple is known as 'Black Pagoda' is at Odhisa.
• Jaganatha Temple is situated at Puri in Odhisa.
• Chilka Lake is the largest saline water lake in India.
• Hirakud is the longest dam in the world built across the Mahanadi river.
• The Mahanadi is known as Sorrow of Odhisa.
• Nandankanan Tiger Reserve is famous for White Tigers.
• Paradip is the major seaport of Odhisa.

Uttar Pradesh

• Lucknow is the capital of Uttar Pradesh.
• Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India.
• Uttar Pradesh is the 'Sugar Bowl of India'.
• Uttar Pradesh has the largest number of monuments in India.
• Uttar Pradesh has the maximum membership (80 seats) in the Lok Sabha.
• Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the most number of states in India (9 states - Rajasthan, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh including Delhi and Nepal).
• Asia's first DNA bank is in Lucknow in Uttar Pradesh.
• Uttar Pradesh is the state through which most numbers of the National Highways pass.

The correct answer is It was a technique for the inlay of precious stones and gems into stone walls.

Key Points

• Pietra dura:
• It is several kinds of hard stone used in commesso mosaic work, an art that flourished in Florence particularly in the late 16^th and 17^th centuries.
• It is involved in the fashioning of highly illusionistic pictures out of cut-to-shape pieces of colored stone.
• It was a type of painting style carried out on Marbles.
• Pietra dura items are generally crafted on green, white, or black marble base stones.
• This style of ornamentation was extensively used on the walls of the Taj Mahal.
• This style carves floral designs made of semi-precious stones onto the walls of monuments.

Additional Information

• The technique of pietra dura is a Florentine invention of the end of the 16^th century, at the time of the Medici.
• It is Francis I of Medici, who is the promoter of this art in Florence.

The correct answer is Option 1.

• Kuka movement – Assam is the incorrect pair of the following.

Key Points

Kuka movement – Punjab

• Kuka movement is an anti-British reaction.
• It was initiated in 1849 among the people in Punjab 1857.
• The Kukas is also known as Namdharis.
• They started as a group for religious purification in Sikhism under Sant Guru Ram Singh.
• The Namdhari movement was the most important phase.
• It aimed at overthrowing British rule and played important role in the freedom struggle.
• This movement actively propagated the principles of boycott and non-co-operation given by Sant Guru Ram Singh who founded the Namdhari sect for the Namdharis.

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Additional Information

Moplah rebellions – Malabar

• The Moplah Rebellion was a series of riots by Mappila Muslims of Kerala.
• It was started in the 19^th and early 20^th centuries against the British and the Hindu landlords in Malabar (Northern Kerala).
• It is also known as the Moplah Riots of 1921 which was an armed revolt.
• Variyamkunnath Kunjahammed Haji and Ali Musliyar was the main leader of this movement.
• The trigger of the uprising came from the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Congress in 1920 along with the Khilafat agitation.
• The anti-British sentiment fuelled by these agitations affected the Muslim Mapillahs of the South Malabar region of Kerala.
• After the death of Tipu Sultan in 1799 in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War, Malabar had come under British authority as part of the Madras Presidency.

​​​​Faraizi movement – Bengal

• Farazi movement was a religious movement.
• It started by Hazi Shariatullah in 1818 AD for Bengali Muslims to give up un-Islamic practices and follow their religious duties.
• The objective was to revive Islam and to improve the condition of Muslim peasants who were opposed by Hindu and British landlords.

The correct answer is six.

• The cheque number of a bank in India consists of six digits as of August 2020.

Key Points

• A cheque is a negotiable instrument that contains an order to the bank, signed by the drawer to pay a certain sum of money to a specified person as per the Negotiable Instrument Act 1881.

There are three parties involved in a cheque.

• Drawer: The person who issues the cheque or holds the account in the bank.
• Drawee: The person who is directed to make payment against the cheque. Drawee is basically the bank on which the cheque is drawn.
• Payee: The person whose name is mentioned in the cheque has been issued. If the drawer has drawn the cheque in favor of self, then the drawer is the payee.

Apart from these, there are two more parties involved with a cheque.

• Endorser: When a payee transfers his right to take the payment to another party.
• Endorsee: The party in whose favor, the right is transferred.

Different types of Cheques

• Bearer cheque: is a type of cheque in which the bearer is authorized to get the cheque encashed. This means the person who carries the cheque to the bank has the authority to ask the bank for encashment. This type of cheque is endorsable.
• Order Cheque: Only the payee, whose name has been mentioned in the cheque is liable to get cash for that amount. The drawer needs to strike the “OR BEARER” mark as mentioned on the cheque so that the cheque can only be encashed to the payee. This type of cheque cannot be endorsed.
• Crossed Cheque: The amount can only be transferred from the drawer’s account to the payee’s account. Any third party can visit the bank to submit the cheque. In this type of cheque, no cash withdrawal can be done.
• Account Payee Cheque: The amount shall be transferred directly to the payee’s account number. This is the same as the account payee cheque but no third-party involvement is required.
• Post-Dated Cheque: If a drawer wants the payee to apply for withdrawal or transfer of money after the present date, then he/she can fill a post-dated cheque.
• Ante Dated Cheque: If the drawer mentions a date prior to the current date on the cheque.
• Blank Cheque: When a cheque only has a drawer’s signature and all the other fields are left empty.
• Self Cheque: If the drawer wishes cash for himself he can issue a cheque where in place of the Payee’s name he can write “SELF” and get encashment from the branch where he owns an account.
• Mutilated Cheque: If the cheque is torn into two or more pieces and the relevant information is torn, the bank shall reject the cheque and declare it invalid, until the drawer confirms its validation.
• Stale Cheque: if a payee moves to the bank to get a withdrawal for a cheque that was signed 3 months ago, the cheque shall be declared a stale cheque.

​

Important Points

• A cheque can only be issued against a current or savings bank account.
• A cheque without a date shall be considered invalid.
• Only the payee, in whose name the cheque has been issued, can encash it.
• A cheque is only valid 3 months from the date it has been issued.
• A 9-digit MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) code is mentioned at the bottom of the cheque. This makes the clearance of cheques easier for the banks.
• A MICR code that uniquely identifies a bank and a branch participating in an Electronic Clearance System (ECS).

The correct answer is Alluvial.

Key Points

Alluvial Soil

• The alluvial soil occurs mainly in the Sutlej- Ganga- Brahmaputra Plains.
• Most available soil in India (about 43%) covers the land area.
• They are also found in the valleys of the Narmada, Tapi, and the Eastern and Western coastal plains.
• This soil has a phosphorous deficiency but rich in potash and lime.
• The color of soil varies from light grey to ash.
• This soil is suitable for Kharif and Rabi crops like rice, maize, wheat, sugarcane, pulses, oilseeds, jute, etc.

Alluvial soil is divided into two

• Khadar Soil (New): The khadar soils are enriched with fresh silts. They are low-lying, frequently inundated by floods during the rainy season. It occupies the flood plains of rivers. The khaddar tracts called kankar are rich in concentration.
• Bhangar Soil (Old): This soil lies above the flood level. It is well-drained but because of the calcium carbonate nodules, the texture of soil varies from loamy soil to clayey soil.

Additional Information

• The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has classified soils into 8 categories.
• Alluvial Soil, Black Cotton Soil or Regur Soil, Red Soil, Laterite Soil, Mountainous or Forest Soils, Arid or Desert Soil, Saline and Alkaline Soil, Peaty, and Marshy Soil.

Laterite Soil

• The laterite soils develop in areas of high temperature and high rainfall.
• Laterite soil is soft, when they are wet and so hard and cloddy’ on drying.
• Laterite soils are found mainly in the hills of the Western Ghats, Raj Mahal hills, Eastern Ghats, Satpura, Vindhya, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, North Cachar Hills, and the Garo hills.
• Laterite soils are red in color with a high content of iron oxides.
• These are rich in iron and aluminum.
• These are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, potassium, lime, and potash.
• This soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea, coffee, rubber, millets, and cashew nuts.

Black or Regur Soil

• Black soil is also known as cotton soil.
• This is the third largest group in India. This soil is formed from rocks of cretaceous lava.
• This stretch over the parts of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Western parts of Madhya Pradesh, North- Western Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand up to Raj Mahal hills.
• The soil is rich in iron, lime, calcium, potash, magnesium, and aluminum.
• It has a high water-retaining capacity.
• This soil is suitable for cotton, tobacco, jowar, sugarcane, wheat, rice, fruits and vegetables, and linseed.

Arid or Desert Soil

• This soil is deposited by wind action and mainly found in the arid and semi-arid areas like Rajasthan, West of the Aravallis, Northern Gujarat, Saurashtra, Kachchh, Western parts of Haryana, and southern part of Punjab.
• They are sandy with low organic matter.
• It has low soluble salts and moisture with very low retaining capacity.
• If irrigated this soil gives a high agricultural return.
• These are suitable for less water-intensive crops like bajra, pulses, millets, maize, fodder, and guar.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

Bhimbetka - Madhya Pradesh

• Bhimbekta is located in the foothills of Vindhya Range in the Raisen District in the State of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site that consists of seven hills and over 750 rock shelters distributed over 10 km.
• One of the oldest paintings in India and the World.
• Continuous occupation of these caves from 100000 BC to 1000 AD.
• Images of hunting, dancing, music, elephant and horse riders, honey collection, animal fighting, decoration of bodies, household scenes, etc.
• Bhimbetka drawings can be categorized into 7 Periods.
• The first Period is the Upper Palaeolithic.
• The second Period is Mesolithic.
• The third Period is the Chalcolithic.
• In 1957, archaeologist Dr. Vishnu Wakankar noticed these rock formations and thought these were similar to those he had seen in Spain and France.

​

Additional Information

Konark - Odisha​

• Konark Sun temple is located near the sacred city Puri in Odisha.
• Konark temple is also known as 'Black Pagoda'.
• Konark temple was built in the 13^th century by King Narasimhadeva I (AD 1238-1264). Its scale, refinement and conception represent the strength and stability of the Ganga Empire.
• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.
• Konark Sun Temple is depicted on the reverse side of the Indian currency note of Rs 10 to signify its importance to Indian cultural heritage.

Hampi - Karnataka

• Hampi is located near the modern-era city of Hosapete in Karnataka.
• Hampi is situated on the banks of the river Tungabhadra.
• Harihara and Bukka are the founders of the Vijayanagar City in 1336 A.D.
• They made Hampi the capital city.
• Hampi is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site
• Hampi Golden Chariot is depicted on the reverse side of the Indian currency note of Rs 50 to signify its importance to Indian cultural heritage.

Fatehpur Sikri - Uttar Pradesh

• Fatehpur Sikri is located in Agra in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
• Buland Darwaza (Door of Victory) is the highest Gateway in the World is located at Fatehpur Sikri in Agra.
• It was built in 1602 AD by Mughal Emperor Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujarat.
• It is the main entrance to the Jama Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri.

The correct answer is hypoglycemic

• A glucometer is generally used as a monitor by a hypoglycemic patient.

Key Points

• Diabetes is a long-term condition caused by too much glucose in the blood level.
• There are two main types of diabetes.
• Diabetes Type 1: caused when the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin.
• Diabetes Type 2: caused due to insulin resistance i.e., when the body is unable to produce or use insulin efficiently.
• A blood sugar level less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) is normal.
• A blood sugar level is more than 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) after two hours indicates diabetes.
• A blood sugar level is between 140 and 199 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L and 11.0 mmol/L) indicates prediabetes.
• During hyperglycemia, the glucose level is high in the blood and insulin decreases the sugar level.
• During hypoglycemia, the glucose level is low in the blood and glucagon increases the sugar level.

Important Points

• The pancreas is a dual gland because it acts as both endocrine and exocrine glands.
• The pancreas secretes both enzymes and hormones.
• Insulin and glucagon are the hormones produced by the pancreas and these hormones control the sugar level in the blood.
• Region of pancreas that produces hormones - Islets of Langerhans
• The two types of cells in the Islets of Langerhans are 𝛼 cells and 𝛽 cells.
• The hormone secreted by  𝛼 cells - Glucagon
• The hormone secreted by  𝛽 cells - Insulin
• Insulin was extracted by Frederick Banting and Charles Best in 1921.

The correct answer is Hygrometer.

Key Points

• Hygrometer
• A hygrometer is an instrument for measuring the relative humidity of the atmosphere.
• The hygrometer was invented by Leonardo da Vinci.

Additional Information

• ​Barometer
• A barometer is an instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
• The barometer was invented by Torricelli.
• Hydrometer
• A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure the specific gravity of liquids.
• The hydrometer was invented by Nicholson.
• ​Anemometer
• An anemometer is an instrument used to measure the velocity of wind and directions.
• The anemometer was invented by Leon Alberti.

The correct answer is Jama Masjid.

• Jama Masjid was built during the Mughal Period.

Key Points

• Jama Masjid was built by the Mughal emperor Shahjahan between 1650 and 165 AD.
• During his reign, he is known for the promotion of art, culture, and architecture.
• The Taj Mahal and the Red Fort are some of the magnificent structures built during his reign.
• The architectural plan of Badshahi Masjid in Lahore is similar to the Jama Masjid was built by Shah Jahan's son Aurangzeb.​

Additional Information

Tughlaqabad

• Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq built the city Tughlaqabad near Delhi and made it his capital.
• His real name is Ghazi Malik.
• During his period canals were constructed for the first time for irrigation and formulated famine policy.
• He gave up the land measurement system and started the Batai system or sharing of crops.
• Efficient postal service was restored.

Feroz Shah Kotla

• Feroz Shah Kotla fort was built by the Tughlaq ruler Feroz Shah Tughlaq in 1354 and located in New Delhi.
• He was a great builder. He built the cities Fatehabad, Hisar, Jaunapur (in memory of Mohammad Bin Tughlaq), and Firozabad.
• He established a hospital in Delhi known as Dar-ul-Shifa.
• He made the Iqta system hereditary.

Khirki Masjid

• Khirki Masjid was built between 1351-1354 AD by Khan-i-Jahan Junan Shah, the prime minister of Feroz Shah Tughlaq, the third ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty in Delhi.

Important Points

• On 27^th August 2019, Arun Jaitley Stadium is formerly known as Feroz Shah Kotla stadium, is a cricket stadium located in New Delhi.

The correct answer is Jaya Bachchan.

• Jaya Bachchan is not an incumbent nominated member of the Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

• Jaya Bachchan was first elected in 2004 as the Member of Parliament from the Samajwadi Party, representing Uttar Pradesh in the Rajya Sabha till March 2006.
• She got a second term from June 2006 till July 2010 and in February 2010 she stated her intent to complete her term.
• She was re-elected in 2012 for the third term and again in 2018 for her fourth term in the Rajya Sabha from Samajwadi Party.

Additional Information

Sonal Mansingh

• Sonal Mansingh is an incumbent nominated from arts to the member of the Rajya Sabha with party affiliation as Bharatiya Janatha Party (from 14th April 2018 to 13th April 2024).
• Sonal Mansingh is an Indian Classical dancer and Odissi dancing style and Guru Bharatnatyam.

Roopa Ganguly

• Roopa Ganguly is an incumbent nominated from arts to the member of the Rajya Sabha with party affiliation as Bharatiya Janatha Party (from 4th October 2016 to 24th April 2022).
• Roopa Ganguly is an Indian actress and playback singer.

Subramanian Swamy

• Subramanian Swamy is an incumbent nominated from economics to the member of the Rajya Sabha with party affiliation as Bharatiya Janatha Party (from 25th April 2016 to 24th April 2022).
• Subramanian Swamy is an Indian economist and statistician and before joining politics, he was a professor of Mathematical Economics at the Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Union Territories are ruled directly by the Central Government.
• Union Territories has a Lieutenant Governor as an administrator.
• Lieutenant Governor is the representative of the President of India and appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
• Union Territories have no representation in the Rajya Sabha except Delhi and Puducherry.
• There are 8 Union Territories in India.

 

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Important Points

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Additional Information

• Largest Union Territory: Jammu and Kashmir
• Smallest Union Territory: Lakshadweep
• Most densely populated Union Territory: Delhi
• Least densely populated Union Territory: Andaman Nicobar Islands
• Highest Sex-ratio Union Territory: Puducherry
• Lowest Sex ratio Union Territory: Daman and Diu
• Most Literate Union Territory: Lakshadweep
• Least Literate Union Territory: Daman and Diu

The correct answer is Rajiv Kumar.

Key Points

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body vested with powers to supervise, direct and control the election process of the country.
• The Election Commission of India (EC) came into force on 25 January 1950.
• From 2011, this day is observed as ‘National Voters’ Day’.
• The Election Commission functions as a multi-member body comprising of 3 commissioners.
• The Chief and the two other Election Commissioners have the same powers and emoluments including salaries, which are the same as a Supreme Court judge.
• The tenure of Election Commissioners is 6 years or until they attain 65 years, whichever happens first. They can also be removed or can resign at any time before the expiry of their term.
• The Election Commissioners are appointed by the President.
• Article 324 of the Indian Constitution deals it the power and authority to conduct, control, and supervise the entire election process in the country including elections to the Parliament, the Legislatures of every state, and to the offices of the President and Vice-President.
• The Election Commission is an all-India body that is common to both the Central government and the State governments.
• The Commission’s functions and powers with respect to elections to the offices of the President, the Vice President, the state legislators, and the Parliament are divided under three headings: Administrative Powers, Advisory Powers, and Quasi-Judicial Powers.
• On 16 October 1989, the voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61^st Constitutional Amendment Act 1988.
• It must be noted here that the commission does not deal with the elections to the Municipalities and Panchayats in the states. Hence, a separate State Election Commission is provided by the Constitution of India.
• The right to vote is a legal right.

 

Additional Information 

• Headquarter of Election Commission of India - Nirvachan Sadan, New Delhi
• The first Chief Election Commissioner of India - Sukumar Sen
• The longest-serving Chief Election Commissioner of India - K. V. K. Sundaram
• The shortest-serving Chief Election Commissioner of India - V. S. Ramadevi
• The first woman to become the Chief Election Commissioner of India - V. S. Ramadevi
• The Prime Minister who reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years - Rajiv Gandhi
• The first general elections to the Lok Sabha were held in India - Between 25^th October 1951 and 21^st February 1952.

The correct answer is Rs. 50,000.

• In September 2020, the Reserve Bank of India decided to introduce the 'positive pay system' from 1 January 2021 for cheques, under which re-confirmation of key details may be needed for payments beyond Rs. 50,000.

Key Points

• The concept of a Positive Pay System involves a process of reconfirming key details of large value cheques.
• Under this process, the issuer of the cheque submits electronically, through channels like SMS, mobile app, internet banking, ATM, etc., certain minimum details of that cheque (like date, name of the beneficiary/payee, amount, etc.) to the drawee bank, details of which are cross-checked with the presented cheque by CTS (Cheque Truncation System).
• Any discrepancy is flagged by CTS to the drawee bank and presenting bank, who would take redressal measures.
• SBI is introducing Positive Pay System from 1st January 2021 to make Cheque payment secure.
• The cheque number of a bank in India consists of six digits as of August 2020.

 

Additional Information

• A cheque is a negotiable instrument that contains an order to the bank, signed by the drawer to pay a certain sum of money to a specified person as per the Negotiable Instrument Act 1881.

There are three parties involved in a cheque.

• Drawer: The person who issues the cheque or holds the account in the bank.
• Drawee: The person who is directed to make payment against the cheque. Drawee is basically the bank on which the cheque is drawn.
• Payee: The person whose name is mentioned in the cheque has been issued. If the drawer has drawn the cheque in favor of self, then the drawer is the payee.

Apart from these, there are two more parties involved with a cheque.

• Endorser: When a payee transfers his right to take the payment to another party.
• Endorsee: The party in whose favor, the right is transferred.

Different types of Cheques

• Bearer cheque: is a type of cheque in which the bearer is authorized to get the cheque encashed. This means the person who carries the cheque to the bank has the authority to ask the bank for encashment. This type of cheque is endorsable.
• Order Cheque: Only the payee, whose name has been mentioned in the cheque is liable to get cash for that amount. The drawer needs to strike the “OR BEARER” mark as mentioned on the cheque so that the cheque can only be encashed to the payee. This type of cheque cannot be endorsed.
• Crossed Cheque: The amount can only be transferred from the drawer’s account to the payee’s account. Any third party can visit the bank to submit the cheque. In this type of cheque, no cash withdrawal can be done.
• Account Payee Cheque: The amount shall be transferred directly to the payee’s account number. This is the same as the account payee cheque but no third-party involvement is required.
• Post-Dated Cheque: If a drawer wants the payee to apply for withdrawal or transfer of money after the present date, then he/she can fill a post-dated cheque.
• Ante Dated Cheque: If the drawer mentions a date prior to the current date on the cheque.
• Blank Cheque: When a cheque only has a drawer’s signature and all the other fields are left empty.
• Self Cheque: If the drawer wishes cash for himself he can issue a cheque where in place of the Payee’s name he can write “SELF” and get encashment from the branch where he owns an account.
• Mutilated Cheque: If the cheque is torn into two or more pieces and the relevant information is torn, the bank shall reject the cheque and declare it invalid, until the drawer confirms its validation.
• Stale Cheque: if a payee moves to the bank to get a withdrawal for a cheque that was signed 3 months ago, the cheque shall be declared a stale cheque.

 

Important Points

• A cheque can only be issued against a current or savings bank account.
• A cheque without a date shall be considered invalid.
• Only the payee, in whose name the cheque has been issued, can encash it.
• A cheque is only valid 3 months from the date it has been issued.
• A 9-digit MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) code is mentioned at the bottom of the cheque. This makes the clearance of cheques easier for the banks.
• A MICR code that uniquely identifies a bank and a branch participating in an Electronic Clearance System (ECS).

The correct answer is  48th.

• India's rank in the Global Innovation Index 2020 is 48th.

Key Points

• The Global Innovation Index is a leading reference for measuring an economy’s innovation performance of 131 countries around the world.
• It is published annually by Cornell University, INSEAD, and the WIPO (World Intellectual Property Organization).
• Global Innovation Index was first published in 2007.

Important Points

• Switzerland, Sweden, the USA, the UK, and the Netherlands are the top five countries.
• India's rank in the Global Innovation Index 2019 is 52nd.
• World Intellectual Property Day -  26 April
• World Intellectual Property Theme 2020 - Innovate for a Green Future

The correct answer is Shringara.

• Shringara is one of the Navarasa usually translated as erotic love, romantic love, or as attraction or beauty.

Key Points

• Poorvi
• Raga Poorvi belongs to Poorvi thaat.
• Poorvi is a raga in Hindustani classical music.
• It is a Sandhiprakash raga and rendered at dusk, that is the time when the day ends and the raga Poorvi is deeply serious, quiet and mysterious in character
• It uses all the seven notes the ascent and the descent.
• Hindol
• Hindol is a raga in Carnatic music.
• The word ‘Hindolam’ means ‘swing’, conveying the power of wielding emotions alternately.
• Hindolam is a child (Janya raga) of the 20th Melakartha raga, Natabhairavi (Audava Raga) owing to its difference of two Swaras (rishabam and panchamam) from its parent Natabhairavi.
• Hindolam is a fairly popular raga for Aalapanas in concerts, given its palliative and amiable tuning nature.
• Bhairavi
• Bhairavi is a janya ragam in Carnatic music.
• Bhairavi is a raga in Hindustani classical sampurna raga of Bhairavi thaat.
• Bhairavi raga is known as the king of morning ragas.
• Dhrupad and Dhamar compositions of abounding in Bhairavi.

Additional Information

• Rasas are created by bhavas (the state of mind) in Indian arts about the aesthetic flavour of any visual, literary, or musical work that evokes an emotion or feeling in the reader or audience but cannot be described
• The nine emotions (Navarasa) are:
• Shringara (love/beauty)
• Hasya (laughter)
• Karuna (sorrow)
• Raudra (anger)
• Veera (heroism/courage)
• Bhayanaka (terror/fear)
• Bibhatsya (disgust)
• Adbutha (surprise/wonder)
• Shantha (peace or tranquillity).

The correct answer is Seven.

• There are Seven times has the Indian Men's Cricket team entered the ODI World Cup semi-finals till 2019

Additional Information

• The ICC (International Cricket Council) is the world governing body of Cricket.
• The ICC organizes world championship events such as World Test Championship, ICC Cricket World Cup, ICC T20 World Cup, ICC Champions Trophy, and Under -19 Cricket World Cup.
• The ICC has 104 member nations.
• India won the World Cup in 1983 and 2011.
• India also the runners-up at the 2003 World Cup, and semifinalists four times World Cup (1987, 1996, 2015, 2019).
• The BCCI (Board of Control for Cricket in India) is the governing body for Cricket in India.
• Roger Binny is the current BCCI President.

 

Important Points

• Headuarter of ICC - Dubai, UAE
• Founded - 15^th June 1909
• Chairman of ICC - Greg Barclay
• CEO of ICC - Manu Sawhney
• ICC Men World Cup Champions 2019 - England
• ICC Men T-20 World Cup Champions 2016 - West Indies
• ICC Men World Cup 2023 Venue - India
• ICC Men T-20 World Cup 2021 Venue - India
• ICC Women World Cup Champions 2017 - England
• ICC Women T-20 World Cup Champions 2020 - Australia
• ICC Women World Cup 2021 Venue- New Zealand
• ICC Women T-20 World Cup 2023 Venue - South Africa
• ICC Under-19 Men World Cup Champions 2020 - Bangladesh
• ICC Under-19 Men World Cup 2022 Venue - West Indies

The correct answer is Doldrums.

• Doldrums is an equatorial belt of low atmospheric pressure where the trade winds converge.

Key Points

Moraine 

• Moraines are distinct ridges or mounds of debris that are directly laid down by a moving glacier. This material is usually soil and rock.
• Moraines only show up in places that have, or used to have glaciers.
• Glaciers are extremely large, moving rivers of ice.
• Glaciers shape the landscape in a process called glaciation.
• Glaciation can affect the land, rocks, and water in an area for thousands of years. That is why moraines are often very old.

La Nina

• La Nina is a climate pattern that describes the cooling of surface ocean waters along the tropical west coast of South America.
• La Nina is the counterpart of El Nino.
• La Lina means Little Girl in Spanish.
• La Lina occurs at irregular intervals of about two to seven years.
• La Niña is caused by a build-up of cooler-than-normal waters in the tropical Pacific, the area of the Pacific Ocean between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• Unusually strong, eastward-moving trade winds and ocean currents bring this cold water to the surface, a process known as upwelling.

El Nino

• El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
• El Nino means Christ child or Littel Boy in Spanish
• During the time of El Nino, the trade winds weaken and warm water pushed back east towards the coast of Latin American countries.
• El Nino can affect our weather significantly and trade winds.
• El Nino has a strong effect on marine life off the Pacific coast.

Additional Information

• Atmospheric Pressure belts are seasonally identical horizontal pressure variations created in the earth's atmosphere just above the earth's surface due to seasonal and spatial variation of energy received by the earth at different places.
• There are seven pressure belts on the earth's surface. They are the Equatorial Low, the two Subtropical highs, the two Subpolar lows, and the two Polar highs. Except for the Equatorial low, the others form matching pairs in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.

​Equatorial Low-Pressure Belts

• It is located on either side of the North and South of the Equator in a zone extending from 0o  to 5^o.
• It is thermally induced because of the intense heating of the ground by the vertical rays of the sun.
• It represents the zone convergence of North-East and South-East trade winds. This convergence zone is characterized by light and feeble winds and because of the frequent calm conditions, this belt is also called a belt of calm or doldrums.

Subtropical High-Pressure Belts

• It extends between 30^o to 35^o both the hemisphere
• It is not thermally induced but dynamically induced as it owes its origin to the rotation of the earth and sinking and settling down of winds.
• Here the zone convergence of winds at a higher altitude above this zone results in the subsidence of air from higher altitudes and this wind results in high pressure. This zone of high pressure is also called the Horse latitude.
• The permanent winds blowing from the Sub-Polar High-Pressure to Sub-Polar Low-Pressure in both the hemisphere are called Westerlies.

Sub-Polar Low-Pressure Belts

• It extends between 60^o and 65^o in both the hemisphere.
• The low-pressure belt does not thermally induce because there is low temperature throughout the year and as such there should have been a high-pressure belt instead of low pressure.
• Pressure gradient, rotation of the earth and Coriolis force, centrifugal action of wind are the factor that controls the air motion.
• This region is marked by violent storms in winter.

Polar High-Pressure Belts

• Polar high pressure is very small in area and extends between **70^o to 90^o**in both the hemisphere.
• The temperatures are always extremely low.
• The Polar regions experience very cold climatic conditions due to the rays of the sun is extremely slanting.
• These regions of Polar high-pressure belts are known as the Polar Highs.
• These regions are characterized by permanent IceCaps.

 

The correct answer is 2010.

• The 2010 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XIX Commonwealth Games and commonly known as Delhi 2010 was held in Delhi, India.

Key Points

• The Commonwealth Games is an international multi-sport event.
• The Commonwealth of Nations is an association of independent sovereign states, most of which are former colonies of the United Kingdom.
• The British Monarch remains the head of the Commonwealth.
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games and commonly known as Birmingham 2022 is scheduled to be held in Birmingham, England.
• This is the third time England has hosted the Games, after London in 1934 and Manchester in 2002.
• The Games are expected to take place between 28 July and 8 August 2022.
• The 2018 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXI Commonwealth Games and commonly known as Gold Coast 2018 was held in Queensland,  Australia.
• The 2014 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XX Commonwealth Games and commonly known as Glasgow 2014 held in Glasgow in Scotland.

​

Important Points

• 2018 Commonwealth Games Winner - Australia (Total - 198 medals, Gold - 80, Silver - 59, Bronze - 59)
• 2018 Commonwealth Games second-place - England (Total - 136 medals, Gold - 45, Silver - 45, Bronze - 46)
• 2018 Commonwealth Games third-place - India (Total - 66 medals, Gold - 26, Silver - 20, Bronze - 20)
• 2018 Commonwealth Games motto - Share the Dreams

The correct answer is immunization.

• Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 2.0 is a scheme launched by the Government of India to improve coverage in areas with low immunization.

 

• The Intensified Mission Indradhanush 2.0 was launched in 2018.
• Its aims to immunize children under 2 years of age and pregnant women against eight vaccine-preventable diseases.
• It was a nationwide immunization drive to mark the 25 years of the Pulse polio programme (2019-20).
• It aimed to achieve at least 90% pan-India immunization coverage by 2022.
• The diseases covered under the mission are polio, diphtheria, measles, whooping cough, tuberculosis, hepatitis B, tetanus, meningitis, rubella, Japanese encephalitis and pneumonia.
• TheImmunization Programme in India was introduced in 1978 as the ‘Expanded Programme of Immunization (EPI) by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• In1985**,** the Programme was modified as ‘Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)’.
• The Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 3.0 scheme has been rolled out to cover children and pregnant women who missed routine immunization during the Covid-19 pandemic.

The correct answer is Thiruvananthapuram.

• The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) is located near Thiruvananthapuram.

Key Points

• The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) was established on 21^st November 1963.
• The RH-75 is a rocket in the “Rohini” series of sounding rockets.
• RH-75 (Rohini-75) was the first indigenously developed rocket by ISRO (Indian Space and Research Organization) in India was launched from the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) on 20^th November 1967.
• Thumba is close to the magnetic equator and ideal for this programme.
• RH-75 had a diameter of 75 mm and hence the name. It weighed 32 kg and had a height of 1.5 m. It was a one-stage rocket. It flew 15 times between November 1967 and September 1968.
• In 1975, all sounding rocket activities were consolidated under one programme, the Rohini Sounding Rocket (RSR) Programme.
• The sounding rocket programme was the basis of all future launch vehicle technology that the ISRO has built.
• The research in the sounding rocket domain has been led by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSCC) at Thiruvananthapuram.
• The launch of the RH-75 was a truly remarkable feat for a developing country.
• It proved the capabilities of the Indian space scientists and researchers.
• The Indian space programme has truly come a long way from the small ‘toy rocket’ RH-75 to Mangalyaan, the Mars Orbiter.
• Satish Dawan Space Centre is a rocket launch centre operated by ISRO and located in Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.

Important Points

• ISRO Headquarter - Bengaluru
• ISRO formed - 15^th August 1969
• Chairman of ISRO -Dr. V. Narayanan.
• Father of Indian Space Programme - Dr Vikram Sarabhai

The correct answer is 2012.

• The 11th Five-Year Plan ended in the year 2012.

Key Points

• The Planning Commission of India was a non-constitutional and non-statutory body, which was responsible to formulate India’s five years plans for social and economic development in India.
• The Planning Commission is only an advisory body.
• The Prime minister of India is the Ex-officio chairman of the planning commission.
• It was established on 15^th March 1950 in accordance with article 39 of the constitution which is a part of directive principles of state policy.
• The apex body gives final approval to a five-year plan in India - National Development Council.
• National Development Council was established on 6th August 1952.
• NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission of India from 1^st January 2015.

11th Five-Year Plan (2007-2012)

• The 11th Five-Year Plan focused on Inclusive Growth.
• India had emerged as one of the fastest-growing economies by the end of the Tenth Plan.
• The savings and investment rates had increased, the industrial sector had responded well to face competition in the global economy and foreign investors were keen to invest in India.
• But the growth was not perceived as sufficiently inclusive for many groups, especially SCs, STs & minorities as borne out by data on several dimensions like poverty, malnutrition, mortality, current daily employment, etc.
• The broad vision for the 11th Plan included several interrelated components like rapid growth reducing poverty & creating employment opportunities, access to essential services in health & education, especially for the poor, extension of employment opportunities using the National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme, environmental sustainability, reduction of gender inequality.
• Accordingly, various targets were laid down like reduction in unemployment( to less than 5% among educated youth ) & headcount ratio of poverty (by 10%), reduction in dropout rates, the gender gap in literacy, infant mortality, total fertility, malnutrition in the age group of 0-3 ( to half its present level), improvement in sex ratio, forest & tree cover, air quality in major cities, ensuring electricity connection to all villages & BPL households (by 2009) & reliable power by end of 11th Plan, all-weather road connection to habitations with population 1000 and above (500 in hilly areas) by 2009, connecting every village by telephone & providing broadband connectivity to all villages by 2012.
• The Eleventh Plan started well with the first year achieving a growth rate of 9.3%, however, the growth decelerated to a 6.7% rate in 2008-09 following the global financial crisis.
• The economy recovered substantially to register growth rates of 8.6% and 9.3% in 2009-10 and 2010-11 respectively.
• The second bout of a global slowdown in 2011 due to the sovereign debt crisis in Europe coupled with domestic factors such as tight monetary policy and supply-side bottlenecks, resulted in a deceleration of growth to 6.2% in 2011-12.
• The growth rate of the 11th Five-Year Plan is 8%.

​

Important Points

• The first five-year plan was started from 1951 to 1956.
• The concept of the five-year plan was borrowed from USSR.
• Father of Indian Planning - M. Visveswarayya
• The Chairman of NITI Aayog - Narendra Modi
• The Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog - Dr. Suman Bery
• The CEO of NITI Aayog - Shri B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
• NITI Aayog Headquarters - New Delhi

The correct answer is Hindi.

Key Points

• The Vyas Samman started in 1991 is given for 'outstanding literary work' in Hindi.
• The Vyas Samman is awarded by the K. K. Birla Foundation.
• The Vyas Samman to be eligible for the last 10 years literary work must be published in the Hindi language.
• The Vyas Samman carries a cash prize of Rs 4 lakh along with a citation and a plaque.
• The first recipient of Vyas Samman - Ram Vilas Sharma for the work 'Bharat ke Pracheen bhasha Parivar aur Hindi' in 1991.
• In 2019, Nasira Sharma got the 29th Vyas Samman for the novel Kagaz ki Nav.

The correct answer is Option 2.

• Paolo Rossi was an Italian professional football player.

​

Key Points

• Paolo Rossi was a forward football player.
• He led Italy to the 1982 FIFA World Cup title and he was the top goalscorer.
• He got Golden Ball and Golden Boot for the player of the tournament in the 1982 FIFA World Cup.
• He got the Ballon d'Or award in 1982.

 

​

Additional Information

 Kylian Mbappé – France

• Kylian Mbappé is a French professional football player who played as a forward.
• He is playing French Ligue 1 Club Paris Saint-Germain.

Pele – Brazil

• Pele was a Brazilian professional football player who played as a forward.
• Pele is considered one of the greatest players of all-time football.
• During his international career, he won three FIFA World Cups: 1958, 1962, and 1970.
• Pelé is the all-time leading goalscorer for Brazil with 77 goals in 92 games.

​Diego Maradona – Argentina

• Diego Maradona was an Argentinian professional football player who played as a forward.
• Diego Maradona was an Argentinian Manager.
• He is one of the greatest players of all-time football.
• Maradona played in four FIFA World Cups, including the 1986 World Cup.
• He captained Argentina and led them to victory over West Germany in the 1986 FIFA World Cup final and won the Golden Ball as the tournament's best player.

 

Important Points

• Full form of FIFA - International Federation of Association Football
• FIFA Founded - 21^st May 1904
• FIFA Headquarter - Zurich, Switzerland
• FIFA President - Gianni Infantino
• FIFA 2018 Men World Cup Winner - France
• FIFA 2019 Women World Cup Winner - United States Of America
• FIFA 2022 Men World Cup Venue - Qatar
• FIFA 2023 Women World Cup Venue - Australia and New Zealand

The Correct Answer is "Amitav Ghosh".

Important Points

• Renowned English fiction writer Amitav Ghosh has been selected for the Jnanpith award, 2018.
• This has been announced by Jnanpith Selection Board on 14 December 2018.
• Amitav Ghosh was born in Calcutta in 1956.
• He is an alumnus of Doon School, Dehradun, St. Stephen’s College, Delhi University and Delhi School of Economics.
• He was awarded Padma Shri in 2007 and was elected as Fellow of the Royal Society of Literature in 2009.
• He was also named Ford Foundation Art of Change Fellow in 2015.

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His works :

• The Circle of Reason (1986) was his first novel.
• Other fiction works include  The Shadow Lines (1988), The Calcutta Chromosome (1995), The Glass Palace (2000), The Hungry Tide (2004).
• He has also written three works as a part of The Ibis trilogy of which the first volume is Sea of Poppies (2008); the second volume is River of Smoke (2011), and the third volume is Flood of Fire (2015).
• His notable non-fiction works include Antique Land (1992), Dancing in Cambodia and at Large in Burma (1998), Countdown (1999), and The Imam and the Indian (2002), The Great Derangement: Climate Change and the Unthinkable (2016).

 

Additional Information

• Jnanpith award was instituted in 1961.
• Via this award, the Bhartiya Jnanpith recognizes Indian litterateurs who write in one of the 22 Indian languages listed in Schedule Eight of the Indian Constitution.
• The winners receive a cash prize, a citation and a bronze replica of Goddess Saraswati.
• Famous Malayalam writer G.S. Kurup was the first winner of the Jnanpith award.

The Correct Answer is "13th".

Important Points

• Pranab Mukherjee was the 13th President of India.
• Pranab Mukherjee was the president between 2012 and 2017.
• He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2019.
• He was the fifth president to receive this Bharat Ratna award.
• The former President of India, Pranab Mukherjee passed away at the age of 84.
• He had tested positive for the coronavirus disease before undergoing successful surgery to remove a brain clot.
• He was born in the village of Mirati in the Birbhum district of West Bengal.
• The current president of India is Droupadi Murmu.

Additional Information

• Pranab Mukherjee held the important foreign, defense, commerce, and finance portfolios as a Union minister across various Congress-led governments in the past.
• Before becoming finance minister for the first time as part of Indira Gandhi’s Cabinet in 1982, Mukherjee had served as a deputy minister for finance in 1973-74.
• Mukherjee also served on the board of governors of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, Asian Development Bank, and African Development Bank.
• He was also appointed the deputy chairman of the Planning Commission in 1991 during the time of P V Narasimha Rao’s government at the Centre and held that position for five years.

The Correct Answer is "1993".

Key Points

• The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• It is responsible for looking into cases of excesses that are violating human rights and to strengthen the efforts to uphold human rights in the country.
• Presently it is comprised of a speaker and 4 members.
• This is a multilateral institution.
• The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provided that the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
• A person who has been Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a Judge of the Supreme Court be the chairperson of the NHRC.
• Currently, the chairpersons of various commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and the National Commission for Women are members of the NHRC.

 

Additional Information

• The bill provides for the inclusion of the chairpersons of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as members of the NHRC.
• The bill seeks to increase the persons having knowledge of human rights to be appointed as members from two to three. Further, it mandates one of them to be a woman.
• The bill provides that a person who has been Chief Justice or Judge of a High Court will be the chairperson of an SHRC.
• The bill seeks to reduce the term of office chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC from five years or till the age of seventy years to three years or till the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.
• The Bill provides for the central government to confer on an SHRC human rights functions being discharged by Union Territories.
• Further, it provides for functions relating to human rights in the case of Delhi to be dealt with by the NHRC.

The Correct Answer is "Golden Threshold".

• Golden Threshold is written by Sarojini Naidu.
• M. K. Gandhi was a prolific writer.
• Gandhi founded and edited several newspapers/journals including Indian Opinion, Young India, and b.
• There are innumerable books that are collections of Gandhi’s writings on various topics.
• Here are the three books that Gandhi wrote:
• Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule (1909)
• India of My Dreams (1947).
• Nature Cure (1945).
• Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was born in Porbandar Town of the Bombay Presidency on 2 October 1869, the year in which Lord Mayo took office as Governor-General of India.
• Rabindranath Tagore who gave the title of 'Mahatma' to Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi.

The Correct Answer is "annually cultivated land".​

Key Points

• During the Mughal Period, the land was divided into four categories namely
• Polaj.
• Parati.
• Chachar.
• Banjar.
• Polaj was the land that is annually cultivated for each crop in succession and is never allowed to lie fallow.
• Polaj was the ideal and best type of land throughout the empire.
• This land was cultivated always and was never allowed to lie fallow.

Important Points

• There was no Mughal land revenue system before Akbar.
• His father Humayun and grandfather Babur did not introduce any changes because they were the first conquerors of their dynasty and remained pre-occupied with subduing rebellions, consolidating empires, and maintaining order.
• A proper land revenue system was founded by Akbar.
• However, the system of Akbar was itself based on what Shershah Suri implemented during his short tenure.
• Thus, the land revenue system of Akbar was neither innovation nor an invention.
• His indebtedness to the earlier rulers is immense but this has not diminished his fame as far as the land revenue system is concerned.
• He followed the policy of Shershah with greater precision and correctness and then extended it to various subah or provinces of his empire.
• But this correction or precision did not come overnight.
• Initially was tortuous enough to turn peasants into beggars, and forcing them to sell their wives and children.
• But it was revised several times.

The corrections done by the Akbar inland revenue system can be mainly divided into three heads as follows:

• Standardization of measurement of land
• Ascertaining the produce per Bigha of Land
• Fixation of state’s share in that produce

The Correct Answer is "Bronze".

Important Points

• ‘Dancing girl’ found in Mohenjodaro is an artifact that is some 4,500 years old.
• The 10.8 cm long statue of the dancing girl was found in 1926 from a house in Mohenjodaro is made of bronze.
• Steatite (Soap Stone) artifacts have been found at nearly every excavated Harappan period site and were the primary element used to make seals.
• Terracotta was used to make figurines.
• It is a Pre-Historic Bronze Sculpture made in the Lost Wax technique in the 2300-1750 BCE century found in the Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) city of >Mohenjodaro (Present day, Pakistan).

 

Key Points ​

The Correct Answer is "2018-19".

Important Points

• It was announced in Union Budget 2018-19 on the line of Operation Flood to promote FPOs, agri-logistics, processing facilities, and professional management.
• It aims to promote farmer producers organizations, processing facilities, agri-logistics, and professional management.
• It also aims to aid farmers and help control and limit erratic fluctuations in the prices of tomatoes, onions, and potatoes (TOP).
• It is essentially a price fixation scheme that aims to ensure farmers are given the right price for their produce.
• The idea behind it is to double the income of farmers by the end of 2022.

Its major objectives are:

• Price stabilization for producers and consumers by proper production planning in TOP clusters.
• Reduction in post-harvest losses by creation of farm gate infrastructure, development of suitable agro-logistics, and creation of appropriate storage capacity linking consumption centers.
• Enhance value realization of TOP farmers by targeted interventions to strengthen TOP production clusters and their FPOs,
• Increase in food processing capacities and value addition in the TOP value chain.
• Set up of market intelligence network to collect and collate real-time data on demand and supply and price of TOP crops.

The Correct Answer is "kidney".

Important Points

• Nephritis is a condition in which the nephrons, the functional units of the kidneys, become inflamed.
• This inflammation, which is also known as glomerulonephritis, can adversely affect kidney function.
• The kidneys are bean-shaped organs that filter the blood circulating the body to remove excess water and waste products from it.
• There are many types of nephritis with a range of causes. While some types occur suddenly, others develop as part of a chronic condition and require ongoing management.

Additional Information

• There are several different types of nephritis, including:
• Acute glomerulonephritis: 
• This form of nephritis can develop suddenly after a severe infection, such as strep throat, hepatitis, or HIV.
• Lupus and rarer disorders, such as vasculitides and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), can also lead to acute inflammation of the kidneys.
• A person with these conditions will require prompt medical attention during a flare-up to reduce kidney damage.
• Lupus nephritis: 
• Lupus is an autoimmune disease, which means that the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissues in the body.
• Over half of all individuals with a lupus diagnosis eventually develop lupus nephritis.
• This occurs when the immune system attacks the kidneys.
• The symptoms of lupus nephritis include:
• foamy urine
• high blood pressure
• swelling of the legs, ankles, and feet

The Correct Answer is "V".

Important Points

• The constitution of India deals with the organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, power of the parliament under Article 79 to 122 in Part V.
• Article 79 of the Indian constitution says that India will have a parliament for making laws to run the democratic setup of the country.
• Article 79 to 122 in part V of the constitution of India deal with the organization, privileges, and powers, and so on of the parliament.
• India has a bicameral parliament made of President, Rajya Sabha (Upper House / Council of States), and Lok Sabha (Lower House / House of People).
• While Rajya Sabha represents states and union territories, Lok Sabha represents the people of India.

 

Additional Information

Rajya Sabha :

• Rajya Sabha is the upper house of parliament that represents the states and union territories.
• Its membership is fixed to a maximum of 250 members of which 238 are elected by the representatives of states and union territories while 12 members are nominated by the President on account of their excellence in literature, science, art, or social service.
• The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is 245, of whom 233 are representatives of the States/Union Territories and 12 are nominated by the President.

 

Lok Sabha :

• Lok Sabha is the lower house of the parliament that represents the people.
• Article 81 deals with the Composition of the Lok Sabha.
• The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552 members of which 530 are elected from states, 20 are elected from Union Territories and 2 are nominated by President from the Anglo-Indian community if the president thinks that the community is not adequately represented in the house.
• The parliament by law can change the strength of the Lok Sabha.
• For example, when the first General elections were held in 1951-52, the strength of the Lok Sabha at that time was 489.
• Currently, the constitution has placed a bar for such changes until relevant figures are published of the first census taken after the year 2026.

The Correct Answer is "Abhijit Mukherjee".

Important Points

• Abhijit Mukherjee is an Indian scientist and Professor of Geology and Geophysics and the School of Environmental Science and Engineering of IIT Kharagpur.
• He has been selected for the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology in 2020 in the field of Earth Atmosphere-Ocean and Planetary Sciences.
• Dr. Abhijit Mukherjee has made interdisciplinary, field, laboratory, and numerical-based studies to understand the decadal-scale changes in groundwater quantity and quality in India.
• This work of social relevance quantified geological and human influences on groundwater chemistry, elucidated manmade and geogenic groundwater pollutants, and measured groundwater-sea water interactions across India.
• He has also provided estimates on groundwater sourced drinking water availability across India and his studies have informed national water missions and policies.
• Abhijit Mukherjee is an Indian scientist and Professor of Geology and Geophysics and the School of Environmental Science and Engineering of IIT Kharagpur.
• He has been selected for the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology in 2020 in the field of Earth Atmosphere-Ocean and Planetary Sciences.
• Abhijit Mukherjee presently works as an Associate Professor at the Department of Geology and Geophysics and the School of Environmental Science and Engineering of Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)Kharagpur.

 

Additional Information

• The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology (SSB) is a science award in India given annually by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) for notable and outstanding research, applied or fundamental, in biology, chemistry, environmental science, engineering, mathematics, medicine, and Physics.
• The prize recognizes outstanding Indian work (according to the view of the CSIR awarding committee) in science and technology.
• It is the most coveted award in multidisciplinary science in India.
• The award is named after the founder Director of the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research, Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar.
• It was first awarded in 1958.

The Correct Answer is "1986".

Important Points

• The Central Rural Sanitation Programme, which was started in 1986.
• It was one of India’s first efforts to provide safe sanitation in rural areas.
• This programme focussed mainly on providing subsidies to people to construct sanitation facilities.
• A study done by the government in 1996-97 showed that it was more important to raise awareness about sanitation as a whole rather than to just provide subsidies for construction.
• This understanding marked the first shift in the programme.
• In 1999, a restructured Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC) was initiated to create supply-led sanitation by promoting local sanitary marts and a range of technological options.

 

Key Points

• The rural sanitation campaign has the following as its objectives:
• Accelerate sanitation coverage in rural areas.
• Generate a push from the people to get facilities rather than expect the Government to do it (demand-led promotion).
• Focus on intensive education and awareness campaigns to ensure that people understand the need for safe sanitation.
• Take the scheme beyond rural households to rural schools and nursery schools. Here again, the emphasis was placed on promoting good hygiene practices.
• Promote cost-effective and appropriate technologies.
• Through all the above, improve the health and quality of life in rural areas.

 

Additional Information

• The last modification of the scheme happened in 2012.
• It was restructured and renamed the Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan.
• With an intent to transform India into "Nirmal Bharat", the scheme's revised target for reaching total sanitation was changed from 2012 to 2022.

The Correct Answer is "Light".

• A photovoltaic device has been developed which converts Light radiation directly into electrical energy with an overall efficiency of 11%.
• This consists of a p-n junction formed by gaseous diffusion near the front surface of a silicon plate.

Key Points

• Solar Photovoltaic cells work by converting sunlight into electric current.
• A Solar Photovoltaic cell is a semiconductor system made of silicon or similar materials.
• The system generates electricity when it is exposed to sunlight.
• Power is generated by connecting thousands of tiny solar cells which form modules.
• The generated electricity will be in dc form which can be converted into Alternating Current form sing DC to AC converters called inverters.

​

The Correct Answer is "Delhi".

Important Points

• Agrasen ki Baoli, designated a protected monument by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act of 1958.
• It is a 60-meter long and 15-meter wide historical step well on Hailey Road, near Connaught Place, Jantar Mantar in New Delhi, India.
• Although there are no known historical records to prove who built Agrasen ki Baoli, it is believed that it was originally built by the legendary king Agrasen, and the present architecture hints at it being rebuilt in the 14th century during the Tughlag period of Delhi Sultanate.

 

Key Points

• The Agrasen ki Baoli is a 60-meter long and 15-meter wide historical step well on Hailey Road in New Delhi.
• It was built in the pre-Lodhi era (14th century) by Raja Agrasen to collect rainwater during the monsoon.
• It is a protected monument by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act of 1958.

The Correct Answer is "Uttar Pradesh".

Important Points

• Sharqi Style of Architecture was patronized by the Sharqi Dynasty of Sultans of Jaunpur.
• It is one of the most iconic and unique styles of wider Indo-Islamic architecture in the subcontinent. some examples,
• Jama Masjid of Jaunpur.
• Atala Masjid of Jaunpur
• Lal Darwaza Masjid.

Additional Information

• The main feature of Sharqi mosques is the huge rectangular pylon (gateway) with arches.
• They are made of stone and have fine carving and latticework. Unlike the Delhi mosques of the same period, there are no minarets.
• The unique feature of the buildings here is the use of bold and forceful characters painted on huge screens in the center and side bays of the prayer hall.

The Correct Answer is "Employees' Provident Fund Organisation".

Important Points

• Employees’ Provident Fund or EPF is a popular savings scheme that has been introduced by the EPFO under the supervision of the Government of India.
• The savings scheme is directed towards the salaried-class to facilitate their habit of saving money to build a substantial retirement corpus.
• The EPF scheme has catered to over 5 Crore individuals and is directed by three different Acts, namely, the Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme Act, 1952, the Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme Act, 1976, and the Employees’ Pension Scheme Act, 1995.
• The fund is built with monetary contributions extended by employees and their employers each month.
• Both parties extend 12% of each of the employees’ monthly salary, as their share of contribution towards EPF.
• The fund thus built accrues a pre-fixed rate of interest that has been set by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation.

Additional Information

• The Employee Provident Fund is open for employees of both the Public and Private Sectors, which means all employees can apply to become a member of EPF India.
• Additionally, any organization that employs at least 20 individuals is deemed liable to extend the benefits of EPF to its employees.
• The employees’ provident fund scheme extends an array of benefits towards the EPF employee members. It inculcates a sense of financial stability and security in them.

1. Capital appreciation.
2. Corpus for Retirement.
3. Emergency Corpus.
4. Tax-saving.

The Correct Answer is "Partition of Bengal".

Important Points

• The Swadeshi Movement was proclaimed on August 7, 1905, at the Calcutta Town Hall, in Bengal.
• The Boycott movement was also launched along with the Swadeshi movement.
• The movements included using goods produced in India and burning British-made goods.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak encouraged Swadeshi and Boycott movement after the British government decided on the partition of Bengal.

 

Key Points

Timeline of Swadeshi movement:

• In 1900, Bengal was the major province in British India. The Indian national movement began in Bengal and thus, Britishers decided to part in Bengal.
• When Lord Curzon, then Viceroy of India, announced the partition of Bengal in July 1905, Indian National Congress, initiated the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.
• Swadeshi movement was launched as a protest movement which also gave a lead to the Boycott movement in the country.
• In 1909, the movement had spread across the country and people had started anti-partition and anti-colonial movements.
• In Andhra Pradesh, the Swadeshi movement was also known as the Vandemataram movement.
• In 1910, there were many secret associations that had been set up and there were many revolutionary movements, which were synonymous with the Swadeshi movement
• Later movements by Mahatma Gandhi from 1915, such as the Satyagraha movement, the Non-Cooperation movement, etc. were based on the Swadeshi movement.

Key people in the Swadeshi movement:

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• Bipin Chandra Pal
• Lala Lajpat Rai
• Aurobindo Ghosh
• VO Chidambaram Pillai
• Babu Genu

The Correct Answer is "State Bank of India".

Important Points

• YONO SBI, which literally means You Only Need One.
• It’s an app by the State Bank of India that provides multiple services in one place.
• It eliminates the need for multiple apps on our phones.
• It has made mobile banking easy too with services such as digitally opening a bank account, fund transfers, cashless bill payments, applying and availing loans in real-time.
• We can even initiate the cash withdrawal process using our smartphones by using this app.
• We have to set a 6 digit YONO cash pin for withdrawing money from SBI ATMs, designated as YONO cashpoints.
• Check our account balance, create a fixed deposit and add a beneficiary for fund transfers.
• Make an immediate fund transfer to a newly added beneficiary up to Rs. 10,000.
• Link all our SBI entities in one app like credit cards, life insurance, general insurance, travel insurance, accident insurance, SIP, mutual funds, and other investments.
• Get an overview of your expenses by checking the spend analysis provided by the app that automatically tags and categorizes your expenses.
• Get pre-approved personal loans up to Rs. 5 lakhs, 24X7 using the app and portal without any documentation.

The Correct Answer is "Deomali".

Important Points

• Deomali is the highest Peak Point in Odisha state, located in eastern Ghats in the Koratpur district of Odisha.
• Deomali Peak an elevation of about 1,672 m.
• It is situated near Doodhari village, Pottangi Panchayat division which is 70  km from Koraput in Southern Odisha.
• Deomali is dotted with brooks and deep valleys and inhabited by tribes such Kandhas, Parajas, Bhumia, Malis, and Bhotias.
• Many waterfalls also found while heading for the top of the hill.

Additional Information

• Doddabetta is the highest Peak in Tamil Nadu.
• Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Hills, at 2637 meters (8650 feet).
• There is a reserved forest area around the peak.
• Devimala is one of the 14 highest peaks of Western Ghats.

The Correct Answer is "Indrajit Gupta".

Important Points

• Indrajit Gupta was the chairman of the all-party parliamentary committee on state funding of elections.
• The 8-member committee that set up by the all-party conference in May 1998, submitted its report in January 1999.
• The election commission has produced a comprehensive set of proposals regarding electoral reforms and implemented many of the recommendations of the above committees.

 

Additional Information

• India’s electoral system was largely free from any major flaw till the fourth general elections (1967).
• The distortions in its working appeared, for the first time, in the fifth general elections (1971) and these got multiplied in the successive elections, especially in those held in the eighties and thereafter. Many a time, the Election Commission expressed its concern and anxiety for removing obstacles in the way of free and fair polls.
• It had made a number of recommendations and repeatedly reminded the government of the necessity of changing the existing laws to check the electoral malpractices.
• Some of the key classic committees towards electoral reforms in the country include Tarkunde Committee Report (1975), Goswami Committee Report (1990), Election Commission’s recommendations (1998), Indrajit Gupta Committee Report (1998).

The Correct Answer is "River".

Important Points

• River landforms can be divided into upper, middle and lower course features.
• As the river moves from the upper course to the lower course, the features in the river will change.
• In the middle course the river has more energy and a high volume of water.
• The gradient here is gentle and lateral (sideways) erosion has widened the river channel.
• The river channel has also deepened.
• A larger river channel means there is less friction, so the water flows faster.

 

Key Points

The formation of a meander :

• As the river erodes laterally, to the right side then the left side, it forms large bends, and then horseshoe-like loops called meanders.
• The formation of meanders is due to both deposition and erosion and meanders gradually migrate downstream.
• The force of the water erodes and undercuts the river bank on the outside of the bend where water flow has most energy due to decreased friction. This will form a river cliff.
• On the inside of the bend, where the river flow is slower, material is deposited, as there is more friction. This will form a slip-off slope.
• Over time the horseshoe become tighter, until the ends become very close together. As the river breaks through, e.g. during a flood when the river has a higher discharge and more energy, and the ends join, the loop is cut-off from the main channel.
• The cut-off loop is called an oxbow lake.

                                                                                          

The Correct Answer is "120".

Important Points

• ​The idea of extra-time in football was also added to the rules with those 1897 amendments, at least for British clubs and competitions.
• It wasn't the case everywhere, though, which is demonstrated neatly by the German Championship final of 1922 when Hamburg and Nuremberg were drawing 2-2 after 90 minutes but wanted to find a winner.
• They decided to keep playing until a team scored, resulting in another 99 minutes of football.
• Even then it wasn't a goal that ended the contest so much as it was the encroachment of night.
• When the two sides met for a replay seven weeks later they did include extra-time, but the match still couldn't be finished because of the number of injuries and sendings off.

 

Key Points

• In a professional football match that typically lasts 90 minutes, there are some exceptions.
• For instance, the time limit is decreased in youth games to compensate for the youngsters’ lack of fitness.
• Both men’s and women’s games last 90 minutes with a 15-minute half-time period in the middle.
• Both games can acquire extra time depending on stoppages and injuries.
• The duration of each match shall be 90 minutes, except in special cases, provided for in these Competition Rules, where an extra 30 minutes shall be played.
• The Referee shall allow for time lost in accordance with the Laws of the Game or through accident or other cause and his decision on this matter is not subject to appeal.
• The half-time interval shall be 15 minutes for all ties in all competitions.
• Both teams shall enter the field of play together, five minutes prior to the kick-off time, along with the Match Officials.

The Correct Answer is "Reserve Bank of India".

Important Points

• The Base Rate is the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the RBI.
• It is the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it is not viable to lend.
• The base rate, introduced with effect from 1st July 2011 by the Reserve Bank of India, is the new benchmark rate for lending operations of banks.
• Thus all categories of domestic rupee loans should be priced only with reference to the Base Rate, subject to the conditions mentioned in RBI circulars dated April 9, 2010 and January 19, 2015.
• The reason for introducing Base Rate was to bring out the transparency in bank lending rates as well as to improve monetary policy transmission.
• Since the Base Rate will be the minimum rate for all loans, banks are not permitted to resort to any lending below the Base Rate.

 

Additional Information

• Base Rate replaced the benchmark prime lending rate (BPLR) ,the interest rate which commercial banks charged their most credit worthy customer.
• Following the announcement in the Annual Policy Statement for the year 2009-10, a working group was constituted under the chairmanship of Shri Deepak Mohanty to review the benchmark prime lending rate.
• It was observed that the benchmark prime lending rate, which was introduced in 2003, had failed in its objective.
• The banks were lending below BPLR rates due to competitive pressures.
• For the same reason, it was also difficult to assess the transmission of policy rates of the Reserve Bank to lending rates of banks.
• Hence a need was felt for transition to a more transparent and effective interest rate mechanism.

The Correct Answer is "Third Buddhist Council – Pataliputra".

Important Points

• Six Buddhist Councils marked important turning points in the story of early Buddhism.
• This story spans the time from immediately after the death and Parinirvana of the historical Buddha in the 5th century BCE to sometime early in the first millennium CE.
• This is also the story of sectarian clashes and the eventual Great Schism that resulted in the two major schools, Theravada and Mahayana.
• In total, 6 Buddhist councils were convened.

The description of the six Buddhist councils has been given below:

First Buddhist Council :

• It was held soon after the Mahaparinirvan of the Buddha, around 483 BC under the patronage of King Ajatshatru.
• It was presided by Mahakasyapa, a monk. The council was held in the Sattapani cave at Rajgriha.
• The council was held with the purpose of preserving Buddha’s teachings (Sutta) and rules for disciples. During this council, the teachings of Buddha were divided into three Pitakas.
• The significance of the First Council is that 500 senior monks adopted the Vinaya-Pitaka and Sutta-Pitaka as the accurate teaching of the Buddha, to be remembered and kept by generations of nuns and monks to come.

 

Second Buddhist Council :

• The Second Buddhist Council was held at Vaisali (or Vaishali), an ancient city in what is now the state of Bihar in northern India, bordering Nepal under the patronage of King Kalasoka while it was presided by Sabakami.
• This Council probably was held about a century after the first one, or about 383 BCE.
• It was called to discuss monastic practices, in particular, whether monks could be allowed to handle money.

 

Third Buddhist Council :

• It was held in 250 BC at Pataliputra under the patronage of King Asoka.
• It was presided by Moggliputta Tissa. The third part of the Tripitaka was coded in the Pali language.
• This Council appears to have met to compose commentaries on the Tipitaka.

 

Fourth Buddhist Council :

• The fourth Buddhist council was held in 72 AD at Kundalvana, Kashmir.
• It was presided by Vasumitra, while Asvaghosa was his deputy.
• The council was held under the patronage of Kushan King Kanishka of the Kushan Empire.
• Buddhism was divided into two sects namely Mahayana and Hinayana.

 

Fifth Buddhist Council :

• The fifth Buddhist council was held in Mandalay**, Burma in the year 1871** under the patronage of King Mindon.
• It was presided by Jagarabhivamsa, Narindhabhidhaja and Sumangalasami.
• During this council, 729 stone slabs were engraved with Buddhist teachings.

 

Sixth Buddhist Council :

• The Sixth Buddhist Council was held in 1954 in Burma at Kaba Aye, Yangoon.
• It was held under the patronage of the Burmese government and it was presided by Prime Minister U Nu.
• The council commemorated 2500 years of Buddhism.

The Correct Answer is "Kanshi Ram".

Important Points

• Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP), a national political party in India, was formed in 1984.
• **The BSP states that it represents the people at the lowest levels of the Hindu social system—those officially designated as members of the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes—as well as other religious and **social minorities.
• The core support group of the BSP consists primarily of the Dalits (Scheduled Castes, formerly called untouchables).
• The party espouses no specific ideology, other than its opposition to and outspoken criticism of the inequalities of the caste system, and its main tenets are focused on respecting and upholding the constitutional rights of the lower members of Indian society.

Key Points

• Kanshi Ram (1934–2006), a Dalit and a civil service worker, was spurred into pro-Dalit activism in the 1960s after reading Ambedkar’s writings and through witnessing firsthand caste discrimination.
• Ram’s efforts to mobilize Dalits and other minorities led to his involvement in politics, in which he spent years crisscrossing Uttar Pradesh state and traveling throughout the country eliciting support for the cause.
• In 1984 he founded the party and led it until he was succeeded by Kumari Mayawati in 2003.
• Although Ram was responsible for building the support base for the party, Mayawati shaped and nurtured it into a powerful political force in Uttar Pradesh—India’s most populous state—and at the national level.
• The state long remained the BSP’s stronghold, and the party also has a presence in Punjab state.
• The first significant political success for the BSP came in 1993, when it entered into an alliance with the Samajwadi (Socialist) Party for the governance of Uttar Pradesh.
• In 1995, however, the BSP left the coalition, and Mayawati, with support from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), became chief minister (head of government) in the state.
• Her first term lasted less than five months until the BJP withdrew its support.
• In the next several years Mayawati served two more short stints as chief minister: 6 months in 1997 and another 15 months in 2002–03.

The Correct Answer is "Aedes mosquitoes".

Important Points

• The Zika virus was first discovered in the Zika forest in Uganda in 1947 in a rhesus monkey.
• And again in 1948, it was found in the mosquito Aedesafricanus, which is the forest relative of Aedesaegypti.
• The virus can be spread by both Aedesaegypti and Aedesalbopictus mosquitos.
• The virus has a lot in common with dengue and chikungunya.
• The three are originated from the same areas – West and Central Africa, and Southeast Asia and now they have expanded their range to much of the tropics and sub-tropics areas.
• The three are spread through the same species of mosquitoes.

 

Key Points

• The Zika virus, although, was first discovered almost 70 years ago, its outbreak started only in 2007.
• Initially, the outbreak occurred in Yap Island of Micronesia and six years later, it appeared in French Polynesia.
• Its outbreak occurred in Brazil in May 2015. By now, millions of people in tropical regions of the Americas might have been infected.
• Presently, the virus is known to be present in countries across Africa, the Americas, Asia, and the Pacific.
• The female mosquitoes pick up the virus from the blood when they bite people.
• The virus then travels from their gut through their circulatory system to their salivary glands.
• The virus is injected into others when the female mosquito bites them. The mosquitoes bite during the daytime only.

 

Additional Information

• The Indian government has issued guidelines on the disease and asked the NCDC (National Center For Disease Control) and the National Institute of Virology, Pune to take lead in studying the virus and finding the required diagnosis.
• The union health ministry has asked the states to control the growth of the Aedes mosquito, which is responsible for spreading deadly dengue and also Zika virus.
• Pregnant women are advised to either defer or cancel their travel to the affected countries.
• Travelers are asked to report to customs if they are returning from affected countries and suffering from febrile illness.
• Rapid Response Teams (RRTs) have been activated at central and state surveillance units with each team comprising an epidemiologist or public health specialist, a microbiologist, and a medical specialist.

The option figure which is embedded in the figure (X) when rotation is NOT allowed is shown below:

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

The logic is:

97 + 1³ = 98

98 + 23 = 106

106 + 33 = 133

133 + 43 = 197

197 + 53 = 322

Hence, '322' is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure series is shown below:

The figure at the extreme right end gets shifted to the extreme left end as we move along the series. So, the next image in the series will be option 1.

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

The logic is:

 → The circle and quadrilateral in Image 1 swapped their position in Image 2.

Similarly,

 → The outer images in Image 3 will swap their position in Image 4.

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

In the two different positions of the same dice the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6, we can clearly see that 3, 6, 2 and 4 are adjacent to 5, so the remaining face '1' is opposite to '5'.

Hence, '1' is the correct answer.

1. ÷ and –

Given expression: 86 + 5 - 42 ÷ 28 × 14 = 7

After replacing the symbols, we get:

L.H.S = 86 + 5 ÷ 42 - 28 × 14

= 86 + 0.12 - 392 

= 86.12 - 392 

=> -305.88 ≠ R.H.S

2. × and +

Given expression: 86 + 5 - 42 ÷ 28 × 14 = 7

After replacing the symbols, we get:

L.H.S = 86 × 5 - 42 ÷ 28 + 14

= 430 - 1.5 + 14

= 444 - 1.5

= 442.5 ≠ R.H.S

3. × and -

Given expression: 86 + 5 - 42 ÷ 28 × 14 = 7

After replacing the symbols, we get:

L.H.S = 86 + 5 × 42 ÷ 28 - 14

= 86 + 7.5 - 14

= 93.5 - 14

= 79.5 ≠ R.H.S

4. × and ÷ 

Given expression: 86 + 5 - 42 ÷ 28 × 14 = 7

After replacing the symbols, we get:

L.H.S = 86 + 5 - 42 × 28 ÷ 14

= 86 + 5 - 84

= 91 - 84

= 7 = R.H.S

Hence, '× and ÷ ' is the correct answer.

Interest = Rs. 4,160

Rate = 8%

Time = 1 year

Interest = (P × R × T) / 100

=> 4160 = (P × 8 × 1) / 100

=> 4160 × 100 = 8 × P

=> 416000 / 8 = P

=> P = 52,000

So, Ravindra borrowed Rs. 52,000 from his friend.

Hence, 'Rs. 52,000' is the correct answer.

Sides of polygons in each option is shown below:

Image 1 → 3 sides - 5 sides - 6 sides

Image 2 → 3 sides - 4 sides - 5 sides

Image 3 → 3 sides - 3 sides - 5 sides

Image 4 → 3 sides - 4 sides - 6 sides

We clearly observe that in all images except 'Image 3' the sides of polygons are increasing while in image 3, the sides of first two polygons are same.

Therefore, Image 3 is the odd one out.

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

Female sailors who are NOT illiterate is shown below:

Hence, '34' is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Brazil : South America → Brazil is a country in the continent of South America.

Similarly,

Sri Lanka : ? → Sri Lanka is a country in the continent of Asia.

Hence, 'Asia' is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Column 1: (25 + 14) × 2 + 14 = 92

Column 2: (52 + 16) × 2 + 16 = 152

Similarly,

Column 3: (40 + 15) × 2 + 15 = 125

Hence, '125' is the correct answer.

the correct mirror image of the figure when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' is shown below:

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

The logic is:

 → Image 2 is obtained when Image 1 is rotated in clockwise direction.

Similarly,

 → Image 4 is obtained when Image 3 is rotated in clockwise direction.

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

When the paper is folded to form a cube, the faces that will be opposite to each other is shown below:

Letter 'J' will be on the opposite face to the face having the letter 'F'.

Hence, 'J' is the correct answer.

The Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between Mothers, Sales Managers, and Males is shown below:

Some sales manager can be mothers.

Some sales manager can be males.

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

The logic is:

5573 : 20 → 5573 : (5 + 5 + 7 + 3)

Similarly,

8991 : ? → 8991 : (8 + 9 + 9 + 1)

=> ? = 27

Hence, '27' is the correct answer.

The logic is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'SERPDNO' is the correct answer.

The image that will come next in the following series is shown below:

The pattern followed is:

Number of lines in the middle of the image is decreasing as we move along the series.

So, Image 4 will have two lines.

The arrow in Image 1 and Image 3 are facing in opposite directions.

So, the arrow in Image 4 will be facing west, opposite to the direction of Image 2.

The square box in Image 1 and Image 3 is same. 

So, the square in Image 4 will be similar to Image 2.

Option 4 satisfies all the above conditions.

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

The option in which the given figure (X) is embedded when rotation is NOT allowed is shown below:

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Here the logic followed is:

First letter - 3 = Second letter, Second letter - 4 = Third letter

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

1. HEA → H - 3 = E; E - 4 = A

2. LIF → L - 3 = I; I - 3 = F

3. TQM → T - 3 = Q; Q - 4 = M

4. KHD → K - 3 = H; H - 4 = D

Hence, ‘LIF’ is the odd one out.

The logic is:

Hence, ‘445’ is the correct answer.

Image 1, 2 and 3 the pair of the images are mirror image of each other, while in Image 4, the pair is not mirror image of each other.

Hence, 'option 3' is the odd one out.

The paper when cut and unfolded will appear as shown below:

  

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

The option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the  figure to complete the pattern is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

The option figure that will complete the pattern in the figure given is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 3’ is the correct answer.

Given:

Length of rectangular plot is 15 m more than its breadth.

Rate of cost of fencing is Rs.16.50 per m.

Total cost of fencing is Rs.4,950.

Formula Used:

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(L + B)

Calculation:

Length of plot L = B + 15

Perimeter of plot = 2(L + B)

⇒ 2 {(B + 15 ) + B}

⇒ 2 (2B + 15)

⇒ 4B + 30

Now, the cost of fencing the plot at the rate of Rs.16.50 per m is Rs.4,950.

⇒ 16.50 × (4B + 30) = Rs.4,950

⇒ 66B + 495 = 4950

⇒ 66B = 4950 - 495

⇒ 66B = 4455

⇒ B = 4455/66 = 67.5

Length = B + 15 

⇒ 67.5 + 15 = 82.5 m

∴ Length of the rectangular plot = 82.5 m

Given:

Speed of first part of journey = 160 km/h

Speed of second part of journey = 240 km/h

Total distance = 3840 km

Total time = 20 hr.

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let time taken to travel in the first part = x hr.

Time taken to travel the second part = 20 - x hr.

Distance travelled in the first part = 160x

Distance travelled in the second part = 240(20 - x)

According to question:

Distance travelled in the first part = Distance travelled in the second part

⇒ 160x +  240(20 - x) = 3840

⇒ 160x + 4800 - 240x = 3840

⇒ - 80x = - 960

⇒ x = (-960)/(-80)

⇒ x = 12

Time taken in first half = x = 12 hr.

Time taken in second half = 20 - x = 20 - 12 = 8 hr.

∴ Time taken in second half = 8 hr.

Alternate Method 

5 = 20 Hrs

2 = 8 Hrs

First take the LCM of 12, 10 and 11.

The LCM is 660

Now, we can see that in each number there is a difference of 1.

⇒ 12 - 11 = 1

⇒ 10 - 9 = 1

⇒ 11 - 10 = 1

⇒ So, subtract the LCM by 1

⇒ 660 - 1 = 659

∴ The smallest number is 659.

Given:

A and B borrow equal sum of money for 3 years at the rate of 5% for SI and CI respectively

Difference between interest of A and B is 427

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T)/100

CI = P (1 + R/100)^t - P

Calculation:

SI of A = (P × 3 × 5)/100 = 3P/20    ____(i)

CI of B = P (1 + 5/100)³ - P 

⇒ P ×  $\frac{{21}}{{20}} × \frac{{21}}{{20}} × \frac{{21}}{{20}}$ - P

⇒ $\frac{{9261P}}{{8000}}$ - 1

⇒ 1261P/8000    ____(ii)

According to question,

⇒ $\frac{{1261P}}{{8000}} - \frac{{3P}}{{20}}$ = 427

⇒ 61P/8000 = 427

⇒ P = (427 × 8000)/61

⇒ P = Rs.56000

Interest Paid by B = 56000 (1 + 5/100)3 - P 

⇒ 56000 × $\frac{{21}}{{20}} × \frac{{21}}{{20}} × \frac{{21}}{{20}}$  - P

⇒ 56000 × (9261/8000) - P

⇒ 64827 - P

⇒ 64827 - 56000 = Rs.8827

∴ The sum borrowed is Rs.56,000 and interest paid by B is Rs.8827.

Given:

Brand A costing Rs. 15 per 100 g

Brand B costing Rs. 18 per 100 g

Sold the mixture at Rs. 20 per 100 g, making a profit of 20%

Formula used:

Profit% or Loss% = (Profit or Loss/Cost price) × 100

Calculation:

Let x gram of brand A and y gram of brand B is mixed.

For 100g brand A costs Rs. 15

For x g brand A will cost 15x/100

For 100g brand B costs Rs. 18

For y g brand B will cost 18x/100

So, the total cost price for (x + y) grams is

⇒ x + y = 15x/100 + 18y/100      ----(i)

Sold at Rs. 20 with 120% profit, Cost price will be

⇒ 100% = (20/120) × 100 = Rs. 100/6

Cost price for 100g is Rs. 100/6,

Now find cost price for (x + y) grams

⇒ x + y = (100/6) × {(x + y)/100}

⇒ x + y = (x + y)/6

Put value of equation(i)

⇒ 15x/100 + 18y/100 = (x + y)/6

⇒ 90x + 108y = 100x + 100y

⇒ 8y  = 10x

⇒ x/y = 8/10 = 4/5

∴ The ratio of the mixture of Brand A and B is 4 : 5

Sold at Rs. 20 with 120% profit, Cost price will be

⇒ 100% = (20/120) × 100 = Rs. 100/6

∴ The ratio of the mixture of Brand A and B is 4 : 5

Given:

The length of open cuboidal cistern is 1.6 m.

The breadth of open cuboidal cistern is 1.3 m.

The height of open cuboidal cistern is 53 cm.

The capacity of open cuboidal cistern is 900 litres.

The thickness of wall is 5 cm.

Formula Used:

Volume of Cuboidal  = length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

The length of open cuboidal cistern = 1.6 m = 160 cm

The thickness of wall is 5 cm.

The resultant length of open cuboidal cistern = 160 - 2 × 5 = 150 cm

The breadth of open cuboidal cistern = 1.3 m = 130 cm

The thickness of wall is 5 cm.

The resultant breadth of open cuboidal cistern = 130 - 2 × 5 = 120 cm

The height of open cuboidal cistern = 53 cm 

The thickness of bottom is x cm.

The resultant height of open cuboidal cistern = (53 - x) cm

The capacity of open cuboidal cistern = 900 litres = 900 × 1000 cm³

⇒ 150 × 120 × (53 - x) = 900 × 1000 

⇒ 180 × (53 - x) = 9 × 1000 

⇒ 20 × (53 - x) = 1 × 1000 

⇒ 53 - x = 50

⇒ x = 3

∴ The thickness of bottom is 3 cm.

Given:

A shopkeeper bought 1000 kg  of rice.

A part sold at a 10% profit.

A remaining part at a 20% loss.

A loss of 11% was incurred on the whole transaction. 

Calculation:

A part sold at a 10% profit.

A remaining part at a 20% loss.

A loss of 11% was incurred on the whole transaction.

 

 

The ratio of mixture = 9 : 21 = 3 : 7

A shopkeeper bought 1000 kg  of rice.

The quantity of rice that was sold at a 20% loss = 7/(3 + 7) × 1000 = 700 kg

∴ The quantity of rice that was sold at a 20% loss is 700 kg.

Given:

A's income is 35% more than B's income.

Concept Used:

Percentage = (A - B)/A × 100

Calculation:

Let the value of B be x.

Then, the value of A = (100 + 35)/100 × x = 1.35x

The percentage of B's income less than A's income = (1.35x - x)/1.35x × 100 = 25.92% ≈ 26%

∴ The percentage of B's income less than A's income is 26%.

Let the value of B be 100. 

Then, the value of A = (100 + 35)/100 × 100 = 135

The percentage of B's income less than A's income = (135 - 100)/135 × 100 = 25.92% ≈ 26%

∴ The percentage of B's income less than A's income is 26%.

Given:

A tank full of petrol in a motorcycle lasts for 30 days.

Concept Used:

Total capacity of tank = Petrol used per day × No. of days

Calculation:

Let the quantity of petrol used per day be x.

The capacity of tank = 30 × x = 30x

According to the question;

A  rider starts using 20% more petrol every day.

The new quantity of petrol used per day = 120/100 × x = 1.2x

Let the number of days be y.

The capacity of tank = 30x

⇒ 30x = 1.2x × y

⇒ 30/1.2 = y

⇒ y = 25

∴ The number of days the tank full of petrol last is 25 days.

  

The number of days = 30/(100 + 20) × 100 = 30/1.2 = 25

∴ The number of days the tank full of petrol last is 25 days.

Given:

A can do a piece of work in 45 days.

A works for 30 days.

B completes the remaining work in 5 days.

Concept Used:

Work done = 1/Time

Calculation:

A can do a piece of work in 45 days.

A's 1 days work = 1/45

A's 30 days work = 1/45 × 30 = 2/3

The remaining work = 1 - 2/3 = 1/3

B's complete 1/3th of work in 5 days

Then, B's 1 day work = 1/(3 × 5) = 1/15

B can complete the whole work = 15 days 

∴ B can complete the whole work is 15 days.

Given:

The average age of a family of 5 members 2 years ago was 18 years.

The average after a new member add to the family is 18 years.

Concept Used:

The average = Sum of the all numbers/Number of the numbers

Calculation:

The average age of a family of 5 members 2 years ago was 18 years.

The sum of age of all family member 2 years ago = 18 × 5 = 90 

The sum of age of all family member at present = 90 + 2 × 5 = 100

Let the age of new member be x.

The sum of age of a family of 6 member = 6 × 18 = 108

⇒ 100 + x = 108

⇒ x = 8 years

∴ The age of new member of family is 8 years.

Let the age of new member be x.

The sum of age of a family of 6 member = 6 × 18 = 108

⇒ 18 × 5 + 2 × 5 + x = 108

⇒ 90 + 10 + x = 108

⇒ x = 8 years

∴ The age of new member of family is 8 years.

Given:

The principal of each person is Rs.43892.

The first on SI at rate of 30% for 3 years.

The second on CI at rate of 30% for 3 years.

Formula Used:

SI = P × R × T/100

Amount = P[1 + R/100]ⁿ

CI = Amount - Principal

Calculation:

The principal of each person is Rs.43892.

The first on Simple Interest at rate of 30% for 3 years.

Simple Interest = 43892 × 30 × 3/100 = Rs.39502.8

The second on Compound Interest at rate of 30% for 3 years.

Amount = 43892[1 + 30/100]³

⇒ 43892 × 130/100 × 130/100 × 130/100

⇒ Rs.96430.72

Compound Interest = 96430.72 - 43892 ≈ Rs.52538

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest = Rs.13036

The percentage = 13036/52538 × 100 = 24.8%

∴ The percentage simple interest be less than the compound interest is 24.8%.

Given:

The sum of two numbers is 26.

The difference of two number is 14.

Calculation:

Let the larger number be x.

Let the smaller number be y.

According to the question;

The sum of two numbers is 26.

⇒ x + y = 26

⇒ x = 26 - y

The difference of two number is 14.

⇒ x - y = 14

⇒ 26 - y - y = 14

⇒ 26 - 14 = 2y

⇒ 12 = 2y

⇒ y = 6

The larger number x = 26 - 6 = 20

Three times the larger number is divided by the smaller number 

⇒ 20 × 3/6 = 10

∴ The quotient is 10.

Given:

The marked Price of an article is Rs. 5000.

Three successive discounts of 15%, 10% and 18%, are given on its marked price.

Formula Used:

Selling price = Marked price × (100 - Discount%)/100

Calculation:

The marked Price of an article is Rs. 5000.

The Selling Price = 5000 × (100 - 15)/100 × (100 - 10)/100 × (100 - 18)/100

⇒ 5000 × 85/100 × 90/100 × 82/100

⇒ Rs.3136.5

∴ The Selling price of the article is Rs.3136.5.

Given:

$\frac{{11}}{{12}},\frac{{13}}{{14}},\frac{{12}}{{13}},\frac{{15}}{{16}},\frac{{19}}{{20}}$

Calculation:

Prime factor of 12 = 1 × 2² × 3

Prime factor of 14 = 1 × 2 × 7

Prime factor of 13 = 1 × 13

Prime factor of 16 = 1 × 2⁴ 

Prime factor of 20 = 1 × 22 × 5

Now the least common multiple of (12, 14, 13, 16 and 20) = 2⁴ × 3 × 7 × 13 × 5

⇒ 16 × 3 × 7 × 13 × 5

⇒ 21,840 

Now multiply each given fraction with this LCM, we get

(11/12) × 21,840

⇒ 20,020 

(13/14) × 21,840

⇒ 20,280

(12/13) × 21,840

⇒ 20,160

(15/16) × 21,840

⇒ 20,475

(19/20) × 21,840

⇒ 20,748

Now we can see only a fraction (11/12) gives the smallest value in all fractions.

∴ The smallest fraction from all fractions is (11/12)

Alternate Method

Concept used:

If series like n/(n + 1), (n + 1)/(n + 2), (n + 2)/(n + 3) and so on

The first term in the series gives the smallest value and the last term in the series gives the maximum value.

Calculation:

The fractions are 11/12, 13/14, 12/13, 15/16, and 19/20

After arranging we get,

11/12, 12/13, 13/14, 15/16, and 19/20

⇒ 11/(11 + 1), (11 + 1)/(11 + 2), (11 + 2)/(11 + 3), (11 + 4)/(11 + 5) and (11 + 8)/(11 + 9)

So the smallest value is 11/(11 + 1)

⇒ 11/12

∴ The smallest fraction from all fractions is (11/12)   

For this type of problem, we must remember the table of each denominator and then we divide each numerator from the respective denominator.

Now 11/12 = 0.916

13/14 = 0.928

12/13 = 0.923

15/16 = 0.937

19/20 = 0.95

So we can see that only a fraction (11/12) gives the smallest value.

∴ The smallest fraction from all fractions is (11/12)

The correct answer is the Title bar.

Key Points

• Microsoft Excel consists of basic components like an Active cell, title bar Column headings, a Formula bar, a Name box, a mouse pointer, Row headings, Sheet tabs, a Taskbar, Tab scrolling buttons, and Toolbars.
• The title bar displays both the name of the application and the name of the spreadsheet.​

Additional Information

• A toolbar is just a collection of icons that provides a shortcut to using a drop-down menu.
• A quick access toolbar shows the options that are frequently used.
• The user can add favorite options by adding new options to the quick access toolbar.
• The Menu Bar at the top of the screen gives access to different commands that are used for tasks such as opening and closing files, printing documents, formatting data, and other operations.

​

The correct answer is Select the cell and press the F5 function key on the keyboard to edit the content of the cell.

• Select the cell and press the F5 function key on the keyboard to edit the content of the cell as FALSE with reference to cell editing in MS-Excel.
• F5 key displays the "Go-To" dialogue box.
• The Go-To box will list down the valid "named range" available in the opened excel workbook.
• Along with this, you can enter the reference of the cell where you want to go in the "Reference" text box.

Key Points

• Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet developed by Microsoft for Windows, macOS, Android and iOS.
• It features calculation, graphing tools, pivot tables, and a macro programming language called Visual Basic for Applications (VBA).

The correct answer is the Table properties.

• Table properties can be used to change the width of the columns in a table in MS- Word.

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Key Points

• The width of the columns can be adjusted by using the mouse.
• By clicking on the column dividing line and drag it one way or the other.
• Select the column whose width needs to be changed.
• Word displays two additional tabs on the ribbon: Table Design and Layout.
• Display the Layout tab of the ribbon.
• Click the Properties option in the Table group.
• Word displays the Table Properties dialogue box.
• The following Column tab is displayed:

• Using the Preferred Width control, set the column width as wanted.

The correct answer is a Carbon copy.

• The full form of 'CC', a field of E-mail header is a Carbon copy.

Key Points

• The meaning of Cc is that whose address appears after the Cc: header would receive a copy of the message and the Cc header would also appear inside the header of the received message.
• Cc is used for emailing individual or multiple contacts.
• In this header, the email addresses viewable by all.
• Bcc stands for blind carbon copy.
• Bcc is similar to that of Cc besides that the Email address of the recipients specified in the Bcc field does not appear in the received message header and the recipients in the To or Cc fields will not know that a copy sent to these address.
• It is also used for emailing individual or multiple contacts.
• The email addresses viewable only by the sender.
• BCC should be used when sending out marketing emails, newsletters, or other unsolicited emails.

The correct answer is Ctrl + click on a sentence to select it.

• Triple-click (Ctrl + click) on a sentence to select it is used to select a sentence in a paragraph in MS Word.

Mistake Points

• Double click can only select a single word but Ctrl+Click on a statement can select complete statement. Hence option 3 is correct and 4 is incorrect.

Key PointsShortcut in MS word for selection:

• To select the current word, double-click on it.
• To select the current paragraph, triple-click on the paragraph.
• To select a sentence and not just a line, hold down [Ctrl] and click once in any place within the sentence.
• To select a vertical block of text, click at the start of the block. Later, hold down the [Shift] key and click a second time at the opposite end of the block. This trick is used when only want to copy one column of a tabular list

Approach (to find the difference in the shortcut)

These can be easily understood if you do it practically on MS word as it has very minute differences which you need to see while performing and reading each point.

The correct answer is High cost.

• The high cost is NOT a feature of the internet.

Key Points

• Internet:
• Computers in an office are networked using LAN (Local Area Network).
• Computers in different locations are connected by WAN (Wide Area Network).
• Both these network systems are not for public use and have limited usage.
• The Internet is a network of thousands of networks.
• Millions of computer networks are connected to the Internet network and are available to the public.
• Internet was invented by the American Department of Defence in 1969.
• Internet today offers various features such as flexibility of communication, ease of accessibility, Ease of use and is also available at cheap and affordable rates (in terms of cyber cafe ,mobile packs ,wifi packs).

The correct answer is Text.

• The 'LEN' function in MS-Excel belongs to text.

Key Points

• LEN function in excel is taken from the length and is used to count the number of characters is there in a cell.
• It considers special characters, spaces and alphabets and counts all these values if there is a selected cell.
• LEN function only counts the character length for only one cell.
• Example to use LEN function:

​

   

Additional Information

• Financial functions in EXCEL are FV Function, IPMT, XIRR in Excel, PMT Function, IRR Excel Function, RATE Function, NPV Function, etc.
• Logical functions in EXCEL are AND Function, NOT, OR Excel Function, TRUE Function, IFERROR Excel Function, Excel XOR Function and Excel Lo
• Math functions in EXCEL are EVEN Excel Function, SUM Function, POWER Function, SUMIF and LOG Excel Function.

The correct answer is Page Layout.

• Page Setup options are usually available in Page Layout in MS- Word 2007.

Key Points

• The page setup is the parameters defined by the user that help determine how a printed page appears.
• These parameters can include everything from the size, margins, page orientation, and quality of the print.
• It's a tool that allows users to change and customize the size and layout of a single page or an entire document.
• 
• 

 

Additional Information

• Insert option is used to insert the picture, charts, filter, hyperlink etc.
• The Excel Home Tab is used to perform commands such as bold, underline, copy, and paste.
• It is also used to apply formats to cells in a worksheet.
• The review tab contains the editing feature, comments, track changes and workbook protection options.

The correct answer is Safari.

• Safari is not a search engine.

Key Points

• Safari is a browser for IOS. WebKit is the search engine used as a default search engine for Safari.
• IOS is used only in Apple phones.
• Search Engines:
• These are websites available on the Internet that provide information on any topic that you want.
• Search engines contain a programme that collects information from other websites.
• This information is then stored according to the category it belongs to, e.g., websites about music will be stored in a category named Fine Arts. Examples of popular search engines are Yahoo, Alta Vista and Google.

Additional Information

• Yahoo was founded by Jerry Yang, David Filo.
• Ask was founded by David Warthen, Garrett Gruener.
• Bing is a search engine operated under Microsoft.

The correct answer is Alignment.

• Alignment is NOT a character formatting option in Ms-Word. Microsoft Word provides for aligning text in paragraphs in four different ways – left alignment, right alignment, centre alignment and justified.

1. Ctrl + E Aligns the line or selected text to the center of the screen.
2. Ctrl + L - Aligns the line or selected text to the left of the screen.
3. Ctrl + R - Aligns the line or selected text to the right of the screen.
4. Ctrl + J - Aligns the selected text or line to justify the screen.

Key Points

• The alignment feature comes under paragraph formatting.
• It is used for aligning the paragraph in left, right, centre or justifies positions.
• Character formatting is defined as the one where changes apply to an individual or group of characters.
• The features involved in character formatting are:
• font, font style, size, font colour, underline, and effects like superscript and subscript.
• Font style: It is used to define the style of the characters both alphabets and numbers.
• Font-size: It is used to specify the size of the font.
• Font colour: It is used to specify the colour of the font.
• Underline: Underline is used to underline the important characters.
•